The cauda equina is made up of the:
A. Spinal nerves of S1-3
B. Anterior rami of spinal nerves L2 and 3
C. Posterior rami of spinal nerves L1 to cocc 1
D. Spinal nerves of L1-5.
E. Anterior and the posterior nerve roots of the spinal nerves below the first
lumbar segment of the spinal cord
ANSWER: E
To perform a lumbar puncture (spinal tap) in an adult, the needle is introduced
between the spinous processes of:
A. S3 and L4.
B. L2 and 3
C. S1 and L2
D. T12 and L1
E. L4 and 5
ANSWER: E
Which of the following statements regarding the blood supply to the spinal cord is
true?
A. The anterior spinal arteries are two in number and run down the anterior
surface of the spinal cord close to the anterior nerve roots
B. The spinal cord has a profuse blood supply
C. The veins of the spinal cord drain into the external vertebral venous plexus
D. The anterior and the posterior spinal arteries do not anastomose with the
radicular arteries
E. The posterior spinal arteries supply the posterior third of the spinal cord
ANSWER: E
The least serious congenital abnormality involving the neural arch and the neural
tube is:
A. Rachischisis
B. Meningohydroencephalocele
C. Meningomyelocele
D. Meningoencephalocele
E. Spina bifida occulta
ANSWER: E
The erector spinae muscle is innervated by the:
A. Axillary nerve
B. Dorsal scapular nerve
C. Accessory nerve
D. Branches from the posterior cord of brachial plexus
E. Dorsal rami of spinal nerves
ANSWER: E
A herniated or prolapsed disc usually occurs in which of the following directions?
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Inferiorly
D. Anterolateral
E. Posterolateral
ANSWER: E
The subarachnoid space ends inferiorly at the level of the:
A. L5 vertebra
B. L3 vertebra
C. L1 vertebra
D. T12 vertebra
E. S2-3 vertebrae
ANSWER: E
A herniated disc that causes sensory changes in a specific dermatome is pressing
on:
A. An anterior primary ramus
B. An anterior gray horn of the spinal cord
C. An anterior root
D. A posterior primary ramus
E. A spinal nerve or a posterior root
ANSWER: E
The right suprarenal vein drains into which of the following veins?
A. Right renal
B. Inferior mesenteric
C. Superior mesenteric
D. Portal
E. Inferior vena cava
ANSWER: E
Which of the following arteries contributes to the blood supply of the pancreas?
A. Left gastroepiploic
B. Inferior mesenteric
C. Proper hepatic
D. Left colic.
E. Splenic
ANSWER: E
The psoas major muscle inserts on to which of the following structures?
A. Greater trochanter
B. Anterior superior iliac spine
C. Crest of the ilium
D. Ischial spine.
E. Lesser trochanter
ANSWER: E
What is the name of operation of renal calculus extraction from the renal pelvis?
A. Neprostomy.
B. Nephropexy
C. Nephrotomy
D. Nephrectomy
E. Pyelotomy
ANSWER: E
The perineum is bordered by the:
A. Tuber ischiadicus
B. Lig. sacro-tuberale
C. Coccyx
D. Inferior branches of
E. All of the above
ANSWER: E
Cancer of the prostate can metastasize to the skull via the:
A. Pampiniform plexus
B. External iliac veins
C. Inferior vena cava.
D. Portal vein
E. Vertebral venous plexus
ANSWER: E
During defecation, the levator ani muscles:
A. Are completely inactive
B. Do not support the uterus and vagina
C. Do not support the sigmoid colon
D. Do not support the bladder.
E. Relax (puborectalis portion) with the anal sphincters
ANSWER: E
The anal columns:
A. Contain branches of the pudendal nerve.
B. Are connected at their ends by spiral valves
C. Are located in the lower half of the anal canal
D. Are transverse folds of mucous membrane
E. Contain tributaries of the superior rectal vein
ANSWER: E
Malignant tumors of the trigone of the bladder spread (metastasize) to which of the
following lymph nodes?
A. Lumbar
B. Sacral
C. External iliac only
D. Superficial inguinal
E. External and internal iliac
ANSWER: E
The tender, doughlike mass felt through the posterior wall of the vagina resulted
from what?
