Name
Biomechanics - Exam II
Fall 2001 (11/19/01)
1.
Which of the following is true regarding femoral torsion?
A. Normal angle of torsion in an adult is approximately 50
B. The angle of torsion increases during normal development
C. Femoral anteversion in a newborn is approximately 450
D. None of the above
E. both B and C
2.
Excessive femoral anteversion can cause which of the following?
A. Excessive toe-out on the involved side during gait
B. Hip abductor weakness on the involved side
C. Excessive knee flexion during the stance phase of gait
D. none of the above
E. both B and C
3.
Due to the trabeulae patterns in the femur and pelvis, which region of the hip is most susceptible to
fractures as a result of bending forces?
A. the femoral head
B. the femoral neck
C. the superior portion of the acetabulum
D. the greater trochanter
E. both C and D
4.
Which of the following is true about the “screw-home mechanism” of the knee:
A. knee extension is associated with external tibial rotation
B. knee extension is associated with internal tibial rotation
C. the screw-home mechanism is due to the asymmetry of the femoral condyles
D. both A and C are true
E. both B and C are true
5.
Which of the following is true regarding the menisci of the knee?
A. they reduce the congruency of the knee joint
B. they distribute and absorb forces in the knee joint
C. they assist in proper arthrokinematics of the knee joint
D. both A and C are true
E. both B and C are true
6.
Which of the following is true regarding the menisci of the knee?
A. they are composed of hyaline cartilage
B. the lateral meniscus is more loosely attached to the tibia than the medial meniscus
C. the lateral meniscus is attached to the lateral collateral ligament
D. all of the above are true
E. both A and B are true
7.
The most common non-traumatic cause of femoral neck fracture is:
A. excessive hip flexion and internal rotation
B. excessive hip extension and external rotation
C. excessive hip adduction and internal rotation
D. excessive hip flexion and external rotation
E. none of the above
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8.
Which of the following is true regarding patella contact as a function of knee flexion angle?
A. at full knee extension there is little or no contact between the patella and femur
B. as the knee flexes the contact moves from the inferior patella toward the superior aspect of
the patella
C. at 1350 of knee flexion there is maximal contact between the medial facet and the femur
D. both A and B are true
E. all of the above are true
9.
Closed-chain supination in the foot is the combined motions of :
A. calcaneal eversion, talus dorsiflexion and adduction
B. calcaneal inversion, talus plantarflexion and adduction
C. calcaneal inversion, talus dorsiflexion and adduction
D. calcaneal eversion, talus plantarflexion and adduction
E. none of the above
10. During the weight acceptance or deceleration phase of normal gait. Which of the following is the
predominate foot motion on the lead/stance limb?
A. supination
D. both A and B
B. pronation
E. none of the above
C. inversion
11. During the weight acceptance phase of gait, the compensated forefoot varus foot will likely exhibit:
A. no pronation
C. normal pronation
B. reduced pronation
D. excessive pronation
12. During gait the uncompensated forefoot varus foot will often present similar to the:
A. "supinated" foot
C. compensated rearfoot varus foot
B. compensated forefoot varus foot
D. all of the above
13. Over the life span, the vascular supply of the knee menisci:
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. the menisci are always avascular
14. Over the life span, the innervation of the knee menisci:
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. the menisci are always aneural
15. In general when in a closed-chain situation, the patellofemoral joint reaction force as the knee moves
from 0 to 900.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. there is no joint reaction force in the patellofemoral joint
16. When developing a lower extremity strengthening program for an individual who is complaining of
retro-patella knee pain, which of the following exercises would be most recommended?
A. closed-chain knee extension activities are recommended for the last 250 of knee extension
B. open-chain knee extension activities are recommended for the last 250 of knee extension
C. both open and closed chain activities are recommended for the last 250 of knee extension
D. neither open nor closed chain activities are recommended for the last 250 of knee extension
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17. Which patella facet receives the most consistent contact with the femur throughout knee flexion and
extension?
A. odd
D. superior
B. lateral
E. none of the above
C. medial
18. During gait the normal foot pronation is considered:
A. 6 - 100
B. 13 - 180
C. 1 - 50
D. pronation does not occur during
gait
19. As a normal knee actively flexes and extends, the patella rotates around an anterior-posterior axis.
A. true
B. false
20. Which of the following is not often associated with osteoarthritis of lower extremity joints?
A. softening of articular cartilage
B. subchondral bone necrosis
C. increased joint space
D. joint deformity
E. all of the above are associated with osteoarthritis of the lower extremity joints?
21. Which of the following foot deformities is most common?
A. forefoot valgus
B. uncompensated ankle joint
equinus
C. forefoot varus
D. compensated ankle joint equinus
E. both A and B
22. During the stance phase of gait, what is the most common compensation for a foot with a rearfoot
varus deformity?
A. excessive subtalar pronation
D. both A and C
B. excessive subtalar supination
E. none of the above
C. excessive forefoot valgus
23. Which of the following bones are part of the midfoot:
A. talus and calcaneus
B. cunneiforms
C. cuboid
D. both A and B
E. both B and C
24. Which of the following is a common cause of ankle joint equinus?
A. spasticity in the dorsiflexors
C. spasticity in the gastrocnemius
B. excessive tightness in the
D. both A and C
gastrocnemius
E. both B and C
25. As the knee flexes from 250 to full flexion, what occurs with the patella?
A. tilts medially approximately 110 about a vertical axis
B. tilts laterally approximately 110 about a vertical axis
C. does not tilt at all
D. tilts laterally approximately 300 about a vertical axis
E. none of the above
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26. Which of the following were listed as possible causes of a hamstring strain?
