Chapter 4 – The Carbohydrates: Sugars, Starches and Fibers
An. Page(s)/difficulty
K = knowledge-level, A = application level
Multiple Choice
Questions for Section 4.0 Introduction
01.
In which of the following are ample amounts of carbohydrates almost always found?
a.
Plant foods
b.
Health foods
c.
Animal products
d.
Protein-rich foods
02.
All of the following are sources of dietary carbohydrates except
a.
fish.
b.
milk.
c.
fruits.
d.
legumes.
Questions for Section 4.1 The Chemist’s View of Carbohydrates
03.
04.
What type of nutrient is starch?
a.
Fiber
b.
Gluten
c.
Simple carbohydrate
d.
Complex carbohydrate
Which of the following is not a simple carbohydrate?
a.
Starch
b.
White sugar
c.
Disaccharide
d.
Monosaccharide
05.
How many carbon atoms are found in most common dietary monosaccharides?
a.
5
b.
6
c.
8
d.
12
06.
The types of atoms found in a glucose molecule include all of the following except
a.
carbon.
b.
oxygen.
c.
nitrogen.
d.
hydrogen.
07.
Which of the following is known as blood sugar or dextrose?
a.
Glucose
b.
Maltose
c.
Sucrose
d.
Fructose
08.
What component accounts for the usually sweet taste of fruits?
a.
Fats
b.
Fiber
c.
Simple sugars
d.
Complex carbohydrates
09.
Which of the following is known as fruit sugar or levulose?
a.
Maltose
b.
Glucose
c.
Fructose
d.
Galactose
10.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of glucose?
a.
It is soluble in water
b.
It is a monosaccharide
c.
It is part of the sucrose molecule
d.
It is sweeter tasting than sucrose
11.
What is the sweetest-tasting simple carbohydrate in the diet?
a.
Glucose
b.
Lactose
c.
Fructose
d.
Sucrose
12.
Typical dietary sources of carbohydrate include all of the following except
a.
starch.
b.
maltose.
c.
phytates.
d.
glycogen.
13.
Milk that has been treated with a commercially available lactase preparation undergoes which of the following
changes?
a.
Increase in sweetness
b.
Decrease in sweetness
c.
Increase in carbohydrate content
d.
Decrease in carbohydrate content
14.
What is the reaction that links two monosaccharides together?
a.
Hydrolysis
b.
Absorption
c.
Disaccharide
d.
Condensation
15.
Which of the following is a byproduct of the condensation of two molecules of glucose?
a.
Water
b.
Oxygen
c.
Hydrogen
d.
Carbon dioxide
16.
The chemical reaction by which starch is split into monosaccharides is termed
a.
hydrolysis.
b.
condensation.
c.
gluconeogenesis.
d.
homeostatic balancing.
17.
The chief carbohydrate in beet sugar is
a.
starch.
b.
sucrose.
c.
glycogen.
d.
invert sugar.
18.
What is the composition of sucrose?
a.
Two fructose units
b.
One glucose and one fructose unit
c.
One glucose and one galactose unit
d.
One galactose and one fructose unit
What is the composition of maltose?
a.
Two glucose units
b.
One glucose and one fructose unit
c.
One glucose and one galactose unit
d.
One galactose and one fructose unit
19.
20.
Which of the following is a component of all three dietary disaccharides?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sucrose
Glucose
Fructose
Galactose
21.
What is the composition of lactose?
a.
Two glucose units
b.
Two fructose units
c.
One glucose and one fructose unit
d.
One glucose and one galactose unit
22.
What is the principle carbohydrate of milk?
a.
Lactose
b.
Sucrose
c.
Maltose
d.
Glycogen
23.
What is another name for lactose?
a.
Milk sugar
b.
Fruit sugar
c.
Table sugar
d.
Artificial sugar
24.
Which of the following sugars is not found in plants?
a.
Glucose
b.
Lactose
c.