A. A retroverted uterus
B. A prolapsed ovary.
C. Blood in the uterovesical pouch
D. A full bladder
E. Blood in the pouch of Douglas
ANSWER: E
What is the venous drainage of the mucous membrane of the anal canal?
A. Middle rectal veins only
B. Inferior rectal veins only
C. Middle and inferior rectal veins
D. Internal pudendal veins.
E. Superior and inferior rectal veins
ANSWER: E
The mucous membrane lining the upper half of the anal canal is:
A. Lined with stratified squamous epithelium
B. Drained by the inferior rectal vein
C. Drained into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes
D. Sensitive to touch and to pain
E. Sensitive to stretch
ANSWER: E
The rectouterine pouch (pouch of Douglas):
A. Is formed by parietal pelvic fascia
B. Commonly contains coils of jejunum
C. Lies anterior to the vagina
D. Is not the most dependent part of the female peritoneal cavity when the
woman is in the standing position.
E. Lies behind the posterior fornix of the vagina and the body of the uterus
ANSWER: E
A patient was examined with a left-sided varicocele; the left testicular vein drains
into the:
A. Left internal iliac vein
B. Left external iliac vein
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Left inferior suprarenal vein.
E. Left renal vein
ANSWER: E
The uterus receives its blood supply from the:
A. Superior vesical artery
B. Middle rectal artery
C. Ovarian artery
D. Uterine artery
E. Uterine and ovarian arteries
ANSWER: E
The urogenital diaphragm is attached laterally to the:
A. Tip of the coccyx
B. Ischial spine
C. Ischial tuberosities
D. Obturator internus fascia
E. Inferior ramus of the pubis and the ischial ramus
ANSWER: E
The middle (median) lobe of the prostate lies:
A. Inferior to the ejaculatory ducts
B. Superior to the ejaculatory ducts
C. Anterior to the prostatic urethra
D. Lateral to the lower part of the prostatic urethra
E. Superior to the ejaculatory ducts and posterior to the upper part of the
prostatic urethra
ANSWER: E
In a woman with ovarian cancer, it is judicious to examine the:
A. Peritoneal cavity for evidence of excessive fluid (ascites)
B. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
C. Para-aortic nodes at the level of the first lumbar vertebra
D. External iliac lymph nodes
E. Para-aortic nodes and evidence of excessive peritoneal fluid (ascites)
ANSWER: E
The abdominal orifice of the uterine tube is located at its:
A. Ampulla
B. Isthmus
C. Uterine part
D. Fundus
E. Infundibulum
ANSWER: E
Which of the following surgical approaches is best in case of ectopic pregnancy?
A. Median middle laparotomy
B. Transrectal approach
C. Transversal Pfannenshtil’s approach
D. Superior middle laparotomy
E. Iferior middle laparotomy
ANSWER: E
Fat of the retroperitoneal space is represent by which of the following layers:
A. Retroperitoneal, perinephric, periureteral
B. Perinephric, pericolonic, perivesical
C. Retroperitoneal, perinephric
D. Perinephric, periureteral, perivesical
E. Pericolonic, perinephric, periureteral, retroperitoneal
ANSWER: E
Syntopy of the right kidney at the front is represent by the following:
A. Loops of jejunum, transverse colon, posterior wall of stomach
B. Right flexure of colon, pyloric part of stomach and upper horizontal part of
duodenum
C. Liver, ascending colon, pyloric part of stomach
D. Liver and descending part of duodenum
E. Liver, right flexure of colon, descending part of duodenum
ANSWER: E
Which of the following approaches can be perform in case of nephrectomy:
A. Izrael’s approaches
B. Fedorov’s approaches
C. Bergman’s approaches
D. Pyrogov’s approaches
E. Fedorov and Bergman-Izrael’s approaches
ANSWER: E
Which of the followig incisions is used in case of ishio-rectal paraproctitis?
A. from inside of rectum;
B. through anterior fornix of vagina;
C. through posterior fornix of vagina;
D. radial incision to anus.
E. arcuate incision, 4-5 cm from anus; *
ANSWER: E
List the venous plexus of the rectum?
A. external and internal;
B. submucous, subcutaneous
C. superior, middle, inferior
D. all are false
E. submucous, subcutaneous, subfascial
ANSWER: E
Which of the following surgical approaches is best to pelvic part of ureters?
