ACLS 2010
qustions
BLS - ‫שאלות‬
1. The 2010 guidelines added a 5th link in the
AHA ECC Adult Chain of Survival. This addition
was:
– a. rapid defibrillation
– b. integrated post-cardiac arrest care
– c. effective advanced life support
– d. early CPR with emphasis on chest compressions
2. (True or False) Chest compressions should be
stopped while the defibrillator is charging.
– True
– False
• 3. The BLS Survey focuses on:
– early CPR and early defibrillation
– early use of advanced airways and drugs
– rapid access to emergency services
– proper rhythm interpretation
4. Success of any resuscitation attempt is built
on:
– A. high quality CPR
– B. defibrillation when required by the patients
ECG rhythm
– C. neither A or B
– D. both A and B
5. The most important algorithm to know for
adult resuscitation is:
– A. Bradycardia
– B. PEA
– C. Tachycardia
– D. Cardiac Arrest
6. The systematic approach with a person in
cardiac arrest should include the BLS survey and
the ACLS survey?
– True
– False
7. While conducting the BLS Survey, you should
do all of the following except:
– A. check patient responsiveness
– B. active emergency response system
– C. open the airway
– D. get an AED
8. According to new 2010 Guidelines for CPR,
which of the following is in the correct order for
the patient with sudden cardiac arrest?
– A. open airway, provide ventilations, give 30
chest compressions, attach AED as soon as
possible
– B. give 30 compressions, open airway, provide
ventilation, attach AED as soon as possible
– C. open airway, check breathing, check pulse ,
attach AED as soon as possible
– D. none of the above
9. After providing a shock with an AED you
should:
– A. Start CPR, beginning with chest compressions
– B. check a pulse
– C. give a rescue breath
– D. let the AED reanalyze the rhythm
10. During CPR with no advanced airway in place
the compression-to-ventilation ratio is:
– A. 5:1
– B. 30:2
– C. 10:1
– D. 20:2
11. During CPR after an advanced airway is in
place, which of the following is true:
– A. The breaths should be synchronized with the
chest compressions.
– B. The goal is 20 or greater breaths per minute
– C. Chest compressions should be stopped while
giving breaths.
– D. One breath every 6 to 8 seconds should be
given
12. The most important intervention with
witnessed sudden cardiac arrest is:
– A. early defibrillation
– B. effective chest compressions
– C. early activation of EMS
– D. rapid use of resuscitation drugs
13. Typically, suctioning attempts in ACLS
situations should be:
– A. ten seconds or less
– B. 20 seconds or less
– C. 5 seconds or less
– D. no more than 30 seconds
• 3. When performing BLS/ACLS you should
avoid all of the following except:
– prolonged rhythm analysis
– frequent pulse checks
– taking too long to give rescue breaths to the
patient
– keeping the patients airway open
• 4. When checking for a carotid pulse during
CPR you should take no longer than
______seconds before restarting CPR
– Fifteen
– Ten
– Five
– twenty
• 5. Interruptions in chest compressions should
be limited to no longer than _____seconds.
– Twelve
– Five
– Ten
– Fifteen
• 10. Which of the following is true about chest
compressions:
– push hard and fast
– ensure full chest recoil
– minimize interruptions in chest compression
– all of the above
• 3. Which of the following is performed before
and/or during the BLS Survey:
– a. make sure the scene is safe
– b. activate EMS and get an AED if available
– c. tap the victim's shoulder and say "Are you
alright?“
– d. all of the above
• 5. Which of the following is the correct
sequence of steps for BLS according to the
2010 Guidelines?
– a. chest compressions, airway, breathing, early
defibrillation, if necessary
– b. airway, breathing, circulation, definitive care
– c. circulation, airway, breathing, differential
diagnosis
– d. access care early, begin CPR, check pulse, early
defibrillation, if necessary
• 8. Five cycles of CPR should take about
__________minutes.
–2
–3
–1
–4
2010 Guidlines
3. Which is now recommended for confirming
placement of the endotracheal tube after
intubation?
