New Smyrna Beach High School
Review Packet for the Biology EOC
2012
The work in this packet is one more opportunity, of the many we have provided for you, to become more familiar with
the type of questions that will be asked on the Biology End-Of-Course exam. As you know, the EOC will count for 30% of
your grade in Biology. We believe that the more practice we provide you, the better you will do! Read each question
carefully, understand what each is asking you, look for key words and phrases, believe in yourself, and do your best!
Good luck!
EOC Review
Standard 1
Ecology
Key Vocabulary from this unit:
Ecology
Aquatic
Topography
Abiotic/Biotic
Community
Ecosystem
Biodiversity
Producer
Autotroph
Consumer
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Heterotroph
Chemosynthesis
Food Chain/Food Web
Herbivore
Carnivore
Omnivore
Detritivore
Decomposer
Trophic Level
Energy transfer
Joules
Hydrologic cycle
Biogeochemical cycle
Nitrogen fixation
Biomass
Energy pyramid
Habitat
Niche
Competition
Predation
Symbiosis
Mutualism
Commensalism
Parasitism
Population density
Immigration
Emmigration
Exponential growth
Logistic growth
Carrying capacity
Succession
Climax community
Invasive species
Non-native species
Renewable/Nonrenewable resources
Pollution
Smog
Acid Rain
Greenhouse effect
Global warming
Fossil fuels
Indicator species
Biomagnification
Bioaccumulation
Fragmentation
Sustainability
Please answer the following questions, note, these are NOT all one word answers!
1. How would the removable of a keystone species affect an ecosystem and its biodiversity?
2. Compare and contrast biotic and abiotic factors.
3. List and describe the different types of feeders in an ecosystem? Hint: they are called more than one
name.
4. Predict what would happen to an ecosystem if the decomposers were taken out of it? What if
producers were taken out
5. Give an explanation of why a food web is a more realistic model of an ecosystem than a food web.
6. If 90% of the energy is lost as it is transferred from one trophic level to the next, where does it go?
7. One of the natural interactions between species is competition. What does competitive exclusion say
will happen to two species that compete for the same resource?
8. Complete the table below:
Type of
Interaction
symbiosis
Benefit/Harm
Example
Parasitism
Mutualism
Commensalism
+/+
One organism receives a
benefit, while the other neither
benefits or is harmed
9. Compare and contrast a density-dependent factor with a density-independent factor.
10. Label the name of the line marked M and the type of graphs below:
Please answer the following multiple choice questions.
11. Several different plant species grew in an empty lot. The city council decided to turn the lot into a
park, so they had the ground torn up and planted with grads to create a playing field. The ecological
factor that was most likely affected by the change was the lot’s
A. Biomass
B. Temperature
C. Biodiversity
D. Hydrologic cycle
12. Which of the following groups is most important for bringing energy into an ecosystem?
A. Consumers
B. Producers
C. Decomposers
D. Generalists
13. In the carbon cycle, through which process does carbon move from an abiotic resource into organic
matter?
A. Immigration
B. Combustion
C. Respiration
D. Photosynthesis
14. Officials attempt to control the spread of an exotic wildflower species by introducing its natural
predator, a beetle. Unexpectedly, the beetle population grows exponentially and begins to eat local
crops. What best accounts for this unexpected population explosion?
A. Adaptive radiation allowed the beetle population to evolve faster.
B. The beetle population has few predators in the new habitat.
C. The wildflower and the local crops are genetically similar kinds of plants.
D. The beetle has different nutritional requirements in the new habitat.
15. The nonnative zebra mussel was first found in a lake near Detroit in 1988. By 1989, it had colonized all
Great Lakes waterways. Which scenario is most likely true regarding the introduction of this species?
A. Native fish naturally eat zebra mussels.
B. The higher biodiversity leads to healthier lakes.
C. They compete with native mussels for food and other resources.
D. Native mussel populations are growing rapidly.
16. Which situation would most efficiently decrease the size of a field mouse population?
A. Decreased death rates and emigration.
B. Decreased birth rates and immigration.
C. Increased death rates and immigration.
D. Increased death rates and emigration.
17. CO2 is important in our atmosphere because it is required for photosynthesis and it traps some heat,
keeping Earth warm. However, human produced CO2 is a problem because it
A. Leads to higher global temperatures.
B. Disrupts the natural cycling of other greenhouse gases.
C. Adds to much CO2 to the oceans.
D. Causes uncontrolled photosynthesis.
18. A forest on the edge of town is habitat to many species. As growth of the town expands city
commissioners decide to extend a road through the center of the forest for easier access to new
homes. What is this an example of?
A. Sustainable development
B. Habitat fragmentation
C. Ecological footprint
D. Renewable resource
19. Biomagnification is when pollutants move from one organism in the food chain. In an estuary what
organism is most likely to have the greatest concentration of pollutants in its system?
A. Phytoplankton
B. Dolphin
C. Crab larvae
D. Mullet
20. As the human population increases, greater pressure is being put on energy resources. Nonrenewable
resources are in a limited supply making them very costly. What energy resource below would be
classified as a nonrenewable resource?
A. Coal
B. Solar
C. Hydroelectric
D. Wind
EOC
Standard 2 Review
The Scientific Process
1. Brandy decided to experiment with different types of fertilizers to determine which was the best for her tomato seeds.
She planted seeds from the same source in each of four pots. The seeds were planted with the same kind of potting soil.
Equal amounts of three different types of commercial fertilizers were used, one in each of three pots. The fourth pot did
not receive a fertilizer. All pots were placed in the same location and given the same amount of water. The height of the
tomato plants was measured at the end of the experiment.
A. Independent Variable: ____________________________________________________________________
B. Dependent Variable: _____________________________________________________________________
C. Constants: _____________________________________________________________________________
D. Control Group (if one): ____________________________________________________________________
E. Hypothesis: ____________________________________________________________________________
F. Improvement Needed?: ___________________________________________________________________
2. Arrange the steps used in scientific research in the order that they usually take place: conduct experi-ments, form a
hypothesis, observe and identify a problem to solve, study results and data to see if hy-pothesis is supported.
