College of Health & Human Services

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S.W. 138/01 – STUDY GUIDE
Stewart – Fall 2009
Chapter 1
1. Family violence is defined as
a. the physical injury inflicted upon a wife by her husband.
b. any act or omission by persons who are cohabitating that results in serious injury to other
members of the family.
c. any physical, emotional or psychological injury inflicted by a husband on his wife.
d. any act or omission by a husband upon his wife that results in serious injury.
2. Family violence includes which of the following acts
a. criminal offenses.
b. behavioral acts.
c. medical problems.
d. all of the above.
3. Straus and Gelles conducted two national family violence surveys in 1975 and 1985. These
surveys are considered reliable indications of violence in the family because of which of the
following factors
a. the sampling procedure, the large number of respondents and the validity of the Conflict
Tactics Scale as a measuring instrument.
b. the sampling procedure, the socio-economic class of respondents, and the validity of the
measuring instrument.
c. the follow-up process, the sampling procedure and the definitions used by Straus and Gelles.
d. subsequent surveys have validated the initial national survey.
4. The National Crime Victimization Survey (NCVS) conducts a nationwide sample and
interviews these individuals regarding victimization. This annual survey of citizens suffers from
which of the following problems
a. some respondents under report crimes.
b. some respondents over report crimes.
c. it is only an estimate of criminal activity.
d. all of the above.
5. The Psychopathology Theory of family violence is grounded upon which of the following
concepts
a. that some individuals suffered from Posttraumatic stress disorder and therefore cannot help
themselves when they commit violence against those that they live with.
b. that certain individual suffer from mental disorders that relieve them of criminal responsibility
when they commit acts of family violence.
c. that certain individuals suffer from personality disorders that cause them to engage in
aggressive acts towards their spouses.
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d. that certain individuals suffer from mental disorders, personality disorders and other
dysfunctions that cause them to engage in aggressive acts within the family.
6. The Substance Abuse Theory of family violence accepts the proposition that
a. alcohol causes family violence.
b. drugs and alcohol causes or contributes to family violence.
c. illegal drugs cause family violence.
d. some persons cannot use drugs or alcohol and therefore when they engage in this activity, they
will batter their spouses.
7. The Social Learning Theory of family violence
a. assumes that the type of behavior that is most frequently reinforced by others is the one that is
most often exhibited by the individual.
b. is an integration of differential associations with differential reinforcements so that people
with whom one interacts are the reinforcers of behavior that results in learning both deviant and
nondeviant behavior.
c. holds that social learning is accomplished by modeling & reinforcement.
d. all of the above.
8. The Socio-cultural Model of family violence focuses on
a. the roles of men and women in our society
b. the cultural attitudes towards women in our society
c. the acceptance of violence as a cause of family violence
d. all of the above
9. The Patriarch Theory and the Culture of Violence Theory are examples of which model of
family violence
a. the Socio-cultural Model
b. the Social Learning Model
c. the Socio-economic Model
d. the Cycle of Violence Model
10. The Cycle of Violence Theory of family violence
a. was invented by Helfer and Kempe when they coined the term “battered child syndrome.”
b. asserts that violent behavior is learned within the family and bequeathed from one generation
to the next.
c. is also known as the Cycle theory of Violence
d. both b and c.
Chapter 2
1. Doctor John Caffey studied children with subdural hematomas who also had other injuries. He
came to the conclusion that in the absence of a skeletal disease, children who have both subdural
hematomas and long bone fractures are victims of trauma. This condition became known as
a. the Battered Child Syndrome.
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b. Caffey’s Syndrome.
c. Kempe’s Syndrome.
d. Kempe and Caffey’s Syndrome
2. The Battered Child Syndrome is
a. no longer a valid medical-legal diagnosis because of our advances in medical science.
b. is a medical-legal term used to describe children who are suffering from long bone fractures
and subdural hematomas.
c. is a term that describes the characteristics of children who are abused as a result of the Cycle
of Violence.
d. is a medical-legal term that describes the diagnosis of a medical expert based upon scientific
studies that indicate when a child suffers certain types of continuing injuries that those injuries
were not caused by accidental means.
3. Physical Child Abuse is defined as
a. any act which results in non-accidental physical injury by a person who has care, custody or
control of a child.
b. includes sexual, emotional and neglectful acts against a child.
c. any act which causes a physical injury to the child.
d. both a and c.
4. The Psychopathological Model of family violence
a. stresses the characteristics of the abuser as the primary cause of abuse.
b. is no longer considered a valid theory to explain child abuse.
c. discounts the abuser’s personality as a factor in child abuse.
d. both b and c.
5. The Psychopathological Model of family violence includes the following approaches to child
abuse
a. the cycle of violence model, the mental illness model, and the character-trait model.
b. the character-trait model, the mental illness model, and the psychodynamic model.
c. the social learning model, the mental illness model and the psychiatric model.
d. the mental illness model, the social learning model and the character-trait model.
6. The Interactional Model of child abuse views it s a result of dysfunctional system. This model
focuses on the following factors in child abuse
a. the role of the child, planned events and the background of the parent.
b. the perceptions of the parent, the role of the child and chance events.
c. the family structure, the role of the child and the background of the parents.
d. the family structure, chance events, and the role of the child.
