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8.
What concentration of nitrous oxide is used for inhalation narcosis?
*3:1 mixture of oxygen
2:1mixture of oxygen
4:1mixture of oxygen
1:1 mixture of oxygen
5:1 mixture of oxygen
What dose of ftorotan is used to maintain the surgical stage of anesthesia?
*0,5-1 vol. %
1-1,5 vol. %
1,5-2 vol. %
2-2,5 vol. %
2,5-3 vol. %
Ftorotan is used to maintain the surgical stage of anesthesia, in what dose?
1-1,5 vol. %
1,5-2 vol. %
*0,5-1 vol. %
2-2,5 vol. %
2,5-3 vol. %
Funny gas, obtained by Priestley - is:
Ftorotan
*Nitrous Oxide
Trichloroethylene
Metoksyfluran
Cyclopropane
For what type of anesthesia is used hexanal?
The local conductor
The local applique
*For general to venous
For general inhalation
For general rectal
Which anesthetic for inhalation narcosis has the smell of apples?
Ftorotan
Nitrous Oxide
*Metoksyfluran
Tetrachlorethylene
Hexanal
The smell of apples has an anesthetic for inhalation anesthesia?
Ftorotan
Nitrous Oxide
Tetrachlorethylene
*Metoksyfluran
Hexanal
For what type of anesthesia is used trichlorethylene?
A. Open and semi-closed
B. *Open and half-open
C. Closed and half-open
D. Closed and semi-closed
E. There is no right answer
9. What is the volume percent of ether necessary to achieve a deep stage of anesthesia?
A. 0,5 - 1 vol. %
B. 1-1,5 vol. %
C. 1,5 - 2 vol. %
D. *10 - 12 vol. %
E. 2,5 - 3 vol. %
10. What is the maintenance dose of trichlorethylene?
A. *0,2 - 0,5 vol. %
B. 1-1,5 vol. %
C. 1,5 - 2 vol. %
D. 10 - 12 vol. %
E. 2,5 - 3 vol. %
11. Maintenance dose of trichlorethylene should be in?
A. 1-1,5 vol. %
B. 1,5 - 2 vol. %
C. *0,2 - 0,5 vol. %
D. 10 - 12 vol. %
E. 2,5 - 3 vol. %
12. What is the concentration of the vapor of ether to provide support of narcosis?
A. 0,2 - 0,5 vol. %
B. 1-1,5 vol. %
C. 1,5 - 2 vol. %
D. 10 - 12 vol. %
E. *2 - 5 vol. %
13. Anesthesia with a mixture of nitrous oxide and cyclopropane with oxygen (1:0,35:2) is the
method of:
A. Timofeev
B. *Ashman
C. Bernadskyy
D. Pirogov
E. Morton
14. Who was used noningalation anesthesia by alcohol the first?
A. Morton
B. Leus
C. Bernadskyy
D. Timofeev
E. *Pirogov
15. What is the special feature of cyclopropane narcosis?
A. Contraindicated in liver disease
B. Contraindicated in renal disease
C. *Incompatible with the use of electric knife
D. Incompatible with calcium supplementation
E. Contraindicated in diseases of the stomach
16. What is the maximum single dose of hexanal administration?
A. 3 gram
B. 2 gram
C. *1 gram
D. 0,5 gram
E. 1,5 gram
17. Who was used in clinical thiopental - sodium anesthesia the first?
A. *Lundy and Tovel
B. Morton
C. Leus
D. Pies
E. Zhorov
18. Which of these methods relates to inhalation anesthesia?
A. Intravenous
B. Rectal
C. Intra muscular
D. *Mask
E. Inhaled
19. After what time does come an anesthesia with intravenous injection of ketamine?
A. After 10 minutes
B. After 5 minutes
C. *After 15-20 seconds
D. After 15-20 minutes
E. After 2-4 minutes
20. What drugs are used during the classical neuroleptanalgesia?
A. Thiopental sodium suprastin
B. Aminazin and droperidol
C. Omnopon and chlorpromazine
D. Pipolfen and diazepam
E. *Fentanyl with droperidol
21. After what time does come an anesthesia after intramuscular injection of calypsol?
A. After 10 minutes
B. After 5 minutes
C. After 15-20 seconds
D. After 15-20 minutes
E. *After 2-4 minutes
22. How many time can last anesthesia by calypsol in the hospital?
A. *6-7 hours
B. 15-20 minutes
C. 4-5 hours
D. 30 minutes
E. 25 minutes
23. How many time can last anesthesia by ketamine in a polyclinic?
A. 5 minutes
B. *15-20 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 30 minutes
E. 25 minutes
24. Which of these anesthetics can achieve the level of surgical anesthesia 31 and 32?
A. Ftorotan
B. Nitrous Oxide
C. Hexanal
D. Thiopental – sodium
E. *Ketamine
25. What is the contraindication for the calypsol anesthesia?
A. Diseases of the kidneys
B. Diseases of the stomach
C. Liver diseases
D. *Hypertension
E. Sinusitis
26. What is the length of tubes that are used for nasal intubation?
A. *28 -30 cm
B. 25 cm
C. 35 cm
D. 15 - 20 cm
E. 20 cm
27. Which of the following applies to general anesthesia?
A. Anesthesia
B. Application and infiltration anesthesia
C. *Anesthesia and neuroleptanalgesia
D. Method creeping infiltration by Vishnevsky
E. infiltration anesthesia
28. What complications can occur in patients with a closed way of maintaining anesthesia?
A. *Hypercapnia
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Collapse
D. Hematoma
E. Swoon
29. The general anesthesia include?
A. Application and infiltration anesthesia
B. Anesthesia
C. Method creeping infiltration by Vishnevsky
D. *Anesthesia and neuroleptanalgesia
E. infiltration anesthesia
30. Which way to maintain anesthesia is considered to be the most appropriate in dentistry?
A. Closed
B. Open
C. *Half-open
D. Semi-closed
E. Closed – open
31. What complication is more common in patients with semi-closed ways to maintain
anesthesia?
A. Hypercapnia
B. Anaphylaxis
C. *Drug overdose
D. Hematoma
E. Swoon
32. What drugs are used for induction of anesthesia?
A. *Barbiturates
B. Droperidol
C. Cyclopropane
D. Metoksyflyuran
E. Ftorotan
33. Who first synthesized hexanal as a derivative of barbituric acid?
A. Morton
B. Pirogov
C. *Weeze
D. Lundy
E. Tovell
34. The author who first synthesized hexanal as a derivative of barbituric acid?
A. *Weeze
B. Morton
C. Pies
D. Lundy
E. Tovell
35. How many people should serve a dentist in public institutions?
A. 2-2.5 thousand
B. *4-4.5 thousand
C. 6-6.5 thousand
D. 7-8 thousand
E. 8-9 thousand
36. How many dental surgeons allocated a nurse position?
A. 0.5 post dental surgeon
B. *On 1 post dental surgeon
C. 1.5 post dental surgeon
D. For 2 positions dental surgeon
E. At 3 post dental surgeon
37. How many dental surgeons allocated one position of nursing aids?
A. 3 posts
B. 4 posts
C. *1 post
D. 1.5 positions
E. 2 posts
38. How much dentists-surgeons must be for organization of surgical department?
A. 3
B. *6
C. 4
D. 7
E. 8
39. What antiseptics and in what concentration should be used to prevent the transfer of infection
when using a dental surgeon in rubber gloves?
A. *2,4% solution pervomur
B. 0,5% solution pervomur
C. 1,0% solution pervomur
D. 1,5% solution pervomur
E. 3,0% solution pervomur
40. Physician dental surgeon has to make a report on the medical work for the month. What
document should he fills?
A. Form 043
B. Form 037
C. *Form 039
D. Form 049
E. Form 072
41. What medical documentation should maintain the dental surgeon?
A. Medical Book
B. Procedural leaf
C. Diary account of work
D. Journal of checkups
E. *Medical history and daily accounting work
42. For how many doctors in dental clinic is expected doctor-anesthesiologist?
A. After 10
B. At 15
C. *At 20
D. At 25
E. At 5
43. For how many beds allocated one operating table in the dental hospital?
A. 10-20
B. 20-30
C. *30-40
D. 40-50
E. 50-60
44. How many categories are distinguished in dental clinics?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. *6
45. What is the concentration of chlorhexidine bigluconate solution used for the treatment of
surgeon's hands?
A. *0,5%
B. 1%
C. 2%
D. 3%
E. 1%
46. What is regulatory area established for operating for one dental chair in the dental clinic of
second category?
A. 18 m2
B. 20 m2
C. *14 m2
D. 25 m2
E. 23 m2
47. What is the area of sanitary norms for operating on 1 dental chair (operating table) in the
dental clinic of 1 category?
A. 14 m2
B. 16 m2
C. 20 m2
D. *23 m2
E. 27 m2
48. How many medical positions are in the clinic of V category?
A. 5-7
B. 7-11
C. *10-14
D. 12-15
E. 14-17
49. What is the main structural link of dental units?
A. *Dental surgery
B. Dental department
C. Dental Clinic
D. Dental hospital
E. Dental clinic
50. In the polyclinic of V category out medical office:
A. 5-7
B. 7-11
C. 12-15
D. *10-14
E. 14-17
51. What is the minimum area of operating for an one table?
A. 22-28 m2
B. 26-32 m2
C. 32-34 m2
D. 36-40 m2
E. *36-48 m2
52. What is the minimum allowable operating area for an one table?
A. *36-48 m2
B. 26-28 m2
C. 26-32 m2
D. 32-34 m2
E. 36-40 m2
53. How many medical positions are in the clinic of the third category?
A. 11 – 14
B. 14-17
C. 17-20
D. *20-24
E. 24-28
54. The presence of what statistical documents is mandatory for the clinical patients?
A. *The form number 037
B. Form number Form number 043 + 030
C. Form № 030
D. Form № 039
E. Form № 043
55. For statistical documents which can evaluate the performance of the doctor a month?
A. Form № 037
B. Form № 049
C. Form № 043
D. *The form number 039
E. Form № 030
56. By what statistical document can be evaluation of physician worf per month?
A. Form № 037
B. *The form number 039
C. Form № 049
D. Form № 043
E. Form № 030
57. Organized a new dental clinic of 1st category. How many staff positions Surgeons - Dental
expected at this clinic?
A. 4-5 staff positions
B. *2-3 staff positions
C. 3-4 staff positions
D. 1-2 staff positions
E. 5-6 staff positions
58. The clinic, which employs 20 dentists who perform planned and unplanned operations have
fixed operating days. How many doctors offices - anaesthesiologist provided in this clinic?
A. 2 posts
B. 3 posts
C. 4 posts
D. *1 post
E. More than 4 posts
59. How is the X-ray examination in which it is possible to obtain images of a certain layer of
bone?
A. Stereoroentgenography
B. *Tomography
C. Panoramic radiography
D. Fluoroscopy
E. Radioviziography
60. For an image of a certain layer of bone X-ray examination is called:
A. Stereoroentgenography
B. Panoramic radiography
C. Fluoroscopy
D. *Tomography
E. Radioviziography
61. What is document form number 037?
A. Ambulatory patient card
B. Leaf monthly report for work
C. *Daily Leaf patients
D. Leaf accounting work orthopedists
E. Leaf quarterly review of patients
62. Of all osteomyelitis maxillofacial acute osteomyelitis (odontogenic) is:
A. 15-33%
B. 30-45%
C. 45-60%
D. *60-65%
E. 65-70%
63. Of all the inflammatory processes of the maxillofacial area osteomyelitis in children is:
A. 10-15%
B. *15-33%
C. 25-43%
D. 45-63%
E. 65-83%
64. Affection of osteomyelitis in children is:
A. 10-15%
B. 25-43%
C. 45-63%
D. *15-33%
E. 65-83%
65. Differential diagnosis of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis is manufacture with:
A. Odontogenic osteomyelitis
B. Ewing sarcoma
C. Abscess of the soft tissues
D. Acute mumps
E. *All listed diseases
66. Chronic odontogenic osteomyelitis often occurs in the mandible in children of:
A. 2-4 years
B. 4-6 years
C. *5-10 years
D. 8-11 years
E. 9-13 years
67. The lower jaw in children is more likely to develop of chronic odontogenic osteomyelitis in
the age of:
A. 2-4 years
B. 4-6 years
C. 8-11 years
D. *5-10 years
E. 9-13 years
68. What are the changes in the blood during hematogenous osteomyelitis:
A. *Leukocytosis
B. Offset formula at right
C. Reducing the ESR
D. Albuminosis
E. Reduced hemoglobin
69. In hematogenous osteomyelitis in the blood occur some changes, which are:
A. The displacement formula at right
B. Reducing the ESR
C. *Leukocytosis
D. Albuminosis
E. Reduced hemoglobin
70. When the affected upper jaw (acute osteomyelitis) due to inflammation of the tissue of the
orbit observed:
A. Exophthalmos
B. Hemosis of conjunctiva
C. Eye is closed
D. *All listed diseases
E. Eye redness
71. Sequestration formed by:
A. 1-2 weeks
B. *3-4 weeks
C. 2-3 weeks
D. 4-5 weeks
E. 5-6 weeks
72. Chronic osteomyelitis sequesters created by:
A. 1-2 weeks
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 4-5 weeks
D. *3-4 weeks
E. 5-6 weeks
73. Over the course of the disease osteomyelitis is:
A. Sharp
B. Primary chronic
C. Chronic as a result of acute
D. Chronic in acute
E. *All listed diseases
74. Nonodontogenic osteomyelitis is divided into:
A. Vascular
B. Stomatogenic
C. Posttraumatic
D. Contact
E. *All diseases listed
75. How is divided nonodontogenic osteomyelitis:
A. Vascular
B. *All diseases listed
C. Stomatogenic
D. Posttraumatic
E. Contact
76. Gravity flow hematogenous osteomyelitis causes:
A. *Septic background disease
B. Age of child
C. Preferably, the damage of the upper jaw
D. The destructive nature of the
E. Destructive, destructive - productive and hyperplastic forms of chronic osteomyelitis
77. What is the result of osteomyelitis of the jaw bones is a feature of childhood:
A. Adentia
B. Formation of bone defect
C. *Stunting jaw
D. Pathological fracture of the jaw
E. Injury
78. Duration of rehabilitation period for patients with hematogenous osteomyelitis:
A. By the time clinical recuperation
B. Stable remission for a year
C. Prior to the period of formation of milk occlusion
D. *By the end of growth of the jaw bones
E. Before permanent teeth
79. The first radiographic signs of degradation of the jaws in children with osteomyelitis
detected:
A. 4-5 days
B. 6-8 days
C. *In 10-12 days
D. After 3 weeks
E. After 4 weeks
80. Depending on the type of infection osteomyelitis is classified into:
A. Vascular stomatogenic
B. Productive, hyperplastic
C. *The specific, non-specific
D. Post-traumatic, contact
E. Focal, generalized
81. Osteomyelitis of the jaws, depending on the type of infection are classified as:
A. Vascular stomatogenic
B. Productive, hyperplastic
C. Post-traumatic, contact
D. *Specific, nonspecific
E. Focal, generalized
82. When are the first radiological signs of destructive odontogenic osteomyelitis?
A. On the 1st 2nd day
B. At the 3 - 4th day
C. *On 15- 20th day
D. At the 30th 40th day
E. On the 50th day
83. What is the cause of traumatic osteomyelitis?
A. Age of the patient
B. Acute lymphadenitis
C. Injury poorly manufactured prosthesis
D. *A tooth or tooth root fracture line in
E. A tooth or tooth root
84. The cause of traumatic osteomyelitis is:
A. Age of the patient
B. *In line fracture tooth or tooth root
C. Acute lymphadenitis
D. Injury poorly manufactured prosthesis
E. A tooth or tooth root
85. What is the cause of traumatic osteomyelitis of the jaws?
A. Age of the patient
B. Acute lymphadenitis
C. *Infection fracture line
D. Injury poorly manufactured prosthesis
E. In the line of fracture tooth or tooth root
86. What is the cause of traumatic osteomyelitis of the jaws?
A. Age of the patient
B. Acute lymphadenitis
C. Injury poorly manufactured prosthesis
D. *Poor reposition and immobilization of fragments
E. In the line of fracture tooth or tooth root
87. What is the method of prevention of posttraumatic osteomyelitis of the jaws?
A. Physiotherapy
B. Temporary immobilization of fragments
C. Deferred immobilization of fragments
D. *Tooth or tooth root of the fracture line
E. Impaired oral health
88. Early acute odontogenic osteomyelitis preceding:
A. *Infectious diseases paraallergic reaction allergic disease;
B. Chronic diseases of the gastrointestinal tract;
C. Violation of cardiovascular activity;
D. Violation of nervous activity;
E. Infectious Diseases
89. The acute stage of odontogenic osteomyelitis of the mandible is characterized by:
A. Aching pain in the causal tooth that increase in bitting;
B. Intense pain in jaw radiating along the branches of the trigeminal nerve;
C. *Paresthesia of the lower lip, pain when swallowing, chewing, painful of soft tissues
swelling, difficulty opening the mouth, chewing dysfunction and pronunciation;
D. Swelling of the alveolar process of the two parties;
E. Difficulty opening the mouth.
90. Tactics of treatment of acute odontogenic osteomyelitis:
A. *Remove the tooth, reduce the "stress" of tissues and draining fire ignition, prescribe antiinflammatory treatment;
B. Prevent the development of infection and formation of necrosis at the periphery of the
inflammatory foci;
C. Reduce the vascular permeability and the formation of vasoactive substances;
D. Reduce the overall toxicity of the body, reduce neurohumoral shifts;
E. Conduct symptomatic treatment
91. Tactics of treatment of odontogenic osteomyelitis during the formation sequestration:
A. *Infection control in inflammation, prevent the formation of new necrosis (storage
microcirculation in peripheral inflammatory focus), decrease vascular permeability and
intensity of neurohumoral shifts;
B. Purpose hamahlobulinu, antistaphylococcal plasma;
C. Antibiotic therapy;
D. Conduct sequestrectomy;
E. Appointment of infusion therapy.
92. Tactics of treatment of odontogenic osteomyelitis in the stabilization phase of inflammation:
A. *Sequestrectomy, enhancing nonspecific immunity, creating favorable conditions for the
flow of reparative regeneration in maxillary bones;
B. Timely dental prosthesis, dental health and the bow of the throat;
C. The intensive detoxification treatment;
D. Antibiotic therapy;
E. Appointment of infusion therapy.
93. Pathognomonic symptoms of acute odontogenic osteomyelitis of the maxilla in children:
A. bold pus from the external ear;
B. Abscesses in the cheeks;
C. *The development of infiltrates, abscesses, fistulas in alveolar process of the upper jaw or the
hard palate;
D. High body temperature;
E. Abscesses, fistulas in alveolar process of the upper jaw or the hard palate
94. Before the sequestrectomy in maxillary osteomyelitis in the area of molars in the elderly,
which apparatus is necessary to make?
A. Capua, which increases bite;
B. Tire Vankevych;
C. *Protective plate;
D. Tire Weber
E. Tire Tihershtedt.
95. Load dentist (with work experience of 7 years or more) shift during a five-day working week
should not exceed:
A. *25 OPS
B. 27 OPS
C. 22 OPS
D. 19 OPS
E. 30 OPS
96. What is the order approved accounting and statistical reporting forms in dentistry?
A. MHC Ukraine № 507 from 28.12.2002.
B. MHC Ukraine № 33 of 23.02.2000.
C. MHC Ukraine № 552 /200 of 31.03.2000.
D. *MHC Ukraine № 302 from 27.12.1999.
E. MHC Ukraine № 281 of 1.12.1999.
97. In a young professional at the end of the shift was only filled "medical card of the dental
patient". What other statistical document must be also filled?
A. *The form number 037 /0
B. Form № 039 /0
C. Form № 049 /0
D. Form № 030 /0
E. Form № 043 /0
98. In Dental clinic needs the nurse. How many medical positions require one nurse position?
A. Position one nurse to three physician office
B. One in office regardless of the number of physicians
C. *One position nurse in a one doctor's office
D. Two office nurse for three physician office
E. One office nurse for two posts of doctor
99. For X-ray examination of maxillo-facial bones is used:
A. X-ray of a skull in a straight line and lateral projections
B. Axial radiographs and half-axial
C. examination of temporomandibular joint
D. inspection of oral cavity
E. *all previous surveys
100.
In conducting of teleroentgenography the distance between the object of study and a
radiation source is:
A. 3 m
B. 2 m
C. 1 m
D. *2,5 m
E. 1,5 m
101.
The distance between the object of study and a radiation source during
teleroentgenography is:
A. 3 m
B. *2,5 m
C. 2 m
D. 1 m
E. 1,5 m
102.
Tomography is used in the following examination of the maxillofacial region:
A. temporomandibular joint
B. paranasal sinuses
C. infratemporal and wing- palatine fossa
D. mandible
E. *all previous surveys
103.
Roentgenokinematography is:
A. Radiography at a distance
B. Radiography in the supine position
C. Radiography sitting
D. *Radiography of moving objects
E. X-ray examination in which the source is inserted into the mouth
104.
Instead of x-ray film in the performance of elektroroentgenography is used:
A. *Selenium plate
B. Graphite plate
C. White Paper
D. Soot
E. Stake paper
105.
What is the roentgenokinematography?
A. Radiography at a distance
B. *Radiography of the moving objects
C. Radiography in the supine position
D. Radiography sitting
E. X-ray examination in which the source is inserted into the mouth
106.
Which of the following refers to additional methods of examination?
A. *Radiography, biomicroscopy
B. Definition of bite
C. Measurement of depth vestibule of the mouth
D. Determination of the mobility
E. biomicroscopy
107.
How is called the X-ray examination to obtain information on the image of a certain
layer of the bone?
A. Stereoroentgenography
B. Panoramic radiography
C. Fluoroscopy
D. *Tomography
E. Radioviziography
108.
Of all osteomyelitis maxillofacial acute osteomyelitis (odontogenic) is:
A. 15-33%
B. 30-45%
C. 45-60%
D. *60-65%
E. 65-70%
109.
What is the percent of osteomyelitis among all inflammatory processes of the
maxillofacial area in children:
A. 10-15%
B. 25-43%
C. 45-63%
D. *15-33%
E. 65-83%
110.
What diseases should be a differential diagnosis of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis:
A. *All of disease
B. Odontogenic osteomyelitis
C. Ewing sarcoma
D. Abscesses of the soft tissues
E. Acute mumps
111.
At what age in children develops chronic odontogenic osteomyelitis of the mandible
localization:
A. 2-4 years
B. 4-6 years
C. 8-11 years
D. *5-10 years
E. 9-13 years
112.
In hematogenous osteomyelitis of the changes in the blood that are:
A. The displacement formula right
B. Reducing the ESR
C. Albuminosis
D. *Leukocytosis
E. Reduced hemoglobin
113.
In damage to the maxillary by acute osteomyelitis due to inflammation of the tissue of
the orbit observed:
A. *All disease
B. Exophthalmos
C. Hemosis of conjunctiva
D. The eye closed
E. Paresis
114.
Medium and large sequesters created by:
A. 1-2 weeks
B. *2-3 weeks
C. 3-4 weeks
D. 4-5 weeks
E. 5-6 weeks
115.
When there is osteomyelitis, medium and large sequesters created by:
A. 1-2 weeks
B. 3,5-4 weeks
C. 4,4-5 weeks
D. *2-3 weeks
E. 5-6 weeks
116.
Osteomyelitis by the course of the disease is divided into:
A. Sharp
B. Primary chronic
C. Chronic as a result of acute
D. Chronic in acute
E. *All stages are listed
117.
Osteomyelitis of nonodontogenic origin is divided into:
A. *All previous factors
B. Vascular
C. Stomatogenic
D. Posttraumatic
E. Contact
118.
Hematogenous osteomyelitis by the severity of the flow conditions:
A. Age of child
B. Preferably damage maxilla
C. The destructive nature of the
D. *Septic background disease
E. Destructive, destructive - productive and hyperplastic forms of chronic osteomyelitis
119.
What is the feature factor of the jaw bones osteomyelitis of childhood:
A. Adentia
B. Formation of bone defect
C. *Stunting jaw
D. Pathological fracture of the jaw
E. The rapid growth of the jaw
120.
For patients with hematogenous osteomyelitis the length of the rehabilitation period
lasts:
A. By the time clinical recuperation
B. Stable remission for a year
C. Prior to the period of formation of milk occlusion
D. *By the end of growth of the jaw bones
E. Prior to the period of formation of permanent occlusion
121.
The first signs of destruction of the jaws in children with osteomyelitis are detected on
the X-rays in:
A. 4-5 days
B. 6-8 days
C. *In 10-12 days
D. After 3 weeks
E. After 4 weeks
122.
Osteomyelitis is classified based on the type of infection:
A. Vascular stomatogenic
B. Productive, hyperplastic
C. *The specific, non-specific
D. Post-traumatic, contact
E. Focal, generalized
123.
The first radiological signs of destructive manifestations of odontogenic osteomyelitis
are in?
A. On the 1st-2nd day
B. At the 3 - 4th day
C. *On 15- 20th day
D. At the 30th 40th day
E. On the 50th day
124.
On what day do the first radiological signs of destructive odontogenic osteomyelitis
appear?
A. 1- 2nd
B. 3 - 4th
C. *15- 20th
D. 30- 40th
E. 50th
125.
The cause of traumatic osteomyelitis is?
A. *A tooth or tooth root fracture line in
B. A tooth or root
C. Acute lymphadenitis
D. Injury poorly manufactured prosthesis
E. Acute abscess
126.
Traumatic osteomyelitis of the jaws is cause of development?
A. Age of the patient
B. Acute lymphadenitis
C. *Infection fracture line
D. Injury poorly manufactured prosthesis
E. Infection of the mucosa through the gap
127.
The cause of traumatic osteomyelitis of the jaws is?
A. Late reposition and immobilization of fragments
B. Acute lymphadenitis
C. Injury poorly manufactured prosthesis
D. *Poor reposition and immobilization of fragments
E. Late immobilization of fragments
128.
Methods of prevention of traumatic osteomyelitis of the jaws is?
A. Physiotherapy
B. *Tooth or tooth root of the fracture line
C. Temporary immobilization of fragments
D. Deferred immobilization of fragments
E. Removal of tooth root fracture line
129.
Occurrence of acute odontogenic osteomyelitis preceding:
A. The chronic disease of the gastrointestinal tract;
B. Violation of cardiovascular activity;
C. *Infectious diseases paraallergic reaction allergic disease;
D. Violation of nervous activity;
E. Allergic disease.
130.
The acute stage of odontogenic osteomyelitis of the mandible is characterized by:
A. Aching pain in the causal tooth that increase with nakushuvanni;
B. Intense pain in jaw radiating along the branches of the trigeminal nerve;
C. Abdominal alveolar ridge on both sides;
D. *Paresthesia of the lower lip, pain when swallowing, chewing, painful soft tissue swelling,
difficulty opening the mouth, chewing dysfunction and pronunciation;
E. Difficulty opening the mouth.
131.
What are the stages in the treatment of acute odontogenic osteomyelitis?
A. prevent the development of infection and formation of necrosis at the periphery of the
inflammatory foci;
B. reduce vascular permeability and the formation of vasoactive substances;
C. Reduce the overall toxicity of the body, reduce neurohumoral shifts;
D. *Remove the tooth, reduce the "stress" of tissues and draining fire ignition, prescribe antiinflammatory treatment;
E. Conduct symptomatic treatment
132.
What is the essence of the treatment of odontogenic osteomyelitis during the formation
sequestration:
A. Purpose gammaglobulin, antistaphylococcal plasma;
B. Conduct sequestrectomy;
C. *Infection control in inflammation, prevent the formation of new necrosis (storage
microcirculation in peripheral inflammatory focus), decrease vascular permeability and
intensity of neurohumoral shifts;
D. Antibiotic therapy;
E. Appointment of infusion therapy.
133.
What stages in the treatment of odontogenic osteomyelitis in the stabilization phase of
inflammation:
A. Timely dental prosthesis, dental health and the bow of the throat;
B. Intense detoxification treatment;
C. antibiotic therapy;
D. *sequestrectomy, enhancing nonspecific immunity, creating favorable conditions for the flow
of reparative regeneration in maxillary bones;
E. Appointment of infusion therapy.
134.
Pathognomonic symptoms in acute odontogenic osteomyelitis of the maxilla in
children:
A. bold pus from the external ear;
B. Abscesses in the cheeks;
C. The high temperature of the body;
D. *The development of infiltrates, abscesses, fistulas in alveolar process of the upper jaw or the
hard palate;
E. The development of fistulas in alveolar process of the upper jaw or the hard palate;
135.
The general anesthesia includes?
A. Application and infiltration anesthesia
B. Method of creeping infiltration by Vishnevsky
C. Narcosis
D. *Narcosis and neuroleptanalgesia
E. Infiltration anesthesia
136.
On what kinds is divided narcosis?
A. Physical and chemical
B. Application and instylyatsiynyy
C. Central and peripheral
D. *Inhaled and noningalation
E. Local and conductor
137.
Which of the following drugs used for inhalation anesthesia?
A. Hexanal
B. Lidocaine
C. Ketamine
D. Septanest
E. *Nitrous Oxide
138.
How is called anesthesia in which there is injected mixture of analgesic and
antipsychotics?
A. Ataralgesia
B. Audioanesteziya
C. *Neuroleptanalgesia
D. Acupuncture anesthesia
E. Instilation anesthesia
139.
Which of the following drugs used for noningalation anesthesia?
A. Air
B. *Ketamine
C. Nitrous Oxide
D. Ftorotan
E. Hexanal
140.
What from the following is the general anesthesia?
A. *Intravenous anesthesia
B. Stem anesthesia
C. Spinal anesthesia
D. Perirenal blockade
E. Epidural anesthesia
141.
The patient suffers from epilepsy. Under what kind of anesthesia is necessary to do the
operation?
A. *During endotracheal anesthesia
B. Under anesthesia mask
C. During anesthesia nasopharyngeal
D. Under infiltration anesthesia
E. Under anesthesia
142.
What method of anesthesia is the most safe and sufficient effective in outpatient dental
practice to provide treatment for patients who experience fear of dental treatment?
A. Audioanaesthesia
B. Neuroleptanalgesia
C. *Ataralgesia
D. Endotracheal anesthesia
E. Hypnosis
143.
What drug is used in outpatient dental practice, during intravenous anesthetic
thiopental sodium solution to avoid or prevent laryngo - and bronchospasm?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Dyprazin
C. Crank
D. Fentanyl
E. *Atropine
144.
What are the different types of anesthesia?
A. *Inhalation, noningalation, neuroleptanalgesia
B. inhalation, mask, endotracheal
C. Inhalation, noningalation, endotracheal
D. Endotracheal, mask, neuroleptanalgesia
E. Neuroleptanalgesia, mask, inhalation
145.
How many steps performed premedication?
A. One-stage
B. In the two-stage
C. *In three steps
D. In the four stages
E. In the five stages
146.
Number of phases in which performed premedication?
A. *In three steps
B. One-stage
C. In the two-stage
D. In the four stages
E. In the five stages
147.
What is the indication for narcosis in terms of a dental polyclinic?
A. Acute respiratory infection
B. Acute inflammation
C. Pathology
D. *Diseases of the CNS
E. Cardiovascular disease
148.
What is a contraindication for narcosis in terms of a dental polyclinic?
A. Fear of dental treatment and disposal
B. Lactose anesthetics
C. The pathology of the CNS
D. Asthma
E. *Acute respiratory infection
149.
During the mask narcosis, the following medicines are used:
A. Propanidid and sodium hydroxybutyrate
B. Viadryl and altezyn
C. Hexanal
D. *Chloroform and ether
E. Trichloroethylene and metoksyfluran
150.
Which of the complications is not related to complications of narcosis?
A. spasm of the larynx
B. Swelling of the larynx
C. *Angioedema
D. Stop breathing]
E. Aspiration of vomitus
151.
To complications of narcosis does not belong?
A. Spasm of the larynx
B. Swelling of the larynx
C. Stop breathing
D. *Angioedema
E. Aspiration of vomitus
152.
What are some ways to maintain anesthesia?
A. *Half-closed, half open and closed
B. Closed and open
C. Closed, open and semi-closed
D. Closed, open and semi-open
E. Half-open, half-closed and open
153.
In which of these injuries is not indicated general anesthesia?
A. Fractures of the upper jaw and the type Lefor 2 Lefor 3
B. Fractures of the lower jaw with the tongue injury
C. Fractures of the mandible with damage pharynx and larynx
D. *Fractures of the nose
E. Fractures of the mandible with muscle damage floor of the mouth
154.
What agencies are used in noningalation anesthesia?
A. Droperidol, fentanyl, diazepam
B. *Viadryl, hexanal, thiopental sodium
C. Ether, ftorotan, nitrous oxide
D. Trichloroethylene, metoksyfluran
E. Cyclopropane, chloroform
155.
How many clinical stages includes anesthesia?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. *Five
E. Six
156.
What agencies are used in neuroleptanalgesia?
A. Viadryl, hexanal, thiopental sodium
B. Air, ftorotan, nitrous oxide
C. Trichloroethylene, metoksyfluran, chloroform
D. Sodium hydroxybutyrate, propanidid
E. *Droperidol, fentanyl, diazepam
157.
What is a contraindication for anesthesia in terms of a dental clinic?
A. *Severe anemia
B. Asthma
C. Fear of dental treatment and disposal
D. Lactose anesthetics
E. Pathology of CNS
158.
What is the indication for anesthesia in terms of a dental clinic?
A. Acute respiratory infection
B. Acute inflammation
C. *Lactose anesthetics
D. Severe anemia
E. Pathology
159.
What type of anesthesia is indicated for severe abscesses uncovering maxillofacial
area?
A. Neuroleptanalgesia
B. *Mask anesthesia
C. Endotracheal anesthesia
D. Noningalation anesthesia
E. Local anesthesia
160.
What is a contraindication for anesthesia in terms of a dental clinic?
A. The pathology of the CNS
B. Fear of dental treatment and disposal
C. Lactose anesthetics
D. *Violations clotting
E. Asthma
161.
Which agencies can be used to premedication before extraction of the teeth?
A. Trimecaine
B. *Trioksazyn
C. Timalin
D. Cocaine
E. Dicain
162.
What is the narcotic effect of the use of to venous narcosis by sombrevin?
A. *Within 3-5 minutes.
B. Within 6-8 minutes.
C. For 9-12 minutes.
D. Within 13-15 minutes.
E. Within 17-20 minutes.
163.
When using to venous sombrevin anesthesia drug effects occurs?
A. Within 6-8 minutes.
B. Within 8-10 minutes.
C. *Within 3-5 minutes.
D. Within 2-3 minutes.
E. Within 10-12 minutes.
164.
Coagulation theory is in:
A. Solubility of drugs in lipid cellular membranes
B. Change the boundary tension between the membrane and the liquid
C. *Contact coagulation of the protoplasm of nerve cells
D. Lock regulation of redox processes
E. Formation of stable water crystals
165.
In patient 6 years old is cleft of the hard and soft palates. What method of general
anesthesia is need to be used during surgery - uranostafiloplastic?
A. Intravenous
B. Rectal
C. *Endotracheal through the mouth
D. Intra muscular
E. Mask
166.
Requirements for general anesthesia in the clinic (by Bazhanov):
A. General anesthesia should be perfectly safe
B. Wake rapid
C. The patient has to go home alone
D. There are no side effects after anesthesia
E. *All claims are true
167.
When conducting the second phase of sedation?
A. In the evening before surgery
B. 5 hours before surgery
C. For 4 hours before surgery
D. *1,5-2 hours before surgery
E. For 2,5-3 hours before surgery
168.
What matter of these should be used to suppress fear and internal stress in the patient
before visiting the dentist?
A. *Diazepam
B. The extract of valerian
C. Droperidol
D. Aminazin
E. Sodium bromide
169.
What drugs are used to the classic neuroleptanalgesia?
A. Aminazin of droperidol
B. Omnopon of chlorpromazine
C. Diazepam with pipolfenom
D. *Fentanyl with droperidol
E. Thiopental sodium suprastin
170.
The method of pain relief is the most safe and effective enough in ambulatory
stomatolohychniy practice for the treatment of a patient who is undergoing treatment in fear
of the dentist who?
A. Audioanaesthesia
B. Neuroleptanalgesia
C. *Ataralgesia
D. Endotracheal anesthesia
E. Hypnosis
171.
Hits for anesthesia in terms of dental clinic is?
A. Acute respiratory infection
B. Acute inflammation
C. Severe anemia
D. *Fear of dental treatment and disposal
E. Cardiovascular disease
172.
Pain - a kind of human condition defined set of physiological processes in the central
nervous system caused by the stimulus. This definition shall include:
A. Timofeev
B. Danilevskyy
C. Hotsk
D. *Anokhin
E. Got
173.
What is the anesthesia by ajar circuit:
A. The air you breathe comes from the atmosphere and it is returned
B. *Dope comes from the container with a mixture of oxygen and exhaled into the atmosphere
C. Part of exhaled air to the atmosphere, some is returned to the patient
D. Gas recirculation system in the machine completely isolated from the atmosphere
E. Part of the air is returned to the patient
174.
Anesthesia for semi-closed type is:
A. The air you breathe comes from the atmosphere and it is returned
B. The drug comes from the container with a mixture of oxygen and exhaled into the
atmosphere
C. *Some air exhaled into the atmosphere, some is returned to the patient
D. Gas recirculation system in the machine completely isolated from the atmosphere
E. The drug comes from the container with a mixture of oxygen
175.
Ether and chloroform are often used to:
A. *Mask anesthesia
B. Intravenous anesthesia
C. Rectal anesthesia
D. Intramuscular anesthesia
E. Inhalation
176.
What preparation is conducted before anesthesia?
A. Professional oral hygiene
B. Trained oral
C. Processing operating margins
D. Treatment arms
E. *Sedative preparations
177.
The science of anesthesia and methods of protecting the patient from emergency
surgical trauma impacts is:
A. *Anesthesiology
B. Traumatology
C. Surgery
D. Pharmacology
E. Oncology
178.
Anesthesiology is the study of:
A. Drugs
B. Malignancy
C. Conducting surgeries
D. Infectious Diseases
E. *Narcosis
179.
What is the condition characterized by temporary loss of consciousness, loss of all
species sensitivity, inhibition of reflex activity?
A. Swoon
B. *General anesthesia
C. Infiltration anesthesia
D. Conduction anesthesia
E. Central pain
180.
The first stage of anesthesia is called:
A. Awakening
B. Surgical
C. *Analgesia
D. Excitement
E. Sedation
181.
The second stage of anesthesia is called:
A. Analgesia
B. *Excitation
C. Surgical
D. Appeasement
E. Awakening
182.
The third stage of anesthesia is called:
A. *Surgical
B. Sedation
C. Awakening
D. Excitement
E. Analgesia
183.
The fourth stage of anesthesia is called:
A. *Wake-up calls
B. Sedation
C. Surgical
D. Analgesia
E. Excitation
184.
Step of narcosis analgesia is:
A. 5 stage anesthesia
B. Phase 4 anesthesia
C. Stage 2 anesthesia
D. *Stage 1 anesthesia
E. Stage 3 anesthesia
185.
Step of narcosis emotion - is:
A. *Stage 2 anesthesia
B. 5 stage anesthesia
C. Stage 1 anesthesia
D. Stage 3 anesthesia
E. Stage 4 anesthesia
186.
Step of narcosis surgical is:
A. Stage 1 anesthesia
B. *Stage 3 anesthesia
C. Stage 2 anesthesia
D. Stage 4 anesthesia
E. 5 stage anesthesia
187.
Step of narcosis awakening is:
A. Stage 2 anesthesia
B. Stage 3 anesthesia
C. *4 stage of anesthesia
D. Stage 1 anesthesia
E. 6 stage of anesthesia
188.
Agonal stage of anesthesia - is:
A. Stage 1 anesthesia
B. Stage 3 anesthesia
C. Stage 5 of anesthesia
D. Stage 2 anesthesia
E. *4 stage of anesthesia
189.
How many levels is in the third stage of anesthesia?
A. 6
B. 1
C. *4
D. 2
E. 5
190.
Mask anesthesia relates to:
A. Noningalation
B. Conduction anesthesia
C. Infiltration anesthesia
D. Central pain
E. *Inhalation
191.
Which drug is administered at premedication, which weakens the heart vagus reaction,
blocking the innervation of striated muscles of the larynx and prevents laryngospasm?
A. Analginum
B. Dimedrol
C. *Atropine
D. Loratydyn
E. Promedolum
192.
For neuroleptanalgesia is used:
A. Propanidid
B. Thiopental sodium
C. Hexanal
D. *Talamonal
E. Ketolong
193.
Which of the following drugs is used to ataralgesia?
A. *Tramadol
B. Hexanal
C. Thiopental sodium
D. Propanidid
E. Talamonal
194.
Ketolong is used for:
A. Inhalation anesthesia
B. Neuroleptanalgesia
C. Infiltration anesthesia
D. *Ataralgesia
E. Central analgesic
195.
Thiopental sodium is used for:
A. *Noningalation anesthesia
B. Ataralgesia
C. Neuroleptanalgesia
D. Central pain
E. Application of anesthesia
196.
Ftorotan is used for:
A. Application anesthesia
B. Conduction anesthesia
C. *Inhalation anesthesia
D. Noningalation anesthesia
E. Ataralgesia
197.
Nitrous oxide is used for:
A. Neuroleptanalgesia
B. Noningalation anesthesia
C. Ataralgesia
D. *Inhalation anesthesia
E. Infiltration anesthesia
198.
Hexanal is used for:
A. Applique anesthesia
B. Neuroleptanalgesia
C. Ataralgesia
D. *Noningalation anesthesia
E. Inhalation anesthesia
199.
Propanidid is used for:
A. *Noningalation anesthesia
B. Ataralgesia
C. Neuroleptanalgesia
D. Inhalation anesthesia
E. Applique anesthesia
200.
Ketamine hydrochloride is used for:
A. Inhalation anesthesia
B. Ataralgesia
C. Neuroleptanalgesia
D. *Noningalation anesthesia
E. Applique anesthesia
201.
Etomidat is used for:
A. *Noningalation anesthesia
B. Neuroleptanalgesia
C. Ataralgesia
D. Applique anesthesia
E. Inhalation anesthesia
202.
Diprofol used for:
A. *Noningalation anesthesia
B. Central pain
C. Conduction anesthesia
D. Infiltration anesthesia
E. Ataralgesia
203.
Midazolam is used for:
A. Neuroleptanalgesia
B. Central pain
C. Application of anesthesia
D. Conduction anesthesia
E. *Noningalation anesthesia
204.
Sibazon is used for:
A. Neuroleptanalgesia
B. *Ataralgesia
C. Applique anesthesia
D. Conduction anesthesia
E. Noningalation anesthesia
205.
Polarization mixture activates ion transport:
A. *Sodium and potassium
B. Calcium
C. Sodium
D. Potassium
E. Calcium fluoride
206.
Multicomponent balanced anesthesia based on the use benzodiazepamiv that exhibit
tranquilizing effect in combination with analgesics, relaxants to enhance adaptation
homeostatic mechanisms in the body:
A. Neuroleptanalgesia
B. *Ataralheziya
C. Inhalation anesthesia
D. Noningalation anesthesia
E. Infiltration anesthesia
207.
In the dental polyclinic appealed the patient. After physical examination oral surgeon
clinic were diagnosed abscess of the right submandibular area. What should be the follow
doctor's tactics?
A. Conduct needle removal purulent exudates
B. Approve medication and physiotherapy
C. Approve medication with dynamic observation
D. Conduct section phlegmon in the clinic
E. *Quickly send the patient to a specialized department
208.
Which of pathological processes requires atypical tooth extraction?
A. *Tooth retention
B. Hipertsementosis
C. Dystopia tooth
D. Granulating periodontitis
E. Supernumerary
209.
What is the best method of anesthesia during surgery in pericoronarotomy when there
is a difficult mouth opening in the patient?
A. Infiltration anesthesia
B. General anesthesia
C. Stem anesthesia
D. Application anesthesia
E. *Conductive anesthesia by Bershe –Dubov
210.
What matter of these should be used to suppress fear and internal stress in the patient
before visiting the dentist?
A. *Diazepam
B. The extract of valerian
C. Droperidol
D. Aminazin
E. Sodium bromide
211.
Nerve impulses travel in myelinated nerves by a process called what?
A. Domino effect
B. *Saltatory conducation
C. Relative refractory
D. Nodes of Ranvier
E. No correct answer
212.
Which portion of the nerve do local anesthetics work on?
A. Neuron
B. Dendrites
C. *Nerve membrane
D. Myelinated sheath
E. Schwann cells
213.
What is one important way that local anesthetic drugs differ from all other drugs used
in dentistry?
A. High potential of overdose
B. Route of administration
C. Rate of uptake into bloodstream
D. *Action ceased when absorbed into bloodstream
E. Blood levels must be sufficient to exert effect
214.
When procaine undergoes metabolic breakdown, the major metabolic product
(metabolite) is what?
A. Pseudocholinesterase
B. Chloroprocaine
C. PAMA
D. Succinylcholine
E. *Para-aminobenzoic acid
215.
Biotransformation of amides takes place where?
A. *Liver
B. Kidneys
C. Blood plasma
D. Spleen
E. Bloodstream
216.
The concentration of epinephrine that is optimal for hemostasis is what?
A. 1:5000
B. *1:50,000
C. 1:150,000
D. 1:100,000
E. 1:200,000
217.
All of the following are reasons to include a vasoconstrictor, EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Lower blood flow to injection site
B. *Increase anesthetic blood levels
C. Increase duration of local anesthetic
D. Lower anesthetic toxicity
E. Improve field of vision for treatment
218.
When it is necessary to administer more than one anesthetic drug, a safe total dose
should be determined by not exceeding what?
A. *The lower of the two maximum doses for the individual agents
B. The maximum dose of each drug being administered
C. 25% of the maximum dose of each drug being administered
D. 35% of the maximum dose of each drug being administered
E. Dental work being done in many more than on quadrant
219.
One of the many proprietary names for lidocaine is what?
A. *Xylocaine HCL
B. 3% Polocaine
C. Sandonest HCL
D. Mepivicaine
E. Candicaine HCL
220.
A healthy patient weighing 155 lbs has been given 2 cartridges of 2% lidocaine with
epinephrine 1:100,000. How many MORE cartridges of 3% Arestocaine can they have?
A. 4.0
B. *4.2
C. 4.4
D. 4.6
E. None
221.
All of the following are ways of caring for a syringe EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
A. Place in an ultrasonic bath
B. Dismantle and lubricate every 5 uses
C. Sharpen or replace harpoon as needed
D. Rinse syringe of saliva and foreign matter
E. *Clean with an ultrasonic instrument
222.
In the dental office, the MOST important consideration when selecting a syringe type
is the ability of the syringe to:
A. Deliver anesthetic solution to a patient
B. *Aspirate
C. Accept a 30 guage needle
D. Not frighten patients
E. Be cost effective
223.
In local anesthetic dissociation, tissues with a low pH would have what effect on base
(RN) and cations (RNH+) in the solution?
A. *A lower protion of RN and ahigher portion of RNH+
B. A loswer protion of RNH+ and a higher portion of RN
C. Rapid onset of local anesthetic
D. Increase duration of local anesthetic
E. Decrease potency of local anesthetic
224.
After properly loading the cartridge into the syringe, a few drops of local anesthetic
should be expelled. Why?
A. The ensure proper placement of the harpoon
B. *To ensure free flow of the solution
C. The ensure the correct anesthetic has been used
D. To ensure the needle has not been barbed
E. To ensure the ability to aspirate
225.
The major factor influencing the ability to aspirate is what?
A. *Gauge of the needle
B. Size of clinician's hands
C. Site of injection
D. Size of thumb ring
E. Harpoon being sterile
226.
All of the following methods will REDUCE the chance of needle breakage, EXCEPT
one - which one is the exception?
A. Establishing a firm hand rest
B. Using a larger gauge needle
C. *Burying the needle to the hub
D. Minimizing the need for redirection in tissue
E. Not beding the needle excessively
227.
The antioxidant used to preserve epinephring in a local anesthetic solution is:
A. *Sodium bisulfate
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Sodium chloride
D. Sodium pentathol
E. Sodium hydrochloride
228.
A small bubble of approximately 1 to 2 mm diameter will frequently be found in the
local anesthetic cartridge. These bubbles are caused by?
A. The anesthetic solution being frozen
B. The cartridge was stored in a chemical disinfectant
C. *Nitrogen gas being pumped in during manufacturing
D. Oxygen being trapped in the cartridge
E. Shaking the cartridge vigorously
229.
Distilled water is added to the cartridge for what purpose?
A. To make the solution isotonic with the tissues of the body
B. To increase the safely and the duration of the anesthetic
C. To prevent the biodegradation of the vasopressor
D. *To provide the volume of the solution
E. To prevent the propagation of nerve impulses
230.
Topical antiseptic does which of the following?
A. Numbs 2-3 mm of tissue prior to injection
B. Makes patient more comfortable during initial penetration
C. *Lessens the chance of inflammation or infection
D. Allows the clinician to practice their site of penetration
E. Reduces the risk of a local anesthetic overdose
231.
What is the MOST important reaseon hemostats/cotton roll pliers are part of the
armamentarium?
A. They are used to remove the Dentipatch
B. They are used to place a cotton roll on the needle
C. *They are used for the retrieval of a broken needle
D. They are used to place the plastic cap on the needle
E. They are used to unscrew the needle from the syringe
232.
At what time are professionals MOST at risk for a needle stick?
A. Disassembly of syringe
B. *Recapping
C. Assembling the syringe
D. Giving the injection
E. Unsheathing the needle
233.
All of the following are acceptable ways of recapping a needle EXCEPT:
A. *Carefully directing the cap over needle with fingers
B. Utilizing "card" or other holding device
C. Performing the one handed scoop technique
D. Implementing cotton roll pliers or a hemostat
E. Securing cap with fingers on vertical syringe
234.
Stacey, a 18 year old soccer player, arrives for extraction of teeth #4, 12, 20, and 28.
She is given 5 cartridges of 4% Articaine with epinephrine 1:100,000. Her mother calls 3
hours following the appointment stating that Stacey appears cyanotic and sluggish. Her nail
beds look dark blue and the blood in the extraction sites is chocolate brown. Waht is MOST
likely the condition presented?
A. Aytpical plasma cholinesterase
B. *Methemoglobinemia
C. Malignant hyperthermia
D. Local anesthetic overdose
E. Local anesthetic allergy
235.
A patient with epilepsy is scheduled for root planing and scaling with local anesthetic
today. What should the dental hygienist know about this condition?
A. Epilepsy is a realtive contraindication to ester type anesthtetics
B. *In low doses local anesthetic is an anti-convulsant
C. The patient should be pre-medicated prior to treatment
D. Epilepsy is an absolute contraindication to amide type anesthetics
E. Oxygen should be available to deliver in an emergency
236.
Of the following which is the MOST important prior to performing dental treatment
including giving local anesthesia?
A. Vital signs to determine the baseline in the event of an emergency
B. Visual inspection to determine the overall physical state of the patient
C. Dialogue history, to ensure the patient has answered truthfully
D. *Medical history questionnaire, thoroughly reviewed and updated
E. Treatment plan and patient consent forms completed
237.
Why do we implement "ideal patient positioning"?
A. *To reduce the risk of syncope
B. To speed the onset of anesthesia
C. To keep the syringe out of a patient's sight
D. To ensure clinician caan obtain a firm hand rest
E. To slow the absorption of anesthetic into bloodstream
238.
Which of the following is the best patient positioning while delivering local
anesthetic?
A. Knees above sea level
B. Heart and hands parallel to the floor
C. Head and heart parallel to the floor
D. Toes above the nose
E. *Hear and heart parallel, toes slightly elevated
239.
The main reason to inject slowly is to accomplish which of the following?
A. Make the injection as comfortable as possible
B. Not disturb the homeostasis of the tissues
C. *Lessen the chance of anesthetic overdose
D. Ensure you are not in a blood vessel
E. Lessen the chance of a hematoma developing
240.
The nerve that can be inadvertantly anesthetized during an IA injection is what?
A. *Facial nerve
B. Trigeminal nerve
C. Zygomatic nerve
D. Middle meningeal nerve
E. Buccal nerve
241.
Which of the following injection types will provide the longest duration?
A. *Nerve block
B. Field block
C. Supraperiosteal
D. Infiltration
E. Intrasseptal
242.
The maxillary division of the Trigeminal nerve travels anteriorly and downward to
exit the cranium through which foramen?
A. Ovale
B. Spinosum
C. Magnum
D. *Rotundum
E. Superior orbital
243.
Following the administration of a right PSA nerve block, the patient complains that
tooth #3 is still sensitive. What is most likely the cause of this?
A. Deposition was too low
B. Deposition was too anterior
C. *The mesiobuccal root of the 1st molar was not anesthetized with the PSA
D. Local anesthetic solution has probably expired
E. Insufficient amount of anesthetic deposited
244.
In order to have a proper duration of a PSA, how much total anesthetic will you give?
A. 0.6-0.9 ml
B. *0.9-1.8 ml
C. 1.5-1.8 ml
D. 0.9-1.2 ml
E. 0.45-0.9 ml
245.
The Vazirani-Akinosi mandibular technique is recommended for what type of
patients?
A. Children
B. Large boned
C. *Reduced opening
D. Enlarged tongue
E. Autistic
246.
Pressure syringes are primarily designed to deliver what type of injection?
A. Palatal
B. Intraosseous
C. Intraseptal
D. *Periodontal ligament
E. Incisive/mental
247.
If a right-handed clinician contacts bone too soon (one half penetration depth or less)
on the left IA nerve block, what should be done?
A. Withdraw and select a penetration site more posterior
B. Immediately redirect needle/syringe more laterally
C. *Withdraw slightly, redirect needle/syringe more medially
D. Withdraw and select a penetration site more medially
E. Withdraw slightly, redirect needle/syringe more laterally
248.
What is the reccomended amount of anesthetic deposited for the Gow-Gates injection
technique?
A. 1.5 ml
B. *1.8 ml
C. 1.2 ml
D. 1.3 ml
E. 1.0 ml
249.
What type of injection is contraindicated in primary teeth?
A. Intraosseous
B. Infraorbital
C. *Periodontal ligament
D. Posterior superior alveolar
E. Inferior alveolar
250.
Applying topical for longer than indicated can result in sloughing of the tissues - this
is officially called what?
A. *Epithelial desquamation
B. Sterile abscess
C. Cheek rot
D. White lacy striations
E. Epithelial dysplasia
251.
Persistent paresthesia following a local anesthetic injection
A. Is always preventable
B. Is often caused by a needle penetrating the cheek
C. Is always reversible
D. Is desirable
E. *Is the most common on the tip/side of the tongue
252.
Trismus is best defined as what?
A. A low grade infection
B. A holiday in December
C. Anesthesia that doesn't "wear off"
D. *Trauma to muscles and/or blood vessels
E. A flooding or pooling of blood
253.
An epinephrine overdose reaction
A. Usually requires formal management
B. Requires placing the patient in a supine position
C. *May manifest as anxiety or restlessness
D. Minimally affects blood pressure and heart rate
E. Indicates an epinephrine allergy
254.
A patient suffering from local anesthetic overdose induced seizures should be given
what?
A. Oxygen only
B. Glucose
C. *Oxygen and diazepam
D. Oxygen and epinephrine
E. Oxygen and diphenhydramine
255.
After administering topical Benzocaine 20% and 3% Mepivicaine with epinephrine
1:100,000, the patient complians of intense itching of the face and is feeling a tightening in
the throat. What is most likely the cause of this reaction?
A. The patient is experiencing psychogenic anxiety
B. The anesthetic was injected too rapidly
C. The patient is having a reaction to the epinephrine
D. *The patient is allergic to the Benzocaine
E. The patient is having an idiosyncratic reaction
256.
All of the following are acceptable alternatives for an anesthetic-allergic patient
except one, which is the exception?
A. Hypnosis
B. Electronic dental anesthesia
C. *Use limited amounts of esters
D. Use general anesthesia
E. Use limited amounts of sterile Benadryl
257.
All of the following patients represent a potential for a local anesthetic overdose
except one, which is the exception?
A. Pregnant women
B. Patients with hepatitis
C. *A marathon runner
D. Highly anxious patients
E. A sweet little child
258.
If a patient has an allergy to esters, which of the following topical anesthetics should
not be used?
A. Lidocaine
B. Denti-patch
C. *Benzocaine
D. Pressure
E. Betadine
259.
You administer 2% lidocaine with epinephrine 1:50,000 into the palate of your patient.
Three days later, they call complaining of a large sore on the roof of their mouth. What is the
sore MOST likely to be?
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Aphthous ulcer
C. Epithelial desquamation
D. *Sterile abscess
E. Necrotizing sialiometaplasia
260.
Your patient is a 190 lb man. He was scheduled with the dentist prior to seeing you
today. The dentist used 3 cartridges of 4% Articaine withe epinephrine 1:100,000. He is
becoming sensitive during root planing and scaling. How many additional cartridges of 2%
lidocaine with epinephrine 1:100,000 can he have?
A. *2.3
B. 4.5
C. 7.3
D. 3.8
E. 1.9
261.
The complex treatment of phlegmon of the floor of the mouth include:
A. Radiation
B. Sedative
C. Manual
D. Hypotensive
E. *Antibacterial
262.
The complex treatment of phlegmon of the floor of the mouth include:
A. Radiation
B. Sedative
C. Manual
D. Hypotensive
E. *Detoxication
263.
The complex treatment of phlegmon of the floor of the mouth include:
A. Radiation
B. Sedative
C. Manual
D. Hypotensive
E. *Desensitizing
264.
The complex treatment of phlegmon of the floor of the mouth include:
A. Cryotherapy
B. Chemotherapy
C. *Physiotherapy
D. Radiology
E. Electrocoagulation
265.
Complications of phlegmon of the floor of the mouth are:
A. *Mediastinitis
B. Meningoencephalitis
C. Brain abscess
D. Cicatricial underside of the upper lip
E. Thrombosis of venous sinuses of the brain
266.
When unfavorable course phlegmon of the floor of the mouth infection spreads:
A. *In mediastinum
B. In the subdural space
C. In the parotid salivary gland
D. In the pterygopalatine venous plexus
E. In the venous sinuses of the brain
267.
Sharp dehydration phlegmon at the floor of the mouth helps:
A. Electrolyte imbalance
B. Changes in the blood coagulation system
C. Increased dieresis
D. Renal failure
E. *Inability fluid intake because of the dramatic swelling and pain in the tongue and floor of
the mouth
268.
On the day of treatment with phlegmon of the floor of the mouth should:
A. *Expand septic foci
B. Start acupuncture
C. Make novocaine blockade
D. Approve physiotherapy
E. Enter intramuscular respiratory analeptics
269.
Patient R., 58 years old, hospitalized in the maxillofacial department with a diagnosis
of odontogenic abscess of the floor of the mouth. In a matter of urgency an operation opening phlegmon. Select the optimal amount of complex drug therapy.
A. Antibacterial, detoxification therapy, symptomatic treatment.
B. Antibacterial, detoxification, restorative therapy, vitamin therapy.
C. Detoxication therapy, vitamin therapy, symptomatic treatment.
D. Antibacterial, restorative therapy, vitamin therapy, symptomatic treatment.
E. *Antibacterial, detoxification, restorative therapy, vitamin therapy, symptomatic treatment.
270.
Functional impairment in Ludwig's angina are
A. In ptosis
B. In hyposalivation
C. In the lingual nerve paresis
D. *Difficulty swallowing and breathing
E. In paresis of the third branch of the trigeminal nerve
271.
In the complex therapy of Ludwig's angina included
A. Radiotherapy
B. Sedative Therapy
C. Manual therapy
D. Antihypertensive therapy
E. *Detoxication therapy
272.
In the complex therapy of Ludwig's angina included
A. Radiotherapy
B. Sedative Therapy
C. Manual therapy
D. Antihypertensive therapy
E. *Antibiotic Therapy
273.
The complex includes the treatment of Ludwig's angina:
A. *HBO therapy
B. Cryotherapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Radiology
E. Electrocoagulation
274.
In an unfavorable course of Ludwig's angina early complication is
A. *Mediastenitis
B. Xerostomia
C. Salivary fistula
D. Scar contracture
E. Paralysis of the facial nerve
275.
In an unfavorable course of Ludwig's angina early local complication is:
A. Xerostomia
B. Salivary fistula
C. Cicatricial contracture
D. Paralysis of the facial nerve
E. *Stenosis of the upper respiratory tract
276.
In an unfavorable course of angina Ludwig somatic complication is
A. *Sepsis
B. Xerostomia
C. Salivary fistula
D. Scar contracture
E. Paralysis of the facial nerve
277.
On the day of treatment in Ludwig's angina necessary
A. *Expand septic foci
B. Start acupuncture
C. Make anesthetic blockade
D. Approve physiotherapy
E. Enter intramuscular respiratory analeptics
278.
In an unfavorable course of Ludwig's angina infection spreads
A. *In the mediastinum
B. In the parotid salivary gland
C. In the venous sinuses of the brain
D. In the wing- palatine venous plexus
E. In the temporal area
279.
The complex treatment of abscess of the peripharyngeal space included:
A. Radiotherapy
B. Sedative Therapy
C. Manual therapy
D. Antihypertensive therapy
E. *Antibiotic Therapy
280.
The complex treatment of abscess of the peripharyngeal space included:
A. Radiotherapy
B. Sedative Therapy
C. Manual therapy
D. Antihypertensive therapy
E. *Detoxication therapy
281.
The complex treatment of abscess of the peripharyngeal space included
A. *HBO therapy
B. Cryotherapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Radiology
E. Electrocoagulation
282.
The complex treatment of abscess of the peripharyngeal space included
A. Cryotherapy
B. Chemotherapy
C. *Physiotherapy
D. Radiology
E. Electrocoagulation
283.
Early local complications abscess of the peripharyngeal space is
A. Salivary fistula
B. Brain abscess
C. Cicatricial eversion of the lower lip
D. *Stenosis of the upper respiratory tract
E. Thrombosis of the sinuses of brain
284.
When unfavorable course of the peripharyngeal space abscess infection spreads
A. In the buccal area
B. In the wing- palate hole
C. *In the posterior mediastinum
D. In tissue floor of the mouth
E. In the parotid salivary gland
285.
When unfavorable course of the peripharyngeal space abscess infection spreads
A. In the buccal region
B. In the wing- palate hole
C. In tissue floor of the mouth
D. In the parotid salivary gland
E. *In the wing- jaw space
286.
Patient B., 65 years old, was taken to the hospital maxillofacial surgery department in
serious condition with multiple phlegmon cellular spaces in the area of the left mandible. The
doctor decided to hold a patient preoperative medical therapy. Is it necessary preoperative
medical therapy in acute inflammatory processes and, if necessary, then what?
A. No right answer.
B. There is no need.
C. The required antibiotics based on individual tolerability and given antibiogram, antiseptic
preparations.
D. *Required, subject to hemodynamic: substances that normalize blood pressure,
desintoxication therapy, antiseptic agents, diuretics.
E. Necessary, considering hemodynamic: substances that normalize blood pressure.
287.
Patient D., 50 years old was delivered to the clinic of maxillofacial surgery in serious
condition with multiple phlegmon cellular spaces in the area of the left mandible. The doctor
decided to hold a patient preoperative medical therapy. Is it necessary preoperative medical
therapy in acute inflammatory processes and, if necessary, then what?
A. No right answer.
B. There is no need.
C. The required antibiotics based on individual tolerability and given antibiogram, antiseptic
preparations.
D. *Required, subject to hemodynamic: substances that normalize blood pressure, des
intoxication therapy, antiseptic agents, diuretics.
E. Necessary, considering hemodynamic: substances that normalize blood pressure.
288.
Serious complications after abscesses of the lower parts of the face are:
A. Mumps
B. *Mediastenitis
C. Paresis of the facial nerve
D. Haematoma of the soft tissues
E. Thrombosis of the sinuses of brain
289.
For the generalization of infection required critical level of bacterial contamination:
A. 100 strains of bacteria in 1 g of tissue.
B. 1000 strains of microbes to 1 g of tissue.
C. 10,000 strains of microbes to 1 g of tissue.
D. *100,000 strains of bacteria in 1 g of tissue.
E. 1000000 strains of microbes to 1 g of tissue.
290.
Symptom Ravich- Shcherbo is characterised to:
A. Phlegmons of the floor of the mouth.
B. Pneumonia.
C. *Mediastenitis.
D. Sepsis.
E. Thrombosis of cavernous sinus.
291.
Symptom of Gerke is:
A. Emergence Pastosity in the area of the sternum.
B. Swelling and crepitus in the jugular notch.
C. Involvement in hollow areas sternal notch insufficiently.
D. *Increased retrosternal pain when lag head.
E. Increased retrosternal pain in displacement of neurovascular bundle of the neck up to the top
292.
Symptom Ivanov is:
A. Emergence Pastosity in the area of the sternum.
B. Swelling and crepitus in the jugular valves.
C. Involvement of jugular hollow area during inspiration.
D. Increased retrosternal pain when lag head.
E. *Increased retrosternal pain associated with displacement of the neurovascular bundle of the
neck up to the top
293.
Jugular symptom of Ravich- Shcherbo is:
A. Emergence Pastosity in the area of the sternum.
B. Swelling and crepitus in the jugular valves.
C. *The involvement of the jugular hollow area during inspiration.
D. Increased retrosternal pain when lag head.
E. Increased retrosternal pain in displacement neurovascular bundle of the neck up to the top
294.
In passive bias enhanced retrosternal tracheal pain, dyspnea and dysphagia. This
symptom is:
A. Popov.
B. Gerke.
C. Ivanov.
D. Ravich- Shcherbo.
E. *Rutenburg – Revutskyy
295.
Primary delayed suture is:
A. Seam applied to purulent wound during prosection purulent focus.
B. *The seam imposed on a purulent wound during surgical treatment (prosection suppurative
focus), but tightened after 24 - 72 hours at remitting of clinical signs of inflammation or weld
overlay 2 - 7 days after surgery (prosection abscess).
C. Seam overlay 8 - 10 days after surgery.
D. Seam overlay 8 - 14 days after surgery, after previous excision of granulation.
E. Seam overlay 8 - 14 days after surgery without prior excision of granulation.
296.
Early secondary suture is:
A. Seam overlay 2 - 7 days after surgery (prosection abscess).
B. Seam overlay 8 - 14 days after surgery, after previous excision of granulation.
C. *Seam overlay 8 - 14 days after surgery without prior excision of granulation.
D. Seam imposed on 15 - 30 days after surgery (prosection abscess).
E. Seam overlay 8 - 10 days after surgery.
297.
Late secondary suture is:
A. Seam imposed on 15 - 30 days after surgery (prosection abscess).
B. Seam overlay 8 - 14 days after surgery, after previous excision of granulation.
C. Seam overlay 8 - 14 days after surgery without prior excision of granulation.
D. *Seam imposed on 15 - 30 days after surgery (prosection abscess) after previous excision of
granulation, scarring and mobilize the wound edges
E. Seam overlay 8 - 10 days after surgery.
298.
The choice of location and direction of incision abscesses and phlegmon depends on:
A. From the general condition of the patient.
B. From the patient's age.
C. *From localization.
D. The state of immunity.
E. From the data of biochemical blood tests.
299.
Odontogenic sepsis pathogens most often:
A. Stafilococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Meningococcus
D. Pneumococci
E. *Anaerobes, stafilococcus
300.
Symptom Gerke characteristic for:
A. Phlegmons of the floor of the mouth.
B. Pneumonia.
C. *Mediastenitis.
D. Sepsis.
E. Thrombosis of cavernous sinus.
301.
In odontogenic phlegmon source of infection is:
A. *Causal tooth
B. Inflammatory lymph node
C. Traumatic factor
D. Myositis of m. maseter
E. Allergic reaction to the anesthetic
302.
Cellulitis of the floor of the mouth is characterized by the following features except:
A. *Hearing loss
B. Pale cyanotic skin tone
C. Puffiness face
D. Presence of infiltration in the submandibular area and submental
E. Dryness of the tongue
303.
Which inflammatory diseases of soft tissues of the face corresponding to this clinical
picture: puffiness of the face pale-cyanotic color of skin, both under mandibular and
submental sites available dense and blurred infiltrate sublingual ridges and fringed folds
swollen, forming of a "second" tongue?
A. Abscess of the hyoid area
B. Abscess of the tongue
C. Abscess of the jaw- tongue groove
D. Sublingual abscess roller
E. *Abscess of the floor of the mouth
304.
Patient K., 40 years old, appealed with complaints of pain in swallowing that irradiates
to the ear, fever up to 40°C, hoarseness, difficulty swallowing lumps. On examination of the
oral cavity: a bright asymmetry of the throat due to infiltration of the wall of the pharynx, the
palatine arches and left soft palate, tongue edema. What disease can be diagnosed in a
patient?
A. Unilateral sore throat
B. Ludwig's angina
C. Abscess of the pterygoid -mandibular space
D. No correct answer
E. *Peripharyngeal space abscess
305.
Early local complications in Zhansul Ludwig angina are:
A. *Stenosis of the upper airway
B. Sepsis
C. Thrombosis of venous sinuses of the brain
D. Paralysis of the facial nerve
E. Salivary fistula
306.
The patient was diagnosed phlegmon of the peripharyngeal space. What is the
treatment for this disease?
A. Surgery
B. Conservative
C. *Combinations
D. Does not require treatment
E. All the answers are correct
307.
Complications of Zhansul Ludwig angina are:
A. *Sepsis
B. Stenosis of the upper airway
C. Paralysis of the facial nerve
D. All answers are correct
E. Scar contracture
308.
In Zhansul Ludwig angina can affects cellular spaces
A. Parotid- masticatory area
B. Buccal area
C. During mandibular space
D. *Peripharyngeal space
E. Pharyngeal - maxillary space
309.
Synonymous with purulent- necrotic phlegmon floor of the mouth
A. Angina Dupiitren
B. *Zhansul Ludwig angina
C. Pirogov angina
D. Coker angina
E. Berger angina
310.
In what specialists should be treated the patients with a diagnosis of cavernous
hemangioma?
A. *Oncologist
B. Phthisiologists
C. Dermatovenerologist
D. Psychiatrist
E. Proctologist
311.
In what specialists should be treated the patients with a diagnosis of chylangioma?
A. *Oncologist
B. Phthisiologists
C. Dermatovenerologist
D. Psychiatrist
E. Proctologist
312.
In what specialists should be treated the patients with a diagnosis of neurofibromas?
A. *Oncologist
B. Phthisiologists
C. Dermatovenerologist
D. Psychiatrist
E. Proctologist
313.
The structure of the soft tissue hemangiomas are:
A. Capillary, flat, senile;
B. Branched, cluster, racemose;
C. *Capillary, branched, cavernous, mixed;
D. Capillary, branched, cystic;
E. Capillary, cystic, cavernous.
314.
Describe capillary hemangioma of soft tissue:
A. *In a flat, doughy swelling of the soft tissues of bright red or bluish color when clicked color
fades, painless on palpation;
B. In a multiple nodular protrusion blue- purple color, pulsing, tilted head increase in size,
painless on palpation, as a solitary tumor sites, soft, easily compressed, is flebolity, painless
on palpation.
C. In a solitary tumor sites, soft, easily compressed that is flebolity, painless on palpation.
D. In a single protrusion bluish color, painless on palpation.
E. In a solitary tumor nodules present flebolity, painful on palpation.
315.
Describe cavernous hemangioma of the soft tissues:
A. In a flat, soft tissue swelling pasty bright red or bluish color when clicked color fades,
painless on palpation;
B. As multiple nodular protrusion blue- purple color, pulsing, at an inclination of the head
increases in size, painless on palpation;
C. *As a solitary tumor sites, mild, such that easily compressed is flebolity, painless on
palpation.
D. In a single protrusion bluish color, painless on palpation.
E. In a solitary tumor nodules present flebolity, painful on palpation
316.
What is not used for the sclerosing treatment of hemangioma located in the deep soft
tissues:
A. 70 ° ethanol;
B. 20% solution of sodium chloride;
C. 65 % glucose;
D. *Liquid nitrogen;
E. Prednisolone.
317.
Chylangioma in structure is:
A. Capillary, flat, senile;
B. Branched, cluster, racemose;
C. Capillary, branched, cavernous, mixed;
D. Capillary, cystic, cavernous, light;
E. *Capillary, cystic, cavernous.
318.
In what period of life chylangioma most often intense increases in the size?
A. In the first months after birth;
B. *In the early years;
C. 3 to 7 years;
D. From 8 to 14 years;
E. Puberty
319.
Characteristic of chylangioma:
A. Has a thick capsule;
B. Has a thin capsule;
C. *Has no capsule.
D. Has a fibrous capsule
E. Has capsule, which varies in size.
320.
Borders of chylangioma:
A. *Has clear boundaries;
B. Has a relatively clear boundaries;
C. Has no clear boundaries.
D. Has no limits.
E. Has a shell.
321.
Define lymphedema:
A. Tissue swelling;
B. *Tissue swelling caused by lymphostasis;
C. Tissue swelling due to venous congestion.
D. Condition caused by increased lymph
E. Condition caused by venous congestion.
322.
How is called a vascular tumor that grows from the endothelial walls of the blood
vessels?
A. *Anhyoendotelioma;
B. Anhyopericytoma;
C. Hemangioma;
D. Hemanhiosarkoma.
E. Chylangioma
323.
How is called a vascular tumor that grows on the outer walls of the blood vessels?
A. Anhyoendotelioma;
B. *Anhyopericytoma;
C. Hemangioma;
D. Hemfanhiosarkoma.
E. Chylangioma
324.
Describe, neurofibromatosis - is:
A. Disease characterized by the presence of multiple neurofibromas;
B. *Disease characterized by the presence of multiple neurofibromas, nevrinom, hemangiomas
and lymphangitis;
C. Disease characterized by the presence of isolated neurofibromas, nevrinom.
D. Disease characterized by the presence of multiple nevrinom, hemodektom, hanhlionevrom.
E. Disease characterized by the presence of isolated neurofibromas.
325.
What is a neuroma?
A. Malignant tumor;
B. Benign tumor;
C. *Tumor-like neoplasm.
D. Inflammation process.
E. Precancerous condition.
326.
What artery do you need to press during surgery of removal of the upper lip
hemangioma?
A. *Labial
B. Facial
C. Upward palate
D. Descending palate
E. Buccal
327.
To benign tumors of vascular tissues include:
A. *Hemangioma; chylangioma;
B. Leiomyoma;
C. Neuromas;
D. Fibroids;
E. Fibroma, chondroma.
328.
Hemangiomas of the soft tissues are divided into:
A. Capillary, flat, senile;
B. Branched, cluster, racemose;
C. *Capillary, branched, cavernous, mixed;
D. Capillary, branched, cystic;
E. Capillary, cystic, cavernous.
329.
Give a description of capillary hemangioma of the soft tissues:
A. *In a flat, doughy swelling of the soft tissues of bright red or bluish color when clicked color
fades, painless on palpation
B. In a multiple nodular protrusion blue- purple color, pulsing, tilted head, increases in size,
painless on palpation, as a solitary tumor sites, soft, easily compressed, is flebolity.
C. In a solitary tumor sites, soft, easily compressed that is flebolity, painless on palpation.
D. In a single protrusion bluish color, painless on palpation.
E. In a solitary tumor nodules present flebolity, painful on palpation.
330.
Give a description of cavernosal soft tissue hemangiomas:
A. In a flat, doughy swelling of the soft tissues of bright red or bluish color when clicked color
fades, painless on palpation;
B. As multiple nodular protrusion blue- purple color, pulsing, at an inclination of the head
increases in size, painless on palpation;
C. *As a solitary tumor sites, mild, such that easily compressed is flebolity, painless on
palpation.
D. In as single protrusion bluish color, painless on palpation.
E. In as a solitary tumor nodules present flebolity, painful on palpation
331.
In which tissues are often observed hemangioma?
A. *Skin, mucosa, submucosa and soft tissues.
B. In the bone.
C. In the nervous tissue.
D. Connective tissue
E. All the answers are correct.
332.
Color of arterial hemangioma?
A. Cyanotic
B. Rose
C. *Scarlet
D. The pale pink
E. Crimson
333.
Color of venous hemangioma?
A. *Cyanotic
B. Rose
C. Scarlet
D. The pale pink
E. Crimson.
334.
During tilted the head and the physical voltage the size of the hemangioma:
A. Decreases
B. *Increases
C. Unchanged
D. Differently
E. Periodically increases and decreases.
335.
For what hemangiomas is it typical the pulse?
A. Venous
B. Arterial and venous
C. *Arterial
D. Mixed
E. Capillary
336.
What hemangioma in their appearance reminiscent of the "sponge"?
A. Mixed
B. *Capillary
C. Cavernous
D. Branch
E. All the answers are correct.
337.
With a cavity filled with blood composed hemangiomas:
A. Capillary.
B. *Cavernous
C. Branch
D. Mixed
E. All answers are correct
338.
In what hemangiomas can occur phlebitis?
A. Capillary
B. *Venous
C. Arterial
D. Arterial and venous
E. All are correct
339.
Hemangioma is:
A. *Tumor
B. Organ
C. Vessel
D. Gland
E. All are correct
340.
From what does hemangioma develop?
A. Bone
B. Connective tissue
C. Muscle
D. Epithelium
E. *Blood vessels
341.
At what age is most often observed hemangioma?
A. *0-3 years
B. 10-20 years
C. 20-30 years
D. 30-40 years
E. 50-60 years
342.
In what tissues is it the most rarely possible to observe hemangioma?
A. Epidermis
B. Soft tissues
C. Mucosa
D. Connective tissue
E. *Bone
343.
Chylangioma is A. *Tumor
B. Organ
C. Vessel
D. Gland
E. All are correct
344.
When a puncture of which tumor do we get the light fluid, sometimes muddy with
blood?
A. Hygroma.
B. Lipoma
C. *Chylangioma
D. Fibroma.
E. Neurofibromas
345.
From which tissue does develop the neurofibromas?
A. Bone
B. Connective tissue
C. Muscle
D. Epithelium
E. *Nervous tissue
346.
Synonym of the ossifying fibroma of the jaw include:
A. Osteoma;
B. Fibroma;
C. *Fibroosteoma;
D. Compact osteoma;
E. Cancellous osteoma;
347.
Clinically ossifying fibroma of the jaw occurs as:
A. Osteoma;
B. Fibroma;
C. *Fibrous osteodysplasia;
D. Osteosarcoma;
E. Chondrosarcoma;
348.
Radiological ossifying fibroma resembles:
A. *Residual cyst;
B. Spines;
C. Osteosarcoma;
D. Hondrosarcoma;
E. Exostosis.
349.
What is the difference between the X-ray of the ossifying fibroma and fibrous osteo dysplasia? When ossified fibroma there are:
A. *Focal lesions of the jaw with a clearly defined capsule;
B. There are multiple jaw lesions with distinct borders;
C. There spicules - bone performances;
D. Must have a sequestration of at least 1 cm;
E. No thinning of bone tissue, but only its seal.
350.
Osteodysplasia - is:
A. *The defect of bone tissue caused by stopping, slowing or bone changes at a certain stage of
embryonic development or postnatal;
B. Pathological process characterized functional and structural changes of individual sections of
the skeleton caused by violation of trophic bone due to insufficient income or nutrient
absorption;
C. Abnormalities of bones.
D. Metabolic minerals
E. Malabsorption of vitamin D and calcium
351.
What is osteodystrophy:
A. Malformation of bone tissue caused by stopping, slowing or perversion of bone formation at
a certain stage of embryonic or postnatal development;
B. *The pathological process characterized functional and structural changes of individual
sections of the skeleton caused by violation of trophic bone vnaslidoknedostatnosti receipt or
nutrient absorption;
C. Abnormalities of bones.
D. Malabsorption of vitamin D and calcium
E. Violation of metabolism minerals
352.
By osteodysplasia not include:
A. Fibrous osteodysplasia;
B. Deforming ostoz (Paget's disease);
C. Heruvizm;
D. Albright 's disease;
E. *Acromegaly;
353.
Heruvizm - is:
A. Monoossal fibrous osteodysplasia;
B. *Poliossal fibrous osteodysplasia.
C. Osteodystrophy
D. Osteoporosis
E. Osteohonroz
354.
Albright 's disease - is:
A. Monoossal fibrous osteodysplasia;
B. *Poliossal fibrous osteodysplasia.
C. Osteoporosis
D. Osteohonroz
E. Monoossal fibrous osteodystrophy
355.
Does soft tissues involved in the pathological process in fibrous osteodysplasia?
A. *Does not involved;
B. Involved;
C. Sometimes.
D. Connective tissue is involved only
E. Drawn only epithelial tissue
356.
Deforming ostoz (Paget's disease) is:
A. *The disease is characterized by the deformation of the femoral and tibial bones of the spine
with severe hyperostosis, thickening and curvature of the bone, and there is a thickening of
the zygomatic bone and chin retraction of the nose;
B. Fibrous dysplasia of the mandible in the corners, which is hereditary;
C. The disease, characterized by fibrotic foci osteodysplasia and hyperpigmentation of the skin,
occurring against the backdrop of early puberty.
D. Fibrous dysplasia of the mandible in the articular processes, which is hereditary
E. The disease is characterized by bone deformities of the foot and hand
357.
Cherubism - is:
A. The disease is characterized by the deformation of the femoral and tibial bones of the spine
with severe hyperostosis, bone thickening and distorted, and there is a thickening of the
zygomatic bone and chin retraction of the nose;
B. * Fibrous dysplasia of the mandible in the corners, which is hereditary;
C. The disease, characterized by fibrotic foci osteodysplasia and hyperpigmentation of the skin,
occurring against the backdrop of early puberty.
D. The disease is characterized by bone deformities of the foot and hand
E. Fibrous dysplasia of the mandible in the articular processes, which is hereditary
358.
Albright 's disease - is:
A. The disease is characterized by the deformation of the femoral and tibial bones of the spine
with severe hyperostosis, bone thickening and distorted, and there is a thickening of the
zygomatic bone and chin retraction of the nose;
B. Fibrous dysplasia of the mandible in the corners, which is hereditary;
C. *The disease, characterized by fibrotic cells osteodysplasia and hyperpigmentation of the
skin, occurring against the backdrop of early puberty.
D. Fibrous dysplasia of the mandible in the articular processes, which is hereditary
E. The disease is characterized by bone deformities of the foot and hand
359.
When there is cherubism, the face deformation of the age:
A. Do not change, ie is expressed;
B. Increases;
C. *Decreases.
D. Progressing
E. There is no correct answer
360.
Dysostosis - is:
A. Deformity of bone tissue caused by stopping, slowing or bone changes at a certain stage of
embryonic or postnatal development;
B. A pathological process characterized functional and structural changes of individual sections
of the skeleton caused by violation of trophic bone due to insufficient income or nutrient
absorption;
C. *Abnormalities of bones.
D. Disorders of carbohydrate metabolism
E. Violation of protein metabolism
361.
Maxillo- facial dysostosis syndrome (Franchesketti - Tsvalena) is characterized by:
A. *Hypoplasia of the mandible and zygomatic bones in violation of tooth deformity of ears and
macrostomia ("fish" or "bird" face);
B. Hypoplasia of the maxilla and zygomatic arches, combined with progeny and shortening of
the anterior skull base;
C. The combination of skull bones hypoplasia with premature closure of cranial sutures, orbital
hypertelorism, hypoplasia of the middle zone of the face, nasal septum deformity,
malocclusion and palate deformities.
D. Increasing the size of the mandible
E. Increasing the size of the upper and lower jaw and shortening of the anterior skull base.
362.
Oral dysostosis syndrome (Peters - Hevelsa) is characterized by:
A. Hypoplasia of the mandible and zygomatic bones in violation of tooth deformity of ears and
macrostomia ("fish" or "bird" face);
B. *Hypoplasia of the maxilla and zygomatic arches, combined with progeny and shortening of
the anterior skull base;
C. The combination of skull bones hypoplasia with premature closure of cranial sutures, orbital
hypertelorism, hypoplasia of the middle zone of the face, nasal septum deformity,
malocclusion and palate deformities.
