DENTISTRY FACULTY
Pathological anatomy include the pathology of head and neck
Module 2. Special Pathomorphology.
TEXT TESTS
1. Acute endocarditis warty rheumatism accompanied by:
A. fibrinoid changes of connective tissue and endothelium of the postponement of the
masses in the form of warts
B. mucoid changes of connective tissue with postponement of thrombotic masses in the
form of warts
C. fibrinoid changes of cardiomyocells and desquamation of the postponement of the
epicardium warts
D. mucoid changes of connective tissue and desquamation of the postponement of the
epicardium warts
E. * fibrinoid changes of connective tissue and desquamation of the postponement of
endothelial damage in parts of thrombotic masses in the form of warts
2. Acute ischemic heart disease leads to ...
A. Arrhythmias
B. Acute aneurysm
C. Chronic aneurysm
D. Brown atrophy of myocardium
E. * Sudden coronary death
3. Adverse effect of myocardial infarction.
A. Cardiosclerosis
B. Obesity Heart
C. Heart disease
D. Atrophy heart
E. * Cardiorrhexis
4. Phase of rheumatic granuloma is characterized by the accumulation of:
A. Neutrophils, lymphocytes, histiocells
B. Lymphocytes and follicles formation
C. Lymphocytes and follicles formation in breeding centers
D. All that described above
E. * Macrophages around the fibrinoid necrosis
5. Rheumatic granuloma phase is characterized by granuloma formation and the first period of
this formation is called as :
A. "Flagging granuloma"
B. "Acute granuloma"
C. "Fading granuloma"
D. "Blooming granuloma"
E. * "Flowering granuloma"
6. Brain hematoma most often develops as a complication of …
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Posthaemorrhagic anemia
C. Malignant anemia
D. Myelomic disease
E. * Hypertension disease
7. Who is authors of alimentary and metabolic theory of atherosclerosis pathogenesis?
A. Asshof
B. Goldstein, Braun
C. M'yasnykov
D. Dyuged
E. * Anichkov, Halatov
8. What is a background disease for atherosclerosis development most often?
A. Rheumatism
B. Diabetes
C. Symptomatic hypertension
D. Cerebrovascular disease
E. * Hypertension disease
9. What is the cardiovascular risk factors for atherosclerosis development?
A. Hyperlipidemia
B. Sedentary lifestyle
C. Excessive body weight
D. Arterial hypertension
E. * All listed above
10. Causes of death in acute ischemic heart disease.
A. Cardiogenic shock
B. Ventricular fibrillation
C. Hemoperykard
D. Acute heart failure
E. * All of the above
11. Name the changes in brain tissue which forming during hypertensive crisis.
A. Plasmocells impregnating of the arterioles wall
B. Cerebral ischemia
C. Softening of brain tissue
D. Brain cysts
E. * Diapedetic brain hemorrhage
12. Changes in cardiomyocytes in focal ischemic myocardium dystrophy.
A. Lysis of nuclei
B. Lysis of cytoplasm
C. Increasing the number of glycogen
D. Coagulation of cytoplasm
E. * Disappearance of glycogen
13. Changes in the aorta of developing hypertension
A. Gummy infiltration, sclerosis
B. Amyloidosis
C. Divided aneurysm
D. Caseous necrosis
E. * Atherosclerosis, hyperelastozis
14. What changes of coronary arteries lead to myocardial infarction most often?
A. Hiperelastoz
B. Elastofibroz
C. Hyalinosis
D. Coronaritis
E. * Atherosclerosis
15. Characteristic changes at liposklerosis stage of atherosclerosis.
A. Ulceration in the area of intima plaques
B. Vascularization in the area of intima plaques
C. Formation of necrotic cells in the intima
D. Ulceration of the wall surface thrombosis
E. * Fibrous tissue growth in intima plaques
16. Characteristic changes at lipoidosis stage of atherosclerosis.
A. The appearance of cells apoptoses
B. Sclerosis
C. Vascularization intimate
D. Petrification
E. * Focal infiltration of intima by cholesterol
17. Characteristic changes at prelipid stage of atherosclerosis.
A. Accumulation of erythrocytes in the intima
B. The appearance of foam cells
C. Accumulation of glycogen in intimate
D. Metabolic calcification
E. * Loss of glycocalix, expansion of intraendothelial cracks, activation of endocytosis
in endothelial cells
18. Name the risk factors for 2nd order of ischemic heart diseases.
A. Hypertension
B. Sedentary lifestyle
C. Excessive body weight
D. Protein starvation
E. * Violation of tolerance to carbohydrates
19. Clinical and morphological form of hypertension.
A. Suprarenal
B. Hepatic
C. Mesenteric
D. Aortic
E. * Brain
20. Clinical expression of arteriolosclerotic nephrocirrhosis at hypertension disease.
A. Acute heart failure
B. Chronic heart failure
C. Acute renal failure
D. Amyloidosis
E. * Chronic renal failure
21. What type of vessels are affected by atherosclerosis mainly?
A. Veins
B. Venules
C. Arterioles
D. Capillaries
E. * Arteries
22. Definition of hypertension.
A. Hypertension, as a secondary manifestation of the disease
B. Metabolic disease
C. Contagion
D. Disease impaired absorption
E. * Disease, the main feature of which is sustainable increase arterial pressure
23. Depending on the prevailing alternatives or regenerative processes distinguish the type of
rheumatic valvular endocarditis:
A. intramural endocarditis
B. transmural endocarditis
C. epikardial endocarditis
D. mixed
E. * diffuse endocarditis
24. Rheumatic diseases - a group of chronic diseases characterized by systemic lesion:
A. *connective tissue and blood vessels
B. joints
C. the circulatory system
D. cell
E. Kidney
25. What is rheumatic disease - (a group of chronic diseases characterized by systemic lesion):
A. *connective tissue and blood vessels
B. joints
C. the circulatory system
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
D. cell
E. kidney
In the etiology of rheumatic diseases is essential clinically expressed or latent:
A. *streptococcal infection
B. Meningococcal infection
C. diplokoccal infection
D. fungal infections
E. all infections
Pathogenic mechanisms of rheumatic diseases:
A. *allergic reactions of immediate and delayed-type
B. streptococcal septicemia
C. shock
D. staphylococcus septicopyemia
E. gipertermical reactions
To belong to pathogenetic mechanisms of rheumatic diseases:
A. *allergic reactions of immediate and delayed-type
B. streptococcal septicemia
C. shock
D. staphylococcus septicopyemia
E. gipertermical reactions
In rheumatic diseases the main pathogenetic plot are:
A. *progressive disorganization of the connective tissue
B. stagnant around the plethora of small joints
C. ischemia
D. Hypertrophy of left heart
E. atrophy
In the pathogenesis of rheumatic diseases is:
A. atrophy
B. *progressive disorganization of the connective tissue
C. stagnant around the plethora of small joints
D. ischemia
E. Hypertrophy of left heart
In the pathogenesis of rheumatic diseases is:
A. atrophy
B. *progressive disorganization of the connective tissue
C. stagnant around the plethora of small joints
D. ischemia
E. hypertrophy of left heart
Disturbance of connective tissue in rheumatic diseases includes:
A. atrophy
B. hyaline droplets dystrophy
C. *mucoid swelling
D. amyloidosis
E. hydropic dystrophy
What includes the disturbance of connective tissue in rheumatic diseases:
A. atrophy
B. hyaline droplets dystrophy
C. *mucoid swelling
D. amyloidosis
E. hydropic dystrophy
Disturbance of connective tissue in rheumatic diseases includes:
A. *fibrinoid swelling and necrosis
B. hyaline droplets dystrophy
C. amyloidosis
D. hydropic dystrophy
E. atrophy
35. What type of dystrophy involves the disruption of connective tissue in rheumatic diseases:
A. necrosis
B. *fibrinoid edema and necrosis
C. hyaline droplets dystrophy
D. amyloidosis
E. hydropic dystrophy
36. Disturbance of connective tissue in rheumatic diseases includes:
A. *Hyalinosis
B. cell reaction (granulematosis) and sclerosis
C. hyaline droplets dystrophy
D. amyloidosis
E. hydropic dystrophy
37. In rheumatism sensitizing factor antibodies:
A. *B-hemolytic streptococcus typeА
B. B-hemolytic streptococcus, type B
C. B-hemolytic streptococcus type AB
D. B-hemolytic staphylococcus type D
E. B-hemolytic staphylococcus type C
38. What antibodies are sensitizing factor in rheumatic conditions:
A. B-hemolytic streptococcus, type B
B. B-hemolytic streptococcus type AB
C. *B-hemolytic staphylococcus type A
D. B-hemolytic streptococcus type D
E. B-hemolytic staphylococcus type C
39. B-hemolytic streptococci type A has affinity with antigens аntibodies against
A. *connective tissue of heart
B. liver
C. kidney
D. tonsils
E. connective tissue of mediastinum
40. What kind of relationship with the antigens are B-hemolytic streptococci type A:
A. kidney
B. tonsils
C. connective tissue of mediastinum
D. *connective tissue of heart
E. liver
41. Kinship antibodies against B-hemolytic streptococci type A antigens from connective tissue
of the heart explains the predominant lesion in patients with rheumatism:
A. *heart
B. liver
C. only epikard
D. only endocard
E. more pericardiocentesis
42. What explains the predominant lesion in patients with rheumatism affinity antibodies
against B-hemolytic streptococci type A antigens from connective tissue of the heart:
A. liver
B. *heart
C. only epikard
D. only endocard
E. more pericardiocentesis
43. In rheumatoid arthritis in patients with damage mainly to the connective tissue:
A. *capsule of the joints
B. heart
C. kidney
D. renal capsule
E. liver
44. Connective tissue structures are damaged in rheumatoid arthritis:
A. heart
B. kidney
C. renal capsule
D. liver
E. *capsule of the joints
45. In the pathogenesis of rheumatoid arthritis are important:
A. *immune complexes, where the antibodies are different classes of immunoglobulins
(Ig M, Ig G, Ig A)
B. -C. immune complexes, where there are different classes of immunoglobulins (Ig N, Ig
Q, Ig B)
D. complexes, where there are different classes of immunoglobulins (Ig Y, Ig H, Ig L)
E. immune complexes, where the antigen is a globulin of different classes (Ig M, Ig G,
Ig A)
46. What have an important role in the pathogenesis of rheumatoid arthritis:
A. immune complexes, where the antigen is a globulin of different classes (Ig M, Ig G,
Ig A)
B. *immune complexes, where the antibodies are different classes of immunoglobulin
(Ig M, Ig G, Ig A)
C. immune complexes, where the antigen is a globule of different classes (Ig M, Ig G,
Ig A) -D. immune complexes, where there are different classes of immunoglobulins (Ig N, Ig
Q, Ig B)
E. complexes, where there are different classes of immunoglobulins (Ig Y, Ig H, Ig L)
47. In systemic lupus erythematosus is violated:
A. exchange of DNA and antigens to components formed the nucleus and cytoplasm
B. *exchange of DNA and formation of antibodies to components of the nucleus and
cytoplasm
C. exchange of RNA and formation of antibodies to components of the nucleus and
cytoplasm
D. exchange of RNA and formation of antibodies
E. exchange of DNA and antigens to components formed the nucleus and cytoplasm
48. Violations in systemic lupus erythematosus:
A. exchange of DNA and antigens to components formed the nucleus and cytoplasm
B. *exchange of DNA and formation of antibodies to components of the nucleus and
cytoplasm
C. exchange of RNA and formation of antibodies to components of the nucleus and
cytoplasm
D. exchange of RNA and formation of antibodies
E. exchange of DNA and antigens to components formed the nucleus and cytoplasm
49. Systemic scleroderma is characterized in the skin:
A. violation of vascularization
B. *sclerotic and atrophic changes
C. inflammation
D. calcification
E. violation of vascularization
50. What changes in the skin are identified with systemic scleroderma:
A. violation of vascularization
B. *sclerotic and atrophic changes