– a. exhaled carbon dioxide detector
– b. oxygen saturation monitor
– c. esophageal detector device
– d. continuous waveform capnography
• 9. During CPR with an advanced airway in
place the compression rate is:
– ≥ 80/min
– ≥ 60/min
– ≥ 100/min
– ≤90/min
• 1. Examples of advanced airway adjuncts
include all the following except:
– a. oropharyngeal airway
– b. laryngeal tube
– c. laryngeal mask airway
– d. combitube
– e. endotracheal tube
• 2. Which is not true about the oropharyngeal
airway(OPA):
– a. The OPA keeps the airway open during bagmask ventilation.
– b. The OPA can stimulate coughing and gagging.
– c. The OPA can prevent the patient from biting on
an ET tube.
– d. The OPA should only be used on a conscious
patient
• 7. During the ACLS Survey when assessing
(B)breathing, which of the following is correct
about supplementary oxygen delivery?
– a. Administer 100% oxygen for cardiac arrest
patients
– b. Other than cardiac arrest, administer oxygen to
maintain O2 saturation value o≥ 94% by pulse
oximetry
– c. both a and b are correct
– d. neither a and b are correct
• 8. During the (C) circulation portion of the ACLS
survey, the following actions are carried out:
– a. look, listen, and feel
– b. Obtain IV access, Attach ECG leads, monitor
rhythm, given medications to manage rhythm, give
IV/IO fluids if needed
– c. Obtain IV access, give supplemental oxygen, secure
the advanced airway, give IV/IO fluids if needed
– d. Check a pulse, monitor heart rhythm, begin CPR if
indicated
• 10. In the Final Portion of the ACLS survey, the
D stands for:
– a. defibrillation
– b. definitive care
– c. differential diagonosis
– d. discuss options
• 11. Which of the following best describes how
to select the proper size of an (OPA)
oropharyngeal airway?
– a. one size fits all
– b. the OPA should be the length of the patients
middle finger
– c. the OPA should be the length from the corner of
the mouth to the angle of the mandible.
– d. the OPA should be the length from the patients
nose to the ear lobe
Bradycardia
• 1. What is the drug of first choice for
symptomatic bradycardia?
– a. atropine
– b. lidocaine
– c. epinephrine
– . vasopressin
• 2. Which ECG rhythm is commonly associated
with bradycardia?
– a. PEA
– b. Mobitz II
– c. ventricular fibrillation
– d. sinus rhythm
• 3. What is generally considered the most
important and clinically significant degree of
block?
– a. type I (Mobitz I)
– b. type II (Mobitz II)
– c. third-degree AV block
– d. first-degree AV block
• 4. Which drugs are involved in the Bradycardia
Algorithm?
– a. atropine, epinephrine, dopamine
– b. atropine, norepinephrine, dopamine
– c. atropine, lidocaine, adenosine
– d. atropine, epinephrine, lidocaine
• 5. Bradyarrhythmia is defined as:
– a. any rhythm disorder with a heart rate less than
40 beats per minute
– b. any rhythm disorder with a heart rate less than
60 beats per minute
– c. any symptomatic rhythm disorder with a heart
rate less than 50 beats per minute
– d. any rhythm disorder with a heart rate less than
50 beats per minute
• 6. Symptomatic bradycardia exists
when_________.
– a. the heart rate is slow
– b. the patient has symptoms
– c. the symptoms are due to a slow heart rate
– d. all of the above are needed for symptomatic
bradycardia to exist.
• 7. Symptoms of bradycardia can include chest
discomfort or pain, shortness of breath,
decreased level of consciousness, weakness,
fatigue, lightheadedness, dizziness, and
presyncope or syncope.
– True
– False
• 8. Signs of symptomatic bradycardia include
hypotension, orthostatic hypotension,
diaphoresis, pulmonary congestion, frequent
PVC's or VT.
