1
DGCA Question Bank
2.Navigation General
2.1 Air Navigation- Shape of the earth,its axis and poles. Great
circles. Equator, Meridians, Parallels of latitude, Prime
meridian,Standard meridians. Difference of latitude, Difference
of longitude. Position expressed in terms of latitude and
longitude. Bearing and distance.
2.2 The Direction, Magnetic Direction, Compass Direction,
Variation, Deviation. Conversion of one to another.
Q1 Hdg 055(M) Var 5E Dev 3W. What is the TMG?
May96,Feb97,Aug97
Q2 Hdg 358(C) Var 3W Dev 3E. Find Hdg(M),Hdg(T). Aug97,Feb98,Aug99.
Q3 Hdg 358C,Dev 4E, Var 3W. Find Hdg Magnetic and Hdg True. Aug00.
Q4 CDMVT problem. Feb02.
2.3 Nautical mile,Kilometer, IAS, CAS/RAS, EAS, TAS, MACH NUMBER,
KGS and lbs.
Q.1 Length of a nm at pole is------------.
Feb96,Aug96,
Q.2 Statute mile is------ft and nm is ------ft.
Nov98
Q.3 Equator to either pole is -(a)5400nm (b)10000km (c) Average
distance between equator and pole.---------.
Nov98
2.4 Track, Heading, Bearing, Radial, Ground speed, Wind
velocity,Triangle of velocities.
Q1 If the W/V is at right angles to the Track(a) TAS> G/S (b) TAS< G/S (c) TAS= G/S
Q2 True Hdg to True Tr(a) Add dev and var
(b) Starboard drift added
(c) Port drift added
Feb96
Feb96
2
Q3 F70 Temp +10 0
and G/S.
C Tr 210(T) W/V 320/20 TAS 140K. Find drift
Feb96
Q4 Given G/S, TR, Hdg and TAS. Find W/V.
Feb98,Feb99,Feb02.
Q5 •descending •from •7000ft •to 3500ft. TAS, W/V and ROD given. •
Find time and distance covered. Feb02
2.5 Definition of Position Line and information available from
Single P/L. P/Ls derived from Radio and Radar observations in
flight. Pinpoint, Fix, Air position, DR position.
2.6 Local, Zone, Greenwich and Standard Time, IDL, IST, UTC.
Q1 Sidereal Day compared to Mean Solar Day is(a) Shorter (b) Longer (c) Equal
Feb96,Aug96,Feb97,Aug97
Q2 GMT 100232. Find LMT at 4712E
Feb96
Q3 Find LMT at 80N 176E, given LMT at 80N 176W on 21 Aug.
3
May96,Aug96,Feb00.
Q4 A/C travels on 30N parallel of latitude from 100E to 70E. Flying time
2hrs. How much is the LMT change.
Aug96
Q5 LMT of departure from A (OON 175E)is 0700,G/S300K,TR 090(T). LMT of
another a/c departure from B (15N 165W) is 0700,Tr180. Find the GMT of
interception and G/S of a/c from B.
Feb97
Q6 LMT at 175E is given. For LMT at 175W, a day is to be(a) Added (b) Subtracted (c) None. Aug97Feb00.
Q7 A/C is going from E to W, crossing IDL(a) Date inc & LMT dec (b) Date inc & LMT inc (c) Date dec &
LMT inc (d) Date dec & LMT dec. Aug97,Aug99,Aug00.
Q8 Mark the correct statement:
(a) ASD=MSD (b) MSD=SD (c) SD=ASD. Aug97,Aug99,Aug00,Feb02.
Q9 The a/c at A 167 0 27`E flies to B 142 0 20`W. LMT at A is 2015 on 21Nov.
Flight time is 10h40m. What is the LMT at B on reaching. Feb 98
Q10 •LMT •at •60N30E •is •0654. •LMT •and •UTC at 56N29E is------•
.Nov98,Feb02.
Q11 A flight of 1161nm is made on Tr 270(T) along the parallel of 49N. If
the LMT of arrival at the destination is same as LMT of departure,
what is the flight time.
May99,Feb00.
Q12 •Flying from A to B on same Lat. G/S and ZT given. Find Mid-•
zone Time.
(Qu not clear) Feb02.
2.7 Rising and Setting of Heavenly bodies: S/R, S/S, Moonrise & Moonset,
Twilight. Finding the time of the above in UTC & IST using air
almanac.
Q1 In air almanac the time for S/R,S/S,Moonrise & Moonset is(a) LMT of the country
4
(b) LMT of
0
meridian.
Feb96,Nov98,Feb02.
Q2 Nautical twilight, Sun at degrees(a) 1 to 6 (b) 6 to 12 (c) 12 to 18
Aug96,Feb97,Aug97,Aug99,Feb00,Aug00.
Q3 How many times in a year is the Sun overhead at Delhi
Q4 Perihelion is when Sun is at-----------
Aug96
Nov97
Q5 Apehelion is when Sun at-------------Nov98
2.8 MAP Reading Technique /Flight Planning
Weight Calculations
Q1 A flight is to made from x to y Dist 1525 nm
Following data are given:
A/C G/S 250 k; M TOW 91200 kg; FC 1875 litres/hr (sg 0.8)
Wt- no fuel, no pay load 64500 kg; MLW 80200 kg
Reserve Fuel 7500 kg
MZFW 74100 kg
Calculate the max permissible TOW & pay load if 1500 kg extra fuel is
consumed due to a/c performance.
Solution
1525
Dist 1525 G/S 250K. Flt time = ------ = 6.1 h
250
Fuel used 6.1x1875 = 11437.5 litres x 0.8 (sg)
= 9150 kg
BOF
9150+1500 = 10650 kg
FOB
9150+7500 = 16650 kg
MTOW
MLW 80200
MZFW 74100 I Basic wt
91200
BOF 10650
FOB 16650 I
64500
------------------------------------------------- I BOF
91200
90850
90750 I +10650
I Pay load
Max Per TOW
90750 kg
Ans.
I +15600
I =90750
5
Pay load at the beginning of the flight=15600+1500 = 17100Kgs
Q2 Weight calculations. (APS and MZFW not given- incomplete qu.) Feb02.
2.9 Pilot Navigation
One to Sixty Rule: Estimation of x-wind and h/w components. Est of TAS,
Alteration of heading to regain track, Revision of ETAs, Est of range by
change of bearing, Tracking Out, Tracking In.
Q1 Flying 5 nms parallel track to the left. Final closing angle at 30 nm
May 96.
Q2 Aircraft flying from A to B dist 135 nm. After 90 nm ADF reads 170
find angle to turn to converge (a) 30 0 port (c) 15 0 stbd.
(a) 15 0 port
Aug 96, Aug 97, Nov 97.
Q3 Change of Bearing: estimation of time and distance. Aug 96, Feb 97.
Bearing changes 10 0 in 2 mts. What is the time to stn. Aug
97,Feb00.
Q4 Change in wing tip bearing & time given find time to stn Nov 97
Q5 The distance between A&B is 800 nm. The aircraft at G/S
480K is asked to delay its flight from B to a by 8 mts. To compensate this at
what distance should the a/c reduce its speed to 360K & at what time.
Q6 Dist off-track and drift is given. Find TE Nov 98.
Q7 Wing tip bearing changes by 5ºin 105 mts if G/S is 95k, Find
distance to stn ......... May 99,Feb02.
Q8 Wing tip bearing changes by 18º in 2.5 mt G/S 150K. Find distance
and fuel consumed if fc is 11.2. gal/h.
Q8A Change of bearing observed is 260 to 270 in 2.5 mins. Time to
station is (a)15min (b) 7.5min (c) 10 min. Aug00,Feb02.
Q9 In a right DME arc, you are experiencing right cross wind.
The needle will indicate (a) At the wing tip (b) Ahead of the
wing tip (c) Behind the wing tip
Jul99,Nov99,
Feb00.
Q10 In a DME arc the needle points to (a) the wing tip (b)
6
ahead of the wing tip (c) behind the wing tip
Jul99, Feb00
Q11 Hdg, TAS and W/V given. Find ROD> Feb02.
Q12 Question on Doubling the Angle at the Bow. Feb02.
2.10. Aeronautical Charts: Requirement of an ideal Map. Methods of
expressing relief. Map Scales.
Q1 In which projection angles are correct. May 96.
Q2 An aircraft has to hold on VOR radial 120 from heading 041. What is
the entry procedure (Direct on std held) Nov 97, Feb 98.
Q3 What is orthomorphism
Feb 98.
Q4 An ideal chart is one in which
a) Scale is correct over long distance etc Feb 98.
Q5 Conversion angle is 1/2 the product of Sin mean lat and ch. long Feb 98
Q6 Convergence is
Aug 98
Q7 What is convergency at equator
Feb 99
2.11. Mercator Projection: Principle of projection. Appearance of
graticules. Properties and uses.
Q1 Posn 10E 50N. Moves 270 nm to west. What is the new position.
May 96.
Q2 Scale variation along parallels in Mercator is ....... May 96
Q3 Mercator scale expansion ........ Aug 96.
Q4 Meridian and parallel spacing. Aug 96, Feb 97, Aug 97
Q5 Dist of 1ºCh long away from equator increases/decreases @ of .......
Feb 97.
Q6 As you go away from equator distance contracts at the rate of .......
Aug 97.
Q7 On a mercator chart - (a) parallels of latitude are parallel and
7
distance between them increases at a constant rate. Meridians are parallel and
& equidistant.
Aug 97.
Q8 Mercator chart is one is which
a) Rh/l & G/C are st lines and it is orthomorphic
b) G/C is st line and convergency is shown
c) Rh/l is st line, G/C curved line & it is Orthomorphic.
Feb 98.
Q.9. Transverse Mercator is ideal for country which has a large
N-S spread.
Aug 98, Feb 99.
Q10 On Mercator chart (a) G/C is st line (b) G/C is curved convex to the
nearer pole (c) Rh/l is curved convex to the nearer pole. Nov98.
Q11 On Mercator, convergency is correct OR it is same as on
earth at (a) Pole (b) equator (c) at parallel of origin.
Aug00,Feb02.
Q12 On a Mercator scale is correct at (a) Equator (b)45N.
Feb00,Feb02.
2.12 Lamberts Projection: Appearance of graticle. Properties and uses.
Q1 Stn 42N 86 W, DR Posn 42N 80W, QDM 173, Var 6E, Conv 4º. BTP in
(a) Mercators (b) Lamberts.
May 96.
Q2 Convergency is correct in Lamberts at .........?
May 96
Q3 Lamberts scale correct at ........Aug 96. Feb 97, Aug 97.
Q4 In Lamberts, standard paralles are ........ Feb 98.
Q5 On Lamberts (a) G/C is curved concave to nearer pole
(b) G/C is convex to nearer pole (c) G/C is convex to the std parallel
(d) G/C is straight line.
Nov 98.
Q6 On Lamberts conformal, the scale is minimum OR least at
(a) Poles(b) Equator(c) Standard Parallel(d)Parallel of
Origin.
Aug99,Nov99,Feb00,Aug00,Feb02.
Q7 On Lamberts the scale is max at
. Feb02.
2.13 IMPP: Principle of projection. Appearance of graticle. Properties
and uses.
8
Q1 Which projection has bounding parallels as standard parallel.
Feb 96.
Q2 Standard meridians are (a) All meridians (b) Central meridian
(c) Meridians two degrees on either side of the central meridian.
2.14. The Gnomonic projection (Polar and Equatorial): Appearance aof
graticule, general properties and uses.
Q1 Which projection has G/C as straight line (a)Mercator (b)
Polar stereographic (c) Gnomonic
2.15. The stereographic projection (Polar Case): Appearance of graticle,
general properties and uses.
3.5 CP & PNR + Relative Motion
Q1 What happens to CP if TAS is reduced with h/w condition - Feb 96,
Feb 98
Q2 CP problem W/V given upto CP and different beyond CP - Feb 96
Q2A Normal CP problem. Feb02.
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Q3 When is CP & PNR same. May 96
Q4 PNR 500 nm with 30 k of h/w. If actually tail wind is found in
flight PNR will be (a) 500 nm (b) less (c) more.
May96,Feb97,Aug97,Feb98,May98,Aug00.
Q5 Given MTOW, BOW, TASN, FCN, FCR, H/W comp, Reserve fuel and distance
between A to B. Find (a) Max pay load.
Q6 Wind at 90 0
to track PNR more/same/equal. Feb 97.
Q7 A/c 'A' leave 30N 175W at 390k G/S. A/C 'B'leaves same place after 10
mts at G/S 450k. Find.
i) When will 'A' be 5 nm behind A
ii) When will 'B' 5 mts ahead of A
Q8 An A/c flies from X to Y. TAS 180k w/v 230/30 Tr 095 FOB 1500 lbs Dist
to CP 485 nm. Calculate
i) Dist between X & Y
ii) If PNR is reached 25 mts after CP calculate the fuel consumption.
iii) What excess fuel is carried than required. Aug 97.
Q9 If during flights it is noticed that a/c is flying faster stages, what
effect does it have on CP. Feb 98, May 99.
Q10 CP Multileg
Tr Dist
W/C
Full TAS
A-B
-15
B-C
+15
C-D
+25
Find dist & time to CP
(Feb 98)
Red TAS
Q11 Flying from A to X via Y. Find dist & time to PNR given.
Tr
W/c
Dist
TAS
Red TAS
A-X
086
090/30 565
210
160
X-Y
325
110/25 690
210
160
FOB 3800 lbs, FC N = 850 lbs/hr FC R = 650 lbs/hr. Aug 98.
Q12 If TAS is reduced and h/w condition exists, the CP distance will (i)
Reduce (ii) Remain Same (iii) Increase Nov 98, May 99
Q13 You are on flight from X to Z via Y. Route details are
Tr
Dist W/V
10
X-Y 240
400 230/45 Normal TAS 235 Fc 1350 lbs/
Y-Z 270
610 180/20 Red TAS 200 K FC R 1125
FOB 7500 lbs. Reserve 20% of FOB
Calculate the time & dist to PNR where a/c return to Y with reduced
speed.
Feb,99
Q14 An A/C is on a flight from A to B dist 1151 nm.
TAS 180K FC(Nor) 840 lbs/hr TAS R 140K FC Red 550 lbs/hr.
FOB 5000lbs lbs, Tr 140 W/V 230/20. Calculate CP & PNR. May 99.
Q15 To calculate CP time & dist. All
a) distance calculations are on Red TAS only.
May 99
Q16 On a route of 750 nm, PNR is 500 nm with endurance of 5 hrs. There is
a h/w of 50 k. While flying it is found that there is tail wind
of 30K. The PNR is at
(a) Less than 500nm (b) More than 500 nm
(c) 500nm (d) 800nm
Aug. 99.
(Effect is that of wind component is reduced. Nil wind condition PNR is maximum)
Q17 Dist to CP is 385nm. If PNR is 40mts beyond CP and Tr 065, W/V
090/30, TAS 210k, FC 190 litres/hr, find
a) Total dist between A & B b) Calculate excess fuel carried at
distination
c) SAR (ie. TAS x total endurance)
Aug 99.
Q18 How do calculate CP & PNR on engine failure and which TAS is
used, Reduced or full
Nov99
Q19 Track 075(T),W/V 120/20kts,TAS 215K, Dist to CP 468nm and PNR is
40mts ahead of CP. Calculate (a) Total dist (b) Dist to PNR (c)
SAR (d)Fuel on board.
Aug00.
Q20 Given FOB, FCout, FChome, TAS and Head/Tail wind component.
Calculate distance to PNR Feb02.
3.7 Instrument Procedure charts for Departure, descent and approach
Enroute Navigational charts.
Q1 Segment of Track in Jappesen chart is part of G/C
Feb 96.
Q2 MOCA VOR range (a) 22nm (b) 25nm (c) 30 nm (d) Feb 96, Aug 96,
Feb 97, Aug 97, Feb 98, Nov 98, Aug 99,Aug00.