C. inflammation
D. calcification
E. violation of vascularization
51. The decisive factor for the development of scleroderma is a violation of the synthesis:
A. keloid
B. *collagen
C. fibrin
D. fibrinogen
E. keloid
52. What is the decisive factor for the development of scleroderma - a violation of the
synthesis:
A. keloid
B. *collagen
C. fibrin
D. fibrinogen
E. keloid
53. For nodular periarteritis characterized mechanism immunokomplex vascular lesions such
as:
A. arterioles- capillaries anastomosis
B. * small artery
C. aorta
D. large artery
E. arterioles-capillary anastomosis
54. What affects the blood vessels in the nodular periarteritis:
A. large-caliber artery
B. arterioles-capillaries anastomosis
C. *artery and small-medium caliber
D. aorta
E. large-caliber artery
55. It is believed that with nodular periarteritis due to fibrinous necrosis secondary hull vessels
develop proliferative response of cells in the outer shell, followed by transfer to:
A. granuloma
B. *sclerosis and the formation of knots
C. hyalinosis
D. amyloidosis
E. inflammation
56. In nodular periarteritis due to fibrinous necrosis secondary hull vessels develop proliferative
response of cells in the outer shell, followed by transfer to:
A. granuloma
B. *sclerosis and the formation of knots
C. hyalinosis
D. amyloidosis
E. inflammation
57. Bekhterev disease - a chronic rheumatic disease with the damage:
A. *glenoid spine-connected device
B. articular apparatus
C. large joints
D. small and large joints
E. articular apparatus
58. What kind of surprised when the disease Bekhterev -A. *glenoid spine-connected device
B. articular apparatus
C. large joints
D. small and large joints
E. articular apparatus
59. Bekhterev disease - a chronic rheumatic disease damaged articular-connected device the
spine, which leads to:
A. *bone ankylosis
B. bone amyloidosis
C. osteopetrosis
D. osteoporosis
E. articular apparatus
60. As a result, the disease develops Bekhterev:
A. Osteoporosis
B. *bone ankylosis
C. bone amyloidosis
D. osteopetrosis
E. Osteoporosis
61. Complications of the disease Bekhterev -A. *bone ankylosis
B. bone amyloidosis
C. osteonecrosis
D. osteoporosis
E. necrosis
62. Dermatomyositis - rheumatic diseases, leading to the clinical and morphological expression
of which is a system failure:
A. *skeletal muscles
B. skin
C. dermis
D. only the smooth muscle
E. kidney
63. What is leading to the clinical and morphological expression, with dermatomyositis:
A. System failure only of smooth muscle
B. *System failure skeletal muscles
C. Systemic dermal
D. System failure dermis
E. System failure only of smooth muscle
64. What kind of surprised when dermatomyositis:
A. *skeletal musculature
B. skin
C. derm
D. only the smooth muscle
E. kidney
65. Indicate which affects the structure with dermatomyositis:
A. *skeletal musculature
B. skin
C. dermis
D. only the smooth muscle
E. kindey
66. Rheumatism - a chronic disease with predominant lesion:
A. *heart and vascular
B. kidney and liver
C. arteries of medium caliber
D. muscular arteries, elastic-type
E. liver
67. In rheumatism predominantly affects:
A. *heart and blood vessels
B. kidney and liver
C. medium-sized artery
D. artery muscle-elastic type of
E. liver
68. Determination of rheumatism - a chronic disease with predominant lesion:
A. *heart and vascular
B. kidney and liver
C. arteries of medium caliber
D. muscular arteries, elastic-type
E. kidney and liver
69. In rheumatism periods alternate with periods of exacerbation of extinction (remission), so
during rheumatism:
A. remitting
B. nonhomogeneous
C. homogeneous
D. *wave
E. repeatedly
70. In rheumatism streptococci penetrate the body through the tonsils, release toxins and cause
destruction in the invasion of cells and inflammation, which usually manifests itself:
A. *angina
B. tonzilyar abscesses
C. retropharyngeal abscesses
D. Qatar nasopharyngeal
E. abscesses
71. Because rheumatic conditions streptococci penetrate the body through the tonsils, release
toxins and cause destruction in the invasion of cells and inflammation, which usually
manifests itself:
A. *angina
B. tonzilyar abscesses
C. retropharyngeal abscesses
D. Qatar nasopharyngeal
E. abscesses
72. In rheumatism streptococci penetrate the body through the tonsils, release toxins, which are
products of the destruction of cells is:
A. *activated antibodies
B. immune complexes
C. antibodies, which produce antigens
D. аntigens, that produce antibodies
E. leukocytes
73. What structures are formed by the interaction of streptococcus toxins and products of
destruction of cells in the amygdala rheumatic conditions:
A. activated antibodies
B. immune complexes
C. antibodies, which produce antigens
D. *antigens, that produce antibodies
E. activated antibodies
74. In the development of rheumatism occurs mukoid edema, which is:
A. *Surface and reverse disruption of connective tissue
B. irreversible disruption of connective tissue
C. Surface restructuring of the connective tissue
D. reverse proliferation of connective tissue
E. Surface restructuring of the connective tissue
75. Which involves mukoid swelling that develops rheumatic conditions:
A. *surface reverse disruption of connective tissue
B. irreversible disruption of connective tissue
C. surface reorganization of connective tissue
D. reverse the proliferation of connective tissue
E. irreversible disruption of connective tissue
76. Early diagnosis and early treatment of rheumatism:
A. *can lead to complete recovery
B. can never lead to a cure
C. can not lead to a reorganization of the connective tissue
D. can not lead to the restitution of connective tissue
E. can not lead to a reorganization of the connective tissue
77. As a result of early diagnosis and early treatment of rheumatism are:
A. *Full recovery
B. can never lead to recovery
C. can not lead to a reorganization of the connective tissue
D. can not lead to the restitution of connective tissue
E. can never lead to a cure
78. When the development of rheumatism among the stages of disorganization of connective
tissue are fibrinoid changes as swelling and necrosis, refer them to:
A. *irreversible
B. reversible
C. partially reversible
D. border
E. reversible
79. Phase of disorganization of connective tissue such as fibrinoid changes, swelling and
necrosis, refer them to:
A. *irreversible
B. reversible
C. partially reversible
D. border
E. reversible
80. Fibrinoidnye changes (swelling and necrosis) in the rheumatic conditions are characterized
by:
A. *homogenization of collagen fibers with infiltration of plasma proteins
B. homogenization of nerve fibers with infiltration their proteins
C. homogenization keloidnyh fibers with infiltration their proteins
D. granulyatsionnoy homogenization of tissue with infiltration plasma proteins
E. homogenization keloid fibers with infiltration their proteins
81. What are fibrinoid changes (swelling and necrosis), rheumatic conditions:
A. *homogenization of collagen fibers with prosyakannyam of plasma proteins
B. homogenization of nerve fibers with prosyakannyam their proteins
C. homogenization keloidnyh fibers with prosyakannyam their proteins
D. granulyatsionnoy homogenization of tissue with prosyakannyam plasma proteins
E. homogenization keloidnyh fibers with prosyakannyam their proteins
82. Stage granulematous rheumatic conditions morphologically evident:
A. *Cell incendiary reaction
B. Monokin reaction
C. cytokine response
D. polymorphonuclear cell inflammation of the reorganization
E. -83. What stage is morphologically manifested granulematous rheumatic conditions:
A. *Cell incendiary reaction
B. Monokin reaction
C. cytokine response
D. polymorphonuclear cell inflammation of the reorganization
E. --
84. The first stage granulematous in the form of nodular formations in the stroma of heart
described:
A. *Ashof
B. Bischoff
C. Amosov
D. Langerhans
E. Amosov
85. Who first described the stage granulematous in the form of nodular formations in the
stroma of heart:
A. *Ashof
B. Bischoff
C. Amosov
D. Langerhans
E. Amosov
86. Three phases of development of rheumatic granulomas – alteration , exudation
proliferations and sclerotic identified:
A. *Talalaev
B. Bischoff
C. Amosov
D. Ashof
E. Amosov
87. Who first identified three phases of development of rheumatic granulomas – alteration?
Exudation and proliferation and sclerotic:
A. Amosov
B. *Talalaev
C. Bischoff
D. Amosov
E. Ashtof
88. The entire development cycle granuloma rheumatic conditions are:
A. *4-6 months
B. 1 year
C. 1-2 years
D. 9-12 months
E. 2 years
89. The entire development cycle granuloma rheumatic conditions are:
A. 9-12 Months
B. 3 years
C. 4-6 months
D. 1 year
E. 1-2 years
90. Specify how much of the entire development cycle granuloma rheumatic conditions:
A. 9-12 Months
B. 5 years
C. *4-6 months
D. 1 year
E. 1-2 years
91. Alterative and exudative phase of development characterized by the accumulation of
rheumatic granuloma:
A. * macrophages around the focus fibrinoid necrosis
B. lymphocytes and the formation of follicles
C. lymphocytes and the formation of follicles in breeding centers
D. neutrophils, lymphocytes, histiocytes
E. neutrophils, lymphocytes, histiocytes
92. What is alteration, axudative phase development of rheumatoid granuloma:
A. accumulation of neutrophils, lymphocytes, histiocytes
B. accumulation of lymphocytes and the formation of follicles in breeding centers
C. *a macrophages ccumulation around the focus fibrinoid necrosis
D. accumulation of lymphocytes and the formation of follicles
E. accumulation of lymphocytes and the formation of follicles in breeding centers
93. Indicate what is alteration and exudation phase development of rheumatoid granulomy:
A. accumulation of neutrophils, lymphocytes, histiocytes
B. accumulation of neutrophils,
C. *accumulation around the campfire fibrinoidnogo necrosis of macrophages
D. accumulation of lymphocytes and the formation of follicles
E. accumulation of lymphocytes and the formation of follicles in breeding centers
94. The presence of «sclerosing granuloma» refers to:
A. *fading process
B. exacerbation of the process after remission
C. active attack of rheumatism
D. recovery process after an active attack of rheumatism
E. slight slowdown in the pace of development
95. At that indicates the existence of «sclerosing granuloma»:
A. active attack of rheumatism
B. *fading process
C. exacerbation of the process after remission
D. recovery process after an active attack of rheumatism
E. slight slowdown in the pace of development
96. With the development of rheumatoid granulomy phase sclerosis fibroblasts replace the
necrotic zone fibrinoid are synthesized:
A. * argyrophil and collagen fibers
B. mukoid swelling
C. fibrinoid swelling
D. hyalinosis
E. amyloidosis
97. With the development of rheumatoid granuloma phase sclerosis fibroblasts replace the
necrotic zone fibrinoid, are synthesized:
A. * argyrophil and collagen fibers
B. Mukoid swelling
C. Fibrinoid swelling
D. Hyalinosis
E. amyloidosis
98. With the development of rheumatoid granuloma phase sclerosis granuloma recruits
properties scar, a sign indicates:
A. *remission of disease
B. Acute period
C. escalation process after remission
D. rebuilding process after the strong attack of rheumatism
E. slight slowdown in the pace of development
99. What period of the disease shows the development of rheumatoid granuloma in the sclerosis
phase:
A. acute period
B. *remission of disease
C. escalation process after remission
D. rebuilding process after the strong attack of rheumatism
E. slight slowdown in the pace of development
100.