7. The Environmental-Sociological-Cultural Model of child abuse views it a result of stresses in
society that are the primary causes of abuse. This model includes the following causes of child
abuse
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a. the environmental stress model, the psychosocial model, the social-learning model and the
social-psychological model
b. the social learning model, the psychological model, the environmental stress model and the
social-psychological model.
c. the psychological model, the family structure model and cultural model..
d. the environmental model, the cultural model and the sociological model.
8. Which of the following physical indicators should alert a professional to the possibility of
physical child abuse
a. unexplained bruises or welts and/or unexplained burns
b. unexplained lacerations to the mouth, lips, arms and/or legs.
c. appearance of injuries after a weekend or vacation
d. all of the above
9. Bruises that are yellow in color typically indicate that the injury occurred
a. 0-5 days ago
b. 5-7 days ago
c. 7-10 days ago
d. 10-14 days ago
10. Munchausen Syndrome by Proxy is also known as
a. The False Disease Disorder.
b. The Wrong Disease Diagnosis Syndrome.
c. Fictitious Disorder by Proxy
d. both a and c.
11. Spiral fractures are
a. a very strong indication of physical child abuse.
b. usually a break in the humerus or femur that is the result of a twisting motion.
c. can occur if a child under three years old catches his or her foot and falls down causing the
injury.
d. both a and b.
Chapter 3
1. While the figures may vary from study to study regarding the types and incidents of child
sexual abuse, most scholars agree that which of the following commits the most incidents of
abuse
a. acquaintances of the child
b. family members of the child
c. strangers
d. siblings of the child
2. Child sexual abuse includes which of the following conditions
a. the offender must be a family member
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b. there must be actual penetration of the body of the child
c. the health or welfare of the child must be harmed or threatened
d. the offender must be an adult
3. Child sexual abuse is distinguished from rape in that
a. the perpetrator may use a variety of different techniques to achieve the objective of sexual
gratification.
b. Rape normally involves sexual acts as the result of force or fear.
c. Child sexual abuse may include manipulation of the child.
d. all of the above.
4. Finkelhor established the Four Preconditions Model of Sexual Abuse Theory, which stated
that certain factors or preconditions create a personal and social context for expressing sexually
abusive behavior. These factor include
a. factors that concern the victim’s ability to resist the sexual advance, factors outside the control
of the perpetrator, factors that the perpetrator must overcome internally that would normally
prevent him from sexually abusing the child and factors that prevent abuse such as the lack of
social support for the mothers.
b. factors outside the control of the perpetrator, factors that concern the victim’s ability to resist
the sexual advance, factors that the perpetrator must overcome internally that would normally
prevent him from sexually abusing the child and motivation to sexual abuse the child.
c. factors outside the control of the perpetrator, factors that concern the victim’s ability to resist
the sexual advance, and motivation to sexual abuse the child.
d. facts that prevent abuse such as the lack of social support for the mothers, the child’s
availability, the age and sophistication of the child, and the child’s previous sexual experience.
5. Young boys may be victims of child sexual abuse. Which of the following is a reason that they
may not report these acts or incidents
a. boys may not want to be viewed as sissies or perceived as weak.
b. boys do not normally have to account for their movements to the same degree that young girls
do.
c. stereotypes lead us to look for sexual abuse with girls, not boys.
d. all the above.
6. Which of the following is not a behavioral indicator of child sexual abuse
a. fear, inability to trust, anger and hostility and inappropriate sexual behavior.
b. depression, guilt or shame and problems in school.
c. frequent urinary tract or yeast infection, and stained or bloody underwear.
d. somatic complaints, sleep disturbances and regressive behavior.
7. When a child has been sexual abused medical evidence is found
a. in only 10 to 50 percent of all cases.
b. in all cases where there has been penetration by the perpetrator.
c. in 80 to 90 percent of all cases.
d. in 80 to 90 percent of cases involving sexual intercourse.
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8. The prohibition against incest includes which of the following theories
a. multidimensional, multifactor, biological, social and psychological.
b. multidimensional, feminist, biological, familial, and psychological.
c. feminist, biological, social, psychological and multifactor
d. multifactor, familial, psychological, biological and feminist
9. High-risk years for child sexual abuse are:
a. 4-9 years old.
b. 2-5 years old.
c. 10-13 years old.
d. 14-18 years old.
Chapter 4
1. Polansky and his associates established three major causes of neglect, they included:
a. economic causes, psychological factors, and social forces.
b. personalistic causes, social causes, and ecological causes.
c. ecological causes, personalistic causes, and economic causes.
d. social causes, economic causes, and psychological causes.
2. Under the personalistic theory of child neglect,
a. neglect is viewed as being caused by complex social, psychological, interpersonal behaviors.
b. neglect is viewed as being caused by complex maladaptive interactions and/or lack of essential
care taking behaviors that are influenced by the level of parental skill, knowledge deficits and
other stress factors.
c. neglect is viewed as being caused by a series of simple interactions involving personality
factors of the abuser that indicate he or she is lacking in certain parenting skills.
d. neglect is viewed as being caused by psycho-social factors such as poverty.