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Q3 Flying a long route, you fly a segment of
(a) Rh/l (b) G/C (c) Small circle ........... Aug 96.
Q4 In LH holding pattern, inbound track 270 (M) Sector II will be from
(i) 090 to 200 (ii) 090 to 020 (iii) 020 to 200, Feb 99, Aug 98.
Q5 Long flights follow (a) G/C Path (b) Rh/l path
Nov 98.
Q6 In a holding pattern the design is
(a) Circle (b) Ellipse (c) Race track (d) Square
Aug99,Nov99, Feb00,Aug00,Feb02.
Q7 In case of a instrument approach, the R/W is not located
visually the missed approach procedure should be initiated at.
(a) Minimum visual descend alt
(b) DH if visual reference is not established
(c) Transition alt.
Aug99, Nov99,Feb00,Aug00,Feb02.
Q8 You are asked to hold on radial 130 non standard pattern. The QDM of
Sector I is ...... deg to ........deg. The QDM of Sector II is
............ deg to ...........deg. The time is noted on the
............leg
Aug 99.
4.1 Pressure Altm: Gen principles & errors. Altm setting
procedures (QNH, QNE, QFE etc)
Q1 F/L 100 obstacle 1275 m. Lowest QNH 1005.2 hpa. Find clearance Feb 96,
Q2 FL 70 True alt will depend upon (a) Terrain (b) Pr lapse rate (c)
Ambient temp May 96.
Q3 F270 at a constant ambient pressure and density. Altitude
depends upon -----------------(ambient temp). May 96.
Q4 F 250 descending to F 200 with static vent blocked altm reads ........
VSI shows............
May 96.
Q5 If standby static source is to be used what is the immediate effect
on altimeter
Aug 96, Nov 98
Q6 In construction of an altimeter, the capsule is fed with
(a)static (b)is partially evacuated (c)gets dynamic pr.
Feb97, Aug97,Feb00,Aug00.
12
Q7 Altimeter measures environmental pressure
Aug 97
Q8 QFE at A 1010 hpa (Elev 240') and QNH at B (Elev 360 ft) 1010 hpa.
A hill in between height 500 m (i) what is the lowest FL on track 175 (T)
Var 5W Dev 3E (ii) What is clearance over the hill if the a/c is
flying at F50
Aug 97, Feb 99.
Q9 Static blocked in descent. Altm is (i) U/R (ii) O/R (iii) Read Normally Aug
97, May 99.
Q10 If temp at 15,000 is + 15 0 C. What is the COAT at the altitude. Nov 97.
Q11 If you are going from HP to LP in Southern Hemisphere, what will be
the drift experienced.
Nov 99,Feb02.
Q12 Static blocked on climb
Q13 What is true altitude
Nov 98
Nov 98
Q14 If external source is used in non-pressurised a/c what is effect on
altimeter.
Nov 98.
Q15 Density altitude increases with increase in barometric pressure Nov98
Q16 •Flying from standard to colder/warmer area. Effect on altm. •
Feb 99,Feb02.
Q17 flying at F 270 over sea, RQNH is constant. True alt
depends upon (a) OAT at FL (b) ISA at Sea Level (c)height above terrain......
99.
Q18 Pressure error causes an altimeter to
(a) Consistently over read (b) Either over read or under read
(c) Constantly under read
Aug99,Aug00.
Q19 On a cockpit crosscheck of pressure altimeter, the altimeter 'A'
set to 1013, when compared to the altm 'B' which is set to QNH 1029
hpa will indicate (a) low alt by approx 480 ft (b) a Lower alt by approx 310 ft.
(c) a higher alt by aprox 480 ft (d) a higher alt by approx 390ft
Aug99,Nov99,Feb00,Aug00.
Q20 As per the altm setting procedure, the a/c should be flown with
reference to 1013.2 hpa (a) At and above transition alt (b) below
transition alt (c) above DH
Aug 99.
May
13
Q21 In an altimeter, the
(a) ambient pressure is fed to the case having partially evacuated capsule
(b) amb pr is fed to the capsule
Aug 99.
Q22 Altm is set to 1013.2hpa.You will change to QNH at (a)
Transition alt (b) Transition level(c) At transition layer Feb00
4.2 ASI General principles & Errors. IAS, CAS/RAS,TAS,
Q1 Pitot leak on descend
Feb 96, Feb 97
Q2 A/C flying at constant RAS and level towards warmer area
What happens to TAS and True alt.
Aug 96
Q3 Static blockage
Aug 97
Q4 Leakage in pitot will cause the ASI (i) U/R (ii) O/R
Q5 Static blocked in climb
Nov 97
Feb 98, Nov 98, Feb99
Q6 In climb IAS remains same with altitude. The TAS (i)Increases
(ii) decreases
Aug98, May99.
Q7 In a constant RAS climb, the TAS (a) Increases (b)
decreases ....... Nov 98
Q8 Formula to calculate TAS from RAS
May 99
Q9 Pitot blocked on descending in ASI. What indication. Feb02.
Q10 In a turn, speed is reduced. What correction is required.
Feb02.
Q11 In a turn speed is increased. What correction is required.
Feb02
4.2.1 VSI: Principles of operation, uses and errors.
Q1 If standby source for static pressure is to be used, what is the
immediate effect on VSI.(a) Climb (b) Descend (c) Nothing.
Aug96,Feb02.
Q2 Static vent blocked. What is the effect on VSI ...........Feb 97, Aug 97, Nov 98, May
99
14
Q3 Pilot blocked. It will (i) U/R (ii) O/R (iii) Normal (iv) No
effect
Aug 97, Feb 99
Q4 Errors of VSI
Feb 98
Q5 VSI measures (a) differential static pressure ie. rate of change of static pr.
(b) change of static pr.Aug98,Aug99,Nov99,Feb00,Aug00,Feb02.
Q6 VSI is not reliable (a) during change of pitch (b) during a turn
(c) both (a)&(b) (d) reliable in all conditions
Nov 98
Q7 If static pressure is fed from a external source in a nonpressurised a/c what will VSI show.
Nov 98
Q8 Static blocked. Which all instruments are affected
Feb 99
Q9 Using IVSI (a) Indication are reliable on climb
(b) indication are only reliable on descent
(c) indications are unreliable in turns
(d) all are correct.
Aug99,Aug00,Feb02.
Q10 In a VSI manoeuvre induced error
(a) has insignificant effect on the reliability of the reading
(b) significantly effects the reliability of the reading
(c) only significantly effects when the a/c rolls.Aug00.
4.3 Mach Meter: Gen principle and errors. Relationship between IAS, TAS
and Mach No.
Q1 Mach No. reduced by 0.1M causes fall of 58 k in TAS. What is speed
of sound
Feb 96, Feb 99
Q2 Mach No. is ratio of
(a) TAS to speed of sound at sea level
(b) TAS to speed of sound at that level
(c) TAS to speed of sound under ISA at that level. May 96, Aug 99
Q3 Mach Meter measures is ratio of (a) dynamic pressure to static
pressure at prevailing temperature (b) Pitot pr to st pr
(c) Pitot pr to dynamic pr.
Feb00,Aug00.
Q4 Flying with const Mach No. to warmer area. TAS increase/decrease Aug 96, Aug
97
15
Q5 Calculate Local speed of sound
Feb 97
Q6 Constant Mach No climb. What happens to TAS and why ?
Feb 97
Q7 The mach meter mechanism measures
(a) Ambient speed of sound (b) the ratio of dynamic pressure to
static pressure (c) the ratio of pitot pr to static pr Feb 97
Q8 If ambient temp decreases. To keep Mach No. const, TAS (a)inc
(b)dec(c)remains same
Aug 97
Q9 LSS is (i) directly proportional to underoot of ºK (ii) inversely
proportional to underoot of ºA (iii) directly proportional to
underoot of ºC.
Aug97,Feb98,Aug99,Feb00,Aug00.
Q10 Mcrit is .....
Nov 97
Q11 Climbing at constant Mach No, the TAS (i) increases (b) decreases Feb 98
Q12 At F290,the temp dev is - 6ºC. At RAS 310 K what is the local speed of
sound
Aug 98, Feb 99
Q13 What is Mach No.
Aug 98
Q14 Constant Mach No with decreasing temp at the same level (a) TAS should
increase as LSS decreases (b) TAS should decrease as LSS increases (c)
TAS increase as LSS increase (d) TAS decrease as LSS decrease.
Feb00.
Q15 If LSS decreases, to maintain M constant the TAS should (a)
increase (b) decrease.
Aug00.
Q16 If the static is blocked in a descent, the Mach meter will
(a)under read (b) over read.
Aug00,Feb02.
4.6 Gyroscopes: Properties and application in aircraft instruments. Basic
principle of DGI, Artificial Horizon, Turn and slip indicator.
Q1 Primary Precession - spinning clock wise shall precess through 90 0
the direction of rotation
Feb 96, Feb 99
in
Q2 Primary precession commences at (a) Commencement of turn (b) During
the turn (c) When turn is established
Feb 96
Q3 Topple Max & Min at ....in a vert axis gyro.
Feb 96,
16
A4 Lat Nut in DGI is to correct (a) drift in horz plane or
apparent wander in horz plane (b) apparent wander in vertical
plane (c) topple.
Feb96,Aug96,Feb97,Aug97,Nov98,Aug99,Nov99,Feb00,Aug00.
Q5 Gyro rigidity is affected by
May 96.
Q6 Artificial Horizon has (a) earth gyro (b) rate gyro (c) tied gyro.
May96,Aug00.
Q7 If rotor speed of turn indicator is high, indication of rate of turn
is high/low
May 96, May 99
Q.8 In deceleration TSI will indicate (nil)
May 96.
In declaration Art Horz will indicate false port turn & descend
Q8A The a/c decelerates, the ADI shows
(a) descending turn to port
(b) climbing turn to starboard
Aug00.
Q.9 In a turn, ball out of turn indicates slip/skid
May 96
Q9A You are turning right and ball is to the left, the TSI indicates
(a)ball to the left due to excessive right rudder pressure
(b)ball to the left due to less right rudder pressure
(c) ball to the right.
Aug00.
Q.10 Basic instrument for climbing turn
Q.11 Basic instrument for level turn
Q.12 Main instrument for climb
May 96
May 96, Aug 96
Aug 96
Q.13 In a horz axis clockwise rotating gyro, force applied shall
precess the gyro at
Aug 96
Q.14 Turning on ground TSI indication will be
Q.15 Basic instrument for descending turn
Aug 96
Aug 96
Q.16 Art Horz in a continuous 360 0 turn, max error (a) at 360
degrees (b) reaches at 180 degrees and then reduces to nil
on completion of the turn.
Aug96, Feb00,Aug00.
17
Q.17 To recover from unusual attitude of climb, bank is to put
(a)nose down, takeoff bank, reduce power.
Aug 96
Q.18 Flying a skidding turn to left. Action to be taken to make
it a balanced turn or correct the manoeuvre.
Feb97,Feb00
Q.19 In attitude indicator, electrically driven gyro is used to increase
(a) Rigidity (b) Precession
Feb 97
Q.20 Turn co-ordinator
Feb 97
Q.21 In TSI in skid the ball position is
Aug 97
Q.22 Advantage of electrical driven gyro over other gyro
(i) No turning & acceleration error (ii) Increases rigidity as RPM
increases (c) Precession in more.
Aug97,Aug99,Feb00
Q.23 In a right bank a/c is skidding - Ball out of turn to left due to
insufficient right rudder
Aug 97
Q.24 What are indications on turn co-ordinator
Q.25 Rate 1/2 turn. How much time for 135º.
Nov 97
Nov 97, May 99
Q.26 Artificial Horizon is (i) Rate Gyro (ii) Earth gyro (c) Tied
gyro
Nov 97, May 99, Nov 98, Feb 99
Q.27 Small a/c Cessna is equipped with turn co-ordinator. What are the
indications for a climbing turn. Nov 97.
Q.28 In artificial horizon on T/O attitude, indicator would show
climb and starboard turn.
Feb 98.
Q.29 Skidding turn to right Ball goes to left because(a) Excessive right
rudder.
Feb 98
Q.30 Attitude indicator is earth gyro
Q.31 Real wander is because of
Aug 98
Aug 98, Feb 88
Q.32 Wt on a horz axis gyro. It will (a) topple (b) drift Nov 98
Q.33 In a turn, speed is reduced. Correction required is (a) Inc bank, Inc
angle of attack (b) Reduce bank inc angle of altack etc
Nov 98
18
Q.34 Factors affecting rate of turn (a) speed & bank
Feb 99
Q.35 A/C is turning right and is skidding out of turn.
(a) Ball will be towards right as excessive right rudder is used
(b) Ball will be towards right as less right rudder is used
(c) Ball will be towards left as in sufficient rudder is used
(d) Ball will be towards left as excessive right rudder is used Aug 99
Q.36 The latitude correction nut in DI is to
(a) compensate for apparent drift in horizontal plane
(b) compensate for apparent wander in vertical plane
(c) compensate for increase in force of gravity towards pole
Aug 99
Q.37 In constant bank turn with artificial horizon, the error is
(a) Max at 180ºand then starts reducing in a 360º turn.
(b) The error starts increasing after 180º (c) No error Aug 99
4.4. Magnetism: Properties of a magnet. The earth as a magnet. North and South
magnetic poles, magnetic meridian, magnetic variation.
Q1 The angle that a freely suspended magnet makes with the horizontal is
called - Dip.
May 96
Q2 Line joining places of zero dip is called
May96,May99,Aug99,Feb00
Q3 Line joining places of equal dip
Feb 97
Q4 Angle of dip max at poles/equator
Q5 Isoclinals are
Feb 97
Aug 97
Q5A Aclinic is line joining places of (a) equal dip (b) zero dip (c)
zero variation (d) equal variation.
Aug00.
Q6 Comp and magnetic headings given. Find co effs A, B & C Feb 98
Q7 Pendulous system is preferred in compass instead of pivot system
(a) to reduce liquid swirl (b) to reduce the rigidity
(c) to reduce the errors.
Nov 98
Q8 Magnetic equator expressed in term of dip
Feb 99
19
4.5. Direct Reading Compass: Basic principle and errors.
Q1 Suspension used in modern magnetic system
Q2 Standby compass has no heading setting facility
Feb 96
Feb 96
Q3 Carrying out a turn at magnetic equator with direct reading
compass there will be (a) no turning error (b) tendency to
over read turn through N and under read through S (c)tendency to
under read due to liquid swirl.
Aug00.
Q4 Turning from South to East in the NH. Turn (a) short (b)
more. Feb02.
4.7. Remote Indicating Compasses: General principle, comparison with DRC
4.8 Compass Errors and Deviation
Q1 Effect of liquid swirl
Feb 96
Q2 Co eff A,B,C given, Find dev on hdg 225 0
Feb 96
Q3 Co eff A is corrected by-----shifting lubber line
Feb 96,Aug96 96,Feb97,Aug 97
Q4 Which coefficient is calculated from P & Soft Iron Component. Feb 96, Aug 96
Q5 Accelerating on R/W 09, the compass indicates
May 96
20
Q6 Turning from 040 for R/W 33, should turn to 320/330/340 if error is
10º.
May 96
Q7 Micro-adjuster is used for coefficients-----Q8 Q and Hard Iron Comp gives coefficient.
Q9 Liquid swirl is max at poles/equator ?