– True
– False
• . The primary decision point in the bradycardia
algorithm is the determination of:
– a. heart rate
– b. adequate perfusion
– c. blood pressure
– d. rhythm
• 10. After it is determined that the patient
does not have adequate perfusion your first
step is to:
– a. prepare for transcutaneous pacing
– b. observe and monitor the paitent
– c. give atropine while awaiting transcutaneous
pacer
– d. use defibrillator set at 200 J
Ventricular Fibrillation/Pulseless
Ventricular Tachycardia
• 1. The primary ACLS treatment for VF and
Pulseless VT is:
– Lidocaine
– high-energy unsynchronized shocks
– synchronized shocks
– epinephrine
• 2. Drugs used in the VF/Pulseless VT Algorithm
include:
– epinephrine, vasopressin, amiodarone, lidocaine,
and magnesium sulfate
– epinephrine, vasopressin, atropine, and
magnesium sulfate
– epinephrine, vasopressin, adenosine, betablockers, magnesium sulfate
– epinephrine, vasopressin, amiodarone, lidocaine,
and atropine
• 5. (True or False) According to the 2010-2011
Guidelines, chest compressions may be
continued while the defibrillator is charging.
– True
– False
• 6. For VF/pulseless VT how many shocks
should initially be given?
– 1 shock
– 3 stacked shocks
– none, shocks are not indicated
– it depends whether the rhythm is VF or VT
• 8. After the first shock in the Pulseless VF/VT
you should:
– give 1 mg epinephrine IV/IO
– immediately resume CPR
– check for a pulse
– check for a rhythm
• 10. If you do not know the effective biphasic
dose range for the defibrillator that you are
using, you should deliver a first shock and all
subsequent shocks for VF / pulseless VT at
_________.
– 120
– 200
– the lowest energy does that is available
– the maximal energy dose that is available
• 1. If VF is initially terminated by a shock but
recurs later in the resuscitation attempt you
should:
– shock at the previously successful energy level
– increase energy level 20J for subsequent shocks
– increase energy level to maximum dose that
defibrillator can deliver
– use medications to reverse VF
• 2. Select the sequence that is in the correct
order?
– give 3 stacked shocks, 5 cycles CPR, check rhythm,
give 1 shock, 5 cycles CPR, after 2nd shock give
1mg epinephrine IV push
– give 1 shock, 3 cycles CPR, check rhythm, give 1
shock, 3 cycles CPR, after 2nd shock give 1mg
epinephrine IV push
– give 1 shock, 5 cycles CPR, check rhythm, give 1
shock, 5 cycles CPR, check rhythm after 2nd shock
give 1mg epinephrine IV push
– give 1 shock, check rhythm, 5 cycles CPR, give 1
shock, check rhythm, 5 cycles CPR, after 2nd shock
give 1mg epinephrine IV push
• 3. You have given a patient the 1st shock and
CPR for 5 cycles, your next step is to
__________.
– check breathing
– give the patient epinephrine 1 mg IV
– check rhythm
– give a second shock
• 4. You have given a patient the 1st shock, CPR
for 5 cycles, and now they have an organized
rhythm. Your next step is to ___________.
– place the patient in rescue position
– start the patient on an antiarrhythmic drug
– search for possible causes of the VF/VT
– palpate for a pulse
• 5. The drug ___________ can be used as a
substitute for epinephrine for the first or
second dose during resuscitation.
– Vasopressin
– Adenosine
– Atropine
– Lidocaine
• 6. If during VF/VT after a shock, the rhythm
check reveals a __________ rhythm and
_______, you then should proceed with the
asystole/PEA pathway of the ACLS Pulseless
Arrest.
– ventricular, no pulse
– slow, weak pulse
– shockable, strong pulse
– nonshockable, no pulse
• 9. You have shocked the patient, given 5 cycles
of CPR and have done a rhythm check. Now,
the patient remains in VT with no pulse. What
should you do next:
– give the patient a second shock
– give the patient 1 mg epinephrine
– continue CPR for 5 cycles
– consider giving antiarrhythmics
• 1. The initial energy dose used during
defibrillation is dependent upon
____________.
– whether the patient has an internal pacemaker
– whether the arrest was witness or unwitnessed
– whether the defibrillator is monophasic or
biphasic
– none of the above
• 2. Prior to defibrillation which of the following
should be done?