D. Increasing the size of the upper and lower jaw and shortening of the anterior skull base;
E. Increasing the size of the mandible
363.
Craniofacial dysostosis syndrome (Kruzona) is characterized by:
A. Hypoplasia of the mandible and zygomatic bones in violation of tooth deformity of ears and
macrostomia ("fish" or "bird" face);
B. Hypoplasia of the maxilla and zygomatic arches, combined with progeny and shortening of
the anterior skull base;
C. *The combination of skull bones hypoplasia with premature closure of cranial sutures, orbital
hypertelorism, hypoplasia of the middle zone of the face, nasal septum deformity,
malocclusion and palate deformities.
D. Increasing the size of the mandible
E. Increasing the size of the upper and lower jaw and shortening of the anterior skull base
364.
Acromegaly - a disease that belongs to which group osteodystrophy?
A. Toxic;
B. Ceylon;
C. *Endocrine;
D. Angioneurotrophic.
E. Allergic
365.
What osteodystrophy may occur in thyrotoxicosis?
A. Toxic;
B. Alimentary;
C. *Endocrine;
D. Angioneurotrophic.
E. Allergic
366.
What osteodystrophy may occur in hypothyroidism?
A. Toxic;
B. Alimentary;
C. *Endocrine;
D. Angioneurotrophic.
E. Allergic
367.
When using what drugs may arise osteodystrophy?
A. Antibiotics;
B. Sulfonamides;
C. *Local anesthetics;
D. Corticosteroids;
E. Adjuvants.
368.
Parathyroid osteodystrophy - a osteodystrophy:
A. Toxic;
B. Alimentary;
C. *Endocrine;
D. Angioneurotrophic.
E. Allergic
369.
In the maxillofacial department asked mother of a 3 months aged girl complaining of
the presence of the child's tumor of the upper lip and left cheek, deformation fabrics and
cyanosis of the skin in this area. Tumor increases. Objective: asymmetry in the face by a
tumor of the left cheek and upper lip, the skin of which has a cyanotic color. Symptom of
content is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Cherubism
B. Cyst of the soft tissues
C. Fibroma
D. Neurofibromatosis
E. *Hemangioma
370.
For which a vascular tumor is the characteristic of systolic murmur:
A. Cavernous chylangioma
B. Capillary hemangioma
C. Cavernous hemangioma
D. Normal chylangioma
E. *Pampiniform (branch) hemangioma
371.
In the patient 50 years old on the lower lip there is circular shape to 1.0 cm in diameter
tumor with clear boundaries. The mucous membrane of the formation of a cyanotic hue.
During palpation painless tumor, soft texture, slightly above the level of the mucous
membrane of the lower lip. Regional lymph nodes were not palpable. Click diagnosis:
A. Papilloma lower lip
B. *Retention cyst of the lower lip
C. Hemangioma of the lower lip
D. Fibroma of the lower lip
E. Chylangioma lower lip.
372.
The patient appealed with complaints of swelling in the region of the mandible on the
right side. OBJECTIVE: swelling in the region of 47, 48 teeth, mucous membrane over them
do not change. On radiographs - destruction of bone in the form of multiple foci dilution with
clear contours in the region of 47, 48 teeth, which extend to the corner of the jaw. Click
diagnosis:
A. Hemangioma jaw
B. Eosinophilic granuloma of the jaw
C. Follicular cyst of jaw
D. *Ameloblastoma of the jaw
E. Fibrous osteodystrophy of the jaw.
373.
Patient 35 years old appealed with complaints about the presence of tumor in the
region of the tip of the tongue, she injures the teeth and periodically increases and decreases.
Neoplasms is round shape with a diameter of 0.5 cm, with clear boundaries, a broad-based,
the color is different from the color of the mucous membrane of the tongue. Click diagnosis:
A. Lipoma of the tongue
B. Abscess of the tongue
C. *Papilloma of the tongue
D. Hemanhiofibroma of the tongue
E. Fibroma of the tongue.
374.
Mother of a child 4 months aged complaining about red spots on her face, which was a
month ago, is increasing. On examination, the left infraorbital area red spot on the skin is not
bulging. There is a symptom of devastation. Your preliminary diagnosis:
A. Warty nevus
B. Cavernous hemangioma
C. *Vascular nevus
D. Pigmented nevus
E. Capillary hemangioma.
375.
In a child 3 years old a week after the injury appeared the tumor neoplasm on the oral
mucosa of the lower lip with rounded form, painless, soft, bluish color, with a diameter of 8
mm. Click the diagnosis:
A. *Retention cysts of the small salivary gland
B. Hemangioma of the lower lip
C. Chylangioma of the lower lip
D. Small adenoma of the salivary gland
E. Fibroma of the lower lip.
376.
In the 7 years old boy after an injury that he received 6 months ago, on the mucosa of
the lower lip appeared the formation with rounded form, 1 cm in diameter, with clear
boundaries. The color of the mucous membrane of the formation - blue. During palpation of
the formation of soft consistency and painless. Regional lymph nodes were not enlarged.
Clinical blood and urine tests within age norms. What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Myxoma of the lower lip
B. Papilloma lower lip
C. Fibroma of the lower lip
D. *Retention cysts of small salivary gland
E. Hemangioma of the lower lip
377.
To the dental surgeon asked parents of 3 years old boy, complaining of the presence of
tumor in the brow area. Objective: the right eyebrow area revealed tumor size 2x3 cm softelastic texture, rounded shape. The skin over the tumor is not changed and is not soldered to
it. During puncture revealed mushy mass of white. Click the diagnosis:
A. Bifida
B. *Dermoid cyst of the right eyebrow area
C. Chylangioma of the right brow area
D. Atheroma of the right brow area
E. Hemangioma of the right eyebrow area.
378.
Parents of children 1,5 years old turned to the clinic complaining of increasing a child's
tongue, breach meals. These disorders are born. OBJECTIVE: general condition was normal
girls. Tongue enlarged (macroglossia). Mucosa - grainy cystiform grow. Tongue thick,
smooth during palpation. What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Hemangioma of the tongue
B. *Chylangioma tongue
C. Fibroma of the tongue
D. Cyst tongue
E. Cancer of the tongue
379.
The patient was a girl aged 9 years complaining about the presence of tumor formation
in the area of the mucous membrane of the left cheek. OBJECTIVE: cheek mucosa of normal
color. In the distal existing tumor rounded, slightly elongated, pedunculated, soft texture,
elastic. Dimensions - 0,5 x0, 7 cm your preliminary diagnosis:
A. Hemangioma
B. Lipoma
C. *Papilloma
D. Pleomorfna adenoma
E. Fibroma
380.
In the maxillofacial department asked mother of a girl aged 3 months with complaints
about the presence of the child's tumor of the upper lip and left cheek, deformation fabrics
and cyanosis of the skin in this area. Tumor increases. OBJECTIVE: asymmetry in the face
by a tumor of the left cheek and upper lip, the skin of which has a cyanotic color. Symptom
of the content is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Cherubism
B. Cyst soft tissue
C. Fibroma
D. Neurofibromatosis
E. *Hemangioma
381.
Mother turned to the clinic with a child 3 years old of complaints about the presence of
pigmented spots on the left cheek, which increased. Objective: the skin is coffee shade,
densely covered with dark hair color, tumor boundaries are clear. Set the correct diagnosis.
A. Melanoma of the left buccal area
B. Hemangioma of the left buccal area
C. *Pigmented nevus of the left buccal area
D. Haematoma of the left buccal area
E. Atheroma of the left buccal area
382.
Benign tumor that occurs on the basis of congenital malformations of blood vessels is:
A. *Hemangioma
B. Lipoma
C. Papilloma
D. Nevus
E. Fibroma
383.
In the boy aged 2 months is determined the swelling of the tissues in the upper third
part of the neck and the left submandibular triangle that exists from birth and slowly
increasing. The consistency is soft, painless palpation. The boundaries are fuzzy, bumpy
surface. Formation slightly shifted relative to the surrounding tissues. The skin of the
formation is not cemented, the color is not changed, has underlined vascular pattern. Set the
clinical diagnosis:
A. *Chylangioma the left side of the neck and the left submandibular area
B. Hemangioma neck and left submandibular area
C. Retention cyst of the left submandibular gland saliva
D. Chronic lymphadenitis submandibular area
E. Acute serous submaxillitis.
384.
Girl 12 years old, complains of tumor in the left parotid region. Objectively: a skin
under the tumor-like neoplasm is dark red, size 5x3 cm, soft elastic consistency, exploding
above the skin, palpation painless symptom compression for positive content. Tilted head
tumors significantly increased in size. What is the most probable preliminary diagnosis?
A. *Cavernous hemangioma of the parotid area
B. Branch hemangioma of the parotid area
C. Cyst of the parotid salivary gland
D. Capillary hemangioma of the parotid area
E. Chylangioma parotid area
385.
A child, 8 years old, turned to the doctor complaining of the presence of a smooth
round shape formation under the tongue to the left. Accidentally noticed about a month ago.
On examination: the left under the tongue, deep in the soft tissues of the floor of the mouth
turns round shape formation up to 2.0 cm in diameter, soft consistency, painless on palpation,
mucous membrane over it a grayish- blue color. Who is the most likely diagnosis.
A. *Ranula left
B. Dermoid cyst on the left
C. Epidermoid cyst of the left
D. Chylangioma floor of the mouth
E. Hemangioma floor of the mouth
386.
In the Clinic of Maxillofacial Surgery entered parents of a child aged 1 month
complain of the presence of tumor formation. OBJECTIVE: the child in the right corner of
the mouth is determined tumor formation irregularly shaped, up to 1 cm in diameter. The skin
over the formation of purple color is determined by the positive symptom content. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. *Cavernous hemangioma in the right corner of the mouth;
B. Cavernous chylangioma in the right corner of the mouth;
C. Fibroma in the right corner of the mouth;
D. Papilloma in the right corner of the mouth;
E. Fibroids in the right corner of the mouth.
387.
Mother of a child 1,5 years old complaining about the presence of tumor on child's
right cheek. Tumors appeared a few months after birth. On examination: on the skin of the
right cheek is dark red tumor size 1.5-2.0 cm, painless, decreases when pressed. Your
diagnosis?
A. *Cavernous hemangioma
B. Simple hemangioma
C. Racemose hemangioma
D. Vascular nevus
E. Chylangioma
388.
The girl is 1 month. Mother complaints in red growths on the upper lip, which noted
immediately after birth, grows rapidly. OBJECTIVE: general condition is satisfactory,
asymmetrical face due to abnormal growths on the upper lip reddish -bluish color size 1x1
cm, extends to the mucous membrane of the lips. Symptom of the content is positive. Your
diagnosis?
A. *Cavernous hemangioma
B. Congenital achromous nevus
C. Retention cysts
D. Traumatic blow lips
E. Capillary hemangioma
389.
Mother of a 3 months child complaines on the presence of the red spots on the skin of
the left cheek. OBJECTIVE: general condition is satisfactory, the skin of the left cheek stain
is defined red irregular shape size 1x1, 5 cm painless on palpation. Clicking the color
disappears. Your preliminary diagnosis?
A. *Simple hemangioma
B. Cavernous hemangioma
C. Racemose hemangioma
D. Vascular nevus
E. Chylangioma
390.
To the dentist asked a girl 15 years old with complaints of minor mobility 46, 47 teeth
and frequent bleeding from the gums around the teeth indicated with meals and cleaning.
OBJECTIVE: mucous membrane in the region of 45, 46 teeth flushed, has a pronounced vein
pattern. Reported teeth moving (1 degree). Interdental papilla moderately hypertrophied,
bleed easily. On radiographs half of the mandible in lateral projection defined irregular
thinning of bone tissue in the body in the projection 44 to 47 teeth. The center has clear
contours. Select the preliminary diagnosis:
A. *Intraosseous hemangioma of the mandible
B. Radicular cyst of the mandible of 45, 46 tooth
C. Osteoblastoklastoma mandible
D. Fibrous dysplasia of the mandible
E. Ameloblastoma mandible
391.
Parents of the boy at the age of 3 weeks, complaine on the red spots on the skin of the
right cheek, round form, which has existed since the birth. OBJECTIVE: on the skin of the
right cheek is the neoplasm 2 cm in diameter, smooth surface stains, no rises above the
surrounding tissue, the symptom – filling-emptying is positive. Add a possible diagnosis.
A. *Capillary hemangioma
B. Flat nevus
C. Cavernous hemangioma
D. Tuberiferous nevus
E. Chylangioma.
392.
In patients aged 50 years old on the lower lip is formation circular shape to 1.0 cm in
diameter with clear boundaries. The mucous membrane of the formation of a cyanotic hue.
During the hour palpation formation painless, soft texture, slightly above the level of the
mucous membrane of the lower lip. Regional lymph nodes were not palpable. Click diagnosis
A. Papilloma lower lip
B. Tuberiferous nevus
C. Hemangioma of the lower lip
D. Fibroma of the lower lip
E. *There is no right answer.
393.
In the Clinic of Maxillofacial Surgery enrolled a child at the age of 1 month. Parents
complain on the presence of a tumor like growths. OBJECTIVE: the child in the right corner
of the mouth is determined tumor formation irregularly shaped, up to 1 cm in diameter. The
skin over the tumor purple color is determined by the positive symptom content. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. *Cavernous hemangioma in the area of right angle of the mouth;
B. Chylangioma cavernous area in the right corner of his mouth;
C. Fibroma in the area of right angle of the mouth;
D. Papilloma in the area of right angle of the mouth;
E. Fibroids in the area of the right corner of his mouth.
394.
Mother turned to the clinic with a child 3 years old of complaints about the presence of
pigmented spots on the left cheek, which is growing. OBJECTIVE: the skin is coffee shade,
densely covered with dark hair color, tumor boundaries are clear. Set the correct diagnosis.
A. Melanoma of the left buccal area
B. Hemangioma of the left buccal area
C. Atheroma of the left buccal area
D. Haematoma of the left buccal area
E. *Pigmented nevus of the left buccal area
395.
For which of a vascular tumor as characteristic is systolic murmur:
A. Cavernous chylangioma
B. Capillary hemangioma
C. Cavernous hemangioma
D. Usual chylangioma
E. *Pampiniform (branch) hemangioma?
396.
In the maxillofacial department asked mother of a girl aged 3 months with complaints
about the presence of the child's tumor of the upper lip and left cheek, deformation fabrics
and cyanosis of the skin in this area. Tumor increases. OBJECTIVE: Facial asymmetry due
to a tumor of the left cheek and upper lip, the skin of which has a cyanotic color. Symptom of
the content is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Cherubism
B. Cyst soft tissue
C. Fibroma
D. Neurofibromatosis
E. *Hemangioma
397.
A patient with a red rim of the lower lip tumors available on the stem, 0.3 x0, 5 cm
during palpation - painless. Preliminary diagnosis:
A. *Papilloma.
B. Hyperkeratosis
C. Cutaneous horn
D. Cheilitis
E. Retention cysts.
398.
For which a vascular tumor characterized by "systolic murmur"?
A. Cavernous chylangioma
B. Capillary hemangiom
C. Cavernous hemangioma
D. Normal chylangioma
E. *Branch hemangioma.
399.
Patient 28 years oldcomplained on the tumors in the region of the tip of the tongue, she
injures the teeth and periodically increases and decreases. Neoplasms rounded form d = 0,4
cm clear boundaries on a broad basis, the color is different from the color of the mucous
membrane of the tongue. Put the most likely diagnosis:
A. Lipoma of the tongue
B. Abscess of the tongue
C. *Papilloma of the tongue
D. Fibroma of the tongue
E. Hemanhiofibroma of the tongue
400.
From which tissue does develop the lipoma of facial tissues?
A. *Subcutaneous adipose
B. Muscle tissue
C. Skin
D. Vessel
E. Neurotic.
401.
What growth is characteristic to lipoma?
A. *Slow and smooth
B. Slow and painful
C. Quick and painless
D. Quick and painful
E. Do not increase
402.
The differential diagnosis of lipomas conduct with atheroma, the differences between
is:
A. *Atheroma soldered skin
B. Symptom of fluctuation
C. The characteristic fluid obtained by puncture
D. After depress them by finger atheroma not pale, but retains its previous color
E. There is no right answer
403.
On radiographs hemangioma of the jaw is discovered:
A. *Swelling of the jaw, small middle-alveolar picture, fuzzy cystic foci
B. How cyst in which turned resolved tooth roots
C. Many roundish cavities surrounded by smaller cavities
D. Several rare cystic cavities
E. One large cavity
404.
To reactive papillomatosis include:
A. Papillary hyperplasia of the palate and alveolar processes
B. Nicotine papillomatosis palate
C. Traumatic papillomatosis of the oral mucosa
D. Rhomboid papillomatosis of the tongue
E. *All answers are correct
405.
Papillomas of the oral mucosa are:
A. True
B. Spurious
C. Exophytic
D. Endophytic
E. *All answers are correct
406.
On examination the patient dentist identified: deep in the cheeks neoplasm soft
consistency, sedentary, not soldered to the skin and mucous membranes. Set preliminary
diagnosis.
A. *Lipoma
B. Chylangioma
C. Papilloma
D. Fibroma
E. Hemangioma
407.
To nonosteogenic tumors not include:
A. Hemangioma
B. Hemanhioendotamioma
C. *Holesteotoma
D. Fibroma
E. Myxoma
408.
Patient has an asymmetry due to tumors of the upper lip on the left with clear
boundaries. The skin over the tumor bluish tint, positive symptom compression and content.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Capillary hemangioma
B. Branch hemangioma
C. *Cavernous hemangioma
D. Chylangioma
E. Age spots
409.
To nonosteogenic group of tumors of the jaws include:
A. Hemangiomas
B. Hemanhioendotelioma, neurolipoma
C. Fibroma
D. Myxoma
E. *All answers are correct
410.
To nonosteogenic tumor formation include:
A. Haemangiomas
B. *Holesteatoma
C. Fiber
D. Neurofibromas
E. Mix
411.
To reactive papillomatosis not include:
A. *Papillary hyperplasia of the palate and alveolar processes.
B. Nicotine papillomatosis palate
C. Traumatic papillomatosis of the oral mucosa
D. Rhomboid papillomatosis of the tongue
E. There is no right answer
412.
The patient, 19 years old turned with complaining on oral mucosa of the palate with a
soft formation, elongated shape on the stem, 0.8 cm Color of the oral mucosa is not changed
in the area of injury. Select the preliminary diagnosis:
A. *Papilloma
B. Lipoma
C. Sarcoma
D. Haemangioma
E. Osteosarcoma
413.
Patient 45 years old turned with complaining on discomfort while eating, talking on the
cheek oral mucosa neoplasm of soft consistency, mobile, not soldered to the skin. It grows
slowly and painlessly. Select the preliminary diagnosis:
A. *Lipoma
B. Hemangioma
C. Epulis
D. Papilloma
E. Sarcoma
414.
What group of similar entities jaw tumor include hemangioma:
A. *By nonosteogenic benign tumors
B. To nonodontogenic cancer
C. To nonodontogenic benign tumors
D. To benign odontogenic
E. To odontogenic substandard
415.
The cause of the parotid salivary gland fistula may include:
A. Injuries.
B. As a result of inflammation cancer.
C. As a result of purulent processes in the cheeks.
D. As a consequence of purulent processes in round - chewing region.
E. *Everything listed above.
416.
What is the average length of the parotid duct:
A. 2,0 cm
B. 8,0 cm
C. 3,0 cm
D. 10,0 cm
E. *5,0 cm
417.
Strait of parotid salivary gland opens on the oral mucosa of the mouth vestibule, which
tooth:
A. Fang.
B. 1st premolar.
C. 2nd premolar.
D. *2 molar
E. 3 molar.
418.
In the strait of parotid gland distinguish sections:
A. *Intra- glandular, gums, buccal, submucosa.
B. Intra- glandular, buccal, muscle, submucosa.
C. Submucosa, gums, buccal, extra-glandular.
D. Intra- glandular, chewing muscle.
E. Chewing, submucosa, extra-glandular.
419.
What nerve does run through the parotid gland:
A. Eye.
B. *Facial.
C. Hyoid.
D. Maxillary.
E. Vagus.
420.
What is the average value of the diameter of the parotid duct:
A. 0,5-1,0 mm.
B. 1,5-2,0 mm.
C. 1,0-1,5 mm.
D. 1,5-2,0 mm.
E. *2,0-3,0 mm.
421.
Most often marked the lesions of:
A. *Parotid glands.
B. Sublingual salivary glands.
C. Submaxillary salivary gland.
D. Submaxillary and sublingual salivary glands.
E. Minor salivary glands.
422.
Intraoral horizontal section is isolated and cut off the fistula, isolated distal duct.
Mucosa form lingulate flap and hold it in an external incision, and then filed in the central
segment of the strait. By which method performed surgery salivary fistula closure foreign?
A. Burov.
B. Sapozhnikov.
C. Limberg.
D. *Vasiliev.
E. Solntsev.
423.
Plastic external fistula colliding triangle formed on the skin. By which method
performed surgery of the salivary fistula closure foreign?
A. *Vasilieva.
B. Solntsev.
C. Limberg.
D. Sapozhnikov.
E. Sjogren.
424.
By oval cut isolated fistula orifice to a maximum depth of cut off. Make two punctures
to the fascia and put round silk suture formed around the defect and tighten it tight. What are
evaluated for operation outdoor salivary fistula closure?
A. *Sapozhnikov.
B. Limberg.
C. Vasiliev.
D. Burova.
E. Nyuttnera.
425.
Cuts fistula with scar in the form of a triangle, the triangle on the basis of conduct
incision posteriorly, at the end of each line is similar to triangle cut out, but wrapped the
foundation to the top, move the pieces and sew. What are evaluated for salivary fistula
closure foreign?
A. Limberg.
B. *Burov.
C. Sapozhnikov.
D. Klottnera.
E. Vasilieva.
426.
Incomplete salivary fistula of the parotid gland turning the liquid is introduced through
the external fistula:
A. *Gets into the mouth through the mouth of the ductless.
B. Does not penetrate into the oral cavity.
C. Accumulates in the gland.
D. You can not enter the liquid.
E. Accumulates only in the fistula.
427.
Incomplete salivary fistula of the parotid gland turning the fluid that is inserted through
the mouth ductless:
A. Not enters the external fistulas.
B. *Fall in external fistulas.
C. Accumulates along with zonishnoyu fistulas.
D. Fall only in the mouth.
E. Accumulates in the excretory duct.
428.
Full salivary fistula resulting from:
A. Expansion of the extraglandulus Strait.
B. Extension of the intraglandulus Strait.
C. Intraglandulus bend of the duct.
D. Defect of the duct's wall.
E. *Complete intersection or break duct.
429.
Part salivary fistula resulting from:
A. Complete intersection or break duct.
B. *Defect of the duct's wall.
C. Intraglandulus bend of the duct.
D. Expansion of the extraglandulus Strait.
E. Expansion intraglandulus of the duct.
430.
When complete fistula saliva flowing from the damaged part of the cancer?
A. Only through the mouth of the main duct.
B. *Through external fistulas.
C. Because the external fistula orifice and through the main duct.
D. Saliva builds up and does not leak from the cavity formed.
E. Not at all flows and accumulates in the parenchyma of the gland.
431.
Incomplete fistulas as saliva flowing from the damaged part of the cancer?
A. *Through external salivary fistula and through the mouth of the main duct.
B. Only through external salivary fistula.
C. Saliva builds up and does not leak from the cavity formed.
D. Only through the mouth of the main duct.
E. Not at all flows and accumulates in the parenchyma of the gland.
432.
When the operation salivary fistula closure outer method Sapozhnikov, which
discission isolated fistula orifice?
A. *Oval.
B. Triangular.
C. Square.
D. Trapezoidal.
E. In a "swallow tail"
433.
When the operation salivary fistula closure outer method Vasilieva, which discission
isolated fistula orifice?
A. Oval.
B. Vertical extraoral.
C. *Horizontal extraoral.
D. Horizontal intraoral.
E. Triangular.
434.
Diagnosis of salivary fistula is made complete with:
A. Panoramic radiography.
B. *Sialography.
C. CT scan.
D. Radiography in the lateral projection.
E. Radiography in nasal- submental projection.
435.
Wharton duct used to be called:
A. Strait parotid gland.
B. *Strait submandibular gland.
C. Common duct sublingual gland.
D. Small duct sublingual gland.
E. There is no right answer.
436.
What is the average length of fistula's way?
A. 0,5-1 cm
B. *1,5-2 cm
C. 2,5-3 cm
D. 3,5-4 cm
E. 2,5-4 cm
437.
Voles are located in the lower parotid- masticatory area must be differentiated from:
A. From chronic osteomyelitis.
B. Chronic periodontitis.
C. With a median fistula.
D. On the lateral neck fistula.
E. *With congenital fistula zhabernoyi side slit.
438.
To determine the patency of salivary gland ducts conduct:
A. Palpation.
B. *Sensing.
C. Sialography
D. Review of the mouth of the strait.
E. Surgery.
439.
For inhibition of secretion of salivary glands, as well as when trying to close the
fistula, causing adhesiveness effect of the wall, and after surgery injected under the skin or
inside:
A. *0,1% solution of atropine.
B. 0,2% solution of atropine.
C. 0,5% solution of atropine.
D. 1,0% solution of atropine
E. 0,1% glucose solution
440.
In healthy people for an hour submandibular gland produces an average of about:
A. 1 ml of unstimulated saliva.
B. 6 ml of unstimulated saliva.
C. *12 ml of unstimulated saliva.
D. 24 ml of unstimulated saliva.
E. 20 ml of unstimulated saliva.
441.
Moving of two isosceles triangles suggested:
A. Solnsev.
B. *Limberg.
C. Janelidze.
D. Zykov.
E. Kolokoltchev.
442.
For closure of skin defects in the shape of simple geometric shapes, triangle,
quadrangle, diamond, ellipse widely used scheme for the formation of flaps:
A. Michelson.
B. Limberg.
C. *Szymanowski.
D. Tirshe.
E. Janelidze.
443.
What form should be a section in the plastic colliding triangles:
A. K: D
B. M: N
C. Z: M
D. H: N
E. *Z: N
444.
Length three sections held to form a triangular flaps should be:
A. *1:1:1
B. 1:2:1
C. 2:1:1
D. 2:2:1
E. 1:1:2
445.
Dimensions flaps with plastic triangles are colliding:
A. *Reflect the size of the defect
B. Reflect half the face
C. Be larger than the defect
D. Be less than the defect
E. Be 2 times larger than the defect.
446.
When the plastic is needed to clearance of vessels in the flap was:
A. Sprains.
B. Constrict.
C. Narrowed.
D. *Usual size.
E. Overdisplace.
447.
The capsule of the parotid gland from the outside:
A. Fine and spotty.
B. Fine and continuous.
C. Thick and spotty.
D. *Thick and solid.
E. Is divided into many parts and thin.
448.
Patient addressed with complaints on the smooth tumor growths in the mandible.
During palpation revealed symptom Runne - Dyupyuyitren. On radiographs - a site of
destruction of bone tissue with sharp contours, located near the root of the tooth 36, size 2,0
x1, 5 cm What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Keratocyst of the mandible
B. Osteoblastoklastoma of the mandible
C. *Radicular cyst of the mandible
D. Follicular cyst of the mandible
E. Ameloblastoma of the mandible
449.
During the clinical and radiographic examination, the patient was diagnosed maxillary
radicular cyst from tooth 25, which sprouted in the maxillary sinus. Channels sealed to the
top of the tooth. What treatment is indicated in this case:
A. Resection of root apex "causal" tooth
B. Cystectomy with removal of "causal" tooth
C. Cystotomy
D. Removal of "causal" tooth
E. *Cystectomy with maxillary sinusotomy and resection of the root apex of "causal" tooth
450.
Patient 24 years old complains about the presence of tumor in the region of the side of
the neck on the right. Neoplasms first noticed 4 months ago, to the doctor did not apply.
OBJECTIVE: asymmetry of the face due to tumors of the upper third of the right side of the
neck. Palpable tumors observed painless rounded shape, size 3,0 x3, 5 cm compact-elastic
texture, skin tumors over -tion in color is not changed, is taken into the fold. Neoplasms of
the surrounding soft tissues are not soldered, located at the front edge of the course
sternocleido-mastoideus muscle. During puncture resulting liquid light yellow viscous. What
is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Cellulitis side of the neck
B. *Lateral neck cyst
C. Chronic lymphadenitis side of the neck
D. Lipoma side of the neck
E. Acute serous glandular side of the neck
451.
A man 35 years old had sought complaining thickening of alveolar bone of the upper
jaw. Preliminary diagnosis: radicular cyst of the maxilla. What will be revealed during the
puncture of alveolar bone in the area of thickening in punctate:
A. *Amber- yellow liquid
B. Blood
C. Manure
D. Epithelium
E. Muddy infiltration
452.
In patients 42 years old over 10 years in the anterior palate developed tumors. The
color of the mucous membrane over it was not changed. 13, 12, 11, 21, 22, 23 teeth are
intact. In intraoral radiograph of alveolar bone of the upper jaw is isolated foci of destruction
marked bone with clear contours size 2,5 x1, 5 cm periodontal gap in the area of 13, 12, 11,
21, 22, 23 teeth well defined. What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Follicular cyst of the maxilla
B. Radicular cyst of the maxilla
C. *Cyst of the nasopalatal channel
D. Parodental maxillary cyst
E. Ameloblastoma of the maxilla
453.
A man 35 years old had sought complaining of deformation of alveolar bone of the
upper jaw in the area of 15, 14, 13 teeth. Preliminary diagnosis: radicular cyst maxilla. What
does the punctate:
A. Epithelium
B. Blood
C. Manure
D. *Amber- yellow liquid
E. The turbid liquid?
454.
The patient complains of heaviness in the left side of the head, the deformation of
alveolar bone of the upper jaw in the area of tooth 25. OBJECTIVE: crown 25 tooth
destroyed 2/3 of caries process, it weakly positive percussion. On radiographs sinus, left
maxillary sinus by half - wimple, with a clear domed contour. On radiographs 25 tooth
periodontal gap at the top of palatal root is missing. What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Chronic rhinogenous sinusitis
B. *Radicular cyst that had grown in the maxillary sinus
C. Chronic odontogenic sinusitis
D. Cyst of mucosa of the maxillary sinus
E. Malignant neoplasm of the maxilla
455.
A woman 37 years old complaining about the presence of a tumor on the lower lip
from the mouth, which was about 2 weeks ago, increased, to interfere with the movements of
the lips. OBJECTIVE: deep in the lower lip seals, limited elastic, painless, rounded, fused
with mucous membrane, which is above it is clear. The mucosa around the seal is not
changed. Regional lymph nodes were not enlarged. What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Lipoma of the lip
B. Fibroma of the lips
C. Abscess of the lips
D. *Retention cysts of the lips
E. Papilloma of the lips
456.
The patient during examination revealed tumors in round shape submental area. The
skin over the tumor in color is not changed, is going to fold. After the puncture fluid was
found in punctate straw- yellow color with a trace of cholesterol. Select the preliminary
diagnosis:
A. Lipoma
B. *Congenital midline cyst
C. Lymphadenitis
D. Retention cyst sublingual salivary gland
E. Dermoid cyst.
457.
Patient after preliminary examination diagnosed dermoid cyst in submental area. Select
the method of treatment:
A. *Excholeation
B. Drainage, followed by removal of the cyst
C. Removal of cysts within the healthy tissue
D. Sclerotic therapy
E. Cryosurgical treatment.
458.
In patients 50 years old, on the lower lip formation circular shape to 1.0 cm in diameter
with clear boundaries. The mucous membrane of the formation of a cyanotic hue. During
palpation of the formation of a painless, soft texture, slightly above the level of the mucous
membrane of the lower lip. Regional lymph nodes were not palpable. Click the diagnosis:
A. Papilloma of the lower lip
B. *Retention cyst of the lower lip
C. Hemangioma of the lower lip
D. Fibroma of the lower lip
E. Chylangioma of the lower lip.
459.
A woman 27 years old complaining about the presence of a tumor on the lower lip
from the mouth, which was about 4 weeks ago, increased, to interfere with the movements of
the lips. OBJECTIVE: deep in the lower lip seals, limited elastic, painless, rounded, fused
with mucous membrane, which is above it is clear. The mucosa around the seal is not
changed. Regional lymph nodes were not enlarged. What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Fibroma lips
B. Retention cysts lips
C. Abscess lips
D. Lipoma lip
E. Papilloma lips
460.
On examination of the patient revealed deformation of alveolar bone of the upper jaw
within 22 to 24 teeth. 23 tooth is missing. Transitional fold within these smoothed teeth,
mucous membrane pale pink during palpation thick consistency, not painful. In renthe ¬
nohrami 22, 24 teeth marked destruction of bone round shape with clear smooth boundaries.
In the projection of this destruction is the crown of the tooth. Click diagnosis
A. Nasapalatine cyst
B. Globulomaxillary cyst
C. Radicular cyst
D. *Follicular cyst
E. Odontoma.
461.
Patient 20 years old, complains of intermittent pain in the right upper jaw, bulging
alveolar bone in the region of tooth 11. 4 years ago there was an injury. 11 The crown of the
tooth then gradually darkened. OBJECTIVE: percussion tooth painless. On radiographs
revealed bone thinning rounded, with clear contours in the region of the root apex of tooth 11
with a diameter of 1.8 cm during the puncture fluid obtained from crystals of cholesterol.
What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Chronic osteomyelitis of the upper jaw
B. Ameloblastoma of the upper jaw
C. *Radicular cyst of the upper jaw
D. The soft odontoma of the upper jaw
E. Osteoblastoklastoma maxilla
462.
During changing bite in a boy 10 years old was discovered follicular cyst of the
mandible of 35 teeth. Choose a method of treatment that should be applied in this case:
A. Cystectomy with 35 tooth follicle
B. *Cystotomy preserving the tooth follicle 35
C. Monitoring the development of tumors
D. Partial resection of the alveolar bone of the jaw with tumor
E. Cryodestruction cyst.
463.
A child 11 years old, complains of the presence of tumor painless tumor of the
mandible on the right. During palpation of the right body of the mandible is marked symptom
Dyupyuyitrena. On radiographs of the mandible bone defect case with clear boundaries size
3,0 x4, 0 cm, which is 45 tooth follicle. What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. *Follicular cyst
B. Radicular cyst
C. Cavernous hemangioma
D. Osteoblastoklastoma
E. Adamantinoma (solid form)
464.
Ill age 20 years old, complains of intermittent pain in the right upper jaw, bulging
alveolar bone in the region of tooth 11. 4 years ago there was an injury. 11 The crown of the
tooth then gradually darkened. OBJECTIVE: percussion tooth painless. On radiographs bone thinning round shape with sharp contours in the region of the root apex of tooth 11 with
a diameter of 1.5 cm during the puncture fluid obtained from crystals of cholesterol. What is
the most likely diagnosis:
A. *Radicular cyst of the maxilla
B. Ameloblastoma of the maxilla
C. Chronic osteomyelitis of the upper jaw
D. Mild maxillary odontoma
E. Osteoblastoklastoma of the maxilla
465.
Patient 28 years old, turned with complaining on a swelling in the right sublingual
region, which limits the mobility of the tongue, difficult tongue. The patient noticed swelling
1 week ago. In the right section of the hyoid spherical protrusion size 2,0 x2, 5 cm, with clear
boundaries, center transparent stretched mucosa. Palpable determined fluctuation. Tongue
slightly raised up. Click the diagnosis:
A. Chronic sialoadenitis of the submandibular salivary gland
B. Sialolithiasis submandibular salivary gland disease
C. * Retention cyst sublingual salivary gland
D. Acute sialoadenit submandibular salivary gland
E. Retention cyst of the right submandibular salivary gland.
466.
A child 9 years old, appealed to the dentist about the deformation of the lower jaw to
the left. OBJECTIVE: symmetrical face, mouth opening - free. Baby teeth are intact. Fabrics
alveolar bone and body of the mandible in the region of 84 tooth twisted as dense, smooth
protrusion, with clear boundaries, formation of the mucous membrane pale pink. On
radiographs of the mandible in lateral projection marked bone defect with clear boundaries
size 2x3 cm, which holds 44 tooth follicle. Click diagnosis
A. Radicular cyst of the mandible from 84 tooth
B. Ameloblastoma of the mandible
C. *Follicular cyst of mandibular tooth 44
D. Osteoblastoma of the mandible
E. Osteoma of the mandible.
467.
In a child 3 years old, a week after the injury, on the mucosa of the lower lip appeared
the tumor formation, rounded form, painless, soft, bluish color, with a diameter of 8 mm.
Click the diagnosis:
A. *Retention cysts of small salivary gland
B. Hemangioma lower lip
C. Chylangioma lower lip
D. Small adenoma of salivary gland
E. Fibroma of the lower lip.
468.
In the 14 -year-old has been a significant pain of the submental area during the day.
According to history: 5 years ago, the boy received a severe kick in this area. The general
condition is of the average difficulty, body temperature – 37,5°C. Regional lymphadenitis.
31, 32, 41 and 42 teeth are intact. Percussion of them is painful. With vestibular side - a slight
protrusion of tissue alveolar bone, covered with the hyperemic mucosa. On sighting intraoral
radiograph of alveolar bone - the source of destruction of bone in the region of 31 and 41
teeth, oval with clear contours. Select the most likely diagnosis:
A. Suppuration follicular cysts of the mandible
B. *Suppuration posttraumatic radicular cyst of the mandible
C. Acute serous odontogenic periostitis of the mandible
D. Acute suppurative odontogenic abscess lower jaw
E. Acute odontogenic osteomyelitis of the mandible.
469.
A girl 12 years old, complains on the difficulty in eating and talking. OBJECTIVE:
under the tongue on the left there is the formation of a round shape with a diameter of 5 cm,
translucent, soft consistency. During puncture was received transparent, yellow, mucoid
fluid. Click to clinical diagnosis:
A. Dermoid cyst of the oral cavity
B. *Cyst of the left sublingual gland
C. Polycystoma of the floor of the mouth
D. Retention cysts of small salivary gland
E. Hemangioma floor of the mouth.
470.
A child 10 years old was diagnosed a follicular cyst of the mandible on the left. What
are the additional methods of diagnosis of follicular cysts:
A. Puncture of the cyst, ultrasound jaw
B. Review, radiography
C. Electroodontodiagnosis radiography
D. *Radiography, puncture
E. Palpation examination.
471.
In the 7 -year-old boy after an injury that he received 6 months ago, on the mucosa of
the lower lip was the formation of rounded form, 1 cm in diameter, with clear boundaries.
The color of the mucous membrane of the formation - blue. During palpation of the
formation of soft consistency and painless. Regional lymph nodes were not enlarged. Clinical
blood and urine tests within age norms. What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Myxoma of the lower lip
B. Papilloma lower lip
C. Fibroma of the lower lip
D. *Retention cysts of small salivary gland
E. Hemangioma of the lower lip
472.
To the dental surgeon asked parents of a 3 years aged boy, complaining of the presence
of tumor in the brow area. OBJECTIVE: in the right eyebrow area revealed tumor size 2x3
cm soft-elastic texture, rounded shape. The skin over the tumor is not changed and is not
soldered to it. During puncture revealed mushy mass of white. Click the diagnosis:
A. Bifida
B. *Dermoid cyst of the right superciliary area
C. Chylangioma of the right superciliary area
D. Atheroma of the right superciliary area
E. Hemangioma of the right superciliary area.
473.
A girl 12 years old, complains on pain, swelling in the region of the mandible on the
right. The 46 tooth pain is felt for several days. OBJECTIVE: impaired general condition,
body temperature 37,7°C. Asymmetrical face due to swelling of the soft tissues in the
projection of the mandible on the right. 46 tooth much destroyed his percussion sharply
painful. From the vestibular side of alveolar bone in the region of 46, 47, 45 teeth painful
palpable infiltration. On sighting the radiograph in the area of the tooth tops 46 determined
the source of destruction diameter 1,2 cm. Your preliminary diagnosis:
A. Acute suppurative odontogenic abscess of the lower jaw of tooth 46
B. Acute serous neodontohennyy abscess lower jaw of tooth 46
C. Exacerbations of chronic periodontitis tooth 46
D. Acute odontogenic osteomyelitis of the mandible from 46 tooth
E. *Suppuration radicular cyst of the mandible of 46 teeth.
474.
The boy 8 years old was revealed no 36 tooth. According to parents, other permanent
teeth were irrupted in time. The boy has not any complaints. On radiographs of the mandible
in lateral projection revealed homogeneous thinning bones spherical shape with smooth clear
boundaries in which the crown of the detained 36tooth. Click the diagnosis:
A. Osteoma of the mandible
B. Radicular mandibular cyst of tooth 36
C. Odontoma mandible
D. *Follicular cyst of mandibular tooth 36
E. Osteoblastoklastoma of the mandible.
475.
In the girl, 14 years old, after injury, which occurred 1 month ago, on the mucous
membrane of the lower lip appeared tumors oval shape, which gradually increases, is
painless, soft consistency, bluish- yellow, with a diameter of 6 mm. During puncture - a
transparent, viscous liquid. Your preliminary diagnosis:
A. Lipoma of lower lip
B. Chylangioma lower lip
C. Fibroma of the lower lip
D. Adenoma of small salivary glands of the lower lip
E. *Retention cysts of small salivary glands of the lower lip.
476.
Child 13 years old grumbles about 11 tooth discoloration. 4 years ago was the injury of
front section of the upper jaw. OBJECTIVE: 11 tooth is intact, percussion it painless. On
radiographs thinning of bone tissue in the region of the root apex of tooth 11 sizes 1x1, 5 cm
with clear boundaries, rounded shape. Your preliminary diagnosis:
A. *Radicular cyst maxillary tooth 11
B. Chronic fibrous periodontitis tooth 11
C. Chronic periodontitis granulation 11 tooth
D. Chronic granulomatous periodontitis tooth 11
E. Exacerbation of chronic granulomatous periodontitis tooth 11
477.
The boy 18 years old appealed with complaints on the presence of a tumor on the
lower lip from the mouth, which occurred about 3 weeks ago and slowly increased.
OBJECTIVE: the mucosa of the lower lip protrusion detected, limited, elastic, painless,
round, transparent. The mucosa around is unaltered. Click the diagnosis:
A. *Retention cysts of the small salivary gland
B. Dermoid cyst of the lower lip
C. Epidermoid cyst of the lower lip
D. Hematoma of the lower lip
E. Abscesses of the lower lip.
478.
As a result of inflammation in the periapical tissues of the jaw bone develops:
A. Keratocyst
B. *Radicular cyst
C. Follicular cyst
D. Nasoalveolar cyst
E. Cystof the incisive channel
479.
The primary treatment of jaw cysts of small size are:
A. *Cystectomy
B. Cryosurgery
C. Sclerosis
D. Jaw resection
E. Half resection of the jaw
480.
The local term complication of cystectomy is:
A. Myositis
B. *Relapse
C. Pancreatitis
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Pharyngitis
481.
Cause of recurrent radicular cysts of the jaw include:
A. Haematoma
B. Odontogenic infection
C. Duration of cyst
D. Postoperative wound inflammation
E. *Not completely removed of the cyst membrane
482.
Preparing for surgery cystectomy involves filling:
A. "Causal" tooth
B. All teeth of the jaw
C. Teeth –antagonists
D. All teeth roots are the inverse of the cavity of the cyst
E. "Causal" tooth and two adjacent
483.
What cyst has nonodontogenic origin?
A. *Keratocyst
B. Radicular cyst
C. Follicular cyst
D. Nasopalatal channel cyst
E. Body jaw cyst
484.
During surgical treatment of radicular cysts of the jaws to the "causal" tooth conduct:
A. Hemisection
B. Sealing channel
C. Endodentalnyy electrophoresis
D. *Root apex resection after sealing channel
E. Resection of the root apex
485.
Symptom of "parchment Crunch" is pathognomonic for:
A. Radicular and follicular cysts.
B. Cystic forms adamantinoma.
C. Cystic forms osteoblastoklastoma.
D. * For all forms listed above.
E. Epidermal cyst.
486.
Patient 41 years old, complains of thickening of the body of the mandible.
OBJECTIVE: Face of sick is asymetric due to thickening of the lower division of the left
cheek. 35, 36, 37 teeth are moving. The left half of the body of the mandible is spindle
inflated. Palpable quite solid, its surface is smooth and painless. On radiographs of the left
half of the mandible in the body - the zone of destruction in the form of a circular cavity with
a sufficiently clear outline. Roots 35 36 37 teeth are resorbable to 1/ 4 of its length. Put the
diagnosis.
A. *Osteoblastoklastoma of the mandible.
B. Radicular cyst of the mandible
C. Chronic osteomyelitis of the lower jaw.
D. Adamantinoma mandible.
E. Fibrous osteodisplaziya.
487.
Patient 55 years old at remote site 46 there was painless, buhryste, bluish -colored
tumor growths on the stem of 2.0 x1, 0h1, 5cm. Open mouth in full. On intraoral Rg- gram of
the alveolar process in the region of the removed cell 46 is marked destruction of bone tissue.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. *Giant cell epulis
B. Solid odontoma of the mandible
C. Hypertrophic gingivitis
D. Papilloma mucosa in the area of the removed 46
E. Amelobastoma of the mandible
488.
The girl 24 years old, in the treatment of periodontitis 36 tooth for diagnostic purposes
was carried out X-ray examination. On radiographs revealed the presence of a homogeneous
shadow round shape with sharp edges, which by its density approaching the density of the
tissues. On the outskirts lesion surrounded by a zone of enlightenment, a thickness of 1 mm.
Preliminary diagnosis:
A. *Odontoma
B. Tsementoma
C. Osteoma
D. Radicular cyst
E. Myxoma
489.
In the patient, 42 years old, during 10 years in the anterior palate was occurred the
neoplasm. The mucous membrane over it is unchanged in the color. 13, 12, 11, 21, 22, 23
teeth are intact. In intraoral radiograph of maxillary single cell is marked destruction of bone
tissue with clear contours of 2,5 on 1, 5 cm periodontal gap in the area of 13, 12, 11, 21, 22,
23 is well defined. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. *Cyst of the nasopalatal channel.
B. Radicular cyst
C. Globulomaxillary cyst
D. Residual cyst
E. Follicular cyst
490.
Male 45 years old had sought complaining on tumors in the mandible. In the
postoperative period, obtained a conclusion: macroscopically - a combination of solid
grayish- white areas of cystic cavities that fulfilled transparent liquid; histologically availability mushroom tumor outgrowths from the shell to the surrounding bone. To which is
characterized by the formation of microscopic picture?
A. *Ameloblastoma of the mandible
B. Osteodystrophy of the mandibular
C. Fibrous dysplasia of the mandible
D. Eosinophilic granuloma
E. Osteoblastoklastoma
491.
To the dental surgeon asked the patient complaining on the presence of tumors in the
oral cavity. The doctor decided to hold excisional biopsy. Select the correct method of taking
material for this procedure:
A. *Surgical removal of all abnormal foci within the apparently healthy tissue
B. Cut one or more pieces of the tumor and surrounding tissue
C. Preparation of material by removal of cellular elements from the surface of the tumor with a
scalpel.
D. Preparation of the material by application of glass to the tumor
E. Preparation of material by flushing out the wound
492.
To confirm the clinical diagnosis in patients with tumors of the mandible was used a
method based on a study of specially painted histological sections at different magnification.
Add this method of diagnosis.
A. *Pathologic study
B. Cytological examination
C. Cytochemical study
D. Cystography
E. The study of tumor markers
493.
To confirm the clinical diagnosis in patients with tumors of the mandible was used a
method that is based on microscopic examination of cell complexes derived from the lesion.
Add this method of diagnosis.
A. *Cytological examination
B. Pathologic study
C. Puncture biopsy
D. Cystography
E. The study of tumor markers
494.
The patient, 18 years old, appealed to the dentist for a consultation about the presence
of tumors of the frontal area. In the frontal area is marked pink- red spot skin semicircular
shape with sharp contours, size 3 – 4 cm. When pressing on the damaged area of the body
changes in finger skin color becomes whiter. When pressing removing skin gets preliminary
pink-red color. At the head inclination spot becomes more saturated in color and increased in
volume, and when the patient raises his head spot gradually becomes red and pink. Put the
diagnosis.
A. *Capillary hemangioma.
B. Cavernous hemangioma.
C. Moles (nevi)
D. Atheroma
E. Neurofibromatosis
495.
For which the tumor is characterized by the following mechanism of blood circulatory:
in the center of the tumor blood lakes occur where blood flow is slowed down, erythrocytes
break and precibitability, hemoglobin is converted to hemosyderin and stain tumor.
A. *Osteoblastoklastoma
B. Chondroma
C. Hemangioma
D. Chylangioma
E. Fibrous dysplasia
496.
Which of the below listed properties are taken from the complaint, medical history,
assess overall patient has a tumor formation?
A. The presence of tumor formation.
B. Tumor formation appeared many years ago.
C. Slow-growing tumor formation.
D. Tumor formation that does not cause exhaustion.
E. *All listed.
497.
At what location of the cyst in the mandible bone, it causes deformation of the bone at
tongue side?
A. *Near incisors.
B. Near fangs.
C. Near the premolars.
D. In the area of the first molar.
E. In the area of the second and third molars
498.
Additional methods of research conducted to refine the diagnosis of "benign neoplasm
of the maxillofacial area" refers:
A. Physical
B. Biochemical
C. *Histological
D. Angiographic
E. Immunological
499.
Before surgical treatment of benign tumors of the maxillofacial area include:
A. Chemotherapy
B. Radiotherapy
C. *Excision of the tumor
D. Combined treatment
E. Symptomatic therapy
500.
Lipoma - is:
A. *Tumor consisting of fatty tissue
B. Tumor consisting of muscular tissue
C. Tumor composed of blood vessels
D. Tumor consisting of elements of the skin
E. Tumor composed of cartilage
501.
Where is lipoma most often localized?
A. In the frontal area
B. *In the buccal area
C. In the temporal area
D. In the parotic - chewing area
E. In submandibular area
502.
The differential diagnosis of lipoma of the neck should be carried out:
A. With median cyst, papilloma
B. *With lateral cysts, haemodectoma
C. Of atheroma, fibroma
D. With nodular goiter, osteoma
E. Of hemangioma
503.
Clinical manifestations of the Madelung's disease is:
A. Excessive deposition of fat in the chin area, a short neck, dementia, pathology of eye
B. *Excessive deposition of fat in the neck area of hills, neck, shoulder girdle, in the pubic area
C. General obesity, shortness of breath, alcohol abuse
D. Disruption of lipid metabolism, underdevelopment of sex organs, excessive deposition of fat
in the chin area
E. Disruption of lipid metabolism, excessive body hair, shortness of breath
504.
Give a definition of the term "papilloma":
A. Papillary benign connective tissue tumors of the skin, red border of lips and mucous
membranes
B. *Benign papillary epithelial tumor of the skin, red border of lips and mucous membranes
C. Papillary malignant epithelial tumors of the skin, red border of lips and mucous membranes
D. Papillary malignant connective tissue tumors of the skin, red border of lips and mucous
membranes
E. Neoplasm skin red border of lips and mucous membranes on the leg
505.
According to the surface structure papilloma is differentiated into:
A. On the leg, without legs
B. On a broad basis, based on a narrow
C. *With and without keratinization
D. Mushroom, spherical
E. Conical, flat
506.
What is the "deepen papilloma"?
A. Papillary tumor of keratinization and ulceration
B. The tumor, which is characterized by a depression in the center of papillary elevation of the
mucosa
C. *The tumor, which is characterized by epithelial buds growing of deep tissue
D. Exophytic tumor with a crater in the center
E. The tumor, which is located in the folds of the skin
507.
On admission in surgeon the patient was diagnosed papillomatosis on the oral mucosa
of the cheeks. What is this tumor?
A. Several single papillomas are localized in different areas of the skin or mucous membranes
B. Simultaneous presence of papillomas on the skin, oral mucosa and lips red border
C. The presence of multiple papillomas in the maxillofacial area
D. *Multiple papillomas growth in a particular area of the oral mucosa or skin
E. Simultaneous presence of papillomas on the face, limbs, trunk
508.
To which precancerous process does refer papilloma?
A. To obligate precancer
B. *To facultative precancer
C. Never degenerate
D. To malignancies
E. By the border of tumors
509.
If the surgeon diagnose a patient single papilloma or papillomatosis, what the treatment
should be used?
A. Cryosurgical treatment
B. Electrosurgical excision
C. *Excision within healthy tissue
D. Cautery papillomas
E. Partial excision
510.
Median and lateral neck fistula in origin are:
A. *Birth
B. Odontogenic
C. Traumatic
D. Cancer
E. Inflammatory
511.
Inner hole lateral neck fistula opening:
A. In the nasopharynx
B. In the area of the cheeks
C. In the sublingual area
D. In the submandibular area
E. *In the region of the upper pole of the tonsil
512.
Add a classic arrangement of the internal opening of medial neck fistula:
A. In the nasopharynx
B. In the area of the cheeks
C. In the sublingual area
D. *Blind hole in the area of the tongue
E. In section submandibular
513.
To confirm the diagnosis of " lateral neck cyst" is to study:
A. Biochemical
B. *Cytological
C. Radioisotope
D. Wasserman
E. Dynamics thymol test
514.
Where is localized the midline neck cyst?
A. *Above the thyroid cartilage
B. The midline of the neck
C. In the region of the jugular notch
D. In the area submandibular
E. On the leading edge m.trapesius
515.
The differential diagnosis at diagnosis "papilloma" should be carried out:
A. *From fibroma
B. On the lipoma
C. From the atheroma
D. From hemangioma
E. From cancer mucosa
516.
What type of treatment used in Madelung 's disease?
A. Conservative treatment
B. *Surgery - excision of the tumor
C. Radiotherapy
D. Chemotherapy
E. Combined treatment
517.
The main treatment for lipomas is:
A. Chemotherapy
B. Cryosurgery
C. Combinations
D. Radiation therapy
E. *Excision with capsule
518.
Hibernoma - is:
A. *Lipoma, consisting of brown fat (its embryonic remnants)
B. Kind of pigment papillomavirus
C. Superficial hemangioma
D. Lipoma, consisting of fat and blood vessels
E. Separate multiple lipomas
519.
Can a lipoma be located under the mucous membrane of the mouth?
A. Yes
B. *No
C. In malnourished patients
D. In some cases
E. In children
520.
Before surgical treatment of benign tumors of the maxillofacial area include:
A. Chemotherapy
B. *Cryodestruction
C. Radiotherapy
D. Combined treatment
E. Symptomatic therapy
521.
Lipoma can occur:
A. *On the cheek
B. In the area of tongue
C. In the region of the palate
D. On the gums
E. In the floor of the mouth
522.
Osteoma is divided into:
A. Intraosseous and supra bony;
B. *Peripheral and central;
C. The solid and soft;
D. Osteoblastic and osteolytic
E. Acute and chronic
523.
Compact osteoma is characterized by:
A. *Typical structure of osteogenic absent Haversian channels are narrow and almost
completely absent;
B. Bone beams are arranged randomly, their maturity varies, but between the girder space
contains fibroreticulate tissue.
C. Typical osteogenic structure absent Haversian channels are wide
D. Bone beams are arranged in series, their different degree of maturity, and between girder
space contains fibroreticulate tissue
E. Bone beams are arranged randomly
524.
Cancellous osteoma is characterized by:
A. Typical osteogenic structure absent Haversian channels are narrow and almost completely
absent;
B. *Bone beams are arranged randomly, their maturity varies, but interjoist space contains
Fibroreticulate tissue.
C. Bone beams are arranged in series, their different maturity and interjoist space contains
fibroreticulate tissue
D. Bone beams are arranged randomly
E. Typical structure osteogenic absent Haversian wide channels;
525.
Osteoma is:
A. Hilly protrusion elastic consistency, painless, fuzzy boundaries, does not move, the mucous
membrane of the tumor hyperemic and edematous;
B. *Smooth the formation of a dense consistency, painless, with clear borders, does not move,
the mucous membrane of the tumor in color is not changed;
C. Smooth formation of a dense consistency, painless, fuzzy boundaries, does not move, the
mucous membrane of the tumor swelling.
D. Smooth formation of a dense consistency, painless, fuzzy boundaries, does not move, the
mucous membrane of the tumor hyperemic
E. Hilly protrusion elastic consistency, painless, clear boundaries, does not move, the mucous
membrane of the tumor hyperemic and edematous;
526.
X-ray picture of the jaw spongy osteoma:
A. *Nonuniform fire round shape with alternating areas of liquefaction and compaction;
B. Homogeneous cell darkening round shape with clear boundaries;
C. Homogeneous cell darkening round shape with indistinct borders.
D. Nonuniform fire round shape with areas of liquefaction
E. Non-homogenous cell darkening round shape with clear boundaries;
527.
X-ray picture of a compact osteoma of the jaw:
A. Nonuniform fire round shape with alternating areas of liquefaction and compaction;
B. *Homogeneous cell darkening round shape with clear boundaries;
C. Homogeneous cell darkening round shape with indistinct borders.
D. Nonuniform fire round shape with areas of liquefaction
E. Non-homogenous cell darkening round shape with clear boundaries
528.
Morbid growths of bone as a result of past and nonodontogenic odontogenic
inflammatory processes - is:
A. Exostosis;
B. *Hyperostosis;
C. Osteophytes;
D. Torus.
E. Konterfors
529.
Find radiological description of the osteoma:
A. *Round shape fireplace homogeneous darkening with clear boundaries;
B. Homogeneous cell eclipse with vague and jagged borders;
C. Cell intense darkening of clear and smooth outside, surrounded by a strip of enlightenment
width of about 1 mm;
D. Source of destruction of bone with fuzzy boundaries, surrounded by a rim sclerotic tissue.
E. Cell intense eclipse with obscure and equal outside
530.
Find ossified periostitis radiological description:
A. The rounded shape fireplace homogeneous darkening with clear boundaries;
B. *Homogeneous cell eclipse with vague and jagged borders;
C. Cell intense darkening of clear and smooth outside, surrounded by a strip of enlightenment
width of about 1 mm;
D. Source of destruction of bone with fuzzy boundaries, surrounded by a rim of sclerotic tissue.
E. Cell intense darkening of clear and smooth outside, surrounded by a strip of enlightenment
width of about 5 mm;
531.
Find radiological description of odontoma:
A. The rounded shape fireplace homogeneous darkening with clear boundaries;
B. Homogeneous cell eclipse with indistinct borders and equal;
C. *Cell intense darkening of clear and smooth outside, surrounded by a strip of enlightenment
width of about 1 mm;
D. Source of destruction of bone with fuzzy boundaries, surrounded by a rim of sclerotic tissue.
E. Homogeneous cell eclipse with clear boundaries;
532.
Find the radiological osteoid osteoma description:
A. The rounded shape fireplace homogeneous darkening with clear boundaries;
B. Homogeneous cell eclipse with indistinct borders and equal;
C. Cell intense darkening of clear and smooth outside, surrounded by a strip of enlightenment
width of about 1 mm;
D. *Fireplace destruction of bone with fuzzy boundaries, surrounded by a rim of sclerotic tissue.
E. Homogeneous cell eclipse with clear boundaries;
533.
In operation for osteoma, the operation is in:
A. *Removed formation within healthy tissue;
B. Active smoothing (leveling) deforming area of the jaw;
C. Resect the jaw area within the pathological focus.
D. Removing formation within pathological tissues;
E. Resect the jaw area within the healthy tissue
534.
When there are exostosis, the surgery is in:
A. Removing formation within healthy tissue;
B. *Reservation smoothing (leveling) deforming area of the jaw;
C. Resect the jaw area within the pathological focus.
D. Resect the jaw area within the healthy tissue
E. Removing formation within pathological tissues;
535.
What is the main symptom of the presence of osteoid osteoma of the jaw?
A. Swelling in the localization of the pathological focus;
B. *Pain in the jaw aching character that occurs for no apparent reason, aggravated at night;
C. Limitation of mouth opening;
D. The displacement of the jaw when opening the mouth.
E. Increasing the size of the jaw
536.
The width of the rim of sclerotic bone around an abnormal cell with osteoid osteoma,
has a direct relationship to:
A. Age of the patient;
B. *Duration of the disease;
C. Tumor on the upper or lower jaw;
D. Availability of exacerbation of inflammation;
E. The presence of systemic diseases
537.
To nonosteogenic jaw tumors includes:
A. Osteoblastoma;
B. Osteoid osteoma;
C. Giant cell tumor;
D. *Cementing fibroma;
E. Ossified fibroma.
538.
Osteoblastoma is localized:
A. Only in the thickness of the bone of the jaw;
B. Only on the periphery of the jaw;
C. *As in the bulk and on the periphery of the jaw.
D. In the connective tissue
E. In muscular tissue
539.
Clinical symptoms of osteoblastoma:
A. Aching jaw, aggravated at night;
B. *The mobility of the teeth and the presence of asymmetry of the face;
C. Symptom of parchment crunch at strong set teeth of the jaws;
D. The presence of multiple fistulas on the alveolar process.
E. Presence of fistula
540.
Find radiological description of the cystic forms of osteoblastoma:
A. *Limited thinning of bone tissue with clear boundaries;
B. It has the form of small cavities separated by a bony partitions;
C. Is the focus of intensive uneven darkening with uneven borders;
D. There is a large bone destruction with jagged areas.
E. Limited thinning of bone with fuzzy boundaries in the area of indigenous elite;
541.
Find the description of the collar form of osteoblastoma:
A. Limited thinning of bone tissue with clear boundaries;
B. *Has the form of small cavities separated by a bony partitions;
C. Is the focus of intensive uneven darkening with uneven borders;
D. There is a large bone destruction with jagged areas.
E. Limited thinning of bone tissue with no clear boundaries;
542.
Find the description of the solid forms of osteoblastoma:
A. Limited thinning of bone tissue with clear boundaries;
B. It has the form of small cavities separated by a bony partitions;
C. *Is the focus of intensive uneven darkening with irregular borders;
D. There is a large bone destruction with jagged areas.
E. Limited thinning of bone tissue with no clear boundaries;
543.
Find the description of the lytic form of osteoblastoma:
A. Limited thinning of bone tissue with clear boundaries;
B. It has the form of small cavities separated by a bony partitions;
C. Is the focus of intensive uneven darkening with uneven borders;
D. *Major destruction of bone tissue with jagged areas.
E. Limited thinning of bone tissue with no clear boundaries;
544.
Treatment of osteoblastoma is as follows:
A. Active conservative treatment of tumors;
B. Enucleating (scraping) of tumors;
C. *Performing a resection of the jaw area.
D. Reservation medicamental tumor treatment;
E. Conduct radiotherapy
545.
Synonym of ossified fibroma of the jaw include:
A. Osteoma;
B. Fibroma;
C. *Fibroosteoma;
D. Compact osteoma;
E. Cancellous osteoma.
546.
Clinically ossified fibroma of the jaw occurs as:
A. Osteoma;
B. Fibroma;
C. *Fibrous osteodysplasia;
D. Osteosarcoma;
E. Chondrosarcoma.
547.
Radiological ossified fibroma resembles:
A. *Residual cyst;
B. Spines;
C. Osteosarcoma;
D. Hondrosarcoma;
E. Exostosis.
548.
What is the difference between the X-ray ossified fibroma and fibrous osteodysplasia?
When there is ossified fibroma:
A. *Are focal lesions of the jaw with a clearly defined capsule;
B. There are multiple jaw lesions with distinct borders;
C. There are spicules - bone performances;
D. Must have a sequestration of at least 1 cm;
E. No thinning of bone tissue, but only its seal.
549.
Treatment of the ossified fibroma consists of the following:
A. Always made only with the removal of the tumor capsule by curettage;
B. *Removing the tumor with the capsule through curettage, and at relapse in supra bony
performed resection of the affected area of the jaw;
C. Must be conducted in supra bony resection of the affected area of the jaw;
D. Removing the tumor with curettage of the pathological focus.
E. Conduct conservative treatment
550.
Synonym of osteosarcoma is not:
A. Osteoblastosarkoma;
B. Osteogenic sarcoma;
C. Osteoblastic sarcoma;
D. *Chondrosarcoma;
E. Osteoidsarkoma.
551.
Causes of periodontitis:
A. Aerobic microorganisms
B. Anaerobic microorganisms
C. Mechanical injury
D. Devitalizing means
E. All answers are correct *
552.
Methods of treatment of periodontitis can be divided into the following groups:
A. Conservative
B. Conservative-surgical
C. Surgical
D. All answers are correct *
E. There is no right answer
553.
Acute periodontitis can be:
A. fibrous and serous
B. Serous and purulent *
C. Purulent and granulating
D. Serous and granulomatous
E. granulating and granulomatous.
554.
The phases of the course of acute suppurative periodontitis:
A. endosteal
B. periosteal
C. subperiosteal
D. submucous
E. All answers are correct *
555.
Chronic periodontitis can be:
A. fibrous
B. granulomatous
C. granulating
D. All answers are correct *
E. There is no right answer
556.
Methods of diagnosis of odontogenic sinusitis:
A. Histological examination
B. Microscopic examination
C. X-ray *
D. biopsy
E. Fluorescent diagnostics
557.
Diagnosis of periodontitis:
A. Objective
B. Roentgenologically
C. Objective and radiographically *
D. microscopically
E. Histologically,
558.
By way of penetration periostitis is divided into:
A. Odontogenic
B. Chronic and acute
C. Not odontogenic
D. The correct answers are A and C *
E. Specific and nonspecific
559.
Over the course of the periostitis is divided into:
A. Acute and chronic *
B. Odontogenic and non odontogenic
C. Specific and nonspecific
D. lymphogenous and hematogenous
E. Simple and ossification
560.
Acute suppurative odontogenic periostitis is more common:
A. In newborns
B. At the age of 6-8 years during alternating occlusion *
C. At the age of 18
D. At the age of 25-40 years
E. At the age of 45-60
561.
Sialoadenit this:
A. Inflammation of the parotid gland
B. Inflammation of sublingual salivary gland
C. Inflammation of the salivary glands under the jaw
D. Inflammation of any salivary gland *
E. There is no right answer
562.
To separate nosological forms belong:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Rheumatoid polyarthritis
C. dysenteric polyarthritis
D. Ankylosing spondylitis
E. All answers are correct *
563.
The cause of inflammation in the joint may be:
A. General infection
B. Allergy, auto allergy
C. Local trauma
D. All answers are correct *
E. The local infection
564.
Rheumatoid arthritis is diagnosed by the following criteria:
A. Morning stiffness
B. Radiographic changes of joints
C. Rheumatoid nodules
D. Symmetric arthritis
E. All answers are correct *
565.
The manifestations of suppurative arthritis:
A. General weakness
B. Chills
C. All answers are correct *
D. An increase in temperature
E. swelling of joints
566.
There are following forms of tuberculous arthritis:
A. Primary bone
B. Primary synovial
C. All answers are correct
D. There is no right answer
E. The correct answers are A and B
567.
At the stage of to treating suppurative arthritis prescribe:
A. Infectious Diseases
B. All answers are correct *
C. Endocrine abnormalities
D. metabolic disorders
E. neurodystrophic violation
568.
To the general causes of TMJ osteoarthritis should be included:
A. Infectious Diseases
B. Endocrine disorders
C. metabolic disorders
D. neurodystrophic violation
E. All answers are correct *
569.
Complaints at TMJ arthrosis are:
A. Steady aching pain
B. Dull pain increases with strain on joints
C. The appearance of abnormal noise
D. Crunching, crackling
E. All answers are correct *
570.
In patients with TMJ arthrosis can be identified:
A. Lack of teeth
B. Poor dentures
C. All answers are correct *
D. Incorrect direction of the mandible
E. There is no right answer
571.
Plain radiography of TMJ arthritis reveals changes such as:
A. flattening of the head
B. Reducing the height of the head
C. exophytic growths
D. Changing the shape of the head
E. All answers are correct *
572.
Arthritis is:
A. The inflammatory process in the TMJ *
B. degenerative processes in the TMJ
C. inflammatory and degenerative processes in the TMJ
D. Traumatic process
E. There is no right answer
573.
Dislocation of the mandible can be:
A. Acute and chronic
B. Front and rear
C. Single and double sided
D. Traumatic and congenital
E. All answers are correct *
574.
Who proposed the classification of TMJ disorders and diseases:
A. Petrosov *
B. Bernadsky
C. Malanchuk
D. Timofeev
E. There is no right answer
575.
According to clinical picture arthritis are:
A. Sharp
B. Chronic
C. Chronic in the acute stage
D. Secondary arthritis
E. All answers are correct *
576.
How manifests painful dysfunction of TMJ:
A. pain and joint dysfunction *
B. contracture
C. crunch joint
D. All answers are correct
E. There is no right answer
577.
Artrosonography - is:
A. Ultrasound examination of the joint *
B. Computer joint research
C. Magnetic resonance therapy
D. There is no right answer
E. All answers are correct
578.
Methods of treatment of arthrosis:
A. Drug
B. Physical
C. Orthopaedic
D. Surgical
E. All answers are correct *
579.
Causes of TMJ osteoarthritis:
A. metabolic disorders
B. Neuroendocrine violation
C. Infectious diseases
D. Endocrine disorders
E. All answers are correct *
580.
Classification of arthritis:
A. Acute and chronic
B. Infectious
C. No infectious
D. Traumatic
E. All answers are correct *
581.
What are the forms of tuberculous arthritis:
A. Primary bone
B. Primary synovial
C. Infectious-allergic
D. All answers are correct *
E. There is no right answer
582.
Peryadenit is:
A. Serous inflammation of lymph nodes *
B. Purulent inflammation of the lymph node
C. Serous infiltration of the tissues surrounding the inflamed lymph node
D. There is no right answer
E. All answers are correct
583.
The causes of arthritis:
A. The local infection, traumatic factors, the presence of foci of chronic infection *
B. Dental caries, periodontitis
C. periodontitis, acute infections
D. All answers are correct
E. There is no right answer
584.
Arthritis can be:
A. Gonorrheal arthritis
B. Tuberculous arthritis
C. Infectious-allergic arthritis
D. Rheumatoid Arthritis
E. All answers are correct *
585.
In patients with TMJ arthrosis can be identified:
A. Lack of teeth, bad directions of mandible movement *
B. The presence of teeth
C. Correct directions of movement mandible
D. All answers are correct
E. There is no right answer
586.
Arthritis occurs in people:
A. Young and middle-aged *
B. Older
C. young
D. All answers are correct
E. There is no right answer
587.
Articulation disorders:
A. Inflammatory not inflammatory *
B. External, internal
C. Combination
D. Specific nonspecific
E. There is no right answer
588.
Classification of TMJ diseases:
A. Dislocation of the mandible
B. Arthritis
C. Osteoarthritis
D. ankylosis
E. All answers are correct *
589.
Classification of arthritis by clinical picture:
A. Sharp
B. Chronic
C. Chronic in the acute stage
D. Secondary arthritis
E. All answers are correct *
590.
Osteoarthritis - is:
A. Diseases of the joints noninflammatory nature *
B. Diseases of teeth primary dystrophic character
C. The complex of tissues surrounding the tooth
D. There is no right answer
E. All answers are correct
591.
The joint consists of:
A. Articular head of the mandible, the articular disc
B. articular tubercle of the temporal bone
C. joint capsule and articular connection
D. There is no right answer
E. Articular head of the mandible, glenoid fossa of the temporal bone, articular disc, joint
capsule and articular communications *
592.
Synovial fluid provides the following functions:
A. locomotor, metabolic, trophic, protective *
B. Protective
C. locomotor, trophic
D. Trophic protective
E. There is no right answer
593.
In which directions occur movements in the TMJ:
A. sagittal, vertical
B. vertically, horizontally *
C. transversal, vertical
D. sagittal, horizontal
E. sagittal, horizontal, transversal
594.
Methods of diagnosis of TMJ disease:
A. Radiography, masticatsiography, artrosonography
B. Capillaroscopy, mammography
C. Radiography, artrosonography, MRI, diagnostic and therapeutic arthroscopy *
D. X-ray, MRI, telerentgenography
E. polarography
595.
The accumulation of lymphoid reticular tissue, which has an outer connective tissue
sheath from which to the inside go trabeculaes - is:
A. lymphoid node *
B. Thyroid Gland
C. Thymus
D. Salivary gland
E. All answers are correct
596.
The primary treatment of lymphadenitis should:
A. Removing the source of infection *
B. Antibiotic
C. restorative therapy
D. Phytotherapy
E. desensitizing therapy
597.
Flow of lymphadenitis in elderly people is:
A. slack *
B. express
C. No significant changes
D. All answers are correct
E. There is no right answer
598.
Peryadenit is:
A. Serous inflammation of the lymph node
B. Purulent inflammation of the lymph node
C. Serous infiltration of the tissues surrounding the inflamed lymph node *
D. purulent necrotic melt of tissues
E. There is no right answer
599.
Phlegmonous adenitis is:
A. Serous inflammation of the lymph node
B. Purulent inflammation of the lymph node
C. Serous infiltration of the tissues surrounding the inflammatory lymph node
D. purulent necrotic melt of surrounding tissue
E. Purulent inflammation of the tissues surrounding the inflamed lymph node *
600.
To which joints belongs TMJ:
A. Paired
B. The combined
C. incongruently
D. All answers are correct *
E. Complicated
601.
TMJ include:
A. uniaxial
B. Two axis *
C. Three axial
D. Four axial
E. The five axis
602.
What are the functions of synovial fluid:
A. locomotion
B. metabolic
C. trophic
D. protective
E. All answers are correct *
603.
Width of X-ray joint space in direct monogram is:
A. 2 -3 mm *
B. 10-12 mm
C. 40 - 50
D. 10 - 20 mm
E. Up to 12 mm
604.
How many types of temporomandibular combinations Yu.A.Petrosov highlights:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5 *
605.
What are the types of arthritis:
A. Acute, chronic *
B. Above acute
C. subacute
D. Chronic
E. Inflammatory
606.
One of the best methods for diagnosis of TMJ arthritis is:
A. CT
B. MRI
C. Radiography
D. ultrasonography *
E. Orthopantomography
607.
Not articulation TMJ disorders are:
A. Bruxism *
B. Arthritis
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Ankylosis
E. Osteoarthritis
608.
Articulating TMJ disease are:
A. Inflammatory not inflammatory *
B. Bruxism
C. Contracture of masticatory muscles
D. Pain Syndrome
E. Sinusitis
609.
Common clinical signs of arthritis:
A. The limited mouth opening
B. A large area of irradiation
C. Has the acute onset
D. redness, tightness of the skin
E. All answers are correct *
610.
Patient K., 36, notes stiffness in the TMJ in the morning, which is reduces at evening,
pain in both TMJ, soft tissue swelling around other joints, the presence of subcutaneous
nodes near the elbows joints. What are the likely diagnosis?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis of TMJ *
B. Acute TMJ arthritis
C. Infectious Arthritis TMJ
D. Chronic TMJ arthritis
E. Osteoarthritis, Arthritis TMJ
611.
The patient is 48 years of age with clinical signs of TMJ osteoarthritis addressed a
doctor prosthodontist. Degenerative changes in the joint is best diagnosed by:
A. * tomograms
B. mastikaziograms
C. radiographs
D. electromyogram
E. palpation
612.
Patient G., 45 years addressed to the dentist complaining of recurring displacement of
the mandible, appearing in conversation or a wide opening of the mouth. The displacement
patient eliminates himself by clicking on the chin. What is the diagnosis?
A. * Habitual dislocation of the mandible
B. chronic TMJ arthritis
C. TMJ arthrosis
D. Contracture of the mandible
E. Ankylosis of TMJ
613.
A patient suffers from arthritis, notes joint clicking when opening the mouth. What is
the disease of the patient?
A. Deforming arthrosis
B. Deforming arthritis
C. Fracture of the articular head
D. Acute dislocation
E. * Chronic dislocation
614.
What additional survey methods must be applied to diagnose the disease of TMJ?
A. Mastykatsiography, CT
B. Hnatodynamometry, telerenthenography
C. craniometry, radiography
D. * Radiography, electromyography
E. electromyography gnatodunamometry
615.
On X-ray - uneven expansion of the joint space, due to the presence of fibrous
adhesions. Set the diagnosis.
A. Dislocation of TMJ
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Arthritis
D. * Ankylosis of the right maxillary joint
E. Arthritis of TMJ
616.
Due to which anatomical formation of TMJ is provided compensation of congruence
surfaces and a wide range of movement of the mandible?
A. joint capsule
B. cartilage covering the bone
C. articular fossa
D. Articular hump
E. * Articular disc
617.
On the X-ray - joint space of the temporomandibular joint is not defined. Set the
diagnosis.
A. Arthritis of TMJ
B. TMJ Osteoarthritis
C. Robin Syndrome
D. * TMJ Ankylosis
E. Muscle-articular dysfunction
618.
On the X-ray - uneven expansion of the joint space, due to the presence of fibrous
adhesions. Set the diagnosis.
A. Dislocation of TMJ
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Arthritis
D. Syndrome Kostena
E. * Ankylosis of the right maxillary joint
619.
Ankylosis of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) often occurs on the background of:
A. * TMJ Arthritis
B. Chronic parotitis
C. Benign tumors around the ear area
D. Chronic lymphadenitis around the ear area
E. Phlegmons around the ear area
620.
In the acute phase of traumatic arthritis in the joint, usually is observed:
A. dislocation of Meniscus
B. break external links
C. * hemorrhage
D. diplopia
E. flattening of the articular head
621.
Treatment of TMJ bone ankylosis consists:
A. in redresation
B. in physiotherapy
C. * in artroplastics
D. osteotomy of the mandible
E. in gingivotomy
622.
The cause of specific TMJ arthritis is:
A. * Syphilis
B. Rheumatic attack
C. Around Ear hyperhidrosis
D. Chronic TMJ injury as a result of changes in occlusion
E. There is no right answer
623.
The set of measures in the treatment of chronic nonspecific arthritis of TMJ include:
A. Chemotherapy, acupuncture
B. * Physical therapy, normalization of occlusion, discharge and rest TMJ
C. Physical therapy, mandibular osteotomy, immobilization
D. Physiotherapy, removal of process, discharge and rest TMJ
E. There is no right answer
624.
. Ankylosis of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) often occurs on the background of:
A. * TMJ Arthritis
B. Chronic parotitis
C. Benign tumors around the ear area
D. Chronic lymphadenitis around the ear area
E. Phlegmons around the ear area
625.
Sialoadenit is A. inflammation of the parotid gland
B. inflamed sublingual salivary gland
C. submaxillary salivary gland inflammation
D. * inflammation of any salivary gland
E. no correct answer
626.
Sialoadenit can be?
A. * Acute and chronic
B. granulomatous
C. traumatic, chemical
D. congenital, acquired
E. no correct answer
627.
Character of inflammation at sialoadenit:
A. * serous, purulent
B. granulating, granulomatous
C. genuine, not true
D. all of the correct answer
E. no correct answer
628.
Main method of research at sialoadenits is:
A. CT
B. contrast radiography *
C. puncture
D. Ultrasound - diagnosis
E. no correct answer
629.
Usually hygrostomia accompanied by such diseases:
A. Parkinson's disease
B. lateral sclerosis
C. Infantile cerebral paralysis
D. Epidemic encephalitis
E. *All of the correct answer
630.
What drugs are used in the treatment of hygrostomia:
A. blockers
B. stimulants
C. * with cholinolitic effect
D. diuretic
E. antibiotics
631.
Sublingvitis - is
A. inflammation under mandibular gland
B. inflammation of the parotid gland
C. * sublingual gland inflammation
D. no correct answer
E. any inflammation of salivary glands
632.
Submaxilitis - is
A. * under mandibular gland inflammation
B. inflammation of the parotid gland
C. sublingual gland inflammation
D. no correct answer
E. any inflammation of salivary glands
633.
Acute nonspecific sialoadenit often develops in
A. men
B. women
C. * in children
D. in older people
E. all
634.
What is the upper limit of the zygomatic area?
A. Lower the outer edge of the eye socket *
B. the lower edge of the zygomatic bone
C. The lower edge of the mandible
D. zygomatic-mandibular joint
E. temporo-zygomatic suture
635.
An important feature of abscesses are
A. fluctuation *
B. symptom "parchment crunch"
C. redness, swelling
D. presence of purulent exudate
E. no correct answer
636.
The main source of infection of buccal area, is a pathological process that occurs in:
A. premolars and molars of the upper, lower jaw *
B. mandibular premolars
C. incisors and canines of the lower jaw
D. molars of the upper jaw
E. maxillary premolars
637.
On what complain patients with phlegmon of buccal area?
A. on pain in the cheeks
B. The pain is worse when chewing, mouth opening
C. The swelling in the cheek area
D. All answers are correct
E. no correct answer
638.
What anatomical formation is in the parotid-masticatory area?
A. parotid *
B. Fordyce granules
C. Submandibular gland
D. triangle of Pirogov
E. all the answers are correct
639.
. With what disease is a differential diagnosis of phlegmon behind the jaw area
conducted?
A. acute parotitis *
B. otitis
C. lymphadenitis
D. tumors of the salivary glands
E. no correct answer
640.
What method of instrumental diagnosis is most advisable to assign diagnosis sialosis
with lesions of the left parotid gland?
A. * Sialography
B. X-ray
C. biopsy
D. Direct laryngoscopy
E. otoscope
641.
Contrast of parenchymal sialoadenit is characterized by:
A. extension of the main duct
B.
C.
D.
E.
narrowing of the ducts of all orders
* multiple cavities in the gland
ampoule extension ducts II-III order
curling of ducts
642.
Sialoz whose origin is not related to the classification of sialozis by A.M.Solntsevym?
A. endocrine
B. neurogenic
C. associated with malnutrition (nutritional)
D. mixed
E. * neuro-reflex
643.
The main clinical sign of calculous sialoadenit is:
A. pain in the gland
B. hyposalivation
C. hygrostomia
D. * salivary colic
E. inflammation of the duct
644.
The clinical picture of acute sialoadenit is characterized by:
A. Albright syndrome
B. minor sealing of gland
C. * pain, increased gland, hypo salivation
D. pain, decrease gland, hygrostomia
E. noise in the ears
645.
Saliva at acute sialoadenit is:
A. clear, viscous
B. transparent liquid
C. * turbid, viscous
D. turbid, liquid
E. absent
646.
Treatment of acute sialoadenit consists of:
A. disclosure of the source of inflammation
B. remove the affected gland
C. decrease in salivation, removing inflammation
D. * to stimulate salivation, removing inflammation
E. massages
647.
Leading role in the development of chronic sialoadenit plays:
A. acute stomatitis
B. Albright syndrome
C. reflex hygrostomia
D. reduction of secretory function
E. disease Mikulich
648.
What complications can occur at phlegmon of temporal area?
A. * brain abscess, meningitis
B. necrosis of bone and soft tissue
C. asphyxia, trauma of salivary glands
D. odontogenic sinusitis
E. E.sepsys, pneumonia
649.
Patient has painful and limited opening of the mouth, headache, body temperature 38
C. Mouth opening 1cm, smoothing and soreness of the mucous membrane of the upper jaw
behind the hill. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Phlegmon of temporal area
B. V. * Phlegmon of infratemporal area
C. S. Acute suppurative periostitis of the upper jaw
D. Phlegmon of zygomatic area
E. Phlegmon of wing-mandibular space.
650.
At the man left cheek swelling, feeling of fever. In the area of hillof left maxilla is
noted dense infiltrate painful, the skin is tight, painful, the fold is not taken. The mouth
hardly opens. Radiating pain in the head, the eye. 27 tooth is destroyed. For what disease is
characterized this clinic?
A. Phlegmon of temporal area.
B. * Phlegmon of infratemporal and wing-palatine fossa.
C. Phlegmon of cheek.
D. Phlegmon of around the pharyngeal space.
E. Phlegmon of wing-mandibular space
651.
What cut is made at phlegmon of subcutaneous fat in the upper buccal area?
A. * skin incision is carried along the nasolabial fold
B. cut in submandibular area along the lower edge of the jaw
C. in the lower part of near ear- chewing area
D. submandibular area parallel and lower to the edge of the jaw
E. along transitional fold.
652.
What are the limits of parotid-masticatory area?