3. Nonorganic Failure to Thrive (NFTT) is a condition in infants diagnosed by the presence of
a. the infant is under the fifth percentile in both height and weight
b. the infant at one time weighed and was of a height within the expected norm.
c. the infant is under the fifth percentile in weight and was within the normal range at one time
d. both a and b
4. Emotional neglect consists of
a. acts or omissions which are judged by the community standards and professional expertise to
be psychologically damaging to the child.
b. omissions by the parent or caretaker which are considered by experts to be psychologically
damaging to the child.
c. acts which result in psychological harm or injury to the child.
d. both b and c.
5. Hart and Brassard identified specific categories of emotional neglect which included
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a. spanking the child, rejecting the child, terrorizing the child and denying the child emotional
responses.
b. spurning the child, terrorizing the child, corrupting the child and spanking the child.
c. spurning or rejecting the child, terrorizing the child, corrupting the child, and denying the child
emotional responses.
d. use of guilt, constant criticism and unrealistic expectations.
6. Medical neglect occurs when
a. the primary physician fails to take appropriate medical action to save the child from further
injury.
b. school personnel fail to report cases of suspected child abuse.
c. the parent or caretaker agrees to acceptable medical services for the child.
d. there is a refusal of a parent or caretaker to obtain acceptable medical services for the child.
7. A parent may refuse to grant permission for medical treatment for his or her child
a. if it violates the parent’s religious beliefs.
b. if it violates the child’s religious beliefs.
c. only if it violates both the parent’s and the child’s religious beliefs.
d. never if it endangers the child’s well being.
8. Abandonment is
a. parental conduct that indicates a conscious rejection of the obligations of parenthood.
b. parental conduct that indicates that the parent may be rejecting the obligations of parenthood.
c. a form of physical abuse.
d. both b and c.
9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of parents or caretakers who neglect their
children?
a. Lack of motivation.
b. Inability to plan.
c. Lack of knowledge.
d. Inability to understand.
10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an emotionally neglected child?
a. Exaggerated fearfulness.
b. Substance abuse.
c. Laziness.
d. Habit disorders.
Chapter 5
1. Sibling abuse
a. is not a separate form of family violence.
b. is a common form of family violence.
c. is a rare form of family violence.
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d. both a and b.
2. Early thinking regarding sibling abuse as
a. relatively benign.
b. extremely serious
c. a rare form of family violence
d. both a and b.
3. Most authorities accept the proposition that sibling abuse
a. can be cohesive in nature.
b. is a rare form of family violence.
c. occurs only when there is a large age difference between siblings.
d. both a and c.
4. Laredo established a continuum of motivations of perpetrators of sibling abuse. These include
a. exploration.
b. retribution
c. power and control
d. all of the above.
5. According to Laredo, exploration
a. is common in sibling sexual abuse.
b. takes the form of play or games.
c. is used to get even with the younger sibling for actual past slights.
d. both a and b.
6. According to O’Brien’s research on sibling abuse, siblings commit more serious types of
abuse than other adolescent offenders. This increased sexual activity is based upon which of the
following factors
a. the secrecy that surrounds the activities of the family unit.
b. the power and control aspect set forth by Laredo
c. the easy and continuing access the sibling had to the victim.
d. both a and c.
7. Gelles and Cornell’s research on sibling abuse confirmed that
a. sibling abuse is the most serious form of family violence.
b. children who exercise power and control are more likely to abuse their siblings.
c. as siblings grow older the abuse decreases.
d. both and b.
8. Hotaling and his associates established the following characteristics of sibling abuse
a. sibling abuse is highest in multiassualtive families.
b. both sexes participate in sibling abuse.
c. sibling abuses cross all race and socioeconomic lines.
d. all of the above.
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9. Serial abuse of siblings
a. occurs when the perpetrator who is a member of the family abuses first one child and then
abuses another sibling.
b. occurs when a stranger first abuses one child and then abuses another sibling.
c. is limited to sexual abuse of siblings.
d. both a and c.
Chapter 6
1. According to the Focus in your text dealing with day care abuse, what is used to silence young
victims in day care settings
a. threats
b. promises of candy
c. treats
d. both b and c.
2. Ritualistic child abuse includes
a. physical, emotional, ritual and sexual abuse.
b. psychological, sexual, physical abuse involving the use of rituals.
c. physical, emotional, sexual, ritual and neglect.
d. extreme forms of physical and sexual abuse.
3. Kahaner developed a typology of satanic groups, which include
a. publicly known cults, private cults, and formal Satanists.
b. public cults, secret cults, and Satanists.
c. private cults, self-styled Satanists, and publicly known cults.
d. formal Satanists, self-styled Satanists, and publicly known cults.
4. In assessing ritualistic abuse, Jones sets forth the following explanations
a. the events did in fact occur as described.
b. the events did not occur and children or adult survivors are mistaken or telling lies.
c. that some of the events did in fact happen and others did not.
d. all of the above.
5. Dissociative disorders
a. may result from ritualistic abuse.
b. include several recognized mental illnesses.
c. may be sudden or gradual in nature.
d. all of the above.
6. Depersonalization disorder
a. occurs when a patient’s feeling of reality is lost and is replaced with a feeling of unreality.
b. occurs when a person cannot feel any emotion, such as love for another person.
c. is a dissociative disorder.
d. both a and c.