– ensure all team members are clear
– charge the defibrillator
– minimize time delay between chest compressions
and shock delivery
– all of the above
• 3. Epinephrine hydrochloride is used during
resuscitation primarily for its alpha-adrenergic
effects. Alpha-adrenergic effects include:
– increase in coronary blood flow resulting from
vasoconstriction
– increased cerebral blood flow resulting from
vasodilation
– increased oxygenation resulting from
bronchoconstriction
– increased renal blood flow resulting from
vasoconstruction
• 4. (True or False)
Overall vasopressin effects have not been
shown to differ from epinephrine with regard
to ROSC (return of spontaneous circulation),
24 hour survival, or survival to hospital
discharge.
– True
– False
• 5. When treating pulseless VF/VT remember
to __________.
– ensure full chest recoil
– push hard and fast (100/min)
– search for treatable contributing factors (H and
T's)
– all of the above
• 6. The H's of treatable contributing factors
are:
– hypovolemia, hypoxia, hydrogen ion, hypo/hyperkalemia, hypothermia
– hypovolemia, hydrogen ion, hypo-/hyperkalemia,
hyperglycemia, hypothermia
– hypovolemia, hypoxia, hydrogen ion, hypo/hypercalcemia, hypoglycemia, hypothermia
– hemophilia, hypoxia, hydrogen ion, hypo/hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia
• 7. After the third shock in the pulseless VF/VT
algorithm with no change in rhythm/pulse,
you should __________.
– get a different defibrillator
– check for a pulse
– consider giving antiarrhythmic drugs
– consider giving a beta-blocker
• 8. Four important aspects to the Pulseless VF/VT
algorithm are:
– early defibrillation, effective CPR(hard and fast),
secure the airway, establish IV/IO access
– stacked shocks with defibrillation, minimize delay in
CPR, establish IV/IO access, avoid hyperventilation
– use only biphasic defibrillator, avoid hyperventilation,
establish IV/IO access, CPR immediately after shock
– early defibrillation, atropine after first shock, consider
antiarrhythmic use, establish IV/IO access
• 9. For the pulseless VF/VT algorithm, the
proper first dose of IV Amiodarone is
________.
– 150 mg
– 300 mg
– 200 mg
– 100 mg
• 10. A second dose of ________IV Amiodarone
can be given.
– 150 mg
– 300 mg
– 200 mg
– 100 mg
Tachycardia
• 1. A tachyarrhythmia is defined as "any
rhythm other than sinus tachycardia with a
rate greater than ______.“
– 60
– 100
– 80
– 150
• 2. (True or False)
• Unstable tachycardia exists when the heart
rate is too fast for the patient’s clinical
condition and the excessive heart rate causes
symptoms.
– True
– False
• 3. Symptoms that may be due to tachycardia
include all the following except:
– shortness of air
– facial droop
– altered mental status
– chest pain
• 4. Serious signs or symptoms of tachycardia
can include which of the following:
– Hypotension
– poor peripheral perfusion
– acutely altered mental status
– acute heart failure
– all of the above
• 5. Heart rates from _____to_____ (per
minute) usually are the result of an underlying
process (fever, anemia, blood loss, etc.) and
are generally sinus tachycardia.
– 90-150
– 100-130
– 150-200
– none of the above
• 7. The decision point for performing
immediate synchronized cardioversion is:
– The patient is unstable and no other reversible
causes are identified
– The patient's heart rate is greater than 150
– Advised by expert consultation
– Adenosine does not convert the patient's rhythm
• 8. Tachyarrhythmias respond to cardioversion.
Sinus tachycardia will not respond to
cardioversion. What will often occur if a shock
is delivered with sinus tachycardia?
– heart rate decreases
– Asystole
– heart rate increases
– ventricular fibrillation
• 9. Which of the following would be considered
a tachyarrhythmia if the ventricular rate is
greater than 100 ?