In a typical course of rheumatism in the first place is damaged:
A. *heart
B. only the large joints
C. only small joints
D. Only kidney
E. liver
101.
Which body is damaged in the first place, with a typical current of rheumatism:
A. *heart
B. only the large joints
C. only small joints
D. Only kidney
E. liver
102.
In a typical course of rheumatism in the first damaged heart, which develops a
pathological process, such as:
A. *endocarditis and myocarditis
B. endovaskulitis coronary arteries
C. pericarditis and pankarditis
D. perivaskulitis coronary arteries
E. cardiosclerosis
103.
What pathologic process develops in the heart, with a typical current of rheumatism:
A. *endocarditis and myocarditis
B. endovaskulitis coronary arteries
C. pericarditis and pankarditis
D. perivasculitis of coronary arteries
E. cardiosclerosis
104.
Endocarditis rheumatic conditions on the localization can be:
A. *valvular
B. mural
C. transmural
D. epicardial
E. pericardial
105.
What endocarditis rheumatic conditions may be to localize:
A. *valvular
B. mural
C. transmural
D. epicardial
E. pericardial
106.
Endocarditis (inflammation endocardium) rheumatic conditions on the localization
can be:
A. *chordal
B. mural
C. transmural
D. epicardial
E. pericardial
107.
How to localize endocarditis (inflammation of endocardium) rheumatic conditions:
A. *chordal
B. mural
C. transmural
D. epicardial
E. pericardial
108.
Endocarditis (inflammation of endocardium) rheumatic conditions on the
localization can be:
A. *subendocardial
B. mural
C. transmural
D. epicardial
E. pericardial
109.
How to localize endocarditis (inflammation of endocardium) may be rheumatic
conditions:
A. *subendocardial
B. mural
C. transmural
D. epicardial
E. pericardial
110.
Often the rheumatoid process affects:
A. *mitral and aortic valves
B. tricuspid valve
C. valve pulmonary artery
D. valve and the pulmonary artery and tricuspid valve
E. -111.
What most amazes rheumatic process:
A. *mitral and aortic valves
B. tricuspid valve
C. valve pulmonary artery
D. valve and the pulmonary artery valve tricuspid
E. -112.
What kind-hearted often surprised when rheumatic process:
A. *mitral and aortic valve
B. tricuspid valve
C. valve pulmonary artery
D. valve and the pulmonary artery tricuspid valve
E. -113.
Depending on the prevalence alterative or regenerative processes distinguish the
type of rheumatic valve endocarditis:
A. *diffuse endocarditis
B. mural endocarditis
C. transmural endocarditis
D. epicardial endocarditis
E. pericarditis
114.
Depending on the prevalence alterative or regenerative processes distinguish the
type of rheumatic valve endocarditis:
A. *diffuse endocarditis
B. mural endocarditis
C. transmural endocarditis
D. epicardial endocarditis
E. pericarditis
115.
Diffuse endocarditis as a kind of rheumatic valve endocarditis is characterized by
diffuse:
A. *mucoid swelling of connective tissue without damaging the endothelium
B. fibrinoid necrosis of connective tissue and endothelial
C. fibrinoid edema of connective tissue and endothelial damage
D. hyalinosis of connective tissue and endothelial
E. amyloidosis
116.
What is diffuse endocarditis as a kind of rheumatic valve endocarditis:
A. -B. *mukoid edema of connective tissue without damaging the endothelium
C. fibrinoid necrosis of connective tissue and endothelial
D. fibrinoid edema of connective tissue and endothelial damage
E. hyalinosis of connective tissue and endothelial
117.
Depending on the prevalence alterative or regenerative processes distinguish the
type of rheumatic valve endocarditis:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*warty acute endocarditis
Acute mural endocarditis
transmural subacute endocarditis
Acute endocarditis
-118.
What types of rheumatic valve endocarditis differ depending on the prevalence
alterative or regenerative processes:
A. *warty acute endocarditis
B. Acute endocarditis
C. Acute mural endocarditis
D. transmural subacute endocarditis
E. Acute endocarditis
119.
Acute papillose endocarditis rheumatic conditions is accompanied by:
A. *fibrinoid changes in connective tissue and endothelial desquamation with delay in
the sites of injury trombotic masses in the form of warts
B. mucoid changes in connective tissue with a delay trombotic mass in the form of
warts
C. -D. fibrinotic changes in connective tissue and endothelium of the postponement of the
masses of warts
E. fibrinoid changes in cardiomyocytes and desquamation epicardium with
postponement of warts
120.
What is accompanied by a sharp papillose endocarditis rheumatic conditions:
A. *fibrinoid changes in connective tissue and endothelial desquamation with delay in
the sites of injury trombotic masses in the form of warts
B. mukoid changes in connective tissue with a delay trombotic mass in the form of
warts
C. -D. fibrinoid changes in connective tissue and endothelium of the masses in the form of
postponement of warts
E. fibrinoid changes in cardiomyocytes and desquamation epicardium with
postponement of warts
121.
Depending on the prevalence alterative or regenerative processes distinguish the
type of rheumatic valve endocarditis:
A. *fibroplastic endocarditis
B. intramural endocarditis
C. -D. transmural endocarditis
E. epicardial endocarditis
122.
Specify the type of rheumatic valve endocarditis depending on the prevalence
alterative or regenerative processes:
A. -B. *fibroplastic endocarditis
C. mural endocarditis
D. transmural endocarditis
E. epicardial endocarditis
123.
Depending on the prevalence alterative or regenerative processes distinguish the
type of rheumatic valve endocarditis - fibroplastichny endocarditis, characterized by:
A. *growth of new tissue, scar revisions and valve insufficiency (acquired heart disease)
B. -C. mucoid changes in connective tissue with a delay trombotic mass in the form of
warts on the valves
D. fibrinogen changes in connective tissue valves
E. fibrinoid changes in cardiomyocytes and endothelial
124.
Depending on the prevalence alterative or regenerative processes distinguish the
type of rheumatic valve endocarditis:
A. *rotary-papillose endocarditis
B. re endocarditis
C. re-trombotic endocarditis
D. diffuse-papillose endocarditis
E. -125.
Rotary-papillose endocarditis is characterized by repeated disruptions:
A. *newly formed connective tissue, endothelial injury and fibrin accumulation on a
background of sclerosis and hyalinosis valve
B. collagen tissue in the middle of the valve with the proliferation of endothelium
C. -D. fibrous tissue valve with diffuse deposition of fibrin
E. intact endothelium and the postponement of fibrinogen
126.
Indicate the degree of disorganization of connective tissue in rotary-papillose
endocarditis:
A. -B. *neoformation of connective tissue, endothelial damage and fibrin deposition on the
background of sclerosis and hyalinosis valve
C. collagen tissue in the middle of the valve with the proliferation of endothelial
D. fibrous tissue valve with diffuse deposition of fibrin
E. intact endothelium and delays fibrinogen
127.
Myocarditis (inflammation of the myocardium) - permanent manifestation of
rheumatic disease, a form of it are:
A. *granulematozny
B. -C. focal parenchymatous
D. diffuse ekssudative parenchymatous
E. focal interstitial
128.
Specify the form myocarditis (inflammation of the myocardium) - permanent
manifestation of rheumatism:
A. -B. *granulematozny
C. focal parenchymatous
D. diffuse exudative parenchymatous
E. focal interstitial
129.
Granulematous myocarditis rheumatic conditions characterized by the presence of
"blooming", and sclerotic rheumatic granulomas:
A. *in the perivascular connective tissue of the myocardium
B. in cardiomyocytes
C. vascular endothelium in myocardial
D. in epycardium
E. -130.
Specify the localization of "blooming", sclerotic granulomas rheumatic conditions:
A. -B. *in the perivascular connective tissue of the myocardium
C. in cardiomyocytes
D. vascular endothelium in myocardial
E. in epicardium
131.
Exudative diffuse interstitial myocarditis is characterized by:
A. *interstitial significant infiltration of lymphocytes, gistiocyts, neutrophils and
eosinophils in the presence of single granulomas Ashof-Talalaev
B. --
C. slight infiltration of lymphocytes intersticial, gistiocyts, neutrophils and eosinophils
in the presence of single granulomas Ashof-Talalaev
D. interstitsiya significant infiltration of lymphocytes in the presence of single
granulomas Ashof-Talalaev
E. slight infiltration of neutrophils in the presence of interstitial isolated granulomas
Ashof-Talalaev
132.
What is exudative diffuse interstitial myocarditis:
A. *interstitial significant infiltration of lymphocytes, gistiocites, neutrophils and
eosinophils in the presence of single granulomas Ashof-Talalaev
B. slight infiltration of lymphocytes interstitial, gistiocyts, neutrophils and eosinophils
in the presence of single granulomas Ashof-Talalaev
C. interstitsiey significant infiltration of lymphocytes in the presence of single
granulomas Ashof-Talalaev
D. -E. slight infiltration of neutrophils in the presence of interstitial isolated granulomas
Ashof-Talalaev
133.
Development of myocarditis cardiosclerosis ends with:
A. *favorable course of rheumatism
B. -C. disadvantaged during rheumatism
D. in the frequent recurrence of rheumatism
E. in rheumatism with high activity indices of blood
134.
Cardiosclerosis is the result of miocarditis with:
A. -B. *favorable course of rheumatism
C. disadvantaged during rheumatism
D. During the frequent recurrence of rheumatism
E. During rheumatism with high activity indices of blood
135.
Prior to surgery, which of the following is the best medical therapy for a newborn
infant with transposition of the pulmonary artery and aorta?
