FF6
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
_______is one of the applications
where distributed databases are used.
(a) Software companies.
(b) Airlines
(c) Data Centres
(d) None of the above
Which is not a disadvantage of
traditional file processing systems?
(a) Program-data dependence
(b) Reduced data redundancy
(c) Limited data sharing
(d) Lengthy development time
Which is NOT a component of a
relational database?
(a) Entity
(b) Table
(c) Attribute
(d) Hierarchy
Database applications can be divided
into five categories. Which is NOT a
database application category?
(a) Personal
(b) Department
(c) Enterprise
(d) Relational
Automated tools used to design
databases and application programs
are called ____ tools.
(a) CASE
(b) Repository
(c) OLAP
(d) LAN
Client/server computing, data warehousing,
and the Internet all became increasingly
important during this period.
(a) 1970s
(b) 1980s
(c) 1990s
(d) 1960s
The first step in database development,
in which the scope and content is
specified, is called
(a) Enterprise data modeling.
(b) Information engineering.
(c) Information systems architecture.
(d) Strategic planning factors.
In this step of the SDLC, one writes,
tests, and installs the programs that
process the database.
(a) Database implementation
(b) Physical database design and definition
(c) Database maintenance
(d) Logical database design
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9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
A(n) ____ is a detailed, technology
independent specification of the overall
structure of the database.
(a) Physical schema
(b) User view
(c) External schema
(d) Conceptual schema
This tier processes HTTP protocol,
scripting tasks, performs calculations,
and provides access to data.
(a) Client tier
(b) Applications/Web server tier
(c) Enterprise server tier
(d) DBA tier
This
tier
performs
sophisticated
calculations and manages the merging
of data from multiple sources.
(a) Client tier
(b) Applications/Web server tier
(c) Enterprise server tier
(d) DBA tier
The E-R model is most often used as a
tool during the ___ phase of database
development.
(a) Analysis
(b) Feasibility
(c) Design
(d) Implementation
Which is NOT an example of a strong
entity type?
(a) STUDENT
(b) COURSE
(c) DEPARTMENT
(d) STUDENT_ID
If EMPLOYEE is the entity type, then
SMITH, JOHN is the entity ____.
(a) Field
(b) Characteristic
(c) Instance
(d) Identifier
Which is NOT included in the database
design stage of the database life cycle?
(a) Resolve access conflict
(b) Logical database design
(c) Plan integrity controls
(d) Create sub-schemas
Which is NOT included in the database
planning stage of the database life cycle?
(a) Define operational requirements
(b) Develop cost/benefit models
(c) Select technologies
(d) Design database environment
(1)
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17. The fastest recovery plan involves
(a) Mirrored disks.
(b) Restore/rerun techniques.
(c) Checkpoints.
(d) A database change log.
18. A typical cause of ____ is a disk drive
failure or a head crash.
(a) Incorrect data
(b) Aborted transactions
(c) System failure
(d) Database destruction
19. With ____, each transaction is
restricted to a view of the database as
of the time that transaction started.
(a) Deadlock
(b) Versioning
(c) Shared locks
(d) Exclusive locks
20. Another name for a synonym is a(n)
(a) Alias.
(b) Homonym.
(c) Constraint.
(d) Enterprise key.
21. Two common ways of expressing a
conceptual schema are
(a) Text (narrative) and physical.
(b) Physical and mathematical.
(c) Mathematical and graphical.
(d) Graphical and text (narrative).
22. Which is NOT an advantage of a
standardized relational language like SQL?
(a) Reduced training costs
(b) Application longevity
(c) Reduced dependence on a single vendor
(d) Fixing deficiencies is relatively easy
23. SQL commands can be classified into
three types. Which is NOT an SQL
command type?
(a) DDL
(b) DML
(c) DGL
(d) DCL
24. Which is NOT an advantage of using a view?
(a) Simplify query commands
(b) Provide data security
(c) Enhance programming productivity
(d) Decrease system overhead
25. Functions include
(a) sCOUNT, MIN, and OR.
(b) MAX, SUM, and AND.
(c) AVG, IF, and COUNT.
(d) COUNT, SUM, and AVG.
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26. In a basic SELECT statement, ____
sets the criteria of the query.
(a) HAVING
(b) GROUP BY
(c) WHERE
(d) ORDER BY
27. Using the ____ keyword in a sub query
will check to see if any rows fit the
conditions, not return values from
particular columns.
(a) INCLUDE
(b) EXIST
(c) ALL
(d) ANY
28. The ____ clause is used to combine
the output from multiple queries into a
single result table.
(a) FROM
(b) UNION
(c) COMBINE
(d) JOIN
29. When a ____ occurs, changes to a
table are undone.
(a) Commit
(b) Rollback
(c) Auto commit
(d) Update
30. If STUDENT is an object class, then
Mary Jones is a(n) ____.
(a) State
(b) Behavior
(c) Object instance
(d) Identity
31. Which of the following is not a criterion
that should be considered when doing
requirements analysis?
(a) Need
(b) Correctness
(c) Consistency
(d) Speed
32. Which data model is independent of
both the DBMS software and the
hardware?
(a) Conceptual
(b) External
(c) Internal
(d) All of the above
33. Which of the following is an attribute that
holds multiple values for a single entity?
(a) Simple
(b) Composite
(c) Derived
(d) Multi-valued
(2)
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34. _______ expresses the specific number of
entity occurrences associated with one
occurrence of the related entity.
(a) Connectivity
(b) Degree
(c) Cardinality
(d) None of the above
35. Which of the following is the latest SQL
standard?