– atrial flutter
– atrial fibrillation
– supraventricular tachycardia
– all of the above
• 10. (True or False)
When performing synchronized electrical
cardioversion on a patient, the shock will
occur at the exact time that you press the
"deliver shock button.“
– True
– False
• 1. Which of the following is not an
appropriate initial intervention when
addressing tachycardia with a pulse?
– give oxygen (if hypoxemic)
– monitor ECG, blood pressure, and oximetry
– identify and treat reversible causes
– attempt vagal maneuvers
• 2. True or False Tachycardia rates less than 150
per minute usually do not cause serious signs
or symptoms.
– True
– False
• 3. Which of the following are key questions
that should be addressed during
the assessment and management of a patient
with tachycardia?
– Are symptoms present or absent?
– Is the patient stable?
– Is the QRS narrow or wide?
– Is the rhythm regular or irregular?
– All of the above
• 4. True or False With tachycardia, if a patient is
seriously ill or has significant underlying heart
disease or other conditions, symptoms may be
present at a lower heart rate?
– True
– False
• 5. If a tachyarrhythmia is causing a patient to
become unstable what is the most important
intervention?
– Cardioversion
– IV fluids
– expert consultation
– antiarrhythmic medications
• 6. True or False Unstable Monomorphic VT
and Polymorphic VT (with a pulse) are treated
with the same interventions?
– True
– False
• 7. Which is the correct treatment for unstable
polymorphic VT?
– treat as VF with high-energy unsynchronized
shocks
– treat with 3 stacked shocks
– treat with medications only
– treat with synchronized cardioversion and an
initial shock of 100 J
• 8. Which is the correct treatment of unstable
monomorphic VT with a pulse ?
– treat as VF with high-energy unsynchronized
shocks
– treat with 3 stacked shocks
– treat with medications only
– treat with synchronized cardioversion and an
initial shock of 100 J
• 9. If there is any doubt about whether an
unstable patient has monomorphic or
polymorphic VT what should you do?
– treat with high-energy unsynchronized shocks
– treat with 3 stacked shocks
– treat with medications only
– treat with synchronized cardioversion and an
initial shock of 100 J
• 10. If the patient is unstable with a narrowcomplex SVT what IV medication can be given
as you prepare for immediate synchronized
cardioversion? (not shown in unstable
pathway but can be given)
– amiodarone 150 mg IV
– adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push
– atropine 1 mg IV
– epinephrine 1 mg IV
• 1. Which is the correct definition of
unsynchronized shock ?
– The electrical shock is delivered as soon as the
operator pushes the SHOCK button to discharge
the machine. The shock can fall randomly
anywhere within the cardiac cycle.
– The electrical shock is delivered with a peak of the
R wave in the QRS Complex thus avoiding the
delivery of a shock during cardiac repolarization (twave)
• 2. (True or False)
Synchronized cardioversion uses a higher
energy level than used with unsynchronized
cardioversion (defibrillation).
– True
– False
• 3. Low-energy shocks are always delivered
synchronized due to the fact that low energy
shocks have the potential to produce which
rhythm if delivered unsynchronized?
– VT
– Asystole
– VF
– atrial flutter
• 4. Which of the following cases is
unsynchronized shock NOT advised?
– for the patient who is pulseless
– for a patient who is unstable with polymorphic VT
– for a patient who has unstable tachycardia with a
pulse
– for the patient who is unstable and you are unsure
what type of VT exists
• 5. According to the new 2010 ACLS Guidelines,
how many doses of adenosine rapid IV push
can be give with the tachycardia algorithm?
–2
–3
–4
–5
• 6. (True or False)
Two interventions that can be performed for a
regular narrow-complex tachyarrhythmias are
vagal maneuvers and adenosine
administration?
– True
– False
• 7. Adenosine can be given 2 times to attempt
conversion of tachyarrhythmia. What is the
recommended dosing schedule?
– 12 mg, if no conversion 6 mg
– 12 mg, if no conversion 12 mg
– 6 mg, if no conversion 12 mg
– 6 mg, if no conversion 6 mg
• 8. (True or False)
Cardioversion is contraindicated
for SINUS tachycardia because the increased
heart rate is being caused by an external
influence such as fever, blood loss, or exercise.