A. *Give prostaglandin E2 to keep the ductus arteriosus open
B. Give prostaglandin F2 to close the ductus arteriosus
C. Give oxygen to keep the ductus arteriosus open
D. Give indomethacin to keep the ductus arteriosus open
E. Give indomethacin to close the ductus arteriosus
136.
Name the stage of myocardial infarction.
A. Dystrophic
B. Metabolic
C. Coronary
D. All listed above
E. * Necrotic
137.
Name the stage of the course of hypertension.
A. Metabolic
B. Discirculatory
C. Dystrophic
D. Dystonic
E. * Morphological changes in vessels
138.
Name the type of heart attack, according to localization of necrosis foci.
A. Second
B. Mixed
C. Focal
D. Palindromic
E. * Transmural
139.
Name the type of macroscopic changes in cardiac blood vessels at 1st stage of
atherosclerosis
A. Liposclerosis
B. Hyalinosis
C. Atheromatosis
D. Lipoidosis
E. * Lipid spots and stripes
140.
Name the type of macroscopic changes in large vessels at atherosclerosis.
A. Arteriolosclerosis
B. Lipoidosis
C. Sclerosis
D. Petrification
E. * Fatty spots and stripes
141.
The nature of foam cells in atherosclerotic plaques
A. Granulocytes
B. Lymphocytes
C. Plasmocells
D. Eosinophils
E. * Macrophages
142.
Pathogenetic factors of ischemic heart disease.
A. Hyperlipidemia, smoking
B. Arterial hypertension
C. Excessive body weight
D. Sedentary lifestyle
E. * All listed above
143.
Possible causes of death at myocardial infarction.
A. Ventricular fibrillation
B. Asystolia
C. Cardiogenic shock
D. Acute heart failure
E. * All listed above
144.
Name the possible extracardiac complications which are associated with acute heart
aneurysm.
A. Pneumonia
B. Cirrhosis
C. Pulmonary gangrene
D. Hemorrhage in the brain
E. * Ischemic infarct of brain
145.
Presence of "flowering granuloma" refers to:
A. escalation process after remission
B. recovery process after an active attack of rheumatism
C. some slowdown of development
D. * active phase of process
E. process of remission
146.
Atherosclerosis of abdominal aorta can be complicated by development of:
A. Brain infarction
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Pulmonary heart
D. Pulmonary gangrene
E. * Intestinal gangrene
147.
Specify the factor that is important in the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis.
A. Predominance of high density lipoproteins in plasma
B. Predominance of very high density lipoproteins in plasma
C. Hypercalciumaemia
D. Dysproteinaemia
E. * Hypercholesterolaemia
148.
Specify the type of heart attack (myocardial infarct) which developed after first signs
of ischemia.
A. Necrotic infarct
B. Ischemic infarct
C. Transmural infarct
D. Focal infarct
E. * Primary infarct
149.
Stages in the course of benign hypertension.
A. Prelipid
B. Clinical
C. Vascular endothelial ulceration
D. Cirrhotic
E. * Changes in organs due to changes in arteries
150.
The reason of death at malignant nephrosclerosis.
A. Acute heart failure
B. Acute liver failure
C. Chronic renal failure
D. Chronic heart failure
E. * Acute renal failure
151.
What is the main factor in pathogenesis of hypertension.
A. Age factor
B. Metabolic dysfunction factor
C. Intake of lipoproteins
D. Liver factor
E. * Kidney factor
152.
The modern theory of the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis.
A. Theory of alimentary infiltration
B. Emotional theory
C. Trombogenic theory
D. Golgi metabolic theory
E. * Receptor theory
153.
The modern theory of the pathogenesis of hypertension.
A. Metabolic theory
B. Receptor theory
C. * Genetic pathology of cell membranes
D. Golgi metabolic theory
E. Emotional theory
154.
Time of necrotizing stage at myocardial ischemia after the first signs.
A. To 6-8 hours
B. To 10-12 hour
C. To 6 hours
D. To 2:00
E. * More than 12 hours
155.
What type of macroscopic complication is developed in arterial intima at the
atherosclerosis.
A. Fat and protein accumulation
B. Hyalinosis
C. Fibrous plaque
D. Fatty strips
E. * Mural hematoma
156.
Type of calcification in atherosclerotic "plaque" according to pathogenesis.
A. Metabolic
B.
C.
D.
E.
Metastatic
Secondary
Primary
* Dystrophic
157.
Type of myocardial infarction depending on the timing of development since the first
signs of ischemia.
A. Hemorrhagic, ischemic
B. Acute
C. Subacute
D. Chronic
E. * Recurrent, primary
158.
Types of hypertension depending on the activity pressure renal systems.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Hormonal
D. Hypovolemic
E. * Vasoconstruction
159.
Types of hypertension depending to nature of its passing.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Idiopathic
D. Subacute
E. * Malignant
160.
Typical changes of arterioles at hypertension.
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Liposclerosis
C. Atheromatosis
D. Atherocalcinosis
E. * Hyalinosis
161.
What type of blood vessels does atherosclerosis affect?
A. * Aorta
B. Hollow vein
C. Venules
D. Thoracic duct
E. Capillaries
162.
What are clinical and anatomic form of hypertension.
A. Functional
B. Escherichia
C. Changes in vessels
D. Changes in extremities
E. * Renal
163.
What are clinical and anatomic form of hypertension.
A. Mesenteric
B. Portal
C. Mediastinal
D. Pulmonary
E. * Cerebral
164.
What are complications of myocardial infarction?
A. Chronic aneurysm
B. Heart disease
C. Diffuse cardiosclerosis
D. Coronary artery spasm
E. * Ventricular fibrillation
165.
What are synonyms of hypertension disease?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
166.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
167.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
168.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
169.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
170.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
171.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
172.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
173.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
174.
Symptomatic hypertension
Secondary hypertension
Idiopathic hypertension
Neurogenic hypertension
* Primary hypertension
What factor is most important at atherosclerosis development?
Salt factor
Protein starvation factor
Carbohydrate rich foods factor
Alcohol factor
* Age factor
What are the main factors in the hypertension development?
Virus infection
Protein starvation
Food rich of carbohydrates
Alcohol
* Stress, Salt
To what change of heart does acute ischemic heart disease lead?
Metabolic myocardial damage
Cardiomyoliposis
Granulematous myocarditis
Cardiomyopathy
* Myocardial infarction
To what change of heart does acute ischemic heart disease lead?
Cardiomyoliposis
Diffuse small focal cardiosclerosis
Tiger heart
Necrotic cardiomyopathy
* Myocardial infarction
What complications can develop in patients with acute aneurysm?
Wall aneurysm rupture
Cavity pericardial tamponade
Renal infarction
Myocardial ischemic brain
* All listed above
What is acute aneurysm of heart?
Acute ischemic heart disease
Forms of chronic ischemic heart disease
Cardiomegaly complications
Inherited defect of heart
* Balloon-like bulge in the wall of heart at the infarction.
What is characteristic for acute aneurysm?
Situates in the wall of the right ventricle most often
Wall aneurysms before scar tissue
Wall aneurysms presented thrombotic masses
Calcified aneurysm wall
* Situates in the wall of the left ventricle most often
What is characteristic for primary wrinkled kidney at atherosclerosis?
Grained surface, reducing the size
Expansion of sinuses and cups
Expansion cortex
The presence of small scars in the parenchyma
* Reducing the size and formed large nodular surface
What is characteristic of transmural myocardial infarction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Focal necrosis in papillary muscles only
Fibrinous endocarditis
Only subendocardial focal necrosis
Warty endocarditis
* Myocardial necrosis through all layers
175.
What is myocardial infarction?
A. Expressions of cardiac arrhythmias
B. Forms of chronic ischemic heart diseases
C. Hemorrhagic necrosis
D. Cardiomyopathy
E. * Vascular necrosis of heart
176.
What is the relationship between arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis?
A. Arteriosclerosis - a kind of atherosclerosis
B. Atherosclerosis - a kind elastofibrozu
C. Atherosclerosis - senile arteriosclerosis
D. Atherosclerosis - allergic arteriosclerosis
E. * Atherosclerosis - a metabolic arteriosclerosis
177.
What layer of arterial wall does atherosclerosis injure?
A. Adventitial
B. All layers
C. Media
D. Perivascular tissue
E. * Internal
178.
What blood vessels does hypertension disease injure mostly?
A. Venules
B. Capillaries
C. Muscular type arteries
D. Arteries of muscle-elastic type
E. * Arterioles
179.
What pathological conditions may lead to symptomatic hypertension?
A. CNS Diseases
B. Vascular Diseases
C. Kidney
D. Endocrine system diseases
E. * All of the above
180.
With the development of rheumatic granuloma at the sclerosis phase fibroblasts
replaces fibrynoid necrosis zones, and synthesized:
A. mucoid fibers
B. fibrynoid fibers
C. hyaline fibers and colloid
D. All the above
E. * Argyrophil and collagen fibers
181.
One of the stage of granuloma development is the scar formation, this moment shows
about ...
A. Escalation process after remission
B. Recovery process after an active attack of rheumatism
C. Some slowdown in development
D. Some activation process
E. * Phaze of remission
182.
Acute rheumatic warty endocarditis is accompanied by:
A. * fibrinoid changes and endothelial desquamation with thrombus formation in the
warts forms
B. mucoid changes of connective tissue with thrombus formation in the warts forms
C. --
D. fibrinoid changes of connective tissue and endothelium growthing in the warts forms
E. fibrinoid changes of cardiomyocytes and epicardium growthing in the warts forms
183.
Alterativ-exudativ phase of rheumatism characterized by rheumatic granuloma
formation with accumulation of:
A. * macrophages with hypertrophic nuclei around the fibrinoid necrosis in fan-like
manner form
B. lymphocytes and the formation of follicles in center
C. neutrophils, lymphocytes, histiocytes near the
D. neutrophils, lymphocytes, histiocytes
E. -184.
A clinical syndrome is characteristic for the renal amiloidisis ...
A. Hepatonephrotic
B. Lowe's syndrome
C. Alport's syndrome
D. * Nephrotic syndrome
E. Nephritic syndrome
185.
A gouty kidney develops as a result of abnormality of metabolism of
A. Chromoproteins
B. Lipids
C. * Purines
D. Albumins
E. Carbonhydrates
186.
Advanced cervical carcinoma can extend by direct continuity to all of the following,
EXCEPT:
A. Urinary bladder
B. Ureters
C. * Colon transversum
D. Rectum
E. Peritoneum
187.
All of the following clinical features are likely to be found in nephrotic syndrome,
EXCEPT:
A. Proteinuria
B. Hypoalbuminemia
C. * Hematuria
D. Hyperlipidemia
E. Edema
188.
All of the following conditions predispose to urolithiasis, EXCEPT:
A. * Sickle cell nephropathy
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Gout
D. Proteus pyelonephritis
E. Enteric hyperoxaluria
189.
All of the following morphologic features characterize the ovary adenocarcinoma
cells, EXCEPT:
A. Enlarged nucleoli
B. Atypical mitoses
C. Variation in size and shape
D. Hyperchromatic nuclei
E. * Nucleus inclusions
190.