A. * front, upper, lower, external and internal
B. lower, medial, upper, and back
C. distal and medial
D. the upper and lower
E. vestibular and oral
653.
Phlegmon is?
A. * Extensive purulent infiltration at which fluid is distributed diffusely between tissue
structures, layering them. In some cases, under the action of proteolytic enzymes tissues
melte (soft phlegmon), others are exposed only to necrosis (solid phlegmon).
B. called limited purulent fusion fiber.
C. Inflammation of the lymph node is often associated with lymphangitis
D. folding protective reaction to the action of harmful agents
E. process of recovering lost or damaged body structures
654.
Paramedic suspected in a patient bilateral sinusitis. What auxiliary examination
methods should be conducted to establish the diagnosis?
A. * Radiography of nasal sinuses
B. fluorography of the chest cavity
C. Faryngography
D. otoscope
E. laryngoscopy
655.
To patient, 35 years old by addressing to the clinic was diagnosed acute odontogenic
purulent sinusitis. Your tactics
A. * admissions to hospital treatment
B. Anti-inflammatory treatment
C. Maxillary sinus puncture C.
D. D. Physiotherapy
E. Removal of tooth
656.
Name a symptom, not characteristic for purulent sinusitis:
A. Headache
B. nasal excretion
C. pain in the maxillary sinus
D. * behind mandibular lymphadenitis
E. purulent character excretion
657.
How many centimeters need to step back from the front edge of the inferior turbinate
during the puncture of the maxillary sinus? :
A. 0,5 cm;
B. 1,0-1,5 cm;
C. * 2,0-2,5 cm;
D. D.3 ,0-3, 5 cm;
E. 4,0-4,5 cm
658.
Inflammation of the maxillary sinus is not transferred to:
A. infratemporal fossa;
B. Pterygoid- palatal fossa;
C. buccal region;
D. * pterygoid-mandibular space
E. orbit.
659.
At acute sinusitis is an increase of infrared radiation in the pathological lesion on:
A. 0,5 degrees;
B. 0,5-1,0 degrees;
C. * 1,5-2,5 degrees;
D. 3,0-4,0 degrees;
E. No marked increase.
660.
What are the walls of the maxillary sinus that mainly are affected by odontogenic
chronic sinusitis?:
A. The medial, anterior and upper;
B. The back, upper and lower;
C. * The bottom, front and exterior;
D. Lower, anterior and medial;
E. The back, front and bottom;
661.
Odontogenic reason for the development of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue is an
inflammatory process in the
A. Upper lip
B. * teeth of lower jaw
C. teeth of the upper jaw
D. lymph nodes buccal region
E. lymph nodes of the parotid region
662.
The most common reason for not odontogenic abscess and phlegmon of the tongue is
A. * Trauma of the tongue
B. Furuncle of lower lip
C. Lymphadenitis buccal region
D. Limphadenitis parotid region
E. Acute periodontitis of teeth of the lower jaw
663.
The most common reason for not odontogenic abscess and phlegmon of of the tongue
is
A. * Acute tonsillitis
B. Furuncle of lower lip
C. Lymphadenitis buccal region
D. Limphadenitis parotid region
E. Acute periodontitis of teeth of the lower jaw
664.
Typical clinical signs of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue is
A. Asymmetry of face
B. Difficulty opening the mouth
C. Swelling of the pterygo-mandibular folds
D. * bulging of hyoid rollers
E. Swelling and redness of buccal regions
665.
Typical clinical signs of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue is
A. Asymmetry of face
B. * Edema and infiltration of the tongue
C. Difficulty opening the mouth
D. Swelling of the pterygo-mandibular folds
E. Swelling and redness of buccal regions
666.
Select 2 of the following signs of upper part of the tongue phlegmon
A. Paresthesia tip of the tongue
B. Speech disorders
C. Difficulty in breathing
D. Pain when eating
E. * The correct answers are C and D
667.
Typical clinical signs of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue is
A. Asymmetry of face
B. * Pain when swallowing
C. Difficulty opening the mouth
D. Swelling of the pterygo-mandibular folds
E. Swelling and redness buccal regions
668.
Typical clinical signs of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue is
A. Asymmetry of face
B. * Difficulty breathing
C. Difficulty opening the mouth
D. Swelling of the pterygo-mandibular folds
E. Swelling and redness buccal regions
669.
The main way of infection in the body of the tongue is
A. * Contact
B. hematogenous
C. lymphogenous
D. Odontogenic
E. Rhinogenous
670.
The most characteristic to the tongue phlegmons are following set of features
A. * Increasing the size of the tongue; limited mobility of tongue; mouth half open; sharp pain
radiating; difficulty swallowing and breathing
B. Acute onset
C. Destroyed molar
D. Fever
E. infiltrate between the tongue and the body of the mandible; Pain during movement of the
tongue
671.
Abscess and phlegmon of the tongue must be differentiated
A. With trismus
B. With carbuncle of lower lip
C. With phlegmon buccal region
D. * With phlegmon floor of the mouth
E. With phlegmon temporal region
672.
In an unfavorable course of the abscess and phlegmon of the tongue infection spreads
A. * In tissue floor of the mouth
B. In the subdural space
C. In the parotid salivary gland
D. In the pterygo-palatine venous plexus
E. In the venous sinuses of the brain
673.
In an unfavorable course of the abscess and phlegmon of the tongue infection spreads
A. In the subdural space
B. In the parotid salivary gland
C. * In the submandibular region
D. In the pterygo-palatine venous plexus
E. In the venous sinuses of the brain
674.
On the day of treatment at an abscess and phlegmon of the tongue must
A. * Disclose septic foci
B. Start acupuncture
C. Make novocaine blockade
D. Approve physiotherapy
E. Enter intramuscular respiratory analeptics
675.
Typical operational access in the treatment of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue is
cut
A. What goes around the angle of the mandible
B. * In the area under the chin in the midline
C. mucosa by pterygo- mandibular fold
D. In the submandibular region along the edge of the mandible
E. Along the edge of the lower jaw curved shape from corner to corner
676.
Doing intraoral incision in the treatment of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue can
damage
A. zygomatic bone
B. facial artery
C. * lingual artery
D. thyroid
E. parotid glands
677.
Doing intraoral incision in the treatment of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue can
damage
A. zygomatic bone
B. facial artery
C. thyroid
D. parotid glands
E. * submandibular salivary gland
678.
Local complications of phlegmon and abscess of the tongue is
A. meningoencephalitis
B. Brain abscess
C. Cicatricial eversion of lower lip
D. * Stenosis of the upper respiratory tract
E. Thrombosis of venous sinuses of the brain
679.
In the complex treatment of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue enters
A. Cryotherapy
B. * physiotherapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Radiology
E. Eelectrocoagulation
680.
In the complex treatment of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue enters
A. Radiotherapy
B. Seductive therapy
C. Manual therapy
D. antihypertensive therapy
E. * desensitizing therapy
681.
In the complex treatment of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue enters
A. Cryotherapy
B. physiotherapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Radiology
E. * Eelectro coagulation
682.
In the complex treatment of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue enters
A. Radiotherapy
B.
C.
D.
E.
Sedatyvnaya therapy
Manual therapy
antihypertensive therapy
* desensitizing therapy
683.
In the complex treatment of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue enters
A. Cryotherapy
B. physiotherapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Radiology
E. * Eelectrocoagulation
684.
In the complex treatment of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue enters
A. Radiotherapy
B. Seductive therapy
C. Manual therapy
D. antihypertensive therapy
E. * desensitizing therapy
685.
Pathogens at phlegmon of around pharyngeal space is often
A. Anaerobes
B. luminous fungi
C. treponema pallidum
D. * Staphylococci, streptococci
E. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
686.
Abscess and phlegmon of the tongue must be differentiated
A. With trismus
B. With carbuncle of lower lip
C. With phlegmon buccal region
D. * With phlegmon floor of the mouth
E. With phlegmon temporal region
687.
In an unfavorable course of the abscess and phlegmon of the tongue infection spreads
A. * In tissue of the mouth floor
B. In the subdural space
C. In the parotid salivary gland
D. In the pterygo-palatine venous plexus
E. In the venous sinuses of the brain
688.
In an unfavorable course of the abscess and phlegmon of the tongue infection spreads
A. In the subdural space
B. In the parotid salivary gland
C. * In the submandibular region
D. In the pterygo-palatine venous plexus
E. In the venous sinuses of the brain
689.
On the day of treatment at abscess and phlegmon of the tongue must
A. * Disclose septic foci
B. Start acupuncture
C. Make novocaine blockade
D. Approve physiotherapy
E. Enter intramuscular respiratory analeptics
690.
Doing intraoral incision in the treatment of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue can
damage
A. zygomatic bone
B. facial artery
C. * lingual artery
D. thyroid
E. parotid glands
691.
Doing intraoral incision in the treatment of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue can
damage
A. zygomatic bone
B. facial artery
C. thyroid
D. parotid glands
E. * submandibular salivary gland
692.
Local complications of phlegmon and abscess of the tongue is
A. meningoencephalitis
B. Brain abscess
C. Cicatricial eversion of lower lip
D. * Stenosis of the upper respiratory tract
E. Thrombosis of venous sinuses of the brain
693.
In the complex treatment of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue enters
A. Cryotherapy
B. * physiotherapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Radiology
E. Eelektro coagulation
694.
In the complex treatment of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue enters
A. Radiotherapy
B. Sedative Therapy
C. Manual therapy
D. antihypertensive therapy
E. * desensitizing therapy
695.
In the complex treatment of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue enters
A. Cryotherapy
B. physiotherapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Radiology
E. * Eelektro coagulation
696.
In the complex treatment of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue enters
A. Radiotherapy
B. Sedative Therapy
C. Manual therapy
D. antihypertensive therapy
E. * desensitizing therapy
697.
Pathogens at around pharyngeal space phlegmon is often
A. Anaerobes
B. luminous fungi
C. treponema pallidum
D. * Staphylococci, streptococci
E. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
698.
Odontogenic reason for the development of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue is an
inflammatory process in the
A. Upper lip
B. * teeth of lower jaw
C. teeth of the upper jaw
D. lymph nodes buccal region
E. lymph nodes of the parotid region
699.
The most common reason for not odontogenic abscess and phlegmon of of the tongue
is
A. * Trauma of the tongue
B. Furuncle of lower lip
C. Lymphadenitis buccal region
D. Limphadenitis parotid region
E. Acute periodontitis of teeth of the lower jaw
700.
The most common reason for not odontogenic abscess and phlegmon of of the tongue
is
A. * Acute tonsillitis
B. Furuncle of lower lip
C. Lymphadenitis buccal region
D. Limphadenitis parotid region
E. Acute periodontitis of teeth of the lower jaw
701.
Typical clinical signs of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue is
A. Asymmetry of face
B. Difficulty opening the mouth
C. Swelling of the pterygo-mandibular folds
D. * bulging of hyoid rollers
E. Swelling and redness of buccal regions
702.
Typical clinical signs of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue is
A. Asymmetry of face
B. * Edema and infiltration of the tongue
C. Difficulty opening the mouth
D. Swelling of the pterygo-mandibular folds
E. Swelling and redness of buccal regions
703.
Typical clinical signs of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue is
A. Asymmetry of face
B. * Pain when swallowing
C. Difficulty opening the mouth
D. Swelling of the pterygo-mandibular folds
E. Swelling and redness of buccal regions
704.
The complex treatment of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue includes
A. Cryotherapy
B. * physiotherapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Radiology
E. Eelektro coagulation
705.
The complex treatment of abscess and phlegmon of the tongue includes
A. Radiotherapy
B. Sedative Therapy
C. Manual therapy
D. antihypertensive therapy
E. * desensitizing therapy
706.
Features characteristic of the history around phlegmon pharyngeal space is
A. Acute onset
B. Difficulty chewing
C. * Right A, D, E
D. Limitation of mouth opening
E. Pain when swallowing
707.
Signs characteristic of anamnesis around pharyngeal space phlegmon is
A. Acute onset
B. Difficulty chewing
C. * Right A, D, E
D. Limitation of mouth opening
E. Pain when swallowing
708.
Not odontogenic reason for the development of around the pharyngeal space abscess is
A. * Acute tonsillitis
B. Furuncle of upper lip
C. Lymphadenitis buccal region
D. Limphadenitis parotid region
E. Acute periodontitis third molars of the upper jaw
709.
Odontogenic cause for the development of an around the pharyngeal space abscess is
A. Acute tonsillitis
B. Limphadenitis buccal region
C. Lymphadenitis parotid region
D. * Acute periodontitis molars of the upper and lower jaw
E. Acute periodontitis incisors of the upper and lower jaw
710.
Typical clinical signs of an abscess around the pharyngeal space is
A. Asymmetry of face
B. * Difficulty swallowing
C. Difficulty opening the mouth
D. Sublingual ridges bulging
E. Swelling and redness buccal regions
711.
Typical clinical signs of around the pharyngeal space abscess is
A. Asymmetry of face
B. * Difficulty swallowing
C. Difficulty opening the mouth
D. bulging of hyoid rollers
E. Swelling and redness buccal regions
712.
Phlegmon of around pharyngeal space should be differentiated from the following
diseases
A. * With all listed below
B. With the angina
C. With the abscess pterygoid-mandibular space
D. With the around the pharyngeal space abscess
E. With the phlegmon pterygoid-mandibular space
713.
On the day of treatment at an abscess around the pharyngeal space must
A. * Disclose septic foci
B. Start acupuncture
C. Make novocaine blockade
D. Approve physiotherapy
E. Enter intramuscular respiratory analeptics
714.
Doing intraoral incision in the treatment of an abscess around the pharyngeal space
may be damaged
A. zygomatic bone
B. lingual artery
C. thyroid
D. * The internal carotid artery
E. parotid artery
715.
Doing intraoral incision in the treatment of an abscess around the pharyngeal space
may be damaged
A. Angular vein
B. facial vein
C. lingual artery
D. thyroid
E. * The internal jugular vein
716.
Early local complications of around the pharyngeal space abscess is
A. salivary fistula
B. Brain abscess
C. Cicatricial eversion of the lower lip
D. * Stenosis of the upper respiratory tract
E. Thrombosis of the sinuses of brain
717.
The complex treatment of an abscess around the pharyngeal space includes
A. Cryotherapy
B. Chemotherapy
C. * physiotherapy
D. Radiology
E. Electro coagulation
718.
The complex treatment of an abscess around the pharyngeal space includes
A. * HBO-therapy
B. Cryotherapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Radiology
E. Electro coagulation
719.
The complex treatment of an abscess around the pharyngeal space includes
A. Radiotherapy
B. Sedative Therapy
C. Manual therapy
D. antihypertensive therapy
E. * Detoxication therapy
720.
The complex treatment of an abscess around the pharyngeal space includes
A. Radiotherapy
B. Sedative Therapy
C. Manual therapy
D. antihypertensive therapy
E. * Antibiotic Therapy
721.
Pathogens at Ludwig angina are
A. treponema pallidum
B. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
C. Staphylococci, streptococci
D. luminous fungi, staphylococci
E. * facultative anaerobes, hemolytic streptococcus
722.
Not odontogenic cause for the development of Ludwig angina is an inflammatory
process in the
A. Upper lip
B. * tonsils
C. teeth of the upper jaw
D. lymph nodes buccal region
E. lymph nodes of the parotid region
723.
Ludwig's angina affects cellular spaces of
A. Canine fossa
B. Buccal area
C. temporal region
D. parotid-masticatory area
E. * Around the pharyngeal space
724.
Ludwig's angina affects cellular spaces
A. Canine fossa
B. Buccal area
C. temporal region
D. parotid-masticatory area
E. * pterygoid-mandibular space
725.
A characteristic feature of the clinical picture of Ludwig angina is a lesion
A. In the temporal and infratemporal regions
B. temporal, buccal area and Canine fossa
C. * In all cellular spaces of the mouth floor
D. Pterygoid-palatal, temporal and infratemporal regions
E. Pterygoid-palatal, temporal, infratemporal and pterygoid-mandibular areas
726.
A characteristic feature of the clinical picture of Ludwig angina is
A. * Severe intoxication
B. Absence of intoxication
C. Having clear boundaries inflammatory infiltrate
D. limited inflammatory infiltrate of the tongue root
E. Poured inflammatory infiltrate Pterygoid-palatal, temporal, and infratemporal and pterygoidmandibular areas
727.
A characteristic feature of the clinical picture of Ludwig angina is
A. Free mouth opening
B. * Difficulty breathing and mouth opening
C. Absence of intoxication and fever
D. Having clear boundaries inflammatory infiltrate
E. Poured inflammatory infiltrate Pterygoid-palatal, temporal, and infratemporal and pterygoidmandibular areas
728.
In an unfavorable course of Ludwig angina infection spreads
A. * In the mediastinum
B. In the parotid salivary gland
C. In the venous sinuses of the brain
D. In the pterygoid-palatine venous plexus
E. In the temporal region
729.
On the day of treatment in Ludwig angina it is necessary to
A. * Disclose septic foci
B. Start acupuncture
C. Make anesthetic blockade
D. Approve physiotherapy
E. Enter intramuscular respiratory analeptics
730.
In an unfavorable course of Ludwig angina early local complication is
A. Xerostomia
B. salivary fistula
C. Cicatricial contracture
D. Paralysis of the facial nerve
E. * Stenosis of the upper respiratory tract
731.
In an unfavorable course of Ludwig angina early local complication is
A. * mediastenit
B. Xerostomia
C. Salivary fistula
D. Scar contracture
E. Paralysis of the facial nerve
732.
The complex treatment of Ludwig angina includes
A. * HBO-therapy
B. Cryotherapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Radiology
E. Eelektro coagulation
733.
The complex treatment of Ludwig angina includes
A. Radiotherapy
B. Sedative Therapy
C. Manual therapy
D. antihypertensive therapy
E. * Antibiotic Therapy
734.
The complex treatment of Ludwig angina includes
A. Radiotherapy
B. Sedative Therapy
C. Manual therapy
D. antihypertensive therapy
E. * Detoxication therapy
735.
Functional disorders in Ludwig angina are
A. In ptosis
B. In hyposalivation
C. In the lingual nerve paresis
D. * In difficulty swallowing and breathing
E. In paresis of the third branch of the trigeminal nerve
736.
What form of inflammation predominates by phlegmonous processes in the soft
tissues?
A. exudative serous.
B. exudative fibrous.
C. exudative hemorrhagic.
D. exudative putrefactive.
E. * exudative purulent.
737.
Antagonists of lincomycin is
A. kanamycin
B. Ampicillin
C. Penicillin
D. * Erythromycin
E. oxacillin
738.
After the examination the patient N., 46 years old, diagnosed: Phlegmon of root of the
tongue. The patient was hospitalized in the maxillofacial department. What is the best
operational access to dissection of phlegmon of the tongue root?
A. intraoral access.
B. neck shaped incision in the submental and submandibular triangle.
C. * The vertical incision in the midline of the neck.
D. Section of submandibular triangle.
E. incision that follows the line of the angle of the mandible.
739.
Typical clinical sign of an abscess of around the pharyngeal space is
A. Asymmetry of face
B. * Shortness of breath
C. Difficulty opening the mouth
D. bulging of sublingual ridges
E. Swelling and redness of buccal regions
740.
When is manifested early radiological signs of destructive odontogenic osteomyelitis?
A. On the 1st 2nd day
B. On the 3-4th day
C. * On 15-20th day
D. On the 30th 40th day
E. On the 50th day
741.
What is the cause of traumatic osteomyelitis?
A. Age of the patient
B. Acute lymphadenitis
C. Injury by badly manufactured prosthesis
D. * A tooth or tooth root in fracture line
E. There is no right answer
742.
What is the cause of traumatic osteomyelitis of the jaws?
A. Age of the patient
B. Acute lymphadenitis
C. Injury by badly manufactured prosthesis
D. * Poor reposition and immobilization of fragments
E. There is no right answer
743.
What is the method of prevention of posttraumatic osteomyelitis of the jaws?
A. Physiotherapy
B. Temporary immobilization of fragments
C. Deferred immobilization of fragments
D. D * Tooth or tooth root of the fracture line
E. There is no right answer
744.
What methods of prevention of posttraumatic osteomyelitis of the jaws?
A. Physiotherapy
B. Temporary immobilization of fragments
C. Deferred immobilization of fragments
D. * Early and reliable immobilization of fragments
E. There is no right answer
745.
Methods of prevention of posttraumatic osteomyelitis of the jaws?
A. Physiotherapy
B. * Deferred immobilization of fragments
C. desensitizing treatment
D. oral hygiene before the immobilization of fragments
E. There is no right answer
746.
What is the surgical treatment of chronic posttraumatic osteomyelitis of the jaws?
A. removing the sequestration
B. In the revision of the bone wound
C. In reposition and fixation of bone fragments
D. * In the revision of the bone wound sequestration removal, excision of the fistula
E. There is no right answer
747.
In secondary syphilis which laboratory tests have diagnostic value?
A. * MPC, reaction Vasermana
B. Cytological
C. Haematology
D. HbS-antigen
E. Histological
748.
The patient has hyperemic facial skin on the skin of the forehead, nose and temples
detected granulomas, up to 1 cm in diameter, soft, sharply painful. At their autopsy was
received sanious content that was directed to the study. What cells found cytologist?
A. * Pirogov- Langerhans cells
B. Red blood cells, white blood cells
C. Leukocytes in the entire field of view
D. Cells Berezovsky-Shtenberha
E. Pro lymphocytes, lymphocytes
749.
After which time occurs sequestration of the outer walls of the alveoli of the upper
teeth?
A. 1-2 weeks.
B. * 3-4 weeks.
C. 5-6 weeks.
D. 6-7 weeks.
E. 7-8 weeks.
750.
After which time occures sequestration of cortical areas of the mandible body in
chronic osteomyelitis of the jaws?
A. 1-2 weeks.
B. 3-4 weeks.
C. 5-6 weeks.
D. * 6-7 weeks.
E. 7-8 weeks.
751.
What processes take place in bone tissue at chronic osteomyelitis of the jaws?
A. * The formation of new bone tissue
B. Lysis of bone
C. The excessive formation of connective tissue
D. Excessive bone calcination
E. All answers are correct
752.
What areas of the maxilla most rapidly get sequestrated?
A. alveolar process and body of the jaw
B. Body of the jaw
C. * alveolar process
D. Branches of jaw
E. Angle of jaw
753.
Often mandibular sequestration runs in:
A. * alveolar process and body of the jaw
B. Body of the jaw
C. alveolar process
D. Branches of jaw
E. Angle of jaw
754.
Which of the following refers to the clinical signs of chronic osteomyelitis?
A. The presence of fistulas
B. The presence of hyperemia of the mucous membrane
C. oozing pus and granulation of fistula
D. mobility of the group of teeth
E. * All answers are correct
755.
Serological testing for actinomycosis is based on:
A. complement fixation
B. * Use of aktinolizate
C. Counting the number of leukocytes in the saliva
D. Definition of lisozym
E. Counting the ratio of white blood cells and red blood cells
756.
At chronic osteomyelitis in the blood increases dramatically contents
A. Erythrocytes
B. * Lymphocytes
C. Leukocyte
D. thrombocytes
E. eosinophils
757.
What are the clinical signs characteristic of hyperostosis form of chronic
osteomyelitis?
A. Absence of fistula
B. Absence of sequestration
C. Swollen lymph nodes
D. The normal condition of the soft tissues
E. * All answers are correct
758.
What are the clinical signs characteristic of hyperostosis form of chronic
osteomyelitis?
A. Absence of fistula
B. Absence of sequestration
C. Swollen lymph nodes
D. The normal condition of the soft tissues
E. * All answers are correct
759.
Operative access during sequestrectomy on the upper jaw:
A. intraoral
B. extraoral
C. * intraoral combined with maxillary sinusotomy
D. There is no right answer
E. All answers are correct
760.
Operative access during sequestrectomy on the lower jaw:
A. intraoral
B. * extraoral
C. Intraoral combined with maxillary sinusotomy
D. There is no right answer
E. All answers are correct
761.
What drugs are introduced into the bone cavity after removal of its sequestration?
A. Antiviral
B. Immunomodulators
C. Anti-inflammatory
D. * Antibiotics
E. No correct answers
762.
During sequestrectomy granulation tissue that covers the bone cavity walls:
A. Is removed completely
B. Removed on ½
C. Removed on 2/3
D. * Is not removed at all
E. There is no right answer
763.
What is the treatment of chronic osteomyelitis hyperostosis form?
A. In conducting sequestrectomy
B. In conducting a strong antibiotic
C. * In conducting specific immunotherapy
D. In conducting sequestrectomy combined with maxillary sinusotomy
E. All answers are correct
764.
Patient N., 49 years on the oral mucosa and on the side of the tongue ulcer rounded,
painless, up to 0.7 cm with smooth edges, with smooth surface and cartilage-like basis. Your
diagnosis
A. Cancer
B. Tuberculosis
C. Actinomycosis
D. * Syphilis
E. Thrombophlebitis
765.
Patient B., 22 years was diagnosed with secondary syphilis. What are the typical
symptoms for this disease?
A. papules or pustules
B. chancre
C. ulcers
D. * Availability of roseola, papules
E. gummatous formation
766.
Sequestrectomy period shown after?
A. physiotherapy
B. bone wound fester
C. * formation of sequestration
D. antibiotic therapy
E. anti-inflammatory therapy
767.
Odontogenic chronic osteomyelitis develops:
A. more often on the lower jaw
B. * more on the upper jaw
C. common on both jaws
D. No patterns in the frequency of damage
E. does not occur in the jaw bones
768.
Odontogenic chronic osteomyelitis rarely develops on the upper jaw, mainly due to the
fact that:
A. Jaw rarely is damaged acute odontogenic octeomiyelitom
B. * Roots "of causal" tooth separated from soft tissue with thin cortical plate
C. It has a good blood supply
D. It consists mainly of spongy bone substance
E. There is no right answer
769.
Diagnosis: "Odontogenic chronic osteomyelitis" refers to the basis of:
A. biochemical examination
B. immunological examination
C. * X-ray examination
D. Clinical examination
E. cytologic examination
770.
Indications to sequestrectomy are:
A. The absence of temperature reaction
B. The term of onset,
C. The presence of fistulas with purulent discharge
D. * Roentgenologically-availability of sequestration
E. Clinical signs
771.
Necro sequestrectomy carried out in the presence of:
A. * Roentgenologically detected sequestration
B. Roentgenologically revealed sequestration associated with maternal bone
C. Roentgenologically detected bone destruction demarcated sequestration
D. . X-ray picture does not matter
E. . Based on laboratory methods of examination
772.
Necro sequestrectomy consists of:
A. A. The wide soft tissue dissection and exposure of the damaged area of bone
B. Dissection of the fistula
C. Removal of sequestration and washing of sequestered capsules
D. * Delete sequestration and curettage sequestered cavity
E. Washing sequestered capsules
773.
In a patient during 6 months appeared stiffness in the right temporomandibular joint.
pain in the joint increased after hypothermia, after a long conversation, or at the end of the
day. Sometimes there is a crunch in the joint. What is the diagnosis in this case?
A. * Chronic arthritis.
B. Osteoarthritis.
C. Pain dysfunction of joint.
D. Acute arthritis.
E. arthroso -arthritis
774.
Patient H, 59 years old complains of stiffness in left temporomandibular joint in the
morning, as well as paresthesia of the mouth on the left. During the day the mobility of the
mandible grows. To what disease these symptoms are most characteristic?
A. * Osteoarthritis.
B. Pain dysfunction of joint.
C. acute arthritis.
D. Chronic arthritis.
E. arthroso-arthritis.
775.
In injured bilateral dislocation of the temporomandibular joint. What main joint
ligaments will be damaged?
A. * Lateral
B. Internal
C. pterygoid-palatal
D. pterygoid-mandibular
E. Intraarticular
776.
Mandibular (articular) fossa of the temporal bone distinguishable from the front:
A. *front edge of rocky-tympanic fissure
B. articular tubercle
C. articular fossa
D. zygomatic processus
E. sphenoid bone
777.
Which anatomical formation of temporomandibular joint provides compensation for
congruence surfaces and a wide range of jaw movements?
A. * Articular disc
B. the joint capsule
C. Cartilage cover joint
D. articular fossa
E. Articular tubercle
778.
Girl 15 years, complains of crunching in the left TMJ, stiffness in it in the morning.
Sick for 3 years. OBJECTIVE: symmetrical face. Palpation of TMJ causes no pain. Opening
of the mouth is accompanied by crepitus in the left joint, deviation of the chin to the left.
Assign the appropriate method for further examination:
A. * TMJ CT
B. Orthopantomography
C. Radiography half of the mandible in lateral projection
D. MRT
E. Plain radiography of the skull in front of the projection
779.
Patient 27 years old complaints of acute pain in both TMJ, which increases during jaw
movements. Pain extends to ear. Mouth opening is limited to 0.3-0.5 cm in the patient's
general malaise. There is swelling of the tissues around the joint. When you press a hand to
chin pain increases sharply. On Rtg no change.
A. * Acute arthritis.
B. Chronic traumatic arthritis.
C. Rheumatoid arthritis.
D. fibrous ankylosis of the left TMJ.
E. Bone ankylosis of the left TMJ.
780.
Patient 21 years old complains of morning stiffness and mild pain in the TMJ, which
increases during the movements of the jaw, the emergence of "crunch" with a headache. Face
is symmetric. Palpation of the joints and tragus of ear a little painful. The pain is worse when
touching the chin. On X-ray uneven expansion of joint space. The patient has:
A. * Chronic arthritis.
B. Acute arthritis.
C. Osteoarthritis.
D. Rheumatoid arthritis.
E. Rheumatoid arthritis.
781.
On examination, the patient 45 years old was observed asymmetry of the face. On the
right side in the area of TMJ soft tissues of the cheeks have plump look. And on the healthy
side look flat. Middle line of chin and incisive of mandible are shifted to the right side. The
patient can not open his mouth. Patient has:
A. * Unilateral ankylosis.
B. Bilateral ankylosis.
C. Arthritis.
D. Osteoarthritis.
E. arthrosis-arthritis.
782.
Sharp dehydration at phlegmon of the mouth floor promotes:
A. electrolyte imbalance
B. Changes in the blood coagulation system
C. Increased diuresis
D. Renal failure
E. * Inability of fluid intake because of the dramatic swelling and pain in the tongue and floor of
the mouth
783.
Operative access in the treatment of phlegmon of the mouth floor consists in the cut
that goes:
A. In the area of the chin
B. What goes around the angle of the mandible
C. mucosa by pterygoid-mandibular fold
D. In the submaxillary area along the edge of the mandible
E. * Along the edge of the lower jaw curved shape from corner to corner
784.
Doing incision in the treatment of phlegmon of the mouth floor may be damaged:
A. Tongue
B. zygomatic bone
C. * facial artery
D. thyroid
E. parotid glands
785.
Doing incision in the treatment of phlegmon of the mouth floor may be damaged:
A. Tongue
B. zygomatic bone
C. N. facialis
D. parotid glands
E. * submandibular salivary gland
786.
When unfavorable course of phlegmon of the mouth floor infection spreads:
A. In the mediastinum
B. In the subdural space
C. In the parotid salivary gland
D. * In pterygo-palatine venous plexus
E. In the venous sinuses of the brain
787.
Local complications of phlegmon of the mouth floor are:
A. * mediastinitis
B. meningoencephalitis
C. Brain abscess
D. Cicatricial underside of the upper lip
E. Thrombosis of venous sinuses of the brain
788.
The complex treatment of phlegmon of the mouth floor include:
A. Cryotherapy
B. Chemotherapy
C. * Physiotherapy
D. Radiology
E. Electro coagulation
789.
Cut at phlegmon of the mouth floor is sufficient if it is made:
A. In the place of fluctuation
B. In the projection of the tongue
C. On the verge of skin hyperemia
D. * the entire width of infiltration
E. In the most painful place
790.
The complex treatment of phlegmon of the mouth floor include:
A. Radiation
B. Sedative
C. Manual
D. Hypotensive
E. * desensitizing
791.
The complex treatment of phlegmon of the mouth floor include:
A. Radiation
B. Sedative
C. Manual
D. Hypotensive
E. * Detoxication
792.
The complex treatment of phlegmon of the mouth floor include:
A. Radiation
B. Sedative
C. Manual
D. Hypotensive
E. * Antibacterial
793.
The major functional disorders at phlegmon of the mouth floor are:
A. Ptosis
B. hypo salivation
C. * Difficulty swallowing
D. Paresis lingual nerve
E. Paresis third branch of n.facialis
794.
Objective signs characteristic for abscess jaw-lingual groove is
A. Swelling of the cheeks
B. * Right C, D, E
C. A sharp pain that is worse when talking
D. Difficulty opening the mouth
E. The limited opening of the mouth
795.
To quickly clean purulent wound is prescribed:
A. UHF
B. Massage
C. Electrophoresis
D. galvanizing
E. * Fluctuarisation
796.
Pathogens at phlegmon of the mouth floor is often:
A. Anaerobes
B. * Staphylococci
C. luminous fungi
D. treponema pallidum
E. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
797.
The reason for developing of phlegmon of the mouth floor is inflammation in the area
of:
A. Upper lip
B. * teeth of lower jaw
C. teeth of the upper jaw
D. lymph nodes of cheeks
E. lymph nodes of parotid area
798.
A typical clinical sign of phlegmon of the mouth floor are:
A. Trismus
B. Swelling of the pterygoid-mandibular folds
C. Swelling of the cheeks
D. flushing of the skin in the region of the lower lip
E. * Infiltration of soft tissue in the submandibular and submental areas
799.
Primary localized suppurative focus at phlegmon of the mouth floor is most often
abscess of:
A. Cheek
B. infratemporal fossa
C. Under the masticatory muscles
D. In the parotid salivary gland
E. * pterygoid-mandibular space
800.
Primary localized suppurative focus at phlegmon of the mouth floor is most often
abscess of:
A. Cheek
B. infratemporal fossa
C. Under the masticatory muscles
D. In the parotid salivary gland
E. * Around the pharyngeal space
801.
On the day of treatment at phlegmon of the mouth floor should:
A. * Disclose septic foci
B. Start acupuncture
C. Make novocaine blockade
D. Approve physiotherapy
E. Enter intramuscular respiratory analeptics
802.
At phlegmon of the mouth floor are not affected:
A. submandibular space
B. submental space
C. * Submasseterial space
D. sublingual area
E. The root of the tongue
803.
At phlegmon of the mouth floor will appear pain at:
A. * Swallowing
B. Speech
C. movements of the tongue
D. palpation of submaxillary area
E. All answers are correct
804.
Doing incision in the treatment of abscess of jaw-lingual groove may be damaged
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Tongue
zygomatic bone
facial artery
* lingual artery
parotid glands
805.
In an unfavorable course of abscess of jaw-lingual groove infection spreads
A. In the subdural space
B. In the parotid salivary gland
C. * At around pharyngeal space
D. In the pterygoid-palatine venous plexus
E. In the venous sinuses of the brain
806.
In an unfavorable course of abscess of jaw- lingual groove infection spreads
A. * In tissue floor of the mouth
B. In the subdural space
C. In the parotid salivary gland
D. In the pterygo-palatine venous plexus
E. In the venous sinuses of the brain
807.
In an unfavorable course of abscess jaw- lingual groove infection spreads
A. In the parotid salivary gland
B. In the subdural space
C. In the pterygo-palatine venous plexus
D. In the venous sinuses of the brain
E. * In the submandibular area in tissues of the mouth floor
808.
In an unfavorable course of abscess jaw- lingual groove infection spreads
A. * In the mediastinum
B. In the subdural space
C. In the parotid salivary gland
D. In the venous sinuses of the brain
E. In the pterygo-palatine venous plexus
809.
In the complex treatment of abscess jaw-lingual groove includes
A. Cryotherapy
B. Chemotherapy
C. * physiotherapy
D. Radiology
E. Electro coagulation
810.
In the complex treatment of abscess jaw-lingual groove includes
A. Radiotherapy
B.
C.
D.
E.
Sedative Therapy
Manual therapy
antihypertensive therapy
* desensitizing therapy
811.
In the complex treatment of abscess jaw-lingual groove includes
A. Radiotherapy
B. Sedative Therapy
C. Manual therapy
D. antihypertensive therapy
E. * Antibiotic Therapy
812.
Submandibular lymph nodes are:
A. * Ahead of facial artery (front, mid, rear)
B. Between the facial artery and facial vein.
C. Behind the facial artery.
D. Behind the facial vein.
E. Ahead of facial artery, between vein and artery, behind vein.
813.
466. Inconstant lymph nodes are:
A. Deep neck.
B. Submental.
C. Behind The ear.
D. * Mandibular (supramandibular) and cheek.
E. nasolabial.
814.
Increase in the number of lymphocytes at the blood smear microscopy from abnormal
foci is typical for:
A. abscesses.
B. phlegmon.
C. * Acute serous lymphadenitis.
D. Acute suppurative lymphadenitis.
E. Chronic lymphadenitis productive.
815.
468. Choice of location and direction of incision at abscesses and phlegmon depends
on:
A. From the general condition of the patient.
B. From the patient's age.
C. * From localization.
D. The state of immunity.
E. From the data of biochemical blood tests.
816.
469. Pathogens of odontogenic sepsis are most often:
A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Meningococcus
D. pneumoniae
E. * Anaerobes, staphylococcus
817.
470. Sepsis, which is not found in the maxillofacial area:
A. Odontogenic
B. Stomatogenic
C. * wound
D. Tonzilogenic
E. Urogenic
818.
Abscess of jaw-lingual groove must be differentiated
A. From periostitis of the mandible
B. With phlegmon of around pharyngeal space
C. With the tongue abscess
D. * The correct answers are A, B , C
E. With a sharp sialoadenitis of submandibular salivary gland
819.
472. An examination of the oral cavity in patients with inflammatory contracture of the
lower jaw is used
A. Anesthesia for method Vaysblata
B. Anesthesia for method Vaysbrema
C. * Anesthesia by the method Bershe - Dubov - Uvarov
D. Anesthesia for method Egorova
E. None of the above methods of anesthesia does not give the desired result
820.
Abscess of jaw-lingual groove must be differentiated
A. From lockjaw
B. With carbuncles of lower lip
C. With phlegmon of buccal area
D. From phlegmon of temporal area
E. * From abscess of pterygoid-mandibular space
821.
In an unfavorable course of abscess of jaw-lingual groove infection spreads
A. In the parotid salivary gland
B. In the subdural space
C. In the pterygoid-palatine venous plexus
D. In the venous sinuses of the brain
E. * In pterygoid-mandibular space
822.
In an unfavorable course of abscess jaw-lingual groove infection spreads
A. * to the root of the tongue
B. In the subdural space
C. In the parotid salivary gland
D. In the pterygoid-palatine venous plexus
E. In the venous sinuses of the brain
823.
In an unfavorable course of abscess jaw-lingual groove infection spreads
A. In the subdural space
B. * In the submandibular region
C. In the parotid salivary gland
D. In the pterygoid-palatine venous plexus
E. In the venous sinuses of the brain
824.
In an unfavorable course of abscess jaw-lingual groove infection spreads
A. In the subdural space
B. In the parotid salivary gland
C. In the pterygoid-palatine venous plexus
D. In the venous sinuses of the brain
E. * At around pharyngeal space
825.
On the day of treatment at abscess jaw-lingual groove must
A. * Disclose septic foci
B. Start acupuncture
C. Make novocaine blockade
D. Approve physiotherapy
E. Enter intramuscular respiratory analeptics
826.
Operative access in the treatment of abscess jaw-language groove consists in cut
A. What goes around the angle of the mandible
B. * mucosa of jaw-lingual groove
C. Closer to the inner surface of the body of the mandible
D. In the submandibular area along the edge of the mandible
E. In the mucous membrane in pterygoid-mandibular fold
827.
Doing incision in the treatment of abscess jaw-language groove may damage
A. Tongue
B. * lingual nerve
C. zygomatic bone
D. facial artery
E. parotid glands
828.
What processes originate in the bone at hiperostosis form of chronic osteomyelitis?
A. The formation of new bone
B. Lysis of bone
C. The excessive formation of connective tissue
D. Excessive bone calcination
E. * bone sclerosis
829.
What are the sequesters at hiperostosis form of chronic osteomyelitis:
A. Small, isolated
B. Single, large
C. * sequestration are not formed
D. Small, multiple
E. Large, multiple
830.
Leading in the treatment of tuberculosis of the oral cavity is :
A. Early and radical surgery
B. * Specific therapy
C. A combination of surgery and antibiotic therapy
D. Antibiotic therapy combined with physiotherapy
E. Combination of the surgical treatment of physiotherapy
831.
Essential in the diagnosis of tuberculosis of the oral cavity and face are:
A. serological survey data *
B. Data of morphological examination
C. Data of X-ray examination
D. Data of biochemical examination of saliva and blood
E. Data of ultrasound examination
832.
In which period is shown sequestrectomy at traumatic osteomyelitis?
A. After physiotherapy
B. * After forming sequestration
C. After the bone wound fester
D. After antibiotic therapy
E. There is no right answer
833.
Odontogenic chronic osteomyelitis more often strikes:
A. mandible
B. It is equally common in both jaws
C. * The upper jaw
D. There is no regularity in the frequency of damage
E. does not occur in the jaw bones
834.
Actinomycosis refers to,
A. neoplastic process
B. degenerative processes
C. * specific inflammation
D. tumor diseases
E. nonspecific inflammation
835.
The causative agent of actinomycosis is:
A. Filtering Virus
B. * Fungus
C. Aerobic microflora
D. Simpler
E. anaerobic microflora
836.
Actinomycosis often develops:
A. In the context of chronic inflammation
B. * result of traumatic tissue damage
C. Primary unchanged tissues
D. Patterns undetectable
E. After the decrease of the immune system
837.
Essential in the diagnosis of actinomycosis is:
A. Biochemical examination of blood and saliva;
B. Radiographic examination of tissues
C. Clinical blood test
D. Data bacteriological examination of blood
E. * These serological examination of blood
838.
On which day appear first radiological signs of destructive odontogenic osteomyelitis?
A. 1-2nd day
B. 3-4th day
C. 30-40th day
D. * 15-20th day
E. 50th day
839.
What is the cause of traumatic osteomyelitis?
A. Age of the patient
B. Acute lymphadenitis
C. Injury poorly manufactured prosthesis
D. * A tooth or tooth root in fracture line
E. There is no right answer
840.
What is the cause of traumatic osteomyelitis of the jaws
A. Acute suppurative periostitis
B. Acute lymphadenitis
C. Infection of wounds
D. * Infection fracture line
E. Related Diseases
841.
The development of posttraumatic osteomyelitis of the jaws begin with?
A. Violation of oral hygiene
B. Infection of fracture line
C. Acute lymphadenitis
D. Injury by badly made prosthetic
E. * Poor reposition and immobilization of fragments
842.
What are the methods of prevention of traumatic osteomyelitis of the jaws?
A. Physiotherapy
B. Temporary immobilization of fragments
C. dental health
D. * Tooth or tooth root of the fracture line
E. Oral Health
843.
The primary method of prevention of posttraumatic osteomyelitis of the jaws?
A. Physiotherapy
B. Temporary immobilization of fragments
C. * Early and reliable immobilization of fragments
D. Deferred immobilization of fragments
E. metal osteosynthesis
844.
Name the only reliable method of preventing infection of gunshot wound.
A. * As soon as possible early debridement
B. antibiotic therapy
C. antibiotic therapy
D. Appointment of antihistamines
E. Transfusion erytromasy
845.
At the stage of medical evacuation delivered to the victim with a fresh wound of the
occipital areas. What suture should be used for suturing wounds?
A. * Primary deaf suture
B. Primary suture is not dead
C. Primary delayed suture
D. Early secondary suture dead
E. Late secondary suture
846.
Patients diagnosed with fibropapilloma of skin. What method of treatment should be
used?
A. Radiation
B. * Surgery
C. Physiotherapy
D. medicamentous
E. Combined
847.
The surgeon suspected in a young woman odontom in the body of the mandible on the
left. What is the main method of diagnosis in this case?
A. radioisotope
B. Clinical examination
C. radioisotope
D. * X-ray
E. Palpable
848.
In the dental surgeon for 4 years under the supervision is the patient, who was
diagnosed with Manganotti cheilitis. What is the main method of diagnosis at suspicion on
degeneration of the disease in the lower lip cancer?
A. Biochemical
B. Clinical
C. Serological
D. Visual
E. * cytological
849.
A dental surgeon suspected in a young woman odontoma in the body of the mandible
on the left. What is the main method of diagnosis in this case?
A. * X-ray
B. Clinical examination
C. radioisotope
D. radioisotope
E. Palpable
850.
A patient diagnosed with cancer (cylinders) of the parotid salivary gland. Is it possible
formation of cystic cavities in salivary gland tumor at such morphological form of cancer?
A. observed in heart failure
B. no
C. formed in malnourished patients
D. observed in 50% of cases
E. * yes
851.
Is possible formation of cystic cavities in salivary gland tumors at cylindroma?
A. observed in 50% of cases
B. no
C. formed in malnourished patients
D. * yes
E. observed in heart failure
852.
After the examination, of the patient in Oncology Center was put clinical and
cytological diagnosis: Cancer (cylindroma) of submaxillary salivary gland. Is cystic cavity
formed in the gland tumor at such morphological form of cancer?
A. no
B. * yes
C. formed in malnourished patients
D. observed in 50% of cases
E. observed in diabetes
853.
At cylindroma of salivary gland is possible formation of cystic cavities?
A. * yes
B. no
C. observed in malnourished patients
D. observed in 50% of cases
E. observed in 20% of cases
854.
Name a synonym to cylindroma:
A. epidermoid carcinoma
B. * adenocystic carcinoma
C. Mixed tumor
D. pleomorf adenoma
E. epidermoid carcinoma
855.
Synonym of cylindroma - is:
A. pleomorf adenoma
B. epidermoid carcinoma
C. Mixed tumor
D. * adenocystic carcinoma
E. epidermoid carcinoma
856.
Synonym of adenocystic carcinoma - is:
A. Mixed tumor
B. adenocarcinoma
C. pleomorf adenoma
D. * cylindroma
E. epidermoid carcinoma
857.
Is possible retention of contrast on sialography of parotid salivary gland in patients
with malignant tumor of the gland?
A. * possible
B. not possible
C. is possible, but very rare
D. possible in malnourished patients
E. is possible with diabetes
858.
To a patient with a malignant tumor of salivary gland is made sialography. Is there a
retention of contrast in the gland at this examination?
A. observed but very rarely
B. not observed
C. * observed
D. occurs in malnourished patients
E. occurs in renal failure
859.
Is retention of contrast observed in patient with malignant tumor of parotid salivary
gland at sialography?
A. not observed
B. * observed
C. observed but very rarely
D. occurs in malnourished patients
E. observed in diabetes
860.
Name sections of the oral cavity, where a malignant tumor of salivary gland (formed in
small salivary glands) will be fixed?
A. in retro molar area
B. on the soft palate
C. at the bottom of the mouth
D. * on the hard palate
E. in the area of the tongue
861.
In which part of the oral cavity malignant tumor of salivary gland is fixed, if the tumor
is formed in small salivary glands?
A. in the area of the tongue
B. on the soft palate
C. at the bottom of the mouth
D. in retro molar part
E. * on the hard palate
862.
Name a tumor, which refers to malignant epithelial tumors:
A. chylangioma
B. Hibernoma
C. * adeno cystic carcinoma
D. neuroma
E. Hemangioma
863.
To the malignant epithelial tumors refers:
A. Hemangioma
B. Hibernoma
C. chylangioma
D. neuroma
E. * adeno cystic carcinoma
864.
Which of the tumor refers to malignant epithelial tumors?
A. * adeno cystic carcinoma
B. Hibernoma
C. chylangioma
D. neuroma
E. Hemangioma
865.
Malignant epithelial tumors include:
A. chylangioma
B. Hibernoma
C. * adeno carcinoma
D. neuroma
E. Hemangioma
866.
To the malignant epithelial tumors refers:
A. neuroma
B. Hibernoma
C. chylangioma
D. * adeno carcinoma
E. Hemangioma
867.
To the malignant epithelial tumors refers:
A. chylangioma
B. Hibernoma
C. * mucoepidermoid carcinoma
D. neuroma
E. chondroma
868.
Which of the listed below tumors refer to malignant epithelial tumors?
A. * adeno carcinoma
B. Hibernoma
C. chylangioma
D. neuroma
E. Hemangioma
869.
Which of the tumor refers to malignant epithelial tumors?
A. * Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
B. Hibernoma
C. chylangioma
D. neuroma
E. chondroma
870.
To the malignant epithelial tumors refers:
A. Hibernoma
B. * Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
C. chylangioma
D. neuroma
E. chondroma
871.
Patient S. 3 days ago underwent surgery on pancreatitis. 2 days ago there was a dryness
in the mouth, pain and swelling of the right parotid salivary gland. Temperature 38C.
Salivary gland is enlarged, firm, painful mouth opening is free. From the duct secreted
muddy saliva. Diagnosis?
A. * Acute parotitis.
B. Infectious parotitis.
C. abscess of the parotid region.
D. False mumps.
E. salivary gland carcinoma
872.
In stomat clinic turned woman 47 years old with complaints of dryness of the oral
mucosa, photophobia, xerophthalmia, swelling of the parotid salivary glands. Gland palpation
- dense, little painful, ducts are dilated, from the ducts is secreted muddy saliva. Diagnosis?
A. False mumps Hertsenberha
B. Symptomatic xerostomia
C. Mumps.
D. * Sjogren's disease.
E. salivary gland carcinoma
873.
The patient 49 years old turned to a dentist with complaints of dryness of the oral
mucosa, photophobia, xerophthalmia, swelling of the parotid salivary glands. Gland palpation
- dense, little painful, ducts dilated, from them is secreted muddy saliva. Diagnosis?
A. Mumps.
B. Symptomatic xerostomia
C. * Sjogren's disease.
D. False mumps Hertsenberha
E. salivary gland carcinoma
874.
Two weeks ago the patient D., 47 years old suffered flu. Now turned with complaints
on swelling of the right parotid region. Sick for 5 days. Palpation determined tight little
painful infiltration. At massage of gland ducts secret clear saliva. Diagnosis?
A. Mumps.
B. Cellulitis of parotid region.
C. * False mumps Hertsenberha.
D. effusion mumps
E. salivary gland carcinoma
875.
Patient N., 48 years old turned with complaints on swelling of the right parotid region.
Sick for 5 days. Two weeks ago, suffered SARS. Palpation determined tight little painful
infiltration. At massage of gland ducts was secreted clear saliva. Diagnosis?
A. Cellulitis parotid region.
B. * False mumps Hertsenberha.
C. Mumps.
D. effusion mumps
E. salivary gland carcinoma
876.
Patient K., 25 years old, turned with complaints on bulging in the hyoid region, up to 1
cm, elastic consistency, with a bluish tinge, at puncture received viscous yellow liquid.
Diagnosis?
A. Carcinoma of salivary glands
B. Cyst of small salivary glands.
C. Cyst of submaxillary salivary gland.
D. sublingual salivary gland adenoma
E. * cyst sublingual salivary glands.
877.
To the dentist turned the patient E., 27 years old, with complaints on protrusion in the
hyoid region, up to 1 cm, elastic consistency, with a bluish tinge, at puncture received
viscous yellow liquid. Diagnosis?
A. sublingual salivary gland adenoma
B. Cyst small salivary glands.
C. Cyst submaxillary salivary gland.
D. * cyst sublingual salivary glands.
E. salivary gland carcinoma
878.
A young woman complained on the protrusion in the hyoid region, up to 1 cm, elastic
consistency, with a bluish tinge, at puncture received viscous yellow liquid. Diagnosis?
A. Cyst submaxillary salivary gland
B. Cyst small salivary glands.
C. * cyst sublingual salivary glands.
D. sublingual salivary gland adenoma
E. salivary gland carcinoma
879.
The patient is 55 years old, turned for medical attention with significant swelling of
parotid-masticatory area on the right, redness, tension, sharp pain. On palpation of the duct
gland secreted a thick pus, redness of the mucous membrane. What is the diagnosis in this
case?
A. Suppuration of hematoma
B. Phlegmon of parotid-masticatory area
C. Carcinoma of salivary glands
D. Acute lymphadenitis
E. * Acute suppurative parotitis
880.
In a patient 52 years old considerable swelling of parotid-masticatory area on the right,
redness, tension, sharp pain. During palpation of the gland duct secreted a thick pus, redness
of the mucous membrane. What is the diagnosis in this case?
A. * Acute suppurative parotitis
B. Phlegmon of parotid-masticatory area
C. Carcinoma of salivary glands
D. Acute lymphadenitis
E. Suppuration of hematoma
881.
With complaints of periodic increase in parotid salivary glands during meals the
patient 55 years old turned to a dentist0. Increase self disappears at rest. OBJECTIVE: glands
are soft, painless, while massaging from duct is secreted saliva as a "jet". Sialogram reveals
uneven extention of ducts of varying degrees. What is the final diagnosis?
A. Chronic interstitial sialadenit
B. * Chronic ductal sialadenit
C. Chronic parenchymal sialadenit
D. Acute bilateral sialadenit
E. salivary gland carcinoma
882.
Male 46 years old turned to the doctor after undergoing SARS. Ob-no: considerable
swelling of parotid-masticatory area on the right, redness, tension, sharp pain. At palpation of
the gland duct secreted a thick pus, redness of the mucous membrane. What is the diagnosis
in this case?
A. Abscess of parotid-masticatory area
B. Malignant tumor
C. * Acute suppurative parotitis
D. Acute lymphadenitis
E. Suppuration of hematoma
883.
On reception to the doctor turned patient 49 years old. Objective: considerable swelling
of parotid-masticatory area on the right, redness, tension, sharp pain. At palpation of the
glands duct secreted a thick pus, redness of the mucous membrane. What is the diagnosis in
this case?
A. Malignant tumor
B. * Acute suppurative parotitis
C. Abscess of parotid-masticatory area
D. Acute lymphadenitis
E. Suppuration of hematoma
884.
Among the special treatments for malignant tumors of the salivary glands is a surgical
method. These are:
A. chemotherapy
B. symptomatic therapy
C. radiotherapy
D. Combined treatment
E. * microwave therapy
885.
The prevalence of tumors of the salivary glands, the most accurate estimates of
metastasis classification:
A. * TNM
B. clinical
C. five point C.
D. dvenadtsyatybalna
E. Cancer Center
886.
The main clinical signs that indicate the stage of malignant tumors are:
A. * tumor size , presence of distant metastases and regional
B. tumor size
C. patient complaints
D. size of the tumor , presence of metastases in regional
E. complaints of the patient, tumor size
887.
Based on what the main features of the manifestation of cancer of the salivary gland
malignant tumor stage set ?
A. complaints of the patient , tumor size
B. tumor size
C. patient complaints
D. tumor size , presence of regional metastases
E. * tumor size , presence of distant metastases and regional
888.
What are the surgical treatment of malignant tumors of the salivary glands. These are:
A. chemotherapy
B. symptomatic therapy
C. radiotherapy
D. microwave therapy
E. * combined treatment
889.
Dimensions of malignant tumors, the most accurate estimates of metastasis
classification:
A. Cancer Center
B. clinical
C. five point .
D. twelve point
E. * TNM
890.
Throughout the medical world today use a single classification , indicating the
prevalence of salivary gland tumors and its metastases . These are:
A. Cancer Center
B. clinical
C. * TNM
D. dvenadtsyatybalna
E. five point .
891.
Adenokistozna carcinoma of the parotid salivary gland in the early stages metastasizes
:
A. In the cervical lymph nodes
B. in the deep cervical lymph nodes
C. in zahlotkovi and cervical lymph nodes
D. * into the lungs and bones by hematogenous
E. in pidnyzhnoschelepovi and cervical lymph nodes
892.
In the early stages adenokistozna parotid salivary gland carcinoma metastasizing :
A. In the cervical lymph nodes
B. in the deep cervical lymph nodes
C. cervical lymph nodes
D. in submandibular and cervical lymph nodes
E. * in the lungs and bones by hematogenous
893.
What is more affected salivary gland malignancy?
A. submaxillary
B. hyoid
C. a small gland palate
D. had the cheek gland
E. * bilyavushna
894.
Among all salivary gland cancer often affected:
A. submaxillary
B. * parotid
C. a small gland palate
D. had the cheek gland
E. hyoid
895.
The most common malignancy is affected salivary gland:
A. * parotid
B. submaxillary
C. a small gland palate
D. had the cheek gland
E. hyoid
896.
During the examination of the patient are the main clinical signs indicate the stage of
malignant tumors?
A. * tumor size, presence of distant metastases and regional
B. tumor size
C. patient complaints
D. size of the tumor, presence of metastases in regional
E. complaints of the patient, tumor size
897.
As a result of examination of the patient and the results of biopsy diagnosed with
cancer of the left bilyavushnoyi stage III salivary gland. What treatment is planned?
A. * combined treatment
B. hysterectomy glands
C. regional chemotherapy
D. Radiation Therapy
E. symptomatic treatment
898.
After any surgery most often relapse tumors gl. parotis?
A. marginal resection of glands
B. parotydektomiyi
C. subtotal resection of glands
D. hemi resection of glands
E. * enucleation of the tumor
899.
If the damage which branch of the facial nerve after resection bilyavushnoyi salivary
gland cancer occurs on the lower lip movements infringement?
A. temporal
B. zygomatic
C. buccal
D. * boundary
E. cervical
900.
The patient underwent a resection bilyavushnoyi salivary gland tumors. In the
postoperative period there has been a violation of the movements of the lower lip. Damaged
by a branch of the facial nerve?
A. temporal
B. zygomatic
C. boundary C.
D. Jaw
E. cervical
901.
Can malignant tumor mucoepidermoid have a cystic formations?
A. No
B. rarely
C. * often
D. Yes, but only in patients with diabetes
E. Yes, but only in debilitated patients
902.
Malignant tumor mucoepidermoid can carry cystic lesions?
A. No, can not
B. * often
C. rarely
D. Yes, but only in patients with diabetes
E. Yes, but only in debilitated patients
903.
After degeneration of cancer salivary gland adenoma pleomorfnoyi can get involved in
the process opuhovyy surrounding soft tissue and bone ?
A. No, not involved
B. * are retracted
C. Yes, but against the background of inflammation
D. involved only in patients older
E. involved only in patients with somatic diseases
904.
Can get involved in the process opuhovyy surrounding soft tissue and bone
regeneration in after cancer pleomorfnoyi adenoma of salivary gland ?
A. * are retracted
B. No, not involved
C. Yes, but against the background of inflammation
D. involved only in patients older
E. involved only in patients with somatic diseases
905.
Tumors of the parotid salivary gland cancer patients, resection . In the early
postoperative period, there is a small selection of pure saliva from the wound. Can form a
permanent salivary fistula . What treatment should be used?
A. surgical
B. * conservative ( pressing a bandage to the wound )
C. combined
D. beam
E. physiotherapy
906.
Stage set for malignant neoplasm based on clinical signs:
A. patient complaints
B. tumor size
C. complaint of the patient, tumor size
D. tumor size , presence of regional metastases
E. * tumor size , presence of distant metastases and regional
907.
In a patient-based examination results and biopsy diagnosed cancer of the left parotid
salivary gland stage III. What treatment is planned?
A. Radiation Therapy
B. hysterectomy glands
C. regional chemotherapy
D. * combined treatment
E. symptomatic treatment
908.
On examination, the patient and the results of biopsy diagnosis of carcinoma of the left
parotid salivary gland stage III. What treatment is planned?
A. Radiation Therapy
B. hysterectomy glands
C. * combined treatment
D. of regional chemotherapy
E. symptomatic treatment
909.
In which lymph nodes metastasis occurs predominantly in cancer of the parotid
salivary gland?
A. axillary
B. mediastinum
C. inguinal
D. * regional
E. retroperitoneal
910.
Malignant tumors of the parotid salivary gland in which lymph node metastasis usually
occurs?
A. axillary
B. mediastinum
C. inguinal
D. retroperitoneal
E. * regional
911.
Performed in patients after resection of the parotid salivary gland, there is no closing of
the eyelids. Damaged by a branch of the facial nerve?
A. temporal
B. buccal
C. * zygomatic
D. boundary
E. cervical
912.
The patient underwent a resection of the parotid salivary gland tumors. In the
postoperative period there has been no closure of the eyelids. Damaged by a branch of the
facial nerve?
A. temporal
B. boundary B.
C. Jaw
D. * zygomatic
E. cervical
913.
How does the function of salivary glands with carcinoma ?
A. does not change
B. amplified
C. * suppressed
D. suppressed only in debilitated patients
E. increases in overweight patients
914.
The function of salivary glands with carcinoma :
A. * suppressed
B. amplified
C. does not change
D. suppressed only in debilitated patients
E. increases in overweight patients
915.
If the damage which branch of the facial nerve, performed after resection of the parotid
salivary gland , there is no closure for ever ?
A. temporal
B. * zygomatic
C. buccal
D. boundary
E. cervical
916.
Malignant tumors of the salivary glands develop from :
A. stromal channels
B. fiber
C. blood vessels
D. lymphatic vessels
E. * duct epithelium
917.
Can occur in cancer tumor necrosis salivary glands?
A. no
B. possible, but only at an early stage
C. * possible, but only at a late stage
D. can be on any stage of tumor development
E. is observed only in patients older
918.
In cancer, salivary gland tumor necrosis occur ?
A. no
B. * possible, but only at a late stage
C. is possible, but only at an early stage
D. can be on any stage of tumor development
E. is observed only in patients older
919.
Cancers of the salivary glands develop from:
A. stromal channels
B. * duct epithelium
C. blood vessels
D. lymphatic vessels
E. fiber
920.
Which tissue develop malignant tumors of the salivary glands?
A. * duct epithelium
B. stroma ducts
C. blood vessels
D. lymphatic vessels
E. fiber
921.
What are the main diagnostic method in determining whether degeneration into cancer
pleomorf adenoma of the parotid salivary gland?
A. history of disease
B. sialography
C. ultrasound
D. * histology
E. computer tomography
922.
The main method of diagnosis in determining whether degeneration into cancer
pleomorf adenoma of the parotid salivary gland is:
A. history of disease
B. sialography
C. computer tomography
D. ultrasound
E. there is often
923.
When pleomorfniy adenoma of the parotid salivary gland observed paresis of facial
muscles?
A. * not observed
B. there is often
C. degeneration observed in tumor
D. observed only in patients older
E. occurs when you connect to inflammation in the gland
924.
What method of diagnosis is considered in determining whether a major rebirth in
cancer pleomorfnoyi adenoma of the parotid salivary gland?
A. history of disease
B. sialography
C. histological
D. ultrasound
E. computer tomography
925.
That indicates the degeneration of monomorphic adenoma cancer salivary gland?
A. slow growth
B. tenderness on palpation of the tumor
C. aching pain
D. * acceleration of tumor growth
E. mobility tumor
926.
Is there at pleomorfniy adenoma of the parotid salivary gland paresis of facial muscles?
A. there is often
B. * not observed
C. degeneration observed in tumor
D. observed only in patients older
E. occurs when you connect to inflammation in the gland
927.
With recurrent malignant tumors of the salivary glands conduct:
A. enucleation of the tumor
B. resection of glands
C. subtotal resection of glands
D. * parotydektomiyu
E. boundary resection of glands
928.
What surgical treatment is taken on recurrent malignant tumors of the salivary glands?
A. * parotydektomiyu
B. resection of glands
C. subtotal resection of glands
D. enucleation of the tumor
E. boundary resection of glands
929.
For cancer of parotid salivary gland glands patients, resection. In the postoperative
period there has been a violation of the movements of the upper lip. What branch of the facial
nerve is damaged?
A. zygomatic
B. temporal
C. neck
D. marginal
E. * Jaw
930.
The patient underwent a resection of parotid salivary gland tumors cancer. In the
postoperative period there has been a violation of the movements of the upper lip. What
branch of the facial nerve is damaged?
A. zygomatic
B. * Jaw
C. temporal
D. marginal
E. cervical
931.
Malignant tumors of the parotid salivary gland should first be differentiated from:
A. monomorphic adenoma
B. acute mumps
C. * polymorphic adenoma
D. parotid hemangioma bubble plot
E. Chronic mumps
932.
The patient underwent a resection of the parotid salivary gland tumors cancer. In the
postoperative period there has been a violation of the movements of the upper lip. What
branch of the facial nerve is damaged?
A. zygomatic
B. temporal
C. * Jaw
D. marginal
E. cervical
933.
Cancer of the parotid salivary gland should first be differentiated from:
A. monomorphic adenoma
B. * polymorphic adenoma
C. acute mumps
D. hemangioma pry0vushnozhuvalnoyi area
E. Chronic mumps
934.
What diseases should first be differentiated carcinoma of the parotid salivary gland?
A. * polymorphic adenoma
B. monomorphic adenoma
C. acute mumps
D. parotid hemangioma bubble plot
E. Chronic mumps
935.
In the treatment of cancer of the salivary glands:
A. * produced as preoperative and postoperative radiation therapy
B. made only preoperative radiotherapy
C. made only postoperative radiotherapy
D. Radiation therapy is not performed
E. Radiation therapy is performed at the discretion of the oncologist
936.
Special treatment of cancer of the salivary glands includes:
A. only preoperative radiotherapy
B. * both preoperative and postoperative radiotherapy
C. only postoperative radiotherapy
D. Radiation therapy is not performed
E. Radiation therapy is performed at the discretion of the oncologist
937.
That combined treatment of cancer of the salivary glands is carried out ?
A. Radiation therapy is performed at the discretion of the oncologist
B. made only preoperative radiotherapy
C. made only postoperative radiotherapy
D. Radiation therapy is not performed
E. * produced as preoperative and postoperative radiation therapy
938.
During the development of cancerous tumors in the salivary glands what caused
inhibition of its function?
A. * infiltrating tumor growth
B. intoxication tissues
C. an accumulation of fluid
D. deterioration of the local blood supply
E. violation glands innervation
939.
In the salivary glands develops cancer, suppressed gland function. What caused this?
A. intoxication tissues
B. accumulation of fluid
C. * infiltrating tumor growth
D. deterioration of the local blood supply
E. violation glands innervation
940.
Cylindrom is a patient in the sky . Can it destroy the palatal bone ?
A. No, I can not
B. * can destroy
C. cause hyperostosis
D. can destroy only the background adentiyi
E. subordinate causes atrophy of bone
941.
In the patient cylindrom is located on the palate . Can tumor destroy palatal bone?
A. No, I can not
B. cause hyperostosis
C. can destroy only on the background of toothless jaw
D. * can destroy
E. subordinate causes atrophy of bone
942.
What caused inhibition of salivary gland function during the development of her
cancerous tumor ?
A. intoxication tissues
B. * infiltrating tumor growth
C. an accumulation of fluid
D. deterioration of the local blood supply
E. violation gland innervation
943.
Can cylindrom, which is located in the sky to destroy the palatal bone?
A. No, I can not
B. cause hyperostosis
C. * can destroy
D. can destroy only the background of toothless jaw
E. subordinate causes atrophy of bone
944.
When cylindrom is located on the palate, can it destroy the palatal bone?
A. * can destroy
B. cause hyperostosis
C. No, can not
D. can destroy only the background of toothless jaw
E. subordinate causes atrophy of bone
945.
Name changes on sialogram of parotid gland ducts at degeneration of pleomorf
adenomas in cancer:
A. Strait expand
B. * appears fragmentation channels
C. ducts are narrowed
D. Strait obliteration
E. Strait unchanged
946.
At degeneration of pleomorf adenoma to cancer what are the changes on sialogram of
the parotid gland excretory ducts?
A. Strait expand
B. duct narrowing
C. Strait unchanged
D. Strait obliteration
E. * appears fragmentation channels
947.
The main surgical treatments for patients with cancer of the salivary glands are:
A. regional chemotherapy
B. * extirpation of cancer
C. Operation Billroth
D. Operation Kraylya
E. Operation Caldwell - Luc
948.
Patients with cancer of the salivary glands should undergo surgery:
A. * extirpation of cancer
B. Operation Kraylya
C. Operation Billroth
D. of regional chemotherapy
E. Operation Caldwell - Luc
949.
On malignant degeneration of salivary gland pleomorf adenoma points:
A. slow tumor growth
B. morbidity of the disease
C. * acceleration of tumor growth
D. Recurrent pain
E. mobility tumor
950.
In patients with cancer of the salivary glands primary surgical treatment is:
A. regional chemotherapy
B. Operation Kraylya
C. Operation Billroth
D. * extirpation of cancer
E. Operation Caldwell - Luc
951.
The patient 63 years old on basis of clinical and X-ray examination was put cytological
diagnosis - cancer of the maxillary sinus. What diseases should be a differential diagnosis?
A. of polymorphic adenoma
B. * with chronic sinusitis
C. with retention cysts
D. dystopia of third molars
E. of chronic osteomyelitis
952.
Cytological examination for suspected cancer of the maxillary sinus is carried out by
examining the cellular composition:
A. saliva
B. * sinus wash water
C. parodontal fluid
D. scraping the posterior pharyngeal wall
E. rhinorrhea
953.
During the examination of the patient are the main clinical signs indicate the stage of
malignant tumors?
A. * tumor size, presence of distant metastases and regional
B. tumor size
C. patient complaints
D. size of the tumor, presence of metastases in regional
E. complaints of the patient, tumor size
954.
In clinical practice, there are these early symptoms of peripheral sarcomas of the jaws:
A. dry mouth, acute paroxysmal pain, difficulty swallowing
B. hygrostomia, chills, infiltrate of jaw
C. constant headaches, dry mouth, jaw infiltration
D. * jaw deformity, tooth mobility
E. attacks of severe pain, bleeding gums, dry mouth
955.
For radiographic studies verhnoschelepovoyi sinus radiography performed in this
projection:
A. In the frontal;
B. * In nasal - pidboridkoviy;
C. In pidboridkoviy;
D. In the side;
E. It does not matter;
956.
What epithelium covers maxillary sinuses in adults:
A. * flat not keratinization;
B. flat that keratinization;
C. multilayer flashing;
D. cylindrical;
E. cubic
957.
In the study of radiographs should be performed comparing pnevmatyzatsiyi maxillary
sinuses with:
A. frontal sinus;
B. Trellis maze;
C. * orbits;
D. the nasal cavity
E. lower jaw
958.
What main clinical symptom of primary cancer of the mandible you know?
A. hygrostomia
B. exposure of bone
C. erosion, ulcer with infiltrated edges
D. paresis of facial muscles
E. * mobility of intact teeth
959.
What are the symptoms that are not characteristic to malignant tumors of the upper
jaw:
A. The pains are persistent in nature;
B. ihoroznym odor discharge from the nose;
C. * causal tooth;
D. the presence of impurities in the discharge of blood;
E. nosebleeds;
960.
What a contrast radiographic study conducted maxillary sinuses?
A. verohrafinom;
B. * yodolipolom;
C. kardiotrastom;
D. . urotrastom
E. all the answers are correct
961.
In clinical practice, there is the main clinical symptom of primary cancer of the
mandible:
A. hygrostomia
B. * mobility of intact teeth
C. baring bones
D. paresis of facial muscles
E. erosion, ulcer with infiltrated edges
962.
Patients underwent clinical and radiological examination is suspected carcinoma of the
maxillary sinus. He carried out cytological studies examining cellular composition:
A. saliva
B. periodontal fluid
C. * sinus wash water
D. scraping the posterior pharyngeal wall
E. rhinorrhea
963.
Sarcoma develops from:
A. epithelium
B. * lymphatic tissue
C. enamel
D. tartar
E. glandular tissue
964.
On the basis of complaints, inspection, palpation, radiological and cytological
examination of the patient '59 put the final clinical diagnosis: Primary carcinoma frontal
section of the mandible. The main clinical symptom of the disease are:
A. * mobility of intact teeth
B. exposure of bone
C. hygrostomia
D. paresis of facial muscles
E. erosion, ulcer with infiltrated edges
965.
From which tissue sarcoma develops?
A. Epithelium of
B. of glandular tissue
C. * with bone
D. of tartar
E. of enamel
966.
The main clinical symptom of secondary cancer of the lower jaw are:
A. hygrostomia
B. exposure of bone
C. paresis of facial muscles
D. breach of taste sensitivity
E. * erosion, ulcer with infiltrated edges
967.
What treatment is planned for cancer of the left bilyavushnoyi stage III salivary gland?
A. Radiation Therapy
B. hysterectomy cancer
C. regional chemotherapy
D. symptomatic treatment
E. * combined treatment
968.
What are the main clinical symptom of cancer of the mandible:
A. exposure of bone
B. * tumor infiltration
C. hygrostomia
D. paresis of facial muscles
E. violation taste sensitivity
969.
To patient-based on examination results and biopsy diagnosed cancer left parotid
salivary gland stage III. What treatment is planned?
A. Radiation Therapy
B. hysterectomy cancer
C. regional chemotherapy
D. * combined treatment
E. symptomatic treatment
970.
Secondary carcinoma of the mandible is more common in the area:
A. branch
B. Coronary appendix
C. * body
D. frontal section
E. corner
971.
One of the primary surgical treatment of cancer of the lower jaw are:
A. regional chemotherapy
B. Operation Kraylya
C. Operation Billroth
D. Operation Caldwell - Luc
E. * jaw resection
972.
In the place of which benign tumor of the mandible can form cancer?
A. chondroma
B. * ameloblastom
C. odontom
D. Myxoma
E. osteoklastom
973.
Among sarcomas, which are the most sensitive to radiation therapy?
A. osteosarcoma
B. Ewing sarcoma
C. chondrosarcoma
D. * lymphosarcoma
E. fibrosarcoma
974.
In the development of cancer of the mandible play a significant role:
A. diabetes
B. consolidated fractures schalepy
C. dystopia third molars
D. * premalignant disease
E. peculiarities of blood supply
975.
The patient 69 years old was diagnosed with cancer of the mandible. What diseases
should be a differential diagnosis?
A. * with odontogenic tumors
B. with polymorphic adenoma
C. with chronic sinusitis
D. dystopia of third molars
E. Retention cysts of
976.
Developing cancer of the mucous membrane of the lower jaw helps:
A. diabetes
B. consolidated fractures of jaw
C. * premalignant disease
D. dystopia third molars
E. peculiarities of blood supply
977.
To the young patient oncologist diagnosed sarcoma of jaw tissues, the initial stage.
What is the symptom of the disease?
A. hygrostomia, chills, jaw infiltrate
B. tooth mobility, periodic aching pain, thickening of the jaw
C. dry mouth, acute paroxysmal pain, difficulty swallowing
D. fickle headaches, thickening of the jaw, difficulty swallowing
E. * painless soft tissue infiltration
978.
What Do You Know the surgical treatment of malignant tumors of the maxillofacial
area?
A. chemotherapy
B. * excision of the tumor
C. radiotherapy
D. Combined treatment
E. symptomatic therapy
979.
A patient with cancer of the lower jaw turned to the doctor complaining of persistent
pain in the jaw. What caused such pain?
A. infiltration of the periosteum
B. * mandibular nerve compression by tumor
C. addition of secondary infection
D. collapse of tumor
E. bone edema
980.
Sarcomas develop:
A. Epithelium of
B. of glandular tissue
C. enamel
D. of tartar
E. * from bone
981.
For the treatment of sarcomas of the maxillofacial area main method is:
A. chemotherapy
B. Radiation Therapy
C. hormone
D. * Surgery
E. microwave therapy
982.
What are the main method of research conducted for the diagnosis of "malignant
tumors of the maxillofacial area":
A. biochemical
B. * cytological
C. Physical
D. immunological
E. angiographic
983.
Cancer of the maxillary sinus in the early stages characterized by the following X-ray
pictures:
A. * violation transparency sinus bone without changing the boundaries
B. violation transparency sinus bone fracture limits
C. soft tissue shadow in the form of a dome
D. periosteal layers (spicules) detachment of the periosteum, the bone destruction of the land
E. easing cortical layer "cotton" picture, the prevalence of bone
984.
An early symptom of cancer of the upper jaw - is:
A. The Undead
B. reduction of
C. * abnormal growths in the hole of the removed tooth of the upper jaw
D. nosebleeds
E. Headache
985.
Which tissue develops cancer of the maxillary sinus?
A. with muscular
B. * from epithelial
C. with lymphatic
D. of nervous
E. of connective
986.
Tumor by degeneration of which develops mandible cancer:
A. mixoma
B. chondroma
C. odontoma
D. * ameloblastoma
E. osteoklastoma
987.
The most common secondary cancer of the mandible occurs in the area:
A. * body
B. Branch
C. Coronary appendix
D. frontal section
E. corner
988.
Describe the X-ray picture of jaw peripheral sarcoma:
A. * peryosalni layers (spicules) detachment of the periosteum, the bone destruction of the land
B. destruction of bone tissue with areas of clarification of the vague contours
C. diffuse increase in bone sections alternating compression and rarefaction, the picture of
"frosted glass"
D. "cotton" picture of the prevalence of bone
E. thinning of the cortical layer of bone, many cystic clarifications
989.
Metastasis at a cancer the mandible occurs in the lymph nodes:
A. submental
B. axillary
C. supraclavicular
D. * deep neck
E. submandibular
990.
Clinical and radiological patient diagnosed: Cancer of the maxillary sinus. He needs to
make cytology by examining cell structure:
A. saliva
B. periodontal fluid
C. scraping the posterior pharyngeal wall
D. rhinorrhea
E. * sinus wash water
991.
What are the most common morphological form of cancer of the maxillary sinus:
A. * squamous
B. Cylindrical
C. cubic
D. flour-epidermoid
E. solid
992.
Cancer of the lower jaw are differentiated with:
A. Retention cysts of
B. of polymorphic adenoma
C. with chronic sinusitis
D. * odontogenic tumors
E. dystopia of third molars
993.
Cancer of the lower jaw are differentiated:
A. Retention cysts of
B. of polymorphic adenoma
C. with chronic sinusitis
D. dystopia of third molars
E. * chronic osteomyelitis
994.
From what develops cancer of the maxillary sinus?
A. * from epithelial tissue
B. of muscular tissue
C. of lymphatic tissue
D. of nervous tissue
E. of connective tissue
995.
Metastasis at a cancer the maxillary sinus usually occurs in the lymph nodes:
A. axillary
B. jugular
C. * deep neck
D. chin
E. supraclavicular
996.
From what tissue sarcoma develops?
A. Epithelium of
B. * from vessels
C. of glandular tissue
D. enamel
E. of dentin
997.
Prevalence of tumor, its metastasis most accurate estimates classification:
A. * TNM
B. clinical
C. five point
D. twelve point
E. Cancer Center
998.
Sarcomas develop:
A. of vessels
B. from the epithelium
C. of glandular tissue
D. enamel
E. of dentin
999.
Among the special treatments for malignant tumors of the maxillofacial area is a
surgical method. These are:
A. Radiation Therapy
B. Chemotherapy
C. * cryodestruction
D. Combined treatment
E. symptomatic therapy
1000.
Among the special treatments for malignant tumors of the maxillofacial area is a
surgical method. These are:
A. Chemotherapy
B. symptomatic therapy
C. radiotherapy
D. medication
E. * SUV therapy
1001.
Stage set for malignant neoplasm based on clinical signs:
A. patient complaints
B. tumor size
C. complaint of the patient, tumor size
D. tumor size, presence of regional metastases
E. * tumor size, presence of distant metastases and regional
1002.
What main surgical treatment for cancer of the maxillary sinus during the initial stages
you know?
A. microwave hyperthermia
B. Operation Kraylya
C. * resection of maxilla
D. operation Billroth
E. Operation Caldwell - Luc
1003.
Sarcoma develops from:
A. glandular tissue
B. epithelium
C. * nerve fibers
D. enamel
E. dentin
1004.
Most sensitive to radiation therapy:
A. Ewing sarcoma
B. * lymphosarcoma
C. osteosarcoma
D. chondrosarcoma
E. fibrosarcoma
1005.
Osteosarcoma of the jaws grows:
A. * slowly
B. for several years
C. notable
D. wavy
E. over decades
1006.
What points to the degeneration of decubital ulcer cancer?
A. slow growth
B. tenderness on palpation of the tumor
C. aching pain
D. * acceleration of ulcer
E. mobility tumor
1007.
At damage of which branch of the facial nerve after resection of the mandible cancer
are observed violations of movements of the lower lip?
A. temporal
B. zygomatic
C. buccal
D. boundary
E. cervical
1008.
In which bone of the skull usually occurs cancerous tumor?
A. frontal
B. in the zygomatic
C. * in mandibular
D. in maxillar
E. in the nasal bones
1009.
From which tissue develops chondrosarcoma?
A. with bone
B. * from connective
C. of cartilage
D. of epithelial
E. of nervous
1010.
What early symptoms of cancer of the upper jaw you know?
A. runny nose
B. reduction of
C. nosebleeds
D. Headache
E. . * abnormal growths in the hole of the removed tooth of the upper jaw
1011.
Cancer of the jaw - a malignant:
A. * epithelial tumor
B. connective
C. vascular
D. nervous
E. limfoidna
1012.
Can occur necrosis of tumor at cancer of jaw?
A. no
B. possible, but only at an early stage
C. * possible, but only at a late stage
D. can be on any stage of tumor development
E. is observed only in patients older
1013.
Name a section of the lower jaw, which often affects the primary cancer:
A. * front and side
B. angle
C. branch
D. articular
E. body
1014.
What method of diagnosis is considered in determining whether a major rebirth in
cancer decubital ulcer?
A. history of disease
B. sialography
C. * histology
D. ultrasound
E. CT
1015.
What early symptoms of central sarcoma of the jaws you know ?
A. * tooth mobility , periodic aching pain symptom Vincent , thickening of the jaw
B. dry mouth , night severe pain , difficulty swallowing
C. hygrostomia , chills , infiltrate jaw
D. headache , difficulty swallowing , bleeding gums , thickening of the jaw
E. Night sharp pain infiltrate jaw, tooth mobility
1016.
Cancer of the upper and lower jaws should first be differentiated :
A. Retention cysts of
B. of polymorphic adenoma
C. with chronic sinusitis
D. dystopia of third molars
E. * chronic osteomyelitis
1017.
What predominant way of metastasis of sarcomas do you know?
A. lymphogenous
B. pin
C. * hematogenous
D. cross
E. regional
1018.
Metastasis to regional lymph nodes in cancer of the jaw occurs:
A. * in the later stages of the disease
B. rarely
C. after special treatment
D. rapidly in patients
E. fairly quickly
1019.
In patients with cancer of the mandible major surgical treatments are:
A. regional chemotherapy
B. Operation Kraylya
C. Operation Billroth
D. * jaw resection
E. Operation Caldwell - Luc
1020.
Name the tissue from which develops osteosarcoma:
A. * bone
B. epithelium
C. enamel
D. tartar
E. glandular tissue
1021.
Indication for plastics mobilization of local tissues are edges of the wound tissue
defects:
A. Extensive
B. Linear
C. Through large
D. * Line a small deficit
E. Cross-cutting small size
1022.
For peripheral osteosarcoma of the jaws first clinical sign is:
A. * jaw deformity
B. pain in the jaw
C. teeth mobility
D. Bad Breath
E. Pain in the jaw and teeth mobility
1023.
When use plastic by counter triangular patches by Limberg?
A. In the linear keloids
B. * When removing fistulas moves
C. In the face of extensive bone defects
D. With extensive soft tissue defects
E. When not extensive soft tissue defects
1024.
In which cases, the use of plastic by counter triangular patches by Limberg?
A. When not extensive soft tissue defects
B. In linear keloids
C. In the face of extensive bone defects
D. With extensive soft tissue defects
E. * When removing fistulas passages
1025.
What late complications of maxillofacial area injuries do you know?
A. spreading of respiratory desists
B. Asphyxia
C. Erysipelas
D. * Traumatic sinusitis
E. Lymphadenitis
1026.
Rhinoplasty by Filatov stem is indicated for defects:
A. Seat
B. Part wings
C. * total defect
D. subtotal defect
E. Partitions
1027.
What late complications injuries maxillofacial area?
A. spreading of respiratory desists
B. * Scar contracture
C. Asphyxia
D. Mumps
E. Erysipelas
1028.