(1)______________________________________________________________________________________________(
2)_____________________________________________________________________________________________
(3)_____________________________________________________________________________________________
(4)______________________________________________________________________________________________
(5)______________________________________________________________________________________________
3. What is qualitative research? Give an example. What is QUANTitative research? Give an example
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
4. How many Variables should you test at one time?
5. To ensure that you have a valid experiment, it must be _________________________________.
6. What is a scientific theory?
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Graphing
7. Independent Variable (Test Variable) is the
CAUSE & is on the _____ axis.
8. Dependant Variable (Outcome Variable)
is the _____________ & is on the ____axis.
9. Make a Sample graph for the
reaction rates of an enzyme at in
creasing temperature. Don‘t forget to
label the X and Y axis (with words) , a
title, and a key if needed.
10. Use the graph to answer the following question.
11. What is the Independent (test) Variable?
_________________________________
12. What is the dependent (outcome)
variable?
___________________________________
13. When were there more than 200 beetles
in the area?
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.
Between 1996 and 2002
Between 1992 and 1996
Before 1995
After 2002
Anita learned in chemistry class that temperature is a major factor in determining the rate of a
chemical reaction. To investigate the effects of temperature on reaction rate, Anita decided to
time a chemical reaction at several different temperatures. Anita's results are presented in the
chart below.
How does an increase in temperature of 10 degrees Celsius (°C) affect the time needed
to complete the reaction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Time is cut in half
Time is doubled
Time is decreased by 20 seconds
Time is increased by 20 seconds
15.
Luke and Lisa were in the science lab working on individual experiments to determine the
density of an unknown liquid. Luke and Lisa each followed the same procedure to perform the
experiment.
Based on the data tables above, which student had the best experimental results?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lisa had the best experimental results because she worked much faster.
Luke had the best experimental results because he got the same answer all three times.
Luke had the best experimental results because he was more careful than Lisa.
Lisa had the best experimental results because she repeated the experiment nine
times.
16. Julie is trying to win a competition for the tallest sunflower at this year's state fair. In order
to figure out the best way to grow the tallest one, Julie planted six sunflowers, each in its own
pot. Julie collected data on the growth of each plant. Each flower was planted in the same soil
and received the same amount of water and sunlight each day. Five of the flowers each
received a different type of fertilizer, and one received none at all. What was the dependent
(outcome) variable in the experiment?
A. The type of fertilizer used
B. The height of each plant
C. The amount of water and sunlight received by each plant
D. The plant that did not receive any fertilizer
17. Hurricanes are a major threat to people and property in the state of Florida. Recent years
have seen a number of extremely powerful storms strike Florida, causing a great deal of
damage and property loss. Citizens of Florida are urged to listen to newscasts as storms
approach for the latest information. Meteorologists provide viewers with observations and storm
data, and they sometimes make inferences about the storms. Which statement about a major
hurricane is an inference?
A. The hurricane's windspeed is measured at 200 kilometers per hour.
B. The storm's central air pressure is recorded at 932.0 millibars.
C. A rain gauge has recorded three and one-half inches of rain in less than one hour.
D. Damage from the storm is expected to be extensive.
18. A scientist has found a new drug that appears to help humans to lose weight without dieting. The
scientist has tested the drug on thousands of people and has found very few side effects. Which of
the following would be the best thing for the scientist to do next?
A. Establish a marketing company to sell and distribute the drug to potential customers
B. Notify the media that a new weight-loss drug will soon be on the market
C. Begin to treat individuals with extreme obesity problems
D. Publish a paper on the study so that other scientists can replicate the study and verify the
results
19. The students in a science class wanted to conduct an experiment to find out which brand of paper
towels is the most absorbent. The students selected three brands and labeled them A, B, and C.
They made sure all the sheets were the same size. For each brand, they poured 10 ml of water in a
flat pan and used a paper towel sheet to absorb the water for two minutes. Then they measured the
amount of water that remained in the pan. Their results are shown in the table below.
What is the independent (test) variable of this experiment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.
The amount of water remaining
The brand of paper towel
The size of the sheet
The amount of water poured
Which of the following is not a controlled variable?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The amount of water remaining in the pan
The size of the paper towel sheet
The time allowed to absorb the water
The amount of water poured
EOC Review
Standard 3
Properties of Water and Macromolecules
Key Vocabulary from this unit:
Polarity
Universal Solvent
Carbohydrates
Amino Acids
Surface Tension
Specific Heat
Solute
Lipids
Enzymes
Cohesion
Solvent
Proteins
Catalyst
Adhesion
Solution
Nucleic Acids
Organic
Homeostasis
pH
DNA
Inorganic
Please answer the following questions, note these are NOT all one word answers!
1. What does it mean when we say water is a polar molecule? How does polarity of water aid in adhesion and
cohesion?
2. How does water’s ability to resist temperature change (i.e- high specific heat) help our bodies to maintain
homeostasis?
3. Draw out a pH scale and include the following:
a. Acid range
b. Basic range
c. Neutral
d. Give an example of something on the very acidic, very basic and neutral part of the scale.
4. There are 4 major carbon-based macromolecules found in living organisms, what are they?
5. What are proteins made of? What are some of their functions?
6. Give several examples of lipids. What are the functions of lipids in the body?
7. Describe the function of the enzyme-substrate complex… Draw out an example.
8. What is activation energy? What does a catalyst do to the activation energy?
9. What are carbohydrates used for? How do they help our body? How are carbohydrates different from lipids?
10. DNA is made of which of the macromolecules? What does this macromolecule do?
Please answer the following multiple choice questions.
1. The table below contains data for water samples from four sources.
Nancy analyzed water samples from several sources: rainfall, a nearby creek, a swimming pool,
and her kitchen faucet. She recorded her data in the table.
Which sample was most acidic?