Sucrose
d.
Fructose
25.
What is the name of the animal polysaccharide composed of glucose units?
a.
Fiber
b.
Enzyme
c.
Dextrin
d.
Glycogen
26.
Glycogen is stored mainly in which of the following tissues?
a.
Muscle and liver
b.
Pancreas and kidneys
c.
Stomach and intestine
d.
Brain and red blood cells
27.
Which of the following is a feature of glycogen?
a.
It is found in plants
b.
It is important as a dietary nutrient
c.
It is virtually absent from animal meats
d.
It plays an insignificant role in the body
28.
What is the primary storage form of carbohydrate in the body?
a.
Fiber
b.
Starch
c.
Glucose
d.
Glycogen
29.
Which of the following is not a rich source of dietary starch?
a.
Grains
b.
Fruits
c.
Tubers
d.
Legumes
What is the staple grain of Canada, the United States, and Europe?
a.
Oats
b.
Rice
c.
Corn
30.
d.
Wheat
31.
What is the predominant grain product in much of South and Central America?
a.
Rice
b.
Corn
c.
Millet
d.
Wheat
32.
What are cellulose, pectin, hemicellulose, and lignin?
a.
Fibers
b.
Starches
c.
Sugar alcohols
d.
Artificial sweeteners
33.
Which of the following is described as a nonstarch polysaccharide?
a.
Lactose
b.
Phytates
c.
Glycogen
d.
Cellulose
34.
Which of the following is an example of the difference between the chemical bonds in starch and those in
cellulose?
a.
Starch bonds are single
b.
Starch bonds are fatty acids
c.
Cellulose bonds release energy
d.
Cellulose bonds are not hydrolyzed by human enzymes
35.
Which of the following is a feature of the pectins?
a.
They are used to thicken jelly
b.
They are classified as insoluble fibers
c.
They are resistant to intestinal bacterial fermentation
d.
They are found in the small seeds of fruits such as strawberries
36.
Which of the following statements is not characteristic of fibers?
a.
Most fibers consist of linked monosaccharides
b.
An example of a nonstarch polysaccharide fiber is pectin
c.
An example of a nonpolysaccharide fiber is hemicellulose
d.
Most soluble fibers are easily digested by the bacteria in the colon
37.
A “functional fiber” is one that
a.
occurs naturally in the intact plant.
b.
performs a specific function in the plant.
c.
is extracted from plants and has a beneficial health effect.
d.
is a polysaccharide that is stored primarily in muscle and liver of animals.
38.
Which of the following plays a major role in the breakdown of certain types of dietary fiber in the large
intestine?
a.
Bacteria
b.
Pancreas
c.
Colonic cells
d.
Small intestinal villus cell
39.
Which of the following is a characteristic of dietary fibers?
a.
They cause diverticulosis
b.
They raise blood cholesterol levels
c.
They are usually found in high-fat foods
d.
They are classified according to solubility in water
With few exceptions, all of the following characteristics are shared by water-soluble and water-insoluble fibers
except
a.
they are found only in plant-derived foods.
b.
they consist primarily of nonstarch polysaccharides.
c.
neither has an appreciable effect on glucose absorption.
40.
d.
their consumption enhances stool formation and elimination.
41.
What type of fiber is readily digested by colonic bacteria?
a.
Lignans
b.
Phytates
c.
Cellulose
d.
Fermentable
42.
Which of the following is a common source of resistant starch?
a.
Apple
b.
Orange
c.
Baked potato
d.
Unripe bananas
43.
Which of the following is a feature of resistant starch?
a.
It is common in overripe bananas
b.
Excessive intake promotes constipation
c.
It resists hydrolysis by digestive enzymes
d.
It cannot be fermented by large intestinal bacteria
44.
Characteristics of dietary phytic acid include all of the following except
a.
it is classified as a fiber.
b.
it is found in the husks of grains.
c.
it is synonymous with the term phytate.
d.
it inhibits absorption of several minerals.