What late complications of maxillofacial area injuries do you know?
A. spreading of respiratory desists
B. Asphyxia
C. * Traumatic sinusitis
D. Erysipelas
E. Lymphadenitis
1029.
What is the name of first stage of plastic surgery?
A. Section
B. Medical History
C. Determination of indications
D. Planning intervention
E. * Anesthesia
1030.
In the first stage of plastic surgery are:
A. Section
B. Determination of indications
C. * Anesthesia
D. Planning intervention
E. Medical History
1031.
On the burn wound skin grafting is carried out:
A. * After exclusion of scab and granulation
B. early
C. After 5 days after burn
D. Since epithelialization
E. as late as possible
1032.
The first phase of restorative surgery:
A. Section
B. Planning
C. Anesthesia
D. * Defining of indications
E. Medical History
1033.
How many morphological zones are distinguished in the gunshot area?
A. 0.
B. 1.
C. 2.
D. * 3.
E. 4.
1034.
In the gunshot area how many morphological zones are distinguished?
A. 0.
B. 1.
C. 2.
D. * 3.
E. 4.
1035.
Which suture is placed upon the wound on 20-30 day after bullet wound?
A. * Secondary seam later.
B. Early secondary suture.
C. Primary deferred.
D. Primary provisionally.
E. Primary.
1036.
After a bullet wound what suture is put on 20-30 day?
A. Primary deferred.
B. Early secondary suture.
C. * The secondary seam later.
D. Primary provisionally.
E. Primary.
1037.
What type of stitches put on the wound on 6-7 day after bullet wound?
A. Primary.
B. Primary provisionally.
C. * Primary deferred.
D. Secondary early.
E. Secondary later.
1038.
On the 6-7 day after bullet wound what type of stitches put on the wound?
A. Primary.
B. * Primary deferred
C. Primary provisionally
D. Secondary early.
E. Secondary later.
1039.
The most affordable and easiest method of temporary fixation of the jaw fragments are:
A. * sling of gauze bandages
B. splint with between the jaw attachment
C. Submental sling
D. Plaster bandage on his head
E. splint with one-way attachment
1040.
What method of temporary fixation of the jaw fragments is the most affordable and
simplest:
A. splint with between the jaw attachment
B. Submental sling
C. Plaster bandage on his head
D. * sling of gauze bandages
E. splint with one-way attachment
1041.
The best maximum period for a primary surgical treatment of wounds are:
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 12 hours
D. * Up to 24 hours
E. Up to 45 hours
1042.
What is the ideal maximum term for primary surgical treatment of wounds?
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 12 hours
D. * Up to 24 hours
E. Up to 45 hours
1043.
What method of anesthesia used for reposition and splinting fragments at fractures of
the jaws?
A. surface anesthesia
B. General Anesthesia
C. infiltration anesthesia
D. * conduction anesthesia
E. mandibular anesthesia
1044.
In processing the wounds of face soft tissues is used:
A. conduction anesthesia
B. surface anesthesia
C. General Anesthesia
D. * infiltration anesthesia
E. mandibular anesthesia
1045.
What are the contraindications to early wound closure?
A. Fever
B. Exhaustion
C. Phlegmons and abscesses
D. Acute suppurative processes
E. * Dear inflammation in the wound
1046.
Contraindications to early wound closure is?
A. Fever
B. Exhaustion
C. Phlegmons and abscesses
D. Acute suppurative processes
E. * Dear inflammation in the wound
1047.
What is not penetrating injurie of the skull ?
A. * If is not damaged dura mater
B. On the violation of the integrity of the dura mater
C. On the violation of the integrity of the dura mater and cranial nerves
D. On the violation of cranial nerves
E. On the breach of the skin
1048.
Description is not penetrating injuries of the skull ?
A. On the violation of the integrity of the dura mater
B. On the violation of the integrity of the dura mater and cranial nerves
C. On the violation of cranial nerves
D. On the breach of the skin
E. * If that is not damaged dura mater
1049.
How is called asphyxia from blockage of the trachea with foreign body?
A. Valve
B. stenotic
C. Aspiration
D. * obstructive
E. dislocation
1050.
Asphyxia from compression of the respiratory tube is called:
A. Valve
B. * stenotic
C. obstructive
D. Aspiration
E. dislocation
1051.
How is asphyxia from compression of the trachea called?
A. * stenotic
B. Valve
C. obstructive
D. Aspiration
E. dislocation
1052.
Which important part of special care for the wounded in the maxillofacial region must
be performed on the stages of evacuation?
A. TE
B. Breathing exercises
C. Massage collar zone
D. * quenching thirst
E. RHG
1053.
Type of asphyxia in the wounded with a abruption of chin fragment - is:
A. Valve
B. stenotic
C. obstructive
D. Aspiration
E. * dislocation
Задачі
1.
What is the fixation of mandibular fragments is indicated for traumatic open
mandibular angle fracture with displacement of fragments in a patient aged 45 years?
A.
Indirect osteosynthesis Black;
B.
Mizhschelepove ligature binding by Ivy;
C.
Of dental smooth tire-guard;
D.
* Direct fixation;
2.
3.
4.
5.
E.
Tire Huninha port.
Patient '65 aiming OMFS department complaining of a sore mouth opening.
OBJECTIVE: Facial asymmetry due to swelling of submaxillary area on the left.
Palpable symptom of "steps" in the body of the mandible on the left side of the bottom
edge. Gross secondary aedentia both jaws. Which tire is reasonable to use in the
treatment of this patient?
A.
Tire Vasiliev;
B.
Tire Tihershtedta;
C.
Tire Weber
D.
* Bus port;
E.
Tire Vankevych.
'40 The patient was hospitalized in a hospital after the accident complaining of facial
asymmetry after injury and limitation of mouth opening. OBJECTIVE: clinically and
radiographically observed zygomatic break bones. Which tool and can be used to
reposition the bones zygomatic?
A.
Elevator Leklyuza;
B.
Bone clippers;
C.
Direct elevator;
D.
* Hook Limberg;
E.
Elevator angle.
The patient, 37 years old, complains of retraction of the side areas of the face left,
limited mouth opening after trauma. OBJECTIVE: sensitivity pidochnoyi area preserved.
From history: nasal bleeding was not. What tools you need to conduct reposition the
bones?
A.
Circling Limb Erg;
B.
* Hook Limberg;
C.
Elevators Karapetyan;
D.
Buyalsky spatula;
E.
Retractor Todorovic.
Patient '28 turned complaining of facial deformity, numbness, skin pidochnoyi areas,
limited mouth opening. An examination diagnosed traumatic bone fracture with
displacement zygomatic. On Rtg-gram: oskolchastyy zygomatic bone fracture with
displacement, reduced transparency verhnoschelepovoho sinus. What treatment would be
best to apply in these cases?
A.
Zygomatic reposition the bones with a hook Limb Erg;
B.
Repositioning using shovels Buyalsky;
C.
Osteosynthesis skid plates;
D.
* Reposition and fixation of bone zygomatic through verhnoschelepovyy sine
yodoformnoho using tampons;
6.
7.
8.
9.
E.
Reposition zygomatic bone using forceps Khodorovich-Barinova.
Patient '38 addressed the dental surgeon at the residence for the purpose of controlling
the inspection. From history we know that six months ago, was injured in the region of
the left mandible, treated inpatient for a month, then - as outpatients. Patient diabetes last
15 years. Locally: bimaksylyarni tires in the mouth well fixed occlusion maintained.
Upon removal of the elastic stiffness is observed thrust pieces left mandible. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A.
Acute osteomyelitis postravmatychnyy;
B.
Chronic osteomyelitis postravmatychnyy;
C.
Jaw bone defects;
D.
* Slowed consolidation fragments;
E.
Incorrect joint.
A patient 24 years complains about the construction of the jaws, chin posipuvannya,
painful swallowing, pain and tension in the neck muscles, weakness, sweating. More than
a week ago, working in the garden, injured chin, the doctor did not apply. OBJECTIVE:
symmetrical face, eyes pryzhmureni, corners of his mouth drooping. Epithelial scar on his
chin from skalpovano-lacerations with jagged edges without marked signs of
inflammation. Trismus second degree. Facial expression, smiling, weeping (sardonic
smile). Hospitalized for examination and treatment. The use of any of the components
perekyslenyh timely treatment most likely would have prevented the present condition of
the patient?
A.
Implementation of anti-inflammatory therapy;
B.
Primary debridement;
C.
Ultraviolet radiation wounds;
D.
* Tetanus toxoid Introduction;
E.
Overlay antiseptic dressing.
Patient k.55 years potsupyla in dental office with a diagnosis of fracture of the right
mandible in the region of the angle of displacement. OBJECTIVE: Facial asymmetry due
posttraumatic edema and palpation observed mobility of debris in the area of fracture
pain. In history - epilepsy since birth. What treatment suggest?
A.
* Osteosynthesis
B.
Immobilization tires Vasiliev
C.
Immobilization tires Tihirshtedta
D.
Bus port.
E.
Immobilization bus Vankevycha
In patients 24 years of mandible fractures in the midline without displacement of
fragments, all teeth are preserved. Which of dental splint should be used for the fixation of
bone fragments?
A.
A tire with aggressive loops
B.
A tire with spacer
C.
Tire Vasilyeva, GA
D.
* Smooth tire-clip
E.
Standard tire plastmassovu
10. The patient, 24, was injured during a fight, hit the maxillofacial department. Diagnosis:
fractured left zygomatic bone with displacement, fracture of the anterior wall
maxillary sinus. What surgery is indicated to the patient?
A.
Radical maxillary sinusotomy
B.
Osteotomy of the maxilla
C.
* Radical maxillary sinusotomy reposition of fragments
D.
Osteosynthesis zygomatic bone
E.
Reposition fragments
11.
Patient K., 39 years old traumatic fracture of the medial mandibular without
displacement of fragments. All teeth intact. What kind of dental splint must be applied
for fixing chips?
A.
Tire with aggressive hooks.
B.
Tire Weber.
C.
* Smooth-rail clip
D.
Standard tire Vasiliev
E.
Tire on an inclined plane.
12. Patient '42 turned in maxillofacial department with complaints of pain, swelling in the
region of the right pidochnoyi area and right zygomatic area, numbness of the skin in the
region of the right half of the upper lip, bleeding from the nose. These symptoms appeared
after travmy.Yake disease should be suspected ?
A.
Fracture of the maxilla by Le Fort I
B.
Fracture of the maxilla by Le Fort II
C.
Fracture of the maxilla by Le Fort III
D.
* Fracture of the zygomatic bone.
E.
Fracture of nasal bones.
13. Patient V.vikom 47 years after the injury complained of the limited opening of the
mouth, bleeding from skin nosa.oniminnya pidochnoyi area and lower eyelids.
OBJECTIVE: face deformation occurs due to retraction of the soft tissues of the left
zygomatic area, the presence of symptoms of a "step" in the middle of the left lower edge
of the orbit and in the area of the zygomatic-alveolar ridge. Replace the diagnosis.
A.
Right zygomatic bone fracture without displacement of fragments
B.
Fracture of the upper jaw to Lefor-I
C.
* Zygomatic bone fracture with displacement of fragments
D.
Fracture of the upper jaw to Lefor - II
E.
Fracture of the zygomatic arch
14.
In OMFS delivered patient 27 years after avtotravmy. On examination, asymmetrical
face, the face, bruising of the mental area, 33 missing tooth. Bite broken slightly. On
radiographs - a line break in the axis of the hole 33 tooth. What method of immobilization
should be used for treatment.
A.
Mizhschelepova ligature fixation by Ivy
B.
Intraoral fixation
C.
* Tires with aggressive hooks on elastic mizhschelepovyh tyahah
D.
Fixing a smooth rail clips
E.
Fixing a tire with spacer
15. Patient referrals May 7 years OMFS department complaining of a sore mouth opening.
OBJECTIVE: Facial asymmetry due to swelling pidschelepoivoyi area on the left.
Palpable symptom of "steps" in the body of the mandible on the left side of the bottom
edge. Secondary ram is noted n aedentia both jaws. Which tire is reasonable to use in the
treatment of this patient?
A.
Tire Vasiliev.
B.
Tire Tihershtedta.
C.
Tire Weber.
D.
* Bus port.
E.
Tire Vankevych.
16. As delivered from the battlefield officer 33 years shooting submental Department of
lower jaw, salivation, slight bleeding from the mouth, asphyxia that occurs periodically
when changing head position. Choose actions to combat the development of asphyxia in
the wounded?
A.
Overlay traheostomy.
B.
Lock jaw submental sling.
C.
Pho wounds imposition traheostomy.
D.
* Fixation of tongue, transportation in position face down.
E.
Transportation in position face down.
17. In step of specialized care enrolled patients aged 33 years with a combined damage
OMFS. In the history given to injured soft tissue injuries of the face and facial skeleton of
a large dose of radiation. To prevent complications, the manifestation of the syndrome of
mutual burdens indicate in which allowed favorable terms necessary to make initial
surgical treatment for this patient?
A.
During the first 3 hours;
B.
In the first 6 hours after exposure;
C.
In a period of 12 hours;
D.
* In the first 48 hours of injury;
E.
After 72 hours.
18.
Male 28 years had sought to OMFS and he was diagnosed with a fracture of alveolar
process of maxilla frontal section. What is the optimal treatment?
A.
Osteosynthesis
B.
Apparatus Zbarzha
C.
* Smooth of dental tire.
D.
Tire by Vasiliev
E.
Tire Weber
19. Patient K., 25 he received an injury to submental area. Radiologically diagnosed mental
bilateral fracture of the mandible. Specify the direction of displacement of small
fragments?
A.
Up and down
B.
Top and back
C.
* Down and back
D.
Down and forward
E.
Does not move
20. The dental surgeon '24 at age 38 tooth removal Leklyuza used the elevator. Once cheek
elevator was put between 37 and 38 teeth and carried attempt to dislocate 38 tooth, there
malocclusion. What is the most ymovirnye complications arose?
A.
Fracture of the alveolar process of the mandible.
B.
Partial dislocation of the tooth 37.
C.
Anterior dislocation of the mandible.
D.
* Fracture of the mandible in the region of the angle.
E.
Posterior dislocation of the mandible ..
21. Patient age in '29 diagnosed - bilateral fracture of the mandible in the region of 45 and
35 tooth offset. The patient developed asphyxia. What type of asphyxia is most likely in
this case?
A.
Stenotic asphyxia
B.
* Dislocation asphyxia
C.
Aspiration asphyxia
D.
Obstructive asphyxia
E.
Valvular asphyxia
22. Patient 27 years in consequence of the injury appear mobility nasal bones, soft tissue
swelling of the left vilochnoyi area, bleeding in the sclera of the left eye, a symptom
infraorbital steps to the edge on both sides and in the region of the zygomatic-jaw joints,
nasal bleeding, open bite. What is the preliminary diagnosis?
A.
Lefor III
B.
Fracture of nasal bones.
C.
* Fracture of the maxilla by Lefor II.
D.
Bone Fracture vilochnyh
E.
Lefor I.
23. After a traumatic fracture n / jaw in a patient '25 anesthesia occurred in the region of the
left half of the lower lip and chin.
When tested for EDI marked decrease
elektrozbudlyvosti teeth of the lower jaw to the left. What is the likely diagnosis disease
that happen?
A.
Neuralgia left inferior alveolar nerve.
B.
* Neuritis left inferior alveolar nerve.
C.
Alveolitis in the area of the hole 37 tooth.
D.
Herpes Zoster n. Trigemini.
E.
Acute osteomyelitis of the mandible body.
24. The dental surgeon '24 at age 38 tooth removal Leklyuza used the elevator. Once cheek
elevator was put between 37 and 38 teeth and carried attempt to dislocate 38 tooth, there
malocclusion. What is the most ymovirnye complications arose?
A.
Fracture of the alveolar process of the mandible.
B.
Partial dislocation of the tooth 37.
C.
Anterior dislocation of the mandible.
D.
* Fracture of the mandible in the region of the angle.
E.
Posterior dislocation of the mandible ..
25. Patient age in '29 diagnosed - bilateral fracture of the mandible in the region of 45 and
35 tooth offset. The patient developed asphyxia. What type of asphyxia is most likely in
this case?
A.
Stenotic asphyxia
B.
* Dislocation asphyxia
C.
Aspiration asphyxia
D.
Obstructive asphyxia
E.
Valvular asphyxia
26. Woman, 35, on the second day after the removal of tooth turned to OMFS complaining
of pain in chewing near earing area, a sense that there is no contact between the teeth of
the upper and lower jaw to the right. On examination: Chin zsunute left half-open mouth,
lips closed, bite broken. Limitation of lateral movements of the mandible. From the front
of the tragus of the right ear retraction of soft tissues. What research most informative in
this violation?
A.
Ultrasound
B.
Radiography of the mandible
C.
* RO - gram TMJ
D.
Bimanual
E.
Symptom burden
27. Patient M.44 years injured blunt object in the area of middle zone of the face. The
examination revealed: mobility nasal bones, a large swelling m "tissue left zygomatic
area, a symptom of" steps "along the bottom edge of the orbit on both sides and in the
region of the zygomatic-jaw joints, bleeding, open bite. Elongation of the middle part of
the face. Put diagnosed by clinical symptoms.
A.
Fracture of the upper jaw of Le Fort I
B.
Fracture of the left zygomatic bone
C.
Fracture of nasal bones
D.
* Fracture of the upper jaw of Le Fort II
E.
Fracture Le Fort III
28.
Patient '45 through-wound in the region of the mandible. Determined mental bilateral
fracture of the mandible with marked displacement of the central fragment backward,
bleeding from the wound channel is negligible. Consciousness
saved, Patient notes
shortness of breath, increased respiratory failure. PFM caused difficulty breathing
patient?
A.
Development of stenotic asphyxia
B.
Development of hemorrhagic shock
C.
Development of traumatic shock
D.
* Development of dislocation asphyxia
E.
Combined cranio-maxillo-facial trauma
29. Patient 34's, as a result of trauma [fall], there is mobility alveolar process of the maxilla
teeth of all, bite changed. In the X-ray determined fracture crack that runs from the
bottom of the pear-shaped hole in the maxillary sinus on both sides. Put diagnosis
A.
Partial fracture of the alveolar ridge
B.
* Fracture of the maxilla by Le Fort I
C.
Fracture of the maxilla by Le Fort II
D.
Fracture of the maxilla by Le Fort III
E.
Unilateral fracture of the maxilla
30. Patient 45 years complains of inability to close the teeth. Trouble eating, drooling.
When viewed chin shifted to the left and forward. Bite opened. Mouth close
can not. This state marks after a traffic accident. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.
Rear right-dislocation of the mandible.
B.
* Front right-dislocation of the mandible.
C.
Bilateral anterior dislocation of the mandible.
D.
Traumatic fracture of the right articular process of the mandible.
E.
Traumatic fracture left articular process of the mandible.
31. Patient B., 27 injured blunt object in the middle area of the face area. The examination
revealed: mobility nasal bones, a large swelling m "tissue left zygomatic area, a symptom
of" steps "along the bottom edge of the orbit on both sides and in the region of the
zygomatic-jaw joints, bleeding, open bite. Elongation of the middle part of the face. Put
diagnosed by clinical symptoms.
A.
Fracture of the upper jaw of Le Fort I
B.
Fracture of the left zygomatic bone
C.
Fracture of nasal bones
D.
* Fracture of the upper jaw of Le Fort II
E.
Fracture Le Fort III
32. The patient through-'55 gunshot wound in the area of the mandible. Determine the
bilateral mental fracture of mandible with marked displacement of the central fragment
backward, bleeding from the wound channel is negligible. Consciousness is retained, the
patient notes shortness of breath, increased respiratory failure. What caused difficulty
breathing patient?
A.
Development of stenotic asphyxia
B.
* Development of dislocation asphyxia
C.
Development of hemorrhagic shock
D.
Development of traumatic shock
E.
Combined cranio-maxillo-facial trauma
33. Patient 34's, as a result of trauma [fall], there is mobility alveolar process of the maxilla
teeth of all, bite changed. In the X-ray determined fracture crack that runs from the
bottom of the pear-shaped hole in the maxillary sinus on both sides. Put diagnosis
A.
Subbazalnyy fracture of the maxilla
B.
Partial fracture of the alveolar ridge
C.
* Subnazalnyy fracture of the maxilla
D.
Sub-orbital fracture of the maxilla
E.
Unilateral fracture of the maxilla
34. Patient N., 42 years old, delivered to the maxillofacial department about the injuries
received during an accident. During the review found, among other so-called "symptom
glasses." When a distributed and where indicated an isolated symptom of broken bones
basics alternation pas?
A.
* There is no earlier than 12 hours after injury and are within the limits of the
circular muscle of the eye
B.
There is no earlier than 12 hours after injury and a common character
C.
Occurs immediately after the injury and is distributed nature of the ter
D.
There is no earlier than 24-48 hours after injury and has spread
nature
E.
Occurs immediately after the injury and is not beyond the limits of the
circular muscle of the eye
35. In patients 24 years of mandible fractures in the midline without displacement of
fragments, all teeth are preserved. Which of dental splint should be used for the fixation of
bone fragments?
A.
* Smooth tire-clip
B.
A tire with aggressive loops
C.
A tire with spacer
D.
Tire Vasilyeva
E.
Standard plastic tire
36. The patient, 24, was injured during a fight, hit the maxillofacial department. Diagnosis:
fracture of the left zygomatic bone with displacement, fracture of the anterior wall of
maxillary sinus. What surgery is indicated to the patient?
A.
* Radical maxillary sinusotomy reposition of fragments
B.
Radical maxillary sinusotomy
C.
Osteotomy of the maxilla
D.
Osteosynthesis zygomatic bone
E.
Reposition fragments
37. Patient '20 delivered to the department within 6 hours after injury. OBJECTIVE:
malocclusion due to displacement of fragments. The teeth on the upper and lower jaw,
with the exception of 35 saved. On radiographs: fracture of the mandible. Chips shifted.
Which treatment you prefer?
A.
* Tires with aggressive hooks and rubber traction mizhschelepnoyu
B.
Vutrishorotovyy osteosynthesis using minplastyn
C.
Smooth tire-clip
D.
Mizhschelepnoyi ligature binding
E.
Pidboridkova sling.
38.
In patients with traumatic fracture of the medial mandibular teeth without bias
frahmentiv.Vsi intact. What kind of dental splint must be applied for fixing chips?
A. * Smooth-rail clip
B. Tire with aggressive hooks.
C. Tire Weber.
D. Standard tire Vasiliev
E.
Tire on an inclined plane.
39. Patient K., 28 years old, appealed with complaints of pain and pidochniy
pryvushnozhuvalniy area on the left. On examination, bleeding in the lower eyelid and
konyuktyvu left eye, marked symptoms krepytatsiyi and steps along the lower edge of the
orbit. The mouth opens to 1 cm. What is the correct diagnosis?
A. * Zygomatic bone fracture
B. Fracture of the zygomatic arch
C. Articular process fracture on the left
D. Traumatic arthritis of TMJ
E.
Hematoma pidochnoyi area
40. B. The patient, after being injured complains of limited mouth opening, bleeding skin
nosa.oniminnya pidochnoyi area and lower eyelids. OBJECTIVE: face deformation
occurs due to retraction of the soft tissues of the left zygomatic area, the presence of
symptoms of a "step" in the middle of the left lower edge of the orbit and in the area of the
zygomatic-alveolar ridge. Put diagnosis.
A. * Zygomatic bone fracture with displacement of fragments
B. Right zygomatic bone fracture without displacement of fragments
C. Fracture of the upper jaw to Lefor-I
D. Fracture of the upper jaw to Lefor - II
E.
Fracture of the zygomatic arch
41. In bhvoroho K. arms fractured mandible. To wound enjoyed removable. What means of
transport immobilization can be used in this case?
A. * Dentures patient
B. Apparatus Zbarzha
C. Tire Entin
D. Tire Vasilyeva
E.
Tire Tihershtedta
42. Patient K.75 years, potsupyla in dental office with a diagnosis of fracture of the right
mandible in the region of the angle of displacement. OBJECTIVE: Facial asymmetry due
to post-traumatic edema, palpation observed mobility of debris in the area of fracture pain.
In history - epilepsy since birth. What treatment suggest?
A. * Osteosynthesis
B. Immobilization tires Vasiliev
C. Immobilization tires Tihershtedta
D. Bus port.
E.
Immobilization tire Vankevycha
43. The patient is 50 years with a gunshot wound to the lower jaw and the bone defect in the
area of the chin. What method of immobilizing it shown?
A. * Pozarotovoyu device type Rud'ko
B.
Dvuschelepna tire with aggressive hooks and elastic stretching
mizhschelepnoyi
C. Bone suture
D. Odnoschelepna bus - clip.
E.
Fixation by means of needles and rods
44. Patient 67 years complains of pain, bleeding, breach of chewing. In history: domestic
trauma of the mandible. OBJECTIVE: dentition maxillary saved. Lower jaw toothless,
middle fracture of mandible defect with bone swelling at the fracture site. What is the
structure most appropriate in this case?
A. * Nazuboyasenna tire Vankevych
B. Nad'yasenna Bus Port
C. Nad'yasenna tire Huninha
D. Nazuboyasenna tire type Weber
E.
Complex Zbarzha
45. Patient '60 turned in maxillofacial hospital with complaints of pain, bleeding, breach of
chewing. A history of trauma of the mandible between the central incisors. Swelling at the
fracture site. Open your mouth is not limited. Both toothless jaw. What is the structure
most appropriate?
A. * Nayasenna Bus Port
B. Nayasenna tire Limberg
C. Apparatus Rud'ko
D. Nayasenna tire Huninha
E.
Tooth-gingival tire Vankevych
46. Patient 59 years old bilateral fracture n / jaw area 44 34 teeth remaining chewing teeth
are missing, toothless fragments unbiased, but moving. What is orthopedic apparatus
should be used to immobilize the fragments?
A. * Tire Vankevych of pilots.
B. Apparatus Rud'ko.
C. Tire Limberg.
D. Apparatus Petrosov.
E.
Apparatus Zbarzha.
47. Patient P., 30 years old was injured in the region of the middle third of the face.
Complained of pain, swelling of the soft tissues in the upper jaw, pain in the mouth is
closed. An examination diagnosed a fracture of the upper jaw Lefor-third. What do I need
to use the treatment?
A. * The unit Zbarzha
B. Tire Limberg
C. Tire Huninha port
D. Tire Vankevych
E.
Tire Stepanova
48. Patient, 40 years old, complains of pain in the lower jaw malocclusion. Grass got 6
hours ago. The examination found an isolated fracture of the mandibular incisors and
between the second canine left. Bias small fragments. All teeth available, stable. What is
the best treatment?
A. * Odnoschelepna of dental tire-clip
B. Osteosynthesis using mini-plates
C. Bucket of dental tires
D. Tire Hartsatnikova
E.
Tire Vasiliev
49. The patient is 22 years old, appealed to the dentist with complaints of pain during eating
and mouth opening. Two days ago was injured face. After examination and diagnosis of
the doctor decided to use a tire Vankevych, which are made of plastic on the upper jaw
and is used for fractures:
A.
* Mandible
B. Maxilla
C. Zygomatic bone
D. The numerous fractures
E.
Gunshot fractures
50. A patient 30 years old, fresh median fracture n / jaw without apparent displacement of
fragments. Which device to destination indicated in this case?
A. * Fixing
B. Guiding
C. Replacement
D. Vpravlyayuchyy
E.
Forming
51.The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment appealed patient S. 32 rock i in i of complaints about the
presence of tumor on the lower lip. Patients diagnosed with cancer of the lower lip when
conducting plastic lower lip after resection for cancer?
A. 1 month
B. 2 months
C. at the discretion of the surgeon
D. depends on the age of the patient
E. * simultaneously
52. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment appealed patient S. 42 rock i in i with complaints of
lower lip defect. For that, first of all, you need to look for when planning plastic surgery?
A. the cardiovascular and respiratory systems of the patient
B. qualified surgeon, the size of the defect, the condition of the skin
C. operating equipment, qualified surgeon
D. condition endocrine and digestive systems of patient
E.
* Location of the defect, its size, the condition of the skin, the ability to move
it
53. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment appealed patient P. 34 rock i at i on complaints of
penetrating defect face. For that, first of all, you need to look for when planning plastic
surgery?
A. the cardiovascular and respiratory systems of the patient
B. qualified surgeon, the size of the defect, the condition of the skin
C. operating equipment, qualified surgeon
D. condition endocrine and digestive systems of patient
E.
* Location of the defect, its size, the condition of the skin, the ability to move
it
54. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment asked the patient on 26 Rock from i to i complaining of
lower lip defect. The patient was planned plastic surgery. What kind of skin does not
recommend the use of the local plastic?
A. along the natural folds
B. of the abdomen
C. of the chest wall
D. * Macerated and fixed
E.
with a sun tan
55. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment appealed patient B. 43 rock i to i with complaints of
lower lip defect. The patient was planned plastic surgery. What are the contraindications
for the plastic surgery:
A. depletion
B. decompensated heart disease, kidney disease, liver
C. disease-forming organs
D. anemia
E.
* All the above listed diseases
56. Patient S. 37 rock i planned to plastic surgery that you know skin graft on feeding
pedicle used in plastic?
A. flap on two legs feeding
B. flap on one leg feeding
C. flap-artery
D. * All answers are correct
E.
flap on three legs feeding
57. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment asked the patient on 26 Rock from i to i complaining of
skin defect on the back of the nose. The patient was planned plastic surgery. Can formed
on his forehead flap transplanted to the wound nose simultaneously?
A. No, you can not
B. * Yes, you can
C. possible, but after training
D. at the discretion of the surgeon
E.
depends on the skill of the surgeon
58. In injured in a car accident on the back of the nose is nasal skin defect. The surgeon
plans to create a flap of skin on the forehead and simultaneously transplanted it into the
wound of the nose. It is possible to perform such an operation?
A. possible, but after training
B. No, you can not
C. at the discretion of the surgeon
D. * Yes, you can
E.
depends on the skill of the surgeon
59. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment turned Patient N. 25 rock i to i with complaints of skin
defect on the back of the nose. The patient was planned plastic surgery. In the frontal area
surgeon formed the hassle of skin on the leg to close the wound nose. Can be transplanted
immediately after formation of a flap?
A. possible, but after training
B. No, you can not
C. at the discretion of the surgeon
D. depends on the skill of the surgeon
E.
* Yes, you can
60. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment turned Patient N. 25 rock i to i with complaints of skin
defect on the bottom povitsi. The patient was planned plastic surgery. Is it possible to
create a flap of skin on top povitsi and simultaneously transplanted it into the lower
eyelid?
A. possible, but after training
B. No, you can not
C. * Yes, you can
D. at the discretion of the surgeon
E.
depends on the skill of the surgeon
61. Patient H, 54 years old, who turned in a dentist i CNU cl i n i ment to lower povitsi
defective in affected skin. The surgeon plans to create a flap of skin on top povitsi and
simultaneously transplanted it into the wound of the lower eyelid. Is m ozhlyvo perform
this operation?
A. possible, but after training
B. No, you can not
C. at the discretion of the surgeon
D. * Yes, you can
E.
depends on the skill of the surgeon
62. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment appealed patient B. 53 rock i to i with complaints of skin
defect on the bottom povitsi. The patient was planned plastic surgery. The top povitsi
surgeon formed the hassle of skin on the leg to close the wounds of the lower eyelid. Can
be transplanted immediately after formation of a flap?
A. possible, but after training
B. No, you can not
C. at the discretion of the surgeon
D. depends on the skill of the surgeon
E.
* Yes, you can
63. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment appealed patient B. 53 rock i to i with complaints of skin
defect on the nose. The patient was planned plastic surgery. The surgeon plans to create a
flap of skin on the inner surface of the upper arm and simultaneously transplanted it into
the wound of the nose. It is possible to perform such an operation?
A. possible, but after training
B. No, you can not
C. at the discretion of the surgeon
D. * Yes, you can
E.
depends on the skill of the surgeon
64. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment appealed patient S. 52 rock i in i with complaints of
facial defect. The patient was planned for plastic surgery classic Italian method. Why
spend this technique plastics?
A. replacement of the defect of the lower lip
B. replacement of defect chin
C. * Replacement of a defect of the nose
D. defect replacement ear shells
E.
replacement eyelid defect
65. Patient K., 45 years after the trauma of the skin defect is formed in the middle of the
upper lip. The defect was closed by moving the flaps, a cut from the same lips by sliding.
Do I need to cut down excess skin formed on top of the flap?
A. * Yes, you
B. No, I do not need to
C. they can hide
D. at the discretion of the surgeon
E.
depends on the skill of the surgeon
66. Patient S., 34 years as a result of the accident formed a small defect in the skin of the
upper lip, which was closed by moving the flaps, a cut from the same lips by sliding. Do I
need to cut down excess skin formed on top of the flap?
A. No, I do not need to
B. they can hide
C. * Yes, you
D. at the discretion of the surgeon
E.
depends on the skill of the surgeon
67. Patient N. 37 rock i in which i contacted the dentist CNU cl i n i ment was found benign
or malignant tumor of the skin. Where you want to send a patient?
A. the surgical department of general type
B. in the skin clinic
C. in surgical dental office
D. the Department of Plastic Surgery
E.
* In Oncology Center
68. In Patient 47 rock i in which i contacted the dentist CNU cl i n i ment was detected
defect acquired facial skin. Where you want to send a patient?
A. in Oncology Center
B. in surgical wards of general type
C. * In surgical dental offices
D. in the offices of Plastic Surgery
E.
in skin clinics
69. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment appealed patient B. 53 rock i to i with complaints of skin
defect on the nose. The patient was planned for surgery plate. What should be understood
by the word "plastic"?
A. restore the normal shape and function of the body, certain organs and tissues
that are underdeveloped in the embryonic period
B.
restore the normal shape and function of the body, certain organs and tissues
that have been destroyed by disease
C.
restore the normal shape and function of the body, certain organs and tissues
that have been damaged injury
D. * All answers are correct
E.
restore the normal shape and function of the body, certain organs and tissues
that have been damaged operations
70. Patient B., 34 years old had a free transplant split flap of skin from the upper third of the
thigh granulating wound on the right cheek. How is this plastic?
A. homoplasty
B. * Autoplasty
C. heteroplastyka
D. aloplastyka
E.
free plastic
71. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment appealed patient B. 53 rock i at i on complaints of
granulating wound frontal area. The patient was transplanted split flap of skin from the
upper third of the thigh. How is this plastic?
A. homoplasty
B. aloplastyka
C. heteroplastyka
D. * Autoplasty
E.
free plastic
72. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment appealed patient B. 53 rock i to i with complaints about
the defect of the left half of the mandible length 4 cm defect was made of plastic flat
bones of cattle (after special treatment). How is this plastic?
A. autoplasty
B. homoplasty
C. * Heteroplastyka
D. aloplastyka
E.
free plastic
73. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment turned Patient BS 53 i rock at who was diagnosed with
cancer of the mandible. The patient was performed resection of the mandible defect and
replaced the flat bones of cattle (after special treatment). How is this plastic?
A. autoplasty
B. aloplastyka
C. homoplasty
D. free plastic
E.
* Heteroplastyka
74. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment turned Patient N. 33 Rock in i, which crashed formed
defect frontal section of the mandible. The patient held record of chips with a special
metal plate. How is this operation?
A. autoplasty
B. homoplasty
C. heteroplastyka
D. metal plastic
E.
* Aloplastyka
75. Patient B. 53 rock i after resection of the mandible on osteoblastoklastomy defect
replaced with a special metal plate. How is this operation?
A. autoplasty
B. * Aloplastyku
C. homoplasty
D. metal plastic
E.
heteroplastyku
76. Patient 47 in rock i was performed resection for cancer of the lower lip. How long is the
plastic closure of defect?
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. a week
D. pisdya obtain histological conclusion
E.
* Done simultaneously
77. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment appealed patient B. 53 rock i to i with complaints of skin
defect on the nose. The patient was planned plastic surgery. When planning plastic
surgery on the need to pay attention to the priority?
A. * Location of the defect, its size, the condition of the skin, the ability to move
it
B. qualified surgeon, the size of the defect, the condition of the skin
C. operating equipment, qualified surgeon
D. the cardiovascular and respiratory systems of the patient
E.
condition endocrine and digestive systems of patient
78. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment appealed patient B. 53 rock i to i with complaints of skin
defect of the lower eyelid patient planned use of plastic surgery Filatov stem. What Do
You Know the main stages of plastic?
A. * Formation transplant, the stem rozplastuvannya
B. formation rozplastuvannya transplant the stem
C. transplantation, forming, stems rozplastuvannya
D. forming, correction, change stems
E.
correction, change, forming the stem
79. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment appealed patient MM 52 rock i in i with complaints of
skin defect of the lower eyelid patient planned use of plastic surgery Filatov stem. Filatov
stem prepared for transplantation. Since he squeezed the blood left on foot, subject to the
transfer, rubber band. Because time will come normal skin coloring stems?
A. 10 seconds
B. 20 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 1 minute
E.
* Immediately
80. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment appealed patient MM 52 rock i in i with complaints of
skin defect of the lower eyelid patient planned plastic surgery using Filatov stem. What
can happen partial or complete necrosis Filatov stem?
A. * All answers are correct
B. compression
C. distortion legs
D. inflection of his excessive
E.
all the answers are not correct
81. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment appealed patient MM 52 rock i in i with complaints of
skin defect of the lower eyelid patient planned plastic surgery using Filatov stem. What
first depends on the viability of the stem Filatov during its formation and transplantation?
A. * The ratio of length and width of the strip of leather used and preserved
vascular pattern
B. thickness of the subcutaneous tissue
C. surface of the body where the flap is formed
D. qualified surgeon
E.
equipment operating
82. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment appealed patient MM 52 rock i in i with complaints of
skin defect in the skin of the lower eyelid plastic surgery to perform step stems sometimes
use the anatomical snuffbox. What is the anatomical snuffbox?
A. the lower third of the forearm
B. space between 2 and 3 outer surface of the palm fingers
C. outer surface of palm
D. * The space between fingers 1 and 2, the outer surface of the palm
E.
middle third of the forearm
83. Patient N. 32 years old, who complained of the lack of contact between the frontal teeth,
excessive growth of the mandible. OBJECTIVE: facial deformation due to protrusion of
the lower jaw to the front. In prohenichnomu bite are front and side teeth. In a state of
central occlusion is a gap between the upper and lower front teeth. What disease patient?
A. * Makroheniya.
B. Mikroheniya
C. Micrognathia.
D. Prognathism.
E.
Open bite
84. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment appealed Patient 32 rock i to i with complaints of skin
defect of the right cheek. The patient was planned plastic surgery. Will retain mobility
transplant if transplanted to recipient wound in the entire thickness of the skin?
A. no
B. * So
C. yes, but be sure to irradiate ultraviolet rays
D. yes, but be sure to apply massage
E.
No, mobility is lost for a very long time
85. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment appealed Patient 22 rock i at i on complaints of defective
skin. The patient was planned for plastic free skin graft. What are the main benefits of this
plastic?
A. * All answers are correct
B. protects the wound from gross scarring
C. significantly reduces the healing time
D. protects the wound from infection
E.
correct answers B and C
86. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment turned Patient K. 27 rock i in i with complaints of skin
defect of the right cheek. The patient was planned plastic surgery. What negative thing
can happen during pryhoyennya thin split skin graft?
A. * Its shrinkage
B. his hyperpigmentation
C. its redness
D. its swelling
E.
it ztonshennya
87. The dentist i CNU cl i n i ment appealed patient P. 28 rock i to i with complaints of skin
defect of the right cheek. The patient was planned plastic surgery. What size should have
a skin graft of medium thickness?
A. * Its size should slightly exceed the size of the wound-recipient
B. its size must match the size of the wound-recipient
C. unlimited size
D. graft area must not exceed half of the palm of the patient
E.
graft area should not exceed the patient's hand
88. Patient B. '32 to close granulating wounds on his face taken several pieces of medium
thickness leather on the side of the abdomen. How does the donor wound healing?
A. it must sew silk
B. it is necessary to transplant skin
C. * It heals spontaneously and rapidly
D. it is necessary to close the local tissues
E.
necessary to use artificial materials
89. Patient T. '45 to close the granulating wound on the nose take a piece of skin of medium
thickness in the upper-outer quadrant of the buttock. As the wound healed donor?
A. it must sew silk
B. it is necessary to transplant skin
C. necessary to use artificial materials
D. it is necessary to close the local tissues
E.
* It heals spontaneously and rapidly
90. Patient K. '52 after a car accident defect formed skin. The patient was planned plastic
surgery. What changes occur with skin graft after transplantation?
A. * He second shrinks
B. He nekrotyzuyetsya
C. it is partially absorbed
D. He depihmentuyetsya
E.
He intensely stained
91. Patient B. '32 is scheduled for replacement plastic mandibular defect graft taken from twin.
What type of transplant is planned to apply in this case?
A. Autografting
B. * Izotransplantatsiya
C. Alotransplantatsiya
D. Xenotransplantation
E. Explantation
92. Patient R. '54 is scheduled for replacement plastic mandibular defect with split graft his own
ribs. What type of transplant is planned to apply in this case?
A. Alotransplantatsiya
B. . Izotransplantatsiya
C. *. Autografting
D. Xenotransplantation
E. Explantation
93. Patient S. '25 was a partial resection of the mandible on ameloblastamy. The resulting defect
branches and the body of the jaw napivmisyatsevoyi clippings to 36 teeth. What a way to
replace the defect is most appropriate:
A. * Plastic defect autograft taken from iliac crest
B. Tummy defect autograft taken from the rib
C. Tummy defect formalized allograft
D. Tummy defect lyophilized graft
E. Tummy defect formalized spongy alo-or brefokistkoyu
94. Patient N. of 16, which is 5-year-old had surgery on uranoplastyky congenital cleft palate,
defined chayetsya distal occlusion. What is the cause of this pathology in the patient's bite?
A. * Hypoplasia of the maxilla
B. Excessive growth of the mandible
C. Ineffective surgery
D. Bad Habits
E. Violation of nasal breathing
95. Patient A. '25 available posttraumatic defect of the left wing of the nose krylnoho violation of
the integrity of cartilage. Which treatment is most effective:
A. Tummy skin graft for Sedillo
B. Free skin grafts
C. Free plastic cartilage by Limberg
D. Plastic Filatov stem
E. * Free plastic part of the ear for the wort?
96. Patient M. 33 years appealed to the Department of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery with
complaints of cosmetic defect in the region of the right half of the nose. From history we know
that the patient was injured about 7 months ago shoot a firearm. OBJECTIVE: In the area of
the right half of the nose is celebrated through-defect measuring 1.5 x 2 cm skin color around
the defect was not changed. The decision to use "Indian" method of rhinoplasty. Which areas
of the body tissue is taken to correct the defect:
A. Skin flap shoulder
B. Skin flap cheeks
C. Skin flap infraorbital area
D. * The skin of the forehead flap
E. Skin flap shoulder-scapular region?
97. Patient B. '12 diagnosed with true lower prognathism. Facial features are expressed. The
upper jaw is normal. Sagittal slit 6 mm. All erupted permanent teeth, except 18, 28, 38 and 48.
What treatment plan:
A. Henioplastyka
B. Bilateral mandibular osteotomy a surface by Rud'ko
C. * Removing rudiments of 38 and 48 teeth, orthodontic treatment
D. Removing 34, 44 teeth, orthodontic treatment aimed at adapting bite
E. Bilateral mandibular osteotomy for Rauerom
98. Patient N. 23 years complaining about the shortening of the upper lip gloss nezmykannya, the
presence of the gap between the upper and lower frontal teeth. OBJECTIVE: maxilla anteriorly
favor due to its over-development, shortening the upper lip. Between the upper and lower front
teeth is a gap in the sagittal direction. What type strain present in this case:
A. Mikroheniya
B. * Prognathism
C. Retrohnatiya
D. Progeny
E. Micrognathia
99. Patient '34 about a defect in the region of the angle of the mandible and branches up to 6.0 cm
performed opera tion to restore the jaw crest of the ilium own. What type of transplantation
used in patients:
A. Xenotransplantation
B. Alotransplantatsiya
C. yizotransplantatsiya
D. * Autografting
E. Explantation
100. A patient aged 16 complains of jaw protrusion forward bite difficult act, retraction of the
upper lip. As a child, had surgery uranoplastyku. OBJECTIVE: upper lip sinks, chin normally
developed mandible protruding. At IU dialnomu bite are some front teeth. The rest of the teeth
in the correct ratio. Click diagnosis
A. The lower prognathism
B. Genuine progeny
C. * False progeny
D. The upper prognathism
E. Lower retrohnatiya
101. Patient S. 23 years after removal of osteogenic tumors of the jaw is a need for replacement
of defect transplant material. The use account the origin of the material which reaches the best
results bone grafting:
A. Implant
B. Allogeneic
C. Xenogeneic
D. Use of combined transplants
E. * Autogenous
102. Patient complains of '20 no contact between the frontal teeth, excessive growth of the
mandible. OBJECTIVE: face deformation due to the protrusion of the lower jaw forward. In
prohenichnomu bite are front and side teeth. Able cent ral occlusion is a gap between the upper
and lower front teeth. What is the disease of the patient:
A. Open bite
B. Mikroheniya
C. Micrognathia
D. Prognathism
E. * Makroheniya
103. Patient was hospitalized to '17 maxillofacial department for congenital facial deformity of
the skull. During the inspection and examination revealed asymmetry of the face due to the
underdevelopment of the lower jaw and chin offset to the left side. When you open your mouth
face asymmetry becomes more pronounced. According to the medical history revealed that at
the age of 5 years, the patient underwent an inflammatory process in the region of the left
branch of the mandible. Click to clinical diagnosis
A. * Unilateral (asymmetric) mikroheniya
B. Bilateral (symmetric) mikroheniya
C. False progeny
D. Prognathism
E. Makrohnatiya.
104. The girl of 3 years, in which the upper lip and alveolar outgrowth divided into 3 pieces, the
average fragment dramatically shifted forward and upward, wings flattened nose, mouth
whole. Identify the full clinical diagnosis
A. * Congenital bilateral through-cleft upper lip and alveolar bone, bone protrusion
mizhschelepnoyi
B. Congenital bilateral partial cleft upper lip and alveolar bone
C. Congenital bilateral hidden cleft upper lip and alveolar bone
D. Congenital bilateral hidden cleft upper lip protrusion mizhschelepnoyi bone
E. Congenital bilateral partial cleft upper lip.
105. Newborn baby disposable birth defect of the soft tissues of the upper lip on the left, which is
below the lower division of the nasal opening, alveolar outgrowth and palate goals. To
establish a diagnosis:
A. * Congenital partial left-sided cleft upper lip
B. Congenital left-sided complete cleft upper lip
C. Congenital left-sided concealed cleft upper lip
D. Congenital left-sided complete cleft upper lip and co mirkovoho process
E. Congenital partial left-sided cleft upper lip co mirkovoho process.
106. 45-year-old woman from the first pregnancy gave birth to a baby girl, whose upper lip
and alveolar process are divided into 3 pieces, the middle piece abruptly shifted forward
and upward, wings flattened nose, mouth whole. Artificial feeding, in the absence of milk
in the mother. What a complete clinical diagnosis
A.
* Congenital bilateral through-cleft upper lip and alveolar process bone
protrusion mizhschelepnoyi
B.
Congenital bilateral through-partial cleft upper lip and alveolar process bone
protrusion mizhschelepnoyi
C. Congenital bilateral hidden cleft upper lip and alveolar process
D. Congenital bilateral hidden cleft upper lip protrusion mizhschelepnoyi bone
E.
Congenital bilateral partial cleft upper lip
107. To children's maxillofacial department entered 3 year old girl with a diagnosis of
congenital cleft 1/2 hard and soft palate, polydactyly. What specialists should be involved
for rehabilitation of the child?
A. * Maxillofacial surgeon, pediatrician, otolaryngologist, speech pathologist, an
orthodontist, a psychologist, an orthopedic surgeon;
B.
Maxillofacial surgeon, pediatrician, speech therapist, orthodontist, orthopedic
surgeon;
C.
Maxillofacial surgeon, pediatrician, otolaryngologist, speech therapist,
psychologist;
D. Maxillofacial surgeon, otolaryngologist, speech pathologist, an orthodontist;
E.
Maxillofacial surgeon, psychologist, orthodontist, orthopedic surgeon.
108. In the consulting services of the clinic of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery delivered
baby sh 1 month. When viewed objectively revealed bilateral cleft upper lip, hard and soft
palate with considerable vystoyannyam intermaxillary bone. In terms of fetal development
are shaped upper lip and palate?
A. upper lip - 1 month., palate, 1 month.
B. upper lip - 5 months., palate-6 months.
C. upper lip - 4 months., palate-5 months.
D. upper lip - 8 months., palate-9 months.
E.
* Upper lip - the end of 2 months., Palate-2-3 months.
109. On examination to the maxillofacial surgeon delivered the baby R. 1 month.
OBJECTIVE during the inspection revealed a crack, which is located in the transverse
direction from the right angle of the mouth through the whole thickness of the cheek to the
edge of chewing muscles. What is the diagnosis for this patient?
A. Dextral oblique cleft face.
B. Cleft nose.
C. Dextral erhnoyi cleft in the lip.
D. Cleft mandible.
E.
* Right-side lateral cleft face.
110. In the department of pathology of the newborn baby to B. 2 days, consult caused by
maxillofacial surgeon. Clinically, an objective examination of the person revealed that
upper lip and alveolar process are divided into 3 pieces, the middle piece abruptly shifted
forward and upward, wings flattened nose, mouth whole. Titles and t and b to b and l sh
likely diagnosis?
A. Congenital bilateral partial cleft upper lip
B.
Congenital bilateral through-partial cleft upper lip and alveolar process bone
protrusion mizhschelepnoyi
C.
* Congenital bilateral through-cleft upper lip and alveolar process bone
protrusion mizhschelepnoyi
D. Congenital bilateral hidden cleft upper lip and alveolar process
E. Congenital bilateral hidden cleft upper lip protrusion mizhschelepnoyi bone
111. Girl 3 weeks of diagnosis: congenital bilateral cleft through-the upper lip and palate.
Child somatically healthy. Determine the approximate duration of the heyloplastyky and
uranostafiloplastyky.
A. * 6-9 months - heyloplastyka, 1.5-3 years - uranostafiloplastyka
B. 6-9 months - heyloplastyka, 5-6 years - uranostafiloplastyka
C. 12-18 months - heyloplastyka 3-5 years - uranostafiloplastyka
D. 3-5 months - heyloplastyka, 1-2 years - uranostafiloplastyka
E.
18-20 months - heyloplastyka 5-7 years - uranostafiloplastyka
112. The girl suffered heyloplastyku 3 years 4 months uranostafiloplastyku 2.5 years. Has
mesial occlusion and snuffle, small vocabulary, become uncircumcised peers. What
specialists should be involved to prepare the child for school?
A. A speech pathologist
B. Psychologist
C. Orthodontist
D. * All of these
E. audiologist
113. By the maxillofacial department admitted patient P. 54 rock i at i on defect diagnosis
face. For that, first of all, you need to look for when planning plastic surgery?
A. the cardiovascular and respiratory systems of the patient
B. qualified surgeon, the size of the defect, the condition of the skin
C. operating equipment, qualified surgeon
D. condition endocrine and digestive systems of patient
E.
* Location of the defect, its size, the condition of the skin, the ability to move
it
114. By the maxillofacial department arrived on 26 Rock patient i in a defect of the lower
lip. The patient was planned plastic surgery. What kind of skin does not recommend the
use of the local plastic?
A. along the natural folds
B. of the abdomen
C. of the chest wall
D. * Macerated and fixed
E.
with a sun tan
115. By the maxillofacial department arrived Patient B. 43 rock i in i with complaints of
upper lip defect. The patient was planned plastic surgery. What are the contraindications
for the plastic surgery:
A. depletion
B. decompensated heart disease, kidney disease, liver
C. disease-forming organs
D. anemia
E.
* All the above listed diseases
116. By the maxillofacial department arrived Patient i S. 37 Rock in which planned plastic
surgery you know skin graft on feeding pedicle used in plastic?
A. flap on two legs feeding
B. flap on one leg feeding
C. flap-artery
D. * All answers are correct
E.
flap on three legs feeding
117. By the maxillofacial department arrived on 26 Rock patient i at i on complaints of skin
defect on the back of the nose. The patient was planned plastic surgery. Can formed on his
forehead flap transplanted to the wound nose simultaneously?
A. No, you can not
B. * Yes, you can
C. possible, but after training
D. at the discretion of the surgeon
E.
depends on the skill of the surgeon
118. By the maxillofacial department arrived patient who is at the back of the nasal skin
defect of the nose. The surgeon plans to create a flap of skin on the forehead and
simultaneously transplanted it into the wound of the nose. It is possible to perform such an
operation?
A. possible, but after training
B. No, you can not
C. at the discretion of the surgeon
D. * Yes, you can
E.
depends on the skill of the surgeon
119. By the maxillofacial department arrived Patient N. 25 rock i at i on complaints of skin
defect on the back of the nose. The patient was planned plastic surgery. In the frontal area
surgeon formed the hassle of skin on the leg to close the wound nose. Can be transplanted
immediately after formation of a flap?
A. possible, but after training
B. No, you can not
C. at the discretion of the surgeon
D. depends on the skill of the surgeon
E.
* Yes, you can
120. A child born with a through alveolar bone nonunion, hard and
soft palate.
What is the optimal way of feeding of the child for surgical
treatment?
A. Probe food for six months
B. * Making obturator
C. Using conventional pacifiers
D. Feeding in the presence of medical personnel
E.
Feeding the baby using a spoon
121. A child born with a left-sided defect of the upper lip, alveolar bone, hard and soft
palate. State the correct diagnosis.
A. * Congenital left-sided through-cleft alveolar bone, hard and soft palate
B. Congenital cleft through-the upper lip and palate
C. Congenital cleft lip, palate and alveolar bone
D. Cleft palate
E.
Harelip
122. Parents, child 3 years old, complained of recurrent getting food into the nasal cavity
during breastfeeding. OBJECTIVE: within the soft palate is defined slit defect. Put
diagnosis.
A. Hidden born cleft palate
B. Isolated cleft hard and soft palate
C. Cleft palate
D. Combined cleft palate
E.
* Isolated partial cleft soft palate
123. Patient S., appealed to the dentist after a car accident with complaints mandibular
defect .. We plan to hold the plastic to the performance of vertical and horizontal jaw
osteotomy with transposition of pieces and filling in the spaces created biomaterials. How
is this plastic?
A. * Bone transplantation plastic with fixing material in the middle of the bone.
B. No vrinoyi response.
C. Any bone grafting.
D. Bone grafting for Borowski.
E.
Bone grafting with fixation transplant material "vnakladku."
124. Patient S., appealed to the dentist after a car accident with complaints mandibular
defect .. We plan to hold the plastic of the proposed EA Limberg. What is the first stage of
the operation?
A. In transferring the graft on the leg with soft tissue defect in the mandible.
B. * In pidsadtsi appropriate size piece ribs in well-preserved soft tissue.
C. In the dissection of the soft tissues and exposure of the ribs.
D. In the dissection of the periosteum.
E.
In carrying transplants of soft tissues around the defect of the mandible.
125. Patient S., appealed to the dentist after a car accident with complaints mandibular
defect .. planned reconstruction of the alveolar process to the entire alveolar arch. What
bone is best to use?
A. Radiation.
B. Phalanx of the index finger.
C. * Rib.
D. Phalanx of the ring finger.
E.
Bones are not used for transplantation of alveolar arches.
126. Patient I., 43, lodged a complaint with the partial absence of teeth on the lower jaw.
We plan to hold a dental implant. In order to increase the number of bone graft used for
implantation of the hill of the upper jaw. In this area the graft is taken in the form:
A. * Wedge piece.
B. Angulate shape.
C. A rectangular piece.
D. Oval piece.
E.
From this site does not take graft.
127. Patient I., 43, lodged a complaint with the partial absence of teeth on the lower jaw.
We plan to hold a dental implant. In order to increase the number of bone graft
implantation should be used to:
A. Sponge.
B. Cortical plate.
C. Cortical-spongy.
D. * The correct answers are a and b.
E.
The correct answers are a, b, c.
128. Patient I., 43, lodged a complaint with the partial absence of teeth on the lower jaw.
We plan to hold a dental implant. What are synthetic biomaterials used to increase the
number of bone for implantation.
A. "Kolapola CP-3."
B. "Kollapona."
C. «Osteo Gen».
D.
* All answers are correct.
E.
There is no right answer.
129. Patient T., 42 years is planned transplantation transplantation of animal. What do you
call this type of transplant?
A. * Xenograft.
B. Heterotransplantat.
C. Biotransplantat.
D. Autografts.
E.
Allotransplants.
130. Patient L., 44, complained to a defect in the mandible, which was formed after the
removal of the tumor. We plan to hold autoplasty. The materials from which the bones are
used most often for autoplasty jaw?
A. Brush, spatula and fibula bones.
B. Edge, the edge of the lower jaw, the heel bone.
C. Cranial bones.
D. The ribs had ankle.
E.
* Rib bone, iliac, the edge of the mandible.
131. Patient, 34 years old, appealed with complaints of nasal saddle deformity that occurred
after removal of the tumor. What plastic is used to eliminate this strain?
A. * Hondroplastyka.
B. Autoplasty.
C. Implants.
D. Aloplastyka.
E.
Autotransplantation.
132. Patient, 33 years old, complained to the partial absence of teeth on the lower jaw. We
plan to hold a dental implant. In order to increase the number of bones for implantation.
using soluble «OsteoGen». What does he represent?
A. * Bone-inductive protein from nekolahenovoyi matrix in powder form.
B. Powder derived coral skeletal carbonate.
C. Viscous liquid.
D. Hydroxyapatite powder.
E.
Hydroxyapatite granules.
133. Patient, 43 years old, complained to the partial absence of teeth on the lower jaw. We
plan to hold a dental implant. What domestic plastic materials based on hydroxyapatite
and collagen: used to increase the number of bone for implants?
A. "SCHSTIM 100."
B. * "Collapan."
C. «OsteoGen».
D. «Bio - Oss».
E.
«Interpore-200."
134. Patient, 43 years old, complained to the partial absence of teeth on the lower jaw. We
plan to hold a dental implant, but we have to do with fixing plastic bone transplants
"vnakladku" to increase the body of the mandible. Which area of the mandible graft is
placed in such plastic?:
A. * Its basis.
B. The branches of the lower jaw.
C. Alveolar bone.
D. All answers are correct.
E.
There is no right answer
135. Patient, 43 years old, complained to the partial absence of teeth on the lower jaw. We
plan to hold a dental implant, but we have to do with fixing plastic bone transplants
"vnakladku" to increase the body of the mandible. In which case, graft-pad can be split:
A. * When using the crest of the ilium.
B. When using a fragment of jaw.
C. When using the cranial vault.
D. When using edge.
E.
When using small and tibia bones.
136. Patient, 43 years is planned replacement of the defect face transplant from the cranial
vault. What section is carried out for the taking of the graft?
A. * Napivmistsevoyi form.
B. Trapezoidal shape.
C. Wedge shape.
D. Rounded.
E.
None of the correct answer.
137. Patient, 43 years old, complained to the partial absence of teeth on the lower jaw. We
plan to hold a dental implant. What transplants can be used for this?
A. Cortical.
B. Sponged.
C. Cortical-spongy.
D. * All answers are correct.
E.
None of the correct answer.
138. Patient, 43 years old, complained to the partial absence of teeth on the lower jaw. We
plan to hold a dental implant. For this purpose:
A. Bone grafting segments of the jaw.
B. Bone grafting of the alveolar processes of the jaw.
C. Reconstruction of the maxilla.
D. * Reconstruction of the mandible.
E.
All answers are correct.
139. Patient B., 44, lodged a complaint with the partial absence of teeth on the lower jaw.
We plan to hold a dental implant, but it needs to increase the height and width of the body
of the mandible. In such cases, use:
A. * Autokistku.
B. Allokistku.
C. Ksenotkanynu.
D. All answers are correct.
E.
There is no right answer.
140. In somatoloh CNU i cl i n i ment appealed patient R. 32 rock i at i on complaints for
the tumor on the lower lip. Patients diagnosed with cancer of the lower lip of stage III. He
needs to spend extirpation lips to close the defect and form patches of skin on the leg in
the area of feeding:
A. Cheek
B. * Nasolabial folds
C. upper lip
D. Neck
E.
chin
141. Patient 45 rock i diagnosed carcinoma of the lower lip of stage II. Are planned
resection lips. In which area needs to form patches on the feeding pedicle to close defects?
A. nasolabial folds
B. upper lip
C. pidpidboriddya
D. * Lower lip
E.
Cheek
142. Patient 34 rock i to i made a complaint to the presence of tumor on the lower lip.
Patients diagnosed with cancer of the lower lip, lower lip plasty after resection for cancer
of conduct:
A. 1 month
B. * Simultaneously
C. 2 months
D. at the discretion of the surgeon
E.
depends on the age of the patient
143. Patient MM 25 rock i turned in a complaint about a through defect that occupies
several areas of the face. What needs to Dr A defect closure?
A. Square plastic material equal to the area of the defect
B. 2.5 times more plastic material
C. 3 times more plastic material
D. * 2 times more plastic material
E.
3.5 times more plastic material
144. In patients with AL, 43 years after the car accident occurred large penetrating wound
of the face. C sardines plastic material should be taken to close the defect?
A. * 2 times more plastic material
B. 2.5 times more plastic material
C. Square plastic material equal to the area of the defect
D. 3 times more plastic material
E.
3.5 times more plastic material
145. Patient B. 32 rock i in i made a complaint to a defect of the lower lip. When planning a
plastic surgery that, first of all, you need to look for?
A. the cardiovascular and respiratory systems of the patient
B.
* Location of the defect, its size, the condition of the skin, the ability to move
it
C. qualified surgeon, the size of the defect, the condition of the skin
D. operating equipment, qualified surgeon
E.
condition endocrine and digestive systems of patient
146. In the surgical department appealed Patient 33 rock i at i on complaints of penetrating
defect face. For that, first of all, you need to look for when planning plastic surgery?
A. the cardiovascular and respiratory systems of the patient
B. qualified surgeon, the size of the defect, the condition of the skin
C.
* Location of the defect, its size, the condition of the skin, the ability to move
it
D. operating equipment, qualified surgeon
E.
condition endocrine and digestive systems of patient
147. Patient S. 46 rock i to i made a complaint to a defect of the lower lip. The patient was
planned plastic surgery. What kind of skin does not recommend the use of the local
plastic?
A. * Macerated and fixed
B. along the natural folds
C. of the abdomen
D. of the chest wall
E.
with a sun tan
148. Patient N. 43 rock i to i made a complaint to the defect of the upper lip. The patient
was planned plastic surgery. What are the contraindications for the plastic surgery:
A. depletion
B. decompensated heart disease, kidney disease, liver
C. disease-forming organs
D. anemia
E.
* All the above listed diseases
149. Patient S. 37 rock i planned to plastic surgery What skin graft on feeding pedicle used
in plastic?
A. flap on two legs feeding
B. * All answers are correct
C. flap on one leg feeding
D. flap-artery
E.
flap on three legs feeding
150. Patient No. 47 rock i planned to plastic surgery. What is the greatest ratio of width to
length is recommended for shaping the flap on the feeding pedicle on the head and neck?
A. * 1:5
B. 1:2
C. 1:3
D. 1:4
E.
1:6
151. Patient N. 35 rock i to i made a complaint to a defect of the lower lip. The patient was
planned plastic surgery. At what level is held exfoliation of skin flaps for feeding the leg?
A. with the muscle fascia
B. at the discretion of the surgeon
C. This rule does not play a big role
D. * Above the muscle fascia
E.
with the muscle fascia and muscles subordinates
152. Patient J. 36 rock i to i made a complaint to the skin defect on the back of the nose.
The patient was planned to form on his forehead flap transplanted to the wound nose
simultaneously. What Can I Do?
A. * Yes, you can
B. No, you can not
C. possible, but after training
D. at the discretion of the surgeon
E.
depends on the skill of the surgeon
153. Patient N. 35 rock i to i made a complaint to the back of the nasal skin defect. The
surgeon plans to create a flap of skin on the forehead and simultaneously transplanted it
into the wound of the nose. It is possible to perform such an operation?
A. possible, but after training
B. No, you can not
C. * Yes, you can
D. at the discretion of the surgeon
E.
depends on the skill of the surgeon
154. Patient S. 25 rock i to i made a complaint to the skin defect on the back of the nose. In
the frontal area surgeon formed the hassle of skin on the leg to close the wound nose. Can
be transplanted immediately after formation of a flap?
A. possible, but after training
B. No, you can not
C. at the discretion of the surgeon
D. * Yes, you can
E.
depends on the skill of the surgeon
155. Patient R. 35 rock i to i made a complaint to the skin defect on the bottom povitsi. Is it
possible to create a flap of skin on top povitsi and simultaneously transplanted it into the
lower eyelid?
A. * Yes, you can
B. possible, but after training
C. No, you can not
D. at the discretion of the surgeon
E.
depends on the skill of the surgeon
156. Patient R., 34 years old i made a complaint to the skin defect on the bottom povitsi.
The surgeon plans to create a flap of skin on top povitsi and simultaneously transplanted it
into the wound of the lower eyelid. Is m ozhlyvo perform this operation?
A. possible, but after training
B. * Yes, you can
C. No, you can not
D. at the discretion of the surgeon
E.
depends on the skill of the surgeon
157. Patient B. 53 rock i in i made a complaint to the skin defect on the bottom povitsi. The
patient was planned plastic surgery. The top povitsi surgeon formed the hassle of skin on
the leg to close the wounds of the lower eyelid. Can be transplanted immediately after
formation of a flap?
A. possible, but after training
B. No, you can not
C. at the discretion of the surgeon
D. * Yes, you can
E.
depends on the skill of the surgeon
158. Patient 33 rock i to i made a complaint to the skin defect on the nose. The surgeon
plans to create a flap of skin on the inner surface of the upper arm and simultaneously
transplanted it into the wound of the nose. It is possible to perform such an operation?
A. possible, but after training
B. * Yes, you can
C. No, you can not
D. at the discretion of the surgeon
E.
depends on the skill of the surgeon
159. Patient S. 52 rock i to i made a complaint to the defect face. The patient was planned
for plastic surgery classic Italian method. Why spend this technique plastics?
A. * Replacement of a defect of the nose
B. replacement of the defect of the lower lip
C. replacement of defect chin
D. defect replacement ear shells
E.
replacement eyelid defect
160. Patient N. 42 rock i to i made a complaint to a defect in the skin of the upper lip, which
was formed as a result of injuries face. Where it is necessary to create a flap of skin on the
leg to correct this defect?
A. in the neck
B. * On the cheeks
C. on the lower lip
D. chin
E.
on the nose
161. Patient K., 45 years after removal of the tumor formed a skin defect in the middle of
the upper lip. The defect was closed by moving the flaps, a cut from the same lips by
sliding. Do I need to cut down excess skin formed on top of the flap?
A. No, I do not need to
B. they can hide
C. * Yes, you
D. at the discretion of the surgeon
E.
depends on the skill of the surgeon
162. Patient MM 43 rock i turned in complaining of a small defect in the skin of the upper
lip, which was closed by moving the flaps, a cut from the same lips by sliding. Do I need
to cut down the excess skin that has formed on the top flap?
A. No, I do not need to
B. they can hide
C. * Yes, you
D. at the discretion of the surgeon
E.
depends on the skill of the surgeon
163. Patient P., 32 years as a result of injuries was a great defect in the skin of the ear to
shellfish. Where it is necessary to create a flap of skin on the feeding pedicle to close this
defect?
A. on the cheek
B. on the temporal area
C. in the submaxillary area
D. * On the neck
E.
Ear
164. Patient B., 32 years after the operation for cancer of the skin with a diameter of 4 cm in
front of the ear shellfish formed defect that must close the flap of skin on the feeding
pedicle. Where necessary to form a flap?
A. on the cheek
B. * On the neck
C. in the submaxillary area
D. on the temporal area
E.
Ear
165. Patient L., 35 years after the operation for cancer of the skin in the region of the
mandible formed defect that must close the flap of skin on the leg where feeding is
necessary to form a flap?
A. in the submaxillary area
B. * On the neck
C. on the cheek
D. on the temporal area
E.
Ear
166. Patient L., 34 years after removal of the tumor was formed facial skin flap of skin on
the feeding pedicle, which peresadyyly the wound. How does the need to close the donor
wound?
A. * Free transplant graft of medium thickness and stitching the wound edges
B. stem Filatov
C. shaded patches of skin
D. arterializovanym flap
E.
with artificial skin substitutes
167. Patient L., 32 years after cutting facial skin tumors were formed flap of skin on the
feeding pedicle, which was transplanted to the wound. Is it permissible slight tension
transplanted graft?
A. so acceptable
B. acceptable, but under the supervision of a surgeon
C. * No, not allowed
D. acceptable, but must be applied bandages, compresses
E.
acceptable, but must be applied by pressing the bandage
168. Patient D., 32 years old plastic surgeon closed the small defect of facial skin, using a
flap of skin on the leg. But during suturing wounds observed slight tension transplanted
graft. Is it permissible slight tension transplanted graft?
A. * No, not allowed
B. so acceptable
C. acceptable, but under the supervision of a surgeon
D. acceptable, but must be applied bandages, compresses
E.
acceptable, but must be applied by pressing the bandage
169. Patient 33 rock i turned in with complaints of skin defect on the nose. The patient was
planned for surgery plate. What should be understood by the word "plastic"?
A. restore the normal shape and function of the body, certain organs and tissues
that are underdeveloped in the embryonic period
B.
restore the normal shape and function of the body, certain organs and tissues
that have been destroyed by disease
C.
restore the normal shape and function of the body, certain organs and tissues
that have been damaged injury
D. restore the normal shape and function of the body, certain organs and tissues
that have been damaged operations
E.
* All answers are correct
170. Patient, 56 years old had a free transplant split flap of skin from the upper third of the
thigh granulating wound on the right cheek. How is this plastic?
A. homoplasty
B. heteroplastyka
C. * Autoplasty
D. aloplastyka
E.
free plastic
171. Patient B. 53 rock i in i made a complaint to the granulating wound frontal area.
Transplant patient plans to split flap of skin from the upper third of the thigh. How is this
plastic?
A. homoplasty
B. aloplastyka
C. heteroplastyka
D. * Autoplasty
E.
free plastic
172. Patient P. 38 rock i to i made a complaint to the defect of the right half of the upper
jaw. There have been plastic flat bone defect cattle (after special treatment). How is this
plastic?
A. autoplasty
B. homoplasty
C. aloplastyka
D. * Heteroplastyka
E.
free plastic
173. Patient N. 49 rock i turned into complaints on bony defect of the mandible. The defect
was replaced with the flat bones of cattle (after special treatment). How is this plastic?
A. * Heteroplastyka
B. autoplasty
C. aloplastyka
D. homoplasty
E.
free plastic
174. Patient N. 33 rock i turned in with complaints of defective frontal section of the
mandible. The patient held record of chips with a special metal plate. How is this
operation?
A. autoplasty
B. homoplasty
C. * Aloplastyka
D. heteroplastyka
E.
metal plastic
175. Patient 64 rock i after resection of the mandible on osteoblastoklastomy defect
replaced with a special metal plate. How is this operation?
A. autoplasty
B. homoplasty
C. * Aloplastyku
D. metal plastic
E.
heteroplastyku
176. Patient 37 in rock i was performed resection for cancer of the lower lip. How long is
the plastic closure of defect?
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. * Done simultaneously
D. a week
E.
pisdya obtain histological conclusion
177. The patient was 43 years was carved cancer skin left nasolabial fold. The defect is
closed by the formation and movement of the flap of skin on the leg. After how long is a
plastic closure of defect?
A. 24 hours
B. * Done simultaneously
C. 48 hours
D. a week
E.
Peace l I obtain histological conclusion
178. Patient '44 to close the defect after surgical facial skin stem was formed on the stem. Is
it necessary to be fat?
A. No, not necessarily
B. Despite the circumstances
C. * So be sure to
D. at the discretion of the surgeon
E.
very thin layer
179. Patient D. '42 was diagnosed with skin cancer stage III cheeks. After excision of
cancerous tumors formed defect. The skin of the neck formed stem to stem. Is it necessary
to be fat?
A. No, not necessarily
B. Despite the circumstances
C. * So be sure to
D. at the discretion of the surgeon
E.
very thin layer
180. Patient B. '43 complained to a defect of the nose. The patient was carried plastic nose
flap of skin on the leg of his forehead. How is this plastic?
A. * Indian method
B. Tibetan method
C. Italian method
D. English method
E.
Colombian method
181. Patient P. '45 was detected defect of the nose. The patient was carried defect
replacement nose flap of skin on the leg of the forearm. How is this plastic?
A. English method
B. * Italian method
C. Tibetan method
D. free method
E.
Indian method
182. Patient '34 available external nose defect that appeared as a result of injury. Which
method is better to use plastic?
A. Italian
B. Tibetan
C. * Indian
D. Chinese
E.
free
183. Patient N. '44 for closure of facial skin defect formed counter triangular patches. In
which case they will be the most viable?
A. * A large corner flap formed
B. flap viability does not depend on the angle
C. in a small corner of the flap formed
D. flap viability depends on the quality of the stem fomuvannya
E.
flap viability depends on the skill of the surgeon
184. Patient M. '42 turned complaining of facial skin defect. The patient with the aim of
closing the defect of facial skin formed counter triangular patches. As their viability
depends on the angle of the distal?
A. * A large corner flap viability better
B. flap viability depends on the quality of the stem fomuvannya
C. flap viability depends on the skill of the surgeon
D. flap viability does not depend on the angle
E.
in a small corner of flap viability better
185. Patient '34 revealed recurrence of skin cancer of the left wing of the nose. He
performed subtotal resection of the wings of the nose and to close the defect formed flap
of skin on the feeding pedicle. In which area you want to create a flap of skin that?
A. * Nasolabial folds
B. upper lip
C. nasal
D. cheeks
E.
lower lip
186. Patient L. '43 diagnosed carcinoma of the skin of the nose I stage. He carved and
tumor-stage formed plastic flap of skin on the feeding pedicle. In which area you want to
create a flap of skin that?
A. cheeks
B. nasolabial fold
C. * Forehead
D. Nose
E.
upper eyelid
187. Patient K. '49 diagnosed with cancer of the skin of the upper lip II stage. Patients
underwent resection and one-stage lip formed plastic patches of skin on the feeding
pedicle. In which area you want to create a flap of skin that?
A. cheeks
B. nasolabial folds
C. Nose
D. * Upper lip
E.
lower lip
188. In Patient 38 rock i found in the skin defect on the nose, which was formed as a result
of his injuries. When planning plastic surgery on the need to pay attention to the priority?
A. qualified surgeon, the size of the defect, the condition of the skin
B. operating equipment, qualified surgeon
C.
* Location of the defect, its size, the condition of the skin, the ability to move
it
D. the cardiovascular and respiratory systems of the patient
E.
condition endocrine and digestive systems of patient
189. Patient V. 32 rock i found in the skin of the lower eyelid defect, which was formed
after injuries. The patient was planned using Filatov plastic stem. What Do You Know the
main stages of plastic?
A. formation rozplastuvannya transplant the stem
B. transplantation, forming, stems rozplastuvannya
C. * Formation transplant, the stem rozplastuvannya
D. forming, correction, change stems
E.
correction, change, forming the stem
190. Patient K. 39 rock i defect in the skin of the lower eyelid. The patient was planned
using Filatov plastic stem. Filatov stem prepared for transplantation. Since he squeezed
the blood left on foot, subject to the transfer, rubber band. Due to time enter into normal
skin color stems?
A. * Immediately
B. 10 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 30 seconds
E.
1 minute
191. Patient K. 47 rock i found in the skin of the lower eyelid defect patient was planned
using Filatov plastic stem. Because what can happen partial or complete necrosis Filatov
stem?
A. compression
B. distortion legs
C. inflection of his excessive
D. * All answers are correct
E.
all the answers are not correct
192. Patient N. 34 rock i defect in the skin of the lower eyelid. The patient was planned
using Filatov plastic stem. What first depends on the viability of the stem Filatov during
its formation and transplantation?
A. thickness of the subcutaneous tissue
B. surface of the body where the flap is formed
C. qualified surgeon
D. * The ratio of length and width of the strip of leather used and preserved
vascular pattern
E.
equipment operating
193. Patient 43 rock i defect in the skin of the lower eyelid. He made plastic step stems from
the use of anatomical snuffbox. What is the anatomical snuffbox?
A. * The space between fingers 1 and 2, the outer surface of the palm
B. the lower third of the forearm
C. space between 2 and 3 outer surface of the palm fingers
D. outer surface of palm
E.
middle third of the forearm
194. Patient V. 42 rock i defect in the skin of the lower eyelid. The patient was planned for
plastic surgery using Filatov stem. How long after the formation of Filatov stems begin to
recover all kinds of sensitivity?
A. 2-3 weeks
B. 3-4 weeks
C. * 4-6 weeks
D. 4-5 weeks
E.
2 months
195. In Patient 32 rock i found in the skin of the right cheek defect. Patient formed Filatov
stem on the trunk and planned to transplant it on the right cheek, which is rough scar after
the course renthenterapiyi on capillary hemangioma. Does earlier treatment, better
pryhoyennyu stem wound-recipients?
A. * Has a negative impact
B. so contributes
C. No, there may be complications
D. complications can be prevented fizprotsedury
E.
depends on the depth of tissue damage
196. Patient N. 34 i rock at about capillary hemangioma cheek a few years ago got
renthenterapiyi rate, resulting in a rough scar formed. The current Filatov stem on the
body is scheduled to be transplanted after wide excision of the cheek scar. Does earlier
treatment, better pryhoyennyu stem wound-recipients?
A. so contributes
B. No, there may be complications
C. * Has a negative impact
D. complications can be prevented fizprotsedury
E.
depends on the depth of tissue damage
197. Patient D. 43 rock i found in the skin of the right cheek defect. While plastic Filatov in
the formation of the stem arose the deterioration of its blood supply and necrosis
appeared. In which section of the stem are formed?
A. at the edges of the stem
B. in the area of his legs
C. * In the center of the stem
D. in the region of the stem scar
E.
along the bottom edge of the stem
198. Patient T. 32 rock i defect in the skin of the right cheek. The patient was planned using
Filatov plastic stem. How many feet in a classic Filatov stem?
A. 1 leg
B. 3 feet
C. 4 legs
D. * 2 legs
E.
depends on the shape of the defect
199. Patient D. 24 i rock at during the inspection revealed defects of the skin of the right
cheek. The patient was planned using Filatov plastic stem. Is it necessarily must contain
Filatov stem a fatty tissue?
A. No, not necessarily
B. Despite the circumstances
C. only in the formation of the flap on the belly
D. * Yes, definitely
E.
at the discretion of the surgeon
200. Patient K. 35 rock i found a defect in the right cheek. The patient was planned for
plastic surgery using Filatov stem. During training the stem reflex vasodilatation occurs in
the feeding pedicle, leading to an increase in the lumen of the anastomosis and circulation
in
A. * The longitudinal direction of the stem
B. lumbar direction stems
C. oblique direction of the stem
D. random direction
E.
along the stem scar
201. Patient N. 47 rock i to i made a complaint on the right cheek defect. The patient was
planned for plastic surgery using Filatov stem. Do I need when forming the stem in it
include muscle tissue?
A. * No
B. so
C.
necessarily
D. depends on where the formation of the stem
E.
at the discretion of the surgeon
202. Patient N. 25 rock i defect was found in the right cheek. After the operation there was a
marked step stalks its atrophy. What should you do?
A. continue its move
B. cut it
C. refuse plastic
D. * Generate new stem
E.
apply fizprotsedury
203. By the maxillofacial department asked the patient S., 37 years old, who had a
transplant-free split graft of skin from the upper third of the thigh wound to the face. How
is this plastic?
A. homoplasty
B. heteroplastyka
C. * Autoplasty
D. aloplastyka
E.
free plastic
204. By the maxillofacial department turned Patient N. 43 rock i to i with complaints of sore
frontal area. The patient was transplanted split flap of skin from the upper third of the
thigh. How is this plastic?
A. * Autoplasty
B. homoplasty
C. aloplastyka
D. heteroplastyka
E.
free plastic
205. By the maxillofacial department appealed Patient 43 rock i at i on complaints for
defects of the upper jaw. There have been plastic flat bone defect cattle (after special
treatment). How is this plastic?
A. autoplasty
B. * Heteroplastyka
C. homoplasty
D. aloplastyka
E.
free plastic
206. By the maxillofacial department asked the patient P. 53 rock i in who was diagnosed
with cancer of the mandible. The patient was performed resection of the mandible defect
and replaced the flat bones of cattle (after special treatment). How is this plastic?
A. autoplasty
B. aloplastyka
C. homoplasty
D. free plastic
E.
* Heteroplastyka
207. By the maxillofacial department appealed Patient 46 rock i in, which was formed after
the injury defect frontal section of the upper jaw. The patient held record of chips with a
special metal plate. How is this operation?
A. autoplasty
B. homoplasty
C. heteroplastyka
D. metal plastic
E.
* Aloplastyka
208. By the maxillofacial department appealed Patient 32 rock i in the mandible after
resection for cancer. The defect was replaced with a special metal plate. How is this
operation?
A. autoplasty
B. * Aloplastyku
C. homoplasty
D. metal plastic
E.
heteroplastyku
209. By the maxillofacial department appealed Patient 47 i rock in which it was held
resection for cancer of the lower lip. How long obytsya plastic closure of defect?
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. * Done simultaneously
D. a week
E.
pisdya obtain histological conclusion
210. By the maxillofacial department appealed Patient 48, which was carved cancer of the
skin of the nose. The defect is closed by the formation and movement of the flap of skin
on the leg. When is a plastic closure of defect?
A. 24 hours
B. * Done simultaneously
C. 48 hours
D. a week
E.
pisdya obtain histological conclusion
211. Patient K 35 years after TRAM formed large defect cheeks. To close the defect formed
stem Filatov on his stomach. What is the correct sequence of operations stems step?
A. stomach - a third of the average shoulder - neck - cheek
B. stomach - forearm - cheek
C. belly - the lower third of the arm - cheek
D. belly - anatomical snuffbox - cheek
E.
* Abdomen - thoracic wall - neck - cheek
212. In Patient 43 rock i found a defect in the right cheek. The patient was performed using
Filatov plastic stem. How long after a real intermediate step stalks stem stems Filatov cut
off from the donor wound and fixed to the edges of the defect?
A. after 2 weeks
B. after 4 weeks
C. 2 months
D. when finally heal the wound
E.
* 6 weeks
213. Patient D. 43 rock i found a defect in the right cheek. The patient used a free transplant
split flap of skin from the upper third of the thigh granulating wound on the right cheek.
How is this plastic?
A. homoplasty
B. autoplasty
C. * Alloplastyka
D. heteroplastyka
E.
free plastic
214. Patient L. '32 to defects of the mandible, which was formed after resection on
osteoblastoklastomy. The defect was replaced with a special metal plate. How is this
method of plastic surgery?
A. autoplasty
B. homoplasty
C. metal plastic
D. * Aloplastyku
E.
heteroplastyku
215. Patient 27 years ago got over the course renthenterapiyi capillary hemangioma cheek,
leaving a rough scar formed. Skin flap a full-thickness transplant is planned on the cheek
after wide excision of scar. Does earlier treatment, better pryhoyennyu flap for woundrecipients?
A. so contributes
B. No, there may be complications
C. * Has a negative impact
D. complications can be prevented fizprotsedury
E.
depends on the depth of tissue damage
216. Patient P. 34 rock i found in the skin of the right cheek defect. The patient is planning
to carve povnosharovyy flap of skin. Does he n otribno include fascia?
A. so
B. depends on where the formation of the stem
C. * No
D. at the discretion of the surgeon
E.
necessarily
217. Patient V. 43 rock i found in the skin of the right cheek defect. The patient is planning
to carve povnosharovyy flap of skin. You must include in his muscle tissue?