A. Rain
B. Creek
C. Pool
D. Faucet
2. Which of the following macromolecules has the greatest role in the repair of ripped or damaged
muscle tissue?
A. Proteins
B. Carbohydrates
C. Lipids
D. Nucleic Acids
3. Enzymes are involved in nearly all metabolic processes. What is their purpose?
A. Enzymes supply the energy required in reactions
B. Enzymes provide water and oxygen required in reactions
C. Enzymes cause a reaction to proceed without substrates
D. Enzymes cause a reaction's rate to increase
4. Fill in the blank.
The _______________ is the substance to which an enzyme attaches at the active site.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Inhibitor
Catalyst
Product
Substrate
5. Study the graph below.
Reactions W and X are basically the same reaction. One utilizes an enzyme and one does not. From
the data in this chart, what is the difference between W and X?
A. Reaction W requires more energy
B. Reaction X does not utilize an enzyme
C. Reaction W can only occur at room temperature
D. Reaction X takes longer to come to completion
6. In many biochemical processes, smaller molecules are assembled into larger ones. Which set of
substances contains only molecules assembled from smaller organic compounds?
A. water, DNA, fats
B. DNA, fats, carbohydrates
C. proteins, water, fats
D. proteins, carbohydrates, water
7. In the human body, fibrinogen is necessary for sealing cuts and stopping the loss of blood. Since
fibrinogen is made of chains of amino acids, it is an example of which type of organic molecule?
A.
B.
C.
D.
carbohydrate
nucleic acid
protein
lipid
8. Which feature of water explains why water has a high surface tension?
A.
B.
C.
D.
water is the universal solvent and dissolves other molecules
water is a thermal mediator and resists changes to temperature
water is the liquid that diffuses into cells and spreads out in the cytoplasm
water is a polar molecule and creates partial bonds between other molecules
9. Which of the following nutrient groups would provide the most energy for a runner immediately
before a race?
A. minerals
B. lipids
C. carbohydrates
D. proteins
10. Fill in the blank.
The main elements found in all carbohydrates are _______________ .
A. carbon and hydrogen only
B. carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen
C. carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
D. hydrogen and oxygen only
EOC Review
Standard 4
Cells
Fill in the 5 Venn diagrams below following the directions under the Venn diagrams.
Prokaryotic
Vs. Eukaryotic
Nucleus? Membrane bound organelles? ribosomes, cytoplasm, DNA, basic, advanced, Examples of each
Plant Cell
Vs.
Animal Cell
Shape? Organelles? Heterotrophic or autotrophic?What do they have in common? What do plants cells
have that animal cells do not?
1. SquareCW & CMChloroplasts1 large vacuole
(turgor pressure)Autotrophic
Cell Membrane
Vs.
Cell Wall
Definition? Location? Function/purpose? What is it that they both do?
Plant vacuole
Vs.
Animal Vacuole
Size? Location? Purpose?
Mitochondria
Vs.
Chloroplast
State function of each, location, what is it that they both do?
1. What is the function of ribosomes?
A. To synthesize (to make) proteins
B. To synthesize (to make) lipids
C. Glucose catabolism
D. Carbohydrate anabolism
2. Which of the following is NOT found in both plant & animal cells?
A. Ribosomes
B. Mitochondria
C. Chloroplasts
D. Cell membrane
Match the Following:
Cell Structure
1. Cell membrane
2. Cytoplasm
3. Nucleus
4. DNA
5. Ribosomes
6. Mitochondria
7. Golgi body
8. Endoplasmic Reticulum
9. Chloroplast
10. Cell Wall
Virus, Bacteria, or both??
1. Considered non-living by scientists
2. Can be cured by antibiotics.
3. All are prokaryotic
4. Causes AIDS
5. Can cause diseases in people
6. Able to live in extreme environments
7. Contains DNA or RNA
8. Surrounded by a protein coat
9. Can reproduce rapidly
10. Three different major shapes
11. Able to respire on their own
12. Need a host cell to reproduce
13. Injects DNA or RNA into a cell
14. Ebola is an example of this
15. Able to go through the lytic cycle
Cell function
A. Protective outer covering of a plant, fungus, or bacterial
cell
B. Contains genetic instructions
C. Transport channels
D. Used for photosynthesis
E. Jelly-like substance where chemical reactions take place
F. Helps to maintain homeostasis in cells
G. Make proteins
H. Coverts energy in food to usable energy
I. Control center of cell
J. Packaging area of cell
EOC Review
Standard 5
The Transport of Life
Key vocabulary for this unit:
Cell (plasma) membrane
Selectively Permeable
Diffusion
Osmosis
Hypertonic
Endocytosis
Exocytosis
facilitated diffusion
Inhibitors
sodium potassium pump
Active Transport
Hypotonic
concentration gradient
Passive Transport
Isotonic
turgor pressure
Please answer the following questions. Notice: These are NOT one word answers!!
1.
Explain how diffusion works and give an example of how you could demonstrate diffusion.
2. How is facilitated diffusion different from diffusion? Why would facilitated diffusion be used?
3. Draw and label an example of a cell in a hypotonic solution. Include arrows to show the direction the water
would be moving.
4. Draw and label an example of a cell in a hypertonic solution. Include arrows to show the direction the water
would be moving.
5. Draw and label an example of a cell in an isotonic solution. Include arrows to show the direction the water
would be moving.
6. What is the difference between passive transport and active transport?
7. What type of transport is used in the sodium potassium pump? What is the function of the SP pump?
8. Explain what would happen to a blood cell with the internal salinity of 6% if it were placed in freshwater?
9. Saltwater fish need to drink water to maintain homeostasis. Based on what you know about osmosis, explain
why they need to drink water?
10. If there is 15% solute in a solution how much freshwater is in there
Please answer the following multiple choice questions.
1. Some substances go through a membrane more easily than other substances. It can also determine what enters and
leaves the cell. What is this characteristic of the membrane known as?