All of the following statements correctly describe chronic pyelonephritis, EXCEPT:
A. It causes asymmetrically scarred kidneys
B. It is associated with vesicoureteral reflux in most cases
C. * It spares the calyces and pelvis
D. It may produce thyroidization of tubules
E. It is an important cause of secondary nephrosclerosis
191.
All of the following statements correctly describe analgesic abuse nephropathy,
EXCEPT:
A. It is characterized by tubulo-interstitial component
B. It is often caused by phenacetin
C. It causes inability to concentrate urine
D. It often improves with drug withdrawal
E. * It predisposes to the development of renal cell carcinoma
192.
All of the following statements correctly describe renal artery stenosis, EXCEPT:
A. It is an uncommon form of hypertension
B. It is the most common curable form of hypertension
C. It is usually caused by atherosclerotic plaque
D. It produces high renin levels in the venous blood of the ischemic kidney
E. * It is treated by hemodialysis
193.
All of the following statements regarding Goodpasture's syndrome are true,
EXCEPT:
A. Patients present with hemoptysis and hematuria
B. Death occurs due to uremia and pulmonary hemorrhage
C. Electron microscopy shows the absence of electron-dense deposits
D. * Immunofluorescence reveals granular deposits of IgG in the glomeruli
E. Immunofluorescence reveals linear deposits of IgG in the glomeruli
194.
All of the following statements regarding postinfectious glomerulonephritis are true,
EXCEPT:
A. The disease follows streptococcus infection
B. Electron microscopy shows large subendothelial immune-type deposits
C. The histologic picture is that of diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
D. The clinical picture is characteristic of acute nephritis
E. * Most affected children develop chronic renal failure
195.
All statements concerning chorion-carcinoma are true, EXCEPT:
A. The tumor has a dimorphic pattern
B. Hemorrhages and necrosis are present
C. The tumor is malignant
D. The tumor is composed of cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast cells
E. * The tumor produces chorionic villi
196.
All statements concerning leiomyomas are true, EXCEPT:
A. They regress or calcify after castration or menopause
B. * They do not respond to estrogens
C. They may undergo rapid increase in size during pregnancy
D. Their cause is unknown
E. They are found in 25% of reproductive women
197.
An immunofluorescence-stained kidney specimen from a patient with
poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is likely to show which of the following:
A. * Granular deposits of Ig G
B. Linear deposits of Ig G
C. Granular deposits of IgA
D. Linear deposits of streptococcal antigen
E. Granular deposits of streptococcal antigen
198.
An important factor in cervical oncogenesis is which of the following:
A. * HPV-infection
B. Herpes simplex
C. Herpes zoster
D. Human immunodeficiency virus
E. Respiratory syncytial virus
199.
At extracapillar productive glomerulonephritis half moons are formed by
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Red corpuscles
Neutrophilic leucocytes
Red corpuscles and neutrophilic leucocytes
Exfoliated endothelium and fibrin
* Exfoliated renal epithelium and fibrin
200.
Benign nephrosclerosis is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Narrowing of the lumen of the arterioles and small arteries
B. Thickening and hyalinization of the vessels' walls
C. * Deposition of amyloid within the Bowman space
D. Foci of tubular atrophy
E. Deposition of collagen within the Bowman space
201.
Changes in a colon at uremia are
A. Granulomatous inflammation
B. Stricture
C. Polyposis
D. Ulcerous colitis
E. * Fibrinous [diphtheritic] colitis
202.
Chorioncarcinoma is commonly associated with which of the following:
A. Systemic hypertension
B. * Pregnancy
C. Obesity
D. Oral contraceptive steroid use
E. Diabetes mellitus
203.
Conditions leading to endometrial hyperplasia include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Polycystic ovarian disease
B. Functioning granulosa cell tumors of the ovary
C. Excessive cortical function (cortical stroma hyperplasia)
D. * Endometriosis
E. Estrogen replacement therapy
204.
Criteria to differentiate between benign and malignant tumors are all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A. Maturity
B. Rate and character of growth
C. * Edema
D. Metastases
E. Local invasion
205.
Diabetes mellitus is associated with all of the following renal disorders, EXCEPT:
A. Diffuse glomerulosclerosis
B. Nodular glomerulosclerosis
C. Benigh nephrosclerosis
D. * Urate nephropathy
E. Acute pyelonephritis
206.
Distant hematogenic metastases of invasive cervical carcinoma occur in all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A. Liver
B. Lungs
C. Bone marrow
D. * Lymph nodes
E. Kidney
207.
Endometrial hyperplasia is associated with which of the following:
A. High estrogenic stimulation with normal progestational activity
B. Normal estrogenic stimulation with increased progestational activity
C. * High estrogenic stimulation with diminished progestational activity
D. High estrogenic stimulation and progestational activity
E. Normal estrogenic stimulation and progestational activity
208.
First hematogenous metastases of the endometrial carcinoma can be found in which
of the following organs:
A. Bones
B. Regional lymph nodes
C. * Lungs
D. Liver
E. Central nervous system
209.
First lymphogenous metastases of the papillary mucinous cystadnocarcinoma of the
ovary can be found in which of the following organs:
A. * Pelvic lymph nodes
B. Aortic lymph nodes
C. Liver
D. Lungs
E. Bones
210.
First metastases of the Chorioncarcinoma can be found in which of the following
organs:
A. Liver
B. * Lung
C. Kidney
D. Bones
E. Brain
211.
Give the determination of gynecomastia
A. Non-cancerous cystous dysplasia of mammary gland
B. Non-cancerous hyperplasia of mammary gland
C. Malignant dysplasia of mammary gland
D. Non-cancerous sclerotic dysplasia of mammary gland
E. * Non-cancerous dysplasia of breast in men
212.
Glomerular injury caused by circulating complexes occurs in all of the following
disorders, EXCEPT:
A. Syphilis
B. Goodpasture's syndrome
C. Hepatitis B
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
E. * Lung cancer
213.
Hematuria is a characteristic clinical feature of all of the following diseases,
EXCEPT:
A. Glomerulonephritis
B. * Malakoplakia
C. Nephrolithiasis
D. Renal cell carcinoma
E. Bladder papilloma
214.
Higher frequency of carcinoma of the endometrium is commonly associated with all
of the following, EXCEPT:
A. * Young age
B. Obesity
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Hypertension
E. Infertility (anovulatory cycles)
215.
Histologic features of malignant nephrosclerosis include all of the following,
EXCEPT:
A. Fibrinoid necrosis of arterioles
B. Medial thickening of arterioles
C. * Fibromuscular dysplasia of the renal artery
D. Renal artery thrombosis
E. Focal renal parenchymal infarction
216.
Histological type of of high quality hyperplasia of prostatic gland
A. Muscular type
B. Stromal vascular type
C. Amyloid type
D. Fibroid cystous type
E. * Mixed type
217.
Hydronephrosis is caused by all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. * Chronic renal vein thrombosis
B. Large uterine leiomyoma
C. Renal calculi
D. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
E. Papillary transitional cell carcinoma of the ureter
218.
Hydronephrosis is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. * Kidney infarct
B. Thinning of the renal parenchyma
C. Dilatation of the renal pelvis
D. Dilatation of the renal calyces
E. Progressive atrophy of the kidney
219.
Immunologicaly mediated glomerulonephritis all of the following cells contribute to
the glomerular injury, EXCEPT:
A. * Mast cells
B. Macrophages
C. Platelets
D. Neutrophils
E. Mesangial cells
220.
In case of poisoning by mercuric chloride there is a necrosis of
A. Cardiac hystiocytes
B. * Epithelium of renal tubules
C. Glomerular system of kidneys
D. Renal stroma
E. Wall of ureter
221.
In case of poisoning by mercuric chloride there is a necrosis of
A. Brain cells
B. * Epithelium of renal tubules
C. Glomerular system of kidneys
D. Liver stroma
E. Wall of ureter
222.
In nonobstructive chronic pyelonephritis the most common way for bacteria to gain
entrance into the kidney is which of the following:
A. Arterial bloodstream
B. The lymphatics
C. Venous bloodstream
D. * Vesicoureteral reflux
E. Aberrant arteriovenous shunts
223.
In pathogeny of glomerulonephritis a considerable role plays:
A. * Sensitizing of an organism
B. Reinfection
C. Toxicness of microbes
D. A presence of the inflammatory diseases of kidneys in anamnesis
E. Superinfection
224.
In the urinary tract obstruction all pathologic processes can be found. EXCEPT:
A. Dilatation of the pelvis and calyces
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Ischemic tubular necrosis
Interstitial inflammation
Interstitial fibrosis
Glomerular and tubular atrophy
225.
Invasive cervical carcinoma can manifest in which of the following patterns:
A. * Ulcerating tumor
B. Endocervical polyp
C. Grapelike projections
D. Paget's cancer
E. Flattened plaque cancer
226.
Mesangial cells can be characterized by all of the following properties, EXCEPT:
A. Ingestion of macromolecules
B. Connection with Lacis cells
C. Ability to contract
D. * Production of renin
E. Production of basement membrane proteins
227.
Microscopically, simple hyperplasia of endometrium is characterized by all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A. * Pressed endometrial glands
B. Dilated endometrial glands
C. Increased gland-to-stroma ratio
D. Abundant stroma
E. Complex ramified endometrial glands
228.
Morphological form of subacute glomerulonephritis is:
A. Mesangial membranous glomerulonephritis
B. * Extracapillar proliferative glomerulonephritis
C. Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis
D. Minimum changes
E. Intracapillar proliferative glomerulonephritis
229.
Most forms of chronic renal failure produce increased serum levels of all of the
following substances, EXCEPT:
A. * Calcium
B. Aldosterone
C. Phosphate
D. Parathormone
E. Renin
230.
Most frequent complication of glomerulonephritis is
A. Amiloidosis
B. Increase of arterial pressure
C. * Arteriolosclerotic kidney
D. Renal abscesses
E. Hematuria
231.
Name the complication of dishormonal hypertrophic prostatopathy?
A. Formation of the prostatic cysts.
B. Purulent melting of prostate
C. Sclerosis of prostate
D. Appearance of polypous excrescences
E. * Difficulty in the urine outflow
232.
Name a process, which is regarded as an inflammatory disease of mucous membrane
of uterus
A. Cystophorous hyperplasia
B. Pseudo erosion
C. Polypous excrescence
D. Endometriosis
E. * Endometritis
Obstetrically related renal disease includes all of the following disorders, EXCEPT:
A. * Nephrocalcinosis
B. Diffuse cortical renal necrosis
C. Acute ischemic tubular necrosis
D. Acute glomerulonephritis
E. Hydronephrosis
234.
Poor prognosis in chorioncarcinoma is associated with which of the following
features of the tumor...
A. Lack of the capsule
B. Absence of estrogen receptors
C. Presence of secondary necrosis and hemorrhages
D. Extensive angiogenesis
E. * Early spread of hematogenous metastases
235.