A. Kocher’s
B. Bergman-Israel’s
C. Fedoroff’s
D. Pfannenshtil’s
E. Pyrogoff’s
ANSWER: E
Weak places of the lumbar region:
A. Pti’s triangle
B. Lesgaft-Gruinfeld’s rhombus and Bohdalek’s rhombus
C. Bohdalek’s triangle
D. Pti’s and Bohdalek’s triangle
E. Lesgaft-Gruinfeld’s rhombus and Pti’s triangle
ANSWER: E
The biggest branch of femoral artery is:
A. Superficial epigastric artery
B. Inferior epigastric artery
C. External pudendal artery
D. Rectal artery.]
E. Deep artery of thigh
ANSWER: E
Which of the following anatomic structures pass through the suprapiriform
foramen?
A. N. ischiadicus
B. N. pudendus
C. N. cutaneus femoris lateralis
D. N. cutaneus femoris posterior
E. N. gluteus superior
ANSWER: E
N. ischiadicus pass between which of the following muscles of the thigh:
A. External obturator muscle and internal obturator muscle
B. Semimebranous muscle and semitendinous muscle
C. Vastus medialis muscle and sartorius muscle
D. Adductor longus muscle and semitendinous muscle.
E. Long head of biceps of thigh and semitendinous muscle with
semimembranous muscle
ANSWER: E
The medial wall of muscular lacuna is formed by:
A. Femoral nerve
B. Lacunar ligament
C. Inguinal ligament
D. Pubic ligament.
E. Iliopectineal ligament
ANSWER: E
The following statements regarding the great saphenous vein are correct except
which?
A. It arises on the dorsum of the foot
B. It enters the leg by passing anterior to the medial malleolus
C. It drains into the femoral vein approximately 1,5 in (3,8 cm) below and
lateral to the pubic tubercle
D. It is accompanied by the saphenous nerve
E. It has no communication with the deep veins of the leg
ANSWER: E
A man backed into a whirling blade and suffered complete severance of the tendon
of his biceps femoris muscle just above the lateral condyle of the femur. The one
adjacent structure most likely to be involved is the:
A. Popliteal artery
B. Sciatic nerve
C. Tibial nerve
D. Tendon of the semimembranosus muscle
E. Common peroneal nerve
ANSWER: E
Sciatic nerve divides into its branches at which of the following distance from joint
line?
A. 10-12 сm
B. 13-14 сm
C. 14-15 сm
D. At level of popliteal fossa
E. 7-9 сm
ANSWER: E
Which of the following anatomical structures forms external wall of femoral canal?
A. A. femoralis;
B. N. saphenus
C. N ishiadicus
D. N. femoralis
E. V. femoralis
ANSWER: E
Which of the following nerves are located in popliteal fossa?
A. n. femoralis
B. n. cutaneus femoris lateralis
C. n. ishiadicus, n. peroneus communis
D. n. peroneus communis
E. n. tibialis, n. peroneus communis
ANSWER: E
Branches of the sacral plexus include which of these nerves?
A. Obturator
B. Femoral
C. Genitofemoral
D. Iliohypogastric
E. Sciatic
ANSWER: E
Following a circular amputation at midthigh, muscles retract unevenly, with those
having no femoral attachment retracting the most. Which of the following muscles
wound retract the least?
A. The sartorius
B. The rectus femoris
C. The gracilis
D. The semimembranosus
E. The adductor longus
ANSWER: E
In children, the chief arterial supply to the head of the femur is derived from which
of the following artery or arteries?
A. The superficial circumflex iliac artery
B. The internal pudendal artery
C. Branches from the medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries
D. The deep circumflex iliac artery
E. The obturator artery
ANSWER: E
The gluteus maximus muscle is innervation by the:
A. Nerve to quadratus femoris
B. Obturator nerve
C. Superior gluteal nerve
D. Nerve to obturator internus.
E. Inferior gluteal nerve
ANSWER: E
Lymph from the nail bed of the big toe drains into the:
A. Horizontal group of superficial inguinal nodes
B. Presacral nodes
C. Popliteal nodes
D. Internal iliac nodes
E. Vertical group of superficial inguinal nodes
ANSWER: E
A malignant melanoma (cancer) of the skin covering the buttock is likely to spread
via lymphatics to the:
A. Vertical group of superficial inguinal nodes
B. Posterior axillary nodes
C. Popliteal nodes
D. Internal iliac nodes.
E. Horizontal group of superficial inguinal nodes
ANSWER: E
Rupture of the tendo calcaneus results in an inability to do what?