A. Impermeable
B. Selectively permeable
C. Permeable
D. Defectively permeable
2. To maintain a balance within the cell, water must move in and out. What is the process by which water moves in and
out of a cell?
A. Solution
B. Solute
C. Osmosis
D. Equilibrium
3. Felicia observed that the lettuce plants in her garden had wilted after several days of
drought. The next day,
there was a downpour of rain and the leaves began to swell. What cellular process caused this effect in the lettuce
plants?
A. Osmosis
B. Photosynthesis
C. Active transport
D. Cellular respiration
4. On the picture below determine the direction the water will move as it goes through osmosis.
A. It will move to the left
B. It will move to the right
C. It is balanced so will move freely back and forth
5. If you do not water a plant, it will eventually wilt. What happened to the cells that cause the plant to wilt?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increases its active transport mechanism
Increases turgor pressure
Loses active transport
Loses turgor pressure
6. Refer to the illustration below. What is the process being shown?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Diffusion
Osmosis
Endocytosis
Exocytosis
9. What type of solution is in the first beaker?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hypotonic
Hypertonic
Isotonic
Osmotic
10. The cell membrane is composed of a lipid bilayer which is selectively permeable and allows small molecules like water to
pass without problem, however, larger molecules like glucose have to pass through a protein because they are too large
to get through the membrane on their own. This type of diffusion is known as?
A. Osmosis
B. Active Diffusion
C. Facilitated Diffusion
Isotonic Diffusion
11. Cells are continually moving materials in to and out of the cell membrane in order to reach a state of equilibrium. When is
that balance reached?
B.
C.
D.
E.
When there are more molecules moving into the cell as there are out of the cell
When there are as many molecules moving into the cell as there are moving out of the cell
When there is an unequal amount of molecules moving throughout the cell
When there is loss in the amount of molecules
12. Water is essential for life. Its special properties make water the single most important molecule in plant life. Which of
the following properties of water enables it to move from the roots to the leaves of plants?
A. Water expands as it freezes.
B. Water is an excellent solvent.
C. Water exhibits cohesive behavior.
D. Water is able to moderate temperatures.
13. The cell membrane is composed of a lipid bilayer which is selectively permeable and allows small
molecules like water to pass without problem, however, larger molecules like glucose have to pass
through a protein because they are too large to get through the membrane on their own. This type of
diffusion is known as?
A. Osmosis
B. Active Diffusion
C. Facilitated Diffusion
D. Isotonic Diffusion
14. Refer to the illustration below. What is the process being shown?
E. Diffusion
F. Osmosis
G. Endocytosis
H. Exocytosis
True / False
15. Water expands as it freezes.
16. Water is an excellent solvent.
17. Water exhibits cohesive behavior.
18. Water is able to moderate temperatures
EOC Review
Standard 6
Energy
Key Vocabulary from this unit:
ATP
ADP
Aerobic
Anaerobic
Photosynthesis
Respiration
Reactant
Product
Chloroplast
Chlorophyll
Stomata
Please answer the following questions, note, these are NOT all one word answers!
21. What types of molecules are broken down to make ATP? What molecule is most often used?
22. What are the roles of chloroplasts and chlorophyll in photosynthesis?
23. Compare and contrast aerobic and anaerobic.
24. Describe the process of photosynthesis (include the reactants and the products).
25. Describe the process of cellular respiration (include the reactants and the products).
26. How is photosynthesis and cellular respiration related?
27. What color of visible light does not chlorophyll absorb at all? What happens to that color of light?
28. What is the importance of photosynthesis to living things other than plants?
29. What do ATP and ADP mean? What are the roles of these molecules for the cellular energetic
metabolism?
30. What are the divisions of white light according to the electromagnetic spectrum? Which are the two
most efficient colors for photosynthesis?
Please answer the following multiple choice questions.
31. A group of students wants to find out how much carbon dioxide is used by plants during the daytime. What
control could be used in this experiment?
E. The amount of water used during the daytime
F. The amount of oxygen released at night
G. The amount of carbon dioxide used at night
H. The amount of oxygen used during the daytime
32. Which of the following groups of organisms uses cellular respiration in mitochondria to produce ATP for their
energy needs?
E. Plants only
F. Eukaryotes
G. Animals only
H. Prokaryotes
33. Photosynthesis is a part of various cycles that help to move oxygen and carbon through the environment. What
form of abiotic carbon do plants remove from the environment?
E. Glucose
F. Starch
G. Carbon dioxide
H. ATP
34. Which process is represented by the following chemical equation?
6CO2 + 6H20 C6H12O6 + 6O2
E. Photosynthesis
F. Fermentation
G. Glycolysis
H. Cellular respiration
35. In eukaryotic cells, photosynthesis occurs in organelles named ______.
A. Mitochrondria
B. Thylakoid
C. Chloroplyll
D. Chloroplast
36. In eukaryotes cellular respiration occurs in organelles named ________.
A. Mitochrondria
B. Thylakoid
C. Chloroplyll
D. Chloroplast
37. Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between
photosynthesis and cellular respiration?
A. photosynthesis occurs only in autotrophs; cellular respiration occurs only in
heterotrophs
B. photosynthesis uses solar energy to convert inorganic molecules to energy-rich organic
molecules; respiration breaks down energy-rich organic molecules to synthesize ATP
C. photosynthesis and cellular respiration occur in separate, specialized cells; the two
processes cannot occur in the same cell at the same time
D. the primary function of photosynthesis is to use solar energy to synthesize ATP; the
primary function of cellular respiration is to break down ATP and release energy
38. Which of the following best describes the graph above?
E. Photosynthesis cannot take place in the dark
F. As the wavelength of light increases there is a corresponding increase in the rate of photosynthesis
G. The rate of photosynthesis is greater with some wavelengths than others
H. Photosynthesis only occurs in blue and orange light
39. Which of the following occurs as a result of cellular respiration?
E. Energy is released
F. Energy is stored
G. Energy is produced from nutrients
H. Energy is made
EOC Review
Standard 7
Cell Reproduction
Key Vocabulary from this unit:
Cell Cycle
Mitosis
Meiosis
Interphase
Cytokinesis
Chromatin
Binary Fission Somatic Cell Diploid
Spore
Asexual Reproduction
Reduction Division
Prophase
Metaphase
Chromosome Chromatid
Crossing Over Haploid
Sexual Reproduction
Anaphase
Telophase
Centromere
Mutation
Gametes
Genetic Variation
Independent Assortment
Please answer the following questions, note these are NOT all one word answers!