– True
– False
• 9. (True or False)
With sinus tachycardia the goal is to identify
and treat the underlying systemic causes.
– True
– False
• Adenosine can now be considered for the
diagnosis and treatment of stable
undifferentiated wide-complex tachycardia
when the rhythm is regular and the QRS
waveform is monomorphic.
– True
– False
Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)
• 1. Immediate assessments and actions for a
patient presenting with symptoms suggestive
of ACS include:
– a. oxygen
– b. aspirin
– c. nitroglycerin
– d. morphine
– e. 12-lead ECG
– f. all of the above
• 3. What is the primary focus of treatment of a
patient with ACS?
– a. Early reperfusion of the STEMI patient
– b. Early hospital arrival
– c. Early use of medications to prevent plaque
formation
– d. Assessing family history of coronary artery
disease
• 4. Which rhythms is most commonly caused
by acute myocardial ischemia and is the
leading cause of sudden cardiac death?
– a. VT
– b. Bradycardia
– c. SVT
– d. VF
• 5. Reperfusion therapy may involve which of
the following:
– a. PCI (percutaneous coronary intervention)
– b. fibrinolytic therapy
– c. heparin
– d. both a and b
– e. all of the above
• 6. Which of the following drugs are used in
the initial treatment of ACS (acute coronary
syndrome)?
– a. aspirin, morphine, nitroglycerine
– b. heparin, metoprolol, aspirin
– c. aspirin, fibrinolytics, ACE inhibitors
– d. simvastatin, labetalol, oxygen
• 8. What is the most common symptom of
myocardial ischemia and infarction?
– a. discomfort in the retrosternal chest
– b. radiating left arm pain
– c. jaw pain
– d. discomfort in the upper back between the
shoulder blades
• 9. Other life-threatening conditions that may
cause acute chest discomfort are:
– a. aortic dissection, acute PE
– b. acute pericardial effusion with tamponade
– c. tension pneumothroax
– d. all of the above
• 2. What rhythm is most likely to develop in the
first 4 hours after onset of acute coronary
syndrome?
– a. VT
– b. VF
– c. atrial flutter
– d. PEA
• 3. Nitroglycerine should be administered if the
patient's systolic blood pressure remains
>(greater than) ________ and the heart rate is
50-100/min.
– a. 100
– b. 80
– c. 90
– d. 120
• 4. Which pain medication is indicated in STEMI
when chest discomfort is unresponsive to
nitrates?
– a. Motrin
– b. morphine
– c. dilaudid
– d. hydrocodone
• 5. (True or False) For the patient with acute
coronary syndrome, use of Non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is
contraindicated (excpet for aspirin) and should
be discontinued.
– True
– False
• 7. One of the goals of reperfusion therapy is to
perform PCI (percutaneous coronary
intervention) within ________ minutes of
arrival in the ED.
– a. 30 minutes
– b. 60 minutes
– c. 90 minutes
– d. 120 minutes
• 8. What is the major contraindication to
aspirin administration?
– a. true aspirin allergy
– b. recent GI bleed
– c. hypotension
– d. fever >100 F (37.7 C)
– e. all of the above
– f. both a and b
• What is the recommended dosage of oral
aspirin to be given within the ACS protocol?
– 300 mg
– 160-325 mg
– 80-120 mg
– 120-200 mg
• 1. Which item(s) below can be used to identify
a STEMI?
– a. retrosternal chest pain
– b. 12-lead EKG
– c. troponin
– d. all of the above
• 2. One goal of reperfusion therapy is to give
fibrinolytics within _______minutes of arrival.
– a. 60
– b. 20
– c. 30
– d. 90
• 3. (True or False) Morphine is recommended
for patients suspected of having ischemic
chest discomfort that does not respond to
nitrates.
– True
– False
• 4. (True or False) Consultation with a
cardiologist should take place before
treatment of STEMI.