45.
Which of the following describes the compound phytic acid?
a.
Product of starch digestion
b.
Nonnutrient component of plant seeds
c.
Found in gastric juice and helps to lower pH of chyme
d.
Found in high concentrations in the blood of people with diabetes
46.
Which of the following fibers is water insoluble?
a.
Gums
b.
Pectins
c.
Cellulose
d.
Mucilages
47.
Water-soluble fibers include all of the following except
a.
gums.
b.
pectins.
c.
lignins.
d.
mucilages.
48.
Which of the following contains the least amount of fiber?
a.
Apples
b.
Prunes
c.
Potatoes
d.
White rice
Questions for Section 4.2 Digestion and Absorption of Carbohydrates
49.
Enzymatic digestion of starches takes place in the small intestine and also in the
a.
mouth.
b.
colon.
c.
stomach.
d.
pancreas.
50.
All of the following are properties of fiber except
a.
it delays gastric emptying.
b.
it provides a feeling of satiety.
c.
it elevates blood glucose levels.
d.
it contributes about 1.5-2.5 kcalories per gram.
51.
What is the name of the short chains of glucose units that result from starch breakdown?
a.
Sucrose
b.
Lignins
c.
Pectins
d
Dextrins
52.
Which of the following enzymes does not act on simple sugars?
a.
Lactase
b.
Sucrase
c.
Amylase
d.
Maltase
53.
What is the primary absorption site for digestible carbohydrates?
a.
Mouth
b.
Stomach
c.
Small intestine
d.
Large intestine
54.
After you and your friend Dolores share pretzels and animal crackers, she announces that she wants to start
digesting her food by watching television. You inform Dolores that
a.
she really should spend 10-15 minutes on the treadmill to help her body break down the
carbohydrates faster.
b.
her body will not begin to break down the carbohydrates for a couple more
hours until they
reach the small intestine.
c.
the hydrochloric acid in her stomach breaks down all the carbohydrates and she need not rest
while this occurs.
d.
carbohydrate digestion begins in the mouth through the action of amylase, so
she has already
begun digesting the snacks.
The enzymes that digest dietary sugars are produced by the
a.
mouth.
b.
stomach.
c.
pancreas.
d.
small intestine.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
What is the primary organ that converts fructose to glucose following absorption?
a.
Liver
b.
Pancreas
c.
Skeletal muscle
d.
Small intestines
What is the first organ to receive carbohydrates absorbed from the intestine?
a.
Heart
b.
Liver
c.
Pancreas
d.
Skeletal muscle
All of the following are symptoms of lactose intolerance except
a.
bloating.
b.
diarrhea.
c.
cramping.
d.
constipation.
What percentage of the world’s adult population shows good tolerance to lactose ingestion?
a.
30
b.
55
c.
80
d.
95
Which of the following would least likely be connected with the development of lactose intolerance?
a.
Medicines
b.
Milk allergy
c.
Prolonged diarrhea
d.
Inherited lactase deficiency
61.
62.
A person diagnosed with milk allergy would be sensitive to the milk’s
a.
fat.
b.
lactose.
c.
protein.
d.
minerals.
For most of the world’s population, what is the effect of aging on the activity of lactase?
a.
Declines by 30-40%
b.
Declines by 90-95%
c.
Increases by 30-40%
d.
Increases by 90-95%
63.
Which of the following is a characteristic of yogurt?
a.
Bacteria in yogurt produce lactase
b.
Yogurt is poorly tolerated in lactose-intolerant people
c.
There are only trace amounts of lactose present in yogurt
d.
The lactose content of yogurt is about one-half that of milk
64.
What is the chief reason that many people with lactose intolerance can consume foods containing some lactose
without suffering any symptoms?
a.
A change occurs in the GI bacteria
b.
Intestinal lactase enzyme can re-appear in adequate amounts
c.