1.
During which phase of the cell cycle is the DNA copied?
2.
Draw what a chromosome looks like during metaphase. Identify the chromatids and the centromere.
3.
Explain why the daughter cells resulting from mitosis are genetically identical to each other and to the original
cell.
4.
Is the cell that results from fertilization haploid or diploid? Explain.
5.
Does mitosis or meiosis occur more frequently in your body? Explain.
6.
If during metaphase I of meiosis, all 23 maternal chromosomes lined up on one side of the cell, would genetic
diversity increase? Explain.
7.
Both mitosis and meiosis are types of nuclear division, but they result in different cell types. Describe how the
steps of meiosis I differ from those of mitosis
Please answer the following multiple choice questions.
1. During meiosis, homologous chromosomes line up next to each other. In some cases, one arm of a chromatid
crosses over the arm of another chromatid. What is the result of this process?
a. The creation of an additional sex cell.
b. Continuity in the offspring cell’s DNA.
c. The independent assortment of genetic material
d. Additional variation in the DNA of each sex cell formed
2. Some cancers are caused by mutations that stop certain proteins from working. The inactivation of what kind of
protein could lead to cancer?
a. One that sped up the cell cycle
b. One that slowed down the cell cycle
c. One that acted as a growth-promoting molecule
d. One that responded to growth-promoting molecules
3. As part of the cell cycle, a cell produces new daughter cells that are identical to the original cell. During which
phase are the two daughter cells physically separated?
a. Cytokinesis
b. Synthesis phase
c. First growth phase
d. Second growth phase
4. Which statement explains why approximately half of an individual’s DNA sequence comes from each parent?
a. A cell from one parent undergoes meiosis, producing offspring cells that have both parents’ DNA
b. A cell from one parent undergoes mitotic cell division, producing offspring cells that have only half of that
parent’s DNA
c. Cells in the parents undergo meiosis, producing haploid gametes that meet up during fertilization to
produce a diploid individual.
d. Cells in the parents undergo mitosis, producing offspring cells that meet up during fertilization to produce an
individual with half of each parent’s DNA.
5. Variation within organisms within a species increases the chance that a species will survive changing conditions.
What kind of reproduction produces the most variation within a species?
a. Budding
b. Parthenogenesis
c. Sexual reproduction
d. Asexual reproduction
6. Meiosis is the form of cell division that produces gametes. Which of the following statements correctly describes
gametes?
a. In spermatogenesis, eight sperm cells are produced.
b. Eggs are diploid and, when fertilized, give rise to haploid cells
c. In the formation of eggs, four identical haploid cells are produced
d. In oogenesis, the cytoplasm divides unequally, producing an ovum and three smaller polar bodies
7. In asexual reproduction, a single parent passes copies of all of its genes to each of its offspring. When is asexual
reproduction in plants advantageous?
a. When the environment is unstable
b. When there is little competition for resources
c. When plants are well adapted to the environment
d. When there are multiple disease agents in the environment
The diagram below shows the process of cell division.
8. Which of the following statements about the process is correct?
a.
Two cells are produced, each containing half of the DNA
of the parent cell
b. Four cells are produced, each containing half of the DNA
of the parent cell
c. Two cells are produced, each containing a complete set
of the parent cell’s DNA
d. Three cells are produced: one cell receives the entire
DNA of the parent and the two others synthesize new
DNA from spare nucleotides.
9. Cells and the organisms they make up reproduce through cell
a.
b.
c.
d.
division. Some organisms reproduce through mitosis, while
others reproduce through meiosis and fertilization. What
advantage does meiosis give to organisms that reproduce
sexually?
Meiosis ensures that offspring inherit genes from their parents
Meiosis ensures that offspring will not inherit any genetic disorders
Meiosis ensures that offspring are genetically different from their parents
Meiosis ensure that offspring will have identical phenotypes to their parents
Standard 8
The Blueprint of Life
Key Vocabulary from this unit:
DNA
RNA
chromosome
nucleotide
mutation
mRNA
nitrogen base
tRNA
transcription
gene
translation
Please answer the following questions.
1.
DNA is made of nucleotides. Draw one below and label the key parts. (P230 in book)
2.
In which organelle can most of the DNA be found In eukaryotic cells?
A. ribosome
B. golgi body
C. nucleus
D. mitochondria
3.
As shown in the image below, when DNA is replicated prior cell division, the new DNA molecules that
result each contain
A. two new strands of DNA
B. an ice cream sundae with a cherry on top
C. one old strand of DNA, and one new strand of DNA
D. two old strands of DNA
4.
Which pairings correcly depict the way in which DNA bases pair? (look at the first letter of each word)
A. Adenine pairs with Cytosine || Thymine pairs with Guanine
B. Adenine pairs with Guanine || Thymine pairs with Cytosine
C. Adenine pairs with Thymine || Guanine pairs with Cytosine
D. Adenine pairs with Adenine || Thymine pairs with Thymin
5.
E.
In DNA, the total number of adenine (A) bases will be equal to the total number of
A. cytosine bases (C)
B. thymine bases (T)
C. guanine bases (G)
D. Sugar bases
6. In DNA, the total number of guanine bases will be equal to the total number of
A. deoxyribose sugars
B. cytosine bases
C. thymine bases
D. guanine bases
7. Which of the following bottom strands of DNA is complementary to the strand shown above?
A.
B.
C.
D.