A. * No
B. so
C.
necessarily
D. depends on where the formation of the stem
E.
at the discretion of the surgeon
218. The patient GA 22 rock i found in the skin of the right cheek defect. The patient was
planned for plastics. What is the most sensitive skin graft to neblahopryyemnyh
conditions that may arise during its transplantation:
A. thin split skin flap
B. median split skin flap
C. * Povnosharovyy skin flap
D. thick split skin flap
E.
All split skin graft
219. Patient B. '52 for close postoperative nasal skin defect free skin graft taken by ear
shells, made a number of small cuts (holes) before fixing it to the edge of the wounds of
the recipient. Why perforated graft?
A. * For the outflow of the fluid and the air from the graft
B. for better observation of the wound
C. for better contact with the wound dressing mazyevoyi
D. for better nutrition graft
E.
for rapid pryhoyuvannya graft
220. Patient P. 32 rock i found in the skin of the right cheek defect. The patient was planned
for plastics. Will retain mobility transplant if transplanted to recipient wound in the entire
thickness of the skin?
A. * So
B. no
C. yes, but be sure to irradiate ultraviolet rays
D. yes, but be sure to apply massage
E.
No, mobility is lost for a very long time
221. Patient V. 32 rock i found a defect in the skin. The patient was planned for plastic free
skin graft. What are the advantages of such an AIN plastic?
A. * All answers are correct
B. protects the wound from gross scarring
C. significantly reduces the healing time
D. protects the wound from infection
E.
correct answers B and C
222. Patient P. 36 rock i found in the skin of the right cheek defect. The patient was
planned. What negative thing can happen during pryhoyennya thin split skin graft?
A. his hyperpigmentation
B. its redness
C. * Its shrinkage
D. its swelling
E.
it ztonshennya
223. In Patient 28 rock i found in the skin of the right cheek defect. The patient was planned
for plastics. What size should have a skin graft of medium thickness?
A. its size must match the size of the wound-recipient
B. unlimited size
C. * Its size should slightly exceed the size of the wound-recipient
D. graft area must not exceed half of the palm of the patient
E.
graft area should not exceed the patient's hand
224. Patient D. '31 to close granulating wounds on his face taken several pieces of medium
thickness leather on the side of the abdomen. How does the donor wound healing?
A. * It heals spontaneously and rapidly
B. it must sew silk
C. it is necessary to transplant skin
D. it is necessary to close the local tissues
E.
necessary to use artificial materials
225. Patient L. '34 to close the granulating wound on the nose take a piece of skin of
medium thickness in the upper-outer quadrant of the buttock. As the wound healed donor?
A. it must sew silk
B. it is necessary to transplant skin
C. * It heals spontaneously and rapidly
D. necessary to use artificial materials
E.
it is necessary to close the local tissues
226. Patient L. '42 defect of the face, which was formed as a result of his injuries. The
patient was planned for plastics. What changes occur with skin graft after transplantation?
A. He nekrotyzuyetsya
B. it is partially absorbed
C. * He second shrinks
D. He depihmentuyetsya
E.
He intensely stained
227. Patient D. '43 granulating wound on the face of transplanted skin graft. After 5 weeks
of skin graft became mobile. Due to the formation of what tissue did this happen?
A. vascular layer
B. * Fat
C. connective tissue
D. granulation tissue
E.
serous fluid
228. Patient 33 years complaining about the shortening of the upper lip gloss nezmykannya, the
presence of the gap between the upper and lower frontal teeth. OBJECTIVE: maxilla anteriorly
favor due to its over-development, shortening the upper lip. Between the upper and lower front
teeth is a gap in the sagittal direction. What type strain present in this case:
A. * Prognathism
B. Mikroheniya
C. Retrohnatiya
D. Progeny
E. Micrognathia?
229. Patient N. '16 entered the maxillofacial department on congenital anomalies of bite. During
the inspection and survey found that lower jaw protruding due to its over-development, the
length of the branches of the lower jaw is normal, corners deployed first ryzontalni departments
mandible enlarged and forward, mesial bite, all teeth are backward, while the central occlusion
produced space of varying magnitude between us fron the upper and lower teeth tailed. Click to
clinical diagnosis
A. Oblique bite
B. False progeny
C. * Genuine progeny
D. Prognathism
E. Mikroheniya.
230. Patient '34 about a defect in the region of the angle of the mandible and branches up to 6.0
cm conducted an operation to restore his own jaw crest of the ilium. What type of
transplantation used in patients:
A. Xenotransplantation
B. Alotransplantatsiya
C. yizotransplantatsiya
D. * Autografting
E. Explantation?
231. A patient aged 16 complains of jaw protrusion forward bite difficult act, retraction of the
upper lip. As a child, had surgery uranoplastyku. OBJECTIVE: upper lip sinks, chin normally
developed mandible protruding. At IU dialnomu bite are some front teeth. The rest of the teeth
in the correct ratio. Click diagnosis
A. The lower prognathism
B. * False progeny
C. Genuine progeny
D. The upper prognathism
E. Lower retrohnatiya
232. Patient S. 23 years after removal of osteogenic tumors of the jaw is a need for replacement
of defect transplant material. The use account the origin of the material which reaches the best
results bone grafting:
A. Implant
B. Allogeneic
C. Xenogeneic
D. Use of combined transplants
E. * Autogenous
233. In the dental clinic patient appealed N. '23 with complaints about the lack of contact
between the frontal teeth, excessive growth of the mandible. OBJECTIVE: face deformation
due to the protrusion of the lower jaw forward. In prohenichnomu bite are front and side teeth.
In a state of central occlusion is a gap between the upper and lower front teeth. Set the
diagnosis
A. * Makroheniya
B. Open bite
C. Mikroheniya
D. Micrognathia
E. Prognathism
234. Patient K. '19 diagnosed with congenital facial deformity of the skull. During the inspection
and examination revealed asymmetry of the face due to the underdevelopment of the lower jaw
and chin offset to the left side. When you open your mouth face asymmetry becomes more
pronounced. According to the medical history revealed that at the age of 5 years, the patient
underwent an inflammatory process in the region of the left branch of the mandible. Click to
clinical diagnosis
A. * Unilateral (asymmetric) mikroheniya
B. Bilateral (symmetric) mikroheniya
C. False progeny
D. Prognathism
E. Makrohnatiya.
235. The girl of 3 years, in which the upper lip and alveolar outgrowth divided into 3 pieces, the
average fragment dramatically shifted forward and upward, wings flattened nose, mouth
whole. Identify the full clinical diagnosis
A. * Congenital bilateral through-cleft upper lip and alveolar bone, bone protrusion
mizhschelepnoyi
B. Congenital bilateral partial cleft upper lip and alveolar bone
C. Congenital bilateral hidden cleft upper lip and alveolar bone
D. Congenital bilateral hidden cleft upper lip protrusion mizhschelepnoyi bone
E. Congenital bilateral partial cleft upper lip.
236. To children's maxillofacial department acted -month baby with a birth defect of the soft
tissues of the upper lip on the left, which is below the lower division of the nasal aperture, and
alveolar outgrowth during nebinnya goals. To establish a diagnosis:
A. * Congenital partial left-sided cleft upper lip
B. Congenital left-sided complete cleft upper lip
C. Congenital left-sided concealed cleft upper lip
D. Congenital left-sided complete cleft upper lip and co mirkovoho process
E. Congenital partial left-sided cleft upper lip co mirkovoho process.
237. Patient S. 27 years after removal of the tumor formed a total defect of the nose, skin
scar deformity cheek and infraorbital areas adjacent to the defect. How to choose the best
plastic to restore the nose?
A. Three-bladed stalk flap
B. The flap on the leg of the forehead
C. * Radical rhinoplasty by F. Hitrov
D. Free skin graft
E. Two flap on the leg of the cheeks
238. To children's maxillofacial department entered 2 - year-old girl, whose upper lip and
alveolar process are divided into 3 pieces, the middle piece abruptly shifted forward and
upward, wings flattened nose, mouth whole. Artificial feeding, in the absence of milk in
the mother. What a complete clinical diagnosis
A. Congenital bilateral through-partial cleft upper lip and alveolar process bone
protrusion mizhschelepnoyi
B. Congenital bilateral hidden cleft upper lip and alveolar process
C.
* Congenital bilateral through-cleft upper lip and alveolar process bone
protrusion mizhschelepnoyi
D. Congenital bilateral hidden cleft upper lip protrusion mizhschelepnoyi bone
E.
Congenital bilateral partial cleft upper lip
239. To children's maxillofacial department entered 5 year old girl with a diagnosis of
congenital cleft 1/2 hard and soft palate, polydactyly. What specialists should be involved
for rehabilitation of the child?
A. Maxillofacial surgeon, pediatrician, speech therapist, orthodontist, orthopedic
surgeon;
B.
Maxillofacial surgeon, pediatrician, otolaryngologist, speech therapist,
psychologist;
C. Maxillofacial surgeon, otolaryngologist, speech pathologist, an orthodontist;
D. * Maxillofacial surgeon, pediatrician, otolaryngologist, speech pathologist, an
orthodontist, a psychologist, an orthopedic surgeon;
E.
Maxillofacial surgeon, psychologist, orthodontist, orthopedic surgeon.
240. In the consulting services of the clinic of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery delivered
baby M. 1 month. When viewed objectively revealed bilateral cleft upper lip, hard and
soft palate with considerable vystoyannyam intermaxillary bone. In terms of fetal
development are shaped upper lip and palate?
A. upper lip - 1 month., palate, 1 month.
B. upper lip - 5 months., palate-6 months.
C. upper lip - 4 months., palate-5 months.
D. upper lip - 8 months., palate-9 months.
E.
* Upper lip - the end of 2 months., Palate-2-3 months.
241. To children's maxillofacial department admitted child 6 years, which is necessary to
Plastic frenulum of the upper lip. You know the way lengthening the frenulum of the
upper lip?
A. * Plastics Diffenbahom
B. Tummy local tissues by Tirshem
C. Laxatives mucosal incision
D. Plastic flap on the leg
E.
Tummy local tissues by Szymanowski
242. On examination to the maxillofacial surgeon delivered the baby R. 1 month.
OBJECTIVE during the inspection revealed a crack, which is located in the transverse
direction from the right angle of the mouth through the whole thickness of the cheek to the
edge of chewing muscles. What is the diagnosis for this patient?
A. Dextral oblique cleft face.
B. Cleft nose.
C. Dextral erhnoyi cleft in the lip.
D. Cleft mandible.
E.
* Right-side lateral cleft face.
243. To children's maxillofacial department acted Girl 7. An objective examination of the
child revealed that the upper lip and alveolar process are divided into 3 pieces, the middle
piece abruptly shifted forward and upward, wings flattened nose, mouth whole. Titles and
t and b to b and l sh likely diagnosis?
A. Congenital bilateral partial cleft upper lip
B.
Congenital bilateral through-partial cleft upper lip and alveolar process bone
protrusion mizhschelepnoyi
C.
* Congenital bilateral through-cleft upper lip and alveolar process bone
protrusion mizhschelepnoyi
D. Congenital bilateral hidden cleft upper lip and alveolar process
E.
Congenital bilateral hidden cleft upper lip protrusion mizhschelepnoyi bone
244. To children's maxillofacial department entered 3 - month baby with congenital defekttom
tissues of the upper lip to the right. Pathology combined with rickets. In early pregnancy have
suffered from SARS. On examination, asymmetrical face, the right wing of the nose thickened
and horizontally ejected, the nasal septum is shortened, shifted to the left. Tissue defects of the
upper lip triangular shape does not extend to the base of the nose. Titles and t and b to b and l
sh likely diagnosis?
A. Congenital deformity of nose wings
B. Congenital complete cleft upper lip
C. * Congenital cleft upper lip hidden
D. Congenital incomplete cleft upper lip
E. Congenital deformity of the nose and upper lip
245. To children's maxillofacial department entered girl 5 weeks of diagnosis: congenital
bilateral cleft through-the upper lip and palate. Child somatically healthy. Determine the
approximate duration of the heyloplastyky and uranostafiloplastyky.
A. 6-9 months - heyloplastyka, 5-6 years - uranostafiloplastyka
B. 12-18 months - heyloplastyka 3-5 years - uranostafiloplastyka
C. * 6-9 months - heyloplastyka, 1.5-3 years - uranostafiloplastyka
D. 3-5 months - heyloplastyka, 1-2 years - uranostafiloplastyka
E.
18-20 months - heyloplastyka 5-7 years - uranostafiloplastyka
246. To children's maxillofacial department entered the girl of 6 years. What moved
heyloplastyku and uranostafiloplastyku. Has mesial occlusion and snuffle, small
vocabulary, become uncircumcised peers. What specialists should be involved to prepare
the child for school?
A. A speech pathologist
B. * All of these
C. Psychologist
D. Orthodontist
E.
Otolaryngologist
247. To children's maxillofacial department entered a newborn child with a through alveolar
bone nonunion, hard and soft palate. What is the optimal way of feeding of the child for
surgical
treatment?
A. Probe food for six months
B. * Making obturator
C. Using conventional pacifiers
D. Feeding in the presence of medical personnel
E.
Feeding the baby using a spoon
248. To children's maxillofacial department entered the 3-month child with left-sided defect
of the upper lip, alveolar bone, hard and soft palate. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Congenital cleft through-the upper lip and palate
B. * Congenital left-sided through-cleft alveolar bone, hard and soft palate
C. Congenital cleft lip, palate and alveolar bone
D. Cleft palate
E.
Harelip
249. To children's maxillofacial department admitted child 3 years, which has been
periodically getting food into the nasal cavity during breastfeeding. OBJECTIVE: within
the soft palate is defined slit defect. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hidden born cleft palate
B. * Isolated partial cleft soft palate
C. Isolated cleft hard and soft palate
D. Cleft palate
E.
Combined cleft palate
250. A child born with a congenital nonunion united through-the upper lip and palate.
Under the supervision of physicians should be located where the child prior to surgery?
A. Maxillofacial surgeon, pediatrician and orthodontist
B. Pediatrician and speech therapist
C. Pediatricians and child neuropsychiatrist
D. Pediatricians and Maxillofacial Surgeons
E.
Speech pathologist and Maxillofacial Surgeons
251. Parents are a child of 7 years, which is necessary to Plastic frenulum of the upper lip
turned to children's maxillofacial department. What do you know a way lengthening the
frenulum of the upper lip?
A. Tummy local tissues by Tirshem
B. * Plastics Diffenbahom
C. Laxatives mucosal incision
D. Plastic flap on the leg
E.
Tummy local tissues by Szymanowski
252. Patient S., turned to the maxillofacial department after injury with complaints of skin
defect that is on the back of the nose. Where best to transplant to restore the defect of the
nose?
A. The outer edge of the ear.
B. * The inner edge of the ear.
C. The inner surface of the mandible.
D. The outer surface of the mandible.
E.
There is no right answer.
253. Patient 43 years, turned to the maxillofacial department after injury complaints
mandibular defect. We plan to hold the plastic to the performance of vertical and
horizontal jaw osteotomy with transposition of pieces and fill the spaces created
biomaterials. How is this plastic?
A. * All answers are correct.
B. No vrinoyi response.
C.
Bone grafting with fixation of transplantation material in the mid-kistky.Bud
that bone grafting.
D. Bone grafting for Borowski.
E.
Bone grafting with fixation transplant material "vnakladku."
254. Patients in 43 years. Appealed to the maxillofacial department after injury complaints
mandibular defect. We plan to hold the plastic of the proposed EA Limberg. What is the
first stage of the operation?
A. In transferring the graft on the leg with soft tissue defect in the mandible.
B. In the dissection of the soft tissues and exposure of the ribs.
C. * In pidsadtsi appropriate size piece ribs in well-preserved soft tissue.
D. In the dissection of the periosteum.
E.
In carrying transplants of soft tissues around the defect of the mandible.
255. Patient K., turned to the maxillofacial department after injury complaints mandibular
defect .. planned reconstruction of the alveolar process to the entire alveolar arch. What
bone is best to use?
A. * Rib.
B. Radiation.
C. Phalanx of the index finger.
D. Phalanx of the ring finger.
E.
Bones are not used for transplantation of alveolar arches.
256. To children's maxillofacial department admitted child 2 years of wedge-shaped defect
of the upper lip, which does not reach the lower nasal passage. A red border surrounds the
edge of the defect. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Complete cleft of the upper lip
B. Koloboma
C. Trauma of the upper lip
D. * Incomplete cleft upper lip
E.
There is no right answer.
257. To children's maxillofacial department admitted child 3 years old, in which the existing
wedge-shaped defect of the upper lip to full height, including the lower part of the nasal
passage. Wing deformed nose. Raised red border around the edge of the defect. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Koloboma
B. Trauma of the upper lip
C. Partial cleft upper lip
D. There is no right answer.
E.
* Complete cleft of the upper lip
258. To children's maxillofacial department entered a newborn child who has bilateral
symmetrical vertical defects of the upper lip that did not reach the lower edge of the nasal
aperture. A red border surrounds the edge of the defect. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Koloboma
B. Trauma of the upper lip
C. * Two-way symmetrical isolated cleft upper lip.
D. Partial cleft upper lip
E.
There is no right answer.
259. To children's maxillofacial department entered a newborn child who has a bilateral
defect of the upper lip and alveolar process. The middle part of the upper lip with the
incisive bone is fixed to the nose bulkhead. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Koloboma
B. Trauma of the upper lip
C. * Two-way symmetrical combined cleft upper lip
D. Complete cleft of the upper lip
E.
There is no right answer.
260. To children's maxillofacial department entered a newborn child of 3 years, in which
fluid from the mouth enters the nasal passages. It hnusava. On examination of the sky
observed slit defect which does not reach the alveolar crest. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Paralysis of the soft palate
B. * Incomplete cleft palate
C. Trauma palate
D. Complete cleft palate
E.
There is no right answer.
261.
To children's maxillofacial department entered a newborn child who has
wedge-shaped defect of the upper lip to full height, including the lower part of the nasal
passage, the defect alveolar process, hard and soft palate. Wing deformed nose. Raised red
border around the edge of the defect. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Koloboma
B. Trauma of the upper lip, palate
C. Partial cleft upper lip and palate
D. * Full (Pass through) cleft upper lip and palate
E.
There is no right answer.
262.
To children's maxillofacial department entered a newborn child who has a
bilateral defect of the upper lip alveolar ridge, hard and soft palate. The middle part of the
upper lip with the incisive bone is fixed to the nose bulkhead. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Koloboma
B. Trauma of the upper lip and palate
C. * Full (Pass through) bilateral cleft upper lip and palate
D. Partial cleft upper lip and palate
E.
There is no right answer.
263. To children's maxillofacial department admitted child 3 years of age who does not say
some teeth-Gums sounds. On examination, there is parusovydnyy cord from the anteriorinferior area to the tip of the tongue. Limited mobility of the tongue. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. * Tongue-tied
B. Ranula
C. Trauma tongue
D. Abnormality of the tongue
E.
There is no right answer.
264. To children's maxillofacial department entered a newborn baby who diagnosed isolated cleft palate nenaskrizne. At what age will you recommend parents to handle this
child?
A. At any age
B. * In the preschool years
C. In the early school years
D. In high school age
E.
There is no right answer.
265. A child born with a cleft palate, as shown obturator fabrication. What is the optimal
period for production and start wearing obturator in cleft palate?
A. 1-2 years
B. * In the hospital
C. 3-4 years
D. 5-6 years
E.
At any age
266. To children's maxillofacial department entered a new born baby, which was inserted
diagnosed with complete cleft of the upper lip. How is plastic surgery corrected?
A. Uranoplastyka
B. * Heyloplastyka
C. Stafiloplastyka
D. Stafilorafiya
E.
Uranostafiloplastyka
267. To children's maxillofacial department entered a new born baby that has soft tissue
defects of the upper lip on both sides that run along the entire height of the lower lip and
zahvachuyut nasal passages. Lip is divided into 3 parts, the average of which is
dramatically shortened, red welt on her narrowed. Alveolar bone of the upper jaw is also
divided into 3 parts, mizhschelepnoyi bone protruding. Diagnosis.
A. Partial cleft of the upper lip. Protrusions mizhschelepnoyi bone.
B. Median cleft upper lip and palate.
C. Congenital bilateral cleft palate
D. * Congenital complete bilateral cleft through-the upper lip and alveolar bone.
Mizhschelepnoyi bone protrusions.
E.
Bilateral cleft alveolar process
268. Patient N., 35, lodged a complaint with the partial absence of teeth on the lower jaw.
We plan to hold a dental implant. In order to increase the number of bone graft used for
implantation of the hill of the upper jaw. In this area the graft is taken in the form:
A. * Wedge piece.
B. Angulate shape.
C. A rectangular piece.
D. Oval piece.
E.
From this site does not take graft.
269. Patient S., 43 years old, appealed with complaints about the partial absence of teeth on
the lower jaw. We plan to hold a dental implant. In order to increase the number of bone
graft implantation should be used to:
A. Sponge.
B. Cortical plate.
C. Cortical-spongy.
D. * The correct answers are a and c.
E.
The correct answers are A, B, p.
270. Patient N., 44 years old, complained to the partial absence of teeth on the lower jaw.
We plan to hold a dental implant. What are synthetic biomaterials used to increase the
number of bone for implantation.
A. "Kolapola CP-3."
B. "Kollapona."
C. «Osteo Gen».
D. * All answers are correct.
E.
There is no right answer.
271. Patient P., 42 years revealed a defect in the face. He planned to transplant grafts from
animals. What do you call this type of transplant?
A. Heterotransplantat.
B. * Xenograft.
C. Biotransplantat.
D. Autografts.
E.
Allotransplants.
272. Patient K., 34 years old, complains of a defect in the mandible, which was formed after
the injury. We plan to hold autoplasty. The materials from which the bones are used most
often for autoplasty jaw?
A. Brush, spatula and fibula bones.
B. Edge, the edge of the lower jaw, the heel bone.
C. * Rib bone, iliac, the edge of the mandible.
D. Cranial bones.
E.
The ribs had ankle.
273. By the maxillofacial department appealed Patient N., 37 years old, complaining of
nasal saddle deformity that occurred after injury. What plastic is used to eliminate this
strain?
A. Autoplasty.
B. * Hondroplastyka.
C. Implants.
D. Aloplastyka.
E.
Autotransplantation.
274. By the maxillofacial department appealed Patient, 33 years old, complaining of partial
absence of teeth on the lower jaw. We plan to hold a dental implant. In order to increase
the number of bones for implantation. using soluble «OsteoGen». What does he represent?
A. Powder derived coral skeletal carbonate.
B. * Bone-inductive protein from nekolahenovoyi matrix in powder form.
C. Viscous liquid.
D. Hydroxyapatite powder.
E.
Hydroxyapatite granules.
275. By the maxillofacial department appealed Patient P., 43 years old, complained to the
partial absence of teeth on the lower jaw. We plan to hold a dental implant. What
domestic plastic materials based on hydroxyapatite and collagen: used to increase the
number of bone for implants?
A. * "Collapan."
B. "SCHSTIM 100."
C. «OsteoGen».
D. «Bio - Oss».
E.
«Interpore-200."
276. By the maxillofacial department appealed Patient, 25 years old, complained to the
partial absence of teeth on the lower jaw. We plan to hold a dental implant, but we have to
do with fixing plastic bone transplants "vnakladku" to increase the body of the mandible.
Which area of the mandible graft is placed in such plastic?:
A. The branches of the lower jaw.
B. Alveolar bone.
C. * Its basis.
D. All answers are correct.
E.
There is no right answer
277. By the maxillofacial department appealed patient B., 46, lodged a complaint with the
partial absence of teeth on the lower jaw. We plan to hold a dental implant, but we have to
do with fixing plastic bone transplants "vnakladku" to increase the body of the mandible.
In which case, graft-pad can be split:
A. When using a fragment of jaw.
B. When using the cranial vault.
C. * When using the crest of the ilium.
D. When using edge.
E.
When using small and tibia bones.
278. By the maxillofacial department appealed Patient N., 43 years is planned replacement
of the defect face transplant from the cranial vault. What section is carried out for the
taking of the graft?
A. Trapezoidal shape.
B. * Napivmistsevoyi form.
C. Wedge shape.
D. Rounded.
E.
None of the correct answer.
279. By the maxillofacial department appealed patient M., 53 years old, complained to the
partial absence of teeth on the lower jaw. We plan to hold a dental implant. What
transplants can be used for this?
A. Cortical.
B. Sponged.
C. Cortical-spongy.
D. None of the correct answer.
E.
* All answers are correct.
280. The patient is asked to look up on the affected side as if the eyeball is raised higher
than the healthy; This opens a wider strip of sclera and pupil-side paralysis seems
vyschoyu.Tse symptom:
A. Bordye-Frenkel
B. Rusetsky
C. Briknera
D. * Negro
E.
Gowers
281. The patient was asked to lower eyelids and in this position zazhmuryty eyes with
healthy eyes closed, eyelid on the affected side rises vhoru.Tse symptom:
A. Bordye-Frenkel
B. Rusetsky
C. Briknera
D. Negro
E.
* Dupuis-Dyutana
282. By the maxillofacial department appealed Patient N., 44, lodged a complaint with the
partial absence of teeth on the lower jaw. We plan to hold a dental implant, but it needs to
increase the height and width of the body of the mandible. In such cases, use:
A. Allokistku.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Autokistku.
Ksenotkanynu.
All answers are correct.
There is no right answer.
283.
By the maxillofacial department appealed patient A. 26, who complains about
the lack of contact between the frontal teeth, excessive growth of the mandible.
OBJECTIVE: facial deformation due to protrusion of the lower jaw to the front. In
prohenichnomu bite are front and side teeth. In a state of central occlusion is a gap
between the upper and lower front teeth. What disease patient?
A. * Makroheniya.
B. Mikroheniya
C. Micrognathia.
D. Prognathism.
E.
Open bite
284. By the maxillofacial department appealed Patient 32, who complains of protrusion of
the chin to the eastward zatrudnenyy act nibble, retraction of the upper lip. As a child, had
surgery - uranoplastyku. OBJECTIVE: upper lip sinks, pidboridok normally developed
mandible acts to the forefront. In the medial occlusion are some front teeth remaining
teeth in the correct ratio. What disease patient?
A. Genuine progeny.
B. * False progeny.
C. The lower prognathism.
D. The upper prognathism.
E.
Lower retrohnatiya.
285. The newborn wedge-shaped defect of the upper lip, which does not reach the lower
nasal passage. A red border surrounds the edge of the defect. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Koloboma
B. Trauma of the upper lip
C. * Incomplete cleft upper lip
D. Complete cleft of the upper lip
E.
There is no right answer.
286. The newborn wedge-shaped defect of the upper lip to full height, including the lower
part of the nasal passage. Wing deformed nose. Raised red border around the edge of the
defect. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Complete cleft of the upper lip
B. Koloboma
C. Trauma of the upper lip
D. Partial cleft upper lip
E.
There is no right answer.
287. The baby has bilateral symmetrical vertical upper lip defects which do not reach the
lower edge of the nasal aperture. A red border surrounds the edge of the defect. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Koloboma
B. * Two-way symmetrical isolated cleft upper lip.
C. Trauma of the upper lip
D. Partial cleft upper lip
E.
There is no right answer.
288. The baby has a bilateral defect of the upper lip and alveolar process. The middle part of
the upper lip with the incisive bone is fixed to the nose bulkhead. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Bilateral symmetrical combined cleft upper lip
B. Koloboma
C. Trauma of the upper lip
D. Complete cleft of the upper lip
E.
There is no right answer.
289. A child of 3 years with oral fluid enters the nasal passages. It hnusava. On examination
of the sky observed slit defect which does not reach the alveolar crest. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. * Incomplete cleft palate
B. Paralysis of the soft palate
C. Trauma palate
D. Complete cleft palate
E.
There is no right answer.
290.
The baby has a wedge-shaped defect of the upper lip to full height, including
the lower part of the nasal passage, the defect of the alveolar process, hard and soft palate.
Wing deformed nose. Raised red border around the edge of the defect. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Koloboma
B. Trauma of the upper lip, palate
C. Partial cleft upper lip and palate
D. * Full (Pass through) cleft upper lip and palate
E.
There is no right answer.
291. The baby has a bilateral defect of the upper lip, alveolar ridge, hard and soft palate.
The middle part of the upper lip with the incisive bone is fixed to the nose bulkhead. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Koloboma
B. Trauma of the upper lip and palate
C. * Full (Pass through) bilateral cleft upper lip and palate
D. Partial cleft upper lip and palate
E.
There is no right answer.
292. A child of 3 years does not say some teeth-Gums sounds. On examination, there is
parusovydnyy cord from the anterior-inferior area to the tip of the tongue. Limited
mobility of the tongue. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ranula
B. * Tongue-tied
C. Trauma tongue
D. Abnormality of the tongue
E.
There is no right answer.
293. A child diagnosed at birth - isolated cleft palate nenaskrizne. At what age will you
recommend parents to handle this child?
A. At any age
B. In the early school years
C. * In the preschool years
D. In high school age
E.
There is no right answer.
294. A child born with a cleft palate, as shown obturator fabrication. What is the optimal
period for production and start wearing obturator in cleft palate?
A. * In the hospital
B. 1-2 years
C. 3-4 years
D. 5-6 years
E.
At any age
295. After the examination the patient B., 6 months, was inserted diagnosed with complete
cleft of the upper lip. How is plastic surgery corrected?
A. * Heyloplastyka
B. Uranoplastyka
C. Stafiloplastyka
D. Stafilorafiya
E.
Uranostafiloplastyka
296. Newborn baby found defects in the soft tissues of the upper lip on both sides that run
along the entire height of the lower lip and zahvachuyut nasal passages. Lip is divided into
3 parts, the average of which is dramatically shortened, red welt on her narrowed.
Alveolar bone of the upper jaw is also divided into 3 parts, mizhschelepnoyi bone
protruding. Diagnosis.
A. * Congenital complete bilateral cleft through-the upper lip and alveolar bone.
Mizhschelepnoyi bone protrusions.
B. Partial cleft of the upper lip. Mizhschelepnoyi bone protrusions.
C. Median cleft upper lip and palate.
D. Congenital bilateral cleft palate
E.
Bilateral cleft alveolar process
297. In the hospital the boy turned 13 years old, whose length of the lower third of the face
slightly shortened, supramental crease is deep chin position is not changed. On
examination of the oral cavity upper front teeth overlap the lower value of the entire
crown. The cutting edges of the lower front teeth touch the mucous membrane of the
gums of the upper jaw. Set the diagnosis.
A. * Deep bite
B. Mikroheniya
C. Deep overlap
D. Prognathous distal occlusion
E.
Progeny
298. The patient is 18 years old complained to nibble difficulty eating, chewing dysfunction
and language, aesthetic defect. On examination: vystoyanie anterior face, shortening of
the upper lip, the voltage okolorotovoy muscles. Front teeth of the upper jaw hold out
from under the upper lip. Having mezhreztsovo sagittal slit 0.5 cm What is the diagnosis
in this case?
A. Five roheniya
B. * Prognathism
C. D lybokyy bite
D. Five erehresnyy bite
E.
In idkrytyy bite
299. Child 8 years has diastemu between the central incisors to 2 mm, it parusopodibnyy
cord to the mucosa of the upper lip, which divides the vestibule into two halves. Bite
ortohnatychnyy deeply. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Congenital shortening of the frenulum of the upper lip
B. Abnormalities of the alveolar ridge
C. Trauma of the upper lip
D. Hidden cleft upper lip
E.
There is no right answer.
300. A patient 25 years complains zapadanya upper lip against the lower projecting chin.
OBJECTIVE: pidnosova fold deepened, the lower part of the face is shortened, the
inverse depth incisors overlap, vestibular inclination of lower incisors. Medial vestibular
buhorky 16, 26 teeth in contact with the buccal medial 37, 47 and distal shichnymy
buhorkamy 36, 46. What type of deformation occurs?
A. * Progeny
B. Prognathism
C.
D.
E.
Mikroheniya
Ortohnatiya
Cross-bite
301.
Patient '18 appealed to the clinic with complaints of violations of the exterior.
OBJECTIVE lower front teeth shifted forward, blocking the top of the same name.
Mesial-buccal buhorky 16 and 26 teeth in contact with the distal buccal buhorkamy 36
and 46 teeth. For any kind of abnormal occlusion characteristic this type of bite?
A. * Progeny
B. Prognathism
C. Unilateral cross-bite
D. In idkrytyy bite
E.
D lybokyy bite
302. Man '36 addressed from complaints on aching pain in section of the left TMJ, which
are enhanced by taking solid food that appeared about 2 years ago. Objectively: slightly
limited mouth opening, jaw when mouth opening is displaced to the side crunch in the
existing joint. In the mouth - no molars on the lower and upper jaws. In the X-ray
determined sclerosis sclerosis cortical plate and articular deformity of the head, joint
space narrowing. Place the diagnosis?
A. Chronic TMJ arthritis
B. Acute TMJ arthritis
C. TMJ Pain
D. * Osteoarthritis, Arthritis TMJ
E.
Exacerbation of chronic TMJ arthritis
303. The man turned with complaints of aching pain in the left TMJ area, which is
reinforced when taking solid food, which appeared about 2 years ago. Objectively:
slightly limited mouth opening, jaw when mouth opening is displaced to the side crunch
in the existing joint. In the mouth - no molars on the lower and upper jaws. In the X-ray
determined sclerosis sclerosis cortical plate and articular deformity of the head, joint
space narrowing. Place the diagnosis?
A. Chronic TMJ arthritis
B. Acute TMJ arthritis
C. * Osteoarthritis, Arthritis TMJ
D. TMJ Pain
E.
Exacerbation of chronic TMJ arthritis
304. The patient appealed with complaints of aching pain in the left TMJ area, which is
reinforced when taking solid food, which appeared about 2 years ago. Objectively:
slightly limited mouth opening, jaw when mouth opening is displaced to the side crunch
in the existing joint. In the mouth - no molars on the lower and upper jaws. In the X-ray
determined sclerosis sclerosis cortical plate and articular deformity of the head, joint
space narrowing. Place the diagnosis?
A. * Osteoarthritis, Arthritis TMJ
B. Chronic TMJ arthritis
C. Acute TMJ arthritis
D. TMJ Pain
E.
Exacerbation of chronic TMJ arthritis
305. Patient K. 48, was admitted to the hospital with complaints for the cheek wound and a
severe headache, nausea, dizziness. From history was found that the patient had injured in
the fall. After a full examination was diagnosed slaughter-cheek laceration. Closed
craniocerebral trauma. Concussion. To damage include this injury?
A. * The combination of
B. Isolated
C. Combined
D. Multiple
E.
Single
306. The patient was admitted to the hospital with complaints for the cheek wound and a
severe headache, nausea, dizziness. From history was found that the patient had injured in
the fall. After a full examination was diagnosed slaughter-cheek laceration. Closed
craniocerebral trauma. Concussion. To damage include this injury?
A. Isolated
B. * The combination of
C. Combined
D. Multiple
E.
Single
307. In the hospital the patient was admitted with complaints for the cheek wound and a
severe headache, nausea, dizziness. From history was found that the patient had injured in
the fall. After a full examination was diagnosed slaughter-cheek laceration. Closed
craniocerebral trauma. Concussion. To damage include this injury?
A. Isolated
B. Combined
C. Multiple
D. * The combination of
E.
Single
308. Patient P., 45 years, post-traumatic defect of the left wing of the nose in violation of
integrity krylnoho cartilage. What treatment do you think is most effective?
A. * Free plastic part of the ear by Suslov.
B. Free skin grafts.
C. Free plastic cartilage by A.O.Limberhom.
D. Plastic Filatov stem.
E.
Tummy skin graft for Sedylo.
309. Patient posttraumatic defect of the left wing of the nose krylnoho violation of the
integrity of cartilage. What treatment do you think is most effective?
A. Free skin grafts.
B. * Free plastic part of the ear by Suslov.
C. Free plastic cartilage by A.O.Limberhom.
D. Plastic Filatov stem.
E.
Tummy skin graft for Sedylo.
310. To the doctor asked the patient with post-traumatic defect of the left wing of the nose
in violation of integrity krylnoho cartilage. What treatment do you think is most effective?
A. Free skin grafts.
B. Free plastic cartilage by A.O.Limberhom.
C. Plastic Filatov stem.
D. * Free plastic part of the ear by Suslov.
E.
Tummy skin graft for Sedylo.
311. Woman '46 complained of bleeding from the gums, discharge of pus, loose teeth. Ill 10
years. On examination, the gums on the upper and lower jaws hyperemic, edematous,
when touched - bleeding. In the 42, 41, 31, 32 - to 8 mm periodontal pockets of purulent
secretions, mobility II degree, the other - I degree. On radiographs - resorption
mezhalveolyarnyh partitions in section 42, 41, 31, 32 1/2 lengths root occurrence of
osteoporosis. Which of the following techniques most indicated for the surgical treatment
of this patient?
A. * Osteoplasty
B. Curettage
C. Hinhivotomiya
D. Hinhivoektomiya
E.
Flap operation
312. The patient complains of bleeding from the gums, discharge of pus, loose teeth. Ill 10
years. On examination, the gums on the upper and lower jaws hyperemic, edematous,
when touched - bleeding. In the 42, 41, 31, 32 - to 8 mm periodontal pockets of purulent
secretions, mobility II degree, the other - I degree. On radiographs - resorption
mezhalveolyarnyh partitions in section 42, 41, 31, 32 1/2 lengths root occurrence of
osteoporosis. Which of the following techniques most indicated for the surgical treatment
of this patient?
A. Curettage
B. Hinhivotomiya
C. Hinhivoektomiya
D. Flap operation
E.
* Osteoplasty
313. To the doctor asked the woman complaining of bleeding from the gums, discharge of
pus, loose teeth. Ill 10 years. On examination, the gums on the upper and lower jaws
hyperemic, edematous, when touched - bleeding. In the 42, 41, 31, 32 - to 8 mm
periodontal pockets of purulent secretions, mobility II degree, the other - I degree. On
radiographs - resorption mezhalveolyarnyh partitions in section 42, 41, 31, 32 1/2 lengths
root occurrence of osteoporosis. Which of the following techniques most indicated for the
surgical treatment of this patient?
A. Curettage
B. * Osteoplasty
C. Hinhivotomiya
D. Hinhivoektomiya
E.
Flap operation
314. The patient after a gunshot wound left a total defect of the nose. Which way to the
plastic must be used to restore the nose?
A. Free transplantation of cartilage, skin and bone
B. Moving Nearby tissues Szymanowski
C. Transplantation of bone, skin and cartilage on the feeding pedicle
D. * Phased plastics can round the stem at Khitrova
E.
Plastic fabric ear for wort
315. A man 40 years after a gunshot wound left a total defect of the nose. Which way to the
plastic must be used to restore the nose?
A. Free transplantation of cartilage, skin and bone
B. Moving Nearby tissues Szymanowski
C. Transplantation of bone, skin and cartilage on the feeding pedicle
D. * Phased plastics can round the stem at Khitrova
E.
Plastic fabric ear for wort
316. After a gunshot wound left a total defect of the nose. Which way to the plastic must be
used to restore the nose?
A. * Phased plastics can round the stem at Khitrova
B. Free transplantation of cartilage, skin and bone
C. Moving Nearby tissues Szymanowski
D. Transplantation of bone, skin and cartilage on the feeding pedicle
E.
Plastic fabric ear for wort
317. During the fight the patient's injury, hit the maxillofacial department. Diagnosis:
fractured left zygomatic bone with displacement, fracture of the anterior wall of maxillary
sinus. What surgery is indicated to the patient?
A. * Radical maxillary sinusotomy reposition of fragments
B. Radical maxillary sinusotomy
C. Osteotomy of the maxilla
D. Osteosynthesis zygomatic bone
E.
Reposition fragments
318. The patient was injured during a fight, hit the maxillofacial department. Diagnosis:
fractured left zygomatic bone with displacement, fracture of the anterior wall of maxillary
sinus. What surgery is indicated to the patient?
A. Radical maxillary sinusotomy
B. Osteotomy of the maxilla
C. Osteosynthesis zygomatic bone
D. * Radical maxillary sinusotomy reposition of fragments
E.
Reposition fragments
319. The patient, 24, was injured during a fight, hit the maxillofacial department. Diagnosis:
fractured left zygomatic bone with displacement, fracture of the anterior wall of maxillary
sinus. What surgery is indicated to the patient?
A. Radical maxillary sinusotomy
B. * Radical maxillary sinusotomy reposition of fragments
C. Osteotomy of the maxilla
D. Osteosynthesis zygomatic bone
E.
Reposition fragments
320. The patient, a 22 year old complains of limited but painless mouth opening, which
appeared as a child after padyannya with carousel, difficult meal, great asymmetriyu face.
On examination: asymmetrical face due to thickening of the left-half of fabric left cheek
zapavshi, it rounded. Podboriddya shifted to the right. Identify subtle movements of the
mandible during mouth opening. Bite deep. Fan-shaped front teeth, tilted vestibular.
Preliminary diagnosis.
A. * TMJ Ankylosis right.
B. Ankyloz levoho TMJ.
C. Osteoarthritis SNSHS.
D. Pryvychnyy dislocation of the left TMJ.
E.
Syndrome I-II gill arches.
321. The patient complains of limited but painless mouth opening, which appeared as a
child after padyannya with carousel, difficult meal, great asymmetriyu face. On
examination: asymmetrical face due to thickening of the left-half of fabric left cheek
zapavshi, it rounded. Podboriddya shifted to the right. Identify subtle movements of the
mandible during mouth opening. Bite deep. Fan-shaped front teeth, tilted vestibular.
Preliminary diagnosis.
A. Ankyloz levoho TMJ.
B. Osteoarthritis SNSHS.
C. * TMJ Ankylosis right.
D. Pryvychnyy dislocation of the left TMJ.
E.
Syndrome I-II gill arches.
322. Complaints patient with limited but painless mouth opening, which appeared as a child
after padyannya with carousel, difficult meal, great asymmetriyu face. On examination:
asymmetrical face due to thickening of the left-half of fabric left cheek zapavshi, it
rounded. Podboriddya shifted to the right. Identify subtle movements of the mandible
during mouth opening. Bite deep. Fan-shaped front teeth, tilted vestibular. Preliminary
diagnosis.
A. * TMJ Ankylosis right.
B. Ankyloz levoho TMJ.
C. Osteoarthritis SNSHS.
D. Pryvychnyy dislocation of the left TMJ.
E.
Syndrome I-II gill arches.
323. On examination, the patient N. '19 determined to a large deformation of the lower third
of the face, known as "bird person", which is characterized by a significant shift back
chin, deep riztseve overlap. For what dentoalveolar anomalies typical clinical picture of
this?
A. For one-sided asymmetric mikroheniyi.
B. For bilateral symmetrical progeny.
C. * For bilateral symmetrical mikroheniyi.
D. For oblique bite
E.
For one-sided asymmetric micrognathia.
324. On examination, the patient is determined by significant deformation of the lower third
of the face, known as "bird person", which is characterized by a significant shift back
chin, deep riztseve overlap. For what dentoalveolar anomalies typical clinical picture of
this?
A. For one-sided asymmetric mikroheniyi.
B. * For bilateral symmetrical mikroheniyi.
C. For bilateral symmetrical progeny.
D. For oblique bite
E.
For one-sided asymmetric micrognathia.
325. On examination determined a significant deformation of the lower third of the face,
known as "bird person", which is characterized by a significant shift back chin, deep
riztseve overlap. For what dentoalveolar anomalies typical clinical picture of this?
A. For one-sided asymmetric mikroheniyi.
B. For bilateral symmetrical progeny.
C. For oblique bite
D. * For bilateral symmetrical mikroheniyi.
E.
For one-sided asymmetric micrognathia.
326. A. The patient is 20 years old. He complains of the lack of contact between the frontal
teeth, excessive growth of the mandible. OBJECTIVE: facial deformation due to
protrusion of the lower jaw to the front. In prohenichnomu bite are front and side teeth. In
a state of central occlusion is a gap between the upper and lower front teeth. What disease
patient?
A. * Makroheniya.
B. Mikroheniya
C. Micrognathia
D. Prognathism.
E.
Open bite
327. The patient complains of a lack of contact between the frontal teeth, excessive growth
of the mandible. OBJECTIVE: facial deformation due to protrusion of the lower jaw to
the front. In prohenichnomu bite are front and side teeth. In a state of central occlusion is
a gap between the upper and lower front teeth. What disease patient?
A. Mikroheniya
B. Micrognathia
C. * Makroheniya.
D. Prognathism.
E.
Open bite
328. To the dentist asked the patient complaining of lack of contact between the frontal
teeth, excessive growth of the mandible. OBJECTIVE: facial deformation due to
protrusion of the lower jaw to the front. In prohenichnomu bite are front and side teeth. In
a state of central occlusion is a gap between the upper and lower front teeth. What disease
patient?
A. Mikroheniya
B. Micrognathia
C. Prognathism.
D. * Makroheniya.
E.
Open bite
329. Patient M. 16. Complains of protrusion of the chin to the eastward zatrudnenyy act
nibble, retraction of the upper lip. As a child, had surgery - uranoplastyku. OBJECTIVE:
upper lip sinks, pidboridok normally developed mandible acts to the forefront. In the
medial occlusion are some front teeth remaining teeth in the correct ratio. What disease
patient?
A. * False progeny.
B. Genuine progeny.
C. The lower prognathism.
D. The upper prognathism.
E.
Lower retrohnatiya
330. The patient complains of a protrusion of the chin to the eastward zatrudnenyy act
nibble, retraction of the upper lip. As a child, had surgery - uranoplastyku. OBJECTIVE:
upper lip sinks, pidboridok normally developed mandible acts to the forefront. In the
medial occlusion are some front teeth remaining teeth in the correct ratio. What disease
patient?
A. Genuine progeny.
B. The lower prognathism.
C. * False progeny.
D. The upper prognathism.
E.
Lower retrohnatiya
331. Complaints protrusion of the chin to the eastward zatrudnenyy act nibble, retraction of
the upper lip. As a child, had surgery - uranoplastyku. OBJECTIVE: upper lip sinks,
pidboridok normally developed mandible acts to the forefront. In the medial occlusion are
some front teeth remaining teeth in the correct ratio. What disease patient?
A. Genuine progeny.
B. The lower prognathism.
C. * False progeny.
D. The upper prognathism.
E.
Lower retrohnatiya
332. The patient, 45 years old, complains of the presence of painless deformity of the
mandible and the cranial, which saw about 5 years ago. On examination, the face looks
like a "lion's muzzle." When X-ray diffuse pattern defined by an increase in the body of
the mandible on the left with the destruction of bone in the form of multiple sites of
compression and discharge, the picture as "locks" or "pieces of wool." Define the
diagnosis.
A. * Paget's disease
B. Disease-Engel Reklenhauzena
C. Disease-Braitseva Liechtenstein
D. Heruvizm
E.
Disease Taratynova
333. The patient complains of pain-free for the deformation of the mandible and the cranial,
which saw about 5 years ago. On examination, the face looks like a "lion's muzzle." When
X-ray diffuse pattern defined by an increase in the body of the mandible on the left with
the destruction of bone in the form of multiple sites of compression and discharge, the
picture as "locks" or "pieces of wool." Define the diagnosis.
A. Disease-Engel Reklenhauzena
B. Disease-Braitseva Liechtenstein
C. * Paget's disease
D. Heruvizm
E.
Disease Taratynova
334. Asked the patient to the dentist complaining of the presence of painless deformity of
the mandible and the cranial, which saw about 5 years ago. On examination, the face
looks like a "lion's muzzle." When X-ray diffuse pattern defined by an increase in the
body of the mandible on the left with the destruction of bone in the form of multiple sites
of compression and discharge, the picture as "locks" or "pieces of wool." Define the
diagnosis.
A. Disease-Engel Reklenhauzena
B. Disease-Braitseva Liechtenstein
C. * Paget's disease
D. Heruvizm
E.
Disease Taratynova
335. Patient '61 complained to pronounced asymmetry of the face, which was 8 years ago.
OBJECTIVE: fusiform thickening of the lower jaw, swelling of the skin in color is not
changed, taken in the convolution. Palpation painless. Submandibular lymph nodes were
slightly enlarged. On Rtg-gram determined number of rounded cavities 0,6 x1; 1x2's 1x1,
5 cm, separated from each other by bone membranes. Diagnosed ameloblastoma of the
mandible. What type of treatment should the patient?
A. * Resection of mandible with bone grafting simultaneously
B. Radiotherapy
C. Ekskohleatsiya tumor
D. Chemotherapy
E.
Cryodestruction tumor
336. Patient N., 36 years old, appealed with complaints pronounced asymmetry of the face,
which was 8 years ago. OBJECTIVE: fusiform thickening of the lower jaw, swelling of
the skin in color is not changed, taken in the convolution. Palpation painless.
Submandibular lymph nodes were slightly enlarged. On Rtg-gram determined number of
rounded cavities 0,6 x1; 1x2's 1x1, 5 cm, separated from each other by bone membranes.
Diagnosed ameloblastoma of the mandible. What type of treatment should the patient?
A. * Resection of mandible with bone grafting simultaneously
B. Radiotherapy
C. Ekskohleatsiya tumor
D. Chemotherapy
E.
Cryodestruction tumor
337. The patient appealed to the dentist complaining of pronounced asymmetry of the face,
which was 8 years ago. OBJECTIVE: fusiform thickening of the lower jaw, swelling of
the skin in color is not changed, taken in the convolution. Palpation painless.
Submandibular lymph nodes were slightly enlarged. On Rtg-gram determined number of
rounded cavities 0,6 x1; 1x2's 1x1, 5 cm, separated from each other by bone membranes.
Diagnosed ameloblastoma of the mandible. What type of treatment should the patient?
A. Radiotherapy
B. Ekskohleatsiya tumor
C. * Resection of mandible with bone grafting simultaneously
D. Chemotherapy
E.
Cryodestruction tumor
338. Patient G., 19 years old can not open his mouth. Bird's face, open bite, distal. Palpation
of the heads of TMJ mobility is not detected. Open your mouth to 0.3 cm Set preliminary
diagnosis?
A. * Bilateral ankylosis.
B. Deforming arthrosis-arthritis.
C. Unilateral arthrosis-arthritis.
D. Contracture of the jaw.
E.
Acute arthritis.
339. Patient complaints can not open his mouth. Bird's face, open bite, distal. Palpation of
the heads of TMJ mobility is not detected. Open your mouth to 0.3 cm Set preliminary
diagnosis?
A. * Bilateral ankylosis.
B. Deforming arthrosis-arthritis.
C. Unilateral arthrosis-arthritis.
D. Contracture of the jaw.
E.
Acute arthritis
340. Patient complaints can not open his mouth. Objectively: bird face, open bite, distal.
Palpation of the heads of TMJ mobility is not detected. Open your mouth to 0.3 cm Set
preliminary diagnosis?
A. Deforming arthrosis-arthritis.
B. Unilateral arthrosis-arthritis.
C. Contracture of the jaw.
D. * Bilateral ankylosis.
E.
Acute arthritis
341. Patient B. '60 turned to the doctor complaining of difficulties and painful mouth
opening, a significant limitation of speech and eating. In compiling the history was
reported that Patient for about a year, the condition slowly gets worse, medical help is not
sought patient was treated independently, suffer from chronic inflammation of the upper
respiratory tract and chronic suppurative otitis media. On examination, marked limitation
of mouth opening of 1 cm, a significant reduction of the articular head excursions of the
mandible on the left. TMJ X-rays observed significant joint space narrowing, bone
shadow layers between the articular surfaces of the left. Install the final diagnosis?
A. * TMJ Ankylosis left
B. Osteoarthritis, arthritis left TMJ
C. Dysfunction of the left TMJ
D. Pathological fracture of the articular processes of the lower jaw on the left
E.
Dislocation of the Lower Jaw
342. The patient asked the doctor complaining of difficulties and painful mouth opening, a
significant limitation of speech and eating. In compiling the history was reported that
Patient for about a year, the condition slowly gets worse, medical help is not sought
patient was treated independently, suffer from chronic inflammation of the upper
respiratory tract and chronic suppurative otitis media. On examination, marked limitation
of mouth opening of 1 cm, a significant reduction of the articular head excursions of the
mandible on the left. TMJ X-rays observed significant joint space narrowing, bone
shadow layers between the articular surfaces of the left. Install the final diagnosis?
A. Osteoarthritis, arthritis left TMJ
B. * TMJ Ankylosis left
C. Dysfunction of the left TMJ
D. Pathological fracture of the articular processes of the lower jaw on the left
E.
Dislocation of the Lower Jaw
343. The patient complains of difficulties and painful mouth opening, a significant
limitation of speech and eating. In compiling the history was reported that Patient for
about a year, the condition slowly gets worse, medical help is not sought patient was
treated independently, suffer from chronic inflammation of the upper respiratory tract and
chronic suppurative otitis media. On examination, marked limitation of mouth opening of
1 cm, a significant reduction of the articular head excursions of the mandible on the left.
TMJ X-rays observed significant joint space narrowing, bone shadow layers between the
articular surfaces of the left. Install the final diagnosis?
A. Osteoarthritis, arthritis left TMJ
B. Dysfunction of the left TMJ
C. * TMJ Ankylosis left
D. Pathological fracture of the articular processes of the lower jaw on the left
E.
Dislocation of the Lower Jaw
344. Patient '30 appealed to the dentist complaining of nyyuschi pain, numbness in the
lower teeth in the region of the lower lip and chin on the right. From anamnesis have
found that these complaints appeared a week ago after wisdom tooth removal
retynovanoho mandibular right. What disease has developed in a patient?
A. * Nyzhnokomirkovoho nerve neuritis
B. Neuralgia third branch of the trigeminal nerve
C. Neuritis of the facial nerve
D. Neuralgia ear-temporal nerve
E.
Neuritis trigeminal nerve
345. The patient made a complaint to nyyuschi pain, numbness in the lower teeth in the
region of the lower lip and chin on the right. From anamnesis have found that these
complaints appeared a week ago after wisdom tooth removal retynovanoho mandibular
right. What disease has developed in a patient?
A. Neuralgia third branch of the trigeminal nerve
B. Neuritis of the facial nerve
C. Neuralgia ear-temporal nerve
D. * Nyzhnokomirkovoho nerve neuritis
E.
Neuritis trigeminal nerve
346. Patient L., 30, appealed to the dentist complaining of nyyuschi pain, numbness in the
lower teeth in the region of the lower lip and chin on the right. From anamnesis have
found that these complaints appeared a week ago after wisdom tooth removal
retynovanoho mandibular right. What disease has developed in a patient?
A. Neuralgia third branch of the trigeminal nerve
B. Neuritis of the facial nerve
C. * Nyzhnokomirkovoho nerve neuritis
D. Neuralgia ear-temporal nerve
E.
Neuritis trigeminal nerve
347. On examination, the boy '17 found that the lower jaw is pushed anteriorly, the distance
between the 11, 21 and 31, 41 and 8 mm. horizontally. 36, 46 are at 14.24. Was diagnosed
with true prognathism. Specify the method of treatment.
A. * " Pie "osteotomy
B.
Plane osteotomy in the mandibular angles by the method Mitrofanov and
Rud'ko
C. "A surface oval pear-shaped osteotomy "
D. Method bai brine
E.
The vertical "sliding" osteotomy
348. On examination, a young man 17 years was diagnosed with true prognathism. Specify
the method of treatment.
A.
Plane osteotomy in the mandibular angles by the method Mitrofanov and
Rud'ko
B. * " Pie "osteotomy
C. A surface oval pear-shaped osteotomy "
D. Method bai brine
E.
The vertical "sliding" osteotomy
349. On examination, the patient revealed that the lower jaw is pushed anteriorly, the
distance between the 11, 21 and 31, 41 and 8 mm. horizontally. 36, 46 are at 14.24. Was
diagnosed with true prognathism. Specify the method of treatment.
A.
Plane osteotomy in the mandibular angles by the method Mitrofanov and
Rud'ko
B. * " Pie "osteotomy
C. A surface oval pear-shaped osteotomy "
D. Method bai brine
E.
The vertical "sliding" osteotomy
350. Patient P., 28 years old, was admitted to hospital with a diagnosis of a lower degree of
prognathism II deep bite I degree. Malocclusion and excessive vystoyannya chin marked 17
years of age, was carried out during an attempt to orthodontic treatment. What method of
treatment.
A. * Bilateral sagittal pear-shaped osteotomy of the mandible
B.
Plane osteotomy in the mandibular angles by the method Mitrofanov and
Rud'ko
C. "A surface oval pear-shaped osteotomy "
D. Method bai brine
E.
The vertical "sliding" osteotomy
351. The patient was admitted to hospital with a diagnosis of a lower degree of prognathism
II deep bite I degree. Malocclusion and excessive vystoyannya chin marked 17 years of age,
was carried out during an attempt to orthodontic treatment. What method of treatment.
A. Method bai brine
B.
Plane osteotomy in the mandibular angles by the method Mitrofanov and
Rud'ko
C. "A surface oval pear-shaped osteotomy "
D. * Bilateral sagittal pear-shaped osteotomy of the mandible
E.
The vertical "sliding" osteotomy
352. The patient was diagnosed with a lower degree of prognathism II deep bite I degree.
Malocclusion and excessive vystoyannya chin marked 17 years of age, was carried out
during an attempt to orthodontic treatment. What method of treatment.
A. The vertical "sliding" osteotomy
B.
Plane osteotomy in the mandibular angles by the method Mitrofanov and
Rud'ko
C. "A surface oval pear-shaped osteotomy "
D. Method bai brine
E.
* Bilateral sagittal pear-shaped osteotomy of the mandible
353. Complaints protrusion of the chin to the eastward zatrudnenyy act nibble, retraction of
the upper lip. As a child, had surgery - uranoplastyku. OBJECTIVE: upper lip sinks,
pidboridok normally developed mandible acts to the forefront. In the medial occlusion are
some front teeth remaining teeth in the correct ratio. What disease patient?
A. Genuine progeny.
B. The lower prognathism.
C. * False progeny.
D. The upper prognathism.
E.
Lower retrohnatiya
354. The patient complains of a lack of contact between the upper and lower teeth,
excessive development of the whole of the upper jaw. Objectively: marked protrusion of
the upper jaw forward relative to the normally developed mandible. The front group of
teeth in the upper jaw will hold back sharply towards the front teeth of the lower jaw.
With this cutting edge crowns of upper teeth touch the lower lip. The upper lip is upturned
and some shorter, the upper teeth are not covered by the upper lip. Set the diagnosis.
A. Makroheniya.
B. Mikroheniya
C. Micrognathia
D. * Prognathism.
E.
Open bite
355. The patient appealed to the dentist complaining of the lack of contact between the
upper and lower teeth, excessive development of the whole of the upper jaw. Objectively:
marked protrusion of the upper jaw forward relative to the normally developed mandible.
The front group of teeth in the upper jaw will hold back sharply towards the front teeth of
the lower jaw. With this cutting edge crowns of upper teeth touch the lower lip. The upper
lip is upturned and some shorter, the upper teeth are not covered by the upper lip. Set the
diagnosis.
A. Makroheniya.
B. * Prognathism.
C. Mikroheniya
D. Micrognathia
E.
Open bite
356. Patient K., 36 years old, complains of lack of contact between the upper and lower
teeth, excessive development of the whole of the upper jaw. Objectively: marked
protrusion of the upper jaw forward relative to the normally developed mandible. The
front group of teeth in the upper jaw will hold back sharply towards the front teeth of the
lower jaw. With this cutting edge crowns of upper teeth touch the lower lip. The upper lip
is upturned and some shorter, the upper teeth are not covered by the upper lip. Set the
diagnosis.
A. Makroheniya.
B. Mikroheniya
C. Micrognathia
D. * Prognathism.
E.
Open bite
357. To the dentist asked the parents complaints to reduce a child's face with one hand - the
left. Objectively: marked reduction of left face by varying fullness of the cheeks and the
asymmetry of the contour of the mandible. It is noted uneven mouth opening with chin
deviation to the left storonu.Vstanovit diagnosis.
A. Makroheniya.
B. Mikroheniya
C. Micrognathia
D. * Unilateral hypoplasia of the mandible
E.
Bilateral hypoplasia of the mandible
358. To the dentist asked the parents with complaints of reducing a child's face with one
hand - the left. Objectively: marked reduction of left face by varying fullness of the
cheeks and the asymmetry of the contour of the mandible. It is noted uneven mouth
opening with chin deviation to the left storonu.Vstanovit diagnosis.
A. Makroheniya.
B. Mikroheniya
C. Micrognathia
D. * Unilateral hypoplasia of the mandible
E.
Bilateral hypoplasia of the mandible
359. The child's parents appealed to the dentist with complaints of reducing a child's face
with one hand - the left. Objectively: marked reduction of left face by varying fullness of
the cheeks and the asymmetry of the contour of the mandible. It is noted uneven mouth
opening with chin deviation to the left storonu.Vstanovit diagnosis.
A. Makroheniya.
B. Mikroheniya
C. Micrognathia
D. * Unilateral hypoplasia of the mandible
E.
Bilateral hypoplasia of the mandible
360. To the doctor asked the patient complaining of decrease in the face. It has been found
reducing the bottom of the face, chin, nose and vystoyannya upper lip, the skin of the chin
is wrinkled appearance, missing transverse crease between his chin and lower lip. Open
your mouth is not broken. Set the diagnosis.
A. * Bilateral hypoplasia of the mandible
B. Makroheniya.
C. Mikroheniya
D. Micrognathia
E.
Unilateral hypoplasia of the mandible
361. The patient was installed reducing the lower part of the face, chin, nose and
vystoyannya upper lip, the skin of the chin has a wrinkled appearance, missing transverse
crease between his chin and lower lip. Open your mouth is not broken. Set the diagnosis.
A. * Bilateral hypoplasia of the mandible
B. Makroheniya.
C. Mikroheniya
D. Micrognathia
E.
Unilateral hypoplasia of the mandible
362. The patient complains of a reduction of the face. An objective: reducing the lower part
of the face, chin, nose and vystoyannya upper lip, the skin of the chin has a wrinkled
appearance, missing transverse crease between his chin and lower lip. Open your mouth is
not broken. Set the diagnosis.
A. * Bilateral hypoplasia of the mandible
B. Makroheniya.
C. Mikroheniya
D. Micrognathia
E.
Unilateral hypoplasia of the mandible
363. On examination of the victim with a wound in the bottom of the oral cavity revealed: a
large hematoma on the proliferation of cervical and significant soft tissue swelling floor of
the mouth and neck. In this condition there is a threat of stenotic asphyxia. What type of
first aid is required in this case?
A. * Hold the tracheotomy
B. Introduction lobeline
C. Conducting drug for symptomatic treatment
D. Fixation of tongue
E.
Conduct initial debridement
364. On examination, the patient showed: a large hematoma on the proliferation of cervical
and significant soft tissue swelling floor of the mouth and neck. In this condition there is a
threat of stenotic asphyxia. What type of first aid is required in this case?
A. Introduction lobeline
B. Conducting drug for symptomatic treatment
C. Fixation of tongue
D. * Hold the tracheotomy
E.
Conduct initial debridement
365. On examination, the victim K., 35 years old, with a wound in the bottom of the oral
cavity revealed: a large hematoma on the proliferation of cervical and significant soft
tissue swelling floor of the mouth and neck. In this condition there is a threat of stenotic
asphyxia. What type of first aid is required in this case?
A. Conducting drug for symptomatic treatment
B. Introduction lobeline
C. * Hold the tracheotomy
D. Fixation of tongue
E.
Conduct initial debridement
366. After clinical and radiographic examination of the patient 32 years old, diagnosed with
chronic odontogenic sinusitis, maxillary sinus spivustya of mouth through the hole 27
tooth. Enter the most appropriate method of surgical treatment of this disease.
A. * Radical maxillary sinusotomy with plastic spivustya local tissues
B. Plastic spivustya local tissues, anti-inflammatory therapy
C. Radical maxillary sinusotomy
D. Plastic spivustya flap from the hard palate
E.
Closure of fistulas course, washing the maxillary sinus
367. After the examination, the patient diagnosed with chronic odontogenic sinusitis,
maxillary sinus spivustya of oral through hole 27 tooth. Enter the most appropriate
method of surgical treatment of this disease.
A. * Radical maxillary sinusotomy with plastic spivustya local tissues
B. Plastic spivustya local tissues, anti-inflammatory therapy
C. Radical maxillary sinusotomy
D. Plastic spivustya flap from the hard palate
E.
Closure of fistulas course, washing the maxillary sinus
368. The patient was diagnosed with chronic odontogenic sinusitis, maxillary sinus
spivustya of mouth through the hole 27 tooth. Enter the most appropriate method of
surgical treatment of this disease.
A. * Radical maxillary sinusotomy with plastic spivustya local tissues
B. Plastic spivustya local tissues, anti-inflammatory therapy
C. Radical maxillary sinusotomy
D. Plastic spivustya flap from the hard palate
E.
Closure of fistulas course, washing the maxillary sinus
369. Patient K., posttraumatic defect of the left wing of the nose krylnoho violation of the
integrity of cartilage. What treatment do you think is most effective?
A. * Free plastic part of the ear by Suslova
B. Free skin grafts
C. Free plastic cartilage by A.O.Limberh
D. Plastic Filatov stem
E.
Tummy skin graft for Sedylo
370. The patient was diagnosed with post-traumatic defect of the left wing of the nose in
violation of integrity krylnoho cartilage. What treatment do you think is most effective?
A. Free skin grafts
B. * Free plastic part of the ear by Suslova
C. Free plastic cartilage by A.O.Limberh
D. Plastic Filatov stem
E.
Tummy skin graft for Sedylo
371. Patient posttraumatic defect of the left wing of the nose krylnoho violation of the
integrity of cartilage. What treatment do you think is most effective?
A. Tummy skin graft for Sedylo
B. Free skin grafts
C. Free plastic cartilage by A.O.Limberh
D. Plastic Filatov stem
E.
* Free plastic part of the ear by Suslova
372. Woman '46 complained of bleeding from the gums, discharge of pus, loose teeth. Ill 10
years. On examination, the gums on the upper and lower jaws hyperemic, edematous,
when touched - bleeding. In the 42, 41, 31, 32 - to 8 mm periodontal pockets of purulent
secretions, mobility II degree, the other - I degree. On radiographs - resorption
mezhalveolyarnyh partitions in section 42, 41, 31, 32 1/2 lengths root occurrence of
osteoporosis. Which of the following techniques most indicated for the surgical treatment
of this patient?
A. * Osteoplasty
B. Curettage
C. Hinhivotomiya
D. Hinhivoektomiya
E.
Flap operation
373. To the dentist asked the patient complaining of bleeding from the gums, discharge of
pus, loose teeth. Ill 10 years. On examination, the gums on the upper and lower jaws
hyperemic, edematous, when touched - bleeding. In the 42, 41, 31, 32 - to 8 mm
periodontal pockets of purulent secretions, mobility II degree, the other - I degree. On
radiographs - resorption mezhalveolyarnyh partitions in section 42, 41, 31, 32 1/2 lengths
root occurrence of osteoporosis. Which of the following techniques most indicated for the
surgical treatment of this patient?
A. Curettage
B. Hinhivotomiya
C. Hinhivoektomiya
D. * Osteoplasty
E.
Flap operation
374. A woman complains of bleeding from the gums, discharge of pus, loose teeth. Ill 10
years. On examination, the gums on the upper and lower jaws hyperemic, edematous,
when touched - bleeding. In the 42, 41, 31, 32 - to 8 mm periodontal pockets of purulent
secretions, mobility II degree, the other - I degree. On radiographs - resorption
mezhalveolyarnyh partitions in section 42, 41, 31, 32 1/2 lengths root occurrence of
osteoporosis. Which of the following techniques most indicated for the surgical treatment
of this patient?
A. Curettage
B. Hinhivotomiya
C. * Osteoplasty
D. Hinhivoektomiya
E.
Flap operation
375. Male 25 years, complains of pain in the lower jaw, abnormal mobility, bleeding from
the mouth, malocclusion, inability chewing food. Herbs received 10 hours ago. The
examination established a single fracture of the mandible between the first and second
premolars. Bias small fragments. Teeth all available, stable, correct anatomical shape.
What is the optimal treatment for the patient?
A. * Bucket of dental tires
B. Osteosynthesis using miniplastynky
C. Odnoschelepna cap
D. Kapova Bus
E.
Nakistkovohyy device
376. The patient complains of pain in the lower jaw, abnormal mobility, bleeding from the
mouth, malocclusion, inability chewing food. Herbs received 10 hours ago. The
examination established a single fracture of the mandible between the first and second
premolars. Bias small fragments. Teeth all available, stable, correct anatomical shape.
What is the optimal treatment for the patient?
A. * Bucket of dental tires
B. Osteosynthesis using miniplastynky
C. Odnoschelepna cap
D. Kapova Bus
E.
Nakistkovohyy device
377. To the dentist asked the man with complaints of pain in the lower jaw, abnormal
mobility, bleeding from the mouth, malocclusion, inability chewing food. Herbs received
10 hours ago. The examination established a single fracture of the mandible between the
first and second premolars. Bias small fragments. Teeth all available, stable, correct
anatomical shape. What is the optimal treatment for the patient?
A. * Bucket of dental tires
B. Osteosynthesis using miniplastynky
C. Odnoschelepna cap
D. Kapova Bus
E.
Nakistkovohyy device
378. A patient 30 years after a gunshot wound formed a total defect of the nose, skin scar
deformity cheek and infraorbital areas adjacent to the defect. Select the best recovery
option nose.
A. * Radical rhinoplasty by F. Hitrov
B. Krylopateva loskutnyy flap
C. The flap on the leg of the forehead
D. Free skin graft
E.
Two flap on the leg of the cheeks
379. In patients after gunshot wound formed a total defect of the nose, skin scar deformity
cheek and infraorbital areas adjacent to the defect. Select the best recovery option nose.
A. Krylopateva loskutnyy flap
B. The flap on the leg of the forehead
C. Free skin graft
D. * Radical rhinoplasty by F. Hitrov
E.
Two flap on the leg of the cheeks
380. Patient formed a total defect of the nose, skin scar deformity cheek and infraorbital
areas adjacent to the defect. Select the best recovery option nose.
A. Krylopateva loskutnyy flap
B. The flap on the leg of the forehead
C. * Radical rhinoplasty by F. Hitrov
D. Free skin graft
E.
Two flap on the leg of the cheeks
381. Patient '35 addressed the dental surgeon about training to oral prosthesis. On
examination of the mouth revealed many decayed teeth to be removed. The patient was
very emotional, easily excitable. To the dentist is not addressed because of the fear of
pain. Under what kind of anesthesia is advisable to dental health (removing roots)?
A. * Mask anesthesia
B. Infiltration anesthesia
C. Pain-needle injector using
D. Anesthesia
E.
Elektroznebolennya
382. Asked the patient to the dentist complaining of difficulties and limitations of mouth
opening movements of the mandible. After clinical examination methods diagnosed
kiskovyy left ankylosis of temporomandibular joint. Planned reconstructive surgery on the
lower jaw. What method of anesthesia should be used?
A. Mask anesthesia.
B. Local anesthesia.
C. The local potentiated anesthesia.
D. * Endotracheal anesthesia through traheostomu.
E.
Intravenous anesthesia.
383. Patient complains of the difficulties and limitations of mouth opening movements of
the mandible. Patient's mouth opening 0.5 cm patient suffering for 10 years. After clinical
examination methods diagnosed kiskovyy left ankylosis of temporomandibular joint.
Planned reconstructive surgery on the lower jaw. What method of anesthesia should be
used?
A. * Endotracheal anesthesia through traheostomu.
B. Mask anesthesia.
C. Local anesthesia.
D. The local potentiated anesthesia.
E.
Intravenous anesthesia.
384. Patient B., 43, appealed to the Department of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery with
complaints of cosmetic defect in the region of the right half of the nose. From history we
know that the patient was injured about 7 months ago shoot a firearm. OBJECTIVE: In
the area of the right half of the nose is observed penetrating defect measuring 1.5 x 2 cm.
Skin around the defect in color is not changed. The decision to use "Indian" method of
rhinoplasty. Where to get the fabric to remove the defect?
A. Skin flap cheeks.
B. Skin flap pidochnoyi site.
C. Skin flap shoulder.
D. * The skin flap forehead.
E.
Skin flap shoulder-scapular region.
385. In the department of maxillofacial surgery complaining of a cosmetic defect in the
region of the right half of the nose turned Patient N. 30. From history we know that the
patient was injured about 7 months ago shoot a firearm. OBJECTIVE: In the area of the
right half of the nose is observed penetrating defect measuring 1.5 x 2 cm. Skin around the
defect in color is not changed. The decision to use "Indian" method of rhinoplasty. Where
to get the fabric to remove the defect?
A. Skin flap cheeks.
B. Skin flap pidochnoyi site.
C. * The skin flap forehead.
D. Skin flap shoulder.
E.
Skin flap shoulder-scapular region.
386. The patient appealed to the Department of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery with
complaints of cosmetic defect in the region of the right half of the nose. From history we
know that the patient was injured about 7 months ago shoot a firearm. OBJECTIVE: In
the area of the right half of the nose is observed penetrating defect measuring 1.5 x 2 cm.
Skin around the defect in color is not changed. The decision to use "Indian" method of
rhinoplasty. Where to get the fabric to remove the defect?
A. * The skin flap forehead.
B. Skin flap cheeks.
C. Skin flap pidochnoyi site.
D. Skin flap shoulder.
E.
Skin flap shoulder-scapular region.
387. As a soldier wounded by a shell, firearm diagnosed with a fracture of the mandible
bone defect in the area of the chin more than 3cm. What method of fixation of mandibular
fragments shown?
A. * Hardware osteosynthesis (Rud'ko, Bernadsky)
B. Of dental tires Tihershtedta
C. Direct fixation
D. Tire Huninha port
E.
Mizhschelepove ligature binding by Ivy
388. Patient '48 held paratydektomiyu about benign parotid saliva glands. In the
postoperative period there is the omission of the corner of his mouth, the displacement of
the midline in the healthy side, labored speech. Which branch of the facial nerve lesion
during surgery?
A. * The Regional branch of the mandible.
B. Jaw branch.
C. Zygomatic branch.
D. Cervical branch.
E.
Temporal branch.
389. Patients underwent paratydektomiyu about benign parotid saliva glands. In the
postoperative period there is the omission of the corner of his mouth, the displacement of
the midline in the healthy side, labored speech. Which branch of the facial nerve lesion
during surgery?
A. Jaw branch.
B. Zygomatic branch.
C. * The Regional branch of the mandible.
D. Cervical branch.
E.
Temporal branch.
390. Which branch of the facial nerve lesion during surgery in patients after Proven
paratydektomiyi about benign parotid saliva glands. In the postoperative period there is
the omission of the corner of his mouth, the displacement of the midline in the healthy
side, labored speech.
A. Jaw branch.
B. Zygomatic branch.
C. Cervical branch.
D. * The Regional branch of the mandible.
E.
Temporal branch.
391. A man 40 years after a gunshot wound left a total defect of the nose. Which way to the
plastic must be used to restore the nose?
A. * Phased plastics can round the stem at Khitrova
B. Free transplantation of cartilage, skin and bone
C. Moving Nearby tissues Szymanowski
D. Transplantation of bone, skin and cartilage on the feeding pedicle
E.
Plastic fabric ear for wort
392. A man after a gunshot wound left a total defect of the nose. Which way to the plastic
must be used to restore the nose?
A. Free transplantation of cartilage, skin and bone
B. * Phased plastics can round the stem at Khitrova
C. Moving Nearby tissues Szymanowski
D. Transplantation of bone, skin and cartilage on the feeding pedicle
E.
Plastic fabric ear for wort
393. After a gunshot wound, the patient remained a total defect of the nose. Which way to
the plastic must be used to restore the nose?
A. Free transplantation of cartilage, skin and bone
B. Moving Nearby tissues Szymanowski
C. * Phased plastics can round the stem at Khitrova
D. Transplantation of bone, skin and cartilage on the feeding pedicle
E.
Plastic fabric ear for wort
394. Patient M., '42 complains of pain right half of the head, limit jaw movements, clicks,
periodic spasms of masticatory muscles. OBJECTIVE: symmetrical face, mouth opening
is limited. On palpation in the right temporomandibular joint marked crepitus and
crepitation during movement of the mandible. On examination of the mouth revealed a
defect of dentition case II class at Kennedy. What is the diagnosis you ask the patient?
A. * Pain Dysfunction of the right temporomandibular joint.
B. Acute arthritis.
C. Sclerosing osteoarthritis of the right temporomandibular joint.
D. Contracture of the right temporomandibular joint.
E.
Ossyfikuyuchyy myositis.
395. Appealed to the dentist with the patient complaining of pain right half of the head,
limit jaw movements, clicks, periodic spasms of masticatory muscles. OBJECTIVE:
symmetrical face, mouth opening is limited. On palpation in the right temporomandibular
joint marked crepitus and crepitation during movement of the mandible. On examination
of the mouth revealed a defect of dentition case II class at Kennedy. What is the diagnosis
you ask the patient?
A. Acute arthritis.
B. Sclerosing osteoarthritis of the right temporomandibular joint.
C. Contracture of the right temporomandibular joint.
D. * Pain Dysfunction of the right temporomandibular joint.
E.
Ossyfikuyuchyy myositis.
396. The patient complains of '17 presence at the front of the neck fistula, present from
birth. Periodically with fistula secreted a small amount of mucoid extremely dangerous.
Median fistula diagnosed neck. What is the treatment in this patient?
A. * Excision with resection of the fistulous body of the hyoid bone
B. Excision svyschuvatoho go without resection podyazychnoy body bone
C. Flashing mouth fistulous purse string suture by type
D. Cryodestruction epithelium fistulous
E.
Sclerotherapy epithelium fistulous
397. The patient complains of presence on the front of the neck fistula, present from birth.
Periodically with fistula secreted a small amount of mucoid extremely dangerous. Median
fistula diagnosed neck. What is the treatment in this patient?
A. Excision svyschuvatoho go without resection podyazychnoy body bone
B. * Excision with resection of the fistulous body of the hyoid bone
C. Flashing mouth fistulous purse string suture by type
D. Cryodestruction epithelium fistulous
E.
Sclerotherapy epithelium fistulous
398. The patient was diagnosed a median fistula of the neck. What is the treatment in this
patient?
A. Excision svyschuvatoho go without resection podyazychnoy body bone
B. Flashing mouth fistulous purse string suture by type
C. Cryodestruction epithelium fistulous
D. * Excision with resection of the fistulous body of the hyoid bone
E.
Sclerotherapy epithelium fistulous
399. After removing complex tooth 37, the patient became anesthesia in the region of the
left half of the lower lip and chin. When tested for EDI marked decrease
elektrozbudlyvosti teeth of the lower jaw to the left. What is the likely diagnosis disease
that happen?
A. * Neuritis left inferior alveolar nerve.
B. Neuralgia left inferior alveolar nerve.
C. Alveolitis in the area of the hole 37 tooth.
D. Herpes Zoster n. Trigemini.
E.
Acute osteomyelitis of the mandible body.
400. Patient S., 52 years old complains of sharp prystupopodibni burning pain in the left
corner of the mouth and extending into the lower parts of the left cheek radiating to the
ear and the outside area. Attacks of pain occurring spontaneously or from touching the
skin of the lower lip with his hand. He suffers from hypertension - II degree. Add a
preliminary diagnosis.
A. * Neuralgia III branch of the trigeminal nerve.
B. Neuritis of the facial nerve.
C. Neuritis II branch of the trigeminal nerve.
D. Neuritis and branches of the trigeminal nerve.
E.
Paresis of the facial nerve.
401. The patient complains of sharp prystupopodibni burning pain in the left corner of the
mouth and extending into the lower parts of the left cheek radiating to the ear and the
outside area. Attacks of pain occurring spontaneously or from touching the skin of the
lower lip with his hand. He suffers from hypertension - II degree. Add a preliminary
diagnosis.
A. Neuritis of the facial nerve.
B. Neuritis II branch of the trigeminal nerve.
C. Neuritis and branches of the trigeminal nerve.
D. * Neuralgia III branch of the trigeminal nerve.
E.
Paresis of the facial nerve.
402. Before dental surgeon asked the patient complaining of sharp prystupopodibni burning
pain in the left corner of the mouth and extending into the lower parts of the left cheek
radiating to the ear and the outside area. Attacks of pain occurring spontaneously or from
touching the skin of the lower lip with his hand. He suffers from hypertension - II degree.
Add a preliminary diagnosis.
A. Neuritis of the facial nerve.
B. * Neuralgia III branch of the trigeminal nerve.
C. Neuritis II branch of the trigeminal nerve.
D. Neuritis and branches of the trigeminal nerve.
E.
Paresis of the facial nerve.
403. Male 25 years had sought the clinic about removing 18 tooth crown which is destroyed
by 1/2. Tooth still often untreated. When removing a tooth held the lead tuber maxilla.
What are the most correct action in this case?
A. * Remove vidlamok and take in the wound.
B. Try to enter vidlamok place.
C. Set vidlamok to the old place and secure.
D. Remove vidlamok.
E.
Remove vidlamok zatamponuvaty and maxillary sinuses.
404. The patient contacted the clinic about 18 removal of the tooth crown which is
destroyed by 1/2. Tooth still often untreated. When removing a tooth held the lead tuber
maxilla. What are the most correct action in this case?
A. Try to enter vidlamok place.
B. Set vidlamok to the old place and secure.
C. * Remove vidlamok and take in the wound.
D. Remove vidlamok.
405. At the clinic the patient asked about removing 18 tooth crown which is destroyed by
1/2. Tooth has repeatedly treated. When removing a tooth held the lead tuber maxilla.
What are the most correct action in this case?
A. Try to enter vidlamok place.
B. Set vidlamok to the old place and secure.
C. Remove vidlamok.
D. * Remove vidlamok and take in the wound.
E.
Remove vidlamok zatamponuvaty and maxillary sinuses.
406. To the dentist with complaints addressed patient intensive, cutting, periodic pain with a
feeling of passing electric current in the region of the upper lip on the right. Painful
attacks occur spontaneously and for 3 - 5 minutes. Number of episodes of 2 - 3 times a
day. Causes of the disease the patient notknows. An objective examination of the oral
cavity lesions were found. Mouth sanovana. On the control ortopantonohrami found
zverhkompletnyy retynovanyy 13 tooth. Put diagnosis.
A. Hanhliolit pterygopalatine site
B. Neuritis II hoyi branches of the trigeminal nerve
C. Neuralgia II hoyi branches of the trigeminal nerve central origin
D. * Peripheral neuralgia II hoyi branch of the trigeminal nerve
E.
Pulp of the tooth in the upper jaw on the right
407. Symptom "lash" in the neuritis of the facial nerve - is:
A.
* at zazhmuryuvanni eye lashes completely absorbed into the eyelid on the
healthy side and the affected - the lashes are clearly visible
B.
when you try to close the eye of the upper eyelid on the affected side is
lowered enough to close the eye slit and notice that at the same time leaves the
eyeball upward and outward
C.
patient suggest to look forward and try to slowly close your eyes, and the
upper eyelid on the affected side slightly raised
D. by turning the lower lip facial muscles on the affected side is not reduced
E.
can not close the eye on the affected side
408. Flashing test in the diagnosis of neuritis of the facial nerve - is:
A.
* eye blink asynchronously
B. with closed eyes of the patient's eyelids vibration on the Patient side no
C. ill weakly holds a strip of paper lip angle of the affected parties
D. patient can not inflate the cheeks
E.
patient can not zamruzhyty eye on the patient side, although zamruzhyty both
eyes simultaneously can
409. Vibration Test for ever in the diagnosis of facial nerve neuritis - is:
A. eye blink asynchronously
B. * With closed eyes of the patient's eyelids vibration on the Patient side no
C.
D.