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7. Psychogenic amnesia involves
a. a gradual loss of memory that results from being a victim of ritualistic abuse.
b. a sudden loss of memory in which the person is unable to remember important personal
information.
c. loss of memory as a result of a blow to the head.
d. both a and c.
8. Multiple Personality Disorder
a. is not recognized as a valid mental disorder and only occurs in fiction.
b. is the existence within a person of two or more distinct personalities where at least two of
these recurrently take full control of the person’s behavior.
c. is the existence within two persons of the same personality.
d. is the result of a loving caring childhood.
9. Which is not a potential reason mentioned for the drugging of children in daycares?
a. to make them less resistant to abusive activities.
b. to distort their perceptions and recall of events.
c. to make them fall asleep.
d. to excite them about sexual activity.
Chapter 7
1. A confidential communication is
a. one that cannot under any circumstances be divulged.
b. information that is made under circumstances where the speaker intended that the statement be
shared only with the recipient of the information.
c. can be waived at any time by the recipient of the information.
d. both b and c.
2. The person who communicates the confidential information to the professional is
a. known as the recipient of the communication.
b. mandated to report suspected cases of abuse.
c. a lay person who cannot bar disclosure.
d. the holder of the privilege and can bar disclosure or waive it as they deem necessary.
3. Megan’s Law involve
a. notification of the community of the location of a released sex offender.
b. mandatory registration of sex offenders
c. one strike (sex offense) requires a twenty-year life sentence.
d. unconstitutional notification requirements.
4. Children’s memory can be classified into the following types:
a. recognition and association.
b. association and free recall.
c. recognition and free recall
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d. free association and forced recognition.
5. An example of a focused question is
a. Where was your Daddy?
b. When your Daddy walked into the room, what did he do?
c. Were you doing anything?
d. Did your Mother hit you every day when she drank?
6. An example of a leading question is
a. Did your Daddy say anything before he touched you?
b. Are you aware that telling a lie is considered perjury and subjects you to criminal sanctions?
c. You Daddy touched your private parts didn’t he?
d. When you Daddy walked into the room, what did he do?
7. An example of a coercive question is
a. Is it true that you saw your brother being hit by your Mother?
b. Are you aware that telling a lie is considered perjury and subjects you to criminal sanctions?
c. Your Daddy touched your privates didn’t he?
d. Where was your Daddy?
8. Competency requires
a. that the witness understands the nature of the proceedings.
b. that the witness be able to accurately related what transpired.
c. that the witness is able to testify without violating the hearsay rule.
d. both a and b.
9. Anatomical dolls are sometimes used in interviewing victims of child abuse. These dolls assist
professionals in the following ways
a. they allow the child to explain what occurred by referring to the doll rather than themselves.
b. the child’s interactions with the doll may provide additional clues to the interviewer.
c. these dolls may facilitate communication.
d. all of the above.
10. What element is required for emergency removal of a child from an abusive situation?
a. Danger.
b. Imminent danger.
c. Specific evidence.
d. Acute evidence.
11. When is the normal time frame that an abuse investigation must start?
a. 12 hours.
b. 24 hours.
c. 48 hours.
d. 72 hours.
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Chapter 8
1. Which of the following is not a reason child exploiters use the internet as a tool for
exploitation?
a. It helps them maintain anonymity.
b. They can find others who agree with their values and practices.
c. They may trade or purchase pictures of their young victims.
d. It is usually the most cost-effective route for exploitation.
2. Trafficking means:
a. the transportation of persons against their will across international borders.
b. recruitment, transportation, transfer, harboring, or receipt of persons by means of a threat or
other forms of coercion.
c. the use and transport of persons or people for purposes of slavery, sexual slavery, or
prostitution for means of financial gain.
d. human smuggling.
3. Victims of child pornography fall primarily into which age group?
a. 7-11 years old.
b. 1-3 years old.
c. 12-17 years old.
d. 4-6 years old.
Chapter 9
1. The Cycle Theory of Violence
a. is the same as the Cycle of Violence Theory
b. attempts to examine the dynamics of spousal abuse
c. has not been accepted by the legal system.
d. both b and c.
2. Walker established the following responses for women suffering from the Battered Women
syndrome
a. self destructive learned helplessness deficits, self defense mechanisms including heightened
awareness and traumatic effects of victimization by the abuser.
b self defense mechanisms including learned helplessness, heightened awareness and coping
skills.
c. self destructive coping responses to violence, coping skills, and learned helplessness.
d. self destructive coping responses to violence, learned helplessness deficits and traumatic
effects of victimization induced by violence.
3. The Stockholm Syndrome occurs when persons who are held as hostages, captives or
prisoners of war
a. develop learned helplessness.
b. learn to hate their captors.
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c. begin to identify with the captors.
d. develop Post Traumatic Stress Disorder.
4. Dutton’s theory of traumatic bonding holds
a. the more the abuser beats the victim, the more she bonds with him.
b. discussed bondage and spousal abuse and holds that abused victims who are subjected to
bondage as part of the abuse stay in those relationships longer than victims who are not subjected
to that form of abuse.
c. is another name for the Cycle of Violence Theory.
d. that the victim becomes susceptible to her abuser’s loving contrite pressure to return and as
her fear lessens and the needs provided by her abuser increase, she may decide to return.