A. Dorsiflex the foot
B. Evert the foot
C. Invert the foot
D. None of the above
E. Plantar flex the foot
ANSWER: E
The action of the hamstring muscles includes:
A. Flexion of the hip
B. Extension of the hip
C. Extension of the knee
D. Flexion of the knee
E. Extension of the hip and flexion of the knee
ANSWER: E
The femoral nerve arises from which of the following segments of the spinal cord?
A. L2 and 3
B. L4 and 5 and S1, 2, and 3
C. L1 and 2
D. L5 and S1, 2, and 3.
E. L2, 3, and 4
ANSWER: E
Injury to the common peroneal nerve results in which conditions?
A. Inability to invert the foot
B. Inability to plantar flex the ankle
C. Inability to feel skin sensation on the medial side of the leg
D. Inability to plantar flex the big toe
E. Inability to evert the foot.
ANSWER: E
The superficial epigastric artery arises from which of the following arteries?
A. Superior epigastric
B. Internal iliac
C. External iliac
D. Inferior epigastric
E. Femoral
ANSWER: E
Flexion of the hip joint (with the knee extended) is limited by the:
A. Anterior abdominal wall
B. Ischiofemoral ligament
C. Pubofemoral ligament
D. Anterior superior iliac spine
E. None of the above.
ANSWER: E
Extension of the hip joint is limited by the:
A. Ischiofemoral ligament
B. Pubofemoral ligament
C. Quadriceps muscle
D. Adductor magnus muscle.
E. Iliofemoral ligament
ANSWER: E
The gracilis muscle is innervated by the:
A. Femoral nerve
B. Common peroneal nerve
C. Sural nerve
D. Tibial portion of the sciatic nerve
E. Obturator nerve
ANSWER: E
The long head of the biceps femoris muscle is innervated by the;
A. Obturator nerve
B. Femoral nerve
C. Common peroneal nerve
D. Sural nerve
E. Tibial portion of the sciatic nerve
ANSWER: E
The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg are all inserted into
the:
A. Tibia
B. Fibula
C. Tubercle of the navicular
D. Talus
E. Calcaneus
ANSWER: E
The hamstring portion of the adductor magnus muscle is innervated by the:
A. Common peroneal nerve
B. Obturator nerve
C. Femoral nerve
D. Nerve to the pectineus muscle.
E. Tibial portion of the sciatic nerve
ANSWER: E
Lymph from the skin of the lateral side of the foot drains into the;
A. Vertical group of superficial inguinal nodes
B. Internal iliac nodes
C. Horizontal group of superficial inguinal nodes
D. Subsartorial nodes
E. Popliteal nodes
ANSWER: E
The common peroneal nerve can be palpated in which region of the knee?
A. As it winds around the medial side of the neck of the fibula
B. As it passes around the medial condyle of the tibia
C. As it passes forward between the tibia and the fibula
D. As it crosses the lateral side of the head of the fibula
E. As it winds around the lateral side of the neck of the fibula
ANSWER: E
If the dorsalis pedis artery is severed just proximal to its medial and lateral tarsal
branches, blood can still reach the dorsum of the foot through which vessel(s)?
A. The peroneal artery
B. The posterior tibial artery
C. The medial plantar artery
D. The lateral plantar artery
E. All of the above
ANSWER: E
Which of the following is not found in the adductor canal?
A. The saphenous nerve
B. The femoral artery
C. The femoral vein
D. The nerve to the vastus medialis
E. The saphenous vein
ANSWER: E
Which statement is correct concerning the femoral ring?
A. It is the opening in the deep fascia of the thigh for the great saphenous vein
B. It is the opening in the adductor magnus muscle for the femoral artery
C. It is the compartment in the femoral sheath for the femoral artery
D. It is the compartment in the femoral sheath for the femoral nerve.
E. It is the proximal opening in the femoral canal
ANSWER: E
If the foot is permanently dorsiflexed and everted, which nerve might be injured?