The lactose-containing foods must be eaten only as part of a full meal
d.
The lactose-containing foods must first be heated to 100° C to degrade lactose
65.
Which of the following is a feature of kefir?
a.
Its low pH inactivates lactose
b.
It contains live bacterial organisms
c.
It contains half as much lactose as milk
d.
It is a recommended substitute for people with milk allergy
66.
Among the following foods, which contains the lowest amount of lactose per serving?
a.
Yogurt
b.
Ice cream
c.
Doughnut
d.
American cheese
67.
Why are hard cheeses lower in lactose than soft cheeses?
a.
The lactose molecules bond to casein
b.
More lactose is removed during manufacturing
c.
The bacterial culture is selected to degrade more of the lactose
d.
The lactose molecules condense to form a poorly digested oligosaccharide
68.
Which of the following is a feature of lactose?
a.
Its digestion begins in the mouth
b.
It is found in various amounts in most animal foods
c.
It is used as filler in one out of five prescription drugs
d.
It causes frequent allergies in certain population groups
69.
Which of the following provides the least amount of lactose per serving?
a.
Low-fat milk
b.
Cottage cheese
c.
Chocolate milk
d.
Cheddar cheese
70.
Among the following population groups, which shows the highest prevalence of lactose intolerance?
a.
Hispanics
b.
Caucasians
c.
Scandinavians
d.
African Americans
71.
Which of the following ingredients listed on food labels would be acceptable to the person who is highly
intolerant to lactose in the diet?
a.
Whey
b.
Casein
c.
Dextrins
d.
Milk solids
Questions for Section 4.3 Glucose in the Body
72.
If you were to exercise continuously, about how long would glycogen stores last?
a.
A few minutes
b.
A few hours
c.
About 12 hours
d.
About 1 day
73.
What fraction of the body’s total glycogen content is found in the liver?
a.
1/10
b.
1/4
c.
1/3
d.
1/2
74.
In what organ is most of the body’s glycogen found?
a.
Liver
b.
Muscles
c.
Kidneys
d.
Intestines
75.
At rest, the typical body stores of glycogen can provide energy for a maximum of about
a.
4 hours.
b.
1 day.
c.
3 days.
d.
1 week.
76.
What is the minimum daily amount of dietary carbohydrate necessary to spare body protein from excessive
breakdown?
a.
10-25 g
b.
50-100 g
c.
150-175 g
d.
200-400 g
77.
What is the primary function of insulin?
a.
Raises blood glucose levels
b.
Lowers blood glucose levels
c.
Stimulates glycogen breakdown
d.
Stimulates intestinal carbohydrate absorption
78.
The process by which an amino acid is used to make glucose is termed
a.
glycation.
b.
ketogenesis.
c.
protein sparing.
d.
gluconeogenesis.
79.
Gluconeogenesis is a term that describes the synthesis of
a.
amino acids from glucose.
b.
lactose from a source of sucrose.
c.
fat from excess carbohydrate intake.
d.
glucose from a noncarbohydrate substance.
80.
Which of the following values falls within the normal range (mg/dL) of blood glucose?
a.
40
b.
55
c.
75
d.
140
81.
You have just finished a light breakfast of toast and jelly. Which of the following series of events proceeds upon
digestion/absorption of the meal until it is near time for lunch?
a.
Blood glucose rises, the pancreas releases glucagon, the pancreas releases
insulin, blood
glucose rises, glucose is taken up by the cells through the action of insulin, glucagon stimulates liver
cells to break down glycogen and release
glucose into the blood
b.
Blood glucose rises, glucose is taken up by the cells through the action of
insulin, glucagon
stimulates liver cells to break down glycogen and release glucose into the blood, the pancreas releases
glucagon, the pancreas releases
insulin, blood glucose rises
c.
Blood glucose rises, the pancreas releases insulin, glucose is taken up by the
cells through the
action of insulin, blood glucose levels decline, the pancreas
releases glucagon, glucagon
stimulates liver cells to break down glycogen and
release glucose into the blood, blood glucose
rises
d.