May 96
May 96, Aug 96, Feb 97, Aug 97
Aug 96
Q10 Turning and acceleration error is caused by (a) dip
Aug 96
Q11 Liquid swirl increases/decreases turning through north in NH Feb 97
Q12 Co-eff 'A' is misalignment of lubber line with F&A axis of a/c Aug 97,
Aug 99
Q13 Co-eff 'C' is caused by hard and soft iron magnetism due to (i) P+c (ii) Q+f
(iii) Q+b
Aug 97, Nov 98
Q14 Co-eff 'A' in a/c due to (i) non-alignment of lubber line with fore
and aft axis of a/c (ii) non-alignment of lubber line with 'H'
component of earths mag field
Aug 97
Q15 Liquid swirl (i) Constt in N+S hdg (ii) Constt at pole/ equator Aug 97
Q16 Comp Hdg
Mag Hdg
001
001
092
089
175
176
270
271
(i) Calculate co-eff B
(ii) If co-eff B is corrected at E, what will you make compass to read.
iii) If co-eff 'C' is corrected at S, what would you make compass to read
(iv) If 'A' is correct at W, what would you make compass to read.
Q17 Acceleration error is (a) in N/S direction (b) E/W direction
Q18 Acceleration error in westerly direction in NH May 99
Q19 The liquid swirl error in a magnetic compass is
(a) Additive to the turn through North
(b) Additive to the turn through South
(c) Same in turns through North and South
Feb 99
21
Q20 When turning through North, turn (a) Less (b) More
Nov99
Q21 Liquid swirl in a turn is due to (a) Turning liquid taking
the magnet system with it, thereby affecting the indications
Feb00.
4.9 Basic Radio Theory: Properties of EM waves. Frequency spectrum, ionosphere
and its effect on propagation of radio waves, relationship between
freq and Wave length.
Q1 HtTXR 9000' HtRXR 1600 ft. Find VHF range.
Feb96
Q2 Which freq band is affected by Duct propagation
(a) HF (b) MF (c) VHF & above
Feb96
Q3 One micro-second is .000001 secs.
May96,Nov97,May99
Q4 Skip distance is applicable to VHF/HF/MF/LF. Define Skip
distance
May96,May99
Q5 Definition of dead space.
May 96
Q6 Freq 10MHz. Find Wave length. Aug96,Feb97,Feb98,Aug98,Feb98,Feb02.
Q7 Nano second is(a)0.00000001 b)0.000000001.Feb97,Aug97,Aug00,Feb02.
Q8 Duct propagation reasons (a) inversion (b)humidity
Q9 To avoid static interference, use LF/MF/HF/VHF
Feb97
Feb97
Q10 Wave length 30m. Freq will be (a) 50 Hz (b) 50 MHz (c) 10 MHz
Nov98,Aug97
Q11 Duct propagation occurs in (a) VHF and in met phenomenon called
temp inversion
Aug97
Q12 With increase in freq, ground wave attenuation
(i) Increases (ii) Decreases
Feb98
Q13 Attenuation is greater over (a) land (b) Sea.
Feb98
Q14 What distance does radio wave travel in 2 micro-seconds.
Answer in feet and meters. Feb 98,Aug00.
22
Q15 In refraction wave changes (i) Direction only (ii) Length only
(iii) Direction and Length both.
Aug98,May99
Q16 Fading of signal takes place in (i) Night effect (ii) Sky
waves. Aug98.
Q16A How fading affects. Feb02.
Q17 Attenuation is more over (a) sea (b) land
Aug98
Q18 Attenuation with respect to freq.
Feb99
Q19 QDM is a/c hdg to reach station in nil wind condition
May99
Q20 •Night effect is due to change in ionospheric layer. To avoid •
use (a) higher freq (b) lower freq. Feb02.
4.10 Types of transmission, modulation, polarization
Q1 What is amplitude modulation
May 99
4.11 Obtaining radio bearing by loop D/F
4.12 ADF: Gen principles of working and errors.
Q1 ADF gives Relative Bearing
Feb96
Q2 Cardiod is used in (a) ADF (b) VOR (c) ILS Feb96
Q3 Range of ADF is increased/decreased due to sky wave. May96
Q4 Radio wave travelling from sea to land bends towards/away
from normal
May96,Nov97,May99
Q5 ADF on LF is affected by coastal refraction
Feb96
Q6 A/C on track 135 Drift 6 0 P. Stn abeam to the right. RBI
indication will be (a) 084 (b) 090 (c) 276 (d) 270
Aug96
23
Q7 Plotting brg on Mercator QC given.
Feb97
Q8 Tracking out on ADF. After sometime ADF reads 187. The AC is
(i) Port
(b) Stbd of track
Feb98
Q9 Range of locater NDB
Aug98
Q1. ADF radiates vertically polarised signals
Aug98,Feb99
Q11 ADF is giving 011 Hdg 070 (T) what is relative bearing
Nov98
Q12 Fading of signal and hunting of needle in ADF is due to
(a) QE (b) night effect
Nov98,Feb99
Q13 ADF works on LF/MF band.
Nov 98,Feb02.
Q14 Coastal refraction changes speed and direction
Feb99
Q15 ADF RBI 270 Hdg 340(M). QDM---.
Feb99
Q16 An a/c leaves NDB stn 'A' to NDB stn 'B'. Its bearing changes to 177
near 'A' and 357 with respect to 'B'. Is the a/c (a) left of track (b)
right on track (c) on track (d) either left or right. Aug99,Aug00.
Q17 A/c tunes to a stn and obtains bearing of 270. After 2.5 mts it
changes to 280. The time to stn is
(a) 10 min (b) 50 min (c) 5 min
Aug99
Q18 The rated coverage of homing and holding NDB is a range of
approximately:
a) 25nm b) 10nm c) 50nm d) 100nm.
Aug00
Q19 In an NDB the signals are:
a) Vertically polarised in the lower MF
b) Vertically polarised in the VHF band
c)Horizontally polarised in the lower MF band.
Q20 •Nav aid working on MF. What is the cause of fading. (a) Sky •
wave. Feb02.
24
25
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4.13 VOR: Obtaining bearing by phase comparison, Gen Principles of working,
errors and range, Doppler VOR (principles).
Q1 Hdg 175(M) RMI 355 drift 8 0 S. TMG ? (var should be given ) Feb96.
Q2 Hdg 155(M) RMI 160. After some time RMI reads 157. Drift ?
Q3 On radial 040 Hdg 090(M), OBS 060. What is the indication.
Q4 Max deflection on VOR
Q5 VOT indication when OBS set to 000.
Feb96
Feb96
Feb96
May96,Aug96
Q6 ••VOT •••check ••is ••on ••a ••fixed ••point ••on ••ground.
Aug96,Feb02.
Q7 To get max deflection of CDI turn OBS by (a) 5 to 10 0
15 0 (d) 20 0
Aug 96
(b) 10 to 12 0
Q8 When the VOR indication slush over (a) change of OBS setting by 180 0
(b) change of hdg by 90 0 (c) change of OBS by 90 0 (d) reciprocal
heading
Aug96
Q9 You tune in VOT. The indication shows you are (a) on radial 180 (b)
on radial 000 (c) 002 fn and 182 To (d) South of station
Nov97
Q10 Aggregate errors in VOR are -----
Nov97,Feb98
Q11 Approaching VOR stn from North with 180 on OBS shows TO.
Over stn it changes to FROM. A 180 0 turn is done and oBS not changed.
What will TO/FM indicator show.
Feb98
Q12 A/c from one VOR stn 'A' 30N004E Var 8W to another VOR Stn
'B' 30N004W Var 9W. CA 22 0 What will a/c set its OBS. Feb98
Q13 A/C on radial 042 is tracking in. It sets radial 035 on OBS. CDI shows
3 dots deflection left. At what radial is a/c at present.
Feb98
Q14 How will you know a/c has crossed the VOR stn (a) To will change to
FROM.
Feb98
(c)
26
Q15 In a)VOT 180 TO b)000 TO c)176 to 184 either TO or From.Aug98,Nov98,May99
Aug00.
Q16 In VOR bearing is valid (a) within error of 4 0 . Feb98,Nov99
Q17 Middle marker signal intensity is 1300 hz/alternate dots & dashes. Aug98
Q18 Main Aim or advantage of DVOR is to (a) Improve siting
error. Aug98,Nov99,Feb00,Aug00.
Q19 VOR radiates two freqs, one AM and other FM
Aug98
Q20 An a/c is hdg 000 to VOR A. Another VOR Stn B is port of the
track. If 090 is set on OBS for VOR B, the needle deflects towards left
and TO/FM shows FM. This means (a) a/c has not yet crossed 090 radial of VOR B.
Aug98,Feb99
Q21 VOR principle-- brg by phase comparison
Nov98
Q22 How are ref & variable signals modulated
Nov98
Q23 Limacon is used in (a) VOR (b) ADF (c) VDF
Nov98
Q24 VOR problem. OBI diagram given with 5 dot scale. Find TE , dist off
track, heading after applying correction.
Feb99
Q25 For tracking in OBS (a) Select anti-radial
Feb99
Q26 Max deviation at VOR site 1 0 . When does monitoring unit shut down.(Error
in excess of 1 degree)
Q27 In VOT if eqpt does not show within 4 0
it requires servicing. May99
Q28 A/c's OBS setting 160. Inbound QDM to VOR 336. DME dist 60 nm (a) a/c
is 4 nm inside the eastern boundary (b) Inm inside the eastern
boundary (c) Indication of CDI is 4 0 and turns to left
Aug99
Q29 Advantage of DVOR is OR DVOR compared to conventional VOR
has less (a) Pilot error (b) Site error (c) A/B eqpt error (d)
Inteference error.
Aug99,Nov99,Feb00,Aug00,Feb02.
Q30 OBI indication with OBS setting shown. Position of the A/C to
be determined.
Nov99
27
Q31 Reverse sensing on VOR. (a) Hdg & Brg selected are reciprocal
(b) No change in OBS on crossing over the stn.
Feb00
Q32 In the following choices will show reverse sensing
a) when a/c's heading is reciprocal to the OBS selection.
Aug00
Q33 An a/c's heading is 050(T) and is tracking on radial with OBS
setting 068 and TO/FROM indicating TO. The variation is 10W.
what should the ADF read to a NDB station sited at VOR location.
a) 008
Aug 00.
Q34 An a/c RMI is being fed with information from a VOR and NDB
stn. The a/c is tracking on radial 228. Drift is 5P. the NDB
bears 060. Show the indications on RMI. a) RMI Hdg 053,VOR
048,ADF 113.
Aug00.
Q35 An a/c tracking on radial 158 has the pointer on QDM 334 and
it is found that the a/c has drifted 4nm at 60 DME in bound. find
the position of the a/c and deflection of the pointer on 4 dot
CDI. (a) Starboard of radial 158 and CDI 2 dot left. Aug00.
Q36 Radial is given. Find To/From indication. Feb02.
14 OMEGA: Principles, Navigation computer, Error and Limitations.
.pa
4.15 Basic Radar Theory: Pulse and CW Radar elements. CRT, Primary and
Secondary Radar and their uses in civil aviation.
Q1 Flow of electrons are controlled by Anode/Cathode/Grid in CRT. May96
Q2 Focussing is done by 2nd Anode
Feb97
28
Q3 Brillance is controlled by (a) Grid
Aug97
Q4 Basic difference between primary and secondary radar.
Feb98
Q5 In •••SSR •••code •••7600 •••is •••for ••radio ••failure.
Aug98,Feb02.
Q6 PRF question
Q7 Radar range. ( Dist = Speedxtime ).
Nov98
May99
Q8 Minimum range of primary radar depends on (a) Pulse length
(b) Beam width (c) PRF (d) Flyback time period. Aug99,Aug00.
Q9 The sharpness of beam is controlled by (a) Grid (b) Second
anode (c) X & Y plates. Aug 99
Q10 What determines the range of the RADAR. (a) PRF (b) Pulse
width (c) Pulse length (d) PRP.
Nov99
Q11 ON CRT what is used to increase/adjust the Brightness. (a)
Cathode (b) Anode (c) Grid (d) X & Y plates.
Feb00
Q12 Primary radar is------.
Feb00
Q13 What is the range of SSR (a) 300km (b) 200nm (c)
1.25(/HtRxr+/Ht TXR)
Aug00.
Q14 In CRT for sharpness, the voltage is varied in (a) 2nd Anode (b)
Grid (c)Cathode .
Aug00.
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4.16 DME: General Principles and Operations, Accuracy and Range
Q1 DME can accomodate a maximum of 100 a/c before getting
saturated.
Nov97
Q
2. DME is (i) Primary (ii) Secondary radar
Feb98
(VHF band pulse pair)
Q3 ••Coverage ••of •DME •at •30,000ft.(a)100nm •(b) •200nm •(c) •
250nm.Aug98,Feb99,Feb02.
Q4 Right DME arc with right croswind, the nedle position in reference to
right wing should be (a) ahead of the wing (b) at the wing (c)
29
behind the wing.
Aug97,Aug00.
Q5 On a DME with digital representation, failure indication is
given by (a) A drop down bar falling on the face of the figures
(b)Appearance of a flag (c) Distance to go returning to
zero.
Aug00.
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4.17 Radio Altimeter
Q1 Mushing Error pertains to (a) Radio altm (b) Radar altm
(c) GPS
(d) DME
Aug96
Q2 Two errors of radio altm are-------.
Nov97
3. Radio altm works on the principle of
(a) Difference in outgoing and incoming freq.
(b) Echo principle
(c) Pulse
(d) Calculating the time. Feb98,Aug99,Aug00,Feb02.
Q4 What does Radio Altm use to calculate height
(a) Rate of change of frequency
(b) Doppler shift in frequency.
Aug00.
4.18 Airborne Radars: Wx Rdr Principles of operation and uses.
Q1 ••Max ••dense •area •shown •by •(a) •Yellow •(b) •Blue •(c) •
Red.Aug96,Feb97,Feb02.
Q2 In Wx Rdr colour of high intensity is shown by darker
colour. Aug97,Feb02.
Q3 Operation of AWR on ground requires care about damage to personal
health and any other reflecting object.
Aug98
Q4 Max precipitation is given by (i) Red colour
Q5 Colour of echo of cloud containing large water drops or
heavy precipitation is shown as
(a) Blue/purple (b) White (c) Red (d) Green.
Aug99,Aug00.
May98
30
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4.19 ILS: Components and their Principle of Working , Limitations
Categories of ILS.
Q1 Which is blue sector
Feb 96
Q1A •after take-off, you are on right side. Which sector are you •
in. (a) Blue (b) Yellow.
Feb02.
Q2 ILS range 17 nm. What is lateral coverage
Q3 Max deflection LCZR
Feb 96
Feb 96, May 96
Q4 GP angle 3 0 . What is the coverage. Feb 96,Nov99.
Q5 GP 3 0 . What is the height at 3nms.
Feb 96
Q6 DDM equal. What is the indication of CDI
Feb 96
Q7 Aural/visual indication of marker beacons. when
approaching on ILS, the order is (a)Blue, Amber, White
(b)Blue, Purple, White. Feb96,May96,Nov98,May98,May99,Aug00,Feb02.
Q8 Max deflection of horizontal needle
May 96
Q9 H/W 090/30. R/W 09 ILS rate of descend on 3 0
(a) More
(b) Same (c) Less
May 96
Glide Slope will be
Q9A What is ROD, when TAS 130K, W/V 090/30, approaching on R/W
09 at 3 degrees glidepath.
May99,Aug00.
Q9B To maintain 3 Degree if airspeed is decreased the ROD should
be (a)Increased (b) Decreased
Aug00.
Q10 Yellow sector after T/O. What is the indication on ILS localiser
What correction to be made
May 99, May 96, Nov 97
Q10A While taking-off the lobe on the right is (a)150Hz Blue
(b)90Hz Yellow.
Aug00.
Q11 Hdg 045, radial 020, OBS 190. Which side to turn?
May 96
Q12 ILS Cat 1 provides guidance upto (a) 200 ft (b) 100 ft (c)
50 ft.
Feb97,Aug97,Aug99,Feb00,Aug00.
31
Q13 False glide path above the normal. Lowest/minimum false
glideslope on 3 degree glidepath is above by degrees (a)6 (b)12
(c)9.
Feb97,Aug97,Feb00,Aug00,Feb02.
