4th SCW TEST
102
1.
The six areas involved with Naval Doctrine are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
2.
The Navy/Marine Corps team is utilized as instruments to support national policies by
being expeditionary forces and have these four qualities:
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
Mobility, flexibility, self-sustainability, and self esteem
Readiness, flexibility, self-sustainability, and mobility
Flexibility, self-sustainability, mobility, and political correctness
Self-sustainability, and mobility, readiness, and esprit de corps
The significance of March 5, 1942 as it pertains to the Seabees is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.
Operations, Logistics, Planning, Command, Control, and Embark
Naval Warfare, Air Operations, Intelligence, Logistics, Planning, and Command
and Control
Naval Warfare, Intelligence, Operations, Logistics, Planning, and Command
and Control
Naval Warfare, Intelligence, Operations, Embark, Planning, and Command and
Control
Ben Moreell’s birthday
Birth of the Bureau of Yards and Docks
Official permission granted to use the name, “SEABEE”
Birth of the Bureau of Navigation
CM3 Marvin Shields was:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Third Seabee Medal of Honor Winner
First Seabee Medal of Honor Winner
A famous Seabee from the Korean conflict
A famous Seabee from the World War II conflict
103
5.
Who sets the policies and control of the Department of the Navy?
a.
b.
Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy
Chief of Naval Operations
c.
d.
6.
Which officer is responsible for the planning, scheduling and managing of battalion
construction, combat and disaster preparedness operations?
a.
b.
c.
d.
7.
Discipline of fire team
Appearance of fire team
Training of Fire team
Assign EMI to Fire team
Which of the following is a detailed statement of a course of action to be followed to
accomplish a future mission?
a.
b.
c.
d.
11.
Tactical control of the platoon
Career Counselor
Project superintendent
Timely re-supply to the platoon
The Fire Team Leader is not responsible for ____________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
10.
Construction Battalion Unit
Underwater Construction Team
Naval Mobile Construction Battalion
Construction Battalion Maintenance Unit
The Right Guide is primarily responsible for _______________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
9.
A6
C6
S3
S3A
Which of the following commands is responsible for set up and maintenance of a fleet
hospital in time of war?
a.
b.
c.
d.
8.
Naval construction Brigade
Secretary of the Navy
OPLAN
OPORD
SITREP
SORTS
If time permits, a Warning Order is issued about _______ days in advance?
a.
b.
c.
d.
60
90
75
30
104
12.
The responsibilities of the Commanding Officer as applied to safety is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
13.
The responsibilities of the Safety Petty Officer as applied to safety is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
14.
They are exposed to noises greater than 104 dba for an 8 hour time
They are exposed to noises greater than 90 dba for an 10 hour time
They are exposed to noises greater than 84 dba for an 8 hour time
They are exposed to noises greater than 84 dba for an 10 hour time
Ground Fault Circuit Interruption (GFCI) protection is required when:
a.
b.
c.
d.
17.
Goggles and safety glasses
Face shields, chemical goggles and permanent walls
Temporary movable shields
All of the above
Under the Hearing Conservation Program, personnel required to be enrolled when:
a.
b.
c.
d.
16.
To be the principle safety advisor for the battalion
To be the principle safety advisor for the Company or department
To be the alternate safety advisor for the battalion
Both (a) and (c) above
The different types of eye protection are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
15.
Responsible for the safety and health of all civilians in the command
Responsible for the safety and health of all military personnel in the command
Responsible for the safe use and condition of all equipment
All of the above
Utilizing all electrical hand tools
Utilizing all scaffolding equipment
Utilizing temporary power on a construction site
Both (a) and (c) above
Lockout/tag-out procedures for electrical and energy sources are required when:
a.
b.
c.
d.
You will be working on any items that store energy
You will be working on galley doors
You will be working on electrical, hydraulic, or steam equipment
Both (a) and (c) above
18.
The purpose of good house keeping on any jobsite is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
To prevent mishaps from tripping, falling, impalement etc.