8. The double-stranded DNA molecule has a three dimensional structure known as a
A. Spiral
B. Matrix
C. Double helix
D. Triple helix
9. What part of the structure of DNA do the bold black lines on the top and the bottom of this image depict?
A. Phospholipids
B. Proteins
C. The bases adenine, thymine, guanine and cytosine
D. The sugar-phosphate backbone
10. How many base pairing errors are depicted in the image below?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. None
11. Which of the following represents a sequence of bases as they might appear in RNA?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
12. In RNA, the base adenine (A) is paired with ____________________________ instead of
_______________________________, as it is in DNA.
A. thymine / cytosine
B. cytosine / thymine
C. uracil / thymine
D. guanine / cytosine
13. The function of mRNA is to
A. backup the genetic information in case the DNA is destroyed
B. serve as a template for making proteins
C. protect the nucleus from damage by enzymes
D. control cell division
14. The process by which RNA is made from a template of DNA is known as
A. replication
B. transcription
C. translation
D. duplication
15. Which of the following represents an RNA strand that would be transcribed from the DNA strand
above?
A.
B.
C.
D.
16. Which of the following is NOT a difference between RNA and DNA
A. RNA leaves the nucleus; DNA does not
B. DNA is double-stranded, and RNA is single-strand
C. There are two types of DNA, and one type of RNA
D. DNA is passed on to the next generation, RNA is not
17. RNA is made from a DNA template
A. in the nucleus
B. in the labs of mad scientists
C. in the cytoplasm
D. in the ribosome
For the next questions you may need this table:
18. A 12-base section of mRNA composed of nothing but the
base cytosine would code for the repeated addition of the
amino acid. (find the C in the First base in codon  then
find the C in the Second base codon  then the third 
then find where they meet inside the chart)
A. Histidine
B. Proline
C. Isoleucine
D. Phenylalanine
EOC Review
Standard 9
The Genetics of Life
Key Vocabulary from this unit:
Homozygous
Phenotype
Punnet Square
Dominant
Alleles
Genes
Hybrid
heterozygous
autosomes
Dihybrid cross
Recessive
Trait
Sex (X) linked
Pure
homologous
genotype
Gregor Mendel
Co-dominant
Mutations
Sex chromosomes
chromosomes
Principle of independent assortment
Probability
Intermediate dominance
Crossing over
Recombinant DNA
Please answer the following questions.
Monohybrid crosses are used as a way to predict the inheritance patterns of genotypes and
phenotypes of a single trait. In order to receive full credit you must show your work.
1. In rabbits the gene for black coat color (B) is dominant over the gene for brown coat color
(b). What would the results be of a cross between an animal that is homozygous for black coat color (BB) and one
homozygous for brown coat color (bb)?
________% black
________% brown
________% homozygous for either brown or black.
2. In guinea pigs the gene for rough coat (R) is dominant over the gene for smooth coat (r). In
order for all the offspring to be smooth coated, what should the genes of the male and female parents be?
_______ genes of the male
_______ genes of the female
3. Cross a heterozygous tall plant (T) with a short plant and determine the genotype and phenotype of the offspring.
4. The image below is a partial pedigree for the inheritence of hemophilia in the royal families of Europe
Based upon this pedigree, hemophilia is
A. autosomal codominant
B. autosomal recessive
C. autosomal dominant
D. sex-linked
5. In snapdragons, Tallness (T) is dominant to dwarfness (t). In a cross between two plants that are homozygous for the
recessive allele, the percent of offspring expected to exhibit tallness is_________. Create a punnett square to support
your answer.
6. In pea plants, the allele for green pods (G) is dominant and the allele for yellow pods (g) is recessive. A researcher
crosses two green pea plants, and the in F1 generation, all of the offspring exhibit green pods. Can you determine the
genotypes of both parents? Use a punnet square to support your answer.
7. Tay Sachs disease is a fatal genetic disorder. Children born with this disorder generally die before they are five years
old. A couple has had three children who died of Tay Sachs. About this couple it can safely be assumed that:
A. they are both homozygous for the Tay Sachs trait
B. any children they have in the future will also die from this disease
C. one is heterozygous and the other is homozygous for the Tay Sachs trait
D. they are both heterozygous for the Tay Sachs tr
8. Colorblindness is a recessive, X-linked trait. In marriages between a man who is colorblind, and a woman who is a
carrier, what percentage of the children can be expected to be sons who are not color blind? Use a punnet square to
support your answer.
9. The color black is dominant in guinea pigs. The phenotypes of homozygous black guinea pigs and heterozygous black
guinea pigs are _________________.
10. Colorblindness is a sex-linked trait that is uncommon in women because
A. women have a different gene for color vision
B. it is carried by a gene on the Y chromosome
C. women have to receive the trait from both parents in order for it to be expressed
11. Colorblindness is a recessive, X-linked trait. In marriages between a man who is colorblind, and a woman who is a
carrier, what percentage of the children can be expected to be daughters who are color blind? Use a punnet square to
support your answer.
12. The gene makeup of an organism for a particular trait is known as its __________________
13. The observable, physical traits of an organism are known as its _____________________
14. Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that is controlled by a recessive allele. If a person suffering from CF were to
marry an individual who is heterozygous for the trait, what % of their children could be expected to unaffected carriers
of the trait? Ignore issues of sterility in persons with CF. Use a punnet square to support your answer.
15. In dragons, large scales (S) are dominant and small scales (s) are recessive. A dragon that is heterozygous for the
trait is crossed with a dragon that has small scales. What should be the ratio of large-scaled dragons to small-scaled
dragons among the offspring? Use a punnet square to support your answer.