Blood glucose levels decline, the pancreas releases insulin, blood glucose levels rise, glucagon
stimulates liver cells to break down glycogen and release glucose into the blood, the pancreas
releases glucagon, blood glucose rises
82.
What is the first organ to respond to an increase in blood glucose concentration?
a.
Brain
b.
Liver
c.
Muscle
d.
Pancreas
83.
What is a normal range (mg/dL) for blood glucose?
a.
60-80
b.
70-110
c.
120-140
d.
140-180
84.
When blood glucose concentration falls, what pancreatic hormone is secreted to stimulate release of stored
glucose?
a.
Insulin
b.
Glucagon
c.
Epinephrine
d.
Cholecystokinin
85.
Which of the following is a typical response of the body to changes in blood glucose?
a.
Blood glucose levels that fall too low signal the release of insulin
b.
Blood glucose levels that fall too low signal the release of glucagon
c.
Blood glucose levels that rise too high signal the release of glycogen
d.
Blood glucose levels that rise too high signal the release of epinephrine
86.
Which of the following blood glucose concentrations (mg/dL) is most consistent with hypoglycemia?
a.
40
b.
80
c.
115
d.
150
When you are under physical stress, what hormone is released quickly to stimulate an increase in blood glucose
concentration?
a.
Insulin
b.
Secretin
c.
Glucogen
d.
Epinephrine
87.
88.
89.
In the time between meals, what organ releases glucose to help maintain normal blood glucose levels?
a.
Liver
b.
Pancreas
c.
Intestines
d.
Skeletal muscle
A person with a fasting blood glucose concentration of 129 mg/dL would be classified as
a.
normal.
b.
diabetic.
c.
prediabetic.
d.
hypoglycemic.
90.
What glycemic index category would include yogurt and cheese?
a.
Low
b.
Moderate
c.
High
d.
Very high
91.
A person eating lots of white bread, white rice, and ready-to-eat cereals would have a diet with a glycemic
index that is
a.
very low.
b.
low.
c.
moderate.
d.
high.
92.
Which of the following is a feature of the condition hypoglycemia?
a.
It is treated with insulin injections
b.
It is aggravated by high-fiber foods
c.
It is classified as a pre-diabetic condition
d.
It occurs rarely in otherwise healthy people
93.
Which of the following is a feature of diabetes?
a.
Type 1 diabetes is more common than type 2
b.
Type 1 diabetes is also known as insulin overload diabetes
c.
Diabetes is caused by an excessive intake of dietary carbohydrates
d.
Dietary management should focus on total carbohydrate intake rather than the
carbohydrate consumed
type of
94.
What term describes how quickly glucose is absorbed from a food after ingestion, how high blood glucose rises
as a result, and how quickly blood glucose returns to normal?
a.
Diabetes index
b.
Glycemic index
c.
Diabetes potential
d.
Glycemic response
95.
A person with a fasting blood glucose level of 101 mg/dL would be classified as
a.
normal.
b.
prediabetic.
c.
a type 1 diabetic.
d.
a type 2 diabetic.
96.
Which of the following are characteristic of the conditions diabetes and hypoglycemia?
a.
Neither has a genetic susceptibility
b.
Neither is associated with increases in body weight
c.
Both respond to insulin administration and chromium supplements
d.
Both benefit from the inclusion of fiber-rich foods and consumption of smaller, more frequent
meals
97.
Your nephew Jimmy, who is 10 years old, has been giving himself a shot in the thigh every day for the past
year. He confides in you that he craves candy but was told by his parents that he can only eat sugar-free
snacks. From which of the following conditions does Jimmy most likely suffer?
a.
Hyperactivity
b.
Type 1 diabetes
c.
Type 2 diabetes
d.
Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
98.
Which of the following is a feature of diabetes?
a.