Q14 DME 3.3 nm. GP 3 0 3 dots below on 4 dot scale
what is height if G/S is 140k. What is ROD
Q15 If G/S of a/c increases (i) ROD will increase (ii) ROD decrease
(iii) No effect on ROD
Aug 97, Feb 98
Q16 3 degree GP indicates 2 dot fly down on 4 dot scale. The DME shows 4.6 nm from
stn. (i) What will radio alth read (ii) What is dist of a/c in
meters from threshold if the R/W centre line is extended. Feb 98
Q17 In ILS localizer centre line beam width is (a) 5 0
Aug 98
Q18 Full deflection GS and ILS loc (a) .7 and 2.5 (b) .7 and 10
(c) .7 and 0.25
Nov 98, Feb 99, May 99
Q19 A/C is left of centre line and below G/S the indication in a/c on CDI
and GS will be (a) Right & above (b) Left & below Nov 98
Q20 When will off flag appear
Nov 98
Q21 Range of locater beacon
Feb 99
Q22 A/C on 3 0 glide slope. Tail wind becomes head wind. What happens to
airspeed, pitch attitude & ROD
Feb 99
Q23 At 750 ft, 2.2 nm, GS 3 0 . Give indicator position of 4 dot scale Feb 99
Q24 Middle marker audio signal modulation 1300 Hz
Feb 99
Q25 What speed to calculate ROD (a)G/S (b)IAS (C) TAS
Q26 On a 3 0 glide slope the minimum false glide slope is
(a) 2 0 (b) 4 0 (c) 6 0 (d) 10 0
Aug 99
Q27 If on glide slope, G/S decreases, the ROD must be
(a) increased (b) decreased (c) remain same Feb00
Q28 If you are taking off on localiser and are left of the
centre line, what will OBS show.
Nov99
May 99
32
Q29 GS fully up. How many degrees is it.
Nov99
Q30 Distance and GS given. A/C 2 dots below GS.Find height of
the A/C.
Nov99
Q31 ILS indication was shown. To identify A/C up/down,
left/right
Nov99
Q32 Max localiser signals are reliable till-----nm.
Feb00
Q33 What is the indication of outer marker beacon. Feb02.
4.20 MLS - Principle and operation
Q1 MLS gives what indication(a) Azimuth,elev,range (b) Azimuth,elev,
MLS identification(c)Az,Elev,MLS •readouts. Aug99,Nov99,Feb00,Aug00,Feb02.
4.21 GPS - Principle of operation
Q1 No of satellites in GPS
Feb 96
Q2 GPS uses the principle of (a) psuedo range.
Aug 97
Q3 Position fixing by satellites is by means of
(i) Simultaneous bearing from a number of satellites
(ii) Range and bearing from known satellite
(iii) Simultaneous range from no. of satellites.
Aug97,Aug99,Nov99,Feb00,Feb02.
Q4 Satellites in GNSS orbit earth once in (a) 12 hrs (b) 24 hrs Nov 98
Q5 •Position •fixing •by •satellite is (a)rho-rho (b) rho-theta. •
33
Feb97,Feb02.
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4.22
TCAS
Q1 TA, RA & proximity traffic.
Feb 96, Aug 97
Q2 Satellite info in range and brg.
Feb 97
Q3 The aural warming on TCAS accompanyings TA is
(a) THREAT, THREAT (b) TRAFFIC TRAFFIC
(c) WHOOP WHOOP.Feb97,Aug98,Aug99,Nov99,Feb00,Aug00,Feb02.
Q4 Outside terminal airspace, the range for TCAS operation is normally
(a) 1100 km (60nm) (b) 50 km (30nm) (c) 20 km (12 nm)
Feb 97
Q5 On TCAS II, aural message is
(a) Climb, descent, increase, climb, increase descend
(b) Climb, descent, turn left, turn right
(c) THREAT THREAT - CLIMB, THREAT THREAT - DESCEND
Feb 97
Q6 On EFIS display, proximate traffic is shown as:
(a) solid read square (b) solid yellow circle (c) solid
cyan or solid white diamond
Feb 97
Q7 The distance to proximate traffic is within
(a)1200 ft & 6 nm(b)600 ft & 12 nm(c)600ft & 30nm.Feb97,Aug97,Aug99,Nov99
Feb00,Aug00,Feb02.
Q8 RA stands for
4.23
Nov98,
GPWS
1. In GPWS inputs are ----------.
Aug 98
2. In GPWS TERRAIN TERRAIN - Alert means ...... Aug 98, Feb 99, May 99
3. In GPWS clearance for unsafe terrain clearance is ... ;;50' to 500'
Aug 98
. Max height (2450 ft to---------).
5. What are the inputs
Feb 99
May 99
34
6. GPWS warning envelop (50-2450 ft)
May 99,Nov99
7. •The •warning •excessive •rate •of •descent/negative rate of •
descend in respect of terrain is (a)WHOOP - WHOOP Pull up. Aug99,Nov99
Feb00,Feb02.
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4.24 MISC.
Q1 2 Bar VASI indicates correct angle by--------.May96,Feb98,Aug98.
Q1A In a 3-bar VASI when approaching in a light a/c and on glide
slope the indications are
(a)Top two RED and bottom White
(b) Top one Red and bottom two White. Aug00,Feb02.
Q1B In a 3-bar VASI the middle bar and the upper shows Red while
approaching in a heavy a/c. It means
(a) A/C below glide path
(b) A/C above glide path
(c) A/C too low below the glide path.
Aug00.
Q2 Recovery from unusal attitude.
Aug96
Q3 What will be the indication on 3-bar VASI if you are above
the GS.
Feb97,Aug97,Feb98,Feb99,Aug99,Feb00
Q4 What will be the indication on GS in a wide body A/Cin 3-bar
VASI. (WWR)
Q5 An A/C in a bank decreases its airspeed. To maintain level
flight,it should (a) Increase bank, dec angle of attack (b)
Dec angle of bank,dec AOA (c) Dec angle of bank, Inc AOA.
Q6 Which instrument would you as reference for attitude flying.
Nov97
Q7 Which is the primary instrument for climbing turn. Nov97
Q8 While executing standard turn, speed of an A/C is increased.
How will attitude be maintained. Nov97
35
Q9 In a standard turn, A/C is climbing. How will attitude be
maintained. Nov97
Q10 Assuming normal flight from unusual attitude in instrument,
which instrument should be relied upon (a) Attitude
indicator,VASI (b) Attitude indicator, Turn co-ordinator. Feb98
Q11 Which of the following instruments is least affected by
Lag- (a) ASI (b) Altm (c) VSI (d) Attitude ind.
Feb98
Q12 PAPI Glidepath is shown by which colour.(a)2 reds towards the
R/W and 2 Whites away from the R/W . Feb98,Aug98,Feb99,Aug99,Feb00
Q13 Which are the factors affecting A/C performance (a) HighTemp •
&high humidity (b)Low temp & High humidity. Aug98,Feb99,Feb02.
Q14 Which is worst for T/O (a) Temp (b) Humidity.
Nov98,Feb02.
Q15 What is DH.
Nov98
Q16 SSR emergency code. (a) 7700
May99,Nov99
Q17 SSR radio/communicatuion failure code(a7600 (b)7700 (c)7500.
May99,Nov99,Aug00.
Q18 IAS for T/O from high elevation airfield depends upon
(a)Change in density and temp.
May99
Q19 Primary and secondary instruments for different manoeuvres.
May99
Q20 Proper instrument scanning. (a) Check,hold,adjust. May99
.pa
Q21 In a turn IAS increases(or decreases). Action by pilot (a) Red AOA (b) Inc
bank (c)Inc AOA (d) Red bank.
May99,Aug99.
Q22 When entering a FIR, if not asked to squeak any code,we
transmit on freq. (a)7500 (b)7700 (c) 12000 (d) 5500. Aug99,Feb00
Q23 RVR given is (a) Slant range which is min. (b) Slant range
from threshold till glidepath (c) Horizontal range from threshold
to the R/W.
Aug99,Feb00
36
Q24 If airspeed is increased in constant bank turn, the
relationship between rate of turn and radius is (a) Rate of turn
inc, radius dec.(b) Rate of turn dec, radius inc.(c)Rate of turn
dec, radius dec. Aug99,NOV99,Feb00
q25 Recovery procedure from a diving attitude is (a) Reduce
power,level wings & raise the nose (b) Red power, raise the nose
& level wings (c) Inc power,level wings & raise the
nose.Aug99,Nov99.
Q26 •Code •for •entering •FIR. •(a)2000 •(b)7700 •(c)7500.Nov99, •
Aug00,Feb02.
Q27 Missed approach is initiated at (a) DH.
Feb00
Q28 To recover from spiral when A/C is at high speed, the
correct procedure is (a) Red power,level,correct bank (b) Correct
bank,red power, arrest the down movement of VSI (c) Red power, takeoff
bankand pitch up.
Aug00.
Q29 Using middle and far lights on VASI would mean an
accomodation of higher glide slope.
Feb00
Q30 On slope for VASI, red on white.
Feb00
Q31 In a level turn, reduction in power will require (a) Inc
AOA,dec angle of bank (b) Inc AOA, Inc bank. Feb00,Aug00.
FROM SAVEKAR
AIRNAV : FLIGHT PLANNING
1.
On a flight from A to B distance 1378 nms TAS 220K Track 076 (T) W/V
330/35K. Fuel on board 1250 gals with fuel consumption (F/C) 95 gph.
Calculate :(a) SAR (b) Distance and time to CP (c) Distance & time to PNR with
200 gals of reserve fuel.
2.
On a flight A to B distance 985 nms, TAS 160 K, Track 345 (T), W/V 090/30K.
Fuel consumption 85 gph; fuel requirement as per flight plus 150 gals as reserve.
Find :-
37
(a) Fuel in gals required for flight (b) SAR (c) Time & Distance to
CP & PNR
3.
On a flight from A to B distance 1275 nms, TAS 195 K, Track 335 (T), W/V
260/35K. Find :(a) Distance to CP (b) If CP reached 55 mins before PNR, what is the
fuel in gals on board ( F/C 105 gals/hr)
4.
On a flight from A to B distance to PNR is 879 nms, TAS 200K, Track 125(T),
W/V 070/35K. Fuel on board 1000 gals. Find :(a) F/C (b) SAR (c) If CP is reached 35 mins before PNR, what is the
distance between A & B, and also calculate fuel left at end of flight.
5.
On a flight A to X via B & C. TAS 200k and route details as under :-
Stage
Tr (T)
A-B
095
B-C
150
C-X
225
Find distance and time to CP.
6.
W/V
Dist (Nms)
045/35K
225
200/25K
312
180/30K
260
On a flight from A to D via B & C. TAS 180 K, route details given below :Stage
Tr (T)
W/V
Dist (Nms)
A-B
039
310/25K
205
B-C
067
280/35K
303
C-D
115
070/30K
175
(a) Find distance and time to CP (b) If Total fuel on board is 1000
gals and F/C is 185 gph, Calculate :(i) SAR (ii) Time and distance to PNR with 150 gals as reserve.
7.
On a flight A to X via B, C & D. TAS 190k and route details as under:Stage
Tr (T)
W/V
Dist (Nms)
A-B
337
010/20K
167
B-C
258
060/30K
195
C-D
215
090/25K
178
D-X
167
120/35
207
(a) Find distance and time to CP (b) If Total fuel on board is 1050
gals and F/C is 178 gph, Calculate :(i) SAR (ii) Time and distance to PNR with 170 gals as reserve.
38
Find distance and time to CP.
8.
On a flight A to X via B & C in Super Const ac normal TAS 230k, with one
engine failure reduced performance TAS 190K and route details as under :Stage
Tr (T)
W/V
Dist (Nms)
A-B
097
035/35K
195
B-C
129
330/25K
205
C-X
165
300/30K
185
N. B.:- Most of the questions have all options as correct answers & at Later part of
this Question bank are the important points to be remembered.
AIR NAVIGATION DGCA Q PAPER
MAY 03 SESSION
1. A/C high jacked, SSR Mode A 7500
2. Q on PNR where temp at various levels given, fuel cons., FOB, TAS, W/V given,
Engine failure TAS given, ....Engine failure over PNR/CP... Find new PNR/ CP?
Case study type 02 sets of 05 questions of 3 marks each. Total 30 marks.
3. Q on ROC, ht given, find dist covered.
4. Q on ch long, LMT, GMT, IST?
5. Scale Calculations/Qs on Mercator ?
6. TCAS indications, visual and audio: 04 Qs
7. Weather radar indication for big raindrops? - Red (Magenta for strong echoes)
8. Radio Alt Principle? = Measurement of time from Tx to Rx of continuously varying
fs
9. Radalt Freq varies --------- 02 Qs
10. Radalt dist is measured....?
11. GPWS indications---?
12. ILS needles horizontal 2 dots up, vertical 2 dots left... Calculate dist from glide
path and centreline?
13. VASI/ AVASI indications?
14. A/C descending from FL 290 over Delhi. At Alt reading 12000’ you’ll report FL120
39
15. 1.4 inch dist covered on a map by a/c flying for 20 min at G/S 200 kts. What is the
scale in 1 cm : 34.72 km ?
16. DME is saturated by 100 aircrafts.
17. DME indication 30Nm, a/c ht = 24380’, horizontal dist...........? =Use Pythagoras
theorem!
18. Two a/c on same track, DME separation of 20 Nm? Air Reg Qs!!
19. DME operates on freq 962 to 1212 MHz in UHF band,
20. A/C homing onto VOR on 040(M), ATC tells to report on 360˚ for a non-standard
hold. OBS indication.........? CDI indication..........................?
21. Effects of wind on CP & PNR ........? Any wind reduces dist to PNR, CP moves into
the wind.
22. Effect of reducing head winds on G/S and rate of descent.........3 Qs.
23. On approach headwind reduced, G/S will increase & ROD will increase.
Crosscheck!
24. f = c/λ calculations : 02 Qs
25. Raindrops on Wx radar shown by Red colour.
26. Same level, On Rel Brg 270 you see red light, You’ll turn right to avoid collision.
27. GPWS accepts analogue inputs from: Radalt, VSI & ILS GP Rx.
28.Lat nut is used in DGI for correction of drift due to earth’s rotation.
-0-0-0-
40
AIR NAVIGATION DGCA Q PAPER
AUGUST 2003 SESSION
N.B. : Format was Q 1 to 5 Carry 3 marks each, Q 6 to 15 carry 2 marks each, Q 16 to
80 carry 1 mark each = Total 100 marks, Passing 70 marks. No rough work sheets
were provided, allowed to do rough work on the Q paper although it leads to
disqualification vide the printed instructions thereon. Following Qs are not in
sequence. Compiled by prospective Captain….
Vikram Savekar.
1. Given : TAS 280 kts, Engine failure TAS 170kts, W/V 270/30 till CP & W/V 290/15
after CP, Total dist 800Nm. A/C follows 270(T),....etc. Calculate the distance to CP.
2. Given: Fuel cons 4 engine 3000kg/hr & 3 engine 2500kg/hr, oil cons 250 Imp Gal/hr,
distance to destination 800Nm, Dead tailwind component 100kts, ETD 1030UTC ...etc
calculates distance & ETA: PNR.
3. Given : climb t = 30min, fuel cons 1500kg/hr, descent t = 20min, fuel cons 500kg/hr,
Ldg wt 49t, TOW = 51t....etc. Calculate the mid-cruise weight.
4. Given: TOW, APS weight, Tare weight, Flt fuel, reserve fuel, Ldg weight, calculate
max payload?
5. PAPI indication for correct Glide slope inner two lights Red, outer two lights white.
6. VASI indication for correct approach Red White.
7 TA stands for____ in TCAS? (Traffic Alert, Traffic Advisory, Traffic Avoidance)
8. GPWS Mode -4 is unsafe terrain clearance (a/c not in Idg configuration)
9. GPWS receives inputs from Radalt, VSI, ILS Glide path.
10. Radar range = 182Nm, disregard the pulse width, Calculate PRF 445.01934Hz?
11. ILS glide path Rx measures ________( Phase diff between two signals in UHF
band, diff in signal strength in VHF band, diff in modulation depth between two
signals, ........etc) [ N.B.: the line along with two modulations are equal in depth is the
GP.]