On gross examination, leiomyoma of the uterus is characterized by all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A. Intramural, submucosal or subserosal localization
B. Discrete multiple nodules
C. Firm consistence
D. Fibrous capsule
E. * Dark brown color
236.
On gross examination, leiomyoma of the uterus may be characterized by which of
the following:
A. Indistinct margins
B. Brown color
C. Soft consistence
D. * Fibrillated cut surface
E. Multicolored
237.
On gross examination, the hyperplasia of endometrium is characterized by all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A. Enlarged uterus
B. Thickened uterus wall
C. Foci of hemorrhages into endometrium
D. * Suppurative endometritis
E. Irregular thickened endometrium
238.
Patogenetic basis of glomerulonephritis is formed by:
A. * Immunoreactions on the basic membranes of glomerular capillaries
B. Exsudates reactions on the basic membranes of glomerular capillaries
C. Necrotic reactions on the basic membranes of glomerular capillaries
D. Exsudative necrotic reactions on the basic membranes of glomerular capillaries
E. Proliferative reactions on the basic membranes of glomerular capillaries
239.
Picrofuchsin by van Gieson staining of leiomyoma of the uterus results in which of
the following:
A. Red color of tumor parenchyma
B. Blue color of tumor parenchyma
C. Orange color of tumor parenchyma
D. Yellow color of the tumor stroma
E. * Red color of the tumor stroma
240.
Proteinuria at glomerulonephritis is caused by
A. Purulent exsudate permeating into the urine
B. Hyperproteinemia
C. Purulent infiltration of stroma
D. * Damage of wall of glomerular capillares
E. Damage of tubular wall
233.
241.
Renal diseases producing systemic hypertension include all of the following,
EXCEPT:
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. * Renal amyloidosis
C. Chronic glomerulonephritis
D. Chronic pyelonephritis
E. Renal vasculitis
242.
Risk factors for cervical cancer development include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Early age at first intercourse
B. Multiple sexual partners
C. Oral contraceptive use
D. * Alcohol abuse
E. HPV- infection
243.
Structurally-functional unit of kidney is:
A. Kidney pyramid;
B. Kidney little body;
C. Kidney lobule;
D. Kidney bowl;
E. * Nephron
244.
Subendothelial granular electron-dense deposits can be found in which of the
following diseases:
A. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
B. Side cell nephropathy
C. Membranous glomerulonephritis
D. * Systemic lupus erythematosus
E. Gouty nephropathy
245.
Symptomatic hypertension evolves most frequently from:
A. * Glomerulonephritis
B. Atherosclerosis of renal arteries
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Aldosteronism
E. Pheochromocytoma
246.
Systemic lupus erythematosus gives rise to all of the following patterns of
glomerular injury, EXCEPT:
A. Focal proliferative glomerulonephritis
B. Diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis
C. Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
D. * Lipoid nephrosis
E. Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis
247.
The benign tumor characterized by the development of cysts lined by tall columnar
epithelial cells and formation of regular papillary structures is referred to as:
A. Chorioncarcinoma
B. Adenoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. * Cystadenoma
E. Fibroadenoma
248.
The changes of epithelium of tubulis are in the shock stage of acute kidney
insufficiency
A. Metaplasia of epithelium
B. * Dystrophy of epithelium
C. Necrosis of epithelium
D. The changes are absent
E. Removing a layer by the layer of epithelium
249.
The changes of tubular epithelium in the oliguric stage of acute renal insufficiency
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
250.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
251.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
252.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
253.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
254.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
255.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
256.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
257.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
258.
Metaplasia of epithelium
Dystrophy of epithelium
* Necrosis of epithelium
Changes are absent
Exfoliation of epithelium
The characteristic feature of chorioepithelioma is
Sclerosis of stroma
* Absence of stroma
Atrophy of chorionic epithelium
Presence of lymphatic vessels
Petrification
The dishormonal disease of the sexual system of men is
* Gynecomastia
Prostatitis
Orchitis
Epididymitis
Cancer of testicles
The dishormonal disease of the sexual system of men is
Prostatitis
* Adenoma of prostatic gland
Orchitis
Cancer of prostatic
Urethritis
The dishormonal disease of the sexual system of women is
Cervicitis
Endometritis
* Mastopathy
Salpingitis
Cancer of the body of uterus
The dishormonal disease of the sexual system of women is
* Endocervicosis
Oophoritis
Cystitis
Sarcoma of uterus
Endometritis
The essence of pyelonephritis is
Autoimmune aggression of renal tissue
Non suppurative inflammation of glomerules
Necrosis of renal cortical layer of kidney
* Suppurative inflammation of kidney
Hyalinosis of glomerular vessels
The factor least likely to cause acute pyelonephritis is which of the following:
Pregnancy
Nephrolithiasis
Catheterization of the bladder
Prostatic hypertrophy
* Septicemia
The leiomyoma parenchyma is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:
Haphazardly situated cells
Uniformed in size and shape cells
* Small vessels
Oval nuclei of smooth muscle tumor cells
Long cytoplasmic processus of tumor cells
The main complication of nephrolithiasis is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Hypertrophy of the left ventricle
Hypertension
* Hydronephrosis
Contracted [granular] kidney
Cancer of kidney
259.
The malignant tumor characterized by easily recognizable glandular tubular pattern
is referred to as:
A. Chorioncarcinoma
B. Adenoma
C. * Adenocarcinoma
D. Cystadenoma
E. Fibroadenoma
260.
The most common benign tumor of the ovary is which of the following:
A. * Cystadenoma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Cystadenocarcinoma
D. Papilloma
E. Fibroadenoma
261.
The most frequent clinical display of fibroid hyperplasia of mucous membrane of
uterus is:
A. Pain syndrome
B. Masculinization
C. * Metrorrhagia
D. Enlargement of uterus determined by ultrasonography
E. The characteristic clinical displays are absent
262.
The Russian scientist who was the first to describe the histogenesis of
chorioncarcinoma was:
A. R.Virchov
B. * M.N.Nikiforov
C. N.I.Pirogov
D. I.M.Setchenov
E. A.I.Abrikosov
263.
The stain that helps to detect precancer and cancer of the cervix in smears is which of
the following:
A. Weigert's
B. * Papanicolaou
C. Sudan III
D. Toluidin blue
E. Hematoxylin and eosin
264.
The stain used to differentiate leiomyoma and fibroma is which of the following:
A. * Picrofuchsin
B. Congo red
C. Sudan III
D. Toluidin blue
E. Fuchselin
265.
The tubular epithelial cells in acute tubular necrosis are characterized by all of the
following pathologic features, EXCEPT:
A. Karyolysis
B. Plasmolysis
C. Plasmorrhexis
D. Plasmocoagulation
E. * Tubulorrhexis
266.
The tumor composed of clusters of cuboid cytotrophoblast cells separated by
streaming masses of syncytiotrophoblast giant cells with marked atypia is referred to as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Chorioncarcinoma
Adenoma
Adenocarcinoma
Cystadenoma
Fibroadenoma
267.
Ultrastructural changes in children primary nephrotic syndrome involve which of the
following glomerular elements:
A. Endothelium
B. * Podocytes
C. Mesangium
D. Blood vessels
E. Basement membrane
268.
Uremia is associated with all of the following abnormalities, EXCEPT:
A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Gastritis
C. * Polycythemia
D. Pericarditis
E. Diffuse alveolar damage
269.
What illness from the listed below relates tothe large mottled kidney
A. Amiloidosis of kidney
B. Chronic pyelonephritis
C. Nephrolithiasis
D. * Subacute glomerulonephritis
E. Chronic glomerulonephritis
270.
What abnormality develops at shock
A. * Acute kidney insufficiency
B. Chronic kidney insufficiency
C. Glomerulonephritis
D. Renal amiloidisis
E. Renal cirrhosis
271.
What belongs to the inherited diseases from these tubular patologies
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Necrotic nephrosis
C. * Tubular enzimatic pathology
D. “Myelome” kidney
E. “Shield-shaped” kidney
272.
What develops in case of prolong obstruction of ureters by stone in a kidney
A. Heart attack
B. Gangrene
C. Glomerulonephritis
D. Amiloidosis
E. * Hydronephrosis
273.
What disease can be complicated by amyloidosis:
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Heart ischemic disease
C. * Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis of lungs
D. Croupous pneumonia
E. Hypertension
274.
What pathologic condition of the kidneys is caused by mercury poisoning?
A. * Acute tubular necrosis
B. Renal papillary necrosis
C. Crescentic glomerulonephritis
D. Acute interstitial nephritis
E. Renal cell carcinoma
275.
What pathological process the hypertrophy of prostatic gland is related to?
Chronic prostatitis
Acute prostatitis
Hyperfunction of sexual glands
Disorder of the urine outflow
* Hypofunction of sexual glands
276.
What process occurs in the wall of urinary bladder at prostatopathy?
A. Sclerosis
B. Fibrosis
C. Atrophy
D. The changes are absent
E. * Compensatory hypertrophy
277.
What type of epithelium covers the mucous membrane of urinoexcretory ways?
A. Monolayer pavement epithelium;
B. * Multi-layered transitional
C. Multi-layered ciliated
D. Monolayer cylindrical
E. Multi-layered pavement unonkeratinizing.
278.
Which statement correctly characterizes membranous glomerulopathy?
A. It is the most common cause of nephrotie syndrome in children
B. Patients usually present with acute renal failure
C. It is characterized by diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
D. * Electron microscopy demonstrates numerous subepithelial immunetype deposits
E. It is characterized by mesangial interposition phenomenon
279.
"Black measles" is characterized by which of the following:
A. * Hemorrhages
B. Hypermelanosis
C. Icterus
D. Hyperchromatosis
E. Multiple nevi
280.
A calcified focus (fibrocalcific scar) forming in the lung parenchyma and in the hilar
lymph node after the primary tuberculosis infection is also referred to as:
A. Keloid
B. Granuloma
C. * Ghon focus
D. Aschoff-Pule focus
E. Simon focus
281.
Acute adrenal insufficiency syndrome is also referred to as:
A. * Waterhouse — Friderichsen syndrome
B. Kimmelstill-Wilson syndrome
C. Hamman-Rich syndrome
D. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
E. Budd-Chiari syndrome
282.
All of the following pathologic processes can be found in the second period of scarlet
fever, EXCEPT:
A. Vasculitis
B. Acute glomerulonephritis
C. Arthritis
D. Endocarditis
E. * Amyloidosis
283.
All of these cells participate in immune response in primary lung tuberculosis,
EXCEPT:
A. Type I pneumocytes
B. * Alveolar macrophages
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
C. CD4+ helper T-cells
D. CD8+ suppressor T-cells
E. Double negative T-cells
284.
An infectious agent causing diphtheria is which of the following:
A. * Corynebacterium
B. Staphylococcus
C. Treponema
D. Bordetella
E. Esherichia
285.
Caseating destructive secondary tuberculosis includes all of the following lesions,
EXCEPT:
A. Caseation in the lung
B. Cavities in the lung
C. Caseation in the lung lymph nodes
D. * Miliary extrapulmonary lesions
E. Extrapulmonary caseation
286.