5. Some studies indicate that spousal abuse may have declined in frequency in recent years.
Scholars offer the following explanation(s) for this decline
a. the existence of shelters for women who are abused.
b. more effective punishment and better treatment for the abuse.
c. widespread publicity that has occurred about spousal abuse
d. all of the above.
6. Which of the following theories attempts to explain the relationship between alcohol and
spousal abuse
a. the social stress and alcohol deviance theory
b. the social disinhibition theory
c. the social learning and deviance disavowal theory
d. the social integrated alcohol deviance theory.
7. Straus and Gelles set forth the following factors as have more impact on the degree of risk a
women faces in a cohabitating relationship:
a. isolation, investment in the relationship, and use of alcohol
b. autonomy and control, isolation and investment in the relationship.
c. automony, use of alcohol, and stress.
d. isolation, stress and use of alcohol.
8. A theory on why women stay in abusive relationships states that women develop a distinct set
of beliefs during the abusive process. Which of the following is not one of those beliefs?
a. pre-existing beliefs
b. beliefs that occur as a result of the violence they have experienced.
c. beliefs developed as a result of the learning cycle of violence.
d. beliefs that develop during the abusive relationship.
9. A theory on why women stay in abusive relationships proposes that women stay because of
certain subjective feelings. Which of the following is not one of those feelings?
a. love.
b. fear.
c. guilt and feelings of failure.
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d. lack of resources.
10. Many victims of spousal abuse by police officers do not call their law enforcement agency
because
a. they fear their case will be handled by officers who know the abuser.
b. they are concerned for their safety.
c. they are concerned that the officers will side with their colleague and fail to properly
investigate the crime.
d. both a and c.
Chapter 10
1. Spousal assault
a. does not involve any physical injury to the victim.
b. is the same as spousal abuse.
c. is the act of intentionally inflicting physical injury on the spouse or other person who cohabitating with the abuser.
d. requires mandatory arrest of the offender by all police departments.
2. Saunders explored the characteristics of those who assault their spouses and established a
typology of three types of males who engage in spousal assault. This typology included
a. generalized aggressor, family-only type and repeat offender.
b. physical aggressor, sexual aggressor, and generalized aggressor.
c. active aggressor and passive aggressor.
d. generalized aggressor, family-only type and emotionally volatile.
3. An arrest
a. is the taking of a person into custody in a manner prescribed by law.
b. always occurs in spousal assault cases.
c. may be made only for felony spousal assault cases.
d. both a and b.
4. A felony
a. is punished by incarnation in local jails not to exceed one year.
b. is always filed in spousal assault cases if the victim is physically injured.
c. is the second most serious type of crime and may result in prison or jail.
d. is the most serious type of crime and is usually punished by imprisonment in state prison.
5. Probable cause
a. that set of facts that would lead an average person to believe a crime has been committed by
the suspect.
b. that set of facts that would lead a reasonable person to believe a crime has been committed by
the suspect.
c. that set of facts that would lead a police officer to believe a crime has been committed by the
suspect.
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d. both a and c.
6. Battery is:
a. a threat of force against another.
b. the fear of danger from another.
c. the unlawful touching of another.
d. all of the above.
7. The Minneapolis experiment
a. concerned the effect of arrest on those who batter their spouses.
b. was a failure.
c. involved social learning to change the conduct of sexual molesters.
d. both a and b.
8. Based upon the results of the Minneapolis experiment, Sherman and his associates made what
recommendation?
a. Change existing laws to allow for warrantless arrest of spousal abusers.
b. Suggested that mandatory arrest was the preferred option in most cases of spousal assault.
c. Additional experiments be conducted to validate the results of the Minneapolis study.
d. All of the above.
9. Mediation includes all of the following except:
a. a family member present to settle the dispute.
b. a formal dispute resolution process.
c. a neutral third party to mediate.
d. a viable alternative to arrest.
Chapter 11
1. Decalmer lists the following factor(s) that contribute to the failure to report and act on elder
abuse
a. conflicting definitions of elder abuse.
b. establishing the true extent of elder abuse.
c. the lack of research in the area of elder abuse.
d. both a and b.
2. Wolf, Pillemer and Godkin classifies elder abuse into the following areas
a. physical, material, active neglect, emotional and sexual abuse.
b. physical, sexual and neglect.
c. passive neglect, psychological abuse, physical abuse, material and active neglect.
d. physical, sexual, psychological and neglect.
3. Material in the context of elder abuse refers to
a. physical items such as bank accounts.
b. the exploitation or use of resources.
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c. the intentional taking of property of the elder.
d. both a and c.
4. An elder is defined as
a. a person 65 years or older.
b. a person older than 65.
c. a person 60 years or older.
d. a person 55 years or older.
5. Alzheimer’s disease has the following major facets
a. lack of memory, confusion and premature aging.
b. premature aging, memory impairment, loss of control over body functions.
c. intellectual deficits, personality deficits, stress-tolerance deficits.
d. uncontrolled aggression, loss of memory and premature aging.