E.
ill weakly holds a strip of paper lip angle of the affected parties
patient can not inflate the cheeks
patient can not zamruzhyty eye on the patient side, although zamruzhyty both
eyes simultaneously can
410. Test research of circular muscle of the mouth when examining patients with facial
nerve neuritis - is:
A. eye blink asynchronously
B. with closed eyes of the patient's eyelids vibration on the Patient side no
C. * Ill weakly holds a strip of paper lip angle of the affected parties
D. patient can not inflate the cheeks
E.
patient can not zamruzhyty eye on the patient side, although zamruzhyty both
eyes simultaneously can
411. Test inflated cheeks when examining patients with facial nerve neuritis - is:
A. eye blink asynchronously
B. with closed eyes of the patient's eyelids vibration on the Patient side no
C. ill weakly holds a strip of paper lip angle of the affected parties
D. * Patient can not inflate the cheeks
E.
patient can not zamruzhyty eye on the patient side, although zamruzhyty both
eyes simultaneously can
412. Test zazhmuryuvannya separate examination of patients with facial nerve neuritis - is:
A. eye blink asynchronously
B. with closed eyes of the patient's eyelids vibration on the Patient side no
C. ill weakly holds a strip of paper lip angle of the affected parties
D. patient can not inflate the cheeks
E.
* Patient can not zamruzhyty eye on the patient side, although zamruzhyty
both eyes simultaneously can
413. Fronto-mouth synkineses - is:
A.
* involuntary prypidnimannya corner of his mouth with his forehead
namorschuvanni
B. zazhmuryuvanni spontaneously rises in pinna
C. at zazhmuryuvanni involuntarily reduced subcutaneous neck muscle
D. closing eyes raised corner of the mouth the same side
E.
closing eye brow namorschuyetsya
414. Eyelid - ear synkineses - is:
A.
involuntary prypidnimannya corner of his mouth with his forehead
namorschuvanni
B. * At zazhmuryuvanni involuntarily raised auricle
C. at zazhmuryuvanni involuntarily reduced subcutaneous neck muscle
D. closing eyes raised corner of the mouth the same side
E.
closing eye brow namorschuyetsya
415. Palette - platyzmova synkineses - is:
A.
involuntary prypidnimannya corner of his mouth with his forehead
namorschuvanni
B. zazhmuryuvanni spontaneously rises in pinna
C. * At zazhmuryuvanni involuntarily reduced subcutaneous neck muscle
D. closing eyes raised corner of the mouth the same side
E.
closing eye brow namorschuyetsya
416. Palette - platyzmova synkineses - is:
A.
involuntary prypidnimannya corner of his mouth with his forehead
namorschuvanni
B. zazhmuryuvanni spontaneously rises in pinna
C. * At zazhmuryuvanni involuntarily reduced subcutaneous neck muscle
D. closing eyes raised corner of the mouth the same side
E.
closing eye brow namorschuyetsya
417. Palette - frontal synkineses - is:
A.
involuntary prypidnimannya corner of his mouth with his forehead
namorschuvanni
B. zazhmuryuvanni spontaneously rises in pinna
C. at zazhmuryuvanni involuntarily reduced subcutaneous neck muscle
D. closing eyes raised corner of the mouth the same side
E.
* Closing eyes namorschuyetsya forehead
418. S. Patient suffering from chronic leukemia, but insists on a dental implant. Are there
any contraindications to dental implants and how this pathology?
A. There are absolute contraindications to local
B. Is a relatively common contraindications
C. * There are a total absolute contraindications
D. There are relative contraindications local
E.
It is not a contraindication
419. The patient, 40 years 3 months after implantation marked mucosal edema at the site of
implantation, hnoyinnya of voles in the area of implantation, the X-ray observed loss of
bone around the implant. Manifestation of which is listed changes?
A. Inflammation of the mucous membrane of the alveolar process
B. * The disintegration of the implant
C. Age atrophy of the alveolar process
D. Common osteoporosis
E.
Decreased bone mineral density
420. The patient, 35, planned prosthetic teeth with implants. Which of the following types
of radiological examination is necessary to measure the height to the bone at the site of
implantation?
A. Radiography of the skull in nosopidboridniy projection
B. Radiography of the skull in nosolobniy projection
C. * Ortopantomohramma
D. Radiography of the skull in lateral projection
E.
Radiography of the skull in the axial projection
421.
The patient, 65 years appealed to the dentist for the purpose prosthesis
using dental implants. During the examination of the patient revealed that he was
suffering from insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Is it possible to hold the implants
preserve life in this case?
A. You can not
B. You may, after consultation with an endocrinologist
C. Can insulin injections after
D. * You can after receiving the written consent of the patient
E.
You can after complex treatment
422. Patient '45 addressed the dentist complaining of mobility prosthetic dentures, which
was fixed on intraosseous implants. The mobility of the prosthesis is accompanied by
pain, inflammation of the lining around the neck of implants and hnoyetecheyu. What
therapeutic measures should make the patient?
A. Conduct curettage implants
B. Remove prosthetic appliances
C. To prescribe antibiotic therapy
D. Make autopsy mucosa alveolar process
E.
* Remove the implant with prosthetic appliances
423. Male 36 years had sought complaining of pain in the region yyuchi left TMJ area that
persisting while taking solid food, which appeared to lyzko 2 years ago. OBJECTIVE:
slightly limited mouth opening the jaws and shifted to the side, available in ruskit's TMJ.
In the mouth - missing molars on the bottom first and second upper jaw. On radiographs
- sclerosis cortical plate and articular deformity of the head, joint space narrowing. I
rolled th most likely diagnosis?
A. Chronic TMJ arthritis
B. * A rtrozo - TMJ arthritis
C. Acute TMJ arthritis
D. TMJ Pain
E. Became more relevant heals chronic TMJ arthritis
424. The patient complains of '43 sharp pain in the left TMJ radiating into the ear
headache, worsening of general condition, inability to chew and limited mouth opening.
OBJECTIVE: asymmetrical face due to swelling in the region of the left TMJ. Skin in this
area flushed. Pain increases with minimal movement lower jaw. Palpation of the joints
causing pain. mouth opening restriction is 15 mm. Put diagnosis.
A. * Acute left TMJ arthritis
B. Acute suppurative parotitis
C. Deforming arthrosis of the left TMJ
D. TMJ Pain
E. Subluxation of the mandible
425. Patient, 46 years old, turned to the dental surgeon to remove 17 teeth. What pain
relief apply?
A. * Tuberalna and palatynalna anesthesia.
B. Palatynalna, infraorbitalna anesthesia
C. Infilratsiyna, incisive anesthesia
D. Mandibular anesthesia
E. Torusalna anesthesia
426. Patient K. diagnosed odontogenic phlegmon right zygomatic area of 16 teeth. What is
the treatment in the patient?
A. section cellulitis, endodontic treatment of tooth 16 with momentary root canal
B. endodontic treatment of tooth 16, deferred root canal
C. section cellulitis, endodontic treatment of tooth 16 deferred root canal
D. * Ting develop cellulitis, tooth removal 16
E. outpatient supervision Dr
427. Patients concerned about a sharp intense pain and swelling at the site of the destroyed
tooth on the lower jaw to the right, deterioration of general condition, fever body to 38.8
C, loss of appetite, insomnia. On examination determined collateral soft tissue swelling
submandibular area and lower right cheek. And regional lymph nodes are enlarged on the
right, painful on palpation. The crown 46 is half destroyed, 45, 46, 47 mobile, in the area
of the teeth determined Clutches similar infiltration. noted symptom Vincent. cue I
diagnosis You ask?
A. Chronic odontogenic OS teomiyelit exacerbation
B. Chronic osteomyelitis odontoh nth
C. Acute suppurative periodontitis
D. * Go stretch marks odontogenic osteomyelitis
E. Acute suppurative odontogenic abscess
428. Patient, 18 years old, admitted to the Maxillofacial cus nick in a state of moderate
severity, with a temperature of 38.8 C and complaining of a sharp pain and swelling in the
left submandibular area. From history: in 14 days continued posts on the treatment your
dermatologist about streptoderma. A week ago in the submandibular area and her were
painful, "balls", which is constantly increasing. Over the past day state dramatically
deteriorated. OBJECTIVE: Facial asymmetry due to the sharp pain in her swollen and
submandibular and left the area, swelling moves to the upper neck; Skin covering
hiperemiy of Old, pleated not going hot to the touch. Palpation infiltration sharply
painful. Pathology of the oral cavity were found. What diagnosis can suggest?
A. Acute lymphadenitis pidnyzhnoschelenoyi areas left
B. * Phlegmonous adenitis pidnyzhnoschelenoyi area on the left.
C. Odontogenic abscess pidnyzhnoschelenoyi areas left
D. Acute suppurative periostitis of the mandible
E. C ialadenit submandibular salivary gland
429. The patient, 35 years old, appealed with complaints of swelling of the right
submandibular area and the type of pain "colic" that you arise when eating, and then for
20-30 minutes to Il gradually ceased and the swelling reduced in size. Ill during month I.
OBJECTIVE: to the right submandibular region is determined and her minor increase in
submandibular tissue uu area, palpation virtually painless. The mouth right Vartonov her
first vet oxidation expanded, the mucous unchanged. At massage glands secreted N
eznachna number viscous saliva, and the left - saliva is normal. Palpation along the duct
in the middle of its third seal palpable 0.5 cm in diameter. Preliminary diagnosis.
A. *Concrement of the right submandibular salivary gland
B. Abscess of the right jaw-language groove
C. Five arotyt Hertsenberha
D. Chronic odontogenic osteomyelitis of the mandible
E. Lymphadenitis Law n th and dnyzhn oschelepnoyi Land
430. In the surgical department dental clinic patient appealed K. '29 complaining of painful
swelling of the face thing that appeared 1.5-2 months ago and gradually increased.
OBJECTIVE: open mouth facial free asymmetric due to swelling in the right parotidmasticatory area. The skin over the swelling hyperemic, swollen, painful palpation
determined by infiltration of up to 3 cm in the massing of the ductless right parotid
salivary glands secreted saliva transparent. What disease can be suspected in a patient?
A. Acute suppurative parotitis.
B. Cellulitis of the right parotid-masticatory area.
C. Chronic parotitis terstytsialnyy so right.
D. * Chronic suppurative lymphadenitis right parotid-masticatory area.
E. Submaseterialnyy abscess on the left.
431. Patient N., 36 years old complains of pain, swelling of the soft tissues in the
mandibular left, deterioration of general condition. Pain and swelling appeared 4 days
ago. On examination, asymmetrical face due to swelling of the soft tissues of the buccal
and submandibular areas left. Open your mouth is not difficult. 36 tooth is destroyed, the
root level of the gums. In section 35,36,37 teeth - muftopodibnyy infiltration. Percussion
36, painful, 35.37 - sharply painful, moving teeth. With periodontal pockets secreted pus.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute suppurative periostitis mandibular left
B. Cellulitis left buccal area
C. * Acute osteomyelitis of the mandible on the left.
D. Periodontal abscess in the region of 36
E. Abscess Oral and language grooves left
432. In the surgery room dental clinic asked the patient complained of pain in the upper jaw
tooth left. The patient was diagnosed with chronic periodontitis tooth 24. What is
necessary to anesthesia for painless removal 24 tooth?
A. * Infraorbitalnu palate and anesthesia
B. Tubes and eralnu pidnebinu anesthesia.
C. Infra orbital and incisive anesthesia
D. Tuberalnu and incisive anesthetic uu
E. Terminal and tuberalnu anesthetic th
433. The patient complains of pain and swelling in the left submandibular area, pain when
eating. On examination revealed: the mouth opens freely in its entirety, mucous
membrane under `language roller hyperemic left with the excretory ducts of
submandibular salivary gland secreted pus. In Ro-gram in the left submandibular area to
the left turns the shadow oval. Set preliminary diagnosis.
A. Chronic interst and socially and mumps
B. * Calculous sialoadenit
C. Osteoma of Lower oyi jaw
D. Submandibular gland tumor
E. Acute submandibular sialodenit
434. Patient A., 42 year old turned to the surgeon - a dentist with complaints of swelling
and and rradiyuyuch th pain submaxillary salivary gland thing, feeling increasing cancer
that appears during the meal. Objectively: submaxillary salivary gland enlarged, painful
on palpation, excretory duct palpated in a strand. Saliva duct of the gland are released.
For any given disease is characterized by symptoms?
A. Acute sialoadenit.
B. Sclerosing sialoadenit.
C. Salivary gland cyst.
D. Sialoz.
E. * Calculous sialoadenit.
435. Female, 40 years old, appealed with complaints swelling of the left submandibular
area, which appeared 3 days ago, on fever 37.4 C. Objective: to the left submaxillary area
there is soft tissue swelling, skin color is not changed. Palpable observed at high school l
tight elastic consistency, malobolisnyy, mobile, round shape with a smooth surface, size
2,0 x1, 5 cm Open your mouth free, oral mucosa without visible changes, the crown of the
tooth is destroyed in 36 2/3 parts percussion painful. Put diagnosis
A. * Odontogenic acute serous glandular submandibular area
B. Odontogenic abscess of submandibular area
C. Odontogenic abscess of submandibular area
D. Odontogenic chronic lymphadenitis submandibular area
E. Acute serous submandibular salivary sialoadenit zolozy.
436. I. The patient, 43 years old, complains of tumors in the right submandibular region,
which appeared two months ago after the transfer of influenza. In the right submandibular
area palpation turns slightly painful sack like growths tight elastic consistency with
smooth contours, nespayane skin. With duct submandibular salivary glands secreted
saliva transparent. Hyoid ridge is not changed. Disease in whom the clinical picture
described idpovidaye?
A. Chronic sialoadenit
B. Slynokam'yana disease
C. Adenoma of the salivary gland
D. * Chronic lymphadenitis
E. Lipoma
437. Patient X. 42 years complaining about the deterioration of general health, fever,
difficulty swallowing and breathing. The general condition of the patient moderate. The
body temperature of 39 0 C. On examination, a slight asymmetry of the face due to soft
tissue swelling in the left submandibular area. The skin over the Embassy hlistyu normal
color, easily taken into the fold. Palpable swelling determined. Open your mouth
difficulty (contracture II-III). On examination of the mouth - redness, swelling, palatal
arches and tongue, bulging of the left side wall to the midline, and the tongue to the right.
What is the most likely diagnosis you ask?
A. Abscess of jaw-language groove.
B. * Cellulitis pryhlotkovoho space.
C. Cellulitis pterygoid-mandibular space.
D. Cellulitis submandibular space.
E. Cellulitis pozaduschelepnoho space.
438. The patient turned to a dental surgeon with complaints of fever up to 37,6 ° C, the
assumption hlist soft tissue pain in 47 teeth on the lower jaw on the left, which is worse
when touching tooth-antagonist. On examination there is congestion and smoothing
transition sk Ladko alveolar process of vestibular side of the area destroyed 47 tooth.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Acute suppurative odontogenic abscess
B. Acute serous periodontitis
C. Chronic periodontitis in the acute stage
D. Go stretch marks odontogenic osteomyelitis
E. Periodontal abscess
439. Patient '47 prot yahom 2 years on the face in the region of the left mandibular angle
observed etsya periodic appearance of painful swelling and fistula formation. After
discharge from the fistula purulent fluid is pain and swelling disappears, and the skin of
the face is drawn a little scar. OBJECTIVE: A small scar on the skin at the level of the
left mandible and Ku. At the bottom of the mouth dilyanyantsi palpation under the
mucous membrane in the depth determined by thick cord that comes in soft tissues ynah
buccal area of the fistula to the projection 47 Indigenous tooth. Crown 47 destroyed.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Atheroma cheek, that the flesh was rotting
B. Tuberculosis of the mandible.
C. Act and nomikoz left parotid-masticatory area
D. Chronic osteomyelitis in the region of the left mandibular angle.
E. * Odontogenic hranuloma face
440. Sick '45 ranked maxillofacial department with complaints of general weakness, pain,
etc ypuhlist in the left submandibular area, n idvyschennya temperature to 39 0 C.
Repeatedly pain 36 tooth on the lower jaw to the left. The asymmetry of the face due to
swelling in the left submandibular area where palpable dense infiltrate the skin over his
flushed, the fold is going. In 36 deep carious tooth cavity, percussion painful mucosa
around the tooth hyperemic, edematous. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Cellulitis left submandibular area
B. Sharp left submandibular sialoadenit
C. Acute suppurative periostitis mandibular left
D. Acute suppurative submandibular lymphadenitis left
E. Acute osteomyelitis of the mandible on the left
441. Male 54 years later in 5 days after the removal of 27 teeth. Tooth removed under
tuberalnoyu palate and an esteziyeyu. Complains of pain and difficulty opening the
mouth. Emperatura T - 38 ° C, total serious condition, minor facial asymmetry due to
swelling of the temporal area in the lower section. Contracture III degree. From the
mouth - swelling of the mucous membrane on the left in the transitional fold dilyanytsi
molars of the upper jaw. Palpation hump maxilla sharply painful. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. * Cellulitis of left infratemporal area.
B. Cellulitis of submandibular area on the left.
C. Cellulitis left temporal area.
D. Acute purulent abscess maxillary left
E. Cellulitis parotid-masticatory area on the left
442. After removal of 27 teeth in a dental surgeon suspect in perforation of the maxillary
sinus. To clarify the diagnosis the doctor decided to test nosorotovu. What are the steps
you need to do to the patient?
A. Close your fingers and nose exhale air through the mouth, watching the hole 27
tooth.
B. * Close your nose with your fingers and try to exhale air through the nose, and
the follow the hole 27 tooth.
C. Breathe the air through the nose, watching the hole 27 and the tooth.
D. Make inhale through your nose and exhale through the mouth, thus blocking the
nose.
E. Breathe the air through the mouth, or follow up by the hole 27 tooth.
443. 26 patients underwent removal of the tooth. After tuberalnoyu anesthesia patient felt
generally nu weakness, nausea, and later - a sharp itching, and rash. What type of
complications include these symptoms?
A. Anafilakty ical shock
B. Collapse.
C. * Urticaria
D. Angioedema
E. Syncope
444. To the doctor asked the patient complained of persistent aching pain that increases
during nakushuvannya. Bill b was 3 days ago. During the examination of the oral cavity
in the mucosa of the alveolar process within 34 memory bu hyperemia of the gums. Tooth
crown 34 destroyed by 2/3. Percussion him sharply painful. What is the most likely
diagnosis is possible to install?
A. Acute suppurative periodontitis
B. Acute osteomyelitis.
C. * Exacerbation of chronic periodontitis.
D. Acute suppurative pulpitis.
E. Acute abscess.
445. The patient is 22 years old, ska rzhytsya the emergence of her painfully swollen in the
area of the right parotid salivary gland. A week before that, the patient was zsadyna cheek
skin which heal when purulent scabs. Over the past two days, the strengthening of pain
and increased body t to 38.6 C. OBJECTIVE: mild swelling of the right parotid taknyn
area, the skin slightly hard, unaltered in color. Infiltration of 2.5 x3, 5 cm thick, painful
skin over it is limited to mobile. Mouth open in full mucous membrane around the mouth
of the salivary duct is not changed, with lin transparent. Put diagnosis.
A. Abscess bilyavushno chewing areas
B. Tot ostrennya chronic parotitis
C. * Acute lymphadenitis
D. Mr. Ostrom non-epidemic parotitis
E. Parotitis
446. Patient '56 severe general condition. The body temperature of 39.9 C. Objective:
asymmetrical face due to infiltration pidboridkovoho and both submaxillary spaces. It
zatrudnena, vnasli dock displacement of the tongue upwards, swallowing painful.
Pidyazykovi rollers dramatically swollen, hyperemic. Put diagnosis.
A. * Cellulitis floor of the mouth
B. FL ehmona pidboridkovoyi area
C. Abs process maxillo-lingual groove
D. Abscess of the tongue
E. Cellulitis submaxillary area
447. The patient was 33 years old admitted to the maxillofacial poc ing with complaints of
pain and swelling of the right submaxillary area, increased body t 39.5 C. Objective:
asymmetrical face due to swelling of the soft tissues of the right submaxillary area, which
is determined by palpation dense infiltrate , flushed skin over it is not taken into the fold.
In 46 teeth - deep cavities. What is the most likely diagnosis
A. Acute pidnyzhnoschelepovyy sialodenit
B. Acute suppurative periostitis n / ni
C. Acute suppurative pidnyzhnoschelepovyy lymphadenitis
D. * Cellulitis uplift zhnoschelepovoyi plot case
E. Acute osteomyelitis n / ni case
448. Patient '38 available triad xerostomia, kseroftal miya and rheumatoid poliatryt. For
which diseases characterized by these entities symtomy?
A. * Syndrome Sheh Rena
B. Parotitis
C. Fibrozna dysplasia
D. Disease Mikulaicha
E. Benign lesions limfaepitelialne
449. The soldier got injured in OSCo lchaste area pidborid Covo Department N / ni, which
led to the separation of the chin and vyneknennya asphyxia. What is the most likely type
of asphyxia in the victim?
A. Stenotic
B. * Dislocation
C. Valve
D. Aspiration
E. Obstructive
450. The patient was 21 years old, worried headache, dry mouth b, body temperature 38,4
C, increased bilyavushni site. Ill 4-5 days marked increase of these alternate sites.
OBJECTIVE: Facial asymmetry due to a painful inflammatory swelling parotid-
masticatory areas. With the ducts of the salivary glands in the ear almost no saliva
secreted. The pain is worse when you open your mouth, swallowing and talking:
iradiiruye the ears, neck, tongue root. Lobe upraised ears. Postavt is the most likely
diagnosis.
A. Acute serous mumps
B. Disease Mikulich
C. Psevdoparotyt Hertsenberha
D. * Yepidemichnyy mumps
E. Chronic parotitis
451. What is the most appropriate online access for opening phlegmon submandibular
area?
A. Dissection of 5-6 cm oblyamovuyuchy angle of the mandible
B. By intraoral ne transitional crease in equal molar
C. A linear incision of 2 cm. Along the bottom edge n / ni
D. * Autopsy 5-6 cm below the mandible 2 cm.
E. Dissection of 5-6 cm. Crease on the upper cervical
452. When removing the distal root of tooth 47 was left in the hole. Select a tool to
complete remove tion of.
A. Ku is prepared right-hand elevator.
B. Direct elevator.
C. Dzobopodiyuni pinch to remove the roots.
D. * Angled left-hand elevator.
E. Universal pinch-mount.
453. The patient is 48 years of age complains of tumors in the right submandibular region,
which appeared a month ago after undergoing a sore throat. Body temperature 37-37,2 to
C. Patient conducted anti-inflammatory therapy, but the tumor is not reduced. In the right
submandibular area palpation turns slightly painful sack like growths tight elastic
consistency with smooth contours without fused with the skin. With duct submandibular
salivary glands secreted saliva transparent. Which conditions are most likely ve
dpovidaye this clinical picture?
A. Slynokam'yana disease
B. Chronic sialoadenit
C. * Chronic lymphadenitis
D. Adenoma of the salivary gland
E. Atheroma
454. Male. '25 Appealed with complaints of pain, a feeling of heaviness in the upper left
jaw. Previously removed 25 teeth, but no improvement occurred. There was purulent
viddilyayeme the left nasal passage. He was diagnosed with acute odontogenic sinusitis
left. How to conduct a puncture of the maxillary sinus?
A. Because the upper nasal Hod.
B. Through the middle nasal Hod.
C. Because the upper and lower nasal Hod.
D. Because of the lower and middle nasal Hod.
E. * Due to the lower nasal Hod.
455. The patient complains for the formation of the soft tissues of the lower division of the
left cheek, which gradually increases over the last three months. Objectively,
asymmetrical face due to swelling of the soft tissues in the body of the mandible on the
left, the skin over which the color is not changed. On palpation of the lower cheek
marked slabobolisne formation tight elastic consistency AI, round shape with a diameter
of 3 cm, movable. In the mouth - roots destroyed 35 and 36 teeth. What is the diagnosis
you ask?
A. * Chronic Jaw lymphadenitis.
B. Acute serous glandular cheek.
C. Radicular hundred k and mandible.
D. Acute suppurative periostitis of the mandible.
E. Chronic rarefikuyuchyy abscess.
456. Patient, 47 years old, appealed with complaints of swelling of the left parotid area,
poor mouth opening, the fistula. OBJECTIVE: Facial asymmetry due to diffuse
infiltration of the left parotid area that is wooded mountains in the density and fast
surface. Within the defined fistula infiltration of sero-purulent contents of impurities
kryhtopodibnoho pus, the skin around the fistula red-purple. Mouth opening is limited to
2 cm and painless. Assign additional examination to the patient.
A. Termoviziohrafiya.
B. * Microscopy. Skin and allergic reactions
C. Radiography of the mandible.
D. Bacteriological study.
E. Kontrasna radiography
457. The patient, 25 years old, complains of swelling and hnoyetechu in the right
submandibular region. OBJECTIVE: there is a dense woody painless infiltration diameter
of about 2 cm to the right pidnyzhnoschelepoviy area. In the center of the infiltrate soft
tissues is fistula, which stands kryhtopodibnyy manure in small quantities. Open the
mouth and 4.5 cm painless. The mucous membrane of the mouth and teeth intact.
Preliminary diagnosis.
A. Tuberculosis skin.
B. Primary syphilis.
C. * Actinomycosis of the skin.
D. Subcutaneous hranuloma face.
E. Adenoabstses.
458. Patient S., 26 years old, complained of pain in the left lower jaw, painful swallowing,
mouth opening zatrudnene, headache, and weakness. Feeling bad body temperature - 38 0
C. On examination: slight swelling at the left mandibular angle, skin color has not
changed, deep palpation painful opening ro to 1.5 cm and 47 tooth shattered wing-fold
jaw swollen, painful on palpation. Put diagnosis.
A. Cellulitis during masticatory space
B. Bilyahlotochna abscess.
C. Cellulitis podvoynyh area
D. * Cellulitis wing-jaw space
E. Angina.
459. The patient complains of '36 painful swallowing impossible, malaise. Body
temperature - 38.5 C. In the left submandibular area a little swelling, painful on deep
palpation, open mouth and 2 cm, 38 tooth shattered percussion painful. The left lateral
pharyngeal wall swelling and swelling inside flushed. Replace the diagnosis.
A. * Odontogenic bilyahlot ba abscess.
B. Phlegmonous adenitis submandibular area
C. Peer and tozylyarnyy abscess.
D. Angina.
E. Lymphadenitis submandibular area.
460. The patient S., '62, addressed to a dental surgeon with complaints of severe constant
throbbing pain on the left under the tongue that extends to the ear and temple, pain when
eating, zatrudnen open mouth but the overall poor condition. Sick week, when "appeared
sore tooth on the lower jaw to the left. After 2 days the body temperature Temp increased
to 38.9 C in the general condition deteriorated. On "objectively: Crown 37 destroyed by
2/3, the second tooth mobility stupas enya, percussion it painless. Zone B Oral-lingual
groove at level 36, 37 is determined by infiltration, mucous membrane over it hyperemic,
edematous; palpation - fluctuation. Congestion of the mucous membrane extends to the
anterior arch uplifts Binn. Zev is not changed. Formulate clinical diagnosis.
A. * Abscess Oral and lingual groove left
B. Acute odontogenic abscess alveolar process of the mandible on the left
C. Exacerbation of chronic periodontitis 37
D. Cellulitis wing jaw-cellular space left
E. Pere and left tonzylyarnyy abscess
461. A man diagnosed abscess palate. What about SAG bom properly conduct an autopsy
abscess?
A. L & H and ynyy section in parallel Elne seam palate
B. L & H and ynyy section perpendicular to the weld alloy th sky
C. Vidsmoktu tion of pus with a syringe
D. * Triangular section in the region of the hard palate
E. Perform puncture the abscess
462. In the department of oral surgery enrolled patients with phlegmon of the tongue.
Which online access to skryttya phlegmon the tongue?
A. Intraoral incision
B. Komirtsepodibnyy section
C. Pidnyzhnoschelepovyy section
D. * Mid develop different
E. Incision near the angle of the mandible
463. In Male 40 years at 6 months after the removal of 26 was the connection between oral
and maxillary sinuses, the first signs of sinusitis. What surgical treatment should be
conducted?
A. * Haymorotomiya with simultaneous grafting fistula
B. Haymorotomiya on Kolduelu-Luc
C. Closure of the fistula
D. Tamponade fistula yodoformnoyu turundas
E. Osteotomy of the alveolar process
464. The patient turned to a dental surgeon with complaints of fever up to 37,6 ° C, soft
tissue swelling, pain in the tooth on the lower jaw on the left, which increases with
dotorkuvanni tongue, or tooth-antagonist. On examination there is congestion and
smoothing the folds of the alveolar process of the transition from the vestibular side of the
area destroyed 36. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute serous periodontitis
B. Chronic periodontitis in the acute stage
C. * Acute suppurative odontogenic abscess
D. Periodontal abscess
E. Acute odontogenic osteomyelitis
465. On radiographs of the alveolar process of the right maxilla in the region of the root
apex 13 is celebrated enlightenment irregular shape with indistinct edges, reminiscent of
"flames". For what disease is characterized by X-ray picture?
A. Acute serous periodontitis
B. * Chronic granulating periodontitis
C. Acute suppurative periodontitis
D. Chronic periodontitis fibrotic
E. Chronic granulomatous periodontitis
466. A patient with a few days of pain were recorded at 36 tooth. To the doctor did not
apply. Appeared the body temperature is 38.9 oC, weakness, swelling of tissues
submaxillary area and cheeks, skin numbness of the lower lip and chin on the left. What
kind of diseases can think of?
A. Acute suppurative odontogenic abscess
B. Acute suppurative periodontitis
C. Chronic odontogenic osteomyelitis
D. * Acute odontogenic osteomyelitis
E. Acute suppurative lymphadenitis
467. '25 The patient must remove 26. Diagnosis: chrono cal fibrous periodontitis 26.
Which tool should I have to delete?
A. * Circling S-shaped law
B. Forceps S-shaped left
C. Bayonet forceps (bahnetopodibni)
D. Circling direct root
E. Direct elevator
468. Patient '39 three days ago was removed 47 then it deteriorated condition: the patient is
pale, the body temperature is 38,1 ° C, the lower jaw left muftopodibno thick, soft fabric
around her swollen, difficulty opening the mouth. Transitional fold of 48, 47, 46 swollen,
hyperemic mucosa with 47 cells secreted pus, percussion 48, 46, 45 painful. In the area of
the lower lip - paresthesia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Acute osteomyelitis of the mandible body
B. Cellulitis of submandibular triangle
C. Acute abscess alveolar process
D. Acute abscess of the jaw body
E. Acute osteomyelitis of the alveolar process
469. Sick '24 turned complaining of severe pain and swelling in the submandibular triangle,
which is enhanced when receiving spicy food. Visit Sun tanovlenyy diagnosed
exacerbation of chronic calculous sialadenitu concrement localized in the middle of the
salivary duct. What is the most efficient method of treatment in this case?
A. Hysterectomy cancer
B. Bouginage Strait
C. * Autopsy duct and remove the stone
D. Slynohenna diet
E. Physical therapy means
470. A man must be removed before the tooth root 17 prosthesis. Crown 17 tooth broken
below gum level. What tools for entariy need to apply?
A. S-shaped forceps. Direct elevator.
B. Straight forceps with ni and chkamy I ki zbihayutsya.Pryamyy elevator.
C. S-shaped forceps to the right. Direct elevator.
D. * Bayonet forceps. Direct elevator.
E. Straight forceps with ni and chkamy that do not match. Direct elevator.
471. '42 The patient complains of pain in tooth 26, which increase with compression jaws,
fatigue, weakness, fever up to 38.0 C, headache, feeling of pressure in the left half of the
face. The left half of the nose and planted. OBJECTIVE: Facial asymmetry due to
swelling of the soft tissues of the left pidochnoyi site. The mucous membrane of the left
half of the nasal cavity hyperemic. Open your mouth free. The mucous membrane in the
transition area at the crease 26 tooth hyperemic. Coronal destroyed in 26 2/3. Percussion
sharply painful. What naybilish likely diagnosis?
A. Acute suppurative periodont IT 26
B. * Acute odontogenic sinusitis.
C. State of tryy purulent abscess 26.
D. Odontoh MANN abscess pidochnoyi area
E. Odontogenic acute lymphadenitis cheeks
472. The patient complains of '43 mobility 34, 36, 37 teeth, discharge of pus from holes 35
tooth removed. Half a month ago, made an autopsy on a transitional fold and 35 tooth
removed. OBJECTIVE: on the left buccal area - dense soft tissue swelling. lymph nodes
left submandibular area increased, slabobolyuchi. Mucosa alveolar process in the region
of 34, 36, 37 teeth nabryaksha, bluish, color. For transitional fold - this hole with
exploding granulation. Deleted in the hole 35 tooth - purulent granulation. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Chronicle Annual rarefikuyuchyy abscess
B. Chronic osteomyelitis d and fuznyy
C. Aggravation limitation periodontitis
D. * AD onichnyy limitation osteomyelitis
E. Chronic alveolitis
473. The patient complains of '49 th progressing difficulty opening the mouth, painful
swallowing left, a sharp deterioration in general condition, fever to 39.3 C. The
emergence of such a state prior to acute pain in the damaged tooth 38. OBJECTIVE:
symmetrical face, the left submandibular lymph nodes are enlarged, painful on palpation.
Palpation at the left angle of the mandible and the left pozaduschelepniy site causes a
sharp pain. Open your mouth and left lateral movement greatly restricted. There is
congestion and infiltration of the left wing of the jaw-fold. As th most likely diagnosis?
A. * Cellulitis wing-jaw space
B. Cellulitis pryhlotkovoho space
C. F lehmona pozaduschelepnoyi area
D. Flag on the submandibular space
E. Ab stses jaw-language groove
474. Sick '48 was to remove the tooth 35 with exacerbation of chronic periodontitis. Please
provide the best method of peripheral regional anesthesia?
A. Infiltration
B. Pozarotovoyu mandibular
C. Mental
D. * Torusalna
E. Pleksualna
475. The patient complains of '45 left cheek swelling, pain in the left lower jaw, fever to
37.6 C. Objective: asymmetrical face due to swelling of the left mandible and cheeks and
submandibular dilyan k at the left. Open your mouth not at bmezhene, in re derivatives
crease tight painful infiltration within 47, 46, 45 fluctuation. Crown 46 destroyed by 2/3.
Percussion its painful. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Go Osteo stretch marks m iyelit mandible
B. Acute gray znyy periostitis of the mandible
C. * Acute d niynyy periostitis of the mandible
D. Exacerbation of chronic periodontitis
E. Cellulitis submandibular space
476. The dental surgeon put the forceps cheeks on the crown of the tooth 17, which had a
thin walls for closing the forceps appeared fractured crown. Used straight elevator, which
introduced the vestibular side, focusing on tooth 16. At the same time there was a
separation of the upper jaw hill with 17 and 18 teeth. What further tactics doctor?
A. * Vidsharuvaty mucous oxide flap, remove the piece from the 17, 18 teeth and
take in tightly mucosa.
B. Produce tire-kapu on September hnyu jaw assign UHF.
C. To carry out X-rays and EDI, capture 17, 18 teeth with tires.
D. Refer the patient to Naru stationary for further treatment.
E. Remove a piece of 17, 1 8 teeth and wound tampon.
477. Please remove 15 tooth. The crown of the tooth and maintained. What Instrument
should be used?
A. Bayonet forceps.
B. * S-like forceps.
C. Direct forceps.
D. S-shaped forceps left.
E. S-shaped forceps right.
478. Male 40 years had sought with complaints of swelling in the area of the left cheek,
feeling a chill. During examination revealed facial asymmetry due to swelling in the
region of the upper jaw to the left. Hill In the area of the left maxillary determined tight,
painful infiltration. Dense infiltrate of skin, painful the fold is going. mouth barely opens.
radiating pain in the head and eye. mouth in 27 tooth destroyed., for whom the disease is
characterized by this clinic?
A. Cellulitis temporal region.
B. Cellulitis cheek.
C. Reflux îíà Navier kolohlot Covo space.
D. * Cellulitis pidskro Nebo and pterygopalatine fossa.
E. Cellulitis kryloschelepnoho space
479. Sick '47, after unsuccessful treatment with a general practitioner dentist about chronic
granulomatous periodontitis tooth 15, was to remove it. What type of forceps advisable to
remove ati Use of this tooth?
A. S-shaped law
B. Direct,
C. * S-like
D. S-shaped left
E. Mount
480. Patient, '57, asked the doctor to remove 34 teeth with exacerbation of chronic
periodontitis. What is your choice of tools f I remove this tooth?
A. * Beak schyp those with cheeks that do not agree
B. Beak pliers with cheeks converging
C. Dzobopo the like forceps curved on a plane
D. Direct elevator
E. Side elevators
481. The patient, 30 years old, complains of swelling in pidpidboriddi, the constant sharp,
throbbing pain that is localized in the area pidpidboriddya, body temperature 38.2 C. Sick
4 days. OBJECTIVE: Facial asymmetry observed by painful dense infiltrate pidpidb
oridkovoyi section, flushed skin, tight, pleated overlooked tense. Open your mouth
slightly limited. 42 The crown of the tooth is destroyed 2/3 of percussion 42 painful. Put
diagnosis.
A. * Odontogenic fle hmona pidpidb oridkovoyi area
B. Abscess pidpidboridkovoyi area
C. Acute serous lymph denit pidpidboridkovoyi area
D. Chronic lymph denit pidpidboridkovoyi area
E. Hot flexible and ynyy periostitis of the mandible
482. Patient, 42 years old, complains of pain in the left TMJ, which is enhanced by small
movements of the mandible with irradiation of pain in the left temporal area. The pain
was 3 days ago after hypothermia. body temperature is 37.4 C. OBJECTIVE: marked
asymmetry of the face due to swelling of soft tissue in the left peredv shnoyi site. skin of
color is not changed dramatically painful palpation. Mouth opening is limited, there is
pain in the left TMJ, marked displacement of the lower left schele issues when opening
the mouth.
A. * Acute serous th left TMJ arthritis
B. Gost ing suppurative arthritis left TMJ
C. Am develop left TMJ
D. Acute serous limfad enit left peredvushnoyi area
E. Acute serous mumps
483. Patient K., '34 complains mobility 14 16 17, the allocation of manure removed from
the hole 15. Half a month ago, made an autopsy on a transitional fold, deleted 15. Ob-no:
pidochniy in the right area - a small swelling of the soft tissues. Nasal breathing freely.
The mucous membrane of the alveolar ridge in the area of 14,16,17, bluish color,
nabryaksha. For transitional fold - from exploding fistula granulation. With 15 holes of
the removed tooth - purulent granulation. Which conditions are most likely Reply
indicated andgives klynychna picture?
A. Chronic osteomyelitis di fuznyy
B. Zahos trennya limitation periodontium and that
C. * Chronic osteomyelitis night restriction
D. For chronic sinusitis hostrennya
E. Chronic alveolitis
484. Patient '35 at mealtimes was a painful swelling in the right submandibular region.
Radiologically - in the front third of the submandibular duct calculus ovoyidnoyi defined
form size 3x7 mm. What further management and treatment of the patient to the doctor?
A. Hysterectomy pi dnyzhnoschelepnoyi salivary gland
B. * Removal of duct concrement right n idnyzhnoschelepnoyi Saliva gland
C. Massage submandibular gland saliva for the purpose of discharge K onkrementa
through the mouth I duct
D. Massage submandibular salivary gland in conjunction with a course of antiinflammatory therapy
E. After the purchase of inflammation in the gland extract and hold it rpatsiyu
485. Man '59 ska rzhytsya a painful swelling in the right-bilyavushniy area that was 5 days
ago. 37,5-38 body temperature, 0 C; weakness. Faces by asymmetric swelling in the
right di bilyavushniy Lyantse, painful palpation, the skin slightly flushed. From the
original duct cancer slyunnoyi Saliva thick stands of manure in small quantities. What is
the diagnosis?
A. Mumps.
B. Psevdoparotyt Hertsenberha
C. Ical horseradish interstetsialnyy mumps.
D. * Acute suppurative parotitis.
E. A BS process right bilyavushnoyi site.
486. Patient D. 64 years, one month ago moved infarct infarction. In dental office him
have treat pulpit 12. Select to anesthesia.
A. Anesthetic with vasoconstrictor
B. Premedication + anesthetic without vasoconstrictor
C. * Drug training + anesthetics without vasoconstrictor
D. Premedication + anesthetic with vasoconstrictor
E. Drug training + anesthetics with vasoconstrictor
487. A patient diagnosed odontogenic abscess of the right submandibular area. Identify
quick access to drainage infectious and inflammatory foci
A. Autopsy length of 5 cm, which encircles the angle of the jaw.
B. Dissection of the right hypoglossal area.
C. Dissection along the edge of the jaw.
D. * Autopsy in submaxillary area 2 cm. Below the edge of the jaw.
E. Autopsy alveolar.
488. Patient Clinic dental surgery shows the removal of the tooth root 36. OBJECTIVE:
crown 36 tooth missing, medial root vydaleno.Dystalnyy root is deep in the hole. Select a
tool to remove the distal root of tooth 36.
A. Elevator Leklyuza.
B. Corner elevator "over"
C. * Corner Elevator "by itself"
D. Direct elevator
E. Root beak pliers.
489. A man 45 years old, after suffering IPU December, suddenly fell ill 26 tooth.
Destroyed his crown by 1/2. There was swelling of the surrounding soft tissues and tissue
palate. Body of temperature rose to 38 C. In the days following these events grew.
Appeared mobility and hnoyetecha zuboyasne with local pockets 25, 26, and 27 teeth.
Deteriorated general condition. What is the diagnosis was possible in this case?
A. Acute suppurative periodontitis.
B. * Acute osteomyelitis of dontohenyy
C. Chronic peri odontyt exacerbation.
D. Acute abscess.
E. Abscess of palate.
490. Patient Su tanovlenyy diagnosis - bilateral fracture of the mandible in the region of 45
and 35 tooth offset. The patient developed asphyxia. What type of asphyxia is most
likely in this case?
A. * Dislocation asphyxia
B. Stenotic asphyxia
C. Aspiration asphyxia
D. Obstructive asphyxia
E. Valvular asphyxia
491. A man must be removed before the tooth root 17 prosthesis. Crown 17 tooth broken
below gum level. What tools need to be used?
A. * Bayonet forceps.
B. S-shaped forceps.
C. Straight forceps with ni and chkamy that match.
D. S-shaped forceps to the right.
E. Straight forceps with ni and chkamy that do not match.
492. Male 40 years had sought complaining at puhlist in the area of the left cheek, limited
mouth opening, hot flashes, lyhomannku. During examination revealed facial asymmetry
due to swelling in the region of the upper jaw and left. Hill In the area of the left maxillary
determined tight, painful infiltration . dense infiltrate of the skin, painful in the crease is
going. The mouth opening is limited. Radiating pain in the head and eye. In the mouth
27 tooth destroyed by 2/3, Percussion its painful. For what disease characterized ing this
clinic?
A. Cellulitis temporal region.
B. Cellulitis cheek.
C. * Cellulitis pidskro Nebo and pterygopalatine fossa.
D. Reflux îíà Navier kolohlot Covo space.
E. Is not pidemichnyy mumps.
493. A man 20 years in the area of the right upper lip swelling is sharp and dense
infiltration measuring 1.5 x 1.5 cm in the center of the infiltrate is pointed to and necrotic
pKa. After removal of visible necrotic trunk. Fluctuations there. Diagnosis.
A. Erysipelas.
B. * Boil.
C. Actinomycosis.
D. Carbuncle.
E. Atheroma.
494. Patient A., '30 asked the doctor to remove 26 teeth with exacerbation of chronic
periodontitis. Coro NCA 26 tooth destroyed by 1/3. Which curling can be used you to
remove this tooth?
A. * S-shaped spike on the left schichtsi
B. S-like shape with her spike on the right schichtsi
C. Straight Forceps
D. Direct elevator
E. S-shaped form with no spines
495. Patient P., 36, complained of pain in the left lower jaw, painful swallowing, mouth
opening and zatrudnene, headache, and weakness. Feeling bad body temperature - 38 0
C. On examination: slight swelling at the left mandibular angle, skin color has not
changed, deep palpation painful mouth opening and 1.5 cm 47 tooth shattered wing-fold
jaw swollen, painful on palpation. Put diagnosis.
A. * Flag Mona wing-jaw space.
B. Bilyahlot ba abscess.
C. Cellulitis podvoynyh area
D. Cellulitis bubble plot
E. Angina.
496. Patient B., 23 years appealed to the dentist complaining of pronounced limitation of
mouth opening, pain in the throat radiating to the ear. Temperature of 37.9 C.
OBJECTIVE: symmetrical face. On palpation in the region of the angle of the jaw on the
inside marked a sharp pain. The mouth opens at 1 cm in the oral examination after
blockade by Bershe oak revealed edema and hyperemia of the mucous membrane of the
wing-jaw folds palpable - painful infiltration. What is the diagnosis was possible in this
case?
A. Oral language Abstse with groove.
B. * Flag Wing-jaw space.
C. Cellulitis navkolohlotkovoho space.
D. Paratonzylyarnyy abscess
E. Abscess of jaw-language groove
497. Man '53 came in 3 days after removal of tooth 36. Sights On intraoral radiograph of
tooth 36 observed the presence of medial root of tooth 36. I cue toolkit should opt to be
removed medial root of tooth 36?
A. The corner of the elevator itself and prominent beak pliers neshidni without
thorns
B. The corner of the elevator itself and dzo bovydni Eastern forceps without thorns
C. Corner elevator over and prominent beak pliers neshidni without thorns
D. * Corner elevator over and curling without dzobovydni eastern half Shih
E. Corner elevator itself and by itself, beak pliers ovydni eastern thornless
498. '50 The patient was diagnosed with "Slynokam'yana disease localized in the thick
stone submandibular salivary gland." Choose a treatment policy?
A. * Remove tion of submandibular salivary gland
B. Radial T erapiya
C. Sclerotherapy
D. I stone removal with preservation of cancer
E. Medykamen tozne conservative treatment
499. The patient asked the doctor complaining of mobility 35 36 37 teeth, pain in this area
when nakusuvanni, intermittent fever up to 37.5 C, general weakness, ill 2 months.
OBJECTIVE: mobility 35 36 37 teeth of 2 degrees in the left submaxillary area - fistula
with purulent discharge. Which of the disease in this patient?
A. Migratory granuloma
B. Cancer of the mandible
C. Chronic granulating periodontitis night
D. * Chronicle Annual odontogenic osteomyelitis
E. Actinomycosis of the mandible
500. The patient, aged 56, applied to the dental surgeon to remove 27 teeth. What
nebolyuvannya apply?
A. Palatynal Fre, infraorbitalna anesthesia
B. In filratsiyna, incisive anesthesia
C. * Tuberalna and palatynalna anesthesia
D. Mandibular anesthesia
E. Torusalna anesthesia
501. Male 36 years, complains of diffuse sharp pain in the left TMJ radiating to the ear,
headache, worsening of general condition, inability meals and limited mouth opening.
OBJECTIVE: asymmetrical face due to swelling in the region of the left TMJ. The skin
in this area and peremovana g. Pain increases with minimal movement of the mandible,
palpation of the joint causing pain. Mouth opening is limited to 15-20 mm. What is the
biggest sh likely diagnosis in this case?
A. Subluxation of the mandible
B. Acute suppurative parotitis
C. Deforming arthrosis of the left TMJ
D. * Acute left TMJ arthritis
E. Myogenic osteoarthritis
502. Patient N., 30 years old, diagnosed with acute suppurative odontogenic abscess of the
left upper schel epy, the cause of which is 23 tooth. Tooth crown 23 left destroyed by
caries process. 1/3 22 and 24 teeth intact. On enlargement film marked the expansion of
n eriodontalnoyi slit 23 tooth. Which treatment is advisable to in this case?
A. Treatment of the causative tooth periostotom tion medication.
B. * Periostotomiya medication with further im causal treatment of the tooth.
C. Removing the causal tooth physiotherapy
D. Removing the causal tooth medication
E. Removing the causal tooth periostotomiya
503. Patient N., 24 years old, hospitalized in the department of maxillofacial surgery on
traumatic complete dislocation and subluxation of teeth 11, 21, 22 teeth. Clinical
examination and palpation and X-ray examination integrity 11, 21, 22 teeth and holes
stored. 11 tooth completely dislocate with holes, 21, 22 teeth slightly shifted toward
palate. What tactics should choose the treatment of dental surgeon?
A. * 11 Endodontic treatment tooth replantation and fixation of 11, 21, 22 teeth
smooth tire-guard.
B. Removal of 11 teeth and fixing 21, 22 memory biv smooth rail clips
C. 11 tooth replantation and fixing 11, 21, 22 teeth smooth rail clips
D. Replantation, endodontic treatment of tooth 11 and lock 11, 21, 22 teeth smooth
rail clips
E. Re plantation and endodontic treatment of tooth 11.
504. Patient N., 39 years old, hospitalized in the department schele PNA-facial surgery on
Prospect ypuhlosti and arching pain in the left submaxillary region. Swelling appeared
after taking spicy foods. At clinical examination, palpation and X-ray examination
diagnosed calculous submaxillary gland sialodenit stone localization in the anterior duct.
What must choose the right tactics dental surgeon after removing the stone from the duct?
A. Stitched wound along the section
B. Wound along the section and take in its zdrenuvaty
C. * The wound duct and not ushyvaty not wire enuvaty
D. Provo eat plastic ductless
E. Excretory duct and stitched wound
505. Patient '42 on the cheek mucosa available single tumor pale pink round shape on the
stem diameter at 1.0 cm, not painful at palpation, soft-elastic consistency. The mucous
membrane around the base of the legs is not changed. What method of verification of the
diagnosis should be applied to the patient?
A. Intsiziyna biopsy
B. Puncture biopsy
C. Trepanobiopsiya
D. * Ekstsiziyna biopsy
E. Aspiration biopsy
506. The patient complains of '46 periodic appearance of swelling in the right submaxillary
area during meals, dry mouth. During bimanual palpation middle section to the right
department pidyazykovoyi found moderately painful tight formation. From the mouth of
the excretory ducts of submaxillary salivary gland secreted muco-purulent exudate.
Yakerenthenolohichne study region eobhidno assign patient?
A. * Rent Genographic floor of the mouth
B. Panoramic radiography of the jaws
C. Radiography noyi lower jaw in lateral projection
D. Plain X-ray of the bones of the facial skull ohrafiya
E. Aim X-ray graphy alveolar ridge
507. Patient K., 36, celebrates stiffness in the TMJ morning that zminshuyetsya twilight,
both TMJ pain, swelling of the tissues around m'kyh other joints, the presence of
subcutaneous nodes near the elbows. What are the likely diagnosis?
A. * Rheumatoid arthritis joint.
B. Acute arthritis joint.
C. Infectious arthritis joint.
D. Chronic TMJ arthritis.
E. Osteoarthritis, Arthritis TMJ.
508. Patient B., 65 years SCHLH addressed to the department with complaints of swelling
in the region of the angle of the mandible, pain and difficulty in swallowing, mouth
opening limitation. From history we know that a week ago 48 tooth pain. Clinically: n
abryak and redness of the soft tissues around the snout k-jaw gently fold half of the sky
and bulging of the lateral wall of the pharynx, uvula declined the post. Add a class
inichnyy diagnosis?
A. Flag Mona wing-jaw space.
B. Abscess of the tongue.
C. * Cellulitis pharyngial space.
D. Cellulitis pozaschelepnoyi site.
E. Flag Mona submandibular area.
509. Patient K., 45 years revealed asymmetry face delimited by a dense infiltrate in the
right buccal area, the skin on infiltration cyanotic, elegant, located in the center of
infiltration fistula. In the mouth, the crown of the tooth is destroyed in 46 2/3, on a
transitional fold palpable cord that connects the tooth with a fistula. Set the diagnosis?
A. Chronic osteomyelitis of the mandible th
B. Boil the buccal area
C. * Migratory granuloma face
D. Oh dontohennyy lymphadenitis
E. Actinomycosis
510. Patient G., 19 years old can not open his mouth. Bird's face, open bite, distal.
Palpation of the heads of TMJ mobility is not detected. Open your mouth to 0.3 cm Set
preliminary diagnosis?
A. * Bilateral ankylosis.
B. Deforming arthrosis-arthritis.
C. Unilateral arthrosis-arthritis.
D. Contracture of the jaw.
E. Acute arthritis.
511. Patient B, 40 years old, sitting in a forced position with head tilted back, mouth half
open. Face zemlyanysto gray. In submandibular, pidpidboridnoyi areas and on the front
of the neck tight painful infiltration, marked crepitus, skin over infiltr atom covered purple
spots. Previous diagnosis Install?
A. Abscess of the tongue.
B. Cellulitis pidnyzhn oschelepnoyi site.
C. * Cellulitis Zhansulya-Ludwig.
D. FL ehmona pidpidboridnoyi site.
E. Cellulitis neck.
512. Patient B, 40 years old, sitting in a forced position with head tilted back, mouth half
open. Face zemlyanysto gray. In submandibular, pidpidboridnoyi areas and on the front
of the neck tight painful infiltration, marked crepitus, skin infiltrate of purple covered with
spots. During the casting head pain aggravated jugular hollow, there is frequent coughing,
chest pain, exacerbated during the tapping heels. Set preliminary diagnosis?
A. Abs process of the tongue, mediastinitis.
B. Cellulitis neck.
C. * Phlegmon and Zhansulya-Ludwig, mediastinit
D. Cellulitis Zhansulya-Ludwig.
E. Cellulitis neck mediastinit
513. Patient D., 24 years old the first time revealed the diagnosis: Slynokam'yana disease
localized in the duct stone submandibular salivary gland. Choose the most reasonable
treatment strategy?
A. * Remove the stone.
B. Removal of salivary glands.
C. Operation marsupelizatsiya.
D. Litotpsiya.
E. Mekdykamentozne treatment
514. Patient B. '60 turned to the doctor complaining of difficulties and painful mouth
opening, a significant limitation of speech and eating. In compiling the history was
reported that sick for about a year, the condition slowly gets worse, medical help is not
sought patient was treated independently, suffer from chronic inflammation of the upper
respiratory tract and chronic suppurative otitis media. On examination, marked limitation
of mouth opening of 1 cm, a significant reduction of the articular head excursions of the
mandible on the left. TMJ X-rays observed significant joint space narrowing, bone
shadow layers between the articular surfaces of the left. Install a definitive diagnosis?
A. Osteoarthritis, arthritis left TMJ
B. * TMJ Ankylosis left
C. Dysfunction of the left TMJ
D. Pathological fracture of the articular processes of the lower jaw on the left
E. Dislocation of the Lower Jaw
515. The patient complains of '50 pain in the a / ni case, increased body temperature 3 8.5
C, deterioration of general condition. Sick for 3 days. Ob-no: asymmetrical face due to
swelling of the soft tissues of the right cheek, palpation painful, flushed skin. 16 The
crown of the tooth is destroyed completely, percussion positive. Hyperemia and edema of
the soft tissue of alveolar process in the region of 15, 16 and 17 teeth on the vestibular
side. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Acute odontogenic abscess September hnoyi jaw in the area of tooth 16
B. Aggravation x 16 ronichnoho periodontitis tooth
C. Acute odontogenic osteomyelitis of the upper jaw.
D. Acute sinusitis odont ohennyy right-handed.
E. Chronic odontogenic osteomyelitis, and upper jaw.
516. A patient 42 years old, when examining Set ovleno was diagnosed with acute purulent
abscess lower jaw 35 teeth. Which method of anesthesia most rational when you remove
the 35 tooth abscess and opening nadkistnoho?
A. * Torusalna anesthesia
B. Anesthesia for Bershe
C. Pleksualnaya anesthesia
D. Infiltration anesthesia
E. General anesthesia
517. An examination of the patient P. '31 The presence of perforating the bottom of the
pulp chamber of the tooth 36, with a small watering m izhkorenevoyi partitions. Which of
surgical techniques can be ikuvannya l ykorystaty to keep 36 and use as a prop prosthetic
appliances?
A. * Co ronaro radicular separation
B. Amputation root
C. Ge misektsiya Alaska
D. Tooth replantation
E. Plombuva ing perforation opened
518. In patients 52 years diahnostsirovana submandibular abscess area on the right. Indicate
the most appropriate operative to stupas for autopsy phlegmon given location?
A. A linear incision length of 2 cm, n at the lower edge of the mandible.
B. Intraoral incision in the crease preho dnoy level molars
C. * Lin iynyy cut length of 5 - 6 cm, departing from the edge of the lower jaw
down to 2 cm.
D. Cut a length of 5-6 cm, okaymlyayu Officer angle of the mandible
E. Cut a length of 5-6 cm from the top of the neck fold
519. The patient, 32 years old, diagnosed with arthritis ronichnyy's left temporomandibular
joint. What are the symptoms most hara kternym for this disease?
A. * Crunch by movement of the mandible.
B. Pain of varying intensity alone.
C. Pain at enhancing etsya movements of the mandible.
D. Pain that irrad iyuye in the ear, temple, neck.
E. Off ushene position of the mandible.
520. Patient M. '42 complained of pain right half of the head, limit jaw movements, clicks,
and periodichn zhuva flax and spasm muscles. OBJECTIVE: face is symmetric, open and
restricted ing mouth. On palpation in the right temporomandibular joint mu marked
crackling and crunching during movement and Mr. zhno her jaw. On examination, empty
and mouth region and found defective dentition case II class at Kennedy. What dia gnosis
Wie put the patient?
A. * B olov dysfunction and right with kronevo-mandibular joint.
B. Acute arthritis
C. And osteoarthritis and sclerotic right ronevo SC-mandibular joint
D. Contracture of the right temporomandibular with uhlobu
E. Osyfikuyuchyy myositis
521. The patient is taken to the sanitary inspection clinics schele PNA-facial surgery on
odontohennoy putrid - necrotic phlegmon floor of the mouth with the spread of
inflammation to the area of the neck. General condition of the patient is difficult. Forced
position (not lying). D yhannya difficult. Emozhlyvist H swallowing. Language slurred.
Marked tissue edema nyzhnoh department at face floor of the mouth. Shki rni covering
marble color, palpation - kripitatsiya. What type of asphalt ICSI threatening the life of the
patient?
A. Aspiratsionnaja
B. * Stenotic
C. Dislocation
D. Valve
E. Obstructive
522.
The patient, a 22 year old complains of limited, al is painless mouth opening, which
appeared in the fall of childhood rocked ing, difficulty in eating, a significant asymmetry
of the face. On examination: a symmetrical face due to the flattening of the left-half of
fabric left cheeks sunken, Human oruch rounded. Chin is shifted to the right. Identify
subtle movements of the lower jaw in th dkryvanni mouth. Bite deep. Per edni teeth
inclined vestibular spray. Determine the preliminary diagnosis.
A. * TMJ Ankylosis right
B. TMJ Ankylosis left
C. Osteoarthritis turns onevo - mandibular joint
D. Habitual dislocation of left turns onevo-mandibular joint
E. Syndrome I - II gill arches
523.
When removing a tooth root 25 over Rennes aggravation of chronic periodontitis in a
patient S., 24 years old, the roots hit the maxillary sinus. What should be the doctor's
tactics in this case?
A. Cor innya not remove, take in the hole
B. * The roots must be removed during the operation haymorotomiya in hospital
C. The roots must be removed through a small hole
D. Perform plugging holes
E. The roots must be removed during the operation ha ymorotomiya in outpatient
524.
Patient K. '51, Was admitted with complaints of swelling in the region of the left
branch oyi Lower jaw, the presence of a fistula in the submandibular area, limited mouth
opening. 3 months ago atypical of tooth 38 was removed. Islyaoperatsiynyy And in a
period was in difficult ground suppurating wounds. Treatment was carried out regularly,
medication started after 10-12 days. Fistula of the submandibular area was opened a
month ago with his exploding granulation, mouth opening of 1.5 cm on the X-ray thinning of bone in the area of the hole and the angle of the mandible. Identify small
fragments of bone festonchastymy edges. Blood test - Left shift, ESR - 20 mm / h. Put
diagnosis.
A. Odontogenic abscess pi dschelepnoyi and masseternoy sites
B. Chronic suppurative lymphadenitis
C. Actinomycosis of submandibular region
D. * Osteoma Elit Odontogenic chronic mandibular
E. Acute odontohen ing osteomyelitis of the mandible.
525.
Patient G., 16, appealed to the dentist complaining of the presence of small painful
swelling of parotid - chewing areas, dry mouth ty, high body temperature. The disease
started 3 days ago. Objects vno: at lychchya is almost symmetric. Determined in parotid
swelling - chewing areas, protruding ear lobes. Palpable pain is defined by three chky: in
front of tragus ear to the top of the mastoid process, the e tenderloin district yzhnoyi jaw.
Lyzova C shell holes around the excretory ducts of the salivary shad edematous,
hyperemic. With transparent duct saliva secreted in Nez nachniy number. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Exacerbation of chronic interstitial tion of mumps
B. Psevdoparot s t Hertsenberha
C. Acute neepidemich us and mumps
D. * Acute mumps
E. Sialoz
526.
A patient 34 years old, 24 tooth - agile, the mucous membrane in the region of 23,
24, 25, hyperemic, edematous, blows by both the vestibule and from the palatal side.
These teeth are mobile, their percussion sharply painful. W ith radiographic study: in
section 24 is defined by thinning bone tissue howl without clear boundaries of equal size
0,3 x0, 4 cm. What is your diagnosis?
A. Acute periodontitis flexible iynyy 24
B. Acute suppurative maxillary periosteum um left 24
C. Exacerbation of chronic granulating periodontitis 24
D. Acute odontogenic sinusitis ing manure left
E. * Acute odontogenic maxillary oc teomiyelit left
527.
Patient B., 49, turned to a dental surgeon for the purpose of rehabilitation. Okazano
P removal of 16 teeth. From history - tooth previously treated, destroyed over 4 years.
OBJECTIVE: crown 16 destroyed more than 2/3, mucosa without lesions. What A
necessary tool dnyy to delete this tooth?
A. * B ahnetopodibn and curling root
B. S - like (right) forceps
C. Direct elevator
D. S - like forceps, with cheeks converging
E. B AGN etopodibn and curling crowns
528.
On examination, the patient is dense, slightly painful infiltration in the region of the
angle of the jaw. Cyanotic skin in the crease does not take me. Mouth opening 1.5-2cm.
Pear-shaped in section fistula with purulent discharge holes. During bimanual palpation
of the second mandibular mobility of fragments in the region of the angle of the mandible
and. In the history of trauma mandible about 1 month ago. Put diagnosis.
A. * Post-traumatic osteomyelitis
B. Actinomycosis
C. D ematoma bubble plot that flesh was rotting
D. Fracture of lower back lepy
E. Fracture of mandible complicated seminated th th nahno HS oyusya hematoma
529.
Man '60 turned complaining of dull aching to oil, crunch to the right TMJ, hearing
loss, feeling of fullness in the right ear. In the mouth a partial secondary aedentia. X-rays
TMJ: articular gap and close to a straight line, sometimes dramatically narrowed the depth
of the articular pits ing reduced articular tubercle ground leveled, the joint surfaces inkonh
urentni. Put diagnosis.
A. Chronic TMJ arthritis
B. * TMJ Osteoarthritis
C. Acute TMJ arthritis
D. TMJ Pain
E. Became more relevant heals chronic TMJ arthritis
530.
Patient B., 43 years complaining about the presence of purulent fistulas m allocation
in the mouth and submandibular area on the right. OBJECTIVE: Facial asymmetry due to
inflammatory swelling of the lower parts of the cheeks and submandibular area on the
right. In the submandibular area and the second in the mucosa of the alveolar process of
the mandible on the right fistula with purulent discharge. On radiographs: between 45.46
fracture line in the second as defined shadows sequestration diff first magnitude. Put
diagnosis.
A. Ab stses right submandibular area
B. Acute posttravmaty cal osteomyelitis of the mandible
C. * Chronic posttravmaty cal osteomyelitis of the mandible
D. Suppuration bone wound
E. Chronic odontogenic osteomyelitis of the mandible
531.
F inca 51, addressed to the dentist complaining of mild pain in the left ear tragus
area that guilt arise after hypothermia or long conversations crunch in TMJ. Ill for about 3
years. OBJECTIVE: face not symmetric. Skin the color does not change. Open your
mouth is not limited. H and left TMJ radiograph defined areas zvuzhe ing joint space,
pockets of osteoporosis and destruction of the articular head and suhl required holes. Put
diagnosis.
A. Acute post-traumatic arthritis left C NSCHS
B. * Chronic arthritis left TMJ
C. TMJ Osteoarthritis left
D. Trigeminal neuralgia left
E. TMJ Pain
532.
Livestock V., 30, 4 days after treatment with animal skin pointed chin appearance of
skin damaged during shaving, violet-red and blisters filled with th dark liquid. During
our two days tupnyh grew swelling of surrounding tissue, blister covered with dark scab
th. The patient's condition deteriorated, the temperature 38,8-39,2 S. Add a possible
diagnosis.
A. * C and emerald forest ovyrazkovyy face
B. Fours in nkul face
C. Carbuncle face
D. Gangrenous form n and ki face
E. Hranulomatoz Wegener
533.
The patient was scheduled surgery - a radical grove morotomiya on Kalduel - Luc
under local anesthesia. What method of anesthesia is most effective in such operations
uu:
A. * Tuberalna, infraorbital on, palatynalna Application
B. Pleksualna, palatynalna, intsiz yvna
C. And nfraorbitaln but ints and J ext but palatynalna
D. Tuberalna, infraorbitalna, and incidents of BH and
E. Tuberalna and palatynalna, Application
534.
Patient, 68 years old, is in surgically th department 3 days after her operation
produced about stomach ulcers, ska rzhytsya to swelling and pain in the parotid second
section on the right. OBJECTIVE: flushed skin over the swelling in color, not going to
fold. Palpation in the region of the parotid gland sharply painful form of duct lyayetsya
manure. Enter the diagnosis
A. Parotitis
B. * Acute necrotizing and suppurative parotitis
C. C ialodohit
D. Exacerbation of chronic parenchymatous parotitis th
E. Tion exacerbate interstitial mumps
535.
The patient complains of '30 Rizk constant pain pulsating nature of ground in the
area of the left maxilla, irradiyuyuchyy in the ear, temple, increasing the horizontal
position and closing the teeth, insomnia, malaise generally lne. Ill three days, all
phenomena are increasing. Kleene chno: 26 deep tooth cavity, percussion painful. The
tooth is mobile. Mucosa at lap around the tooth edematous, hyperemic, transitional fold
of vestibular side is flat, palpa Thorn - infiltrate with indistinct contours, p izko painful.
Put diagnosis
A. * Acute purulent abscess alveolar process of the jaw hnoyi September 26 in the
area of the tooth.
B. Acute osteomyelitis of the alveolar process of the jaw hnoyi September 26 in
the area of the tooth.
C. Acute serous abscess alveolar process of the jaw hnoyi September 26 in the area
of the tooth.
D. Acute periodontitis 26 of the UCA.
E. Acute pulpitis 26 tooth.
536.
Patient K., 37 years old, complained of pain in the tooth s and the presence of
swelling in the region of the left mandible. 3 days ago was a white b 46, and then began
to ache all the teeth on the lower jaw to the left. The body temperature of 38.8 C.
OBJECTIVE: crown destroyed 46 1/2, its painful percussion, percussion 43, 44, 45, 47
just as painful. Transition folds on both sides of the alveolar process and the NF and
ltrovana, painful. In the X-ray determined expand yrennya periodontal gap in the area of
root apexes 46. As th most likely diagnosis?
A. * Acute odontohen ing osteomyelitis of the mandible.
B. Nahno her HS Asya cyst in the region of tooth 46
C. Acute odontogenic abscess alveoli reflex process of the mandible.
D. Exacerbations of chronic periodontitis tooth 46
E. Osteosarcoma of the mandible.
537.
The patient is 35 years old, hospitalized in the jaw - Do ts f ve department with
complaints of mobility 38 37 36 teeth in the presence of fistulous Hod wells in the area
of the removed tooth 35. Ill for more than three months. When you enter a fluted th
probe through the fistula, and palpable nude, rough and areas of bone and easily displaced
when pressed. On radiographs of the mandible is determined by the source of destruction
of bone, which is located in the center area of compacted bone 0,5 x0, 3 cm. Diagnosis
Place
A. Acute osteomyelitis
B. Became more relevant heals chronic osteomyelitis
C. * Chronic osteomyelitis
D. Chronic perios Titus
E. Actinomycosis
538.
The patient complains of '60 raising the temperature to 37,8 -38,2 ° C, general
weakness. A week ago, in the right parotid - Chewing second area was increasing
swelling. Ill the first time. OBJECTIVE: asymmetrical face due to swelling in the right
second parotid - chewing area. The skin over the swelling flushed, palp TION painful.
When massaging pref ushnoyi ductless glands and thick saliva secreted in small quantities
with the bag of manure. Put diagnosis.
A. Parotitis
B. Mumps Hertsenberha
C. Right parotid abscess - chewed tion region
D. * Acute suppurative parotitis
E. Chronic parotitis
539.
Patient, 18 years old, complained of pain and swelling of the soft tissues in the
mandible right, raising the temperature to 39.3 C fever. Percussion 46 45 47 teeth
sharply painful tooth crown 46 destroyed mucosa defense column was alveolar process in
the region of these teeth edematous, hyperemic on both sides, sharply painful on
palpation. Symptom Vincent positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute suppurative periostitis
B. Heal chronic periodontitis became more relevant
C. * D Island odontogenic osteomyelitis
D. Acute suppurative periodont IT
E. Acute suppurative lymphadenitis
540.
The patient complains of '42 a sharp pain in the right TMJ tural. The movements of
the mandible are limited. Three days ago, the patient received May VMU (during the fall
chin hit a solid object). But Lens: Face is symmetric, bite ortohnat ychnyy, tearing his
mouth is limited to 2 cm on the contours of the bone structures tomograms suh frontal
surface is smooth, smooth. Availability incidence ing which the patient can assume?
A. * Acute post-traumatic arthritis, TMJ th
B. Rheumatoid Arthritis TMJ
C. Muscle dysfunction syndrome
D. Deforming ar troz TMJ
E. TMJ Ankylosis
541.
Female 54 years old, appealed to the dentist complaining of mild pain in the region
of the left ear tragus arising after hypothermia or long conversations crunch in TMJ. Ill
for about 10 months. OBJECTIVE: face symmetrical. Skin the color does not change.
Open your mouth is not limited. On the left TMJ radiograph defined areas of joint space
narrowing, pockets of osteoporosis and destruction of the articular head and suhl required
holes. Put diagnosis.
A. * Chronic arthritis left TMJ
B. Acute post-traumatic arthritis left TMJ
C. TMJ Osteoarthritis left
D. Not vralhiya left trigeminal nerve
E. TMJ Pain
542.
Patients showed removal of 46 teeth. The crown of the tooth is preserved, open
mouth free. Select the method of anesthesia and tools:
A. Torusalna anesthesia; straight and corner elevator; beak pliers with cheeks
converging
B. Mandibular anesthesia, straight and corner elevator
C. * Torusalna anesthesia beak pliers with spines on the cheeks
D. Anesthesia for Bershe-oak, corner and direct elevator
E. Jaw and mandibular anesthesia; elevator straight, bent on a plane beak pliers
543.
Patient aged 25 years indicated removal of tooth 26. Diagnosed chronic fibrotic
periodontitis tooth 26. Coronal saved. Which tool should be used to be to remove this
tooth:
A. Forceps S-shaped law
B. * Circling S-shaped left
C. Bayonet forceps (bahnetopodibni)
D. Circling direct root
E. Direct elevator
544.
The patient after removal of tooth 37 appeared alveolar hemorrhage. Identify the
most effective method in this case, hemostasis:
A. Tamponade cell yodoformnym swab
B. Recycling floor and walls of the cell potassium permanganate crystals
C. * Local hemostatic tamponade cell preparations
D. Overall haemostatic therapy
E. Treatment of the cells with a solution of hydrogen peroxide.
545.
A patient aged 44 years at the time of tooth extraction took place cast his crown part.
During further manipulation using the elevator, remove any tooth forceps failed.
Manipulations should make the surgeon to successfully remove residual tooth:
A. * Disconnect the roots using a drill and fisurnoho boron
B. Apply corner elevator
C. H apravyty patient to hospital
D. Complete removal of pi During their visits to other
E. Apply elevator Leklyuza
546.
A patient diagnosed with pericoronitis of tooth 38, a slight limitation of mouth
opening. Select the appropriate tools for anesthesia and tooth extraction:
A. Torusalna aneste Zia, straight and corner elevator
B. * Torusalna anesthesia, direct elevator, forceps, curved in plane schyni
C. Mandibular anesthesia, direct elevator
D. Anesthesia for Bershe oak m, direct elevator, horizontal or forceps
E. Mandibular anesthesia, dzobop odibni forceps with spikes on the cheeks
547.
A woman aged '49 addressed the dental surgeon to remove 17 teeth diagnosed
exacerbation of chronic granulomatous periodontitis tooth 17. Select a tool to remove:
A. * S-like curling right
B. Bahnetopodibni root forceps
C. Bahnetopodibni crowns forceps
D. S-shaped left forceps
E. Direct forceps.
548.
Patient age '45 asked the doctor to remove 13 teeth. Select a tool to remove the
tooth:
A. S-shaped forceps
B. S-shaped curling right
C. Bahnetopodibni forceps
D. Direct elevator
E. * Direct forceps.
549.
The dental surgeon put the forceps cheeks on the crown of the tooth 17, which had a
thin walls for closing the forceps appeared fractured crown. Used direct elevator with
vestibular introduced by focusing on tooth 16. At the same time there was a separation of
tubercle of the upper jaw with 17 and 18 teeth. What further tactics doctor:
A. * Vidsharuvaty mucous oxide flap, remove the piece from the 17, 18 teeth and
take in the mucosa
B. Produce tire-mouthguard in the upper jaw, assign UHF
C. To carry out X-rays and electroodontodiagnosis fix teeth with 17.18 tires
D. Process mouth antiseptics and wait for wound healing
E. Remove a piece of 17, 18 teeth and wound tampon?
550.
Patients aged 43 years shows a surgery to remove the tooth June 1. Select tricks
tooth extraction forceps, which you want to apply for the removal of 16 teeth:
A. Overlay, promotion, closing, lyuksatsiya, rotation, traction
B. Overlay, promotion, zmy Cannes vyhytuvannya outward and inward traction
C. Overlay, closing, vyhy ing inward and outward traction
D. Overlay, promotion, you hytuvannya inside and nazov No traction
E. * Overlay, promotion, zmy
Cannes vyhytuvannya inward and outward
traction.
551.
Patients aged 33 years applied to the dental clinic for the purpose of rehabilitation.
According to the testimony he needed to remove 37 of the UB. Choose a tooth extraction
forceps techniques that should be used when removing the 37 tooth:
A. Overlay, promotion, you hytuvannya inside and nazov No traction
B. Overlay, promotion, zmy Cannes vyhytuvannya outward and inward traction
C. Overlay, closing, vyhy ing inward and outward traction
D. Overlay, promotion, zmy Cannes vyhytuvannya inward and outward traction
E. * Overlay, promotion, zmy Cannes lyuksatsiya, rotation, traction.
552.
Dental surgeon at remove 38 teeth tion is used Leklyuza elevator. Once cheek
elevator was put between 37 and 38 teeth and carried attempt to dislocate 38 tooth, there
malocclusion. What is the most likely problem may occur:
A. Fracture of alveolar fishery Country of mandible
B. * Fracture of mandible in di Lyantse angle
C. Part 37 tooth dislocation
D. Anterior dislocation of the lower back lepy
E. Posterior dislocation of the mandible?
553.
Patients showed removal of 46 teeth. The crown of the tooth is preserved, open
mouth free. Select the method of anesthesia and tools:
A. Mandibular and cheek anes tag; elevator straight, bend those on the plane
beak pliers
B. Mandibular anesthesia, direct myy and corner elevator, beak pliers with cheeks
converging
C. Torusalna anesthesia; straight and corner elevator; beak pliers with cheeks
converging
D. Anesthesia for Bershe-oak, corner and direct elevator
E. * Torusalna anesthesia beak pliers with spines on the cheeks.
554.
Patient aged 25 years to 26 to remove the tooth. Which tool should I have to
remove:
A. Forceps S-shaped law
B. * Circling S-shaped left
C. Bayonet forceps (bahnetopod ibni)
D. Circling direct root
E. Direct elevator?
555.
The patient was to receive 2 days after removal of tooth 37. In the area of tooth 37
cells observed inflammation (pain, soft tissue swelling, redness of the mucous membrane,
increasing pain, and regional lymph nodes). On radiographs in the lateral projection
celebrated piece of the root of the tooth in a cell that was removed. Did shown in term
surgery to remove the fragment root:
A. Unnecessary surgical intervention
supply as a fragment correlation
of
illegally vyshtovhnetsya granulation tissue
B. After 7-10 days for vidsutnos those of inflammation
C. * Chip which must be removed ha faster
D. After 2 months, when there Ulam Country considerably atrophied bone
E. Conduct atypical root removal under the drug together?
556.
After 3 h after removal of tooth 45, the patient began bleeding from the cell. During
the review revealed a gap in the area of gum tissue cells 45 tooth that goes to the mucous
membrane of the cheeks. What is the doctor's tactics in this case:
A. Tamponade cell catgut
B. * Iodoform tamponade Cell tion turundas
C. Zdavlyuvalna dressing and parenteral teralne input aminokapro new acid
D. Suturing and cell sores cheeks
E. Tamponade cells and wound swab with aminocaproic acid?
557.
Patients showed removal of 46 teeth. The crown of the tooth is preserved, open
mouth free. Select the best method of conductor zne bolennya and tools:
A. * Mandibular and cheek anes tag; Direct elevator, dzo-bopodibni forceps with
spines on the cheeks
B. Anesthesia for Bershe-oak, corner and straight elevator
C. Mandibular anesthesia, direct myy corner and elevator; beak pliers with
cheeks converging
D. Torusalna anesthesia beak like forceps
E. Torusalna anesthesia; straight and corner elevator: dzobopo the like forceps
with cheeks converging.
558.
A woman aged '56 addressed the dental surgeon to remove the 17 tooth. Select the
necessary tools to remove the 17 tooth:
A. * S-shaped curling right
B. Bahnetopodibni root forceps
C. Straight Forceps
D. S-shaped forceps
E. Bug netopodibni crowns forceps.
559.
Boy aged 6 years dental therapist sent to surgical removal of 51 hectares for the
tooth on its physiological motion. Which tools should be used in this case:
A. Forceps, curved in the plane
B. * Direct elevator
C. Corner elevator
D. Straight Forceps
E. Beak pliers to cheek we not agree?
560.
Male aged '28 addressed the dental surgeon to remove the 38 tooth. What should I
use forceps to remove the 38 tooth:
A. Beak with cheeks that do not agree
B. * Beak. bent on plane schyni
C. Beak with cheeks that converge
D. Rostral to the types of
E. Mount the root?
561.
Patient age '35 Mr. uvsya Appeals for the removal of tooth 14 with exacerbation of
chronic periodical don t ytu ineffective after a therapeutic treatment. Select the necessary
tools to remove the 14 tooth:
A. S-shaped curling right
B. Ledum etopodibni crowns forceps
C. * S-like forceps
D. Straight Forceps
E. Bagh district etopodibni root forceps.
562.
Patient age '48 complains of persistent pain in the tooth 28. Sick 3 days. 28 The
crown of the tooth is destroyed. Select forceps, with which you can remove the tooth root
28:
A. Forceps for eight upper teeth
B. Beak pliers
C. Straight Forceps
D. S-shaped forceps
E. * Bayonet forceps
563.
Patients aged 42 years appealed to the clinic dental surgery to remove the tooth in
the upper jaw. Patients showed 25 tooth removal under local anesthesia. Where should
the doctor be in relation to the patient during removal of the tooth:
A. Ahead and to the left of the patient
B. Ahead of the patient
C. * Ahead and to the right of the patient
D. Behind and to the right of the patient
E. Behind and to the left of th patient
564.
When removing the 17 tooth distal buccal root chipped and left in the cell. Select a
tool to remove abandoned root:
A. Corner elevators
B. Direct forceps, direct elevator
C. S-shaped forceps, straight element vator
D. Beak pliers, angled elevator
E. * Opodibni Bayonet forceps, direct elevator
565.
Patients showed removal of 46 teeth. Where should a doctor be present during the
removal of the tooth:
A. Ahead and to the left of the patient
B. And left behind by the patient
C. * The case and back on the patient
D. Ahead and to the right of the patient
E. Behind and in the center of the patient
566.
The man turned to the clinic on the removal of 17 teeth. When tooth extraction is
one of the roots hit the maxillary sinus. What is the doctor's tactics in this situation:
A. Do not start any action
B. * X-ray screening and referral HVO roho to hospital
C. Removing the root through perforated ratsiynyy hole formed
D. The operation haymorotomiyi
E. Houches yvannya cells removed first tooth
567.
A man must remove the root of the tooth 17 to the prosthesis. Crown 17 tooth
broken below the gumline. What tools are not necessary to use:
A. S-shaped curling right side. Direct elevator
B. * S-like forceps. Direct ele vator
C. Straight forceps with cheeks that converge. Direct elevator
D. Bayonet forceps. Direct ele vator
E. Straight forceps with cheeks as not converge. Direct elevator
568.
Please remove tooth 15. The crown of the tooth is preserved. Which tool should be
used:
A. Bayonet forceps
B. Straight Forceps
C. * S-shaped forceps
D. S-shaped forceps left
E. S-shaped forceps rights and
569.
Patient aged 30 turned to the clinic on the removal of tooth 16. While there was a
gap tooth extraction alveolar ridge mucosa, accompanied by significant bleeding. Please
indicate the best way to stop bleeding in this case:
A. Hemostatic tamponade lips Coy
B. Longing gauze tamponade there ponom
C. * Suturing wounds
D. Tamponade gauze pad with aminocaproic acid
E. Parenteral administration step vospynnyh means.
570.
A man aged 25 turned to the clinic on the removal of 18 tooth crown which is
destroyed by 1/2. Tooth has repeatedly medi Ali. When removing a tooth held the lead
for the hill maxilla. What actions are right here:
A. * Wreck removal and ushyvan of wounds
B. Trying to put a piece into place
C. Setting fragment on staree place and fix it
D. Wreck removal
E. Wreck removal and tampons ing wounds?
571.
PATIENTS '47 14 tooth must be removed, coronal tooth preserved. Select tool,
identify the stages of removal:
A. * S-shaped forceps, blending, promotion, closing, suite-tion in the buccal,
palatal for ing, traction
B. Direct forceps, blending of vote, closing, rotation, traction
C. Direct elevator, blending closure, lyuksatsiya in pidnebin tion and buccal
sides, traction
D. S-shaped forceps, blending closure, lyuksatsiya in pidnebin tion and buccal
sides, traction
E. S-shaped forceps with spikes on
kladannya, promotion, zmykan
tion,
lyuksatsiya in cheek and under nebinnyy sides traction.
572.
To the doctor asked the patient is complaining of intermittent pain in the mandibular
angle and difficulty opening the mouth. Showing 38 tooth removal. Select forceps,
which you want to spend 38 tooth removal:
A. Bayonet
B. Beak with cheeks that do not agree
C. Beak with cheeks that converge
D. Beak spiked at cheeks
E. * Bent on the plane.
573.
Patient aged 70 complains of tooth mobility 21. Tooth previously treated. 21 tooth
rolling (II degree), bare root of 1/2. Which tool should be used to remove the 21 tooth:
A. Bahnetopodibni forceps
B. S-shaped forceps
C. * Direct forceps
D. Direct elevator
E. Beak pliers?
574.
A man must remove the root of the tooth 17 to the prosthesis. Crown 17 tooth
broken below the gumline. What tools must be applied:
A. S-shaped forceps
B. * Bayonet forceps
C. Straight forceps with cheeks that converge
D. S-shaped curling right side
E. Straight forceps with cheeks that do not agree?
575.
On examination, her husband was diagnosed with acute odontogenic sinusitis. The
source of the disease - 15 tooth that needs to be removed. The crown of the tooth is
preserved. What tools necessary application wool:
A. Bayonet forceps
B. Straight forceps with cheeks that do not agree
C. * S-like forceps
D. Straight forceps with cheeks that converge
E. S-shaped forceps right?
576.
