TEST 24 – CCNA1 - ACADNET
1. Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections on a
Cisco router? (Choose three.)
a. They are non-network connections.
b. They are used to connect the router to the rest of the production network.
c. They are synchronous serial ports.
d. They are used for initial router configuration.
e. They are asynchronous serial ports.
f. They are accessed using their assigned IP address.
2. The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)
a. debugging.
b. password recovery.
c. routing data between networks.
d. troubleshooting.
e. connecting one router to another.
3. Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?
a. connects peripherals in a single location.
b. connects multiple networks in a single building.
c. provides connectivity on a LAN.
d. provides connectivity over a large geographic area.
4. An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)
a. switching.
b. static addressing.
c. IETF standardization.
d. dynamic or static routing.
e. consistent end-to-end addressing.
5. ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network. Which items
are needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the router for the initial configuration?
(Choose three.)
a. straight-through cable.
b. terminal emulation software.
c. rollover cable.
d. RJ-45 to DB-9 connector.
e. V.35 cable.
6. Terminal emulation software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a router. Which
of the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are correctly set to allow
configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
a. bits per second.
b. data bits.
c. parity.
d. stop bits.
e. flow control.
7. Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose three.)
a. hubs.
b. routers.
c. communication servers.
d. transceivers.
TEST 24 – CCNA1 - ACADNET
e. modems.
f. multi-port repeaters.
8. Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)
a. contains startup configuration file.
b. stores routing table.
c. holds fast switching cache.
d. retains contents when power is removed.
e. stores running configuration file.
9. Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
a. can be accessed remotely.
b. does not depend on network services.
c. displays startup and error messages by default.
d. does not require special components.
10. Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common? (Choose
three.)
a. CPU.
b. hard drive.
c. input/output interfaces.
d. keyboard.
e. monitor.
f. system bus.
11. During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable is required for
connecting a PC to the console port?
a. twisted.
b. crossover.
c. rollover.
d. straight.
12. A router is composed of many internal components. Which of the following components stores
a copy of the router’s configuration file?
a. metal-oxide memory.
b. read only memory.
c. flash memory.
d. non-volatile random access memory.
13. What contains the instructions that a router uses to control the flow of traffic through its
interfaces?
a. packet configuration.
b. configuration files.
c. flash memory.
d. internal components.
14. Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 series router.
Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a router to all of the hosts on the
LAN? (Choose two.)
a. a crossover cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.
b. a crossover cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
c. a straight-through cable between the auxiliary port on a router and a switch.
TEST 24 – CCNA1 - ACADNET
d. a rollover cable between the console port on a router and a switch.
e. straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
f. a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.
Explicatie:
A transceiver is a device comprising both a transmitter and a receiver which are combined and share
common circuitry or a single housing. When no circuitry is common between transmit and receive functions,
the device is a transmitter-receiver. The term originated in the early 1920s. Technically, transceivers must
combine a significant amount of the transmitter and receiver handling circuitry. Similar devices
include transponders, transverters, and repeaters.
15. Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?
a. volatile random access memory.
b. read only memory.
c. non-volatile random access memory.
d. flash memory.
16. Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standards? (Choose
two.)
a. physical layer.
b. application layer.
c. transport layer.
d. data link layer.
e. session layer.
17. Which of the following are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)
a. provide temporary memory for the router configuration files.
b. connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit.
c. can be on the motherboard or a separate module.
d. hold the IOS image.
e. connect the router to LANs and WANs.
18. Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management connection on a
router? (Choose three.)
a. troubleshooting problems.
b. monitoring the system.
c. capturing LAN data packets.
d. configuring the router.
e. routing data packets.
19. What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?
a. ARP tables.
b. bridging tables.
c. routing tables.
d. switching tables.
20. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
a. stores the routing table.
b. retains contents when power is removed.
c. stores the startup configuration file.
d. contains the running configuration file.
e. stores the ARP table.
TEST 24 – CCNA1 - ACADNET
21. Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series router? (Choose
two.)
a. holds the startup configuration by default.
b. can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules.
c. stores Cisco IOS software images.
d. stores routing table information by default.
e. maintains the only copy of an IOS image after the router is booted.
22. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose
three.)
a. determine pathways for data
b. initiate data communications
c. retime and retransmit data signals
d. originate the flow of data
e. manage data flows
f. final termination point for data flow
23. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
a. define the structure of layer specific PDU’s
b. dictate how to accomplish layer functions
c. outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
d. limit the need for hardware compatibility
e. require layer dependent encapsulations
f. eliminate standardization among vendors
24. What are two functions of encapsulation? (Choose two.)
a. tracks delay between end devices
b. enables consistent network paths for communication
c. allows modification of the original data before transmission
d. identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
e. ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
25. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
a. supports error detection
b. ensures ordered arrival of data
c. provides delivery to correct destination
d. identifies the devices on the local network
e. assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection
26. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network
Access Layer? (Choose two.)
a. Network
b. Transport
c. Physical
d. Data Link
e. Session
27. What is a PDU?
a. corruption of a frame during transmission
b. data reassembled at the destination
c. retransmitted packets due to lost communication
d. a layer specific encapsulation
TEST 24 – CCNA1 - ACADNET
28. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
a. manage data flows
b. originate data flow
c. retime and retransmit data signals
d. determine pathways for data
29.
Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network
segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
a. Network A — WAN
b. Network B — WAN
c. Network C — LAN
d. Network B — MAN
e. Network C — WAN
f. Network A – LAN
30. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
a. A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
b. The network is administered by a single organization.
c. The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
d. The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
e. A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common
organization.
31.
Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in
the graphic?
a. piping
TEST 24 – CCNA1 - ACADNET
b.
c.
d.
e.
PDU
streaming
multiplexing
encapsulation
32. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
a. to identify devices on the local media
b. to identify the hops between source and destination
c. to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
d. to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
e. to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices
33. What device is considered an intermediary device?
a. file server
b. IP phone
c. laptop
d. printer
e. switch
34.
Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
a. WAN
b. MAN
c. LAN
d. WLAN
35. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
a. physical
b. data link
c. network
d. transport
36. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
a. the destination device on the local media
b. the destination host address
TEST 24 – CCNA1 - ACADNET
c. the bits that will be transferred over the media
d. the source application or process creating the data
37. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
a. No address is added.
b. The logical address is added.
c. The physical address is added.
d. The process port number is added.
38. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
a. path determination and packet switching
b. data presentation
c. reliability, flow control, and error detection
d. network media control
e. the division of segments into packets
39. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest
layer?
a. physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
b. application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
c. application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
d. application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
e. presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application
40. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users.
What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)
a. centralized administration
b. does not require specialized software
c. security is easier to enforce
d. lower cost implementation
e. provides a single point of failure
41. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
a. temporarily holds resolved entries
b. used by the server to resolve names
c. sent by the client to during a query
d. passes authentication information between the server and client
42. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
a. HTTP
b. SSH
c. FQDN
d. DNS
e. Telnet
f. SMTP
43. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
a. ARP
b. DNS
c. PPP
d. SMTP
TEST 24 – CCNA1 - ACADNET
e. POP
f. ICMP
44. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)
a. acts as both a client and server within the same communication.
b. requires centralized account administration.
c. hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.
d. can be used in client-server networks.
e. requires a direct physical connection between devices.
f. centralized authentication is required.
45. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)
a. DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
b. HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
c. POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
d. SMTP supports file sharing
e. Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access
46. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)
a. MDA
b. IMAP
c. MTA
d. POP
e. SMTP
f. MUA
47. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of Telnet?
a. not widely available
b. does not support encryption
c. consumes more network bandwidth
d. does not support authentication
48. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose
three.)
a. routes email to the MDA on other servers
b. receives email from the client’s MUA
c. receives email via the POP3 protocol
d. passes email to the MDA for final delivery
e. uses SMTP to route email between servers
f. delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol
49. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a
client browser? (Choose two.)
a. ASP
b. FTP
c. HTML
d. HTTP
e. HTTPS
f. IP
50. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming
and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)
TEST 24 – CCNA1 - ACADNET
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
User accounts are centralized.
Security is difficult to enforce.
Specialized operating system software is required.
File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.