Many people with type 2 diabetes are obese
b.
Most people who have diabetes require insulin therapy
c.
Diabetes results chiefly from excess dietary intake of simple carbohydrates
d.
People with type 1 diabetes fail to respond to the insulin made by the pancreas
99.
100.
Which of the following statements describes the glycemic index of foods?
a.
A way of ranking foods according to their potential to increase blood glucose
b.
The newest, most practical means for planning diets for people with diabetes
c.
A well-utilized, highly valued mechanism to control the intake of simple sugars
d.
A measure of the percentage of digestible carbohydrates in relation to total
energy content of
the food
In a person with type 2 diabetes, which of the following foods would ordinarily promote the least favorable
glycemic effect?
a.
Chocolate
b.
Ice cream
c.
Baked potato
d.
Baked beans
Questions for Section 4.4 Health Effects and Recommended Intakes of Sugars
101.
What is the name of the sweetener consisting of a mixture of glucose and fructose formed by chemical hydrolysis
of sucrose?
a.
Molasses
b.
Invert sugar
c.
Turbinado sugar
d.
High-fructose syrup
102.
What is the predominant sweetener used in formulating beverages?
a.
Glucose
b.
Sucrose
c.
Invert sugar
d.
High-fructose corn syrup
103.
Honey contains
a.
both fructose and lactose.
b.
both glucose and galactose.
c.
more kcalories per teaspoon than sucrose.
d.
abundant amounts of calcium and iron.
Which of the following sweeteners contains a significant amount of calcium?
a.
Molasses
b.
Brown sugar
c.
Maple sugar
d.
Invert sugar
104.
105.
106.
107.
All of the following are features of honey except
a.
it is the preferred sweetener in infant foods.
b.
it is known to relieve coughing at night in children.
c.
a teaspoon provides more energy than a teaspoon of table sugar.
d.
it is known to decrease the severity of mouth ulcers induced by chemotherapy in
patients.
cancer
Which of the following is best known to result from regular ingestion of sugar?
a.
Ulcers
b.
Diabetes
c.
Dental caries
d.
Cardiovascular disease
Which of the following recommendations will help to reduce the incidence of dental caries when the diet
contains sugary foods?
a.
Eat sugary foods separate from meals
b.
Eat dried fruits in place of whole fruits
c.
Sip a sugary soft drink slowly rather than quickly
d.
Eat a sugary snack all at one time rather than in parts throughout the day
108.
Which of the following describes a relationship between carbohydrate intake and dental health?
a.
Starches cannot promote the formation of dental caries
b.
After exposure to a single snack, mouth bacteria produce acid for 50-60 minutes
c.
Eating a sugary dessert at the beginning of a meal, rather than the end, is less
likely to promote
dental caries
d.
Sugar consumed in a soft drink promotes more bacterial fermentation than the same amount of
sugar in a doughnut
109.
Approximately how many pounds of added sugars are consumed by the average U.S. resident each year?
a.
25
b.
65
c.
105
d.
190
110.
You have just arrived at a lunch buffet and are faced with many choices. Although each of the following portions
provides about 200 kcalories, which is most nutrient dense?
a.
16-ounce soda
b.
6 slices of avocado
c.
8-ounce sports drink
d.
3 slices of whole-wheat bread
111.
Approximately how many kcalories are provided by two teaspoons of sugar?
a.
10
b.
20
c.
30
d.
40
112.
Based on height, weight, age, and physical activity level, you have calculated that you should be consuming
about 2200 kcalories per day. Which of the following portions is closest to the discretionary kcalories
allowed in the USDA Food Guide for added sugars in your diet?
a.
15 tsp honey
b.
20 tsp hard candy
c.
10 tsp corn starch
d.
10 tsp brown sugar
113.
According to the current dietary recommendations, what is the maximum percentage of total energy intake that
added sugar should contribute in the diet?
a.
2
b.
10
c.
15
d.