Complications of pyogenic meningitis include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Leptomeningeal fibrosis
B. Hydrocephalus
C. Adhesive arachnoiditis
D. * Intracerebral hemorrhage
E. Focal encephalitis
287.
Complications of tuberculosis osteomyelitis include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Tuberculosis arthritis
B. Sinus tract formation
C. Cold abscess formation
D. * Caseation in the lung
E. Amyloidosis
288.
Consequences of diphtheria include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Hyperplasia of the spleen
B. Fatty myocardial changes
C. * Systemic hemosiderosis
D. Polyneuritis
E. Focal necroses of the parenchyma of the organs
289.
Diphtheria is characterized by the derangement of all of the following organs,
EXCEPT:
A. Nasopharynx
B. Oropharynx
C. Larynx
D. Trachea
E. * Esophagus
290.
Erythematous rash in scarlet fever can be found on which of the following parts of
the body:
A. The trunk and inner aspects of the arms and legs
B. * The upper aspects of the arms and legs
C. The area about the mouth
D. The knees
E. The head
291.
Exotoxin in diphtheria damages all of the following organs, EXCEPT:
A. * Heart
B. Nervous system
C. Adrenals
D. Kidneys
E. Thyroid gland
292.
Favored targets for miliary extrapulmonary seeding are all of the following organs,
EXCEPT:
A. Bone marrow
B. Kidneys
C. Liver
D. * Uterus
E. Spleen
293.
Figuratively the influensa pneumonia is often referred to as:
A. Hemosiderosis of the lung
B. * Multicolored lung
C. Silicosis
D. Lung infarct
E. Farmer's lung
294.
Growth and multiplication of the tubercle bacilli in cavitary fibrocaseous
tuberculosis are favored by which of the following pathologic conditions:
A. Lymphatic drainage
B. Progressive hypoxia
C. Increased perfusion
D. * Increased oxygen tension
E. Sludging of blood in alveolar capillaries
295.
Healed lesions in primary tuberculosis include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Fibrous incapsulation
B. * Caseous pneumonia
C. Fibrocalcific scar
D. Foci of ossification
E. Focal pleural adhesions
296.
Impairment of bronchociliary function in influenza results in which of the following:
A. Fungal superinfection
B. * Bacterial superinfection
C. Protozoal superinfection
D. Mycoplasmal superinfection
E. Chlamydial superinfection
297.
The common morphologic feature seen in the skin vessels in epidemic typhus fever
is which of the following:
A. Abscess
B. Hyaline thrombus
C. Caseous necrosis
D. * VascuIitis
E. Hemangioma
298.
Influenza tracheitis is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Hyperemic and swollen mucosa
B. * Purulent exudate
C. Narrowing of trachea lumen
D. Pinpoint hemorrhages
E. Grey-yellow mucosa covering films within trachea
299.
Influenza virus of type A infects all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Horses
B. Humans
C. Pigs
D. * Dogs
E. Birds
300.
Renal pathology that can be found in patients with scarlet fever is which of the
following;
A. * Glomerulonephritis
B.
C.
D.
E.
Pyelonephritis
Amyloidosis
Glomerulosclerosis
Lipoid nephrosis
301.
Macrophages in tuberculous granulomatous inflammation can transform into which
of the following cells:
A. Monocytes
B. Epithelial cells
C. * Epithelioid cells
D. Plasma cells
E. Lymphocytes
302.
Measles virus is transmitted by which of the following:
A. Milk
B. Food
C. * Respiratory droplets
D. Feces
E. Blood
303.
Measles virus multiplies inside all of the following cells, EXCEPT:
A. Upper respiratory epithelial cells
B. B lymphocytes
C. Macrophages
D. T lymphocytes
E. * Hepatocytes
304.
Meningococcal meningitis is most commonly characterized by which of the
following types of inflammation:
A. Serous
B. * Purulent
C. Fibrinous
D. Granulomatous
E. Catarrhal
305.
Meningococcal nasopharyngitis is characterized by which of the following types of
inflammation:
A. * Catarrhal
B. Serous
C. Fibrinous
D. Purulent
E. Diphtherial
306.
Microscopic features in diphtheria include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Neutrophilic infiltration
B. Vascular congestion
C. Interstitial edema
D. * Hyaline deposition
E. Fibrin exudation
307.
Miliary tuberculosis is associated with which of the following pathologic conditions:
A. Reinfection
B. Localized caseation in the lungs
C. Localized caseation in the lymph node
D. Primary infection
E. * Hematogenous tuberculosis
308.
Morphologically, measles pneumonia is characterized by all of the following,
EXCEPT:
A. Diffuse neutrophil infiltration of the bronchiolar walls
B. Destruction of some fragments of bronchiolar walls and squamous cell metaplasia
C. Exudate with giant cells in the adjacent alveoli
D. Interstitial lung inflammation
E. * Large areas of hemorrhage in lung tissue
309.
Morphology of influenza pneumonia is characterized by all of the following features,
EXCEPT:
A. Diffuse neutrophil infiltration of the bronchiolar walls
B. Dense fibrin-rich neutrophil exudate into adjacent alveoli
C. Foci of necrosis and hemorrhages in lung tissue
D. * Granuloma formation in bronchiolar walls
E. Foci of necrosis and ulceration in bronchiolar mucosa
310.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is characterized by all of the following features,
EXCEPT:
A. * Pili-forming
B. Aerobic
C. Non-spore-forming
D. Nonmotile
E. Red colored in acid-fast staining
311.
Nervous system pathology in diphtheria includes which of the following:
A. Intracerebral hemorrhage
B. Ischemic necrosis
C. Hydrocephalus
D. * Polyneuritis
E. Encephalitis
312.
Caseous focus in tuberculosis may progress into a cavity in which of the following
pathologic conditions:
A. Reactivation of dormant disease
B. Reinfection
C. * Erosion into the bronchiole (drainage)
D. Lobar exudate consolidation
E. Caseous pneumonia
313.
Diphtheria damage of the larynx is characterized by which of the following types of
inflammation:
A. Serous
B. Catarrhal
C. * Fibrinous
D. Granulomatous
E. Hemorrhagic
314.
The type of necrosis that can be found in tuberculous granuloma is which of the
following:
A. Coagulation necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. * Caseous necrosis
D. Enzymatic fat necrosis
E. Fibrinoid necrosis
315.
The liver may be affected in which of the following forms of tuberculosis:
A. Secondary tuberculosis
B. Cavitary fibrocaseous tuberculosis
C. Dormant tuberculosis
D. Primary tuberculosis complex
E. * Miliary tuberculosis
316.
On gross examination, measles pneumonia is characterized by which of the
following:
A. Cavities
B. Foci of necrosis
C. Microbe colonies
D. * Leukocyte infiltration
E. Lymphocyte infiltration
F. Edema of the tissue
317.
On gross examination, measles pneumonia is characterized by all of the following,
EXCEPT:
A. Small grey-white foci in the lung
B. Peribronchial localization of foci
C. * Subpleural localization of foci
D. Firm consistence of inflammatory foci
E. Pus containing foci
318.
On intracutaneous injection of tuberculin in an individual previously exposed to
tubercle bacilli arise all immunopathologic processes, EXCEPT:
A. * Release of CCb, the opsonin that promotes phagocytosis of microorganisms
B. Interaction of memory THA cells with the antigen on the surface antigen- presenting
cells
C. Activation of THA cells
D. Blast transformation of THA cells
E. Proliferation of THA cells
319.
Pathogenetic mechanisms of cell injury in infectious diseases are all of the following,
EXCEPT:
A. Direct cell damage
B. Indirect cell damage by release of toxins
C. Indirect cell damage by release of enzymes
D. Indirect cell damage by induction of killer effect
E. * Direct cell damage by reduction of host responses
320.
Pathological feature in the skin found in meningococcemia is which of the following:
A. Erythematous rash
B. * Hemorrhagic rash
C. Furuncle
D. Impetigo
E. Koplic spots
321.
Pathological feature that can be found in the heart in diphtheria is which of the
following:
A. Fibrinous pericarditis
B. * Toxic myocarditis
C. Bacterial endocarditis
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Heart aneurysm
322.
Peribronchial pneumonia in measles often results in which of the following
complications:
A. Peripheral lung tumor
B. Central lung tumor
C. Hemosiderosis of the lung
D. * Bronchiectasis
E. Lung gangrene
323.
Primary complex in tuberculosis may directly transform in all of the following
pathologic conditions, EXCEPT:
A. Fibrocalcific scars
B. Latent pulmonary lesions
C. * Miliary tuberculosis
D. Latent extrapulmonary lesions
E. Progressive primary tuberculosis
324.
Prolonged bronchiectasis may result in which of the following derangements of
protein metabolism:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Primary amyloidosis
Systemic hyalinosis
* Secondary amyloidosis
Mucoid changes
Fibrinoid changes
325.
Secondary tuberculosis is characterized by all of the following features, EXCEPT:
A. Caseous necrosis and cavities in the lung
B. * Primary focus in the lung
C. Reinfection with Mycobacteria
D. Reactivation of dormant disease
E. Progression directly into the disseminated disease
326.
Severe destruction of vertebrae in spine tuberculosis may result in all of the
following pathologic conditions, EXCEPT:
A. Permanent compression fractures
B. Scoliotic deformities
C. * Drainage tract (sequestrum) forming
D. Kyphotic deformities
E. Neurologic deficits
327.
Substances that prevent complete phagocytosis of Mycobacterium tuberculosis by
macrophages and induce delayed type hypersensitivity are all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Cord factor
B. * Interleukin
C. Lipoarabinomanan (LAM)
D. Heart-shock protein
E. Activated complement
328.
The cause of measles development is which of the following:
A. RNA virus of the retrovirus family
B. * RNA virus of the paramyxovirus family
C. DNA virus of the picornavirus family
D. DNA virus of the adenovirus family
E. RNA virus of the togavirus family
329.
The cause of poliomyelitis development is which of the following:
A. RNA virus of the retrovirus family
B. RNA virus of the paramyxovirus family
C. * DNA virus of the picornavirus family
D. DNA virus of the adenovirus family
E. RNA virus of the togavirus family
330.
The causes of death in meningococcemia include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Acute adrenal insufficiency
B. Bacterial shock
C. Acute tubular necrosis
D. Acute heart failure
E. * Cerebral cachexia
331.
The cavity in cavitary fibrocaseous tuberculosis is characterized by all of the
following features, EXCEPT:
A. Localized in the apex of the lung
B. Lined by yellow-grey caseous material
C. Walled by fibrous tissue
D. Drained by bronchus
E. * Filled with suppurative exudate
332.
The cells playing the most important role in chronic tuberculous inflammation are
which of the following:
A. * Macrophages
B. Leukocytes
C. Eosinophils
D. Erythrocytes
E. Plasma cells
333.