(a) SQL-82
(b) SQL-92
(c) SQL-3
(d) SQL-8
36. Which of the following is not a
character string?
(a) ‘Alexis Leon’
(b) 1234
(c) ‘Don’t do’
(d) ‘QWERTY’
37. Which of the following is not a data
definition language statement?
(a) CREATE
(b) ALTER
(c) DROP
(d) SELECT
38. Which of the following is not a Data
Manipulation Language statement/
(a) COMMIT
(b) UPDATE
(c) DELETE
(d) INSERT
39. Which of the following is not a
comparison operator?
(a) ANY
(b) ALL
(c) SOME
(d) UNION
40. Which of the following is not a set
operator/
(a) UNION
(b) INTERSECT
(c) LIKE
(d) MINUS
41. Which of the following database object
does not physically exist/
(a) Base table
(b) Index
(c) View
(d) None of the above
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42. Which of the following clause is usually
used together with aggregate functions?
(a) ORDER BY ASC
(b) ORDER BY DESC
(c) GROUP BY
(d) None of the above
43. Which of the following is used to get all
the columns of a table?
(a) #
(b) *
(c) %
(d) @
44. Which of the following is a component
of a distributed database system?
(a) Server
(b) Client
(c) Network
(d) All of the above
45. Which of the following refers to the
operation of copying and maintaining
database objects in multiple databases
belonging to a distributed system?
(a) Backup
(b) Recovery
(c) Replication
(d) None of the above
46. Which of the following is the probability
that the system is up and running at a
certain point in time?
(a) Reliability
(b) Availability
(c) Maintainability
(d) None of the above
47. Which of the following strategy is designed
to ensure that either all the databases are
updated or none of them are?
(a) Two-phase commit
(b) Two-phase locking
(c) Two-phase update
(d) None of the above
48. INGRES, ORACLE, SYBASE are the
commercial examples of ____
(a) DBMS software’s
(b) Operating system software’s
(c) Bunch of software utilities
(d) None of the above
49. Populating a database means ___
(a) Loading data into the database.
(b) Crosschecking the database
(c) Modifying the data in the database.
(d) None of the above
(3)
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50. Data isolation means ____
(a) Inaccessibility of data due to scattered &
heterogenous format of data
(b) Fragmented data
(c) Data at no. of places
(d) None of the above
51. ____________means the use of piece
of information for a particular person.
(a) Accuracy
(b) Timeliness
(c) Relevancy
(d) None of the above.
52. Data consistency means ____
(a) Change in one copy of data must reflect
in all the other copies of data.
(b) Change in one copy of data must not
reflect in all the other copies of data
(c) Change in all copies of data.
(d) None of the above
53. What separates the physical aspects of
data storage from the logical aspects of
data representation?
(a) Data
(b) Relationship
(c) Constraints
(d) Schema
54. What are the predicates that defines correct
database states and the schema describes
the organization of data and relationships
within the database.
(a) Data
(b) Relationships
(c) Constraints
(d) Schema
55. What defines a view or views of the
database for particular users?
(a) Internal schema
(b) External schema
(c) Conceptual schema
(d) None of the above.
56. Which of
the following
is a
characteristic of data in a database?
(a) Shared
(b) Redundant
(c) Independent
(d) All of the above
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57. What is sequence of database operations
that represents a logical unit of work & that
accesses a database and transforms it from
one state to another?
(a) Logical unit of work
(b) Transaction
(c) Record
(d) None of the above
58. ____is the database management activity of
coordinating the action of database
manipulation processes that operate
concurrently access shared data and can
potentially interfere with each other.
(a) Transaction management.
(b) Concurrency management
(c) Informatics management
(d) Database management
59. Which of the following is a hierarchial
database?
(a) IDMS
(b) IMS
(c) DB2
(d) Oracle
60. Network model is an example of ____
(a) Object based logical model
(b) Record based logical model
(c) Physical model
(d) None of the above.
61. To the computer, a file is nothing more
than ______ __
(a) Text
(b) Image
(c) Information
(d) Series of bytes
62. The values of the attributes describe a
particular _____________
(a) Entity
(b) File
(c) Instance
(d) None of the above
63. Each attribute of an entity is
represented in storage by a ________
(a) Data item
(b) Instance
(c) Field
(d) None of the above
64. Which of the following operation is required
for processing records in a file?
(a) File creation
(b) Record creation and record location
(c) Record deletion and record modification
(d) All of the above
(4)
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65. What is the expansion of ISAM?
(a) Internal Storage Access Mechanism
(b) Index Sequential Access Method
(c) Integrated
Storage
and
Management
(d) None of the above
66. What is the usual block size range?
(a) 512 bytes to 4096 bytes
(b) 512 kilobytes to 4096 kilobytes
(c) 5120 bytes to 40960 bytes
(d) None of the above
67. Which of the following is NOT true
about random access memory
(a) It is commonly referred to as RAM.
(b) It is a type of semiconductor chip.
(c) It stores the instructions and data
the microprocessor executes.
(d) Programs stored in this memory
cannot be changed.
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68. When you use the World Wide Web,
your browser is classified as a:
(a) Operating system
(b) Systems software
(c) Application program
(d) Client program
69. A type of storage device that stores the
same data on several different disks so
if one happens to crash, the other will
almost always have the same data is
called:
(a) Magnetic tape
(b) RAID
(c) Optical disk
(d) Microfilm
70. The use of a mouse or other pointing
devices to express commands by
selection icons or entries on pull-down
menus is called:
(a) User-friendly computing
(b) Point and click
(c) Windows
(d) Graphical user interface
(5)