25
Questions for Section 4.5 Alternative Sweeteners
114.
All of the following are features of artificial sweeteners except
a.
there is a lack of scientific consensus on their benefits for weight reduction.
b.
there is an Acceptable Daily Intake which provides a wide margin of safety.
c.
they provide about one-half the energy of carbohydrates plus small amounts of vitamins and
minerals.
d.
if used, the American Dietetic Association advises moderate intake and only in a
wellbalanced, nutritious diet.
115.
What is stevia?
a.
An herb-derived sweetener
b.
An FDA-approved sugar alcohol
c.
A poorly digested polysaccharide
d.
An inhibitor of lactase enzyme activity
116.
Which of the following artificial sweeteners has a composition similar to aspartame?
a.
Neotame
b.
Sucralose
c.
Saccharin
d.
Acesulfame-K
117.
All of the following components are part of the chemical structure of aspartame except
a.
aspartic acid.
b.
methyl group.
c.
phenylalanine.
d.
methanol group.
118.
Among the following approved sweeteners, which has the highest relative sweetness?
a.
Tagatose
b.
Sucralose
c.
Aspartame
d.
Acesulfame-K
119.
Among the alternative sweeteners available in the United States, which has a structure that integrates chlorine
atoms?
a.
Tagatose
b.
Sucralose
c.
Aspartame
d.
Acesulfame-K
120.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the sugar replacers (sugar alcohols)?
a.
They have a low glycemic index
b.
They promote constipation in children
c.
They demonstrate fewer GI side effects than the alternative sweeteners
d.
They are less effective than alternative sweeteners in inhibiting dental caries
121.
Which of the following is not a classification for the food additives mannitol, sorbitol, and xylitol?
a.
Carbohydrates
b.
Sugar alcohols
c.
Sugar replacers
d.
Artificial sweeteners
122. Which of the following is a characteristic of the sugar alcohols?
a.
They are not sweet
b.
They provide kcalories
c.
They are not metabolized
d.
They promote dental caries
123.
When consumed in excess, which of the following is most likely to lead to diarrhea?
a.
Fiber
b.
Sucrose
c.
Sorbitol
d.
Wheat starch
124.
Which of the following is a general feature of the sugar alcohols (sugar replacers)?
a.
They provide less than 1 kcalorie per gram
b.
They elicit a high glycemic index
c.
They are rapidly absorbed from the intestines
d.
They cannot be metabolized by cariogenic bacteria
125.
What is the approximate energy content (kcal/g) of most sugar alcohols?
a.
0
b.
2
c.
4
d.
7
Questions for Section 4.6 Health Effects and Recommended Intakes of Starch and Fibers
126.
Which of the following is known to correlate most strongly with reduced risk of deaths from heart disease?
a.
High fiber intake
b.
High sugar intake
c.
High levulose intake
d.
High corn syrup intake
127.
All of the following foods are rich sources of soluble fiber except
a.
barley.
b.
legumes.
c.
oat bran.
d.
wheat bran.
128.
Which of the following is not a feature of high-fiber foods?
a.
Effective in weight control
b.
Provide feeling of fullness
c.
Usually lower in fat and simple sugars
d.
Provide more energy per gram than processed foods
129.
In general, modifying a diet that by substituting complex carbohydrates for pure sugars results in a diet that is
higher in
a.
fat.
b.
fiber.
c.
energy.
d.
refined foods.
All of the following are characteristic of a high-fiber diet except
a.
there is a risk of not meeting energy needs.
b.
it may reduce risk of lung cancer but increase risk of breast cancer.
c.
it initially may cause bouts of gastrointestinal discomfort and diarrhea.
d.
it may precipitate mineral deficiency if the body’s mineral intake status is
marginal.
130.
131.
According to most dietary guidelines, what percentage of the day’s total energy intake should be furnished by
carbohydrates?
a.
10-15
b.
30-35
c.
45-65
d.