12. AWR indications for heavy rains RED.
41
13. On 080(M) RBI 030, ATC tells you to report for a std holding pattern, type of
entry____( teardrop turn, direct reporting, some other terminology not in common
use....)
14. Difference between Primary & Secondary Radars__________( 4 options).
15. SSR squawk 7000 when entering FIR where no code is allotted, Mode A Code 7600
in case of communication failure.
16. AC in the dispersal on 180 hdg, ..as per VOR check table should indicate 000
FROM or 180 TO on VOR check segment on ground. If needle is more than 4°,
equipment needs servicing.
17. You tune your VOR to VOT your indication would be ( 359TO, 180TO, 182FROM,
257FROM)
18. A/C flying on the sea, will select (higher / lower) height & NDB stn (closer to land
/farther inland ).
19. Mushing error exists in ( Radalt, Radar Altimeter, Doppler, GPS).
20. In which case the OFF flag will not come ON_____( Radial error + 1˚, a/c out of
range, sig str low, grd monitoring equip U/S )
21. 1˚ = 7.26cm on a Mercator chart, Scale at 48˚ N 1:7440132.8 cm
departure=60X1cos0=60NM=1cm.
22. In DVOR Fixed Datum signal has 30Hz AM signal.
23. Some lengthy description...Refer following diagram and answer following 03 Qs on
VOR.
24. Radalt operates in VHF/UHF/ SHF band. ( 4200 to 4400MHz : Modern Radalt)
25. VOR shows full-scale deflection when hdg is + 10˚ from its selected radial.
26. ILS CDI vertical needle shows full deflection when the a/c is not within + 2.5˚ from
the selected radial.
27. While tuning VOR equipment for stn VOT ...indication as per the check table is
000FROM or 180 TO tolerance + 4˚...etc.
28. Following is not the error in VSI ___( Inst, Position, Blockage, manoeuvre etc.)
42
29. Mach meter does not suffer from (Pressure / Position / Instrument /
Compressibility) error.
N.B.: Mach meter suffer from Pressure & Instrument errors only.
30. A/C is descending with a constant Mach no., CAS will (Decrease/ increase)
31. A/C is climbing with a constant Mach no; CAS should be reduced due to (increase/
decrease) in temperature.
32. You climb from 1000’ to 10, 000’, OAT = +5˚ C, Calculate the true altitude ? (5000'
at ISA) Ans = 10350’ Formula = Pa+ {3.5 (OAT – IAS ) Pa ÷ 1000} Take Flt Lvl=Pa.
33. Double drift correction ...etc in connection with VOR and ATC procedure...?
34. On a leg of 135Nm at 90Nm, a/c finds drifting to stbd, RBI shows 190, hdg to be
altered to reach the destination?
35. False glide path occurs only above the true glide path.
36. Cat IIIC ILS :__( DH= above 60m & RVR=550m, 30m<DH<60m & RVR<300m,
DH=30m & RVR<50m, DH<30m & appropriate RVR)
37. ‘Radar Vector’ means ( time base on CRT, the vector the ATC controller wants
pilot to follow, the correct radar approach as per calibration,.....etc) ?
38. Your fore & aft axis is on 045. Quadrantal error will affect on 090 brg.......
Something like vague Q ! Signal arriving from a/c's relative quadrantal points are
affected the max.
39. You fly on 090(T) from 50˚N 175˚E a distance of 150Nm, the co-ordinates of the
destination 50°N 178°53'E& LMT will be (higher/ lower) than that of the departure
stn.
40. LMT of a place is measured (with respect to antemeridian of the location and
position of the sun ...three other closely similar options)..?
41. Lamberts Conical Conformal: scale is correct at two std parallels convergency is
zero at_________.? (GSP states: towards the equator chart convergence is too high &
towards poles it is too low. Scale is correct along Std parallels & all meridians.)
42. You are at 60S 090E, you fly 60Nm due east, then 60Nm due south, then 60 Nm
due west & finally 60 Nm due north. You will be (east/ west / south/ at the same place)
with respect to the original point of departure/
43
43. One Q with given: Distance, change in longitude... find the co-ordinates.
44. 1 litre = 1/5 Imperial Gallons? Note: 1ltr = 1/3 US Gal.
45. GPS uses 4 Satellites for obtaining a 3D fix.
46. Worst condition for a/c performance to pick up payload is (high humidity & high
temp ...other 3 options).
47. You are flying from A to B = 500Nm. At A: QFE = 1000mb, ele = 240’,
At B: QNH = 1000mb, ele = 180’. You take off with alti reading 180’ & fly without
resetting it & clear a hill of 5000’ en-route with a clearance of 1000’. Indicated
altitude = 6270’ & QFE at B = 994 mb?
48. A/C is flying at 10000’, OAT = 5˚C, True altitude will be (less than 10000’/ more
than 10000’/ equal to 10000’) Because Temperature>ISA, Altimeter under-reads.
n.b.:- If Temp> IAS Altimeter under-reads.
49. TSI: gyro is spinning at less than the rated RPM, pilot carries out a std rate one
turn through 180˚, it will take (=60 sec, <60 sec, >60sec)?
50. A Q on Remote sensing compass: regarding its sensor/datum magnet position fixed
in azimuth (horizontal, free ...., pendulous, non-pendulous etc.) ?
51. Isoclinals means lines joining (equal / zero) (dip / variation)?
52. A/c is turning right with a skid. TSI shows needle to the right , and ball to the
left.
53. The detector unit of 'Remote Indicating Compass' is normally (fixed in azimuth /
fixed in vertical plane only / free in both planes / ....)?
54. In a Remote indicating Compass the rotor of the slave gyro is automatically
prevented from wandering in vertical plane by means of ( its pendulous suspension / a
levelling switch & a torque motor ) and in horizontal plane by means of a precession
circuit.
55. To convert hdg (T) to hdg(M) you add variation W & subtract variation E.
56. W/V till CP =270/30, after CP =290/15, dist = 800Nm, a/c flies on 270(T), TAS =
175kts throughout, Dist to CP? Refer page 132 GSP vol2, Vth Edtn.
57. While flying headwind component reduces & TAS is also reduced. The change in
CP will move towards departure Stn?
44
58. Rated fuel consumption = 200lbs/hr. But in flight you find it 220lbs/hr. Therefore
PNR will (increase / decrease) by ( 10% / 20% / 40%) ?
59. One simple Q with given climb speed, ROC, Reserve, fuel consumption, descent
time etc. Calculate ROC & trip fuel on board?
60. Mach meter error.... one more Q?
 This time there were: No GC, RL problems on Mercator, No CDMVT, no Q on
gyro wander, compass swing, no Q on relative motions.
All the Best!
A civilian examiner or ‘Sant Tukkārām’ help you!!!
45
AIR NAVIGATION DGCA Q PAPER
November 2003 SESSION
Date: 17Nov 03
Time:1000 to 1300hrs
N.B. : Again third new Format sans notification! Here it goes: Q 1 to 10 Carry 3
marks each, Q 11 to 17 carry 2 marks each, Q 18 to 73 carry 1 mark each = Total 100
marks, Passing 70 marks. No rough work sheets were provided, allowed to do rough
work on the Q paper although it leads to disqualification vide the printed instructions
thereon. Following Qs are not in sequence. Compiled by prospective Captain…
Vikram Savekar!
1. A/c in the attitude of spiralling, increasing IAS, the correct sequence of recovery is
(a) I. Reduce power ii. Take out the bank, iii. raise the nose to the level attitude. Other
options with incorrect sequence.
2. W/V= 230/30, Track 040(T), FL 310, Mean fuel consumption 2,800kg/h. Calculate
the Gross fuel consumption?
Options were from 28 to 32 Kg /h. It seems the Q was with unknown error.
3. You are flying at FL350. OAT= ISA+15˚C, speed 0.9Mach, TAS = ?
4. Given T/O weight, Operational wt, RMLW, MZFW, Fuel Consumption. Two Qs of 3
marks each i. Max Payload?, ii. Max T/O Wt?
5. Altitude alert system in Radalt is ON. You are flying at FL250. While climbing the
alarm will ring at [ 25000’, 25300’, 22000’, 25100’]
6. ACAS-I warns you up to the range of [ 10Nm, 20Nm, 30Nm, 50Nm]
7. In ACAS-I TA is given in [ Azimuth & Range, Range, Direction, Range Direction&
Ht]
8. ACAS-I: on getting proximity alert
[(a) you are not permitted to manoeuvre, (b) Permitted to manoeuvre on ATC
clearance, (c) Permitted to take avoiding action ]
9. Amber solid circle in TACAS indicates...Traffic Advisory .
10. Mercator scale at 30˚ N is 1:3456000, scale at 40˚ N is ...............
46
11. Following is data of performance of aircraft; find out which a/c will cover more
distance irrespective of the fuel consumption?
3marks
A/C
A
B
C
FLT LVL
300
310
250
Tr(T)
040
060
070
W/V
230/51
160/40
270/70
FUEL CONS
28000kg/h
30000kg/h
31000kg/h
12. Given TAS = 230, Reduced TAS = 210, W/V = 240/40, Tr(T) = 040, dist to CP is
380Nm, Find the total flg time?
3 marks
13. Given Hdg =170(M), R Bearing = 346, you intercept radial 355 from NDBat 45˚
What is R Bearing & RMI indication at the time of interception?
2 marks
14. In a Procedure turn on the outbound track of 090, turn [(a) 045 for 1 min, (b) 045
for 75 sec, (c) 080 for 1 min, (d) 080 for 75 sec] N. B. : 1 min for Speed Cat A & B a/c
and 1 min 15 sec for Cat C, D & E a/c.
15. Standard Holding Pattern is [ Ellipse, Racetrack, Circle, Rectangular]
16. One more Qs on interception of radial...& calculate the DR position.
17. You take off from X 60N90E to 60N120E, arrival at destination is 1900h LMT,
flying time 2 hrs, what is the take off time in LMT [all answers given were wrong
nearest answer was 1500h LMT]
18. When earth is in extreme range from the sun is called [Aphelion, Perihelion,
Summer Equinox, Winter Equinox]
19. Select the correct statement
[(A) Mean Solar day is equal to the sidereal day, (b)..other incorrect options]
20. Critical angle increases/ decreases by night…?
21. Ground wave = [space wave + surface wave, .....]
22. SSR code for highjack is 7500 in mode A.
N.B.: No code allotted = 7000 (2000 if a/c is entering UK FIR from overseas),
Aerobatic =7004, Transponder malfunction = 0000, Communication failure =7600,
SOS = 7700.
23. Range of homing & holding NDB is 50Nm.
N.B.: En-route =200Nm, locators =10Nm.
47
24. Protection range of NDB = 70Nm by day. [ As per GSP the promulgated protection
range for an NDB is applicable during daytime only.]
25. Protection range of NDB given in the manual is applicable by [night, day only, 24
hrs, depends on weather]
26. Night effect is due to ....[ deliberately given confusing options! so study the subject
well!]
27. Given , change in degree 7˚, time taken = 1.5 min, G/S = 200, Time & distance to
the beacon?
28. Given data : R Bearing , QDM, a/c homing on to VOR, Q on indication TO/FROM,
OBS indication?
29. For precision approach runway, at the top of the approach the RVR given by the
ATC is [ the horizontal RVR on the R/W, slant distance in flight, ....]
30. For a precision approach runway the OM can be substituted by[ PAR, PDME,
DME, ...] N.B.: As per GSP ‘a DME may be used as an alternative to the markers’.
31. If you give static feed as the standby from within the un-pressurised cabin [ (a)
ASI will continuously under-read, (b) VSI will show a constant descent, (c)Altimeter
will under-read] ? Ans.:- ASI will under-read because pr inside the cabin is lesser due
to suction.
32. VOR reading is correct within [+4˚, + 5˚, +2˚,...] N.B.: GSP says overall accuracy of
the information displayed is +5˚, & in worst cases it is + 7.5˚.
33. You are flying with a continuous stbd drift of 5˚, and maintaining 12 Nm parallel
to the inbound track 090. At 45Nm short of the NDB, R bearing?
34. RMI: one numerical.
35. Correct sequence of marker lights on an approach [ (a) blue, amber, white, (b) ..]
36. DME 5 Nm, altitude 24000’, Horizontal range in km = ____?
37. PAPI: correct approach is [(a) from the r/w edge inner two lights red & outer two
lights white, (b) ...]
38. Precision Instrument R/W, distance between the touchdown lights and fixed
distance lights is [2000’, 500’, 1000’, 800’].
48
39. On an approach you see 2 dots below, G/S = 200, ROD =? N.B: Funny error was
type of scale was not mentioned viz. 4 dot or 5 dot scale!
40. On approach IAS is reduced ROD will [decrease, increase]
41. MLS elevation beam vertical coverage = 0.9˚ to 7.5˚ out to 20Nm. { N.B.: +
horizontally at least 10˚ as proportional guidance of sector. Refer the diagram in latest
GSP for the accurate coverage}
42. MLS: Azimuth transmits in SHF band & Elevation transmits in SHF band.
43. Radalt: Height is measured by the time taken between transmission & reception of
each frequency.
44. Which is the error with MLS [vehicular traffic near Tx error, site error,
propagation, Scalloping]
45. Radalt indicates 2000’ What is the minimum height that the aircraft could be 1935
in landing configuration. N.B.: Accuracy 5’ +3% of indicated height set for landing
attitude and not in taxiing attitude.
46. GPWS: Mode 1 is [check the 7th edition of GSP Vol-I]
47. ROD of 500’/ min, ldg gear locked, the mode of GPWS is [ Mode 1, Mode 2b, Mode
3, Mode 4a ] N.B. As per GSP 6th edn.
48. GPWS Qs involving option in which flap down position of an a/c is mentioned.
49. Select the correct statement:
(a) Mean solar day is equal to sidereal day.
50. The point where the earth is farthest from the sun is called [ Aphelion, Perihelion,
Summer Equinox, Winter Equinox]
51. You fly from 50S175W to 50S170E, you [ add /delete] one day & the LMT of the
destination[ lesser / higher than that of the departure stn.
52. DI drift observed at40N during a ground run is 6˚ ....correct drift would be....[ a
lengthy Q involving the use of the formula Drift = 15.04 x Sin lat/hr ]
53. Ac is flying from L to H, the true altitude will be [ higher / lower] than the actual.
54. IVSI errors: Select which are valid errors from given options. [Options given were
vague]
49
55. Constant Mach no. of 0.9, if the temperature goes down, TAS [reduces / increases]
56. For a constant power setting...
57. In TSI ac is in skidding turn to the right, the needle will be to the right and the
ball will be to the left due to excessive right rudder.
58. One Q involving deviation on hdg 145, Given Co-eff A,B, C. Use of formula Dev on
θ = A + B Sin θ + C Cos θ.
59. MOC A (.........)
(..........) two unknown Q & abbreviation!!
60. TCAS-I replies from ac up to [30Nm, 20Nm, 10Nm] away.
61. TCAS-I gives 40 sec warning of possible collision.
62. TCAS displays Amber solid circle [ (a) Pilot is permitted to take avoiding action,
(b) not permitted to take any action, (c) Can take action on ATC clearance only]
63. What information is available from ACAS-I installation [ (a) Range and Direction
of conflicting traffic, (b) Range, Direction & Track of the conflicting traffic, (c)
Direction only, (d) Range only]
64. Your altimeter is set to 20.1inch Hg & ATC tells you it is 20.9 inch Hg. What will
be indicated altimeter reading on Aerodrome with elevation 800’?