To prevent the Safety Chief form having to do any work
To prevent Alfa company from picking up good project material
None of the above
105
19.
What is the accepted sequence in which to examine an injured person?
a.
b.
c.
d.
20.
What are Veins?
a.
b.
c.
21.
All sides
Four sides
Three sides
Two sides
Results from prolonged exposure to wet and cold temperatures just above freezing. Often
associated with limited motion of the extremity.
a.
b.
c.
d.
23.
Large vessels that return blood to the heart
Form a connecting network between the veins
Large vessels that carry blood away from the heart
How should a sucking chest wound be sealed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
22.
Begin at the hands, move to the head and continue to the feet
Begin at the feet and continue to the head
Begin at the head and continue to the feet
Begin at the head, then check the feet, and continue with the remaining body
Heat Stroke
Heat Cramps
Frostbite
Immersion foot/hand
Which of the following is NOT a treatment for a joint dislocation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Support the injured part with a sling, pillow, splint or other available device.
Apply heat to the affected area
Treat the victim for shock
Loosen the clothing around the injured part
24.
Which type of burn is the result of minor scalding?
a.
b.
c.
d.
25.
Which of the following is NOT a treatment for a fracture?
a.
b.
c.
d.
26.
First degree burn
Second degree burn
Third degree burn
Chemical burn
Try to reset the fracture yourself
Immobilize the fracture site
Do not use force to straighten a limb for splinting
Always treat for shock
How many iodine tablets do you use to purify a canteen of water if the water is cloudy?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 iodine tablet
2 iodine tablets
3 iodine tablets
4 iodine tablets
106
27.
What does MSDS stand for?
a.
b.
c.
d.
28.
What program provides life cycle management for HAZMAT?
a.
b.
c.
d.
29.
Material supply distribution sheet
Material safety data sheet
Master security disposal sheet
Material supplemental data sheet
CHRIMP
HICS
CBCM
ALL
The AUL tells us who can use what products.
a.
b.
True
False
30.
CHRIMP provides life cycle management of HAZMAT and reduces what?
a.
b.
c.
d.
People needed to handle it
Storage space
HAZ waste
Environmental jobs
107
31.
The purpose of the Material Obligation Validation program is to?
a.
b.
c.
d.
32.
The most common supply forms in the battalion are?
a.
b.
c.
d.
33.
NC= no charge, NIS= no interest sale
NC= not carried, NIS= not in supply
NC= no can do, NIS= not interested in stocking
NC= not carried, NIS= not in stock
A project bill of material lists all of the following except?
a.
b.
c.
d.
35.
1250-1, 1348-1, SF-364, DD-200
1250-1, 1250-2, DD-200, SF-368
1250-1, 1250-2, 1348-1, 1149
1250-1, 1149, 1348-1, Dd-200
Define what “NC” and “NIS” stands for?
a.
b.
c.
d.
34.
Make maintenance types do supply work
Keep the supply system working valid requirements
Validate whether or not requisitions have been received
Cancel requirements no longer required
Construction materials
Special tools required
Contractor services
Items check out from CTR
State the purpose of the Not Operationally Ready-Supply (NORS) Program.
a.
b.
c.
d.
To submit high priority requisitions for routine CESE maintenance
To submit high priority requisitions for requirements that are directly related
to P-25 equipment being deadlined.
To submit high priority requisitions for requirements that are expected to go
deadline soon
To submit high priority requisitions for all maintenance requirements
36.
Requisition of non NSN material or services
a.
b.
c.
d.
37.
Requisition invoice/shipping document:
a.
b.
c.
d.
38.
NAVSUP 1250-2
DD 1348
NAVSUP 1250-1
DD 1149
NAVSUP 1250-2
DD 1348
NAVSUP 1250-1
DD 1149
A National Stock Number (NSN) has how many digits?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Too many
11
13
15
108
39.
The antenna systems usually used with the AN/PRC-119A are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
40.
The general characteristics of the AN/GRA-39 are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
41.