16. The expected ratio of a dihybrid cross, for example TtPp X TtPp, using any kind of trait would be
A. 1:2:1
B. 9:3:3:1
C. 4:4:4:4
D. 3:9:3:1
EOC Review
Standard 10
Evolution
Key Vocabulary from this unit:
Evolution
Fossil
Embryology
Microevolution Frequency
Genetic Recombination Gene Flow
Genetic Drift
Speciation
Primate
Hominid
Bipedal
Cerebrum
Cerebral Cortex
Cerebellum
Brain Stem
Medulla Oblongata
Temporal, Parietal, Occipital,Frontal Lobes
Reproductive Isolating Mechanism
Analogous Structure
Homologous Structure Vestigial Structure
Behavioral Isolation
Geographic Isolation
Random/Nonrandom Mating
Please answer the following questions, note these are NOT all one word answers!
1.
Why does genetic variation increase the chance that some individuals in a population will survive?
2.
Describe two main sources of genetic variation.
3.
How does gene flow affect neighboring populations?
4.
What are the five factors that can lead to evolution? Explain each.
5.
Would a population of 10 individuals or 100 individuals be more vulnerable to genetic drift? Why?
6.
How can reproductive isolation lead to speciation?
7.
What are three types of barriers that can lead to reproductive isolation?
8.
Considering that millions of species have lived on Earth, why are there relatively few fossils?
9.
Describe two different hypotheses of the origin of early cell structure.
10. Explain why, according to the fossil record, it is not correct to say that humans evolved from chimpanzees
Please answer the following multiple choice questions.
11. When Darwin first proposed his theory of evolution by natural selection, the field of genetics did not yet exist. In what way
does genetic science now contribute to the study of evolution?
a. Scientists can create organisms that were extinct using DNA from fossils and better understand how they evolved.
b. Scientists can use genetic engineering to carry out the process of evolution over just months instead of millions of
years.
c. Scientists can compare DNA from fossils in rock to determine evolutionary relationships among extinct species.
d. Scientists can determine evolutionary relationships among living species by comparing amino acid sequences coded
for by DNA.
12. Scientists look at evidence to determine possible evolutionary relationships and mechanisms. Which of the following provides
strong evidence for evolution?
a. The fossil record
b. Forensic biology
c. Phylogenetic trees
d. Works of philosophy
13. The pictures below show similarities amoung the forelimbs of six animals.
These similarities provide evidence for which of the following hypotheses?
a. Legs and wings may have evolved from flippers.
b. All mammals have evolved from an ancestor that was a bat.
c. A cat’s leg, a whale’s flipper, and a bat’s wing have identical functions.
d. Humans, horses, cats, bats, birds and whales may have had the same ancestor millions of years ago.
14. How does drug resistance develop in bacteria?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unsanitary conditions allow all kinds of bacteria to breed, including those that are antibiotic resistant.
In the bloodstream, different species of bacteria exchange genes and become resistant to antibiotics.
Mutations in some bacterial genes make the bacteria stronger and better able to defeat the body’s immune system.
In the presence of an antibiotic, bacteria with genes that make them resistant survive and eventually take over the
population.
15. Biologists look at how organisms are related and when they first appeared on Earth. Which of the following is true about the
organisms that live on Earth today?
a. All organisms that have ever lived on Earth can still be found alive today.
b. Some of the organisms alive today have been around for 4.6 billion years.
c. The organisms alive today are the same as the ones that are found in fossils.
d. The organisms alive today evolved from organisms that previously lived on Earth.
16. Two models of the origin of life on Earth are the primordial soup model and the bubble model. What do these two models of
how life began on Earth have in common?
a. Both explain how UV radiation produces ammonia and methane.
b. Both involve only chemical reactions that take place within the ocean.
c. Both include chemical reactions that take place when there is lightning.
d. Both involve only chemical reactions that take place within the atmosphere.
17. The Miller-Urey experiment showed that, under certain conditions, organic compounds could form from inorganic molecules.
What is one consequence of this experiment?
a. Scientists think that life could not have developed through natural chemical and physical processes.
b. The experiment proved that methane and ammonia will always give rise to organic molecules in any circumstances.
c. Scientists think it is possible that organic compounds formed from the inorganic compounds present on Earth billions
of years ago.
d. The experiment used the exact inorganic compounds present on Earth billions of years ago and left little doubt about
the mechanism of early life.
18. What advantage did the development of bipedalism most likely confer to early hominids?
a.
b.
c.
d.
It allowed them to see with binocular vision.
It allowed them to evolve an opposable thumb.
It allowed them to evolve a complex social structure.
It allowed them to move and hold objects at the same time.
19. Darwin developed his idea of evolution by natural selection based in part on observations he made in the Galapagos Islands.
Which of the following ideas influenced Darwin’s development of evolutionary theory?
a. The discovery that genes are made of a biochemical called DNA.
b. The idea formulated by ancient Greek philosophers that all substances are made of atoms.
c. The development of the cell theory based on ideas from Mattias Schleiden, Theodor Schwann, and Rudolph Virchow.
d. The observation by British economist Thomas Malthus that the human population could not continue growing faster
than the food supply.
20. Speciation is the formation of new species as a result of evolution by natural selection. What effect could separation of
populations have on speciation?
a. One half of the species will go extinct if the population is separated
b. The separated populations will always evolve into at least two different species.
c. If the environments differ enough, the separated populations may evolve differently
d. By separating, the populations will no longer be able to interbreed and will die off.
21. The diagram below shows a sampling of Galapagos finches.
The evolution of beak sizes in Galapagos finches is a response to which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The color of their beaks
The types of seeds available
Whether the populations interbreed
The nutritional content of the seeds they eat
22. Genetic drift states that the random effects of everyday life can cause differences in the survival and reproduction of
individuals. What is one effect of genetic drift on evolution?
a. It produces only the traits in a population that are best adapted to the environment.
b. It can cause an unusual amount of genetic variation within a single population of a species.
c. It can cause a population’s allele frequencies to become those predicted by the Hardy-Weinberg principle.
d. It can cause certain traits in a population to increase even if those traits are not the ones that are best adapted to the
environment.