A. The deep peroneal nerve
B. The superficial peroneal nerve
C. The common peroneal nerve
D. The obturator nerve.
E. The tibial nerve
ANSWER: E
The femoral sheath is formed by which of the following layer(s) of fascia?
A. The pectineus fascia
B. The fascia lata and the membranous layer of the superficial fascia
C. The psoas fascia and the fatty layer of superficial fascia
D. The processus vaginalis
E. The fascia iliaca and the fascia transversalis
ANSWER: E
The following part of the brachial plexus has branches that supply the extensor
muscles of the arm:
A. Lateral cord
B. Median nerve
C. Medial cord
D. Lateral and medial cords.
E. Posterior cord
ANSWER: E
During its course in the upper limb, the radial nerve lies:
A. Against the surgical neck of the humerus
B. In front of the lateral epicondyle of the humerus
C. Medial to the brachial artery in the cubital fossa
D. Within the quadrangular muscle space
E. Against the spiral groove of the humerus
ANSWER: E
The dorsal interossei muscles are innervated by the:
A. Deep branch of the radial nerve
B. Musculocutaneous nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Recurrent branch of the median nerve
E. Deep branch of the ulnar nerve
ANSWER: E
The extensor carpi radialis longus muscle is innervated by the:
A. Deep branch of the ulnar nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Anterior interosseus nerve.
E. Radial nerve
ANSWER: E
The muscle that will compensate in part for the paralysis of the supinator muscle is
the:
A. Extensor carpi ulnaris muscle
B. Brachialis muscle
C. Triceps brachii muscle
D. Anconeus muscle.
E. Biceps brachii muscle
ANSWER: E
After injury to a nerve at the wrist, the thumb is laterally rotated and adducted. The
hand looks flattened and apelike. The nerve that has been damaged is the:
A. Anterior interosseus nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Deep branch of the radial nerve
D. Superficial branch of the radial nerve.
E. Median nerve
ANSWER: E
Which of the following muscles was likely to have been paralyzed by the
dislocation of the shoulder joint some years ago?
A. The rhomboid minor
B. The supraspinatus
C. The teres minor
D. The subscapularis
E. The deltoid
ANSWER: E
The medial cutaneous nerve of arm arises from:
A. Lateral cord of brachial plexus
B. Posterior cord of brachial plexus
C. Musculocutaneous nerve
D. Medianus nerve
E. Medial cord of brachial plexus
ANSWER: E
The superior ulnar collateral artery pass with which of the following artery:
A. Medianus nerve
B. Radial nerve
C. Musculocutaneous nerve
D. Posterior cutaneous nerve of arm
E. Ulnar nerve
ANSWER: E
The third part of axillary artery is situated within which of the following triangles:
A. Pectoral
B. Claviculopectoral
C. Clavicular
D. Infradeltoid.
E. Infrapectoral
ANSWER: E
Collateral circulation in case of femoral artery ligation within femoral triangle
would be developed by:
A. A.glutea inferior and a. circumflexa femoris lateralis
B. Banches of а. iliaca externa
C. Banches of а. iliaca interna
D. A.glutea inferior and a. pudenda interna.
E. Banches of а. profunda femoris
ANSWER: E
Pyrogov’s space is situated between which of the following muscular layers of
forearm:
A. I – II
B. II – III
C. IV – V
D. None of the above
E. III – IV
ANSWER: E
Which of the following bones can be palpated on floor of anatomic snuffbox?
A. Os pisiforme
B. Os naviculare
C. Os capitatum
D. Os lunatum.
E. Os hamatum
ANSWER: E
To test for trapezius muscle paralysis, you would ask the patient to:
A. Flex the arm fully
B. Adduct the arm against resistance
C. Push against the wall with both hands
D. Abduct the arm fully.
E. Shrug the shoulder
ANSWER: E
Abduction of superior extremity to horizontal condition is impossible after
arthrotomy of shoulder joint by lateral access. Which of the following muscles is
damaged?
F. M triceps brachii
G. M. biceps brachii
H. M coracobrachialis
I. M pectoralis major.
J. M.deltoideus
ANSWER: E
A women with trauma of leg amputation was performed in 11 hours after injury. It
was:
A. Scondary late
B. Scondary early
C. Ramputation
D. Ncrectomy
E. Primary
ANSWER: E
Conduction of the elbow joint arthrotomy from lateral side is better for prevention
damage of:
A. N.cutaneus antebrachii medialis
B. N medianus
C. A.collateralis ulnaris superior
D. A.collateralis ulnaris inferior.
E. N.ulnaris
ANSWER: E
What is osteoplastic amputation?