10 foot whip, NVIS and dipole
3 foot tape, and 10 foot whip
10 foot whip and NATO dipole
None of the above
HF radio utilizing 2 to 29.999 MHz
VHF SINCGARS radio utilizing 30 to 87.975 MHz
Base Station with 50 Watt output
Remote unit allowing operator to be up to two miles from radio.
The general characteristics of the SB-22/PT are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Two wire tactical phone system
Three wire tactical phone system
12 line switchboard
24 line switchboard
42.
The general characteristics of the TA-312/PT are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
43.
What does CMS stand for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
44.
Communication Security Monitoring System
Communication System Material Security
Communication Security Material System
Communication Material Security
The general characteristics of the VHF handheld SABER 1 fascinator are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
45.
Field phone with 14-22 mile capability
Three wire tactical phone system
12 line switchboard
24 line switchboard
HF radio utilizing 2 to 29.999 MHz
VHF SINCGARS radio utilizing 30 to 87.975 MHz
Base Station with 50 Watt output
Handheld Secure VHF radio utilizing 138 to 174 MHz
The general characteristics for the AN/PSN-11 Global Positioning System (GPS) are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Plugger GPS that accepts encrypted code
Has an anti-jam capability
Is the same color as aviation black boxes
Both (a) and (b) above
109
46.
The maximum range of the M60 machine gun is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
47.
2525 meters
3050 meters
3500 meters
3725 meters
The types of fire for the M60 machine gun is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Grazing, Plunging, and Overhead fire
Plunging, overhead, and graduation fire
Grazing, Plugging, and Overhead fire
None of the above
48.
Tracer rounds are used for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
49.
The maximum range of the 40mm machine gun is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
50.
Enables fires over hills, forests, walls and other defenses
Can reach far beyond flat trajectory weapons
None of the above
Both (a) and (b) above
The maximum effective range of the 60mm mortar (M 224) using HE is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
54.
5000 meters with M2 ball
6000 meters with M2 ball
7400 meters with M2 ball
None of the above
The tactical purpose of the 60mm mortar (M 224) is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
53.
Low Explosive, Low Explosive Dual Purpose, Training, Target and Dummy
High Explosive, High Explosive Dual Purpose, Training, Target and Dummy
High Explosive, High Explosive Dual Purpose, Training, Temporary and Dummy
None of the above
The maximum range of the .50 caliber M2 machine gun is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
52.
2212 meters
2300 meters
2400 meters
None of the above
The ammunition types used for the 40mm machine gun is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
51.
Observation fire and incendiary effects
Signaling and training
Both (a) and (b) above
None of the above
3000 meters
3490 meters
3590 meters
4590 meters
The role and mission of the Forward Observer (FO) is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
The “eyes” of the indirect fire team
Has the additional mission of collecting intelligence
Both (a) and (b) above
None of the above
55.
To unload 40mm M203 grenade launcher you:
a.
b.
c.
d.
56.
The 12-gauge shotgun is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
57.
Semi-automatic and automatic
Single shot and multiple shot
Semi - automatic only
Automatic only
The M18A1 Claymore mine is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
60.
450 meters
500 meters
550 meters
600 meters
The modes of fire for the 5.56mm M16 rifle are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
59.
Air cooled, belt fed, blow back operated automatic weapon
Light weight, single shot, breech loaded, pump action weapon
Air cooled, belt fed, gas operated automatic weapon
Manually operated, single shot magazine fed, pump action weapon
The maximum effective range of the 5.56mm M16 rifle on a point target is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
58.
Open barrel and eject round
Close barrel and round will fall out of the bottom of the chamber
Open barrel and reach in a grab round
None of the above
Non-directional, unfixed fragmentation mine designed for use against massed
infantry attacks
Directional, fixed-fragmentation mine designed for use against massed infantry
attacks
Non-directional, unfixed fragmentation mine designed for use against tanks
Directional, fixed-fragmentation mine designed for use against tanks
The 84mm M136 (AT-4) is held in what positions when fired:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Standing and Kneeling only
Kneeling, Sitting, and Prone only
Standing, Kneeling, Sitting, and Prone
Standing, and Prone only
61.