To the doctor asked the man for the purpose of dental health. After inspecting and
carrying out clinical examination revealed that 31 tooth must be removed, the root of
which is exposed at 1/2, the mobility of III degree. Select forceps, which you want to
spend 31 tooth removal:
A. Beak with cheeks that converge
B. * Beak with cheeks that not converge
C. Beak with spikes on the cheeks
D. Bent on a plane
E. Bayonet.
577.
When removing the 47 tooth fracture occurred distal tooth root at 1/2 its length.
Which tool should choose to remove the root:
A. * Corner elevator "over"
B. Beak pliers to cheek We who do not agree
C. Beak with cheek soup ptsi we are converging.
D. Corner Elevator "by itself"
E. Direct elevator
578.
Patient age in '47 after ineffective treatment in a dental therapist chronic
granulomatous periodontitis tooth 15 was to remove it. What type of forceps used
advisable to remove this tooth:
A. Direct
B. S-shaped law
C. * S-like
D. S-shaped left
E. Bayonet
579.
Patient age in '38 after ineffective treatment of tooth 26 on chronic granulomatous
periodontitis turned to the doctor for removal of the tooth. In which way the first time and
which movements should vyvyhuvaty tooth:
A. Rotational motion
B. In the buccal side mayatnykopodib them and rotary movements
C. In the buccal side mayatnykopodib their movements
D. In the palatal side of the pendulum to the like and rotary movements
E. * In the palate and side mayatnykopo the like movements
580.
Male aged '48 zvernuvsyado dental surgeon about the removal of the tooth root 37.
What tools necessary ing used:
A. Bahnetopodibni forceps
B. * Beak pliers to cheek We and spikes that do not converge
C. S-shaped forceps
D. Beak pliers to cheek We converging
E. Dzobopo the like pliers, bent on a plane
581.
A patient aged 20 years had sought to dental surgeon to remove the roots of the tooth
47. Concomitant diseases - hemophilia. In some circumstances it is necessary to remove
47 teeth:
A. In a hospital with doope-ratsiynoyu training
B. In languages in hospital
C. Conditions do not matter
D. In the outpatient setting
E. * In terms of hematological hundred
tsionaru with preoperative under
preparation and postoperative observation
582.
Patient aged 30 turned the doctor to remove 26 teeth with exacerbation of chronic
periodontitis. 26 The crown of the tooth is destroyed. Select forceps to remove this tooth:
A. S-shaped without thorns
B. * S-like spike on the right schichtsi
C. Straight Forceps
D. Bahnetopodibni forceps
E. S-shaped spike on the left si chtsi
583.
A patient of 26 years had sought medical attention for removal of tooth 24 with
exacerbation of chronic periodontitis. 24 The crown of the tooth is not destroyed. Select
a tool to remove the tooth:
A. Straight Forceps
B. * S-like spike on the left schichtsi
C. S-shaped with a spike on the right schichtsi
D. S-shaped without thorns
E. Direct elevator.
584.
54. Patients aged '57 asked the doctor to remove 34 teeth with exacerbation of
chronic periodontitis. Select the arias for the removal of the tooth:
A. * Beak schyp with these cheeks we not agree
B. Beak pliers to cheek We converging
C. Beak pliers, bent on a plane
D. Direct elevator
E. Lateral Elevators
585.
Patient age in '37 was removed medial root of the tooth 36 and the distal root of the
tooth broke in the middle third. What tools should be used to remove root:
A. Direct elevator
B. The elevator at an angle to the left
C. * The elevator at an angle to the right
D. Beak pliers that do not agree
E. Beak forceps, vaults dyatsya?
586.
Patients showed removal of 38 teeth. The doctor is in front and to the left of the
patient puts on the crown 38 tooth forceps, curved in the plane, and after lyuksatsiynyh
movements holds traction teeth. At the same time there was a complication - the gap
Band mucosa forms of language side. What is the cause of the symptoms:
A. We had to hold the mouth tional movements
B. Improper lyuksatsiyni movements
C. Improper stages overlap and fixation forceps
D. No stage fixation forceps
E. * Improper blending stages, promotion and financing ksatsiyi forceps?
587.
Patients showed removal of the tooth root 36. OBJECTIVE: crown 36 tooth
missing, medial root is removed. The distal root located deep within the cell. Select a
tool to remove the distal root of tooth 36:
A. Beak root forceps
B. Elevator Leklyuza
C. Corner elevator "over"
D. Direct elevator
E. * Corner Elevator "by themselves."
588.
Patient age '45 asked to remove 13 teeth. What tools should be used to remove the
13 tooth:
A. * Straight Forceps
B. B. S-shaped curling right
C. Bahnetopodibni forceps
D. Direct elevator
E. S-shaped forceps?
589.
A woman aged '49 appealed to hiru rha dentist to remove the tooth 17. Diagnosed
exacerbation of chronic granuloma-toznoho periodontitis tooth 17. Select a tool to
remove the 17 tooth:
A. * S-shaped curling right
B. Bahnetopodibni root forceps
C. Bahnetopodibni crowns forceps
D. S-shaped left forceps
E. Direct forceps.
590.
A woman aged '56 addressed the dental surgeon to remove the 17 tooth. Select
forceps to remove the 17 tooth:
A. 5-like
B. * Bahnetopodibni root
C. Direct
D. S-shaped law
E. Bahnetopodibni crown.
591.
A boy aged 6 years aimed dental therapist to remove the tooth 51 on physiological
motion. Which tool should be used in this case:
A. * Straight Forceps
B. Direct elevator
C. Corner elevator
D. Forceps, curved in the plane
E. Beak pliers with cheeks that do not agree?
592.
Patients aged 49 years pleksualnoyu anesthesia with vasoconstrictor Articaine
removed tooth on the upper jaw. After the opera ted cell does not overflow step fade clot.
How can I prevent the occurrence of alveolitis in patients:
A. Rinse the cell solution mikrotsydu
B. Fill the cell hemostatic sponge
C. * Loosely fill the cell yodoformnym swab
D. Wash with a solution of 0.1% cell Mr. chlorhexidine
E. Fill the cell antibiotic powder?
593.
Patients aged 24 years I will set las dentist with complaints gamut of pain in the
tooth 26. After physical examination diagnosed exacerbation of chronic periodontitis
tooth 26. When you delete a hosted coronal tooth fracture. During the subsequent
manipulation using bahnetopodibnyh forceps to remove the tooth root failed.
Manipulation should be a surgeon to remove the tooth root:
A. Apply elevator Leklyuza
B. Refer the patient to a stationary Naru
C. * Disconnect the roots by means of a drill and hoyu fisurnoho boron
D. I Finished removing the tooth on foot visiting
E. Apply corner elevator
594. Male aged '28 Mr. Appeals uvsya to a dental surgeon to remove the 38 tooth. What
forceps should you take for tooth extraction:
A. * Beak pliers, bent on a plane
B. Beak with cheek schyp these we not agree
C. Beak with cheek soup ptsi we converging
D. Beak pliers with spikes
E. Bayonet forceps root
595. Patient age '48 complains of persistent pain in the tooth 28. Sick 3 days. Crown 28
tooth destroyed. What tools should be used to remove the tooth root 28:
A. Straight Forceps
B. Beak pliers
C. * Bayonet forceps
D. S-shaped forceps
E. Forceps for eight upper teeth?
596. A man must remove the root of the tooth 17 to the prosthesis. Crown 17 tooth broken
below the gumline. What tools must be applied:
A. S-shaped forceps, straight ele vator
B. * Bayonet forceps, straight ele vator
C. Straight forceps with cheeks that converge, direct elevator
D. S-shaped curling right side, direct elevator
E. Straight forceps with cheeks that do not converge, direct eleva tor?
597. When removing the 17 tooth distal buccal root chipped and left in the cell. Select a
tool to remove abandoned root:
A. Beak pliers, angled elevator
B. Direct forceps, direct elevator
C. S-shaped forceps, straight ele vator
D. * Bahnetopodibni forceps, direct elevator
E. Corner elevators.
598. Patients showed removal of 36 teeth. Where should be the doctor:
A. Behind and in the center of the patient
B. And left behind by the patient
C. Front and left side of the patient
D. * Front and right side of the patient
E. Case and slightly back from the PA to patients?
599.
Patient, 56 years appealed with complaints of general weakness, fever up to 37.5 37.80 C, swelling, severe pain in the region of the mandible during cancer. Pain increases
with meals. Put diagnosis
A. Disease Mikulich.
B. Huzhera Syndrome - Sjogren.
C. * Slynokam'yana disease.
D. Chronic sialoadenit.
E. There is no correct answer.
600.
The patient is first admitted with a painless increase in both parotid, and
submandibular salivary glands. The exterior of the patient recalls a picture of mumps.
What will be discovered disease?
A. * Disease Mikulich.
B. Hereford syndrome.
C. Mehastenoz.
D. Correct answer, b.
E. There is no correct answer.
601.
Patient T. observed dry eyes, mouth, nose, breach secretion function of glands and
digestive system. Patients concerned about cutting the feeling of sand in the eyes,
diagnosed with Sjogren's syndrome-Huzhera. Treatment methods:
A. Salivation.
B. Stimulation of secretion of salivary glands.
C. Restorative therapy.
D. Treatment medications, vitamins
E. * All answers are correct.
602.
Patient T, 35 appealed to the doctor complaining of constant dryness in the mouth
and conjunctiva. On examination spostekrihayemo swelling in the parotid region, the
mucous membrane of the mouth is dry. From history we know that the patient T. 3 years
suffering from arthritis. What is the diagnosis was possible:
A. Hereford syndrome.
B. * Huzhera syndrome, Sjogren-Houvera.
C. AOP syndrome.
D. Disease Mikulich.
E. Slynokam'yana disease
603.
Patient A., 50 years appealed to the doctor complaining of pain in swallowing,
shortness meal on a background of increased pain, dry mouth. On examination, the
mucous membrane is swollen, hyperemic. In the area under the mandibular infiltration
palkuyetsya round. Bimanual found tight painful cord. Put diagnosis.
A. Slynokam'yana disease.
B. Sjogren's disease. Disease Mikulich.
C. * Inflammation of the mandible during cancer.
D. Tumors of salivary glands (submandibular).
604. Patient '55 go to the doctor complaining of a sharp pain when swallowing, dry mouth,
headaches, worse during meals. OBJECTIVE: noticeable asymmetry during mandibular
areas and the bottom half of the mouth. The mucous membrane of floor of the mouth
swollen, hyperemic, the sublingual papilla is visible gunk that comes out of the duct
cancer. For what disease is characterized by the clinical picture?
A. Slynokam'yana disease.
B. Sialozy allergic origin.
C. * Acute purulent inflammation during mandibular salivary glands.
D. Sialozy neurogenic origin.
E. Inflammation of the excretory ducts of the salivary glands.
605.
C. The patient contacted the clinic with complaints of pain in the sublingual area,
shooting, especially when eating, or when the patient sees food irradiation there is pain in
the tongue. Put diagnosis.
A. * Calculous sialoadenit.
B. Non-calculous sialoadenit.
C. Actinomycosis salivary gland.
D. Trauma salivary gland.
E. Tuberculosis of the salivary gland.
606. Patient M. appealed to the clinic with complaints of painless swelling and an increase
in both parotid glands, later increased submandibular salivary gland. Narrowed eye slits.
The general condition of the patient was not affected:
A. * Disease Mikulich.
B. Calculous sialoadenit.
C. Mumps.
D. Lymphogranulomatosis.
E. Allergic sialoz.
607. B. The patient appealed to the clinic complaining of a sharp dry mouth, inability to
speak and eat without frequent wetting of the mouth, particularly difficult to eat. From
history we know that the patient took penicillin for a long time.
A. * Allergic sialoz.
B. Acute parotitis.
C. Disease Mikulich.
D. Sialodohit.
E. Toxic sialoadenit.
608. The patient GA suspected presence of stones in the Strait of excretory salivary gland
under the mandible. What is the most appropriate method of examination?
A. * Radiography.
B. Palpation.
C. Taking a biopsy.
D. Histological studies.
E. Ultrasound.
609.
Patient K., 46 years old 2 years ill, complaining of sharp dry mouth, xerostomia
occurs. On examination there face 6 swelling parotid areas, dry lips are crusty and
condensed epithelium. What is the diagnosis?
A. Hereford syndrome.
B. Neurogenic sialoz.
C. * Sialoz allergic origin.
D. Disease Mikulich.
E. There is no correct answer.
610.
Patient N.. Appealed with complaints of increasing the parotid, submandibular and
then the salivary glands, eyes narrowed slits. There stomatitis and conjunctivitis.
Diagnosed disease Mikulich. Describe the method of treatment?
A. * The use of radiotherapy.
B. Ingestion iodide solution.
C. Surgical treatment.
D. Hormones.
E. Sensitizing therapy.
611. Patient B. '28 contacted the clinic for colicky pain and swelling with meals that are
quick, 20-30 minutes. Pass. What stage slynokam'yanoyi disease occurs with these
symptoms?
A. Incubation period.
B. * The initial stage.
C. Exacerbation of chronic occlusion.
D. Later stage.
E. There is no correct answer.
612. Patient L., 54 year old complained to swelling of the face in the area of the parotid
salivary glands. OBJECTIVE: swelling of the skin color changes. On palpation parotid
gland dense, hilly. Is marked narrowing of the optic fissure in the outer third by increasing
the lacrimal glands. The patient suffers from limfomatoz. Put diahnoz6
A. Hereford syndrome.
B. Sjogren's syndrome-Huzhera.
C. AOP syndrome.
D. * Disease Mikulich.
E. Unilateral syndrome Freo.
613.
Patient 44 years old diagnosed with Sjogren's syndrome-Huzhera. The disease is
associated with hormonal disorders and beriberi (vitamin A and B). What are the most
typical symptoms characteristic of the disease:
A. Colicky pain and swelling in the area of cortex.
B. The mouth of the Strait of salivary gland enlarged, hyperemic.
C. Palkuyetsya infiltrate in CO - inflammation.
D. Developed suppurative process - an abscess or phlegmon.
E. * Dryness in the mouth when talking, with waves and sharp, photophobia,
feeling the sand in the eyes, crying without tears.
614. Sick '10 came to the surgical department with complaints of swelling in the region of
the parotid gland, increased t. OBJECTIVE: enlarged parotid glands, painful on palpation.
Painful mouth opening. Positive symptom Hetchona. Put diagnosis
A. Necrotic suppurative parotitis.
B. * Mumps.
C. Lymphogenous mumps.
D. Sialoadenit.
E. Chronic sialoadenit.
615. For what disease is characterized sialohrama: single cavity round shape (diameter 1-2
mm) on the background of unmodified duct and gland parenchyma?
A. * Parenchymatous parotitis in the initial stage.
B. Parenchymatous parotitis in a later stage.
C. Parenchymatous parotitis in the symptomatic stage.
D. Lymphogenous mumps.
E. Mumps.
616. Patient '49 complains of dry mouth, increased t, swelling in the region of the parotid
gland, a small contracture N / ni. While massaging the parotid gland secreted drop of pus.
Put diagnosis
A. * Necrotic suppurative parotitis.
B. Mumps.
C. Lymphogenous mumps.
D. Contact sialoadenit.
E. Calculous sialoadenit.
617. The patient was 49 years old, entered the hospital dental department with complaints
of increasing body t to 38.5 0C, painless increase in parotid salivary glands. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Sialoadenit.
B. Sialoz.
C. Sialodohit.
D. * Hereford syndrome.
E. Disease Mikulich.
618. Patient '25 X-ray revealed a stone in the duct under the mandible gland. What should
be done by palpation of the stone in the duct?
A. * Behind ahead.
B. Upward.
C. Zperedu back.
D. From top to bottom.
E. Any way.
619. Sick '43, addressed the dentist about a gradual increase in both parotid and then - in
mandibular salivary glands. OBJECTIVE: visible deformity of face, skin color is not
changed, determined by palpation, hard, lumpy, swollen and painful glands. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Hereford syndrome.
B. Eliot syndrome.
C. * Disease Mikulich.
D. Sjogren's disease.
E. Sialoadenit.
620. Patient '56 appealed to the doctor complaining of a painless increase in parotid and
mandibular salivary glands under the discomfort of fullness in the glands, general obesity.
Indicate the most likely diagnosis:
A. Terezynskyy syndrome.
B. Kvatiorkor.
C. Tsyroznyy Alcohol Syndrome.
D. * AOP syndrome.
E. Syndrome SSS.
621.
The patient complains of a painful swelling in the sky that appeared 3 days ago
several times after treatment of tooth 17. OBJECTIVE: the hard palate in a hemispherical
projection 17 tooth infiltration, painful, mucous membrane over it flushed bright, elegant.
Crown 17 destroyed on the radiograph: signs of granulomatous periodontitis tooth 17.
Your tactics.
A. Remove 17 tooth hole sew
B. Amputation root
C. Section of mucous in the sky
D. * Remove 17 tooth abscess reveal
E. Puncture infiltration, removal of tooth 17
622. The patient asked the doctor complaining of a swelling in the region of the left cheek,
the body temperature of 38.50 C. OBJECTIVE: painful percussion 26 tooth Transitional
th convolution smoothed, when pressing on the tooth stands manure. What can be
diagnosed in this patient?
A. Acute suppurative periodontitis
B. * Acute suppurative periostitis
C. Go stretch marks odontogenic osteomyelitis
D. Cellulitis buccal area
E. Cellulitis pterygopalatine fossa
623. A patient diagnosed with acute purulent abscess. What is the mechanism of spreading
manure peryapikalnoho campfire under the periosteum periostitis in?
A.
Lymphogenous
B.
Hematogenically
C.
By contact
D.
All answers are correct
E.
* On the channel's osteon
624. The patient complains of pain in the tooth and left upper jaw, fever up to 37,8 ° C.
Sick 3 days .. OBJECTIVE: face asymmetry due to swelling of the left cheek. 25 The
crown of the tooth destroyed by 1/2, percussion sharply painful, mobility and degree.
Hyperemia and edema of the mucosa in the area of the teeth 24,25,26 vestibular side.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Exacerbation of chronic periodontitis tooth 25
B. Odontogenic cyst of maxilla
C. Odontogenic sinusitis
D. * Acute odontogenic abscess maxillary
E. Acute odontogenic osteomyelitis of the upper jaw
625. The patient complains of swelling in the sky, pain in upper jaw tooth left. Swelling
noticed from that day. Diagnosed Abstses palate. How do you spend the disclosure
abscess in this case?
A. * Vikonchatym cut
B. Linear incision in sahitali
C. Linear incision in transverzali
D. Puncture the abscess
E. Puncture
626. Boy '10 shows removal of tooth 55 with acute odontogenic periostitis. From history
we know that the child was suffering from hemophilia. What action is a dental surgeon?
A. Introduction dom'yazevo solution vikasola
B. Tooth in a clinic
C. * Tooth in hospital
D. Introduction 0.1% district aminocaproic acid
E. Consultation haematologist
627.
The patient complains of pain and swelling in the right mandible. OBJECTIVE:
asymmetry of face, crown 47 tooth destroyed by 2/3, percussion painful. In front of the
crease in the area of projection 47 tooth bulging, painful palpation. What is your
diagnosis?
A. Exacerbation of chronic periodontitis tooth 47
B. Abscess of the right buccal area
C. Acute serous glandular right buccal area
D. * Acute suppurative periostitis of the mandible
E. Acute suppurative osteomyelitis
628. The patient complaints of pain in the area 41ta 42 teeth, the presence of edema. The
examination revealed periosteal abscess in the region of the central and lateral incisors
right on radiographs at the tops of the teeth 41,42 - kistohranulomy. What is the
preliminary diagnosis?
A. Granulomatous periodontitis teeth 41,42
B. * Acute odontogenic abscess of mandibular teeth 41,42
C. Acute osteomyelitis of the mandible
D. Exacerbation of chronic odontogenic osteomyelitis
E. Exacerbation of chronic granulomatous periodontitis teeth 41,42
629.
The patient complains of a painful swelling in the sky, that appeared 3 days ago
several times after treatment of tooth 17. OBJECTIVE: the hard palate in a hemispherical
projection 17 tooth infiltration, painful, mucous membrane over it hiperimovana bright,
elegant. Crown 17 destroyed on the radiograph: Signs granulomatosis tion periodontitis
tooth 17. What do you tactic.
A. Remove 17 tooth hole sew
B. Amputation root
C. Section of mucous in the sky
D. Puncture infiltration, removal of tooth 17
E. * Remove 17 tooth abscess reveal
630. The patient was diagnosed pidokisnyy abscess on the hard palate. What method will
you disclose it?
A. * Excision of a small area of soft tissue triangular shaped protrusion at the site of
the largest
B. Linear cut perpendicular to the median palatine suture
C. Cut crosswise
D. Puncture of the abscess and fluid suction
E. Linear incision parallel to the alveolar crest
631.
In patients with chronic apical periodontitis granulating 47. The tooth has a
functional and aesthetic value. In the face of the skin in the area of the projection of the
root apex 47 - fistula with purulent discharge. What is the treatment in this patient?
A. Tooth
B. Conservative treatment of teeth
C. Tooth and fistulas excision with subsequent suturing wounds on her face
D. * Tooth, excision of the scar on the skin after scarring fistulas course
E. Excision of the fistula with subsequent suturing wounds on her face
632. Having oral examination, the doctor diagnosed acute suppurative periodontitis. What
is the most characteristic symptom of this disease? The presence of a deep cavity
A. Gain pain in the tooth under chemical and thermal stimuli
B. Pathological tooth mobility
C. * Dramatically painful percussion of the affected tooth
D. Painful percussion along spaced teeth
E. Gain pain in the tooth under physical stimuli
633.
After examination of the mouth and dental X-ray examination diagnosed:
exacerbation of chronic periodontitis 36. Which symptom is not detected in this disease?
A. Painful tooth percussion
B. * Symptom Vincent
C. Congestion and swelling of the gums
D. The feeling of "tooth that swirl IS"
E. Regional lymphadenitis
634. The doctor put diagnosed odontogenic granuloma migrans skin. As a result there is a
pathological process which the disease?
A. * Chronic apical periodontitis granulating
B. Chronic hyperplastic odontogenic periostitis
C. Chronic odontogenic osteomyelitis
D. Chronic periodontitis
E. Chronic apical periodontitis fibrous
635.
In patients with chronic granulomatous periodontitis. On radiographs distal root
sealed to the top, medial channel impassable, distorted in the top area of focus thinning of
bone tissue spherical shape with clear contours size 0,5 x 0,5 cm What tactics surgeon's
choice of treatment?
A. Remove tooth
B. Conduct coronaro-root separation
C. Perform root apex resection
D. Replantation
E. * Hold the tooth hemisection
636.
During treatment there was a perforation of the bifurcation. On radiographs
mizhkoreneva granuloma. Root canals sealed to the top. What method of surgical
treatment should be used?
A. Hemisection
B. Root amputation
C. * Koronaroradykulyarnu separation
D. Resection of the root apex
E. Removal of tooth
637.
Patients underwent one-stage surgery replantation of tooth 12. What type of fusion
and tooth alveoli yavlyaetsya optimal for such surgery?
A. Periodontal-fibrotic
B. * Periodontal
C. Hondralnyy
D. Osteoid
E. There is no right answer
638. The man turned to the dentist. Ob-no: 15-tooth on aproksymalno chewing surfaces of
large cavities. Probing, percussion and response to thermal stimuli painless. On
radiographs - pereapikalno been the source of destruction of bone round shape with sharp
edges in diameter. What is the diagnosis?
A. * Chronic granulomatous periodontitis
B. Chronic granulating periodontitis.
C. Chronic fibrous periodontitis.
D. Chronic gangrenous pulp.
E. Chronic deep cavities.
639. To the doctor asked the patient with periodontitis lower molar tooth. Established that
inflammation has spread to the lymph nodes. What are lymph nodes were first involved in
the inflammatory process?
A. Facial
B. Front neck
C. * Submandibular
D. Pidboridni
E. Lateral neck
640.
Teenager complains of intense, throbbing pain in the tooth that is enhanced by
nakushuvanni and dotorkuvanni tongue. OBJECTIVE: 26 teeth - filling made of
composite materials. Vertical and horizontal percussion painful tooth, tooth moving
slightly in the vestibular-oral direction. The mucous membrane of the gums in the area of
lesions hyperemic, edematous, sharply painful on palpation. Radiographic changes were
detected. What is the diagnosis?
A. Acute suppurative pulpitis
B. Acute serous periodontitis
C. Acute serous pulpitis
D. Exacerbation of chronic periodontitis
E. * Acute suppurative periodontitis
641.
The man turned with complaints of persistent pain in the region of tooth 36.
Previously, once a tooth pain. On examination of the oral cavity of the tooth crown 36
missing, percussion roots painful. On radiographs in the area of root apexes 36 dilution
zone with indistinct contours. What is the diagnosis?
A. Chronic granulomatous periodontitis
B. Acute periodontitis
C. Chronic periodontitis fibrotic
D. * Chronic granulating periodontitis
E. Mumps
642.
A woman complains of severe pain in tooth 38. The pain is constant, spontaneous
intensity increases with each passing hour, marked sense of "vyrosshoho tooth." When
viewed in 38 deep carious tooth cavity, percussion sharply painful. What is the diagnosis?
A. * Acute periodontitis
B. Acute pulpitis
C. Deep caries
D. Chronic pulpitis
E. Trigeminal neuralgia
643. The student appealed to the dentist. OBJECTIVE: 22 teeth on aproksymalno - medial
surface of deep cavities. On radiographs in the region of the root apex - cell destruction of
bone size 0,3 x0, 3 cm What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chronic granulating periodontitis
B. Chronic periodontitis fibrotic
C. Radicular cyst
D. Chronic pulpitis
E. * Chronic granulomatous periodontitis
644. Patient complains of intense tearing, throbbing pain in the 26. 26 Percussion sharply
painful tooth moving, mucous membrane around 26 hyperemic, swollen, painful
palpation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute suppurative pulpitis
B. Exacerbation of chronic periodontitis
C. Acute diffuse pulpit
D. * Acute suppurative periodontitis
E. Acute serous pulpitis
645.
The patient complains of constant aching tooth 26, aggravated by nakusuvanni.
OBJECTIVE: on the chewing surface carious cavity 26 which communicates with the
cavity of the tooth. Transitional fold painful at palpation, percussion 26 sharply painful.
After sensing the channel was pus. What method is necessary to study for diagnosis?
A. Electroodontodiagnosis
B. Termoproba
C. * X-ray study
D. Bacteriological study
E. Deep probing
646. The patient complains of discomfort, heaviness, fullness, sometimes dull pain in the
region of tooth 36. Tooth with seal, changed in color, percussion sensitive. Mucosa in the
region. projection is the root fistula. What is the diagnosis?
A. Chronic granulomatous periodontitis
B. * Chronic granulating periodontitis tooth 36
C. Acute suppurative periodontitis
D. Chronic fibrous pulp
E. Chronic periodontitis fibrotic
647.
The patient was diagnosed with chronic granulating periodontitis. What are the
clinical signs characteristic of the disease?
A. * Discomfort, feeling of heaviness, fullness, sometimes dull pain, percussion
slightly sensual, fistula is periodically opened
B. Pain from thermal and mechanical stimuli that disappear immediately after
removal of the stimulus
C. Severe tearing, throbbing pain, feeling "grown tooth" collateral edema
D. Asymptomatic, the tooth can be changed in color
E. The constant growing pains, worse at nakusuvanni, the mucous membrane of the
site may be edematous, hyperemic. Percussion strongly positive
648.
The patient complains of a cavity in the presence of 26 teeth, tooth color changed,
deep carious cavity coupled to the cavity of the tooth. Sounding percussion painless. EDI
100 mA. On radiographs - periodontal expansion gap. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chronic granulating periodontitis tooth 36
B. Chronic granulomatous periodontitis
C. Acute suppurative periodontitis
D. Chronic fibrous pulp
E. * Chronic periodontitis fibrotic
649.
The patient complains of a painful swelling in the sky that appeared 3 days ago
several times after treatment of tooth 17. OBJECTIVE: the hard palate in a hemispherical
projection 17 tooth infiltration, painful, mucous membrane over it flushed bright, elegant.
Crown 17 destroyed on the radiograph: signs of granulomatous periodontitis tooth 17.
What do you tactic?
A. Remove 17 tooth hole sew
B. Amputation root
C. Section of mucous in the sky
D. * Remove 17 tooth abscess reveal
E. Puncture infiltration, removal of tooth 17
650.
The patient complains of discomfort in 36 teeth in the upper jaw to the left.
Periodically, when nakusuvanni on tooth occurs spontaneously and aching gums called
fistula, and then the pain subsides. OBJECTIVE: crown 36 change in color, tooth sealed.
Vertical percussion painless. Mucosa in section 36 of the rumen fistula. What is the most
likely previous diagnosis?
A. X ronichnyy fibrotic periodontitis
B. * Chronic granulating periodontitis night
C. Chronic granulomatous periodontitis th
D. Chronicle Annual gangrenous periodontitis
E. Zahos trennya chronic periodontitis
651.
The patient asked the dentist about the long-term fistula in the lower left cheek.
OBJECTIVE: fistulas progress on the skin up to 0.3 cm in diameter with sluggish
granulations and minor bleeding, purulent exudate. When sensing probe penetrates the
soft tissue towards the body of the mandible. Palpation deep in the left cheek determined
cord. On radiographs - 35 tooth has signs of chronic periodontitis. What is the final
diagnosis in this patient?
A. * Odontogenic facial granuloma pidshkiryana
B. Chronic odontogenic osteomyelitis of the mandible
C. Tuberculosis of the mandible
D. Actinomycosis of the mandible
E. Atheroma of the left cheek
652. To the dentist asked the patient complained for the formation in the area of the right
cheek. OBJECTIVE: on the right cheek, small, clearly limited by the formation of tight
elastic consistency, painful on palpation, the skin over it hyperemic, the center is defined
symptom fluctuations. In thicker cheek palpable cord from the formation to the root apex
of tooth 15 was destroyed. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Dermoid cyst
B. Suppuration atheroma
C. Boil
D. * Suppuration migrating granuloma
E. Actinomycosis of the mandible
653.
The patient complains of a painful swelling in the sky, that appeared 3 days ago
several times after treatment of tooth 17. OBJECTIVE: the hard palate in a hemispherical
projection 17 tooth infiltration, painful, mucous membrane over it hiperimovana bright,
elegant. Crown 17 destroyed on the radiograph: Signs granulomatosis tion periodontitis
tooth 17. What do you tactic.
A. Remove 17 tooth hole sew
B. Amputation root
C. Section of mucous in the sky
D. Puncture infiltration, removal of tooth 17
E. * Remove 17 tooth abscess reveal
654.
In the 47 tooth after root canal having intense pain in the jaw. Percussion sharply
painful. In section 47 of the tooth mucosa edematous, hyperemic. The body temperature
of 38,6 ° C. Lymph nodes are enlarged pidschelepovi, painful on palpation. Symmetrical
face proportional. X-ray: root canals sealed 4/5 length: destruction of bone in the area of
the tops of the roots with fuzzy edges. Diagnosis:
A. * Exacerbation of chronic apical periodontitis
B. Acute suppurative periostitis of the jaw
C. Acute odontogenic osteomyelitis of the jaw
D. Purulent navkolokoreneva brush.
E. That's right
655. Projected root apex defined thickening, painful on palpation. Percussion tooth is not
painful entry into the cell channels open, the sound does not cause pain. X-ray: the top
section of the root source of destruction of bone size 5x6 mm with well-constrained paths.
Diagnosis:
A. * Chronic apical periodontitis granulomatous
B. Chronic apical periodontitis fibrotic
C. Chronic apical periodontitis granulating
D. Chronic pulpitis, apical periodontitis complicated.
E. Exacerbation of chronic apical periodontitis
656. Constant pain in the region of tooth 16. The asymmetry of the face. Collateral edema.
Pain, swelling of the gums in the area of causal and adjacent teeth. For transitional fold
within the patient's tooth is determined by fluctuation. X-ray - periodontal expansion gap.
Diagnosis:
A. * Acute apical periodontitis purulent
B. Acute suppurative periostitis of the jaw
C. Exacerbation of chronic apical periodontitis
D. Acute odontogenic osteomyelitis of the jaw.
E. There is no right answer
657. The constant intense pain in tooth 24. In the 24 tooth - carious cavity, tooth moving.
It is clear in section 24 tooth hyperemic, edematous. Percussion painful tooth. Regional
lymphadenitis. Electroodontodiagnosis - 100 mA. X-ray changes in navkolokoreneviy
plot no. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. * Acute apical periodontitis purulent
B. Chronic apical periodontitis granulomatous
C. Exacerbation of chronic apical periodontitis granulating
D. Acute suppurative periostitis of the jaw.
E. That's right
658.
Patient '39, appealed to the dentist. After the survey was diagnosed with chronic
granulating periodontitis. Which state has the mucosa around teeth with chronic
granulating periodontitis?
A. * Cyanotic mucous membrane, often the fistula
B. Hyperemic mucosa is sharply
C. Mucous pale pink
D. Observed in the mucous overemphasizing
E. No changes
659.
The patient is asked to rehabilitate a year after the treatment of chronic
granulomatous periodontitis. What indicators suggest recovery according to radiographs?
A. Complete obturation of the root canal
B. Increasing the size of the fire dilution
C. Resorption of the root apex of the tooth
D. Signs of recovery of bone is not visible
E. * Full or partial recovery of bone
660. The patient complains of constant aching pain in the tooth 15, which increases with
nakushuvanni. Cavity communicates with the cavity of a tooth from the mouth of the
channel was pus. What the survey undertaken for the diagnosis?
A. Termoproba
B. Electroodontodiagnosis
C. Luminescent studies
D. Bacteriological study
E. * X-ray study
661. The patient complains of painful nakushuvannya 14 tooth and a feeling of fullness.
From history: several times occurred in the tooth pain, swelling of the cheek, which ended
with the formation of fistulas, with koyi a while I stood manure. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Chronic granulomatous periodontitis tooth 14
B. Chronic gangrenous pulpitis 14 tooth
C. Chronic periodontitis fibrous tooth 14
D. * Exacerbation of chronic periodontitis tooth 14
E. Acute suppurative periodontitis tooth 14
662. The patient complains of pain in nakushuvanni 25 tooth, which began last night and
growing. Cavities connected with dotted cavity tooth sensing painless. Percussion
strongly positive. Radiography unchanged. What is the preliminary diagnosis?
A. Acute suppurative pulpitis 25 tooth
B. Acute serous pulpitis 25 tooth
C. * Acute serous periodontitis tooth 25
D. Exacerbation of chronic periodontitis tooth 25
E. There is no right answer
663.
The patient complains of a throbbing pain in tooth 26 within 5 days. Percussion
vertical and horizontal positive, moving teeth, mucosa rapidly flushed, palpation transition
creases sharply painful. What is the diagnosis?
A. Acute suppurative pulpitis 26 tooth
B. Acute localized periodontitis tooth 226
C. Acute serous pulpitis 26 tooth
D. Acute serous periodontitis tooth 26
E. * Acute suppurative periodontitis tooth 26
664. The patient appealed with complaints about the presence of tumor formation in the
skin in the region of the angle of the right jaw. An objective examination of: 37 tooth deep carious cavity that communicates with the cavity of the tooth. Probing painless.
From history revealed that a few years ago confounded periodic pain in tooth 37. The
doctor put diagnosed odontogenic granuloma migrans skin. As a result there is a
pathological process which the disease?
A. Chronic hyperplastic odontogenic periostitis
B. Chronic odontogenic osteomyelitis
C. Chronic periodontitis
D. * Chronic apical periodontitis granulating
E. Chronic apical periodontitis fibrous
665. On admission the patient turned complaining of a sharp pain in the upper jaw. As a
result of physician examination established the diagnosis of acute periodontitis 16 tooth.
What is necessary to differentiate acute peri odontyt?
A. Acute pulpitis
B. Periostitis
C. Osteomiyeli t
D. Acute sinusitis and odontogenic
E. * All listed
666. Patients aged 32 years complains about the presence of fistulas in the submandibular
region. Ob-objective: swelling of the cheek in the area of the left mandible during
palpation - Seal m 'tissue, fistula with purulent content and granulation; mucosa
hyperemic, 35, 36 teeth moving. On radiographs revealed bone destruction, the presence
of sequestration. Click diagnosis
A. Actinomycosis
B. * Chronic osteomyelitis
C. Syphilis
D. Sarcoma
E. Osteoma
667.
Patient age 7 years admitted to the maxillofacial department about chronic
odontogenic osteomyelitis of the mandible in the region of 48, 47 teeth. Ill for about 2
months. Ob-objective: when probing the fistula, which bulge large granulation determined
nude rough area of bone that moves when nadavlyuvannya. On radiographs of the
mandible - the fire of destruction, centered sequestration size 1,0 x1, 5 cm, which attracted
48.47 teeth completely separated from healthy bone. Choose a method of treating a
patient:
A. Sequoia stromiya
B. Stimulating therapy
C. Dental health
D. * Antibiotic
E. Sequestrectomy with the removal of 47 and 48 teeth.
668.
The patient was diagnosed with actinomycosis m 'tissue neck. What
pathomorphological manifestations characteristic of actinomycosis:
A. Papule
B. Ulcer
C. * Granuloma
D. Tubercle
E. Erosion.
669. Patient age '49 appealed with complaints of persistent pain in the lower jaw, radiating
into the ear swelling mx tissue, increased body temperature to 39 0 C. Ob-objective:
swelling in the submandibular region, skin color is not changed. The mucous membrane
of alveolar bone in the region of 45, 46 teeth hyperemic and edematous with oral and
parietal sides. 45, 46 teeth destroyed completely mobile. Symptom Vincent. Click
diagnosis
A. Acute serous abscess lower jaw
B. Cellulitis of submandibular area
C. Exacerbation of chronic osteomyelitis
D. * Acute osteomyelitis of the mandible
E. Acute suppurative periostitis of the mandible
670. The 24-year-old girl there is fever, worsening of general condition. Sick 3 days. Obobjective: the general state of hard body temperature 38.6 0 C, a girl excited, pale. Bad
breath. Congestion and swelling of the mucous membrane of the gums in the area of 43,
44, 45 teeth on either side of alveolar bone. These teeth are moving during percussion sharply painful tooth 44 under seal. What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Acute odontogenic abscess lower jaw
B. Acute sialoadenit mandible during cancer
C. Exacerbation of chronic periodontitis
D. Suppuration around the root cyst of the mandible
E. * Acute odontogenic osteomyelitis of the mandible?
671.
Child age '13 complains of a sharp pain in the right lower jaw, increased body
temperature to 39 0 C, general weakness. Asymmetrical face due to swelling in the right
submandibular area, regional lymphadenitis, difficulty opening the mouth and bad breath.
During intra oral examination 46 tooth crown is destroyed, the tooth is still pain, but the
patient was not talking to the doctor. Percussion sharply painful. In section 44, 45, 46 and
47 teeth hyperemic mucosa swelling on both sides of the alveolar bone. What is the most
likely diagnosis:
A. Acute suppurative periosteum
B. Chronic periodontitis tooth 46 in the acute stage
C. * Acute odontogenic osteomyelitis of the mandible
D. Submandibular abscess
E. Chronic osteomyelitis of the mandible?
672. In patients aged 30 2-3 months there is not much painful infiltration by right jaw area.
Completed a short course of antibiotic therapy that was ineffective. Ob-objective: face
asymmetry due to marginally painful infiltration at the right jaw area, trees' yanystoyi
density, skin red and bluish-purple. The skin is a fistula from which pus kryhtopodibnyy
released periodically, and embroiled thick scars, there is a painless mandibular trismus.
Move the disease for which the most characteristic clinical picture described above:
A. Odontogenic granuloma face
B. * Actinomycosis
C. Chronic osteomyelitis of the mandible
D. Cellulitis by the jaw area
E. Chronic lymphadenitis by the jaw area
673. A man aged 45 years after suffering a flu suddenly 26 tooth ache. The crown on his
broken ½. With 'swelling appeared adjacent m' tissues and palate. Body temperature rose
to 38 0 C. In the following days these events grew. With 'appeared mobility and
hnoyetecha of tooth-gingival pockets 25, 26 and 27 teeth. Deteriorated general condition.
Click diagnosis
A. Acute suppurative periodontitis
B. * Acute odontogenic osteomyelitis
C. Chronic periodontitis in the acute stage
D. Acute abscess
E. Abscess of palate.
674.
Patients aged '39 3 days ago 47 tooth was removed, after which her condition
deteriorated: the patient is pale, the body temperature is 38.1 0 C, the lower jaw left
muftopodibno thickened, m 'are tissue swelling, difficulty opening the mouth. Transitional
fold of 48, 47, 46 teeth swollen, hyperemic mucosa with 47 tooth cells secreted pus,
percussion 48, 46, 45 teeth painful. In the area of the lower lip - paresthesia. What is the
most likely diagnosis:
A. Acute abscess alveolar bone
B. Cellulitis of submandibular triangle
C. * Acute odontogenic osteomyelitis of the lower body schelpy
D. Acute abscess of the jaw body
E. Chronic osteomyelitis of the alveolar bone?
675.
Patient ages '49 grumbles about mobility 24, 26, 27 teeth; discharge of pus cells
removed 25 teeth. One and a half ago misyatsiya removed 25 teeth, made an autopsy on a
transitional fold. Ob-objective: the orbital area under slight swelling mx tissue, enlarged
and slightly painful left submandibular lymph nodes, nasal breathing freely. The mucous
membrane of alveolar bone in the region of 24, 26, 27 teeth swollen, cyanotic. For
transitional fold - with fistula granulations that bulge. Of the 25 cells removed tooth purulent granulation. What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Exacerbation of chronic sinusitis.
B. Acute osteomyelitis
C. * Chronic odontogenic osteomyelitis
D. Alveolus
E. Aggravation limited periodontal that?
676.
The patient is observed during the inspection due to the asymmetry of the face
infiltration m 'tissue adjacent to the body of the mandible. The skin over the infiltration
thin and stretched. Palpable defined periosteal thickening of the bone. On radiographs of
the mandible on the left marked three pockets enlightenment irregularly shaped
compaction kiskovoyi structure around the perimeter of the shadows and darkening of up
to 0.5 cm in diameter in the center. What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. * Chronic odontogenic osteomyelitis
B. Acute odontogenic osteomyelitis
C. Chronic abscess
D. Acute suppurative periostitis
E. Actinomycosis of the jaws?
677. The patient noted a sharp intense pain and swelling at the site of the destroyed tooth
on the lower jaw to the right, deterioration of general health, fever up to 38.5 0 C, appetite
loss and insomnia. On examination, there is collateral edema mx tissue sections under the
mandible and lower right cheek. Regional lymph nodes are enlarged on the right, painful
on palpation. The crown of the tooth was destroyed in 46 ½, 45, 46, 47 teeth - moving in
the area of the teeth indicated muftopodibnyy infiltration. Symptom Vincent positive.
What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Chronic odontogenic osteomyelitis
B. Acute suppurative odontogenic abscess
C. Acute suppurative periodontitis
D. Chronic odontogenic osteomyelitis in the acute stage
E. * Acute odontogenic osteomyelitis?
678.
A patient aged 25 complains of swelling and hnoyetechu the right under the
mandibular region. Ob-objective: there is dense trees' yanystyy painless infiltration in the
mandibular right at the site. In the center of the infiltrate is a fistula, which stands a small
kilkistkryhtopodibnoho manure. Open your mouth and teeth intact. Click diagnosis
A. * Actinomycosis skin
B. Lupus
C. Primary syphilis
D. Subcutaneous granuloma face
E. Adenoabstses
679. Patients aged 43 years complains of mobility 34, 36, 37 teeth, discharge of pus from
the tooth extraction cell. Half a month ago, made an autopsy on a transitional fold and 35
tooth removed. Ob-objective: on the left buccal area of dense swelling mx tissue, lymph
nodes enlarged left submandibular area, slightly painful. The mucous membrane of
alveolar bone in the region of 34, 36, 37 teeth swollen, bluish color. For transitional fold with fistula granulations that vypynayut. In cell removed 35 tooth purulent granulation.
What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Chronic alveoli
B. Chronic diffuse osteomyelitis
C. Aggravation limited that periodontal
D. Chronic abscess rarefikuyuchyy
E. * Chronic osteomyelitis is limited?
680. Man complains of swelling of the tissues around the left mandible. The presence of
fistulas with purulent exudate in the body of the mandible at the level of 36 teeth. Two
months ago, felt pain in tooth 36, with the dense infiltrate appeared in the body of the
mandible. 36 tooth was completely removed, but the infiltration completely disappeared,
developed fistula. Click diagnosis
A. Chronic periodontitis granulation
B. * Chronic odontogenic osteomyelitis of the mandible
C. Bone shape aktynomikozk
D. Mandibular cyst that flesh was rotting
E. Cancer of the mandible.
681.
Patient aged 35 years 3 days ago 47 tooth was removed, after which his condition
deteriorated. Ob-objective: the patient pale, body temperature 38.1 C, left mandible
muftopodibno thickened, m 'tissues around her swollen, mouth opening difficulty.
Transitional fold of 48, 47, 46 teeth swollen, hyperemic mucosa with 47 tooth cells
secreted pus, percussion 48, 46, 45 teeth painful. In the area of the lower lip - paresthesia.
What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Acute periostitis of the mandible
B. * Acute osteomyelitis of the mandible
C. Cellulitis of submandibular area
D. Acute periodontitis tooth 47
E. Suppuration radicular cyst of the mandible?
682.
The patient complains of a painful swelling in the sky that appeared 3 days ago
several times after treatment of tooth 17. OBJECTIVE: the hard palate in a hemispherical
projection 17 tooth infiltration, painful, mucous membrane over it flushed bright, elegant.
Crown 17 destroyed on the radiograph: signs of granulomatous periodontitis tooth 17.
Your tactics.
A. Remove 17 tooth hole sew
B. Amputation root
C. Section of mucous in the sky
D. * Remove 17 tooth abscess reveal
E. Puncture infiltration, removal of tooth 17
683. The patient asked the doctor complaining of a swelling in the region of the left cheek,
the body temperature of 38.50 C. OBJECTIVE: painful percussion 26 tooth transition
convolution smoothed her, when pressing on the tooth stands manure. What can be
diagnosed in this patient?
A. Acute suppurative periodontitis
B. * Acute suppurative periostitis
C. Go stretch marks odontogenic osteomyelitis
D. Cellulitis buccal area
E. Cellulitis pterygopalatine fossa
684. Patient P. '38 turned complaining of constant throbbing pain in the right lower jaw,
radiating into the ear and feeling like a tooth "has grown." OBJECTIVE: half-open mouth,
the mucous membrane in the region of 45 tooth hyperemic, edematous. Percussion sharply
painful. Existing symptoms of intoxication (headache, malaise, fever). Regional lymph
nodes were slightly enlarged. Diagnosis:
A. * Acute suppurative periodontitis
B. acute pulpitis
C. deep caries
D. chronic granulating periodontitis
E. acute abscess.
685.
In the department of oral surgery patients admitted with complaints about the
appearance of swelling in the area of the eye, double vision (diplopia). On examination
found exophthalmos, hemoz (swelling transitional fold of conjunctiva), restriction of
mobility of the eyeball. Diagnosis:
A. * Orbital abscess area
B. abscess zygomatic area
C. abscess temporal area
D. abscess cheek
E. there is no correct answer.
686. What type of anesthesia is used when removing the upper canines?
A. * Infraorbitalna and terminal anesthesia by oral vestibule, additional wiring at
the incisive foramen and palate
B. tuberalna anesthesia additionally - anesthesia by a large palatal foramen
C. anesthesia at the mental foramen in conjunction with terminal anesthesia with
language by or mandibular anesthesia.
D. anesthesia for Bershe - oak
E. there is no correct answer.
687.
Patient M. '18 entered the branch of dentistry ary surgeon with complaints of pain
and heaviness in the right half of the head. Pain radiating to the lateral occipital and
temporal areas, and the upper teeth. Nasal right half of the nose and the weakening of the
sense of smell. OBJECTIVE: swollen and painful on palpation cheek, skin vylyskuye
slightly under medium bowl nasal cavity - purulent exudate. The presence of gangrenous
teeth on the upper jaw. X-ray revealed zavualovanist maxillary sinus. Diagnosis:
A. * Acute odontogenic sinusitis
B. abscess cheek
C. abscess zygomatic area
D. abscess cheek
E. chronic rhinitis.
688. What is characteristic of chronic granulomatous periodontitis?
A. no pain in the tooth and facial swelling. On radiographs - the source of
destruction of bone round shape with smooth edges.
B. aching pain, presence of fistula on the gums. On radiographs - part of bone
resorption with irregular and indistinct outlines
C. prystupopodibnyy throbbing pain in nakushuvanni on causal tooth, the X-ray
changes are not
D. aching pain that is worse when nakushuvanni. Lack of facial swelling. Enlarged
regional lymph nodes. On radiographs - enlarged periodontal gap
E. pain radiating along the trigeminal nerve. Severe swelling of the face.
689.
After a street fight in travm.punkt delivered boyfriend of 23 years. The patient
complains of acute pain in the left TMJ, which arose after the injury inflicted with a blunt
object. OBJECTIVE: restriction of mobility of the mandible, swelling of the tissues
around the joint due to edema, hemorrhage and infiltration in the joint cavity. Diagnosis:
A. * Acute traumatic arthritis
B. chronic infectious arthritis
C. chronic traumatic arthritis
D. abscess cheek
E. abscess parotid-masticatory area.
690.
Patient L. '24 appealed to the Department of Surgical Dentistry complaining of
swelling of the face in the left submaxillary area. On examination: swelling has clear
contours, skin flushed and tense. Is marked by a sharp pain in the area of infiltration.
Tissue around the submandibular lymph nodes infiltrated. Unit sedentary, thick
consistency. Determine fluctuation. There are signs of general intoxication. Diagnosis:
A. * Acute suppurative lymphadenitis
B. Tuberculous lymphadenitis
C. actinomycosis
D. Hodgkin's disease
E. abscess floor of the mouth.
691. Which course is characteristic of suppurative periostitis, localized on the hard palate?
A. * Especially hard
B. moderate severity
C. easy
D. hard
E. chronic
692. The most common cause of abscesses and abscesses Oral and lyevoyi areas are:
A. * "Mr. anhrenozni" teeth and their roots
B. otitis
C. ulcer - necrotic gingivitis
D. stomatitis and glossitis
E. sialodenity.
693. In the mouth rehabilitation has been shown to remove the first upper premolar. What
is the correct sequence of movements during tooth extraction?
A. * Vyvyhuyuchi lateral movement, initially in soup ical and then to the palatal
side
B. vyvyhuyuchi moves only in the direction of palatal
C. Rotating ruzy one and the other side for about 300
D. movements in the buccal and lingual side, combined with a rotary motion
E. no correct answer
694. Violations salivation observed in odontogenic phlegmon?
A. * Saliva with TAE viscous, difficult splovuyetsya
B. hygrostomia
C. hiposalivatsiya
D. a large amount of saliva doped manure
E. saliva only during meals
695. What changes are observed in the face examination, the patient with a deep abscesses
location maxillofacial area (navkolohlotkovoho space alary-palatal space, infratemporal
area, alary-jaw space)?
A. * Lack of facial asymmetry
B. asymmetry of the face on the affected side
C. Facial asymmetry is not a constant feature
D. slight asymmetry
E. no correct answer
696. A characteristic feature of boils on the face are:
A. * Marked swelling of the tissues in these dilyan inflammation
B. slight congestion
C. tissue swelling only in the early stages of inflammation
D. the presence of fluctuations
E. no correct answer
697.
At 22.00 in the department of oral surgery patient delivered with signs of severe
intoxication. The patient took a sitting position due to forced increasing asphyxia,
respiratory difficulty, pupils dilated. On examination: the presence of edema and
infiltration in the area of the hyoid, tongue sedentary. The skin in the neck area and
submaxillary bronze tint. In history - remove "gangrenous" 46 tooth 10 hours ago.
Diagnosis:
A. * Zhensulya angina - Ludwig
B. abscess tongue
C. Sublingual abscess roller
D. acute odontogenic osteomyelitis of the mandible
E. abscess navkolohlotkovoho space
698.
In patients with acute inflammatory periostitis developed contracture. How many
degrees of inflammatory contracture you know?
A. 2
B. * 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
699. A patient diagnosed with chronic periodontitis. What forms of chronic periodontitis
you know?
A. * Fibrotic, granulating, granulomatous
B. purulent, serous, fibrous
C. limited and diffuse
D. serous, granulating, purulent
700. The most common complication of facial vein thrombophlebitis are:
A. * Sepsis and metabolic abscesses in internal organs
B. cavernous sinus thrombosis
C. front and rear mediastinit
D. abscess of the orbit
E. abscess infratemporal area
701. The patient admitted to the Department of dental surgery with suspected phlegmon
zygomatic area. What is a typical forthis phlegmon?
A. * Rapid increase in swelling in the area of the eyelids and the upper arch of the
mouth vestibule of rectangular teeth
B. significant asymmetry of the face on the affected side
C. presence of symptom fluctuations
D. smoothing nasolabial folds, cheeks and swelling of the eyelids, redness of the
skin
702. Tactics physician in the treatment of acute serous odontogenic sinusitis:
A. . * Eliminate the source of infection (causative tooth), physiotherapy
B. tooth is not removed, physiotherapy
C. remove the causative tooth, opening the maxillary sinus, holding haymorotomiyi
D. purpose sudynozvuzhuyuchyh drugs and physiotherapy
703. Patients underwent disclosure phlegmon submaxillary area. What method of drainage
naydotsilne use?
A. * Dual tube drainage perforation
B. rubber band
C. moistened gauze drain 10% sodium chloride
D. vacuum drainage
E. drainage is not required
704. In the dental clinic patient turned 22 years of in S. complaining of sharp, throbbing
pain in 36 zubi that irradiyue the course of branches trifchastoho nerva.Pry either touching
the tooth pain arises, the tooth seems to be "grown up." Objectively: patsient of
pryvidkrytym mouth because of inability zimknuty teeth, facial asymmetry due
sposterihaetsya prypuhlosti on the bottom from left, hiperemovana mucosa, swollen in
dilyantsы causal zuba.rehionalni limfatychni nodes zbilsheni, bolyuchi, tempyratura body
37 º C, no changes retthenolohichnsch vyyavlenoEOD 100 mA. Install diagnosis:
A. * Acute hniynyy periodontyt.
B. Acute hniyny pulpit.
C. Acute serous periodontyt.
D. Acute serous pulpit.
E. Chronic fibroznyy periodontyt.
705. In the dental clinic patient turned K ziskarhamy on prystupopodibnyy pain in tooth
14 property that reinforcing with nakushuvanni.Ob 'ektyvno vestybulyarniy on the surface
of the alveolar membrane vidrostka It turns norytsya.Slyzova property in sick tooth
hipernmovana, pastozna. It turns vazopareza symptoms. Renthenolohichno near the root
verhivky It turns rezorbtsii sections of bone tissue nerivnymy i indistinct contours. Install
diagnosis:
A. * Chronic granulating periodontyt.
B. Chronic granulomatous periodontyt.
C. Chronic fibroznyy periodontyt.
D. Acute hniynyy periodontyt.
E. Acute serous periodontyt.
706.
In the dental clinic patient turned sharply with B. pain in the jaw joint property of
both, I Standing pain disappears only when fully spokoi nyzhnoi jaw. Objectively limited
opening of the mouth, on the chin at natyskuvanni arises bil.Renthenolohichno abrupt
changes were detected. What can zapidozryty this patient?
A. * Acute revmatoidnyy arthritis.
B. Acute pin arthritis.
C. Osteoarthritis.
D. Bolv dyzfunktsiya TMJ.
E. Acute otitis dvostoronniy.
707. In the dental clinic turned sick with V. sharply TMJ pain in property, right, Standing
pain I disappear only when fully spokoi nyzhnoi jaw. Objectively limited opening of the
mouth, on the chin at natyskuvanni arises sharply pain when opening the mouth mandible
vidhylyaetsya right. Renthenolohichno changes have been identified. What can
zapidozryty this patient?
A. * Acute arthritis, right.
B. Acute arthritis from left.
C. Osteoarthritis.
D. Bolv dyzfunktsiya TMJ.
E. Acute otitis dvostoronniy.
708. In the dental clinic appealed patient with complaints of V. hruskit and skutist in TMJ,
right prtyahom pivroku at pereoholodzhenni zahostryuetsya pain. Objectively
sposterihaetsya limited opening of the mouth. Renthenolohichno sposterihaetsya
suhlobovoi expansion gap, right, rezorbtsii kistkovoi segment of articular tissue elements.
What can zapidozryty this patient?
A. * Chronic arthritis.
B. Acute arthritis.
C. Osteoarthritis.
D. Bolv dyzfunktsiya TMJ.
E. Acute otitis.
709.
The patient GA diahnostovano hniynyy acute arthritis. What are the surgical
treatment?
A. * Cut along the bottom outer edge vylychnoi arc, draining.
B. Cut outer perpendykudyarno to tragus of the ear.
C. Vnutrishnorotovyy Cut drainage.
D. Cut by the external hilkoyu nyzhnoi jaw.
E. Punktsiya and vidsmoktuvannya manure.
710. In the dental clinic Patient turned 55 years with complaints of aching pain in Standing
from left TMJ during the year while reinforcing long conversations pryyomi izhi,
pereoholodzhenni. It turns suhlobovoi Renthenolohichno expansion gap, sclerosis
kortykalnoi plate suhlobovoi head I ii deformation. What can zapidozryty this patient?
A. * Osteoarthritis of the TMJ.
B. Chronic arthritis.
C. Acute arthritis.
D. Bolv dyzfunktsiya TMJ.
E. Acute otitis.
711. In the dental clinic Patient turned 55 years with complaints of aching pain in Standing
from left TMJ during the year while reinforcing long conversations pryyomi izhi,
pereoholodzhenni. It turns suhlobovoi Renthenolohichno expansion gap, sclerosis
kortykalnoi plate suhlobovoi head I ii deformation. Patient diahnostovano secondary
deforming arthritis joint. How many stages of development he has?
A. * 4.
B. 1.
C. 2.
D. 3.
E. 5.
712. In the dental clinic Patient turned 55 years with complaints of aching pain in Standing
from left TMJ during the year while reinforcing long conversations pryyomi izhi,
pereoholodzhenni. It turns suhlobovoi Renthenolohichno expansion gap, sclerosis
kortykalnoi plate suhlobovoi head I ii deformation. Patient diahnostovano artroz.Yak
arthritis are divided depending on etiolohii:
A. * Pervynni i vtorynni.
B. Hostri i chronicle.
C. Sklerozuyuchi i deformuyuchi.
D. Initial i vyrazheni.
E. General i spetsyfichni.
713. In the dental clinic Patient turned 55 years with complaints of aching pain in Standing
from left TMJ during the year while reinforcing long conversations pryyomi izhi,
pereoholodzhenni. It turns suhlobovoi Renthenolohichno expansion gap, sclerosis
kortykalnoi plate suhlobovoi head deformation and ii. Patient diahnostovano arthritis.
DIVIDED As arthritis depending on klinichnoi picture?
A. * Sklerozuyuchi i deformuyuchi.
B. Pervynni i vtorynni.
C. Sklerozuyuchi i deformuyuchi.
D. Initial i vyrazheni.
E. General i spetsyfichni.
714. In the dental clinic Patient turned 55 years with complaints of aching pain in Standing
from left TMJ during the year while reinforcing long conversations pryyomi izhi,
pereoholodzhenni. It turns suhlobovoi Renthenolohichno expansion gap, sclerosis
kortykalnoi plate suhlobovoi head deformation and ii i. Patient diahnostovano arthritis.
Which nyzhnoi jaw movements disappear first in arthritis?
A. * Bokovi.
B. Vertykalni.
C. Moving Forward.
D. Push back.
E. All movements are the same.
715.
In the dental clinic appealed patient with complaints of acute pain in property 15
teeth, facial asymmetry, sleep disturbances, loss of appetite, pain in lokalizuetsya kisttsi.
Objectively sposteri haetsya swelling, smoothing perehidnoi masonry crown of the tooth
is affected kariesom. From history it became known that a tooth previously boliv for a
long time. Put diagnosis.
A. * Acute periostyt.
B. Acute periodontyt.
C. Acute osteomielit.
D. Acute pulpit.
E. Hronichnty periodontyt in stadii aggravation.
716.
In the dental clinic appealed patient with complaints of acute pain in property 15
teeth, facial asymmetry, sleep disturbances, loss of appetite, pain in lokalizuetsya kisttsi.
Objectively sposteri haetsya swelling, smoothing perehidnoi masonry crown of the tooth
is affected kariesom. From history it became known that a tooth previously boliv for a
long time. Patient diahnostovano hniynyy periostyt.Yake acute surgical treatment is
necessary to carry out?
A. * Remove tooth abscess reveal pidnadkistnyy i + draining wound conservative
treatment.
B. Remove tooth i reveal pidnadkistnyy abscess.
C. K onservatyvne treatment.
D. Disclosure tooth cavity and creating outflow of fluid.
E. Remove tooth.
717.
Patient M. 55 years diahnostovano chronic periostyt. Which form of chronic
periostytu vydilyayut?
A. * Simple, osyfikuyuchu, raryfikuyuchu.
B. Simple, osyfikuyuchu.
C. Simple, raryfikuyuchu.
D. Raryfikuyuchu, osyfikuyuchu.
E. Simple, spanned.
718. Patient M. 55 years diahnostovano periostyt.Yake chronic treatment, it is expedient to
use?
A. * Remove the causal tooth Modified okystya + conservative treatment.
B. Remove causative tooth.
C. Conservative livannya.
D. Does not require treatment.
E. Remove the causal tooth + loeservatyvne treatment.
719. In patients 55 years diahnostovano osteomielit.Yaki form osteomielitu vydilyayut in
his practical work?
A. * Sharp, pidhostru, chronic.
B. Acute, chronic.
C. Sharp, pointed, chronic.
D. Primary, Endpoint.
E. Primary, acute, chronic.
720. In the Stomatology Clinic addressed with the patient complaining of intense pain in
nezhniy schelepi (kisttsi) that irradiyue along the nerve branches triychastoho, difficulty
swallowing, breathing, opening his mouth. Ob 'is objectively sposterihaetsya symptom
Vincent tempyratura body 38 º C. What form osteomielitu sposterihaetsya patient?
A. * Acute osteomilit.
B. Zahastrenyy osteomilit.
C. Chronic osteomilit.
D. Initial osteomilit.
E. Pidhostryy osteomielit.
721. In the Stomatology Clinic addressed with the patient complaining of intense pain in
nezhniy schelepi (kisttsi) that irradiyue along the nerve branches triychastoho, difficulty
swallowing, breathing, opening his mouth for 5dniv. Ob 'is objectively sposterihaetsya
symptom Vincent tempyratura body 38 º C. Diahnostovano acute osteomielit. What
zahvoryuvnnyamy not dyferentsiyuyut osteomielit?
A. * Kariesom.
B. Sharp (acute exacerbation of chronic) periodontytu.
C. Nahnoennyam kist SCHLD.
D. Malignant tumors.
E. Inflammatory processes of soft tissue SCHLD.
722.
In the dental clinic Patient turned 55 years with complaints of increase in
tempyrayury body, swelling of the face and presence of norytsi hniynymy vmdilennyamy.
Anamnesis known that earlier this plot disturbed patient, the disease lasts 2 months.
Renthenolohichno found sekvestratsii plot. What disease can zapidozryty this patient?
A. * Chronic osteomilit.
B. Acute osteomilit.
C. Acute hniynyy periodontyt.
D. Chronic granulating periodontyt.
E. Pidhostryy osteomilit.
723.
The patient had chronic diahnostovanyy osteomielit verhnoschelepovoi kistky.
doctor-patient dentist warned that if vidmovivid treatment he may have the following
complications except:
A. * Mediastenitu.
B. Sepsis.
C. Sinusitis.
D. Etmoidytu.
E. Venous thrombosis face.
724. Asked the patient to a dentist in '32 with complaints of inability to close the mouth.
Chin put forward anteriorly and lowered down. It is not clear, drooling. The face is
elongated, flattened cheeks and tight. Ahead tragus ear soft tissue sinks, and under the
zygomatic arch palpable slight increase. Contact only the last molars. As th most likely
diagnosis?
A. * Bilateral posterior dislocation of the articular processes
B. Unilateral anterior dislocation of the articular process
C. Bilateral anterior dislocation of the articular processes
D. Acute arthritis articular processes
E. Bilateral perelomovyvyh articular processes
725. Boy 15 years, with expansion cavity complains of pain in the left temporomandibular
joint, which appeared after 2.5 weeks or after suffering flu. Objectively: redness and
swelling of the tissues in the joint Diehl ntsi left, t body 37.2 C, intact teeth, bite
ortohnatychnyy. In rethenohrami bone structure is not altered joint, joint gap increased.
What might explain the increase suh frontal slit on the radiograph?
A. * Collect equation of serous fluid
B. Tumor growth.
C. Growth of fibrous tissue
D. The deposition of lime
E. Loss sechokisnoho sodium
726. Parents of 12-year-old turned to the dentist complaining of progressive limitation of
mouth opening, mandibular deformity, pronunciation difficulties, eating. In the history of
the child - a traumatic fracture of the articular process of the mandible on the right. During
bimanual palpation no movement in the joints, radiographic joint space is not evident. As
th most virohvdnyy diagnosis?
A. * Bone ankylosis
B. Postravmatychnyy arthritis
C. Fibrous ankylosis
D. Syndrome Kostena
E. Scar kontaktura
727.
Parents of girls aged 1 year 8 months complained to restrict movement of the
mandible in a child snore at night, asphyxia, which periodically occur during sleep,
reducing the size of the chin. In history \: prolonged traumatic birth. Deformation of the
jaw and mouth opening limitation to 0.5 cm, bilateral mikroheniya. Assign additional
studies
A. * Orthopantomography.
B. Plain radiography of the skull in the axial projection.
C. Plain radiography of the skull and the nasal-pidboridniy projection.
D. Radiography of the lower jaw in her conclusion by Henishem.
E. Radiography of the mandible to the conclusion by Schuler of
728. Girl 15 years, complains of crunching in the left TMJ, stiffness in it in the morning.
Ia patients for 3 years. OBJECTIVE: symmetrical face. Palpation sites TMJ painless.
Open your mouth accompanied by crepitus in the left joint deviation pidporiddya left.
Assign th advisable method further examination:
A. * CT TMJ
B. Orthopantomography
C. Radiography half of us zhnoyi jaw in lateral projection
D. MPT
E. Plain radiographs of the skull in front fiya projection
729. Girl aged '12 complains of intermittent pain in the lower jaw and ears. Ill for about a
year. Over the past 2 years have we observe significant growth tyvnishyy active girl.
Locally: symmetrical face, mouth opening to 6 inches with a characteristic clicking in the
TMJ area. Determined by palpation, percussion increased joint heads. Define n operedniy
diagnosis
A. * The right TMJ dysfunction ikova
B. Chronic arthritis of the right TMJ
C. Acute arthritis of the right TMJ
D. Where the right TMJ arthrosis formed
E. With ahostrennya xp onichnoho right TMJ arthritis
730.
A girl aged 8 years complains of pain in the left parotid-masticatory area, which
increases during chewing. The body temperature of 37.50 C. May that day got hit in this
area. OBJECTIVE: asymmetrical face due to painful swelling of tissue in the left parotidmasticatory area, limited mouth opening because of the pain to 1.8-2 cm, intact teeth, bite
ortohnatychnyy, regional lymph nodes were not enlarged. Joint space expanded. Identify
the clinical diagnosis
A. * Acute traumatic serous arthritis
B. Deforming arthrosis of the TMJ
C. Go stretch marks rheumatoid arthritis TMJ
D. TMJ Osteoarthritis
E. Go stretch marks rheumatoid arthritis TMJ
731.
A girl aged 8 years complains of pain in the left parotid-masticatory area, which
increases during chewing. The body temperature of 37.50 C. May that day got hit in this
area. OBJECTIVE: asymmetrical face due to painful swelling of tissue in the left parotidmasticatory area, limited mouth opening because of the pain to 1.8-2 cm, intact teeth, bite
ortohnatychnyy, regional lymph nodes were not enlarged. Joint space expanded. Identify
the clinical diagnosis
A. * Acute traumatic serous arthritis
B. Deforming arthrosis of the TMJ
C. Go stretch marks rheumatoid arthritis TMJ
D. TMJ Osteoarthritis
E. Mr. Ostrom rheumatoid arthritis TMJ
732. To verify the diagnosis of pain dysfunction syndrome of the right TMJ doctor held
siege by P. Egorov. The result - a muscle spasm disappeared, mouth opening improved.
What are the nerve fibers were blocked.
A. * Roux hovi fibers of the trigeminal nerve
B. Lyvi sensitive fibers of the trigeminal nerve
C. The fibers of the facial nerve
D. An E stsevu infiltration anesthesia
E. Stem aneste Zia second branch of the trigeminal nerve
733. Asked the patient to a dentist in '32 with complaints of inability to close the mouth.
Chin put forward anteriorly and lowered down. It is not clear, drooling. The face is
elongated, flattened cheeks and tight. Ahead tragus ear soft tissue sinks, and under the
zygomatic arch palpable slight increase. Contact only the last molars. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. * Bilateral posterior dislocation of the articular processes
B. Unilateral anterior dislocation of the articular process
C. Bilateral anterior dislocation of the articular processes
D. Acute arthritis articular processes
E. Bilateral perelomovyvyh articular processes
734. Asked the patient to a dentist in '32 with complaints of inability to close the mouth.
Chin put forward anteriorly and lowered down. It is not clear, drooling. The face is
elongated, flattened cheeks and tight. Ahead tragus ear soft tissue sinks, and under the
zygomatic arch palpable slight increase. Contact only the last molars. As th most likely
diagnosis?
A. * Duplex Rear second dislocation articular processes
B. Unilateral dislocation Front minutes articular process
C. D Both ways anterior dislocation of the articular processes of the s
D. Acute arthritis and articular processes
E. Bilateral pearls omovyvyh articular processes
735.
By dentist on night duty in '22 addressed the patient with complaints of constant
sharp pain in the left temporomandibular joint, which is aggravated by movement of the
mandible, while the rest is decreasing, weakness, malaise. On examination showed: pain,
swelling in front of ear tragus left, limitation of mouth opening. . From history revealed
that the patient vidkusuvav before this big piece of apple. Pressing pain in the area of the
chin sharply posylyuyetsyaYak nd most probable diagnosis?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis turns onevo-mandibular joint
B. * Post-traumatic arthritis turns onevo-mandibular joint
C. Osteoarthritis
D. And nfektsiynyy arthritis turns onevo-mandibular joint
E. Pain Dysfunction turns onevo-mandibular joint
736. Before dental surgeon turned boy aged '11 with complaints of fever up to 37,50 C,
fatigue, malaise. A week ago, recovering from SARS was a constant pain in the right
parotid-masticatory area, which is reinforced during jaw movements, radiating to the ear
and with kronevu area. On examination: mild redness and swelling of the skin in the right
parotid-masticatory area, palpation painful. Mouth opening is limited to 0.5 cm, the
detected deviation of the mandible to the right. If the pressure on the chin pain increases.
Determine the preliminary diagnosis:
A. * Acute arthritis of the right TMJ
B. Cellulitis Liv th parotid-masticatory area
C. Neodontohennyy abscess Liv th parotid-masticatory area
D. Chronic arthritis May vmatychnyy right TMJ
E. By right TMJ ankylosis istkovyy
737.
Before dental surgeon turned boy aged '11 with complaints of fever up to 37.5 C,
fatigue, malaise. A week ago, recovering from SARS was a constant pain in the right
parotid-masticatory area, which is reinforced during jaw movements, radiating to the ear
and with kronevu area. On examination: mild redness and swelling of the skin in the right
parotid-masticatory area, palpation painful. Mouth opening is limited to 0.5 cm, the
detected deviation of the mandible to the right. If the pressure on the chin pain increases.
Determine the preliminary diagnosis:
A. * Acute arthritis of the right TMJ
B. Cellulitis of the left parotid-chewed noyi area
C. Neodontohennyy abscess Liv th parotid-masticatory area
D. Chronic arthritis May vmatychnyy right TMJ
E. By right TMJ ankylosis istkovyy
738.
To jaw-face in th branch patient complaints brought to the impossibility of closing
the mouth. Condition arose during the bite of apple. OBJECTIVE: patient faces
expressing fear, mouth wide open, chin shifted to the left, there is leakage of saliva.
During palpation via the external ear canal moves right suhlubovoyi head no. Yaqui and
the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Dislocated right TMJ
B. Pe bone fracture suhlubovoho n \ ni
C. TMJ Pain
D. Dislocated left TMJ
E. Bilateral TMJ dislocation
739. A woman complains of '46 marked limitation of mouth opening, reconfiguring face
feel cha "big tongue". OBJECTIVE: face when viewed from a "ptashynnyy look." Mouth
opening is limited. On radiographs joint space available. I cue the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute arthritis of the right TMJ
B. Myogenic osteoatroz
C. * TMJ Ankylosis
D. Subluxation of the mandible
E. Acute suppurative parotitis
740.
Female 33 K. complains of aching dull pain in the TMJ, which increases during
chewing, the crunching, stiffness in the joint. Symptoms were a year ago after I
transferred SARS. OBJECTIVE: Al ymetriya face on the side of the affected joint, mouth
opening of 0.5 cm What additional methods of examination must apply for railway
iahnostyky this disease?
A. Mastykatsiohrafiya, CT
B. * Radiography, electromyography
C. Hnatodynamometriya, telerenthenohrafiya
D. Craniometry, radiography
E. Electromyography hnatodynamometriya
741. Woman, 35, on the second day pislyavydalennya tooth turned to CHLV complaining
of pain in chewing bilyavushno area, a sense that there is no contact between the teeth of
the upper and lower jaw right handles. On examination: Chin zsunute left half-open
mouth, lips closed, bite broken. Limitation of lateral movements of the mandible. From
the front of the right ear kozetka retraction of soft tkanyn.Yake most informative studies
in this violation Not?
A. * R h - g VNSHS
B. ultrazvukovoe
C. Radiography of the mandible
D. Bimanual
E. Symptom burden
742. A. A man complains of inability to close the mouth. Chin put forward anteriorly and
lowered down. It is not clear, drooling. The face is elongated, flattened cheeks and tight.
Ahead tragus ear soft tissue sinks, and under the zygomatic arch palpable slight increase.
Contact only oc Tunney molars. Put dianoz:
A. Unilateral anterior dislocation of the articular process
B. Bilateral anterior dislocation of the articular processes
C. * Bilateral posterior dislocation of the articular processes
D. Acute arthritis articular processes
E. Bilateral perelomovyvyh articular processes
743.
The man asked about the exacerbation of chronic perykoronarytu 38 tooth. The
mouth opens to 1 cm Inflammatory contracture second degree. What kind of anesthesia
should perform omatoloh century surgeon to remove the 38 tooth?
A. Mandibular
B. Torusalnu
C. General
D. Tuberalnu
E. * Anesthesia for Bershe-oak
744.
Male 38 years had sought to the dentist complaining of inability free opening and
closing the mouth, pain in the ear. From history: The patient was suffering from arthritis,
said in a joint clicking when you open your mouth, before during sudden movements of
the jaw encountered similar difficulties. OBJECTIVE: mouth half-open, the lower jaw is
pushed forward and lowered, and the chewing muscles tense. What is the disease of the
patient?
A. Deforming arthrosis
B. Deforming arthritis
C. * Chronic dislocation
D. Fracture of the articular head
E. Acute dislocation
745. Describe the method in practice yvyhu posterior mandible?
A. The patient is seated, the doctor puts into the mouth thumbs of both hands and
puts on the chewing surfaces molyariv, the rest of the fingers covered the lower
jaw, pressing on the molars and prypidnimaye chin upward, shifting the jaw
shifting backwards
B. * The patient is seated, the doctor puts thumbs on the alveolar process of the
mandible with vestibular side, the rest of the body and cover the angle of the
jaw, jaw shifts thumbs down and rest your fingers - to front
C. The patient sits doctor palpable through the skin of the cheeks below the
zygomatic bone determines the position of the tops of coronal processes and
pushes them towards a thumbs down and back
D. The patient sits doctor pozarotovoyu by click thumbs down and towards the
back of the head to dislocate the mandible
E. The patient lies between molars doctor enters a tight gauze roller presses the
chin from the bottom up, then front to back
746. Describe the method reposition the lower jaw noyi for AA Timofeev?
A. * The patient sits doctor pozarotovoyu by click thumbs down and backwards to
dislocate the head of the mandible
B. The patient is seated, the doctor puts thumbs on alveolar bone of the mandible
with vestibular side, the rest of the body and cover the angle of the jaw, jaw
shifts thumbs down and rest your fingers - to front
C. The patient sits doctor palpable through the skin of the cheeks below the
zygomatic bone determines the position of the tops of coronal processes and
pushes them towards a thumbs down and back
D. The patient sits doctor pozarotovoyu by click thumbs down and towards the
back of the head to dislocate the mandible
E. The patient lies between molars doctor enters a tight gauze roller presses the
chin from the bottom up, then front to back
747. Describe the method reposition the mandible by Blekhman?
A. The patient is seated, the doctor puts into the mouth thumbs of both hands and
puts on the chewing surfaces of molars, the rest of the fingers covered the lower
748.
749.
750.
jaw, pressing on the molars and prypidnimaye chin upward, shifting the jaw
shifting backwards
B. * The patient is seated, the doctor in the mouth is the location of coronal
processes, forefingers pushes them towards the bottom and back
C. The patient sits doctor palpable through the skin of the cheeks below the
zygomatic bone determines the position of the tops of coronal processes and
pushes them towards a thumbs down and back
D. The patient sits doctor pozarotovoyu by click thumbs down and towards the
back of the head to dislocate the mandible
E. Tions have started X lies between molars doctor enters a tight gauze roller
presses the chin from the bottom up, then front to back
Describe the method vpravlyan of the mandible by Goeppert?
A. The patient is seated, the doctor puts into the mouth thumbs of both hands and
puts on the chewing surfaces of molars, the rest of the fingers covered the lower
jaw, pressing on the molars and prypidnimaye chin upward, shifting the jaw
shifting backwards
B. * The patient is the doctor puts his fingers on the chewing surfaces of the teeth
on either side, and the thumb rests on the lower edge of the chin, pulls down
angle of the jaw and thumb shifting it backwards
C. The patient sits doctor palpable through the skin of the cheeks below the
zygomatic bone determines the position of the tops of coronal processes and
pushes them towards a thumbs down and back
D. The patient sits doctor pozarotovoyu by click thumbs down and towards the
back of the head to dislocate the mandible
E. The patient lies between molars doctor enters a tight gauze roller presses the
chin from the bottom up, then front to back
Describe the method I practice the mandible by Hippocrates?
A. The patient is seated, the doctor puts into the mouth thumbs of both hands and
puts on the chewing surfaces of molars, the rest of the fingers covered the lower
jaw, pressing on the molars and prypidnimaye chin upward, shifting the jaw
backwards
B. The patient sits doctor in the mouth is the location of coronal processes,
forefingers pushes them towards the bottom and back
C. The patient sits doctor palpable through the skin of the cheeks below the
zygomatic bone determines the position of the tops of coronal processes and
pushes them towards a thumbs down and back
D. The patient sits doctor pozarotovoyu by click thumbs down and towards the
back of the head to dislocate the mandible
E. The patient lies between molars doctor enters a tight gauze roller presses the
chin from the bottom up, then front to back
Describe the method vpravl moting the mandible by Popescu?
A. The patient is seated, the doctor puts into the mouth thumbs of both hands and
puts on the chewing surfaces of molars, the rest of the fingers covered the lower
jaw, pressing on the molars and prypidnimaye chin upward, shifting the jaw
shifting backwards
B. The patient sits doctor in the mouth is the location of coronal processes,
forefingers pushes them towards the bottom and back
C. The patient sits doctor palpable through the skin of the cheeks below the
zygomatic bone determines the position of the tops of coronal processes and
pushes them towards a thumbs down and back
D. The patient sits doctor pozarotovoyu by click thumbs down and towards the
back of the head to dislocate the mandible
E. * The patient lies between molars doctor enters a tight gauze roller presses the
chin from the bottom up, then front to back
751. Describe the method reposition the lower jaw by her Hvatovoyu - Gershoni?
A. The patient is seated, the doctor puts into the mouth thumbs of both hands and
puts on the chewing surfaces of molars, the rest of the fingers covered the lower
jaw, pressing on the molars and prypidnimaye chin upward, shifting the jaw
shifting backwards
B. The patient sits doctor in the mouth is the location of coronal processes,
forefingers pushes them towards the bottom and back
C. * The patient sits doctor palpable through the skin of the cheeks below the
zygomatic bone determines the position of the tops of coronal processes and
pushes them towards thumbs down and back
D. The patient sits doctor pozarotovoyu by click thumbs down and towards the
back of the head to dislocate the mandible
E. The patient lies between molars doctor enters a tight gauze roller presses the
chin from the bottom up, then front to back
752. Patient '35 appealed to the dentist complaining of a slight spontaneous pain in the left
section bilyavushniy that when you open your mouth goes into the decision GOST pain.
OBJECTIVE: swelling of the soft tissues in bilyavushniy site, when you open your mouth
the lower jaw is shifted to the right crunch in the region of the left temporomandibular
joint. Whom the diagnosis meets this clinic?
A. * Chronic infections injecting nonspecific arthritis
B. Acute arthritis
C. Ankylosis
D. Absts es bilyavushno chewing areas
E. Lymphadenitis bilyavushnoyi area
753. The patient complains of '65 acute pain in the joints, which became protracted with
periodic exacerbations chastische for all spring and autumn. Diseases linked with the flu
that moved before. On radiographs with kronevo-mandibular joint: destructive and
reactive changes, partial resorption of the articular head articular tubercle and
deformation. Ask Dr. iahnoz.
A. * Arthritis-Osteoarthritis SC ronevo-mandibular joint
B. Syndrome Kostena
C. A nkiloz SC ronevo-mandibular joint
D. Acute arthritis
E. Chronic traumatic arthritis
754. The patient appealed with complaints of pain in the left half of the face, radiating to
the neck, dry and heartburn mucous membrane of the district OTA hearing loss.
OBJECTIVE: painful mouth opening, there is a shift of the mandible to the right. An
examination of the temporomandibular joint through the ear canal and defined crunch
shidchastist movements articular heads. The mucosa without pathology refers dentition
defects Put diagnosis.
A. * Syndrome Kostena
B. Arthritis ronevo SC-mandibular joint
C. Contracture of the mandible
D. Osteomyelitis upper branches schele issues
E. Dislocation of the mandible
755. The patient asked the doctor complaining of inability to close the mouth, the selection
and the inability to swallow saliva b. OBJECTIVE: mouth open, chin vydvynuto forward
and lowered down, try to close the mouth causes or exacerbates pain in the
temporomandibular joints. Face extended, cheek area stretched, compacted. It is not clear,
can not chew, ahead tragus ears soft tissue sinks under vylytsevoyu arc (right, left)
potovschennya.Postavte palpable bone diagnosis.
A. Odnostornniy anterior dislocation of the mandible
B. Bilateral posterior dislocation of the mandible
C. Perelomovyvyh articular head of the mandible
D. * Bilateral anterior dislocation of the mandible
E. Bilateral fracture of the mandible in the region of angles
756. When removing the 34 tooth in the patient developed bilateral N. anterior dislocation
of the mandible. Which method is appropriate vpravyty this dislocation, dislocation if
after 30 minutes have passed?
A. * Method Blekhman GershoniB. Method Papeski
C. The method of Gershoni
D. Method of K'yandynsko
E. Method Rauera
757. On examination, the patient '45 observed asymmetry of the face. On the right side in
the area of TMJ soft-tk and cheeks are puffy look. And on the healthy side look flat.