90-95
132.
What is the RDA for carbohydrate?
a.
10 g
b.
45 g
c.
130 g
d.
250 g
133.
Allen is 20 years old and asks for help in selecting a fiber-rich diet. After he ranks the kinds of foods he likes to
eat, you provide him with a list of food items consisting of
a.
1 cup of cooked barley and 1 cup of garbanzo beans, 1 kiwi, and 1 slice whole- wheat bread.
b.
3 slices of whole-wheat bread, 2 cups of black beans, 1 ounce 100% bran cereal,
and 1
cup apple juice.
c.
16 ounces of low-fat cheese, 3 medium apples, 2 cups blackberries, ½ cup
spinach, and ½
cup of broccoli.
d.
1 cup baked beans, 1 medium apple, 1 banana, 1½ cups oatmeal, 1 ounce 100% bran cereal, and
½ cup chopped raw carrots.
According to the American Dietetic Association, what is the Daily Value for fiber when expressed in g per 1000
kcal?
a.
5
b.
8
c.
11.5
d.
16.5
134.
135.
About how many grams of carbohydrate are contained in one ounce of foods in the grain group?
a.
5
b.
10
c.
15
d.
20
136.
What is the DRI for fiber for a person consuming 2500 kcalories?
a.
5g
b.
15 g
c.
25 g
d.
35 g
137.
Which of the following provides the most fiber?
a.
1 orange
b.
½ cup oatmeal
c.
1 cup split peas
d.
1 slice whole-wheat bread
138.
All of the following provide about 15 g of carbohydrate per serving except
a.
½ cup corn.
b.
½ cup peas.
c.
½ cup potatoes.
d.
½ cup green beans.
139.
Which of the following is a feature of dairy products and carbohydrate?
a.
A cup of milk yields about 6 g of carbohydrate
b.
Most cheeses provide little, if any, carbohydrate
c.
Cottage cheese provides about 12 g of carbohydrate
d.
A serving of yogurt yields about 3 g of carbohydrate
Section 4.7 Carbs, kCalories, and Controversies
140.
Which of the following is a typical response in people following a low-carbohydrate diet?
a.
They often complain of diet-induced diarrhea
b.
They experience frequent bouts of hyperglycemia
c.
Total weight loss after one year is the same as in people on conventional diets
d.
They lose about the same amount of weight as people on conventional diets for the first 6 months
141.
Which of the following is not associated with the regular consumption of sugary beverages?
a.
It is easy to overconsume kcal
b.
It correlates with being overweight
c.
The fructose stimulates excessive release of insulin, which suppresses appetite
d.
Substitution of one can of regular soda with water every day could result in a
one pound per month
Matching
01.
02.
03.
04.
05.
06.
07.
08.
09.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
Disaccharide containing fructose
Chemical reaction that links two molecules together
Chemical reaction that splits a larger molecule into smaller molecules
A complex carbohydrate in muscle
A complex carbohydrate in legumes
Structurally similar to starch but resistant to digestion
A water-soluble fiber
A water-insoluble fiber
Site where digestion of disaccharides takes place
Site where digestion of starch begins
Site where fibers may be metabolized to short-chain fatty acids
When digested, yields galactose
Substance that signals the release of glucose into blood
Substance that signals removal of glucose from the blood
weight loss of
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Normal blood glucose level, in mg per 100 mL blood
Stress hormone that modulates blood glucose
Processed syrup made from cornstarch
Number of kcalories provided by a 16-ounce regular soda
A sugar alcohol
RDA for carbohydrates
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
100
130
200
Pectin
Insulin
Mouth
Starch
H.
I.
J.
K.
L.
M.
N.
Sucrose
Lactose
Lignin
Sorbitol
Glycogen
Glucagon
Cellulose
O.
P.
Q.
R.
Hydrolysis
HFCS
Epinephrine
Condensatio
n
S.
Small
intestine
T.
Large
intestine