6. The Psychopathology theory of elder abuse
a. is based upon the premise that the elders have mental disorders that cause them to be abused.
b. is based upon the premise that abusers have mental disorders that cause to be abusive.
c. is based upon the premise that elder abused is learned behavior which cannot be changed or
modified.
d. is based upon the premise that dependency in relationships contributes to elder abuse.
7. The Social exchange theory of elder abuse
a. is based upon the premise that abuse is learned and passed on from generation to generation.
b. is based upon the premise that abuse is socially learned behavior that cannot be controlled by
the abuser.
c. assumes the abuser exchanges violence against the elder for emotional satisfaction.
d. assumes that dependency in relationships contributes to elder abuse.
8. The Family stress theory of elder abuse
a. assumes that providing care for an elder induces stress within the family.
b. stress may take many forms including economic hardship and loss of sleep.
c. is one of the most accepted theories of elder abuse.
d. all of the above.
9. A conservator is a person appointed by the court
a. to take care of another person who is unable to care for him or herself.
b. to manage the estate of one who is unable to manage his or her affairs.
c. to represent those accused of elder abuse.
c. both a and c.
10. A guardian is a person appointed by a court
a. to take care of another person who is unable to care for him or herself.
b. to manage the estate of one who is unable to manage his or her affairs.
c. to represent those accused of elder abuse.
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c. both a and c.
Chapter 12
1. Outing
a. is a form of dating in the gay community.
b. is the disclosure of the victim’s sexual preference.
c. is not a threat used in gay or lesbian abuse..
d. is a form of dating in the heterosexual community
2. Domestic Partnership Bills have been enacted in some cities allowing gay and lesbian couples
to
a. be married by the local justice of the peace.
b. have recently been ruled unconstitutional by the U.S. Supreme Court.
c. grant gay and lesbian couples the right to adopt children.
d. register as intimate committed partners at the City Clerk’s Office.
3. Homosexuality is
a. a male homosexual.
b. a socially integrated group oriented toward and concerned with the welfare of homosexuals.
c. a female homosexual.
d. the manifestation of sexual desire toward a member of one’s own sex.
4. A lesbian is
a. a male homosexual.
b. a socially integrated group oriented toward and concerned with the welfare of homosexuals.
c. a female homosexual.
d. the manifestation of sexual desire toward a member of one’s own sex.
5. Why would the gay community fail to acknowledge family violence within its ranks?
a. Fear of increased derision from the heterosexual community.
b. It may add credence to the homophobic attitude that gay men and lesbians are deviates.
c. There is a critical shortage of support services.
d. Both a and b.
6. When attempting to prevent further abuse from their partners, what other legal hurdles do
same-sex couples face?
a. Homophobic attitudes by law enforcement officers.
b. Fear of retribution.
c. Fear of outing.
d. All of the above.
Chapter 13
1. AIDS is the acronym for
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a. the psychological trauma suffered when HIV becomes AIDS.
b. the medical term Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome.
c. Assistance in Developing Syndromes.
d. the medical, psychological, and physical symptoms suffered by AIDS victims.
2. How many types of HIV have been discovered
a. Only one that always turns into AIDS.
b. We keep finding new types every couple of years as the disease mutates.
c. Two: HIV-1 and HIV-2.
d. Three: HIV-1, HIV-2 and AIDS.
3. You can catch AIDS by
a. soaking in a hot tub with an infected person.
b. being bitten by an infected animal.
c. using the same telephone immediately after use by an infected person.
d. sexual activities.
4. The three most common routes of HIV transmission are
a. sexual transmission, soaking in a hot tub, and kissing.
b. blood to blood transmission, sexual transmission, and mother to child transmission.
c. dirty needles, anal sex, and soaking in a hot tub with an infected person.
d. kissing, using the same toilet seat, and mother to child transmission.
5. A disabled person is
a. one who has a lower pain tolerance than normal persons and as a result is limited in one or
more major life activities.
b. one who is suffering from a physical defect that substantially limits one or more the major life
activities of that person.
c. one who has a mental impairment that substantially limits one or more the major life activities
of that person.
d. one who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more the major
life activities of that person.
6. Disabled persons are victimized
a. the same as other persons.
b. less than other persons.
c. more than other persons.
d. not at all.
7. Why is the response to crime different for persons with disabilities than other victims?
a. There may be communication and mobility barriers.
b. The person may be unable to report a crime because of a mental or developmental reason.
c. Some reporting agencies fail to record that the victim was disabled.
d. All of the above.
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8. Why is research on military spousal and child abuse difficult to conduct?
a. It is a closed society and therefore difficult to obtain valid data.
b. The military asks that its members do not reveal this information to outsiders.
c. Social research on military bases is forbidden.
d. Social research on military bases is generally very limited.
9. Spiritual abuse is defined as
a. those acts committed by members of an organized religion who injury their members.
b. physical, emotional, or sexual abuse committed by a person using the authority of or under
color or spiritual beliefs.
c. requiring members to pray or worship for long periods of time without food or water.
d. a form of domestic violence.
10. Rural crime victims face
a. the same problems as urban crime victims.
b. greater problems than urban crime victims.
c. less problems than urban crime victims.
d. more violent crime than urban crime victims.