Midline chin and mandibular incisive shifted to the right side. Sick n e can open his
mouth. Patient:
A. * Unilateral ankylosis.
B. Bilateral ankylosis.
C. Arthritis.
D. Osteoarthritis.
E. Arthrosis-arthritis.
758. On examination, the patient '45 observed asymmetry of the face. On the right side in
the area of TMJ soft maybe Anah cheeks are puffy look. And on the healthy side look flat.
Midline chin and mandibular incisive shifted to the right side. Sick n e can open his
mouth. Patient:
A. * Unilateral ankylosis
B. Bilateral ankylosis
C. Arthritis
D. Osteoarthritis.
E. Osteoarthritis, Arthritis
759. The patient repeatedly over a long time is between k dislocation n / ni, which he first
vpravlyav himself and Zara of vpravyty are not. Diagnosis: obsolete unskilled dislocation
n / ni. By whom should be treated?
A. * Operate vehicle to reposition Gershoni
B. Method of Hippocrates
C. Method Khodorovich PV
D. Method Blekhman GL
E. Method for Popesku
760.
In patients after trauma mouth wide open, chin shifted downward in front. The
patient feels pain. It zatrudnena, chewing impossible. Diagnosis.
A. * Fresh bilateral anterior dislocation
B. Front unilateral dislocation
C. Double fracture vyrostkovyh sprouts
D. Bilateral fracture of the branches of the jaw offset debris
E. Straight-sided dislocation
761.
In patients after trauma mouth wide open, chin shifted downward in front. The
patient feels pain. It zatrudnena, chewing impossible. Diagnosis.
A. * Fresh bilateral anterior dislocation
B. Front unilateral dislocation
C. Double fracture vyrostkovyh sprouts
D. Bilateral fracture of the jaw with the branches and the displacement of bone
fragments
E. Straight-sided dislocation
762.
The patient's mouth half open, his chin on the central incisors and lower lip
vuzdechnoyi shifted to the right zmykaty lip possible. Movement N / ni - just down, and
the mouth more open. With an amnezu yesterday struck shower. Diagnosis.
A. Bilateral anterior dislocation
B. Unilateral fracture n / ni
C. * Unilateral fresh anterior dislocation
D. Straight-sided anterior dislocation
E. Bilateral fracture of the N / Z
763.
In CAP appealed patient complaining of painful ulcers presence of the left cheek.
Diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma of the face, the second stage. You send the
original documents in the CCCs. What documents need to fill?
A. * Message form 090 / O
B. The protocol forms 0242 / O
C. Destinations in OOD
D. Control card 6 / E
E. Destinations in Oblast Clinical Hospital
764.
In the dental clinic patient appealed. After physical examination oral surgeon
Polikom Linik was diagnosed abscess of the right submandibular area. What should
follow doctor's tactics?
A. Perform needle removal purulent exudate
B. To prescribe medication and physiotherapy
C. To prescribe medication with dynamic observation
D. Conduct section phlegmon in the clinic
E. * Quickly send patients to specialized health care facilities
765. At the doctor dental surgeon asked the victim with limited thermal burns of the skin
faces I-II degree. Determine which should be made of the treatment of the victim.
A. Hospitalized in the casualty department
B. Out in the dental surgeon
C. * Admitted to the burn center (department)
D. Ambulatory surgical department clinics
E. Out travmopunkte the place of residence
766. The patient came to the reception in the morning to a dental surgeon. The reception
began with a delay of 15 minutes. Doctor of stale, stained, pomyatomu gown without
dosluhavshy by the end of patient complaints, asked him to open his mouth. During
treatment, the patient's physician shared experiences with the nurse about the movie. What
is a violation of human l ethics in this case?
A. Start receiving late
B. Wrinkled robe doctor
C. Improper ratio of doctor to patient complaints
D. Discussion of the film during the admission of the patient
E. * All of the above
767.
Five atsiyent suffer hemophilia. Accompanied by first removing a long term k
rovotecheyu. What tactics doctor?
A. * Hold intervention in hospital before and after surgery preparation
B. Required predoperatsiyna training in outpatient
C. No postoperative treatment is not a necessity
D. Perform removal clinics but with further advice
E. Perform removal under lyadom naked haematologist in the clinic
768. In patients with deep burns of the face and tulovyscha on the affected area for more
than 10% originated burn shock. As a branch of the victim must be hospitalized?
A. In therapy department
B. * The resuscitation of the burn center at iddilennya
C. In the surgical ward
D. In the maxillofacial department
E. As a casualty of the division
769.
The patient is prepared for surgery under general anesthesia. What preparation is
required to enter the patient during premedication to prevent complications associated
with the excitation of the vagus nerve?
A. Dibazol
B. * Pilocarpine
C. Kordiamin
D. Atropine
E. Proserinum
770. The patient suffers from epilepsy. Under what kind of anesthesia I need an operation?
A. * Under endotracheal anesthesia
B. Under anesthesia mask
C. Under anesthesia nazofarynhialnym
D. Under infiltration anesthesia
E. Under anesthesia
771.
A patient aged 44 years at the time of tooth extraction took place cast his crown part.
During the subsequent manipulation by using the elevator, remove any tooth forceps
failed. Manipulations should make the surgeon to successfully remove the pulley tooth
rooms:
A. * Disconnect the roots using a drill and fisurnoho boron
B. Apply corner elevator
C. Refer the patient to the hospital
D. Complete removal during other visits
E. Apply elevator Leklyuza
772.
The patient after removal of tooth 37 appeared alveolar hemorrhage. Determine the
most efficient way Hare th case of hemostasis:
A. Tamponade cell yodoformnym swab
B. Recycling floor and walls of the cell potassium permanganate crystals
C. * Local hemostatic tamponade cell preparations
D. Overall haemostatic therapy
E. Handling k omirky solution of hydrogen peroxide
773.
Patient age in '38 after ineffective treatment of tooth 26 on chronic granulomatous
periodontitis turned to the doctor for removal of the tooth. In which way the first time and
what are we vyvyhuvaty tooth movements should:
A. Rotational motion
B. In the buccal side pendular and rotary movements
C. In the buccal side of the pendular movements
D. In the palatal side pendular and rotary movements
E. * In the palatal side pendular movements?
774.
Patients showed removal of 46 teeth. The crown of the tooth is preserved, open
mouth free. Select the best method of providnykovoh zne bolennya and tools:
A. * Jaw and mandibular anesthesia; Direct elevator, dzo bopod ibni forceps with
spines on the cheeks
B. Anesthesia for Bershe-oak, corner and straight elevator
C. Mandibular anesthesia, straight and corner elevator; beak pliers with cheeks
converging
D. Torusalna anesthesia beak pliers
E. Torusalna anest eziya; straight and corner elevator: dzobopo the like forceps
with cheeks converging
775. To the doctor asked the patient is complaining of intermittent pain in the mandibular
angle and difficulty opening the mouth. Showing 38 tooth removal. Select pliers who need
to carry out the removal of 38 teeth:
A. Bayonet
B. Dzobopodib or with cheeks that do not agree
C. Beak with cheeks that converge
D. Beak with spikes on the cheeks
E. * Bent on a plane
776.
To the doctor asked the man for the purpose of dental health. After inspecting and
carrying out clinical examination revealed that 31 tooth must be removed, the root of
which is exposed at 1/2, movable containing his third degree. Diagnosis: gum 31 tooth.
Choose forceps, which you want to spend 31 removing memory ba.
A. Bayonet
B. D zobopodibni with spikes on cheeks
C. Dzobopod ibni with cheeks that match
D. Bent on a plane
E. * Beak and with cheeks that do not match
777.
To the doctor asked the man for the purpose of dental health. After inspecting and
carrying out clinical examination revealed that 31 tooth must be removed, the root of
which is exposed at 1/2, the mobility of III degree. Select forceps, which you want to
spend 31 tooth removal:
A. Beak with cheeks that converge
B. * Dzobopodib or with cheeks that do not agree
C. Beak with spikes on the cheeks
D. Bent on a plane
E. Bayonet.
778.
A woman aged '49 addressed the dental surgeon to remove 17 teeth diagnosed
exacerbation of chronic granulomatous periodontitis tooth 17. Select Number of tools for
removal:
A. * S-shaped curling right
B. Bahnetopodibni root forceps
C. Bahnetopodibni crowns forceps
D. S-shaped left forceps
E. Direct forceps.
779.
A woman aged '49 appealed to hiru rha dentist to remove the tooth 17. Diagnosed
exacerbation of chronic granuloma-toznoho periodontitis tooth 17. Select inst umentariy
to remove 17 teeth:
A. * S-shaped curling right
B. Bahnetopodibni root forceps
C. Bahnetopodibni crowns forceps
D. S-shaped left forceps
E. Direct forceps.
780.
A woman aged '56 addressed the dental surgeon to remove the 17 tooth. Select
required tools for entariy to remove 17 teeth:
A. * S-shaped curling right
B. Bahnetopodibni root forceps
C. Straight Forceps
D. S-shaped forceps
E. Bahaetopodibsh crowns forceps.
781. On admission to the dental surgeon asked the patient 70 years for the removal of the
central incisors of the upper jaw to the third degree of motion. M Do you want to remove
your teeth?
A. * Straight Forceps
B. Direct elevator
C. S-shaped forceps
D. Bayonet forceps
E. Beak pliers
782.
PATIENTS '47 14 tooth must be removed, coronal tooth preserved. Select tool,
identify the stages of removal:
A. * S-like forceps, blending, promotion, closing, lux-tion in the buccal, palatal
sides traction
B. Direct forceps, blending, promotion, closing, rotation, traction
C. Direct elevator, blending closure, lyuksatsiya in palatal and buccal sides, traction
D. S-shaped forceps, blending closure, lyuksatsiya in palatal and buccal sides,
traction
E. S-shaped forceps with spikes, blending, promotion, closing, lyuksatsiya in
buccal and palatal sides of the ground, traction
783.
When removing the 47 tooth fracture occurred distal tooth root at 1/2 its length.
Which tool should i choose to remove the root:
A. * Corner elevator "over"
B. Beak pliers with both cheeks who do not agree
C. Beak schyp with these cheeks converging T)
D. Corner Elevator "by itself"
E. Direct elevator
784.
On examination, her husband was diagnosed with acute odontogenic sinusitis. The
source of the disease - 15 tooth that needs to be removed. The crown of the tooth is
preserved. What other instrument necessary application wool:
A. Bayonet forceps
B. Straight forceps with cheeks that do not agree
C. * S-shaped forceps
D. Straight forceps with cheeks that converge
E. S-shaped forceps right?
785. When removing a tooth 46 due to misuse of the elevator there was a dislocation of
the intact tooth 45. Your actions in this situation.
A. * Reponuv ati tooth and consolidate its bus
B. Remove 45 tooth
C. Conduct endotontychne treatment of resection and 45 tooth top
D. Seal channel 45 tooth
E. Hospitalize a patient in a hospital for up to obs tezhennya and further treatment
786. Patient age in '37 was removed medial root of the tooth 36 and the distal root of the
tooth broke in the middle third. What tools should osuvaty deputy to remove root:
A. Direct elevator
B. The elevator at an angle to the left
C. * The elevator at an angle to the right
D. Beak pliers that do not agree
E. Dz obopodibni forceps converging
787.
A patient diagnosed with pericoronitis of tooth 38, a slight limitation of mouth
opening. Select the appropriate tools for anesthesia and tooth extraction:
A. Torusalna aneste Zia, straight and corner elevator
B. * Torusalna anesthesia, direct elevator, forceps, curved in the plane
C. Mandibular anesthesia, direct elevator
D. Anesthesia for Bershe oak, live elevator, horizontal forceps
E. Mandibular anesthesia, beak pliers with spikes on the cheeks.
788.
In surgical dental office asked the patient complained for the b roots destroyed 37
tooth. What tools can be used to remove the roots of the tooth 37?
A. * Beak pliers, converging, side elevators
B. Beak pliers that do not converge, direct elevator
C. Pinch bend those in the plane, side elevators
D. Bayonet forceps such, direct elevator
E. S-shaped soup ptsi, forward and side elevators
789. Patients aged 24 years lasya will turn to a dentist with complaints gamut of pain in
the tooth 26. After physical examination diagnosed exacerbation of chronic periodontitis
tooth 26. When you delete a hosted coronal tooth fracture. During the subsequent
manipulation using bahnetopodibnyh forceps to remove the tooth root failed.
Manipulation should be carried hiru RSU to remove the tooth root:
A. Apply elevator Leklyuza
B. Refer the patient to the hospital
C. * Disconnect the roots using a drill and fisurnoho boron
D. End of the tooth removed next visit
E. Apply corner elevator
790.
Patient age '57 asked the doctor to remove 34 teeth with exacerbation of chronic
periodontitis. Select a tool to remove this tooth as:
A. * Beak soup ptsi with cheeks that do not agree
B. Beak pliers with cheeks converging
C. Beak pliers, bent on a plane
D. Direct elevator
E. Lateral Elevators
791.
Patient aged 70 complains of tooth mobility 21. Tooth previously treated. 21 tooth
rolling (II degree), bare root of 1/2. Which tool you must use rystaty to remove 21 teeth:
A. Bahnetopodibni forceps
B. S-shaped forceps
C. * Straight Forceps
D. Direct elevator
E. Beak pliers
792. The patient was to receive 2 days after removal of tooth 37. In the area of tooth 37
cells observed inflammation (pain, soft tissue swelling, redness of the mucous membrane,
increasing pain, and regional lymph nodes). On radiographs in the lateral projection
celebrated piece of the root of the tooth in a cell that was removed. Did shown in term of
surgical intervention to remove the wreckage I root:
A. Unnecessary surgical Tue ruchannya as a fragment root arbitrarily vyshto
vhnetsya granulation tissue
B. After 7-10 days for formation not LTER inflammation
C. * Chip should be removed as soon as possible
D. After 2 months, when there are much atrophied bone fragment
E. Conduct atypical remova I root under general anesthesia
793. A patient aged 20 years had sought to dental surgeon to remove the roots of the tooth
47. Concomitant diseases - hemophilia. In some circumstances the need to spend but the
removal of 47 teeth:
A. In a hospital with doope-ratsiynoyu training
B. In the hospital
C. Conditions do not matter
D. In the outpatient setting
E. * In terms of hospital hematology preoperative preparation and postoperative
observation
794.
A patient of 26 years had sought medical attention for removal of tooth 24 with
exacerbation of chronic periodontitis. 24 The crown of the tooth is not destroyed. Select a
tool to remove tion of tooth:
A. Straight Forceps
B. * S-like spike on the left schichtsi
C. S-shaped with a spike on the right schichtsi
D. S-shaped without thorns
E. Direct elevator
795.
Patient aged 30 asked the doctor to remove 26 teeth with exacerbation of chronic
periodontitis. 26 The crown of the tooth is destroyed. Select soup ptsi to remove this
tooth:
A. S-shaped without thorns
B. * S-like spike on the right schichtsi
C. Straight Forceps
D. Bahnetopodibni forceps
E. S-shaped spike on the left shichtsi
796. Patient aged 30 turned to the clinic on the removal of tooth 16. While there was a gap
tooth extraction alveolar ridge mucosa, accompanied by significant bleeding. Indicate the
most appropriate way to cessation of bleeding in this case:
A. Tamponade hemostatic sponge
B. Longing tamponade gauze pad
C. * Suturing wounds
D. Gauze tamponade Tampa the hold of aminocaproic acid
E. Parenteral administration is hemostatic means
797.
Patients aged 33 years applied to the dental clinic for the purpose of rehabilitation.
According to the testimony he needed to remove the 37 tooth. Select tricks tooth
extraction forceps, which should Appl atm while removing 37 teeth:
A. Overlay, promotion, vyhytuvannya inside and out, traction
B. Overlay, promotion, closing, vyhytuvannya outside and inside of, traction
C. Overlay, closing, vyhytuvannya inside and out, traction
D. Overlay, promotion, closing, vyhytuvannya inside and out, traction
E. * Overlay, promotion, closing, lyuksatsiya, rotation, traction.
798.
Patient age '35 NUVD Appeals for the removal of 14 teeth with water period of
exacerbation of chronic donhytu ineffective after a therapeutic treatment. Select ny inst
umentariy necessary to remove 14 teeth:
A. S-shaped curling right
B. Bahaetopodibni crowns forceps
C. * S-like forceps
D. Straight Forceps
E. Bahaetopodibni root forceps.
799. Patients aged 42 years appealed to the clinic dental surgery to remove the tooth in the
upper jaw. Patients showed 25 tooth removal under local anesthesia. Where should the
doctor be in relation to the patient during removal of the tooth:
A. Ahead and to the left of the patient
B. Ahead of the patient
C. * Ahead and to the right of the patient
D. Behind and to the right of the patient
E. Behind and to the left of the patient
800. Patient age '45 asked to remove 13 teeth. What tools should be used to remove the 13
tooth:
A. * Straight Forceps
B. S-shaped curling right
C. Bahnetopodibni forceps
D. Direct elevator
E. S-shaped forceps
801.
Patient age '45 asked the doctor to remove 13 teeth. Select a tool to remove the
tooth:
A. S-shaped forceps
B. S-shaped curling right
C. Bahnetopodibni forceps
D. Direct elevator
E. * Straight Forceps
802.
Patient age in '47 after ineffective treatment in a dental therapist chronic
granulomatous periodontitis tooth 15 was to remove it. What type of forceps advisable to
remove ati Use of this tooth:
A. Direct
B. S-shaped law
C. * S-like
D. S-shaped left
E. Bayonet
803.
Patient age '48 complains of persistent pain in the tooth 28. Sick 3 days. 28 The
crown of the tooth is destroyed. Select forceps, with which you can remove the tooth root
28:
A. Forceps for eight upper teeth
B. Beak pliers
C. Straight Forceps
D. S-shaped forceps
E. * Bayonet forceps.
804.
Patient age '48 complains of persistent pain in the tooth 28. Sick 3 days. 28 The
crown of the tooth is destroyed. What tools should be used to remove the tooth root 28:
A. Straight Forceps
B. Beak pliers
C. * Bayonet forceps
D. S-shaped forceps
E. Forceps for eight upper teeth
805.
Patients showed removal of 38 teeth. The doctor is in front and to the left of the
patient puts on the crown 38 tooth forceps, curved in the plane, and after lyuksatsiynyh
movements holds traction teeth. At the same time there was a complication - the gap Band
mucosa forms of language side. What is the origin of n rychyna complications:
A. Potrib but had to spend rotational movements
B. Improper lyuksatsiyni movements
C. Improper phase and overlap and fixation forceps
D. No stage fixation forceps
E. * Improper blending stages, promotion and fixation forceps
806. Patient aged 25 years to 26 to remove the tooth. Which tool should I have to remove:
A. Forceps S-shaped law
B. * Circling S-shaped left
C. Bayonet forceps (bahnetopodibni)
D. Circling direct root
E. Direct elevator
807.
Patient aged 25 years indicated removal of tooth 26. Diagnosed chronic fibrotic
periodontitis tooth 26. Coronal saved. Which tool should ati Use to remove this tooth:
A. Forceps S-shaped law
B. * Circling S-shaped left
C. Bayonet forceps (bahnetopodibni)
D. Circling direct root
E. Direct elevator
808.
Patients aged 43 years shows a surgery to remove the tooth 16. Select tricks tooth
extraction forceps that you want to apply the remover for 16 tooth:
A. Overlay, promotion, closing, lyuksatsiya, rotation, traction
B. Overlay, promotion, closing, vyhytuvan of outward and inward traction
C. Overlay, closing, vyhytuvannya inside and out, traction
D. Overlay, promotion, vyhytuvannya inside and out, traction
E. * Overlay, promotion, closing, vyhytuvan of inward and outward traction
809.
Patients aged 49 years pleksualnoyu anesthesia with vasoconstrictor Articaine
removed tooth on the upper jaw. After the operation is not overflowing with cell step fade
clot. How can you prevent wine yknennyu alveolitis in a patient:
A. Rinse the cell solution mikrotsydu
B. Fill the cell hemostatic sponge
C. * Loosely fill the cell yodoformnym swab
D. Rinse coma CCU 0.1% chlorhexidine
E. Fill Cell antibiotic powder
810.
Patients showed removal of 36 teeth. Where should be the doctor:
A. Behind and in the center of the patient
B. And left behind by the patient
C. Front and left side of the patient
D. * Front and right side of the patient
E. With the right and slightly behind the patient
811.
Patients showed Delete tion of root of tooth 36. OBJECTIVE: crown 36 tooth
missing, medial root removed. The distal root is deep in the closet. Select a tool to be
removed of the distal root of tooth 36:
A. Beak root soup ptsi
B. Elevator Leklyuza
C. Corner elevator "over"
D. Direct elevator
E. * Corner Elevator "by itself"
812.
The dental surgeon put the forceps cheeks on the crown of the tooth 17, which had a
thin walls for closing the forceps appeared fractured crown. Used direct elevator with
vestibular introduced by focusing on tooth 16. At the same time there was a separation of
tubercle of the upper jaw with 17 and 18 teeth. What further tactics doctor:
A. * Vidsharuvaty mucous oxide flap, remove the piece from the 17, 18 teeth and
take in the mucosa
B. Produce tire-mouthguard in the upper jaw, assign UHF
C. To carry out X-rays and electroodontodiagnosis fix teeth with 17.18 tires
D. Process mouth antiseptics and wait for wound healing
E. Remove a piece of 17, 18 teeth and Tampa as designed wound
813.
The dental surgeon during vydalyennya 38 tooth used Leklyuza elevator. Once
cheek elevator was put between 37 and 38 teeth and carried attempt to dislocate 38 tooth,
there malocclusion. What is the most likely complication can fault Whips:
A. Fracture of alveolar bone of the mandible
B. * Fracture of the mandible in the region of the angle
C. Part 37 tooth dislocation
D. Anterior dislocation of the mandible
E. Posterior dislocation of the mandible
814.
A boy aged 6 years dental therapist aims to remove the tooth 51 on physiological
motion. What tools are needed at use in this case:
A. * Straight Forceps
B. Direct elevator
C. Corner elevator
D. Forceps, curved in the plane
E. Beak soup ptsi with cheeks that do not agree
815. Boy aged 6 years therapeutic Tue dentist sent to surgical removal of 51 hectares for
the tooth on its physiological motion. What tools are needed at use in this case:
A. Forceps, curved in the plane
B. * Direct elevator
C. Corner elevator
D. Straight Forceps
E. Beak soup ptsi with cheeks that do not agree
816. After 3 h after removal of tooth 45, the patient began bleeding from the cell. During
the review revealed a gap in the area of gum tissue cells 45 tooth that goes to the mucous
membrane of the cheeks. What tactics doctor ent case,:
A. Tamponade cell catgut
B. * Tamponade cell yodoformnoyu turundas
C. Zdavlyuvalna dressing and parenteral administration of aminocaproic acid
D. Closure of the wound and cheek cell
E. Tamponade cells and wound swab with aminocaproic acid
817. A man aged 25 Appeals NUVD to the clinic on the removal of 18 tooth crown which
is destroyed by 1/2. Tooth still neodnora zovo treated. When removing a tooth held the
lead for the hill maxilla. What actions are right here:
A. * Wreck removal and suturing wounds
B. Trying to put a piece into place
C. Setting fragment on staree place and fix it
D. Wreck removal
E. Delete tion of debris and plugging the wound
818. The man turned to the clinic on the removal of 17 teeth. When tooth extraction is one
of the roots hit the maxillary sinus. What is the doctor's tactics in this situation:
A. Do not start any action
B. * X-ray screening and referral of the patient to the hospital
C. Removal of root perforation through hole formed
D. The operation haymorotomiyi
E. In shyvannya cell tooth extraction
Тести до рисунків
1. On Рис. Fig. 1 is shown the X-ray of the mandible. What is reflected on it?
A. Fracture of mandible
B. Separation of alveolar ridge
C. impacted tooth
D. fracture of the root of the tooth
E. * Tooth fracture in the region of the mandible
2. On Рис. Fig. 1 is shown the X-ray of the mandible. Depending on the term of receiving
injury it is?
A. * Fresh fracture
B. Obsolete fracture
C. Incorrect consolidating
D. Not consolidating fracture
E. offset fragments
3. On Рис. Fig. 1 is shown the X-ray of the mandible. In which plane is displacement of
fragments at median mandibular fractures?
A. sagittal
B. * Front
C. transversal
D. sagittal and transversal
E. transversal ifrontalniy
4. On Рис. Fig. 1 is shown the X-ray of the mandible. What is splinting?
A. Immobilization of injured areas of the body by means of special devices and
accessories
B. Prevention of damage to parts of the tooth
C. bandaging of the damaged parts of the body
D. Removal of foreign bodies in the area of the fracture
E. * All answers are correct
5. On Рис. Fig. 2 is shown the manifestations of HIV infection in the oral cavity. What is
it?
A. * Human Immunodeficiency Virus
B. The virus herpes zoster
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. The influenza virus
E. anthrax virus
6. On Рис. Fig. 2 is shown the manifestations of HIV infection in the oral cavity. How
many clinical stages of HIV infection classifies WHO?
A. * 4
B. 2
C. 6
D. 3
E. 5
7. On Рис. Fig. 2 is shown the manifestations of HIV infection in the oral cavity. What
stage of the clinical course is AIDS?
A. * The final
B. intermediate
C. The initial
D. the median
E. None.
8. On Рис. Fig. 2 is shown the manifestations of HIV infection in the oral cavity. Who is at
risk of HIV transmission?
A. JAN
B. MSM
C. Children of HIV-infected mothers
D. Recipients of blood
E. * All answers are correct
9. On Рис. Fig. 3 is shown the the operating. At what minimum distance should be placed
oxygen tanks from heating?
A. 0.5m.
B. * 1m.
C. 1.5m.
D. 2m.
E. 2.5m.
10.On Рис. Fig. 3 is shown the operating. What is the minimum space it needs to be?
A. 14m2.
B. 17m2.
C. * 20m2.
D. 23m2.
E. 25m2.
11.14. On Рис. Fig. 3 is shown the operating. What should be the illumination of the
operating field?
A. * 3000 10000lk.
B. 15000-20000lk.
C. 200 300lk.
D. 950 2500lk.
E. 37000lk.
12.On Рис. Fig. 3 is shown the operating. What should be the minimum height of the air
intake?
A. 1m.
B. 2m.
C. * 2.5m.
D. 3m.
E. 3.5m.
13.On Рис. Fig. 4 is shown the osteomyelitis. How osteomyelitis is classified according to
the ways of infection :
A. Hematogenous
B. Not hematogenous (secondary)
C. postoperative (including bullet )
D. Osteomyelitis that occurs during inflammation spread to the bone from
surrounding tissues or organs
E. * All answers are correct
14.On Рис. Fig. 4 is shown the osteomyelitis. How is classified odontogenic osteomyelitis
based on clinical forms:
A. The form of inflammation
B. Localization
C. * As the prevalence
D. During the clinical course
E. All the answers are correct
15.On Рис. Fig. 4 is shown the osteomyelitis. Classification of osteomyelitis of the jaws,
depending on the prevalence of are:
A. * limited, focal and diffuse (diffuse)
B. Acute, chronic
C. Upper, lower jaw
D. Focal and chronic
E. Limited and acute
16.On Рис. Fig. 4 is shown the osteomyelitis. How is classified osteomyelitis, depending
on the course?
A. * Acute, subacute, chronic
B. Acute, chronic
C. Restricted, chronic
D. focal, acute
E. Subacute, chronic
17. On Рис. Fig. 5 is shown the plastic by tissues. Who is the founder of the local plastic by
counter triangular patches:
A. * Limberg
B. Filatov
C. Evdokimov
D. Szymanowski
E. Vasiliev
18.22. On Рис. Fig. 5 is shown the plastic fabrics. On how many groups is divided the
techniques of mobilization of the wound edges around the defect:
A. * 3
B. 5
C. 2
D. 4
E. 6
19.On Рис. Fig. 5 is shown the tissue plastic. What are the principles of planning plastic
surgery:
A. Analysis of the injury
B. Assess the psychological state of the patient
C. Select the most efficient way of plastic operation
D. Choose the type of anesthesia
E. * All answers are correct
20.On Рис. Fig. 5 is shown the tissue plastic. What is the coefficient of growth of tissue in
the direction of the middle section at symmetric triangular flaps with angles 30x30:
A. * 25%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 70%
E. 75%
21.On Рис. Fig. 6 is shown a neurofibromatosis. What pathomorphism at microscopic
increase of neurofibromatosis?
A. * Elements of nerve fibers with a combination of fibrous tissue
B. Bone tissue
C. plasma
D. Muscle fibers fusiform
E. Fatty composed of fibrous tissue
22.On Рис. Fig. 6 is shown neurofibromatosis. How many forms of neurofibromas is
classified?
A. * 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
23.On Рис. Fig. 6 is shown neurofibromatosis. What treatment of neurofibroma?
A. * Surgery
B. Drug
C. Observations
D. Cryodestruction
E. Chemotherapy
24.On Рис. Fig. 6 is shown neurofibromatosis. From which tissue is formed neurofibroma?
A. * from peripheral nerve
B. From lymphatic tissue
C. From bone
D. From muscle tissue
E. From cartilage
25.On Рис. Fig. 7 is shown operative intervention on mucosal strand. Operation removing
of which mucus strand is shown in Figure 7?
A. * Upper lip
B. lower lip
C. Cheeks
D. tongue
E. palate
26.On Рис. Fig. 7 is shown surgery on mucosal strand. What strands of mucus in the oral
cavity do you know?
A. * Upper lip, lower lip, cheeks, tongue
B. cheeks, tongue
C. lips, tongue
D. palate, tongue
E. maxilla
27.On Рис. Fig. 7 is shown operative intervention on mucosal strand. Under which
anesthesia this operation is performed?
A. * Application, infiltration
B. conduction
C. General anesthesia
D. Mask anesthesia
E. intravenous anesthesia
28.On Рис. Fig. 7 is shown operative intervention on mucosal strand. What is the type of
surgical intervention?
A. * Frenuloectomy
B. Cystectomy
C. cystotomy
D. Tooth extraction
E. Resection of root apex
29.On Рис. Fig. 8 is shown a patient with colloidal scar. What is the tactics of the doctor at
large colloidal scars?
A. * Surgical scar removal
B. Cryodestruction scar
C. Chemotherapy scar
D. Irradiation scar
E. Applications medication
30.On Рис. Fig. 8 is shown a patient with colloidal scar. Thickness of the skin of
maxillofacial area on average equal to:
A. 0,5 mm
B. * 1 mm
C. 2 mm
D. 3mm
E. 4 mm
31.On Рис. Fig. 8 is shown a patient with colloidal scar. As a result of what is formed
colloid scar?
A. * After burns and surgery
B. After tuberculosis
C. After removal of teeth
D. After slaughter
E. After inflammatory disease
32.On Рис. Fig. 8 is shown a patient with colloidal scar. In which anatomical area it is
located?
A. * nasolabial folds
B. Line Klein
C. zygomatic
D. under the eye
E. submental
33.On Рис. Fig. 9 is shown ameloblastoma in the area of mandible. By what is presented
soft odontoma at microscopic increasing?
A. * strands of odontogenic epithelium
B. vascular branching
C. loose connective tissue
D. lymphatic tissue
E. epithelium of the epidermis
34.On Рис. Fig. 9 is shown a ameloblastoma in the area of mandible. What is a key aspect
in the diagnosis of ameloblastoma?
A. * X-ray
B. Sialogram
C. EDI
D. Percussion
E. palpation
45. On Рис. Fig. 9 is shown ameloblastoma in the area of mandible. What tactics of
doctor at ameloblastoma?
A. * Radical removal within healthy tissue
B. shelling out
C. Chemotherapy
D. Medical Therapy
E. Observations
35. On Рис. Fig. 9 is shown ameloblastoma in the area of mandible.What form of growth of
this disease?
A. * destructive and infiltrative
B. Infiltrative
C. destructive
D. Not differentiated
E. Necrosis of foci
46. On Рис. Fig. 10 is shown tuberculoses affection of lymph nodes. With what diseases
conduct differential diagnostics of tuberculosis?
A. * From lymphogranulomatosis and syphilis
B. caries and periodontitis
C. With osteomyelitis
D. From abscesses
E. With phlegmon
47. On Рис. Fig. 10 is shown tuberculosis affection of lymph nodes. How clinically
manifests tuberculous lymphadenitis?
A. * Gradually increase lymph nodes
B. pain in the tooth
C. pain in the lower jaw
D. Pain in the face
E. Pain in the region of the upper jaw
36.On Рис. Fig. 10 is shown tuberculoses affection of lymph nodes. What forms of
tuberculous lesions appears in dentistry?
A. Tuberculous chancre
B. Tuberculous lupus
C. tuberculosis
D. warty tuberculosis
E. * All forms
37.On Рис. Fig. 10 is shown tuberculoses affection of lymph nodes. What is the causative
agent of the disease?
A. * Mycobacterium
B. Staphylococcus
C. Streptococcus
D. Lactobacilli
E. pallidum
38.On Рис. Fig. 11 is shown the cancer of the lower lip, which form of cancer it is?
A. exophytic
B. Infiltrative
C. Stomach
D. * ulcerative-infiltrative
E. Mixed
39.On Рис. Fig. 11 is shown the cancer of the lower lip by which international
classification is made determination of degree of cancer spread?
A. * TNM
B. ABC
C. NDT
D. TNP
E. MNT
40.On Рис. Fig. 11 is shown the lower lip cancer What treatment is prescribed for cancer
of the lower lip?
A. * Combination
B. Radiotherapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Surgical
E. medicamental
41.On Рис. Fig. 11 is shown the cancer of the lower lip. How many forms of squamous cell
carcinoma is most common?
A. * 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
E. 1
42. On Рис. Fig. 12 is shown the stages of the operation. What surgery is shown in Figure
12?
A. * root apex resection
B. Amputation root
C. Hemisection root
D. Removal of root
E. Atypical tooth extraction
43.On Рис. Fig. 12 is shown the stages of the operation. What is the indication for this
surgery?
A. * radicular cyst
B. Follicular cyst
C. Fisuralni cysts
D. epidermoid cysts
E. nasal alveolar cyst
44.On Рис. Fig. 12 is shown the stages of the operation of resection of the root apex. What
is a priority at diagnosis of cyst?
A. * X-ray
B. EDI
C. Percussion
D. Palpation
E. The presence of fluid
45.On Рис. Fig. 12 is shown the stages of the operation of resection of the root apex. With
which epithelium is lined shell of radicular cyst?
A. * stratified squamous epithelium without complete ceratonisation
B. stratified squamous epithelium with complete ceratonization
C. cubical epithelium
D. The cylindrical epithelium
E. Mixed epithelium
46.On Рис. Fig. 13 is shown the anatomical spaces of maxillofacial area. What space is
shown under number 12?
A. submandibular
B. pterygoid-mandibular
C. Temporal
D. * Submental
E. hyoid
47.On Рис. Fig. 13 is shown the anatomical spaces of maxillofacial area. What space is
shown under number 1?
A. submandibular
B. pterygoid-mandibular
C. * Temporal
D. Submental
E. hyoid
48.On Рис. Fig. 13 is shown the anatomical spaces of maxillofacial area. What space is
shown under number 10?
A. * submandibular
B. pterygoid-mandibular
C. Temporal
D. Submental
E. hyoid
49.On Рис. Fig. 13 is shown the anatomical spaces of maxillofacial area. What is the
etiology of origin of temporal area phlegmon?
A. Secondary spread through purulent process of infratemporal fossa
B. Primarily from the front group of teeth of the upper jaw
C. Secondary spread through suppurative process in the buccal area
D. * Secondary spread through purulent process of infratemporal and
pterygopalatine fossa
E. Primary after tuberal anesthesia
50.On Рис. Fig. 14 is shown the cyst. How is it called?
A. * radicular
B. Follicular
C. epidermoid
D. Subperiostal
E. Paradentalna
51.On Рис. Fig. 14 is shown the cyst. With what epithelium is lined shell of the cyst?
A. cubical epithelium
B. epithelium
C. ciliated epithelium
D. Mixed epithelium
E. * stratified squamous epithelium without its full ceratonization
52.On Рис. Fig. 14 is shown the cyst. What cysts of the jaws can be apical?
A. * radicular
B. Follicular
C. Paradental
D. epidermoid
E. nasolabial
53.On Рис. Fig. 14 is shown the cyst. What cysts of the jaws may be residual?
A. * radicular
B. Follicular
C. Paradental
D. epidermoid
E. spherical-maxillary
54.On Рис. Fig. 15 is shown the surgery, which operative intervention is shown on Figure
15?
A. * Atypical removal of third molars
B. Frenulotomy
C. Resection of root apex
D. Hemisection
E. Amputation
55.On Рис. Fig. 15 is shown the surgery. What is a dystopia of third molars?
A. * Location tooth beyond the alveolar process
B. Delayed timing of tooth eruption
C. retention
D. Tortoanomaly
E. protrusion
56.On Рис. Fig. 15 is shown the surgery. What is the retention of the tooth?
A. * Delay timing of tooth eruption, a well-formed
B. Location of the tooth outside the alveolar process
C. Tortoanomaly
D. protrusion
E. Divergence
57.On Рис. Fig. 15 is shown the surgery. What tools are used for such atypical removal of
the third molars?
A. * Direct tip chisel, elevator
B. Tongs
C. Direct elevator
D. Corner elevator
E. Volkmann spoon
58.On Рис. Fig. 16 is shown the anatomical location of the salivary glands. Which salivary
gland is shown under number 7?
A. * Parotid
B. submandibular
C. Sublingual
D. Jaw
E. palatine
59.On Рис. Fig. 16 is shown the anatomical location of the salivary glands. What research
method is used to detect abnormalities of the salivary glands?
A. * Sialography
B. Hnatodynamometry
C. Orthopantomography
D. Telerenthenography
E. Ultrasound
60.On Рис. Fig. 16 is shown the anatomical location of the salivary glands. Which salivary
gland is shown under number 6?
A. Parotid
B. * submandibular
C. Sublingual
D. Jaw
E. palatine
61.On Рис. Fig. 16 is shown the anatomical location of the salivary glands. How the
arterial blood supply is carried out under the mandible salivary gland, shown under
number 6?
A. The internal carotid artery
B. maxillary and facial arteries
C. * facial, tongue and submental arteries
D. Thyroid Artery
E. facial, tongue and thyroid arteries
62.On Рис. Fig. 17 is shown the patient with lymphadenitis. Give the definition of what it
is?
A. * Inflammation of the lymph node
B. osteitis
C. Inflammation pereapical tissues
D. Inflammation of the TMJ
E. Inflammation maxillary sinuses
63.On Рис. Fig. 17 is shown the patient with lymphadenitis. How this disease is classified?
A. Over the pathogenesis
B. Localization
C. According to etiology
D. According to the flow
E. * All answers are correct
64.On Рис. Fig. 17 is shown the patient with lymphadenitis. How this disease is classified
by the progress?
A. Sharp
B. Chronic
C. exacerbations of chronic
D. Atypical
E. * All answers are correct
65.On Рис. Fig. 17 is shown the patient with lymphadenitis. What is the cause of not
odontogenic lymphadenitis?
A. Tonsillitis
B. Rhinitis
C. Otitis
D. Furuncle
E. * All answers are correct
66.On Рис. Fig. 18 is shown the placement of the teeth in the jaw. What is shown in Figure
18?
A. Anterior dislocation of the TMJ
B. Fracture of alveolar process
C. Fracture of the mandible in the region of the angle
D. * Atypical position of the third molar
E. Ameloblastoma mandible
67.What position of third molar is shown on Рис. Fig. 18 under number 2?
A. Vertical
B. * Angular
C. Horizontal
D. Partially cut
E. Covered hooded mucosa
68.On Рис. Fig. 18 is shown the atypical location of the third molar. As the complications
during eruption may occur half moon undercut of Vasmunda? What is it and what
treatment strategy in relation to third molar in this case?
A. * Dissolving of bone without clear boundaries more than 2 mm, the tooth to be
removed
B. The hood formed only by soft tissue
C. Bone ossification formation
D. Bone malignant neoplasm
E. connective tissue tumors
69.On Рис. Fig. 18 is shown the atypical location of the third molar. What abnormal
position of the third molars are?
A. Vertical
B. Angular
C. Horizontal
D. Partially cut
E. All answers are correct
70.On Рис. Fig. 19 is shown the cyst. What kind of cyst shown in Figure?
A. * Follicular cyst
B. radicular cyst
C. nasopalatine cyst
D. nasoalveolar cyst
E. Paradental cyst
71.On Рис. Fig. 19 is shown the cyst. Where it is formed?
A. At the apex of the tooth root
B. * Around crown of tooth that didn't yet erupted
C. In the lateral area of the crown
D. Around tooth
E. In the area of the neck of the tooth
72.On Рис. Fig. 19 is shown the bone. At what stage of development of the tooth can be
formed cyst?
A. In the embryo plastic
B. In odontoplastic
C. In the period of coronary
D. Complete follicle formation
E. * on any stage
73.On Рис. Fig. 19 is shown the bone. What treatment is indicated in a follicular cyst?
A. * Surgery
B. Medication
C. Observations
D. Irradiation
E. Chemotherapy
74.On Рис. Fig. 20 is shown the patient with ankylosis. What is it?
A. Sustained limitation of movement in the joint
B. * The lack of movement in the joint
C. The pain that periodically appears and limitation of movement in the joint
D. Inflammation of the TMJ
E. degenerative and inflammatory TMJ contracture
75.On Рис. Fig. 20 is shown the patient with ankylosis. Ankylosis can be?
A. Only intra
B. * Intra-and extra-articular
C. Only extra-articular
D. Acute and chronic
E. Bone and fibrous
76.On Рис. Fig. 20 is shown the patient with ankylosis. Intra-auricular ankylosis can be?
A. Only fibrotic
B. Only the bone
C. Only acute
D. * fibrous and bone
E. Acute and chronic
77.On Рис. Fig. 20 is shown the patient with ankylosis. Extra-articular ankylosis can be?
A. Only fibrotic
B. * Only bone
C. Only acute
D. fibrous and bone
E. Acute and chronic
78.On Рис. Fig. 21 is shown the the injured after injury of the maxillofacial area. What
kind of wound has the patient?
A. Slaughter
B. laceration
C. stab
D. sliver
E. * gunshot wound
79.On Рис. Fig. 21 is shown the victim after a gunshot wound. The peculiarity of this
injury include:
A. The presence of primary wound channel;
B. Availability of primary tissue necrosis;
C. Availability of commotion Zone;
D. * Availability of primary wound channel zones of primary and secondary
necrosis
E. The presence of primary wound channel and zone commotion
80.On Рис. Fig. 21 is shown the injured after gunshot wound in maxillofacial area. In
which area at a gunshot wound is the reduction, but incomplete loss of vital functions of
soft tissue?
A. * In the area of secondary necrosis
B. In the area of primary necrosis
C. In the area of the wound channel
D. In the area surrounding tissues
E. In the area of tertiary necrosis
81.On Рис. Fig. 21 is shown the injured after a gunshot wound in maxillofacial area. What
method of prevention of wound infection in gunshot wound?
A. * Early surgical treatment
B. Delayed surgical treatment
C. Washing the wound with antiseptic solutions
D. Appointment of antibacterial agents
E. Assigning desensitizing means
82.On Рис. Fig. 22 is shown the fracture of the body of the mandible. Which tooth can be
temporarily not removed from the line of fracture?
A. With fractured roots
B. If the tooth is completely dislocate from the hole but its integrity is preserved
C. * intact tooth needed to hold the fragment in the correct position
D. Retained tooth, which prevents proper comparison of jaw fragments
E. A tooth that supports inflammation
83.On Рис. Fig. 22 is shown the fracture of the body of the mandible. For how long can be
conducted temporary immobilization of fragments of the jaw?
A. No more than 1-2 hours.
B. * Not more than a few hours, sometimes up to 1 day
C. No more than 2-3 days
D. No more than 1-2 weeks
E. No more than 30 minutes
84.On Рис. Fig. 22 is shown the fracture of the body of the mandible. In bilateral fractures
of the mandible in area of the body, angles, branches and coronal processus middle
fragment stays:
A. Unchanged
B. * sinks and moves backwards
C. sinks and moves anteriorly
D. Rises down and moves backwards
E. rises up and moves anteriorly
85.On Рис. Fig. 22 is shown the fracture of the body of the mandible. The doctor decided
to conduct osteosynthesis. What is fixing means for surgical method of connecting bone
fragments and elimination of their mobility?
A. Metal wires for bone sutures and intraossal needles
B. Metal intraossal needles
C. Titanium mini plates
D. Metal wires for bone sutures and titanium mini plates
E. * Metal wire for bone joints, intraossal spokes and titanium mini plates
86.On Рис. Fig. 23 is shown the phlegmon of buccal area. Where is located superficial
abscesses and phlegmons of buccal area?
A. * Between aponeurosis Jaw and Jaw muscle
B. Between the submucosal layer and cheek muscles
C. Between Jaw aponeurosis and submucosal layer
D. Between the submucosal layer and buccal aponeurosis
E. between skin and submucosal layer
87.On Рис. Fig. 23 is shown the phlegmon of buccal area. Where is located deep abscess
and phlegmon of buccal area?
A. * Between the submucosal layer and buccal muscles
B. Between Jaw aponeurosis and submucosal layer
C. Between Jaw aponeurosis and buccal muscle
D. Between the submucosal layer and buccal aponeurosis
E. between skin and submucosal layer
88.On Рис. Fig. 23 is shown the phlegmon of buccal area. What is the first priority in
treating phlegmon?
A. * Opening and drainage of purulent focus
B. Applications by Dimexidum
C. UHF therapy
D. microwave therapy
E. Electrophoresis iodine
89.On Рис. Fig. 23 is shown the phlegmon of buccal area. What is the rational treatment
for this disease?
A. * Surgical and medical
B. Medication
C. Surgical
D. UHF therapy
E. microwave therapy
90.On Рис. Fig. 24 is shown the osteomyelitis in the acute stage. By what are classified
clinical forms of odontogenic ostemiyelitis?
A. The form of inflammation
B. Localization
C. As the prevalence
D. During the clinical course
E. * All answers are correct
91.On Рис. Fig. 24 is shown the osteomyelitis in the acute stage. What pathomorphological
changes in odontogenic osteomyelitis of the jaws are characteristic?
A. Small and large pockets of purulent infiltration of the bone marrow
B. thrombosis
C. purulent fusion of vessels
D. Areas of hemorrhage
E. * All answers are correct
92.On Рис. Fig. 24 is shown the osteomyelitis in the acute stage. What is osteomyelitis?
A. * Infectious-allergic purulent-necrotic process
B. Infectious-allergic process
C. Necrotizing process
D. The purulent process
E. infectious process
93.On Рис. Fig. 24 is shown the osteomyelitis in the acute stage. How long lasts subacute
stage of osteomyelitis?
A. * About 2 weeks
B. About 2 months
C. About 6 weeks
D. Approximately 7 weeks
E. about 9 weeks
94.On Рис. Fig. 25 is shown the patient after opening of phlegmon of the mouth floor with
the localization of inflammation in the left submandibular area and sublingual area.
Which operative access at submundibular phlegmon is used.
A. intraoral
B. collarshaped
C. In the submandibular area
D. In the area of large molar teeth
E. intraoral linear
95.On Рис. Fig. 25 is shown the patient after opening of phlegmon of the mouth floor with
the localization of inflammation in the left submandibular area and sublingual area.
What are the clinical features of odontogenic submandibular phlegmon?
A. High body temperature after hypothermia, pain when swallowing, sharp
restriction of mouth opening
B. * presence of destroyed large molar tooth on the lower jaw, skin hyperemia,
swelling, pain and swelling of the soft tissues of the submandibular area
C. The general condition unchanged
D. presence of destroyed large molar tooth on the lower jaw, skin hyperemia,
swelling
E. All answers are correct
96.On Рис. Fig. 25 is shown the patient after opening of phlegmon of the mouth floor with
the localization of inflammation in the left submandibular area and sublingual area. Why
occurs dehydration at phlegmon of the mouth floor
A. Due to increase in urine output
B. As a result of kidney failure
C. As a result of electrolyte imbalance
D. * Failure to drink fluid through a sharp swelling and pain in the tongue and of
the mouth floor
E. No correct answer
97.On Рис. Fig. 25 is shown the patient after opening of phlegmon of the mouth floor with
the localization of inflammation in the left submandibular area and sublingual area.
What complications can occur at a given phlegmon
A. Sepsis
B. mediastenit
C. Brain abscess
D. Thrombosis venous sinuses of the face and brain
E. * All answers are correct
98.On Рис. Fig. 26 is shownthe patients with chronic osteomyelitis, sequestrectomy. What
pathomorphological changes are observed at odontogenic osteomyelitis?
A. Inflammation and periodontal destruction;
B. The inflammation and destruction of periodontal suppurative inflammation in
the periosteum;
C. Purulent infiltration of the bone marrow thrombosis;
D. * Purulent infiltration of the bone marrow, thrombosis, blood clots purulent
fusion, areas of hemorrhage and osteonecrosis;
E. inflammatory processes in the jaw and surrounding tissues.
99.On Рис. Fig. 26 is shownthe patients with chronic osteomyelitis, sequestrectomy.
Osteomyelitis of the mandible, in contrast to similar lesions of the upper jaw, is
characterized by:
A. A slight leakage, less frequent and varied complications, small sequestration;
B. * heavier flow, more frequent and varied complications, extensive sequestration.
C. A similar occurrence in both jaws.
D. Easier flow, more frequent complications, absence of sequestration.
E. heavier flow, less frequent complications, small sequesters
100. On Рис. Fig. 26 is shownthe patients with chronic osteomyelitis, sequestrectomy. On
character of the clinical flow osteomyelitis is:
A. * Acute, subacute, chronic and pointed;
B. Restricted, focal and diffuse;
C. Light, moderate and severe form;
D. lytic and sequestral form;
E. abscess, destructive and hyperostosis.
101. On Рис. Fig. 26 is shownthe patients with chronic osteomyelitis, sequestrectomy. Does
acute odontogenic osteomyelitis always ends with sequestration, that becomes chronic
form?
A. Not always ends with sequestration;
B. Always ends with sequestration;
C. * May not end with sequestration only when the first days of illness (1-2 days)
conducted pathogenetic treatment.
D. Chronic osteomyelitis has no sequestration;
E. Can not end with sequestration only when in the early days of the disease was
carried physiotherapy
102. On Рис. Fig. 27 is shownthe dislocation of the mandible. What is a dislocation?
A. * The steady displacement of the articular head beyond its physiological
mobility
B. bone defect within the tooth
C. Consolidation of the fracture
D. Inflammatory complications in bone
E. neurotrophic disorders
103. On Рис. Fig. 27 is shownthe dislocation of the mandible. Name the classification of
TMJ dislocation depending on the relationship of the articular surfaces?
A. Full
B. Incomplete
C. Fracture-dislocation
D. Subluxation
E. * All answers are correct
104. On Рис. Fig. 27 is shownthe dislocation of the mandible. What methods of reposition
do you know?
A. Hippocrates
B. H.L.Blehmana
C. H.H.Mytrofanova
D. O.O.Tymofeyeva
E. * All answers are correct
105. On Рис. Fig. 27 is shownthe dislocation of the mandible. Where shifts articular head at
anterior dislocation?
A. * The front slope of the articular tubercle
B. Between the bony part of the external auditory canal and mastoid process
C. Articular head moves in or out
D. In front of the mastoid process of the temporal bone
E. All answers are correct
106. On Рис. Fig. 28 is shownthe patient with phlegmon of the orbit on the left. What are
the clinical signs of phlegmon of the orbit?
A. * Diplopia, proptosis, lid edema, pain when pressing on the eyeball, loss of
vision;
B. Diplopia, proptosis, lid edema;
C. fistula moves in the region of the angle of the eye, the presence of purulent nasal
discharge;
D. Presence of purulent nasal discharge;
E. Pain when pressing on the eyeball, reduced vision.
107. On Рис. Fig. 28 is shownthe patient with phlegmon of the orbit on the left. Where is
made the operative approach at phlegmon of the orbit?
A. submandibular incision
B. At the inner edge of the orbit
C. At the lower and upper edge of the orbit
D. Access through the maxillary sinus
E. * In the lower and the upper edge of the orbit, accessed via the maxillary sinus
108. On Рис. Fig. 28 is shownthe patient with phlegmon of the orbit on the left. Which teeth
can cause the development of this complication?
A. Canines of the upper jaw
B. maxillary premolars
C. * Canines and premolars of the upper jaw
D. The first molars of the upper jaw
E. The second and third molars of the upper jaw
109. On Рис. Fig. 28 is shownthe patient with phlegmon of the orbit on the left. One of the
clinical symptoms of the disease - hemoz. Give the definition.
A. Swelling of the eyelid conjunctiva
B. * Swelling of eyelids conjunctiva, its hyperemia
C. Swelling of the eyelids conjunctiva, overemphasizing the eyeball
D. overemphasizing the eyeball
E. Infiltration of eyelids
110. On Рис. Fig. 29 is showna hemangioma. From what tissue it develops?
A. From blood vessels
B. From the lymphoid tissue
C. From the nervous tissue
D. From the fibrous tissue
E. * All answers are correct
111. On Рис. Fig. 29 is showna hemangioma. From which tissue develops chylangioma?
A. * From the lymphoid tissue
B. From the nervous tissue
C. with fibrous tissue
D. From the cartilage
E. From the bone
112. On Рис. Fig. 29 is showna hemangioma. From which tissue develops
neuroangiofibroma?
A. * From the nervous and fibrous tissue
B. From the nervous tissue
C. From fibrous tissue
D. From the cartilage
E. From the bone
113. On Рис. Fig. 29 is showna hemangioma. From which tissue growing
hemangiofibroma?
A. From the nervous tissue
B. * From fibrous tissue and blood
C. From the cartilage
D. From the bone
E. From the blood tissue
114. On Рис. Fig. 30 is shown the patients with lateral cyst of neck on the right. What is a
synonym for this disease?
A. Dermoid
B. Epidermoid
C. Cystic teratoma
D. * Bronhiogenic cyst
E. tyreoglossal cyst
115. On Рис. Fig. 30 is shown the patients with lateral cyst of neck on the right. To which
tumor formations relates this cyst?
A. * Congenital
B. acquired
C. Posttraumatic
D. postoperative
E. Infectious
116. Figure shows the 30 patients with lateral cyst of neck on the right. Where opens the
passage of inside incomplete lateral fistula of the neck?
A. It starts on the skin of the neck in the midline and reaches the hyoid bone, in it
ends blindly;
B. goes from the hyoid bone to the blind hole in the area of the tongue;
C. begins on the skin of the neck in the midline, passing through the hyoid bone
and goes to a blind hole in the area of the tongue;
D. * Goes on soft tissue at the level of the thyroid cartilage to the inner hole in the
area of the tonsils or the side of the larynx;
E. begins on the skin at the inner edge of the sternoclavicular-mastoid muscle in the
area of secondary (lower) third of the neck and ends in the soft tissues at the
level of the thyroid cartilage.
117. Figure shows the 30 patients with lateral cyst of neck on the right. What is not a
synonym of this disease?
A. Branhio gene cyst
B. branchial cyst
C. Lateral lymph epithelial cyst
D. Congenital lateral neck cyst
E. * thyreoglosal cyst
118. On Рис. Fig. 31 is shownthe sialogram the patient in the lateral projection filled with
contrast solution. How does sialogram of Hertsenberh pseudo parotitis?
A. * Unchanged
B. Cluster contrasting masses in parenhime
C. Narrowing ducts in the parenchyma
D. Extension duct parenchyma
E. Expansion ductless
119. On Рис. Fig. 31 is shownthe sialogram of the patient in the lateral projection filled with
contrast solution . What sialographic sign of salivary gland duct ?
A. Expanding duct parenchyma
B. Expansion of duct
C. * The expansion and contraction of the duct
D. Narrowing duct
E. Accumulation of contrasting masses in the parenchyma
120. On Рис. Fig. 31 is shownthe sialogram the patient in the lateral projection filled with
contrast solution . What sialographic sign of proliferation in the parenchyma of salivary
gland connective tissue?
A. Expanding duct parenchyma
B. Expansion of ductless
C. The expansion and contraction of the duct
D. * Narrowing ducts throughout
E. Accumulation of contrasting masses in the parenchyma
121. On Рис. Fig. 31 is shownthe sialogram the patient in the lateral projection filled with
contrast solution. Sialographic sign of parenchymatous parotitis is characterized by the
accumulation of X-ray detectable mass in the parenchyma of the gland in the form:
A. * «grapes"
B. «Ink Spots"
C. Narrowing duct parenchyma
D. Extension duct parenchyma
E. Expansion ductless
122. On Рис. Fig. 32 is shownthe closing stages of oroantral communication with the
maxillary sinus. What are the stages of closing of this connection?
A. * Section, separation, immobilization, suturing mucouso-ossal flap
B. Section immobilization, cutting
C. Immobilization, cut, cutting, suturing the flap
D. Cutting, immobilization, suturing the flap
E. incision closure of mucouso-ossal flap
123. On Рис. Fig. 32 is shownthe closing stages of oro - antral connection with the
maxillary sinus . As shown in the C fragment ?
A. Closing of oro - antral connection with mucous-ossal flap
B. * Suturing of oro - antral connection
C. Postoperative appearance
D. Preoperative view
E. Section
124. On Рис. Fig. 32 is shownthe closing stages of oro - antral communication with the
maxillary sinus . As shown in D fragment ?
A. Closing of oro - antral connection with mucous-ossal flap
B. * Suturing of oro - antral connection
C. Postoperative appearance
D. Preoperative view
E. Section
125. On Рис. Fig. 32 is shownthe closing stages of oro-antral connection with the maxillary
sinus. What flap is used to close this connection?
A. * buccal
B. palate
C. Tuberal
D. lingual
E. Cutaneous
126. On Рис. Fig. 33 is shownthe mandibular osteosynthesis with metal plates. What
method of osteosynthesis of the mandible can be considered the most promising?
A. * Titanium mini plates
B. Kirschner needles
C. Bone suture wire
D. U-shaped metal clips
E. Bypass seam metal wire
127. On Рис. Fig. 33 is shownthe mandibular osteosynthesis with metal plates. Who first
used the bone seam for osteosynthesis of the mandible?
A. * Szymanowski in 1863
B. Entin in 1941
C. Evdokimov in 1956
D. Bernadsky in 1960
E. Solnsev in 1966
128. On Рис. Fig. 33 is shownthe mandibular osteosynthesis with metal plates. How far
from the edge of a fragment of the lower jaw must be done hole during osteosynthesis?
A. * not closer then 10mm
B. Not closer then 2mm
C. Not closer then 5mm
D. Not closer then 15mm
E. Not closer then 20mm
129. On Рис. Fig. 33 is shownthe mandibular osteosynthesis with metal plates. Which
method is not a direct osteosynthesis of the mandible?
A. * Hooking the fragment of the lower jaw to the bone facial or cranial
B. Bonding chips
C. frame or put in a bone plate
D. Bone suture
E. periosteum-bone suture
130. On Рис. Fig. 34 is shown the tools for extraction of teeth. For extraction of which teeth
of the upper jaw are shown tongs under letter a on Figure 34?
A. * incisors and canines
B. premolars
C. molars
D. Premolars and molars
E. All of the teeth
131. On Рис. Fig. 34 is shown the tools for extraction of teeth. For extraction of which teeth
of the upper jaw are shown tongs under letter б on Figure 34?
A. Incisors and canines
B. * premolars
C. molars
D. Premolars and molars
E. There is no right answer
132. On Рис. Fig. 34 is shown the tools for extraction of teeth. For extraction of which teeth
of the upper jaw are shown tongs under letter в, г on Figure 34?
A. Cutters
B. canines
C. * molar
D. premolars
E. All of the teeth
133. On Рис. Fig. 34 is shown the tools for extraction of teeth. For extraction of the 28 tooth
are designed forceps shown on Figure 34 under the letter?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
а
б
а and б
в and г
*д
134. On Рис. Fig. 35 is shown one of the types of local anesthesia. What is synonymous
with anestezin?
A. * benzocaine, anestalhin
B. Dikain, piromekayin
C. Ulrakayin, bukivekayin
D. Mepivekayin, prilocaine
E. trimecaine
135. On Рис. Fig. 35 is shown one of the types of local anesthesia. What concentration of
lidocaine is the most common use for a given anesthesia?
A. * 10-15%
B. 20-30%
C. 0,25-0,5%
D. 0,125%
E. 3%
136. On Рис. Fig. 35 is shown one of the types of local anesthesia Which pharmacological
group of anesthetics are used in anesthesia given?
A. gel
B. Aerosols
C. salve
D. solutions
E. * All answers are correct
137. On Рис. Fig. 35 is shown one of the types of local anesthesia. What anesthetics do you
know for this type of anesthesia?
A. * Lidocaine, benzocaine
B. Novocaine
C. Ultrakayin
D. Septonest
E. Ubistyzyn
138. On Рис. Fig. 36 is show nthe abscess of palate. What is the treatment of this disease
A. Pharmaceutical
B. UHF
C. Paraffin
D. * Surgical and medical
E. Elekro coagulation
139. On Рис. Fig. 36 is shown the abscess of palate. What method of disclosure of this
abscess?
A. * Excision triangular-shaped area of the mucous membrane and periosteum
B. A linear incision of the mucosa and periosteum
C. Piercing the mucosa and periosteum
D. Extraoral section in the area of greatest protrusion
E. A vertical incision in the area of greatest protrusion
140. On Рис. Fig. 36 is shown the abscess of palate. What is the hard palate?
A. * Part of the palate, which is the basis of bone covered above and below with the
mucosa
B. Posterior moving part palate
C. palate blind
D. The back of the palate
E. The back of the upper jaw
141. On Рис. Fig. 36 is shown the abscess of palate. What are the complaints of a patient
with this disease?
A. * Severe pain during swallowing, limited swelling and redness
B. pain in the tongue
C. pain in the vestibule of the mouth
D. Pain in cheek area
E. Pain in the region of the upper lip
142. On Рис. Fig. 37 is shown the patient after opening the phlegmon of Ludwig. What is
found at section of phlegmon?
A. Gas Bubbles
B. putrefactive odor
C. Gangrenous smell
D. fabrics are of the form of cooked meat
E. * All answers are correct
143. On Рис. Fig. 37 is shown the patient after opening the phlegmon of Ludwig.What is
imposed to improve patients breathing at this phlegmon?
A. * Traheostomy
B. Endo probe
C. drainage tube
D. Tape drainage
E. Tubular drainage
144. On Рис. Fig. 37 is shown the patient after opening the phlegmon of Ludwig. What
kind of phlegmon it is?
A. * putrefactive-necrotic
B. Serous
C. Purulent
D. Limited
E. Specific
145. On Рис. Fig. 37 is shown the patient after opening the phlegmon of Ludwig. What are
patient complaints at this phlegmon?
A. Sore throat
B. Inability to speak
C. Violation of swallowing
D. Violation of the general condition
E. * All answers are correct
146. On Рис. Fig. 38 is shown one of the types of local anesthesia. What anesthesia is
shown?
A. * Infraorbitalna
B. Tuberalna
C. incisive
D. Palatynalna
E. Torusalna
147. On Рис. Fig. 38 is shown one of the types of local anesthesia. What method and of
which anesthesia is shown on the figure?
A. * Infraorbital intraoral method
B. Infraorbital extraoral method
C. incisive intraoral method
D. incisive extraoral method
E. Tuberal intraoral method
148. On Рис. Fig. 38 is shown the one of the types of local anesthesia. What is the target
foramen for this anesthesia?
A. * Infraorbital
B. Extraorbital
C. submandibular
D. Mental
E. incisive
149. On Рис. Fig. 38 is shown the one of the types of local anesthesia. What complications
can be accompanied by a given anesthesia?
A. hematoma after injection
B. neuritis
C. Diplopia
D. Swelling of the eyelids
E. * All answers are correct
150. On Рис. Fig. 39 is shown the schematic arrangement of the lymph nodes of the head
and neck. How is translated from the Latin «nodi lymphatici occipitales»?
A. Parotid lymph nodes
B. * Occipital lymph nodes
C. submandibular lymph nodes
D. Submental lymph nodes
E. Facial Lymph Nodes
151. On Рис. Fig. 39 is shown the schematic arrangement of the lymph nodes of the head
and neck. On what groups are divided lymph nodes of the neck ?
A. Surface and deep
B. * Front and lateral
C. Surface and subsurface
D. Small , medium and large
E. deep and fascial
152. On Рис. Fig. 39 is shown the schematic arrangement of the lymph nodes of the head
and neck. What lymph nodes belong to the deep lateral neck lymph nodes ?
A. Supraclavicular lymph nodes and pharyngeal
B. Anterior and lateral jugular nodes
C. * Supraclavicular lymph nodes and pharyngeal , front and lateral jugular nodes
D. thyroid
E. Front and lateral jugular nodes , thyroid
153. On Рис. Fig. 39 is shown the schematic arrangement of the lymph nodes of the head
and neck. What do we call lymphadenitis, if you can not reveal its relationship with any
other pathological center?
A. Not odontogenic
B. * The primary
C. Specific
D. nonspecific
E. The secondary
154. On Рис. Fig. 40 is shown the examination of TMJ. What methods of examination is
used for diagnosing of TMJ diseases?
A. extraoral
B. intraoral
C. Because of the external ear canal
D. Radiography
E. * All answers are correct
155. On Рис. Fig. 40 is shown the examination of TMJ. What form has articular head of
articular process of the mandible?
A. Round
B. * ellipse
C. flat
D. Globular
E. conical
156. On Рис. Fig. 40 is shown the examination of TMJ. TMJ is paired joint formed by the
mandible and-?
A. occipital bone
B. maxillary bone
C. frontal bone
D. * temporal
E. sphenoid bone
157. On Рис. Fig. 40 is shown the examination of TMJ. What movements are possible in
the TMJ?
A. Vertical
B. sagittal
C. transversal
D. The vertical and sagittal
E. * vertical, sagittal and transversal
158. On Рис. Fig. 41 is shown the patient with burns of the facial part of skull. How to
classify burns according to the etiological factor?
A. Thermal
B. Chemical
C. Electric
D. Ray
E. * All answers are correct
159. On Рис. Fig. 41 is shown the patient with burns of the facial part of skull. What are the
periods of burn?
A. burn shock
B. Burn toxemia
C. Burn septictoxemia
D. convalescence
E. * All answers are correct
160. On Рис. Fig. 41 is shownthe patient with burns of the facial parts of skull. How many
degrees of burn depth lesions there are?
A. * 4
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6
161. On Рис. Fig. 41 is shown the patient with burns of the facial part of skull. Burn by
which factor is shown on the picture?
A. * Acid
B. Luh
C. Phenol
D. Thermal
E. Electric
162. On Рис. Fig. 42 is shown the furuncle of hair follicle. On which day from the disease
beginning is formed and secreted purulent-necrotic core?
A. 2-3 days
B. * 4-5 days
C. 7-8 days
D. 12-15 days
E. 1-2 days
163. On Рис. Fig. 42 is shown the furuncle hair follicle. How long lasts the cycle of
furuncles?
A. 3-4 days
B. 5-6 days
C. 7-8 days
D. * 8-10 days
E. 10-11 days
164. On Рис. Fig. 42 is shown the furuncle hair follicle. Furuncle of which localization is
complicated by thrombophlebitis of the angular vein of face?
A. * Upper lip
B. Angle of mouth
C. bridge of nose
D. chin
E. Lower lip
165. On Рис. Fig. 42 is shown the furuncle hair follicle. The causative agent of this disease
is?
A. Monoculture streptococcus
B. * Monoculture aureus
C. Monoculture Proteus
D. Monoculture E. coli
E. Monoculture lactobacilli
166. On Рис. Fig. 43 is shown the facial skull: maxillar bone, mandibular bone. What is
shown in the first fragment under number 5?
A. submandibular foramen
B. * Infraorbital foramen
C. cell performances
D. Nasal notch
E. zygomatic apophysis
167. On Рис. Fig. 43 is shown the facial skull: maxillary bone, mandibular bone. What is
shown in the first fragment under number 10?
A. submandibular hole
B. Infraorbital hole
C. cell performances
D. Nasal notch
E. * zygomatic apophysis
168. On Рис. Fig. 43 is shown the facial skull: maxillary bone, mandibular bone. What is
shown in the first fragment at number 6?
A. submandibular hole
B. Infraorbital hole
C. cell performances
D. * Nasal notch
E. zygomatic apophysis
169. On Рис. Fig. 43 is shown the facial skull: maxillary bone, mandibular bone. What is
shown in second fragment at number 12?
A. Submental foramen
B. Infraorbital foramen
C. cell performances
D. * The opening of the mandible
E. Vertical appendix
170. On Рис. Fig. 44 is shown the stages of implantation. What is the distance between
implants ?
A. 1mm.
B. 2mm.
C. 3mm.
D. * 1.5mm .
E. 2.5mm
171. On Рис. Fig. 44 is shown the stages of implantation. What is shown in fragment 3
Figure 44 ?
A. Shapers gums.
B. * abutment on the implant .
C. The finished restoration.
D. Plugs screws.
E. screwed implants .
172. On Рис. Fig. 44 is shown the stages of implantation. What implants are used in this
clinical case?
A. * Rootlike
B. subperiosteal
C. submucous
D. Endodontic - endoosal
E. leaf
173. On Рис. Fig. 44 is shown the stages of implantation. What type of dentition defect
images?
A. Single-sided final
B. Two-sided final
C. * Enabled
D. Combined
E. adentiyi
174. On Рис. Fig. 45 is shown the X-ray bone head in a straight projection. Which
epithelium lined maxillary sinus ?
A. * multilayer ciliated epithelium
B. Flat not coarsen
C. Flat coarsen
D. cylindrical
E. cubic
175. On Рис. Fig. 45 is shown the X-ray bone head in a straight projection. What part of the
face is often swell for acute sinusitis ?
A. Lower eyelid
B. infraorbital area
C. * Jaw area
D. zygomatic area
E. nasolabial folds
176. On Рис. Fig. 45 is shown the X-ray bone head in a straight projection. What is unusual
for odontogenic sinusitis for ?
A. * Poured character
B. The presence of the causative tooth
C. Unilateralism lesions
D. Availability of perforative hole
E. bold pus in the mouth
177. On Рис. Fig. 45 is shown the X-ray bone head in a straight projection. How to classify
sinusitis depending on the etiology ?
A. Odontogenic
B. Rinogenic
C. allergic
D. posttraumatic
E. * All answers are correct
178. On Рис. Fig. 46 is shown the elevators. For which manipulation using these tools?
A. * For tooth extraction
B. To resection
C. To correct gum
D. For polishing bone
E. For disclosure inflammation
179. On Рис. Fig. 46 is shown the elevators. Which elevator shown at number 1?
A. * Elevator Leklyuza
B. The elevator Winter
C. Direct elevator
D. Corner elevator right
E. Corner elevator left
180. On Рис. Fig. 46 is shown the elevators. Which elevator shown at number 3?
A. The elevator Leklyuza
B. The elevator Winter
C. Direct elevator
D. * Corner elevator right, left
E. osteotomy
181. On Рис. Fig. 46 is shown the elevators. Which elevator shown at number 4?
A. The elevator Leklyuza
B. The elevator Winter
C. * Direct elevator
D. Corner elevator right
E. Corner elevator left
182. On Рис. Fig. 47 is shown the options for the location of the third molar . Perekoronaryt
is ?
A. Inflammation of bone
B. * Inflammation of the soft tissue surrounding the tooth crown on his part and the
complicated eruption
C. Inflammation of the subcutaneous fat
D. Pidokisne inflammation
E. Inflammation of periodontal tissues
183. On Рис. Fig. 47 is shown the options for the location of the third molar . Resulting in
bone resorption behind the lower crown delayed tooth?
A. Deficit space in the jaw
B. Chronic Injury
C. * Chronic inflammation
D. Availability kapishona
E. The presence of large tooth
184. On Рис. Fig. 47 is shown the options for the location of the third molar.
Physiologically normal periodontal consider expansion gap of the distal part of the
crown delayed tooth?
A. Do1mm
B. * Do2mm
C. Do3mm
D. Do4mm
E. Do5mm
185. On Рис. Fig. 47 is shown the options for the location of the third molar. What disease
is not a difficulty odontiasis?
A. retention
B. dystopia
C. Perykoronaryt
D. Follicular cyst
E. * Sinusitis
186. On Рис. Fig. 48 is shown the sequence of steps receptions during tooth extraction.
What is shows the in the figure below and the letter?
A. * Overlay forceps
B. Promotion cheecks forceps
C. closed forceps (fixing)
D. dislocation of tooth (luxation or rotation)
E. Pulling a tooth with a hole (traction)
187. On Рис. Fig. 48 is shown the sequence of steps receptions during tooth extraction. The
picture under the letter b?
A. Overlay forceps
B. * Promotion Cheecks forceps
C. closing forceps (fixing)
D. dislocation of tooth (luxation or rotation)
E. Pulling a tooth with a hole (traction)
188. On Рис. Fig. 48 is shown the sequence of steps receptions during tooth extraction. In
the picture at the letter in?
A. Overlay forceps
B. Promotion schichok forceps
C. zimknennya forceps (fixing)
D. zimknennya forceps (fixation). Vyvyhuvannya tooth (lyuksatsiya or rotation)
E. Pulling a tooth with a hole (traction)
189. On Рис. Fig. 48 is shown the sequence of steps receptions during tooth extraction. The
picture under the letter g?
A. Overlay forceps
B. Promotion cheeks of forceps
C. closing forceps (fixing)
D. Revision of the hole
E. * Pulling a tooth with a hole (traction)
190. On Рис. Fig. 49 is shown the types of fractures of the mandible. Specify the
classification of fractures of the mandible, depending on the location?
A. Double
B. Bilateral
C. Unilateral
D. Multiple
E. * All answers are correct
191. On Рис. Fig. 49 is shown the types of fractures of the mandible. Specify the
classification of fractures of the mandible, depending on the nature of the fracture?
A. Complete, incomplete
B. Line, chips, combined
C. Isolated combined
D. No displacement of fragments, fragment offset
E. * All answers are correct
192. On Рис. Fig. 49 is shown the types of fractures of the mandible. Specify how else can
classify fractures of the mandible?
A. Over a period of occurrence
B. Localization
C. The nature
D. in the direction of the fracture gap
E. * All answers are correct
193. On Рис. Fig. 49 is shown the types of fractures of the mandible. Specify which tires are
used in fractures of the mandible?
A. Vankevych
B. Porta
C. Weber
D. Smooth tire-clip
E. * All answers are correct
194. On Рис. Fig. 50 is shownthe layout plan of surgical treatment of the patient. What
operation is shown in the area of the eye?
A. * Blepharoplasty
B. Contour
C. BOTOX injection
D. Lift corner of the eye
E. Plastic Filatov stem
195. On Рис. Fig. 50 is shownthe layout plan of surgical treatment of the patient. What
operation is shown in the area of the mouth?
A. Blepharoplastic
B. * Contour Lip
C. BOTOX injection
D. Plastic scraps counter
E. Plastic flap with axial vascular pattern
196. On Рис. Fig. 50 is shownthe layout plan of surgical treatment of the patient. What
surgery is scheduled for mandible?
A. Plastic flap with axial vascular pattern
B. Blepharoplasty
C. * Contour
D. Filatov Plastic stem
E. Lift Skin
197. On Рис. Fig. 50 is shownthe layout plan of surgical treatment of the patient. What
surgery is planned in the area of the nose?
A. * Rhinoplasty
B. Blepharoplasty
C. BOTOX injection
D. Dermoabraziya
E. Lift Skin
198. The figure 52 shows the tools to removing teeth . To remove the teeth of the mandible
are depicted tongs letter b?
A. incisors, canines and premolars
B. premolars
C. Molars and incisors
D. Premolars and molars
E. All of the teeth
199. The figure 52 shows the tools to removing teeth . To remove the teeth of the lower jaw
which shows the tongs in the letter ?
A. * Molar
B. Premolars
C. Molars and incisors
D. Incisors and canines
E. All teeth
200. 261. The figure 52 shows the tools to removing teeth . In the letter which indicated
tongs to remove the 38 tooth?
A. A
B. B and a
C. Within
D. * G
E. C and D
201. The figure 52 shows the tools to removing teeth . Which letter shows the tongs to
remove the roots of the teeth on the lower jaw ?
A. * A
B. B and a
C. Within
D. G
E. C and D
202. The figure 52 shows the tools to removing teeth . For removal of mandibular molars
appointing such forceps in Figure 52 ?
A. * beak with broad cheeks and spike
B. Direct
C. S- similar to the spike and cheeks converging
D. S- like without a thorn
E. There is no right answer
203. The figure 53 shows the specific odontogenic osteomyelitis of the upper jaw. At what
disease is there ?
A. * 4stadiyi With HIV
B. syphilis
C. tuberculosis
D. actinomycosis
E. Gonorrhea
204. The figure 53 shows the specific odontogenic osteomyelitis of the upper jaw. As
shown by the arrows in this figure ?
A. * Large sequesters maxilla
B. Derevyanystyy infiltration
C. fistulas course
D. Kaposi's sarcoma
E. The centers of osteoporosis
205. Figure 53 shows the specific odontogenic osteomyelitis of the upper jaw. What is a
characteristic feature of odontogenic osteomyelitis of the upper jaw in these patients?
A. Large area lesions
B. The diffusive character
C. Exposure of bone
D. Fast nature of clinical course
E. * All answers are correct
206. The figure 54 shows the fracture of the upper jaw. According to the author of which
they classified?
A. Fractures at Lefor
B. Fractures by Horoshylkinoyu
C. Fractures by Ilyin- Markosian
D. Fractures by Vasiliev
E. Fractures E. Weber
207. The figure 54 shows the fracture of the upper jaw. Are marked mobility of the nasal
bones, soft tissue swelling of the left vilochnoyi plot symptom nyzhnoochnomu steps to
the edge on both sides and in the region of the zygomatic -jaw joints, nasal bleeding,
open bite . For what is typical fracture ?
A. Lefor III
B. Fracture of nasal bones .
C. * Fracture of the maxilla by Lefor II.
D. Bone Fracture of zygomatic bone
E. Lefor I.
208. Figure 54 shows the fracture of the upper jaw. For any fracture Lefor characteristic
symptom of steps along the lower edge of the orbit on both sides?
A. * Lefor 2
B. Fracture of nasal bones
C. Fracture of the zygomatic bone
D. Lefor 3
E. Lefor 1
209. Figure 54 shows the fracture of the upper jaw. For any typical fracture complete
detachment or separation of the facial bones and cranial shown in Figure 54?
A. Fracture of the upper jaw of Le Fort I
B. Fracture of the left zygomatic bone
C. Fracture of nasal bones
D. fracture of the upper jaw of Le Fort II
E. * fracture Le Fort III
210. Figure 55 shows the cancer symbol at the bottom schelepy.Yakym TNM classification
indicate recurrence of cancer?
A. «a»
B. «p»
C. «t»
D. «e»
E. «g»
211. Figure 55 shows the lower schelepy.Rak cancer of the oral mucosa T3N1M0.Yaka a
stage cancer spread?
A. 1
B. 2
C. * 3
D. 4
E. 5
212. Figure 55 shows the lower schelepy.Rak cancer of the oral mucosa T2N3M0. . What is
stage cancer spread?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. * 4
E. 5
213. Figure 55 shows the lower schelepy.Yake cancer cure cancer?
A. Combined
B. Irradiation
C. Chemotherapy
D. Surgery
E. * All answers are correct
214. The figure 56 shows the Kaposi 's sarcoma. What is it?
A. * Spots of different color and intensity, then darken, grow in size and may
ulcerate
B. infection in throat
C. Allergic lesions throat
D. throat burn lesions
E. Inflammatory lesions of the throat
215. The figure 56 shows the Kaposi 's sarcoma. Which is the manifestation of the disease ,
this pathology?
A. * HIV infection
B. Angina
C. diphtheria
D. mononucleosis
E. scarlet fever
216. The figure 56 shows the Kaposi 's sarcoma. What other manifestations of the
underlying disease can be observed in these patients ?
A. Angular cheilitis A.
B. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis
C. Oral Candidiasis
D. Gingivitis
E. * All answers are correct
217. The figure 56 shows the Kaposhi.Chym sarcoma is characterized by the first stage of
manifestation of underlying disease ?
A. * asymptomatic and painless swollen lymph nodes
B. Lesions of the nasal sinuses
C. Lesions of the optic fissure
D. Lesions of the teeth
E. Lesions of the tongue
218. The figure 57 shows the appearance of a patient with a chronic infectious disease. The
manifestation of the disease which in the picture ?
A. * Actinomycosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Syphilis
D. AIDS
E. HIV
219. The figure 57 shows the appearance of a patient with a chronic infectious disease.
Which cells are specific for this disease ?
A. Cells Harhreyvs
B. Lemotsyty
C. Sternberg cells
D. * Ksantomni cells
E. Cells Jaworski
220. The figure 57 shows the appearance of a patient with a chronic infectious disease.
What is the causative agent of the zahvrryuvannya ?
A. * Actinomycetes
B. Staphylococci
C. Streptococci
D. Lactobacilli
E. Mycobacteria
221. The figure 57 shows the appearance of a patient with a chronic infectious disease.
What are the possible ways of getting this infection to the body?
A. Odontogenic
B. Contact
C. Hematogenous
D. lymphogenous
E. * All answers are correct
222. The figure 59 shows the marginal parts of gums tumor. What tumor is shown in Figure
59 ?
A. Carbuncle
B. boil
C. * Epulis
D. abscess
E. Hemangioma
223. The figure 59 shows the marginal parts of tumor of gums. What is the clinical picture
is characterized by tumors shown in Figure 59 ?
A. limited areas of keratinization ash
B. loose painful formation of gum bleeding
C. * dense painless tumor of a broad-based
D. painful dense infiltrate in the region of a few teeth
E. 2-3 erosions of gums, with no tendency to bleeding and epithelialization
224. The figure 59 shows the marginal parts of tumor of gums. The primary treatment for
tumors is shown in Figure 59 ?
A. Chemotherapy
B. Cryodestruction
C. Radiotherapy
D. Combined
E. * Excision of neoplasms
225. The figure 59 shows the tumor with a marginal part of the gums. What diseases can
spend dyfdiahnostyky tumors shown inFigure 59 ?
A. phlegmon
B. abscess
C. hemangiomas
D. * hypertrophic gingivitis
E. Ameloblastoma
226. The figure 60 shows the structure of the temporomandibular joint nyzhntoschelepnoho
. As shown at figure 10?
A. * Shylonyzhno jaw Since anti B. A branch of the mandible
C. The head of the mandible
D. lateral alary muscle
E. Vertical appendix E.
227. The figure 60 shows the structure of the temporomandibular joint. As shown below
tsyfroyu12 ?
A. * The head of the mandible
B. Vertical appendix
C. External auditory canal
D. Shilovidnyj appendix
E. infratemporal crest
228. The figure 60 shows the structure of the temporomandibular joint . As shown below
tsyfroyu11 ?
A. Vertical appendix
B. The external auditory canal
C. * appendix
D. Articular disc
E. lateral alary muscle
229. The figure 60 shows the structure of the temporomandibular joint. As shown below
tsyfroyu13 ?
A. * The external auditory canal
B. Shilovidnyj appendix
C. Articular disc
D. lateral alary muscle
230. The figure 60 shows the structure of the temporomandibular joint . As shown below
tsyfroyu12 ?
A. * The head of the mandible
B. Vertical appendix
C. External auditory canal
D. Shilovidnyj appendix
E. infratemporal crest
231. The figure 60 shows the structure of the temporomandibular . As shown below
tsyfroyu11 ?
A. Vertical appendix
B. The external auditory canal
C. *Shilovidnyj appendix
D. Articular disc
E. lateral alary muscle
232. The figure 60 shows the structure of the temporomandibular joint . As shown below
tsyfroyu13 ?
A. * The external auditory canal
B. Shilovidnyj appendix.
C. Articular disc
D. lateral alary muscle
E. lateral alary
233. The figure 60 shows the structure of the temporomandibular joint . As shown at figure
4?
A. * Articular disc
B. Vertical appendix
C. External auditory canal
D. Shilovidnyj appendix D.
E. branch of the mandible