1” = 1000’
AIR NAVIGATION DGCA Q PAPER
FEBRUARY 2004 SESSION
Date: 25 Feb 04
Time:1000 to 1300hrs
N.B.: Again fourth new Format sans notification! Bravo U DGCA f’fer! Here it goes:Q 1 to 9 carry 4 marks each, Q 10 to 73 carry 1 mark each = Total 100 marks, Passing
70 marks. Every question had 4 options as answers, yet 5 questions had only 3
options. No rough work sheets were provided again this time, allowed to do rough
work on the Q paper although it leads to disqualification vide the printed instructions
thereon. Following Qs are in sequence. Compiled by prospective Captain…
Vikram Savekar.
50
1. You are flying from X to Y. W/V up to CP 250/40, after CP 300/10, Track 250(T),
TAS = 250, educed TAS = 190, Fuel consumption = 290lbs/hr, single engine f
consumption = 230lbs/hr, …..Calculate distance to CP.
2. …A very long description for the calculation of PNR, Given wind component +30kts,
track 090(T), mean TAS = 245, f consumption + 220lbs/he, reduced TAS + 180 kts,
reduced cons + 190lbs/hr, FOB + 1000lbs…distance not given…Practise such problems
from GSP.
3. You take off from A to B, A’s elevation is 180’& B 480’, A/C takes off with pressure
1010mb on subscale of 180’, Altimeter is not reset. Lands at B after flying at5000’ &
reads 570’ on landing. Calculate QFE & QNH at B.
4. Following is the data of the a/c’s fuel consumption. Which a/c has the worst fuel
consumption considering an uniform specific gravity of 0.8 ?
A
1.5 km/kg
B
1.9 Sm/US Gallon
C
2Nm/9lbs
D
0.9 Nm/Imp Gallon
Ж
An in-detail description of a flight on a track 020(T), A to B, A/C descends
for 20 min & covers 55 ‘Air Nautical Miles’ from FL150 to 1000’ overhead B. Answer
the Q 5 to 7.
W/V 250/30kts
TAS 210
ROC 500’/min
Temp 10˚ C
FL 150, TAS 250kts
W/V 300/30kts
Fuel Cons 160lbs/hr
Temp -10˚ C
descent for 20 min
W/V 020/30
5000’ A
B 1000’
5. What is the distance covered by the a/c during descent and what was its ground
speed?
6. What is the mid- cruise flying time and the ground speed?
7. What are ground speed & the time for climb?
8. Max TOW = 72000kg, MLW = 6200kg, MZFW = 58000kg, Burn-off = 8000kg, Res =
2000kg, Operational weight = 42000kg, calculation of Max payload and T/O weight.
Typical simple example illustrated as in GSP Vol2.
9. One Q on VOR with given Rel Brg, QDR, QDM, RMI indication , ATC procedure &
find out the heading at the time of interception…Don’t remember the exact Question.
51
10. In TCAS TA stands for
…..
(a) Traffic Advisory, (b) Traffic Advisory, (c) Traffic Alert
11. In TCAS the audio warning for TA is…..
(a) Threat threat, (b) Traffic Traffic, (c) Whoop Whoop, (d) Pull up
12. In TCAS RA stands for …
(a) Resolution Advisory, (b)Random Access, (c) Resolution action
13. GPWS gives coverage from 50’ up to….
(a) 2450’, (b) 1800’, (c) 1000’, (d) 500’
14. Mushing error exists in …
(a) Radar Altimeter, (b) Std Altimeter, (c) Digital Altimeter, (d) Radio Altimeter
15. “ Terrain Terrain “ alert is given in following conditions in GPWS:
(a) Excessive rate of terrain closure (a/c not in ldg config)
(b) Unsafe terrain clearance ( a/c not in ldg config)
(c) Unsafe terrain clearance (a/c not in ldg config & flaps up)
16. To increase the rate of turn you (increase/ decrease) the bank and
(reduce/increase) the speed.
17. Worst case for a/c performance is ..
(a) High temp & high humidity (b) Low temp & low humidity
(c) low temp high humidity
(d) High temp & low humidity
18. Co-efficient B & C are corrected by
(a) Corrector box, (b) L key, (c) magnetic cross, (d) Corrector key
19. Co-efficient A is caused by…
(a) hard iron magnetism of compass, (b) misaligned lubber line
20. Real drift is due to …
(a) Earth rotation, (b) Lat nut, (c) Transportation of gyro
21. Your Rel Brg is 080, hdg is 060, ATC tells you to join the left hand hold for radial
270, What will be the type of entry?
(a) Sector 1, (b) Sector 2, (c) Sector 3, (d) direct overhead
22. You are accelerating & then decelerating in northern hemisphere, which one of the
following conditions true?
(a) Compass will read correctly while accelerating on North or South direction
52
23. You are coming out of the turn of 15˚ of bank in N hemisphere; your compass will
read correctly on East & West directions.
24. While flying from A to B a leg of 150Nm, with W/V 140/10, on track 090(T), you
find your ADF is showing 170˚ at 90 Nm. What heading correction will it require to
reach B correctly? [ Use 1 in 60 rule or trigonometry]
25. ILS localizer, which gives guidance in glide slope for an a/c on approach; gives
coverage of
(a) 10Nm, ±8˚ from the R/W centreline, (b) 25Nm, ±10˚ from R/W centreline
(c) 17Nm , ±25˚ from the R/W centreline
26. You fly from 50N 170E to B 50N 175W. You subtract a day & the LMT will lesser
than that of A.
27. Given track 064(T), hdg 050(T), G/S = 190kts, Find W/V. {Use DR Computer}
28. A/C with a constant mach number is descending, IAS will increase.
29. You are climbing with a constant IAS, Mach number will increase.
30. Altitude FL 150, Temp deviation +5˚ C, RAS = 190 kts, calculate the Mach
number.
31. Calculate the speed of sound with given data as Temp -15 C at 15000’.
32. Select the true statement about Nautical Mile
(a) Equal to 6080’ constant, (b) is greater at equator than at pole
(c) is greater at poles than at equator
33. Magnetic equator means…
(a) a line where magnetic inclination is nil, (b) the line where magnetic dip is
nil
(c) is geographical equator at 0˚ lat
34. How many times in a year the Sun will be overhead Delhi?
(a) Once, (b) Twice, (c) Never
35. What is the distance on a single wave of the transmission of600kHz? [ λ= c/f]
36. In VOR what is the correct transmission?
(a) One carrier is used for the transmission of the Reference & the Variable
signals in FM & AM.
53
37. How many a/c saturate the DME? [ 100, 50, 48, 99 ]
38. On an ILS approach over OM you receive..
(a) Two dashes of 400Hz superimposed on 75MHz
39. When radio wave passes through one medium to another medium with a different
refractive index…
(a) Its direction changes but speed doesn’t change
(b) both speed & direction change, (c) nothing changes, (d) can’t say
40. VOR monitor stops indent & then the transmission of VOR when transmitted
radial has 1˚ and above error.
41. When you tune to VOT your indicator shows
(a) 280 FROM, (b) TO with 180, (c) FROM with 360, (d) FROM with 180
42. On NDB receiver you find fading and hunting of the ADF needle, it is due to
(a) Mountain effect, (b) Due to thunderstorm, (c) Quadrantal error
(d) Night Effect
43. NDB transmission (a) Electrical component is in the vertical plane & transmission
is in Upper LF & Lower MF band with Amp Modulation, …other 3 incorrect options.
44. A locator has an average radius of coverage of
(a) 0-5 Nm, (b) 5- 10 Nm, (c) 10 – 25 Nm, (d) 50 Nm
45. You are on 050(M), RBI = 045, W/V = 140/20, what is the RMI indication?
46. Advantage of DVOR is…
(a) Site error is virtually eliminated... other 3 wrong option.
54
You are on 160(M), you have tuned your VOR correctly to follow R/W centreline, DME
indication is 40 Nm. Refer the following diagram, It has 4 dot scale. NDB is co-located
with VOR, winds are from left hand side 10 kts. Answer the following three questions.
346
47. What is the ADF Indication?
FROM
48. What is the distance off-track from the R/W
centreline?
49. After double drift correction what hdg
correction required to intercept the required radial?
(a) 008˚ port, (b) 008˚ stbd
50. You are homing onto VOR A on 000, you tune another receiver to VOR B which is
to due left of your track, you select 270 on OBS, ‘FROM’ flag appears when you are
crossing abeam. Select the correct interpretation.
(a) You have just crossed past the 270 radial….& other 3 options
51. You are on 050(M), RBI indication 045, ATC tells you to report for LH holding
pattern for 300 radial, VOR & NDB are co-located. What is the heading to intercept
the required radial?
52. On ILS approach you get full fly up deflection…
(a) you are 0.7˚ below the Glide Path….other 3 wrong options
53. You are on ‘090 TO’ radial you get full right deflection, you are on ________ radial.
54. DME range coverage (a) Max 200Nm up to 30,000’
55. Heavy rains is indicated by Red echo on AWR.
56. Transverse Mercator is most useful for topography
(a) Oriented North - South, (b) Oriented East – West….
57. Total distance 2000Nm, you had calculated CP at 800Nm with headwind
component of 50kts & tailwind component of 50kts. But you find in flight that the
winds are the other way round. Your distance to CP will be… [ ans: 2000 – 800 =
1200Nm]
58. The static and the pitot vent of your aircraft are blocked, the instruments affected
on board are…(a) ASI, VSI, Altimeter, Machmeter…other 3 wrong options.
55
59. While climbing the static vent gets blocked (a) ASI will under-read …
60. You are at 10,000’ , OAT is less than ISA, your altimeter shows higher altitude
than the actual one.
61. One Q with given RAS, FL.. Calculate TAS.
62. On an VASI approach the pilot reports farther light is white and the nearer light
is Red, Select the correct interpretation
(a) He is on the correct approach; (b) He is overshooting,
(c) He is undershooting; (d) It’s an Impossible situation.
63. Gyro precession is defined as [select the correct definition from lengthy options]
64. Artificial Horizon uses (a) Earth gyro, (b) Free gyro, (c) space gyro (d) none
65. A/C is flying at FL 310, A/C B is flying at FL 290. If they are flying for crosscountry at a same mach number; which a/c will reach the destination the earliest?
Wind velocity is the same at both the levels.
(a) a/c A, (b) a/c B, (c) can’t say.
-0-0-0AIRNAV : FLIGHT PLANNING
1.
On a flight from A to B distance 1378 nms TAS 220K Track 076 (T) W/V
330/35K. Fuel on board 1250 gals with fuel consumption (F/C) 95 gph.
Calculate :(a) SAR (b) Distance and time to CP (c) Distance & time to PNR with
200 gals of reserve fuel.
2.
On a flight A to B distance 985 nms, TAS 160 K, Track 345 (T), W/V 090/30K.
Fuel consumption 85 gph; fuel requirement as per flight plus 150 gals as reserve.
Find :(a) Fuel in gals required for flight (b) SAR (c) Time & Distance to
CP & PNR
3.
On a flight from A to B distance 1275 nms, TAS 195 K, Track 335 (T), W/V
260/35K. Find :(a) Distance to CP (b) If CP reached 55 mins before PNR, what is the
56
fuel in gals on board ( F/C 105 gals/hr)
4.
On a flight from A to B distance to PNR is 879 nms, TAS 200K, Track 125(T),
W/V 070/35K. Fuel on board 1000 gals. Find :(a) F/C (b) SAR (c) If CP is reached 35 mins before PNR, what is the
distance between A & B, and also calculate fuel left at end of flight.
5.
On a flight A to X via B & C. TAS 200k and route details as under :-
Stage
Tr (T)
A-B
095
B-C
150
C-X
225
Find distance and time to CP.
6.
W/V
Dist (Nms)
045/35K
225
200/25K
312
180/30K
260
On a flight from A to D via B & C. TAS 180 K, route details given below :Stage
Tr (T)
W/V
Dist (Nms)
A-B
039
310/25K
205
B-C
067
280/35K
303
C-D
115
070/30K
175
(a) Find distance and time to CP (b) If Total fuel on board is 1000
gals and F/C is 185 gph, Calculate :(i) SAR (ii) Time and distance to PNR with 150 gals as reserve.
7.
On a flight A to X via B, C & D. TAS 190k and route details as under:Stage
Tr (T)
W/V
Dist (Nms)
A-B
337
010/20K
167
B-C
258
060/30K
195
C-D
215
090/25K
178
D-X
167
120/35
207
(a) Find distance and time to CP (b) If Total fuel on board is 1050
gals and F/C is 178 gph, Calculate :(i) SAR (ii) Time and distance to PNR with 170 gals as reserve.
Find distance and time to CP.
8.
On a flight A to X via B & C in Super Const ac normal TAS 230k, with one
engine failure reduced performance TAS 190K and route details as under :Stage
Tr (T)
W/V
Dist (Nms)
A-B
097
035/35K
195
B-C
129
330/25K
205
C-X
165
300/30K
185
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N. B.:- Most of the questions have all options as correct answers & at Later part of
this Question bank are the important points to be remembered.
AIR NAVIGATION AND RADIO AIDS
1.
The purpose of SSR...To provide positive identification of ac for adequate safe
control of ATC.
2.
What is Mode (SSR)....? All signals are coded in SSR; the code of
_______interrogation signal is called Mode_______ N.B.: Pulse intervals are referred to
as ‘Modes’.
3. In SSR what frequency is used...Ground Station Transmits on 1030 MHz & and
receives on 1090 MHz  3 MHz, ac transmits on 1090 MHz and receives on 1030 MHz
 0.2 MHz.
4. Give types of mode used in SSR?
In SSR, interrogation transmits two pulses with precision spacing and there are
four modes,
each one having a different spacing:(a) Mode A has pulse (always 8 microsecs wide) and 8 ms apart.
(b) Mode B, 17 μs apart = Spare mode for A, superceded by Mode S.
(c) Mode C, 21 μs apart
(d) Mode S = data link mode, also interrogated in Mode A & C.
5. Range of SSR is...200 Nms, PRF of SSR is....250 pulses per sec.
6. What are the advantages of SSR?
(a) Long Range (b) No clutter, no unwanted
high buildings etc. (c) Reply signal gives Range
(d) No effort on pilot. (e) All other channels are
instantaneous and unambiguous. (g) No effect
needed.
echoes from clouds, high grounds,
height and Bearing automatically.
left free. (f) Information to ATC is
on ac maneuvers. (h) Little power
7. Radar equipment to have a range of 170 NMs, find the PRF?
Soln: The pulse must travel 170 x 2 x 1.85 kms before the next pulse is Tx.
Hence PRP = 170 x 2 x 1.85 x 1000 /300 ms =2096 microsecond
6
PRF = 1/PRP = 1 x 10 / 2096 = 477 Hz
8. Find range on VHF when TX ht. is 300 ft and ac is at 30,000 ft.
Soln: Range Nm = 1.25√300 + 1.25√30000 = 238.15Nm
58
9. An ac is at FL 610 and obtains a DME reading of 18 Nms; find the distance of the
ac from the DME. Using Pythagoras theorem:
Distance = √ [ (18 x 18) ­- (61000/6080)² ] =14.9 NM
10. Phase comparison is used in.... VOR and DECCA.
11. Static interference is.....more in summer and more in lower latitudes.
12. What are the discrepancies in RMI readings?
(a) If the ac's position variation is different from the stations variation then
relative bearing indicated will be incorrect but QDM shown will be correct.
(b) If the NDB & VOR are co-located then QDM's from VOR & NDB as
displayed by RMI will be different, if variation at ac position is different from
variation at station. Then which QDM will be correct in this case? Verify.
13. What are the advantages of RMI?
(a) QDM/QDR are read off directly & are indicated continuously (tail end of the
pointer indicates QDR )
(b) Uses two beacons gives instantaneous fix.
(c) RMI gives useful guidance for initially joining a radial for VOR homing.
(d) Itself used for homing.
(e) Magnetic heading can be read off.
(f) Visually relative bearing can be assessed.