23. One way that populations can change is when new alleles appear. What is the major source of new alleles in natural
populations?
a. Mutations in sex cells
b. Mutations in somatic cells
c. Trait selection by natural selection
d. Adaptations in individual organisms
24. Male birds of paradise have extremely long, showy tail feathers. Which of the following statements best describes a selective
advantage for having this trait?
a. The bird is easier for predators to spot.
b. The bird must eat more to produce extra large feathers
c. The bird flies slowly because of drag created by the feathers
d. The bird attracts more females and therefore mates more frequently
25. Darwin’s theory of evolution was criticized fiercely during his time. Modern scientists now accept the theory while they still
debate many of its details. Through a theory cannot be “proven,” significant evidence can be used to support it. What kind of
evidence has led biologists to accept modern evolutionary theory?
a. Comparing the sequence of DNA base pairs of different species
b. Comparing different literary accounts of the origin of life on Earth
c. Comparing the anatomies of purebred pets and other domesticated species
d. Comparing Darwin’s knowledge with that of modern evolutionary scientists.
26. A species of toad living in an area is similar in form to toad fossils found in very old rock. Which hypothesis does this
observation support?
a. Toads living near the area have evolved slowly over time
b. Toads evolved rapidly, because there are many variations in form
c. This species of toad burrowed into the rock and became fossilized
d. The toads living today migrated to the area from a different region
27. Which species name meaning “wise man” describes hominid fossils associated with the first known paintings?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Homo erectus
Homo habilis
Homo neanderthalensis
Homo sapiens
28. In a population of clover flowers, there are both white and purple varieties. The cows that graze the field where the clovers
grow prefer the purple variety. Over time, the white clover flowers become much more numerous and the purple ones more
scarce. This is an example of what process?
a. Evolution
b. Reproduction
c. Natural selection
d. Genetic mutation
29. Immigration to the United State in the 1800s from Eastern Europe is an example of which type of force for genetic change?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Increased birth rate
Genetic equilibrium
Gene flow through interbreeding
Increased chance of genetic mutation
Modern scientists have observed that genetic changes happen over time in all natural populations. Therefore, by comparing
amino acid sequences, scientists can determine how similar one species is to another. The table below compares amino acids in
a number of species.
Hemoglobin Comparison
Animal with hemoglobin
Amino acids that differ from human
hemoglobin
Gorilla
1
Rhesus monkey
8
Mouse
27
Chicken
45
Frog
67
Lamprey
125
30. Based on the information in the table, which
animal is most closely related to humans?
a. Chicken
b. Gorilla
c. Lamprey
d. Rhesus monkey
EOC Review
Standard 11
Taxonomy and Classification
Key vocabulary for this unit: (there are other important terms but many have been used in previous units)
Taxonomy
Eukarya
Phloem
Taxon
Linneaus system
Binomial Nomeclature Cladogram
Eubacteria
Archeabacteria
Vertebrates
Invertebrates
Stomata
Transpiration
Domain
Xylem
Please answer the following questions. Notice: These are NOT one word answers!!
1. The classification system is broken into 8 main taxon beginning with Domain. List all 8 in order from general to
specific.
2. Which two levels of taxon are used in the scientific name of an organism?
3. What language is used in the classification system? Why is the choice of language significant?
4. What was an initial flaw in the Linneaus system?
5. What does a cladogram represent?
6. How many kingdoms are there? Which ones include ONLY uni-cellular prokaryotic cells?
7. List the 4 kingdoms under the Domain Eukarya, two characteristics of each kingdom.
8. What is the difference between an invertebrate and a vertebrate organism? Give some examples of each.
9. In plants what do vascular plants have that non-vascular plants do not? Explain how each type of plant is able to
get water and nutrients. (Be specific)
10. Draw a vascular plant including the label AND function of the following: roots, xylem, phloem, leaves, petals and
stems.
Please answer the following multiple choice questions.
1.
Which of the following kingdoms contains multicellular organisms that produce spores, lack
chlorophyll, and do not move on their own?
A. Protista
B. Fungi
C. Plantae
D. Eubacteria
2.
What do the members of the Protista kingdom have in common with the members of the Plantae,
Animalia, and Fungi kingdoms?
A. A root system
B. A backbone
C. A cell wall
D. A true nucleus
3.
Daniel is learning about how animals are classified into kingdoms and phyla. He is surprised to learn
that living things were classified into two kingdoms, Animalia and Plantae, until the early 1900s. He
knows that many scientists today use a classification scheme that identifies six kingdoms. Why has
the number of kingdoms increased?
A. Humans could not see any organisms from the kingdoms Fungi, Protista, or Monera before
the invention of the microscope.
B. Scientists learned more about the characteristics of many of the organisms that had been
classified before 1900.
C. Humans visited new ecosystems like the deepest parts of the ocean and created new
kingdoms for the organisms found there.
D. Organisms in the other kingdoms did not reproduce in great number until the human
population grew.
4.
To what kingdom do humans belong?
A. Primate
B. Monera
C. Animal
D. Protista
4.
What is the function of the root system of plants?
1. To anchor the plant
2. To absorb water
3. To absorb minerals
4. To photosynthesize
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 1, 2, and 3
5.
A student researching bears found the chart below in a textbook. The chart shows the classifications
of several types of bears.
Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the data given in this chart?
A. Modern bears evolved from species that are now extinct
B. The short-faced bear was the ancestor of the Asiatic black bear
C. Present day bear species are more closely related than their ancestors were
D. Natural selection favored the brown bear over the American black bear
6.
The leaves of the plant are dotted with openings known as stomata. When open, stomata allow the
plant to exchange gases and allow moisture to evaporate, helping to draw water from the roots up
to the plant. These activities help the plant to?
A. Produce light energy
B. Maintain homeostasis
C. Decompose organic matter
D. Synthesize minerals
7.
According to the Linnaean classification system, which of the following is in the same kingdom as the organism
in the box?
A. palm trees
B. monkeys
C. mold
D. bacteria
8.
According to the Linnaean classification system, which of the following is in the same species as the
organism in the box?
A. 1 only
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. 1, 3, and 4