The controls on the 84mm M136 (AT-4) is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
62.
The tactical employment and purpose of the Grenadier is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
63.
Transport safety pin, and a forward safety
Transport safety pin, cocking lever, and a forward safety
Transport safety rod, locking lever, and a rearward safety
None of the above
Backbone of the defense of the squad, positioned by the squad leader
Positioned so he can cover the entire fire team sector
Holds the M203 grenade launcher, positioned to cover defense dead space
Supports the rifleman in the offense and the defense
Traversing fire is fire is fire that:
a.
b.
c.
a.
Distributed in width by changing the horizontal direction of the gun
Distributed in depth by changing the elevation of the gun
Both (a) and (b) above
None of the above
110
64.
An improved one-person fighting position is defined as?
a.
b.
c.
d.
65.
What type of equipment is a sleeping mat?
a.
b.
c.
d.
66.
Made as small as possible to present smallest target to the enemy.
A shallow pit type emplacement, which provides a temporary prone firing for the
individual rifleman
“U” shape.
A position that provides the lease amount of protection from tanks, bombing,
strafing, and shelling.
Fighting load carrying equipment
Protective equipment
Bivouac equipment
Special issue equipment
Which of the following categories of 782 gear provides the minimum equipment
necessities for field living?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Special Issue Equipment
Fighting load carrying
Protective
Bivouac Equipment
67.
When cut foliage is used for camouflage it should be replaced how often?
a.
b.
c.
d.
68.
On a map vegetation, wood, orchards & vineyards are what color?
a.
b.
c.
d.
69.
Spot
Salute
Casrep
Sitrep
What are the primary considerations when assigning sectors of fire?
a.
b.
c.
d.
73.
Command & signal
Admin & logistics
Execution
Situation
What type of report is given when the enemy is spotted?
a.
b.
c.
d.
72.
True
False
What part of the five-paragraph order describes the radio frequencies, call signs &
passwords?
a.
b.
c.
d.
71.
Black
Green
Brown
Blue
The acronym “SMEAC” is the standard format used to issue a military order?
a.
b.
70.
Every other day
As soon as it begins to wither
Don’t worry about it you want be there that long
Both A and B
Sector of fire should have easily identifiable terrain features to identify lateral
limits.
Sector of fire interlock to ensure mutual support with adjacent units.
Both A & B.
None of the above
Which person in the fire team assists fire team leader?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Squad leader
Grenadier
Automatic rifleman
Rifleman no. 1
111
74.
What are the tactical requirements for a camp layout?
a.
b.
c.
d.
75.
What is the purpose of grounding rods?
a.
b.
c.
d.
76.
Customer satisfaction
Quality construction
Prevent Rework
All of the above
What is the minimum distance a garbage pit can be located from messing facilities?
a.
b.
c.
d.
79.
8-10 ppm
2-5 ppm
100 ppm
200 ppm
The primary purpose of the quality control plan is to provide:
a.
b.
c.
d.
78.
Protect life
Protect equipment from damage
Protect the distribution system
All of the above
Chlorination for water treatment is?
a.
b.
c.
d.
77.
Sufficient space for proper dispersal of the command
Concealment from ground and air observation
Protection against bombing of strafing attacks
All of the above
50 feet
100 feet
30 yards
100 yards
What type of camp maintenance includes large repetitive jobs that require over 40 manhours?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Minor
Specific job order
Standing job order
Emergency/service request
80.
What is the minimum distance a latrine can be located from the nearest natural water
supply?
a.
b.
c.
d.
81.
50 feet
100 feet
30 yards
100 yards
Which of the following procedures is the application of chlorine in dosages far in excess
of the chlorine demand in order to disinfect drinking water container’s first use?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Chlorination
Distillation
Sterilization
Superchlorination
112
82.
What chemical rapidly breaks down the mask filter elements?
a.
b.
c.
d.
83.