A. Bone stump is covered by bone
B. Bone stump is covered by bone and muscles
C. Bone stump is covered by muscles
D. Bone stump is covered by fascia and muscles
E.. Bone stump is covered by bone and periosteum
ANSWER: E
What is three-steps circular amputation?
A. Cutting of the soft tissue and the bone on the same level
B. Cutting of the skin with subcutaneous tissue and muscles on the different
levels
C. Central amputation
D. Сutting of the skin, subcutaneous tissue and superficial muscles on the same
level
E. Cutting of the skin with subcutaneous tissue, superficial and deep muscles on
the different levels.
ANSWER: E
Which of the following amputation is osteoplastic:
A. Three-steps thigh amputation by Pyrogov
B. Sharp’s operation
C. Krukenberg-Albreht’s operation
D. Amputation at upper one third of shoulder by Farabef
E. Pyrogov’s leg amputation
ANSWER: E
What are the basic requirements for vascular suture?
A. connection of vessels should be performed with minimal narrowing of at the
junction;
B. ends of vessels should be connected end-to-end;
C. hermetic anastomoses;
D. prevention of blood clots;
E. ends of vessels should be connected by their internal surfaces;
ANSWER: E
What is Sharp’s operation?
A. Disarticulation in tarsometatarsal articulations
B. Tarsal bones amputation
C. Disarticulation in phalanges
D. Disarticulation in metatarsophalangeal articulations
E. Amputation in continuity of metatarsal bones.
ANSWER: E
The second step of amputation is:
A. Soft tissue cutting
B. Cutting of the fascia and muscles
C. Vessels, nerves treatment and stump formation
D. Stump formation
E. Cutting and treatment of the bone
ANSWER: E
Which of the following surfaces is working for II finger:
A. Palmar
B. Dorsal
C. Palmar and dorsal
D. Palmar and ulnar
E. Palmar and radial.
ANSWER: E
What is neurolysis?
A. Nerve suture
B. Nerve cutting
C. Nerve grafting
D. Neuroma resection
E. Release nerve from scar tissues
ANSWER: E
Following a Gritti-Shymanovsky’s amputation:
A. The femoral bone stump would be covered by the shin bone gibbosity
B. The shin bone stump would be covered by the heel bone
C. The femoral bone stump would be covered by the heel bone
D. The shin bone stump would be covered by the patella.
E. The femoral bone stump would be covered by the patella
ANSWER: E
Following an amputation at midleg the fibular bone would be cutted above the shin
bone on:
A. 1-2 cm
B. 2-3 cm
C. 4-5 cm
D. 5-6 cm
E. 3-4 cm
ANSWER: E
The extremity circumference at amputation level is 54 cm. Length of shorter flap
in case of circular double-flap amputation would be:
A. 4 cm
B. 6 cm
C. 10 cm
D. 12 cm.
E. 8 cm
ANSWER: E
What is guillotine amputation?
A. Cutting of the superficial and deep muscles on the different levels
B. Cutting of the skin and muscles on the different levels
C. Central amputation
D. Сutting of the skin, subcutaneous tissue and superficial muscles on the same
level
E. Cutting of the soft tissue and the bone on the same level
ANSWER: E
Krukenberg-Albreht’s operation is:
A. Three-steps circular shoulder amputation at lower one third
B. Double-flap fasciocutaneous amputation at midshoulder
C. Foot amputation through the metatarsal bones
D. Thigh amputation at upper one third.
E. Cinematisation (cinematic forearm amputation)
ANSWER: E
What is repeated amputation?
A. Primary surgical debridement with removal of unviable extremity part
B. Amputation after 7-8 days
C. Amputation in cases of osteomyelitis or multiple ankylosis
D. Amputation in case of false extremity position
E. Amputation in case of false stump that is impossible to make prosthetic
appliance
ANSWER: E
How many centimeters would be given for skin shorting at flap length calculation
in case of flap amputation:
A. 1-2
B. 2
C. 3
D. 3-4
E. 2-3
ANSWER: E