14. What are the factors affecting VOR?
(a) Site Error
(b) Propagation Error
(c) Airborne Equipment Error
(d) Pilot Error occurs when ac close to VOR due to increased sensitivity of the
needle.
(e) Interference Error
15. 1 dot deflection on a 4 dot glide slope indicates:(a) 0.7 deg (b) 0.7/4 deg (c) 0.27 deg of the glide slope.
n.b.: Full deflection when a/c is 0.7 above or below glide path. Half full
deflection is max safe limit of deviation.
16. The max safe deflection below a glide path is:
(a) 1 dot on 4 dot or 1.5 dot on 5 dot indicator
√(b) 2 -------"------- 2.5---------"-----------(c) 3 -------"------- 3.5---------"-----------17. The glide slope is not to be relied upon beyond:-
59
(a) 30 NM (b) 120 NM (c) 10 Nm & 8 deg on either side of centerline.√
18. On a 3 deg glide slope an ac gets half deflection showing below indication.
There is a 285 ft obstruction 2.2 NM from the threshold. What is the clearance of the
ac above the obstruction?
19. The ac is below the glide slope and to the left of the centre line. Indication in the
ac will be (a/c for landing):(a) Bottom & to the left
(b) Above & to the right
(c) Above & to the left
20. The Skip Distance is:(a) Distance between actual null & point of max reception.
(b) Distance between crest to crest of a radio wave.
(c) Distance between the point where the ground wave fades out & reflected sky
wave strikes
the Earth = Dead Space !
(d) Distance between the Tx and the point where first sky wave reflected from
Ionosphere
meets the surface of the earth.
21. The relative advantage in having CONSOL is:- (out of syllabus)
(a) Requires only radio receiving equipment in the ac.
(b) The position of the ac is always indicated on the CRT.
(c) The position of the ac is worked out by the ground station and given to the ac.
(d) No special equipment is required in the ac.
(e) It is simple to use, has a long range & easy to maintain.
22. An ac gets most accurate relative bearing when:(a) Station on land takes a bearing of ac over sea.
(b) Station on sea takes a bearing of ac over land.
√(c) One ac takes the bearing of the other ac.
(Refer ICAO Annex-14 ‘Aerodromes’) ¬
23. In a 3-bar VASI, the correct “on approach” indication received in an ac with more
than 15 ft eye level distance is:(a) Red on White White (b) White on White white (c) White on Red White
24. In a T VASI, the indication for an undershooting approach is:(a) Inverted T (b) Horizontal Bar of T (c) T ... is visible (d) Red fly up lights visible
60
N.B. On approach U see wing bar lights white i.e. (b) above for a correct approach.
25. In a 2-Bar VASI, 12 lights are arranged:(a) Between 500 ft to 1200 ft up the threshold
(b) ---"--- 400 ..".. 1100 ........".........
(c) ---"--- 300 --"-- 1000 ........"..........
26. The period in which a Radio Wave travels from max positive to zero & then to
max negative to zero is :- ( Q wrongly written)
(a) Frequency (b) Wave Length (c) Cycle
27. In a micro second a radio wave travels approximately:(a) 1 meter (b) 10 cm (c) 1 km.
(Correct ans = 300000000/1000000 = 300m)
28. The max accuracy in a CONSOL is :- (out dated)
(a) Over the line pointing at the Tx
(b) At normal to the line pointing the Tx
(c) On Quadrantal headings
29. Ground Attenuation is greater on:(a) LF (b) HF (c) VHF
30. An ac tracking-in on 045 deg radial is drifting to starboard, Radio Compass will
read :- (After giving correction to be on Rad 045)
(a) 000 ° (b) > 000 ° (c) < 000 °
31. Micro wave Landing system.....operates on micro waves & provides glide path &
distance guidance to an ac with compatible equipment while on a landing approach.
32. Weather Radar (Airborne Search Radar) is a:(a) Primary Radar (b) Secondary Radar (c) Precision Radar.
33. The best frequency for Long Range Communication is:(a) LF (b) HF (c) VHF
34. Duct Propagation [(a) Decreases, (b) Increases, (c) Does not effect] VHF range.
35. Aircraft operating on ADF, the NDB:(a) Provides true relative bearing of ac from station
√(b) ..............."................ station from ac
(c) Places the Loop aerial in the minimum position wrt the NDB.
61
36. In VOR, the reference and variable signal are in phase:(a) When due north of station
(b) When due Compass North of the stn.
√(c) When due Magnetic North of the Stn.
37. The advantage of VOR as compared to Radio Range is :- all
(a) The range is greater
(b) No special equipment need be required
(c) Homing is not restricted to "To & From" legs only.
38. In a VOR the Course Deviation Indicator is deflected to the left means
(a) Aircraft should be turned right to regain track
√(b) ............."........... left........"....( With 'To'& homing in )
(c) Equipment is inoperative
39. Advantages of RMI over VOR is:- all
(a) Can be used for Homing
(b) Instantaneous Fix can be obtained
(c) Range is greater.
40. VOR can be used for obtaining a FIX by:(a) Coupling ILS locator with DME.
(b) Bearings plotted from two beacons. (Both true) √
41. If PRF is 250 pulses the PRP of the Transmission is:PRP =1/PRF or 1/250 sec or 1000000/250 ms = 4000 ms
42. What should be the PRF to have equipment capable of measuring distances up
to 185kms?
The pulse has to travel a distance of 185 x 2 =370 kms
Hence time to travel =370 x 1000 x 10*6/3 x 10*8 ms = 3700/3 = 1233 ms
Hence PRP = 1233 ms. PRF = 1/PRP = 1 x 10*6/ 1233 = 811 pulses.
43. Differentiate Phase Comparison & Phase Difference?
> Phase difference is the angular difference between the corresponding points on
the wave form and is measurable (is used in CONSOL)
> Phase Comparison is the phase difference between two low frequency
modulations superimposed on the same carrier frequency (used in VOR)
44. Markers of ILS are calibrated upto a height of...approx 3000 ft
45 In E layer sporadic fluctuations in ionization may occur all year around, but are
more pronounced...in summer months.
62
46. Function of Grid in CRT is:To control the number of electrons passing through the grid by varying the voltage
thus controlling the brilliance
47. Dead Space is: - The space between the point of final rage of the surface wave &
the point of first sky return wave.
D=1.05 √H
48. ILS Localizer coverage is:The localizer coverage extends from Tx to 25 NMs, 10 deg either side of centre line:
however it widens to 35 deg either side of centre line at a distance of 17 NMs. The
Vertical Coverage is 7 deg. Max field strength is directed on the centre line at a
distance of 10 NMs. Localizer signals are protected from interference till a range
of 25NMs upto an altitude of 6250 ft along " on course line ", but for
the
accuracy, they are checked at 10 NMs.
49. What is the ILS Glide Path coverage?
=Coverage in azimuth: 8 deg up to range of 10 NMs
=Coverage in Vertical plane: From 0.45 x GP deg to 1.75 GP deg
50. Ionosphere Density is max....when sun crosses the meridian.
51. What is Ionospheric Attenuation?
=Ionospheric Attenuation is due to Radio energy absorbed by the atmosphere. The
extent of attenuation depends on:(a) Density of the layer: The greater the density the greater the attenuation.
(b) Penetration Depth: The deeper the signal penetrates the greater the
attenuation.
(c) Frequency in use: The lower the frequency the greater the attenuation.
52. Convert 30 GHz into Wave length?
Frequency x Wavelength = Speed of Light
Hence Wavelength = 3 x 10*8/30 x 10*9 = 0.01 m = 1 cm.
53. What are the advantages of VOR over NDB?
(a) VOR is easier to see & follow.
(b) Provides infinite number of tracks.
(c) Free from night effect, static interference & coastal refraction.
(d) Being VHF aid its ranges can be forecasted before beacons are sited, thus
avoiding
interference.
(e) Its left/right indicator can also display ILS signals.
63
(f) It can be frequency paired with DME to give a FIX.
(g) It incorporates an equipment failure device.
(h) Its channel spacing is much better than NDB.
(j) Being in VHF band its aerial is smaller.
54. An ac RMI is being fed from a VOR & NDB. NDB is tracking to VOR on radial
228 deg. Drift is 5 deg port. NDB bears 060 (Rel). Give indications on NDB?
Ans:- Rel Brg + Hdg (M) = QDM : RMI always indicates QDM : VOR radials are
always on QDR's. Aircraft tracking on radial 228 means QDM = 048
> Hence VOR pointer indicates 048 deg.
> Aircraft track = 048; Drift = 5 deg port Hence ac hdg = 053 deg
> Rel Brg + Hdg (M) = QDM ; 060 + 053 = QDM = 113 deg is indicated on NDB.
55. ILS Glide Scope Frequency is:(a) 328 - 335 KHz (b) 328 - 335 MHz (c) 108 - 118 MHz.
56. What are the factors affecting HF Comm. Range: - (a) Power of Tx & Rx (b) Ht of
Tx & Rx
(c) Obstacles at or near the transmission site (it will block the signals or scatter
them with inevitable attenuation)
(d) Any upstanding obstruction in the line of sight between ac & ground station
(e) Sometimes the ac may receive both direct & ground reflected waves which may
cause fading or even short term loss of communications
(f) Meteorological conditions like inversion results in duct propagation.
57. What are the factors affecting ADF exactness?
(a) Night Effect (b) Type of Terrain (c) Coastal Effect (d) Static Interference (e)
Quadrantal Error.
58. You will descend to Decision Ht when:√(a) Glide Path, Localizer & Markers are available
(b) Glide Path & Localizer are serviceable, Marker is u/s.
(c) Glide Path is u/s, Localizer & Marker is serviceable.
59. ATC Controller gets information on Azimuth & Range only on:(a) PAR (b) SRE (c) None.
60. Duct Propagation results in:√ (a) Increase in VHF range (b) Decrease in VHF range (c) Increase in HF Range.
61. Brilliance in CRT is controlled by: - (inaccurate question)
64
(a) Increase in - ve Grid Voltage
increases brilliance.
(b) Decrease -----"--------(c) Increase in - ve voltage in 2nd Anode
(d) Decrease .........."............
62. When voltage is applied to the X-plates but not to the Y-plates, blip movement
will be:(a) Horizontal (b) Vertical (c) remain stationary
63. DME is available to:(a) Any number of ac within 200 NMs
(b) Limited number of ac within 500 NMs
√(c) -----------"--------------- 200 NMs – 100 AC saturate the beacon.
64. Primary Radar principle is used in:(a) DME (b) LORAN (c) Radio Altimeter
65. Radio Altimeter suffers from mushing error at:(a) Low altitude (b) Medium Altitude (c) High Altitude
66. Radio Altimeter is most inaccurate at:2,500' only.
(a) 500 ft (b) 1500 ft (c) 5000 ft
Most instruments cater for ht 500 to
67. Doppler frequency shift fd = 2V Cosθ/λ ; If the depression angle of the aerial is
increased, the Doppler Shift will :θ = depression angle
(a) Increase (b) decrease (c) No change
68. Doppler is most inaccurate over:(a) Mountainous Areas (b) Flat land (c) Calm Sea
basically over rough sea.
Over calm sea, the error will be there but it will be lesser.
69. The phase difference between reference tone & variable tone in VOR is zero along
the:(a) Mag North (b) True north (c) 180 (T) (d) 180 (M)
70. Advantages of VOR over Radio Range is:(a) Indicates True Bearing (b) Gives QDM (c) Not restricted to four legs.
71. To avoid precipitation static when passing through rain/snow, use:(a) Sense Aerial (b) Trailing Aerial (c) Loop Aerial (d) Both Loop & Sense Aerial. ?
65
72. In ADF (Radio Compass) for getting Homing, Loop aerial is aligned:(a) In the direction of the station
√(b) 90 deg to ------"----------(c) Loop is aligned to True North
73. In DF minima occurs when:(a) Loop Aerial is in line with the Tx
√(b) ------"---- at right angles to the Tx
(c) ---"--- is on quadrantal headings
74. Night Effect is maximum when:(a) 200 Nms (b) 350 - 450 Nms (c) 600 Nms
75. Night Effect is greater:(a) Over Land (b) Over Sea (c) Is same over Land or Sea
76. While flying over sea, ac takes bearing from a coastal DF station: the bearing will
be more accurate if:(a) Aircraft bearing is oblique to normal.
(b) Aircraft bearing is very near to normal.
77. In above question the bearing of ac will be more accurate if:(a) DR Station is further inland from the coast
(b) DR Station is very near to the coast
78. The advantages of RMI over ADF are that. RMI gives:(a) Instantaneous True Hdg & QDM
(b) ----"----- Mag Hdg & QUJ
√(c) ----"----- Mag Hdg & QDM
(d) ----"-----
True Hdg & QUJ
79. You have joined standard hold over NDB, when you had just completed second
Rate One turn, ATC tells you to carry out one more hold, you will be delayed further
by :- ??
(a) 4 min (b) 5 min (c) 6 min (d) 7min (e) 8 min
80. An airline ac descending through clouds in an approach on runway for landing
sees VASI, Red on Red then Red on White then White on White :(a) He is first overshooting, then correct, then undershooting
√(b) He is first undershooting, then correct, then overshooting
(c) He is correct, then overshooting, then undershooting
81. Correct VASI indication for overshooting approach is:-
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√(a) White over White on both sides
(b) Red over Red on both sides
(c) White over Red on both sides.
82. CONSOL accuracy is maximum on: - out of syllabus! ! !
(a) sectors which are perpendicular to base line
(b) base line sectors
(c) sectors which lie on Quadrantal headings
83. Given the following readings of a compass swing, find Co-eff A,B&C & prepare a
Deviation Card after correcting for Co-eff A
AC Compass
180
227
270
316
359
047
091
135
Ldg Compass
175
223
270
320
002
045
085
129
Dev
Co-eff A Residual Dev
-5
-4
0
+4
+3
-2
-6
-6
+2
+2
+2
+2
+2
+2
+2
+2
-3
-2
+2
+6
+5
0
-4
-4
84. An ac compass swing gives the following readings:Hdg (C)
Hdg (M)
002
091
183
001
096
186
Dev
-1˚
+5˚
+3˚
Calculate the Co-eff A, B&C and prepare the Deviation card.
85. In one microsecond the distance traveled by a radio wave is 300 m.
86. Frequency is the number of cycles per second.
87. Complete series of values or one complete process is called cycle.
88. Number of cycles in one sec expressed in hertz is called frequency.
89. The distance traveled by radio wave in one cycle is Wave Length.
90. Any stage of the cycle of an alternating current is referred to as phase.
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91. The relationship between frequency, wave length & vel of radio waves is: - C = fλ
where C=vel of EMwave (3 x 10³ m/s); f = freq; λ = wavelength.
92. Phase difference is the angular difference between the corresponding points on
the wave form and is measurable.
93. When a transmission is made from a vertical aerial the electrostatic component
travels in the vertical plane and the radio wave is vertically polarized.
94.
Any aerial with circular polar diagram will receive signals equally from all
directions.
95.
The process of superimposing intelligence over a carrier wave is called
Modulation.
96. Modulation is of three types:(a) AM (Amplitude Mod) (b) FM (Freq Mod) (c) Pulse Modulation.
97. List the properties of Radio Waves?
(a) They travel at constant speed (b) they travel the shortest distance (c) They
bend when traveling from a one medium to another (d) They get attenuated in the
medium they travel.
98. The phenomenon of diffraction and scattering causes the radio waves to bend and
go over and around any obstacle in their path. (Only up to MF Band)
99. Bending due to diffraction and tilting due to attenuation causes the radio waves
to curve with the surface of the earth. (Applicable only up to MF Band)
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100. How is the frequency spectrum divided into the various bands? Give details of
the frequency and bands?