The M22 alarm detects what type of agent?
a.
b.
c.
d.
84.
Gamma & beta radiation
Blister agent in liquid form
Chemical agents in vapor form
Biological agents in vapor form
What type of radiation is pure energy and is released during the initial detonation of a
nuclear blast?
a.
b.
c.
d.
85.
CS gas
Blood Agents
Nerve agents
Blister agents
Alpha
Beta
Gamma
Both b & c
At what level of decontamination do you perform detailed troop, equipment, and aircraft
decon to reduce the risk to negligible level?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Immediate
Thorough
Operational
Hasty
86.
What is the best way to protect yourself against biological warfare?
a.
b.
c.
d.
87.
What is a consideration when reading the M8/M9 paper?
a.
b.
c.
d.
88.
Receive appropriate shots prior to deployment
Maintain camp & personal cleanliness
Carry NAAK kits with you at all times
Both a & b
No color blind readers
Do not read at night
Both of the above
None of the above
What is the background color and text color of the NATO radiological marker?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Yellow background, orange letters
White background, black letters
Blue background, red letters
Green background, white letters
113
89.
The organization and makeup of an air detachment is?
a.
b.
c.
d.
90.
The Marshalling area is the:
a.
b.
c.
d.
91.
98 personnel, 34 units of CESE, and 250-300 short tons of cargo
98 personnel, 43 units of CESE, and 300-350 short tons of cargo
89 personnel, 34 units of CESE, and 250-300 short tons of cargo
100 personnel, 50 units of CESE, and 300-350 short tons of cargo
Temporary staging area for all equipment, cargo and personnel
Permanent staging area for all equipment, cargo and personnel
Permanent staging area for all equipment requiring marshalling
None of the above
The primary use and mission of theC-5A is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Tactical aircraft used in-theater operations
Strategic aircraft used for global movement
Strategic/tactical aircraft used in-theater
Global strategic aircraft used for inter-theater
92.
The three-color classifications used to determine convoy road routes are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
93.
Green, Orange, and Red
Green, Orange and Black
Green, Yellow and Red
None of the above
The Maritime Pre-positioning Force is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
A squadron of pre-positioned planes with Marine Equipment on them
A squadron of pre-positioned trucks with Seabee Equipment on them
A squadron of pre-positioned ships with Seabee Equipment on them
A squadron of pre-positioned boats with Marine Equipment on them
114
94.
Why should Equipment Operators keep their equipment clean, serviceable, and safe?
a.
b.
c.
d.
So the equipment will look good
To be competitive with the relieving battalion
To ensure the equipment stays in perfect condition
To keep the equipment ready and avoid costly repairs
95. Who is/are the only personnel designated to request augment equipment?
a.
b.
c.
d.
96.
Every mishap involving a Navy motor vehicle must be reported on what form?
a.
b.
c.
d.
97.
Chief of Naval Operations
Commanding Officer
Designated representative from Commander Third/Second Naval Construction
Brigade
Both b and c
Operators Report
SF 91
Hardcard
Vehicle Trip Ticket
What does the acronym CESE stand for?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Civil Engineer Support Equipment
Civil Engineer Supply Equipment
Civil Engineer Safety Equipment
Civil Engineer Shop Equipment
98.
What does the term DEADLINE mean?
a.
b.
c.
d.
When a correspondence is due
When a piece of equipment cannot be returned to service to perform all
functions and repair parts are not obtainable within 3 days.
When a piece of equipment cannot be returned to service to perform all functions
and repair parts are available but there is no mechanic available to perform repairs
When a piece of equipment can be purchased in town but no funds available.
115
99.
Application of ORM will result in:
a.
b.
c.
d.
100.
Provide for more efficient use of resources
Reduction of costs
Both a and b
None of the above
To make risk decisions you must start with the most serious risk and
a.
b.
c.
d.
Select controls that will reduce the risk to a minimum
Email the safety officer with your ideas on how to eliminate the risk
Email the CMC and find out what he thinks about the serious risks
None of the above