A. inflexibility
D. all of the above
B. muscle imbalance
E. A and B only
C. muscle fatigue
27. Which of the following would you expect to see with a compensated forefoot varus?
A. prolonged pronation
D. both A and B
B. early supination
E. none of the above
C. excessive supination
28. An uncompensated forefoot varus foot is usually:
A. a rigid foot
B. a flexible foot
C. susceptible to medial ankle sprains
D. none of the above
E. both A and C
29. Which of the following is true regarding tibial rotation during gait?
A. external tibial rotation occurs during loading response
B. it occurs in the coronal plane
C. internal tibial rotation is associated with subtalar supination
D. both B and C are true
E. none of the above are true
30. What effect does coxa valga have on the moment arm (MA) of gluteus medius?
A. increases the MA
C. no effect on MA
B. decreases the MA
D. generates no MA
31. The patella:
A. decreases the moment arm of the knee extensor mechanism
B. increases the moment arm of the knee extensor mechanism
C. decreases the rotational component of the knee extensor mechanism
D. both A and C
E. both B and C
32. Ankle joint equinus can result in:
A. increased dorsiflexion during midstance
B. reduced ankle rocker
C. increased and prolonged supination
D. none of the above
E. both B and C
33. In a forefoot valgus foot with a rigid plantarflexed first ray, which of the following is true?
A. magnitude of pronation during midstance is increased
B. medial aspect of the foot is loaded prematurely
C. foot common pronates late in stance phase
D. both A and B
E. both B and C
34. Which of the following is a function of peroneus longus?
A. evertor of the foot
B. invertor of the foot
C. plantarflexor of the 1st ray
D. both A and C
E. both B and C
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35. During early stance the function of tibialis posterior is:
A. assist in controlling pronation
B. assist in supinating the foot
C. tibialis anterior doesn’t fire during early stance
D. control forward progression of tibia
E. none of the above
36. Which of the following deviations is commonly associated with uncompensated ankle joint equinus?
A. genu recurvatum
B. delayed heel rise
C. excessive lower extremity internal rotation during mid- and terminal stance
D. all of the above
E. A and C only
37. Which of the following is true regarding the neurovascular supply of the knee menisci?
A. the horns have a neural and vascular supply
B. the horns have a neural supply but no vascular supply
C. the horns have a vascular supply but no neural supply
D. the horns have neither a vascular supply nor a neural supply
E. the neural and vascular supply of the horns varies depending on age
38. In single leg stance what effect does coxa valga have on the zone of weakness (ZOW) in the femur?
A. it increases the moment arm between the ZOW and the line of gravity of the body causing
an increase in torque on the ZOW
B. it decreases the moment arm between the ZOW and the line of gravity of the body causing
an increase in torque on the ZOW
C. it decreases the moment arm between the ZOW and the line of gravity of the body causing a
decrease in torque on the ZOW
D. it increases the moment arm between the ZOW and the line of gravity of the body causing
an decrease in torque on the ZOW
E. none of the above
39. In cerebral palsy which of the following are possible causes of lever arm dysfunction?
A. delayed standing
D. all of the above
B. increased muscle tone/spasticity
E. A and C only
C. increased ligamentous laxity
40. As discussed in class, during which phase(s) of gait would hamstring strains most likely occur?
A. loading response
D. all of the above
B. terminal swing
E. both A and B
C. preswing
41. Which of the following is true regarding flexor hallucis longus during gait?
A. it is active during terminal stance to assist in pronation of the foot
B. it is active during midstance to assist in pronation of the foot
C. it is active in terminal swing to assist in supination of the foot
D. it is active in preswing to assist in supination of the foot
E. none of the above are true
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42. In the normal foot tibialis posterior:
A. is active in terminal stance to assist in pronation of the foot
B. is active during swing phase
C. is active in midstance to assist in pronation of the foot
D. is active in loading response to assist in supination of the foot
E. none of the above
43. In the normal foot peroneus longus:
A. is most active during loading response to cinch the tarsal-metatarsal articulations
B. is most active during terminal stance to cinch the tarsal-metatarsal articulations
C. is most active during midstance to cinch the tarsal-metatarsal articulations
D. is most active during terminal swing to unlock the tarsal-metatarsal articulations
E. none of the above
44. A patient with a compensated forefoot varus deformity will most likely be posted with the thickest
part of the wedge:
A. under the metatarsals on the medial aspect of the foot
B. under the metatarsals on the lateral aspect of the foot
C. under the calcaneus on medial aspect of the foot
D. under the calcaneus on the lateral aspect of the foot
E. posting is never necessary with this deformity
45. Which of the following is most commonly seen with a compensated rearfoot varus deformity?
A. excessive subtalar pronation throughout stance
B. subtalar pronation most excessive during late stance
C. subtalar pronation most excessive during early stance
D. limited subtalar pronation during late stance
E. none of the above
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