– True
– False
• 5. Patients with suspected ACS should have
oxygen administered if the patient is
___________.
– a. dyspenic
– b. hypoxemic
– c. oxyhemaglobin saturation is < 94%
– d. any of the above
• 6. The 4 agents that are routinely
recommended for consideration in patients
with ischemic-type chest discomfort are:
– a. aspirin, nitroglycerin, morphine, and oxygen if
hypoxemic (o2<94%)
– b. motrin, morphine, nitroglycerine, and oxygen if
hypoxemic (o2<94%)
– c. aspirin, nitroglycerin, dilaudid, and metoprolol
– d. epinephrine, dopamine, morphine, and oxygen
if hypoxemic (o2<94%)
• 7. What is the major contraindication to the
administration of nitroglycerine and
morphine?
– a. recent bleeding
– b. changes in level of consciousness
– c. chest pain
– d. hypotension
• 8. For cases in which fibrinolytics are
contraindicated, what intervention should be
performed?
– a. heparin therapy
– b. PCI (percutaneous coronary intervention)
– c. bypass surgery
– d. observation
• 9. (True or False) routine use of IV
nitroglycerine is not indicated for STEMI and
has not been shown to significantly reduce
mortality in STEMI.
– True
– False
• Which is a contraindication for the use of
nitroglycerin in the ACS protocol?
– a. right ventricular infarction
– b. hypotension
– c. recent phosphodiesterase inhibitor use
– d. all of the above
PEA / Asystole
• The H’s include:
– Hypovolemia, Hypoxia, Hydrogen ion
(acidosis), Hyper/hypokalemia, Hypoglycemia, Hypothermia.
• The T’s include:
– Toxins, Tamponade(cardiac),Tension
pneumothorax, Thrombosis (coronary and
pulmonary), andTrauma.
• 1. Some clues for PEA caused by acidosis
(hydrogen ion) would be all of the below
except:
– recent trauma
– history of diabetes
– renal failure
– smaller-amplitude QRS complexes
• 2. Recommended treatment to reverse PEA
caused by acidosis is:
– a. adequate ventilation
– b. sodium bicarbonate
– c. normal saline bolus
– d. both a and b
• 3. PEA caused by HYPERkalemia may present
with which of the following rhythm changes?
– narrow QRS complex, smaller P-waves, and Twaves taller and peaked
– wide QRS complex, taller P-waves, and T-waves
taller and peaked
– wide QRS complex, smaller P-waves, and T-waves
taller and peaked
– narrow QRS complex, smaller P-waves, and Twaves smaller and rounded
Hyperkalemia ecg •
• 4. Patients that you might more commonly
see with PEA caused by HYPERkalemia are all
the followingexcept which one?
– renal failure
– Diabetes
– Elderly
– dialysis recipient
• 5. Reversing HYPERkalemia is done using
which of the following medications?
– sodium bicarbonate
– glucose and insulin
– Albuterol
– any of the above
• 6. PEA caused by HYPOkalemia may present
with which if the following symptoms?
– flattened T-waves, prominent U waves, wide QRS,
prolonged QT
– peaked T-waves, prominent U waves, narrow QRS,
prolonged QT
– flattened T-waves, prominent U waves, narrow
QRS, shortened QT
– peaked T-waves, non-visible U waves, wide QRS,
prolonged QT
• 7. Patients that you might more commonly
see with PEA caused by HYPOkalemia are:
– diabetic patients
– patients using diuretics
– patients with chest pain
– all of the above
• 8. Life threatening hypokalemia is uncommon
but can occur in the setting of gastrointestinal
and renal losses and is associated with
hypomagnesemia. Treatment with magnesium
may help during cardiac arrest.
– True
– False
• 9. The “T” that represents drug overdose and
chemical exposure among frequent causes of
PEA stands for:
– Thrombosis
– tension pneumothroax
– Tamponade
– toxins
• 10. A clue that PEA could be caused by drug
overdose “Toxins” is:
– narrow QRS complex
– prolonged QT interval
– Tachycardia
– tracheal deviation