11. Geography plays a problem in rural crime victimization because
a. distance affects response time.
b. access to medical treatment takes longer.
c. law enforcement has to wait longer for backup.
d. all of the above.
Chapter 14
1. Millett’s Sexual Politics
a. contained numerous themes. One of the most important concerns the nature of the crime of
rape. The author argues that rape is not a sexual act, rather it is a violent, political act.
b. examines the concept of patriarchy which the author claims is a social and political system
that is utilized by men to control women.
c. discusses the history of rape and maintains that rape is an act used by men to maintain their
domination over women by use of force.
d. examines early feminist approaches to sexual abuse and concludes that sexual violence is base
upon power, sexuality and social control.
2. Griffin’s Rape: The All American Crime
a. contained numerous themes. One of the most important concerns the nature of the crime of
rape. The author argues that rape is not a sexual act, rather it is a violent, political act.
b. examines the concept of patriarchy which the author claims is a social and political system
that is utilized by men to control women.
c. discusses the history of rape and maintains that rape is an act used by men to maintain their
domination over women by use of force.
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d. examines early feminist approaches to sexual abuse and concludes that sexual violence is base
upon power, sexuality and social control.
3. Kelly’s Surviving Sexual Violence
a. contained numerous themes. One of the most important concerns the nature of the crime of
rape. The author argues that rape is not a sexual act, rather it is a violent, political act.
b. examines the concept of patriarchy which the author claims is a social and political system
that is utilized by men to control women.
c. discusses the history of rape and maintains that rape is an act used by men to maintain their
domination over women by use of force.
d. examines early feminist approaches to sexual abuse and concludes that sexual violence is base
upon power, sexuality and social control.
4. Power in the feminist analysis
a. consists of police or political power
b. is defined in terms of economics and who controls the financial resources in a relationship.
c. is defined in terms of a relationship which structures the interactions between men and
women.
d. holds that men are corrupted by the drive to acquire money and are therefore power hungry.
5. Sexuality in the feminist analysis
a. is how strongly from a physical perspective a man is attracted to a women.
b. holds that male control of women’s sexuality is a key factor in women’s oppression.
c. is defined by men’s experiences which legitimatize the use of force or coercion in intimate
relationships.
d. both b and c.
6. According to the feminist analysis, social control
a. always rests with men because of society’s view of women.
b. is the outcome of power and sexuality.
c. is the force that causes rape.
d. both a and c.
7. Some of the more theories on the causes of rape include
a. sexual motivation, the culture of violence, socialization, psychological forces, machosim, and
biological forces.
b. power, the culture of violence, male socialization, psychological forces, machosim, and
biological forces.
c. sexual motivation, socialization, power, psychological forces, machosim, and biological
forces.
d. power, male socialization, psychological forces, machosim, control and biological forces.
8. After researching rape for several years, Groth and Birnbaum established a more refined
version of their original typology of rapist in their book, Men Who Rape. This new revised
typology included
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a. the sadism rape, the power rape and the sexual rape.
b. the sexual rape, the anger rape and the forced rape.
c. the anger rape, the sexual rape and the power rape.
d. the forced rape, the sadism rape and the anger rape.
9. Post-traumatic stress syndrome
a. occurs when the victim experiences feelings of shame, humiliation, disjointedness, anger,
inability to concentrate and withdrawal.
b. is the development of a characteristic symptoms following a psychologically distressing event
that is outside the range of usual human experience.
c. is always present in every case of forcible rape.
d. both a and c.
10. Rape crisis syndrome
a. occurs when the victim experiences feelings of shame, humiliation, disjointedness, anger,
inability to concentrate and withdrawal.
b. is the development of a characteristic symptoms following a psychologically distressing event
that is outside the range of usual human experience.
c. is always present in every case of forcible rape.
d. both a and c.
11. Rape shield laws
a. are unconstitutional as they prevent the defendant from cross examining the victim.
b. prohibit the defendant from questioning the rape victim regarding her previous sexual history
c. prohibit the defendant from introducing any other evidence concerning the victim’s past sexual
practices.
d. both b and c.
12. Sexual harassment
a. involves requiring sex from a female by her supervisor as a condition of continued
employment.
b. the imposition of any unwanted condition on any person’s employment because of that
person’s sex.
c. involves an oppressive work environment where males make jokes about females.
d. is a crime where the victim must be a female.
Chapter 15
1. Erotomania
a. occurs when the stalker does not know his or her victim except through the media.
b. occurs when there existed a prior relationship between the stalker and the intended victim.
c. is a delusional disorder in which the predominant them of the delusion is that a person usually
of higher status is in love with the stalker.
d. both b and c.
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2. Love Obsessional stalking
a. occurs when the stalker does not known his or her victim except through the media.
b. occurs when there existed a prior relationship between the stalker and his or her intended
victim.
c. is a delusional disorder in which the predominant them of the delusion is that a person usually
of higher status is in love with the stalker.
d. both b and c.
3. Simple Obsessional stalking
a. occurs when the stalker does not known his or her victim except through the media.
b. occurs when there existed a prior relationship between the stalker and his or her intended
victim.
c. is a delusional disorder in which the predominant them of the delusion is that a person usually
of higher status is in love with the stalker.
d. both b and c.