Band
VLF
LF
MF
HF
VHF
UHF
SHF
EHF
Frequency
03-30
KHz
30-300 KHz
300-3000 KHz
3-30
MHz
30-300 MHz
300-3000 MHz
03-30 GHz
30-300 GHz
101. In a given medium the radio waves travel at a constant speed.
102. Attenuation is loss of energy of EM waves.
103. The factors affecting ground wave attenuation are :(a) Type of surface (b) Frequency in use
104. Absorption of energy of radio waves in the medium which they travel is called
attenuation.
105. The Ionosphere is an electrically conductive sphere completely surrounding the
earth.
106. The Ionosphere can be divided into D, E & F layers.
107. The height of D layer is between 50-100 kms
108. -------"--- E ------"-------- 100-150”
109. ----"----- F ------" ------- 150-350”
110. The Ionosphere attenuation depends on:(a) Density of the layer (b) Penetration depth (c) Freq in use (d) all correct
111. The angle of incidence at which a space wave will escape in space is called critical
angle.
112. The higher the frequency the higher the critical angle.
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113. The sky wave range will depend upon:(a)Tx power (b) Depth of penetration (c) Critical & Angle of Incidence (d) all
correct.
114. Fading is sudden increase or decrease in the signal strength.
115. Diagrammatically show a Multi-Hop phenomenon.
116. With the help of a diagram depict critical angle & a sky wave
117. With the help of a diagram show space wave, ground wave & sky wave, skip
distance and dead space.
118. The VHF range is Line of Sight.
119. Duct propagation increases the range of VHF & above waves.
120. The Met conditions necessary for duct propagation are:(a) Warm dry air (b) Subsidence (c) Pronounced radiation cooling
121. Climatic conditions most favourable for duct propagation are usually found in
Tropical regions and lower than 40 deg latitudes.
122. Range of VHF is given by the formula:D (NM) =1.25 √(Ht of Tx) + 1.25 √ (Ht of Rx)
123. Critical frequency is that frequency at which a vertical incident ray in the
ionosphere is reflected back to the earth.
124. Lower frequency radio waves are reflected from lower levels of ionosphere.
125. Lower freq radio waves require lower critical angles.
126. Radio Compass works on the principle of Phase difference.
127. List the errors of the Radio Compass.
(a) Night Effect (b) Quadrantal Error (c) Syn Tx (d) Coastal Refraction
128. Night effect is due to sky wave interference.
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129. ADF works in the freq band 200- 1750 KHz
(a) Homing holding (b) Long Range Nav (c) Airway Fixes & Airway Flg.
130. When the Loop antenna is in line with the radio wave there is max phase
difference in both the vertical members of the loop aerial.
131. When the loop antenna is in the null position, the phase difference between the
two vertical members of the loop is zero.
132. List the types of NDB's.
(a) Homing holding (b) Long Range (c) Locator
133. The purpose of BFO in an ADF is to convert ac emission with audio freq for
identification.
134. Holding pattern is a pre-set maneuver which an ac commences once it comes
over a beacon.
135. List the factors affecting the range of an NDB.
(a) Tx Power (b) Type of Terrain (c) Night Effect (d) Type of Tx
(e) Protection Range (f) Frequency in use
136. As the height of the ac increases the range of ADF remains the same.
137. If a FIX is obtained over the sea by using a land based NDB, the coastal
refraction will shift the FIX obtained towards the coast.
138. The range of NDB over land is 150 Nm by day & 350 Nm by night while over sea
it is 350 NM during day & 500 NM by night.
139. The accuracy of ADF is within 2 deg below 80 Nm; beyond 80 NM it is within 5
deg.
140. The principle used in VOR is bearing by Phase Comparison.
141. The reference signal is omni directional / freq modulated.
142. The ref signal carrier freq is 9960 Hz and the sub-carrier has freq mod of 30 Hz.
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143. The polar diagram of the ref signal of a VOR is circular.
144. The variable signal has an amplitude mod of 30
145. The Cardioid diagram in a VOR is called a LIMICON.
146. If a receiver is due north of the VOR beacon, the phase difference between the
variable phase and the reference phase is zero.
147. The VOR radials are Magnetic.
148. The phase difference in the VOR reference & variable phases is zero when Rx is
due Mag north of Beacon.
149. The basic airborne equipment of VOR consists of:(a) Aerial (b) Rx (c) Indicator
150. Three basic components of an indicator in VOR are:(a) OBS (b) CDI (c) TO / FROM
151. The OBS is used by the pilot to set the VOR Radial (Mag Tr)
152. When an ac is more than 10 deg away from the selected radial the CDI will show
full scale deflection.
153. In a 5 dot indicator 1 dot deviation indication by the VOR, CDI shows 2 deg away
from the radial selected.
154. One dot deflection of CDI in a 4 dot indicator shows an indication of 2.5 deg.
155. The failure flag in the VOR will appear on the following occasions:(a) ac Rx failure (b) Gd Stn failure (c) Indicator failure
156. VOR operates on 108-117.95 MHz.
157. The uses of VOR are:(a) Homing Airway Flying (b) Holding Airway Flying (c) X-Country Nav
158. The cone of confusion occurs overhead in VOR.
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159. List the factors affecting the range of VOR:(a) Power of Tx (b) Ht of Tx & Rx (c) Protection of ac & Altitude (d) Terrain
160. Accuracy of VOR is + 5º
161. The RMI on a VOR gives QDM.
162. Class A Brg has an accuracy of ± 2º
163. Class B ...........".......... ± 5º
164. Class C ...........".......... ±10º
165. Differentiate between:(a) QTE ... True Brg of ac from Gd Stn
(b) QUJ ... True Brg of Gd Stn from ac
(c) QDM ... Mag Brg of Grd Stn from ac
(d) QDR ... Meg Brg of ac from Gd Stn
QTI = Heading Mag
QTJ = Speed
QBD = Endurance
166. CONSOL works on a freq 200-400 KHz
167. In a CONSOL there are alternating sectors of dots and dashes producing an
equisignal between them.
168. In a CONSOL Tx there are 11 + 11 = 22 equisignals.
169. Accuracy of CONSOL increases with increase in range.
170. Range of CONSOL over Land during day is 700 and by night is 1200 NMs and
over Sea during day is 1000 Nm and by night is 1200 NMs.
171. Accuracy of CONSOL is:Land 4 characters or 2/3º Day
Sea
2 characters Night (350-450 Nm) 15 characters or 2.5 º ; beyond
600Nm 4
to 6 characters or 2/3º to 1 deg.
172. With the use of CONSOL very high ranges are available.
173. ILS is a pilot interpreted landing aid.
174. ILS ground installation consists of:-
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(a) Localiser (b) Glide Path (c) Marker Beacon
175. When the pilot is approaching to land the Blue Sector is to his right and the
Yellow Sector to his left. (On indicator : reverse marking)
176. The coverage of the Localiser ground beacon is:177. The coverage of Glide Path Beacon is:178. Both the needles of CDI will remain in the centre when:(a) ac is on glide slope and on centre line
(b) Equipment is off/ Beacon not working.
(c) Both correct.
179. On a CDI the bottom left side is coloured blue and the bottom right side is
coloured yellow.
180. The warning flags in a CDI will come on, when:(a) When Gd Beacon/ or ac equipment has failed
(b) ac is out of range/ reception is too weak
181. The vertical position of CDI is used for Localiser/VOR
182. The max deflection of Localiser needle will occur when ac is 2.5 deg or more
away from the centre line.
183. On a 5 dot indicator one dot represents a deviation of 0.5 deg.
184. In ILS Localiser is used for aligning ac along centre line of runway.
185. In ILS Glide Path is used for descend along a glide path.
186. The freq of LCZR is 108 to 112.0 odd decimal.
187. The freq of Marker Beacons is 75 MHz
188. In a G Slope the needle will show full scale deflection when the ac is 0.7 deg or
more away from the equisignal.
189. The indications while going over the Middle Marker are:-
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(a) Alternate Dash & Dot 1300 MHz modulation (b) Amber light flashes
190. While going over Outer Marker Blue light flashes
2_ _ / sec of 400 Hz
191. While going over Inner Marker White light flashes.
...... / sec of 3000 Hz
192. The pitch of Tx signal from Outer Marker is Low
193. ...............".......... Inner Marker is High
194. The distance of OM from touchdown is 3-6 NM.
195. .....".........Middle Marker from touchdown is 3500'
196. ....."....... IM from touchdown is 250 to 1500'
197. The Marker Beacon Tx in vertical direction. (in a fan pattern upward up to 3000'
at 75MHz.)
198. The Glide Path & Localiser freq are paired. Hence by selecting freq of LCZR the
freq of GP is automatically selected.
199. The ILS is divided into categories depending on the ht. to which an ac can be
safely brought down with specified RVR.
200. The categories of ILS are:CAT
D.HEIGHT
I
II
III A
B
C
>200 ft
200 ft
< 100 ft
Gd level
"
RVR
550 m
300 m
50 m
< 50 m but not < 15 m
Zero ( an appropriate RVR as per GSP 6 th edition)
201. False GP are not dangerous because they appear above normal GP.
202. ILS is very accurate landing aid.
203. In one microsecond the radio wave will travel 300 m.
204. In one sec there are 10 to the power 6 microseconds.
205. PRP is the distance between two successive pulses in terms of time.
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206. The number of pulses transmitted in one sec is called PRF.
207. The relationship between PRP & PRF is PRF = 1/ PRP.
208. Radar (Primary) works on the principle of echo & search light.
209. The strength of the echo received at the radar depends upon:(a) Power of Tx (b) Shape, material & altitude of reflecting body
(c) Size of object in relation to wave length (d) Terrain
210. The range of a Primary Radar depends upon:(a) Power of Tx (b) Characteristic of reflecting body (c) PRP
(d) Pulse width (e) ac Ht. (f) Precipitation/cloud returns
(g) Intervening High Ground
211. The advantages of Primary Radar are:(a) Self contained no external assistance (b) Common Ae for Tx & Rx
(c) Peak Power is high due to short time of transmission (d) Ground Installation
can have a
narrow beam
212. The difference between Primary Radar & Secondary radar is:213. The advantages of Secondary Radar over the Primary Radar are:(a) Lower Power output (b) Interference From and to is reduced
(c) Independent of size, shape or material of reflecting object
214. List two aids which work on Primary & Secondary Radar principle:(a) Wx Radar & GCA (b) DME & SSR
215. The purpose of the CRT is to display visually the radar signals reflected by the
object.
216. The main components of a CRT are:-
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(a) Cathode (b) Anode (c) Grid (d) X plates (e) Y plates (f) Fluorescent screen
217. X plate deflect the spot in X axis.
218. Y plate ......."........
Y axis
219. The purpose of the grid is to control intensity/brilliance.
220. The purpose of the Anode is to focus.
221. The purpose of the Cathode is to emit electrons.
222. In radar the time base is created by using Saw Tooth Voltage.
223. The Radio Altimeter is designed to give indication of Height.
224. The principle of freq modulation is generally used for ascertaining height of low
flying ac, where a high degree of accuracy is required.
225. The principle of FM is utilised to measure height in the Radio Altimeter.
226. The allocated freq band in Radio Altimeter is 1600-1700 MHz and one complete
burst of Tx covers a space of 60 Hz. (Latest Models work on 4200 to 4400 MHz)
227. In the Radio Altimeter height indicator:(a) Amber light indicates high
(b) Green light indicates correct ht. + 15
(c) Red light shows Low.
228. Accuracy of Radio Altimeter is 5 ft + 3% of ht. (Latest 2' or 2% of ht from 500' to
touchdown)
229. Radio Altimeter are generally used for low level operations.
230. Upper limit of Radio Altimeter is 2500 ft.
231. The principle used in Radio Altimeter is echo principle.
232. In Radio Altimeter the time base is circular.
233. The accuracy of the Radio Altimeter is:-
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234. The advantages of Radar/Radio Altimeter are:(a) It gives height above the ground
(b) Provides a cross check on pressure altitude
235. In DME the channels of Low Band are numbered from 1 - 63 & those of
High Band from 64 - 126.
236. The DME is a short range navigation aid providing a maximum coverage of 200
NM.
237. The accuracy of DME is 0.5 NM or + 3% of range which ever is more.
238. DME BCN gets saturated if more than 100 ac interrogate
it
simultaneously. In this case the DME will give preference to those ac which are
nearer.
239. VOR & DME beacons are generally freq paired. This means by selecting
frequency of VOR, DME freq is automatically selected.
240. When VOR is Freq paired with military TACAN BCN it is called VORTAC.
241. In DME the ground BCN is called transponder.
242. The distance between two pulses of a pair (in DME) is 12 and time interval
between the pairs varies at random.
243. The technique of DME TX is at random PRF.
244. The transponder replies to interrogation by sending a pair of pulses in a carrier
freq 63 MHz away from the interrogator freq.
245. The receiver of DME receives all responses that the transponder is sending out
but accepts only those responses that match its own PRF.
246. The Rx searches all responses through a max range of 200 NM in a matter of few
seconds.
247. Once a response is found the Rx locks to the Tx.
Ac-Interrogator
Grd =Transponder in DME.
248. If no signals of acceptable strength are received for a period of 2-5 secs (new) or 530 sec (old) the equipment will unlock and a fresh search will start.
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249. The unlock condition of the DME will be indicated to the pilot by the OFF Wx
Flag.
250. When the DME is switched ON the `Failure' indication is shown when:(a) No signal is being received
(b) Received signals strength are below the omni signal strength.
(c) ac is out of range
251. DME operates on UHF band.
252. The freq range of DME is 962-1212 MHz.
253. The freq allocation of DME is divided into two bands, Low & High.
254. In DME if an ac Tx from 1025 to 1087 MHz & the Gd Stn replies from 962- 1024
MHz the band in use is LOW.
255. In DME if an ac Tx from 1888- 1150 MHz and Gd Stn replies from 1151 to1213
MHz then the band in use is High.
256. GCA consists of two Radars they are:(a) Approach Surveillance Radar (ASR)
(b) Precision Approach Radar (PAR)
257. Lower wave length is used in GCA in order to obtain a narrow beam.
258. The wavelength of PAR is low as compared to Search Radar.
259. The freq of PAR is higher than the Search Radar.
260. The range of ASR depends upon:(a) Tx power (b) PRP (c) Type of suppression devices
261. The range at which an ac will get detected will depend upon:(a) ac ht.
conditions
(b) Intervening high ground (c) ac shape, size & material (d) Wx
262. The GCA generally will have Rain Clutter during precipitation.
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263. In a climb at constant RAS, both TAS and Mach No. will increase.
264. Density error decreases with decrease in temperature.
265. Compressibility error increases with increase in altitude & speed.
266. The speed of sound decreases with increase of height. (Speed of sound NM/h=39
√T)
267. The formula for calibration of ASI is:P = 1/2 x p x V x V ( 1+ V x V/4 C x C )
268. The magnitude of pressure error depends upon:(a) Position of the static vent
manoeuvre.
(b) ac speed (c) Angle of Attack and type of
269. Maintaining the same IAS if an ac flies from warmer air mass to colder air mass
the TAS will reduce.
270. If the operating density is lower than the ISA density. The speed shown by ASI
will be lower than the actual speed of ac.
271. Compressibility Error generally applies to high speed ac at a TAS of 300 Kts or
more.
272. Compressibility Error increases with increase of speed.
273. The compressibility error increases with increase of altitude & speed.
274. During Take off if pitot tube is blocked ASI will read zero.
275. In level flight the pitot tube is blocked ASI will hold the last reading unless
pressure leaks away.
276. An ac with a blocked pitot tube descends, the ASI will under read.
277. .............."................ ascends........."......over read.
278. If a pitot tube develops a leak the ASI will under read.
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279. Before starting the ac the pitot head covers and static vent pins are removed and
that the pitot head is not bent, cracked, damaged or misaligned in any way.
280. If the static tube is blocked during T/O ASI will under read.
281. Aircraft with a blocked static vent descends the ASI will over read.
282. ..................."............... ascends ......"..... under-read.