4. A statute is vague and therefore unconstitutional if
a. it regulates conduct instead of speech.
b. it fails to provide explicit grounds for enforcement.
c. it prohibits both activities that are constitutionally protected, as well as activities that are
protected.
d. both a and c.
5. Stalking must be:
a. directed at a group of people.
b. activity that causes a reasonable person to be worried.
c. dangerous activity.
d. a knowing, purposeful course of conduct.
Chapter 16
1. The general classifications of physical injuries inflicted upon victims of family violence
include
a. long term injuries that heal leaving no trace, unknown long-term mental injuries, injuries that
leave invisible scars, and long-term catastrophic injuries.
b. immediate injuries that heal leaving a scar, unknown short-term physical injuries, injuries that
leave mental scars, and short-term catastrophic injuries.
c. immediate injuries that heal leaving no trace, unknown long-term physical injuries, injuries
that leave visible scars, and long-term catastrophic injuries.
d. mental injuries, physical injuries, financial injuries, and consequential injuries.
2. Burns are classified as
a. severe, moderate, and nonthreatening.
b. first, second, and third degree.
c. accidental or intentional.
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d. both a and c.
3. Catastrophic injuries are:
a. injuries that restrict a person’s physical movements.
b. injuries that, subjectively viewed, permanently damage a person’s mind.
c. injuries that occur to a person’s closest family members.
d. All of the above.
4. A crisis reaction involves the following stages
a. recoil, impact, reorganization.
b. fear, disbelief, acceptance.
c. the fright stage, the hysterical stage, the clam stage.
d. impact, acceptance, revisitation.
5. Posttraumatic Stress disorder
a. always associated with an insanity plea in a family violence case.
b. is a lay term used by Viet Nam Veterans to describe Acute Stress Disorder.
c. almost never shows up in family violence victims, but is a diagnosis reserved for those who
fought in wars.
d. is the development of characteristic symptoms following a psychologically distressing event
that is outside the range of usual human experiences.
6. Victims of family violence usually suffer the following types of losses:
a. out of pocket expenses such as medical costs and property losses, emotional trauma, and
nonmonetary losses such as pain and suffering and loss of quality of life.
b. out of pocket expenses, nonmonetary losses, and reduced productivity at work.
c. pain and suffering, loneliness, fear.
d. costs of an attorney, medical costs and counseling costs.
7. Which of the following is not a tangible loss in the case of family violence?
a. Property damage and loss.
b. Medical care.
c. Quality of life.
d. Productivity.
Chapter 17
1. Victimology is
a. the study of victims.
b. the study of criminals
c. the study of the victim, the offender, and society.
d. the study of society’s reactions to victimization.
2. A tort is
a. a civil wrong committed by another person upon the person or property of another.
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b. a personal injury committed by a third party upon the person or property of another.
c. a legal wrong committed upon the person or property of another independent of contract.
d. both a and b.
3. A complaint is
a. a formal written document that either admits or denies allegations.
b. a formal written document stating certain causes of actions that the plaintiff alleges entitles
him or her to recover damages from the perpetrator.
c. a formal written document that allows one party to obtain information regarding the finances
of the perpetrator.
d. both a and c.
4. An answer is
a. a formal written document that either admits or denies allegations.
b. a formal written document stating certain causes of actions that the plaintiff alleges entitles
him or her to recover damages from the perpetrator.
c. a formal written document that allows one party to obtain information regarding the finances
of the perpetrator.
d. both a and c.
5. Primitive laws were characterized by the following
a. the injured party was entitled to take action against the wrongdoer.
b. the injured party was allowed to retaliate against the wrongdoer in-kind or to inflict the same
amount of punishment on the wrongdoer that he inflicted upon the injured party.
c. acts that injured others were considered private wrongs.
d. all of the above.
6. Mendelsohn developed a typology of victims and their contribution to the criminal act. He
classified victims as
a. completely innocent victim, partially innocent victim, most guilty victim, victim with minor
guilt, victim
more guilty than the offender, victim who is the offender.
b. imaginary victim, completely innocent victim, partially innocent, victim more guilty than the
offender, victim who is as guilty as the offender.
c. imaginary victim, completely innocent victim, most guilty victim, victim with minor guilt,
victim more guilty than the offender, victim who is as guilty as the offender.
d. imaginary victim, real victim, financially injured victim and physically injured victim.
7. When the plaintiff asks to be made whole or reimbursed for expenses incurred as the result of
an injury, this is known as
a. restorative justice.
b. punitive damages.
c. restitution.
d. compensatory damages.
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8. When the plaintiff asks for damages to punish the defendant for conduct that is considered
outrageous, this is known as
a. restorative justice.
b. punitive damages.
c. restitution.
d. compensatory damages.
9. When public funds are paid to victims or their families to recover out-of-pocket expenses for
injuries suffered as a result of another’s criminal act, this is known as
a. restorative justice.
b. compensation
c. restitution.
d. compensatory damages.
10. When part of a criminal sentence requires the offender to pay for injured suffered by the
victim, this is known as
a. restorative justice.
b. compensation
c. restitution.
d. compensatory damages.
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