The complications of scarlet fever include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Poststreptococcal glomeru-lonephritis
B. Retropharyngeal abscess
C. Purulent mastoiditis
D. * Acute poststreptococcal hepatitis
E. Phlegmon of the neck
334.
The disease causing predominant derangement of the upper airways is which of the
following:
A. Bacterial pneumonia
B. * Diphtheria
C. Meningococcal nasopharyngitis
D. Cholera
E. Tuberculosis
335.
The disease characterized by the loss of motor neurons and flaccid paralysis with
muscle wasting and hyporeflexia is which of the following:
A. Intracerebral hemorrhage
B. Graves disease
C. * Poliomyelitis
D. Meningoencephalitis
E. Diabetes mellitus
336.
The electron micrograph of epithelial cells infected by influenza virus is
characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Presense of influenza virus particles
B. Hyperchromatic and enlarged nuclei
C. * Displasia of epithelial cells
D. Dilation of cysterns of endoplasmic reticulum
E. Large vacuoles
337.
The granuloma in tuberculosis is composed predominantly of which of the following
cells:
A. Fibroblasts
B. * Epithelioid cells
C. Eosinophils
D. Plasma cells
E. Neutrophils
338.
The infectious agent causing meningococcal infection is which of the following:
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Corynebacterium
D. Viruses
E. * Dyplococcus
339.
The intestine may be affected in which of the following forms of tuberculosis:
A. Secondary tuberculosis
B. Cavitary fibrocaseous tuberculosis
C. Dormant tuberculosis
D. * Primary tuberculosis complex
E. Miliary tuberculosis
340.
The measles rash results from which of the following:
A. Nonimmune inflammation
B. Delayed — type hypersensitivity
C. Systemic immune complex reaction
D. * T-cell — mediated immunity
E. Antibody-mediated cellular dysfunction
The meningococcal infection includes all of the following forms, EXCEPT:
A. Nasopharyngitis
B. Pyogenic meningitis
C. Meningococcemia
D. * Pyogenic encephalitis
E. Chronic meningitis
342.
The miliary lung tuberculosis is characterized by which type of inflammation:
A. * Granulomatous
B. Serous
C. Fibrinous
D. Suppurative
E. Hemorrhagic
343.
The most common cause of death in patients with diphtheria is which of the
following:
A. * Acute heart failure
B. Chronic heart failure
C. Chronic lung failure
D. Acute tubular necrosis
E. Intracerebral hemorrhage
344.
The most common sites of skeletal tuberculosis involvement are all of the following,
EXCEPT:
A. * Skull bones
B. Thoracic vertebrae
C. Lumbar vertebrae
D. Knees
E. Hips
345.
The pathologic change seen in the spinal cord in poliomyelitis is which of the
following:
A. * Neuronophagia of the anterior horns motor neurons
B. Large hematoma
C. Hemosiderosis of the anterior horns motor neurons
D. Lipofuscinosis of the posterior horns motor neurons
E. Amyloidosis of the posterior horns motor neurons
346.
The pathologic changes seen in the spinal cord in poliomyelitis are all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A. Mononuclear cell perivascular cuffs
B. Neuronophagia of the anterior horns motor neurons
C. Inflammation extension into the posterior horns
D. * Abscess formation
E. Cavitation
347.
The possible causes of chronicity of inflammation in tuberculosis are all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A. Persistence of certain microorganisms
B. Prolonged exposure to toxic agents
C. Incomplete phagocytosis
D. * Complete phagocytosis
E. Resistance of etiologic agent
348.
The severe form of measles pneumonia is characterized by which of the following:
A. Foci of hemorrhagic inflammation
B. Catarrhal bronchitis
C. * Destructive panbronchitis
D. Caseous necrosis
E. Granulomatous inflammation
341.
349.
The severe form of measles pneumonia is characterized by all of the following,
EXCEPT:
A. Destructive panbronchitis
B. Interstitial mononuclear infiltration
C. Foci of suppurative inflammation
D. Measles giant cells in the alveoli
E. * Catarrhal bronchitis
350.
The spine tuberculosis breaking through intervertebral discs and extending into the
soft tissue with cold abscess forming is also referred to as:
A. Paget's disease
B. * Pott's disease
C. Gohn complex
D. Reinfection focus
E. Dormant disease
351.
The stain used to identify the causative organism in pyogenic meningitis is which of
the following:
A. Hematoxylin and eosin
B. PAS-reaction
C. * Gram
D. Congo red
E. Weigert's
352.
The term "Koplik spots" referes to which of the following:
A. Ulcerated gastric mucosal lesions
B. Foci of granulomatous inflammation of the oral cavity
C. Foci of purulent inflammation in the skin
D. Ulcerated esophageal mucosal lesions
E. * Ulcerated mucosal lesions in the oral cavity
353.
The type of immune response initiated in tuberculosis is which of the following:
A. Direct cell cytotoxicity reaction mediated by CDD T-cells
B. * Delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction mediated by CDD T- cells
C. Complement-dependent reaction
D. Antibody-mediated cellular dysfunction
E. Antibody-dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity
354.
Tuberculoma is macroscopically characterized by all of the following features,
EXCEPT:
A. Intraparenchymal single mass
B. Greyish-white appearance
C. Well-circumscribed mass
D. Several centimeters in diameter
E. * Several millimeters in diameter
355.
Tuberculous salpingitis can be found in which of the following forms of tuberculosis:
A. Secondary tuberculosis
B. Cavitary fibrocaseous tuberculosis
C. Dormant lesions
D. * Miliary tuberculosis
E. Primary tuberculosis
356.
The common morphologic features seen in the skin vessels in epidemic typhus fever
are all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Endothelial cell proliferation
B. Thrombi
C. Hemorrhages
D. * Caseous necrosis
E. Vasculitis
357.
Typical tuberculous granuloma is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Plasma cells
Area of central necrosis
Epithelioid cells
Langhans-type giant cells
Lymphocytes
358.
Ulcerated mucosal lesions in the oral cavity near the opening of Stensen ducts are
referred to as:
A. * Koplik spots
B. Luschka spots
C. Burkitt spots
D. Paget spots
E. Vegetations
359.
Viruses can penetrate into the cell cytoplasm through all of the following
mechanisms, EXCEPT:
A. Translocation of the virus across the plasma membrane
B. Fusion of the viral envelope with the cell membrane
C. Receptor-mediated endocytosis of the virus
D. Fusion with endosomal membranes
E. * Virus apoptosis
360.
According to the topography of the process in the stomach distinguish chronic
gastritis:
A. pyloric;
B. small gastric curvature;
C. large gastric curvature
D. piloro-antral
E. * pangastritis
361.
According to the topography of the process in the stomach distinguish chronic
gastritis:
A. gastritis large curvature;
B. small gastric curvature;
C. pyloric
D. cardial
E. * fundal part;
362.
According to the topography of the process in the stomach with chronic gastritis is:
A. small gastric curvature;
B. gastritis large curvature;
C. pyloric.
D. cardial
E. * antral;
363.
Acute appendicitis characterized by next morphological form as:
A. alterative;
B. dystrophic;
C. productive;
D. atrophic
E. * destructive
364.
Acute appendicitis characterized by next morphological form as:
A. deep
B. frontal;
C. complex;
D. false
E. * superficial.
365.
Acute appendicitis characterized by next morphological form as:
A. dystrophic;
B. complex;
C. combined
D. complex
E. * simple;
366.
According to clinic-morphological classification Acute virus hepatitis can be:
A. fibrinous and necrotic
B. alterative and fibrinous
C. interstitial and fibrinous
D. complex
E. * cyclic and necrotic
367.
Appendicitis is caused by:
A. exogenous infection;
B. chemical factors;
C. physical factors.
D. radiation
E. * activated enterogenic autoinfection;
368.
They are distinguish aggressive chronic hepatitis, in which prevails:
A. fibrosis hepatocytes
B. hyalinosis hepatocytes
C. sclerosis hepatocytes
D. total fatty dystrophy
E. * dystrophy and necrosis of hepatocytes
369.
They are distinguish chronic cholestatic hepatitis, characterized by:
A. hyalinosis hepatocytes;
B. sclerosis hepatocytes;
C. fibrosis hepatocytes
D. "Muscat liver"
E. * cholestasis, cholangitis and cholangiolitis
370.
They are distinguish chronic cholestatic hepatitis, characterized by:
A. hyalinosis hepatocytes
B. sclerosis hepatocytes
C. fibrosis hepatocytes
D. disintegration of erythrocytes in vessels segments
E. * cholestasis, cholangitis and holanhiolitom
371.
They are distinguish chronic persistent hepatitis, in which prevails:
A. sclerosis hepatocytes
B. hyalinosis hepatocytes
C. fibrosis hepatocytes
D. necrosis of hepatocytes
E. * cell infiltration of portal zones and intralobulus stroma
372.
What artificial particles are differed at cirrhosis:
A. largest
B. placed
C. hyperchromic
D. presence of fat droplets
E. * broken angioarchitectonics
373.
As a result of chronic alcoholic hepatitis, disorders of nutrition and metabolism
occurs:
A. necrotic cirrhosis
B. atrophic cirrhosis
C. biliary cirrhosis
D. posttoxic cirrhosis
E. * portal cirrhosis
374.
Autoimmune gastritis is characterized by the presence of antibodies to parietal cells
and is damaged:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
antral stomach
pyloric stomach
piloro-antral stomach
gastric body
fundal portion
375.
Autoimmunization at viral hepatitis associated with:
A. specific liver tromboplast
B. liver specific albumin
C. specific liver trombogen
D. basis of virus protein
E. * liver specific lipoprotein
376.
Bottom of acute ulcer is gray-black color due to impurities:
A. hemosiderin;
B. hemomelanin;
C. hematoidin
D. hemoporfiryn
E. * hematin hydrochloride;
377.
The destructive appendicitis includes:
A. catarrhal inflammation;
B. surface inflammation;
C. serous inflammation
D. fibrinous inflammation
E. * abscess;
378.
Chronic hepatitis is characterized by:
A. destruction of stroma, parenchyma cell infiltration, sclerosis
B. destruction, stromal cell infiltration, altered regeneration
C. cell infiltration of parenchyma & stroma, sclerosis
D. collapse and necrosis of hepatocytes
E. * destruction of parenchyma, stromal cell infiltration, sclerosis and altered
regeneration
379.
Combined ulcer complications are characterized:
A. sequential multiple complications
B. presence of only three complications in patients
C. presence of only three more complications, which change each other
D. change rapidly progressive stages of disease
E. * combination of several variants of complications
380.
According to particular morphological changes in gastric mucosa there is next form
of acute gastritis:
A. cirrhotic
B. fibrotic
C. adenomatous
D. hyperplastic
E. * fibrinous
381.
Have many time does the toxic liver dystrophy continue?
A. 1 year
B. 2 months
C. 5 months
D. about 1 week
E. * about three weeks
382.
During the first days at the toxic liver dystrophy characterized by fatty dystrophy of
hepatocytes of ...
A. periphery
B. around vessels
C. around ducts
D. total dystrophy
E. * in center lobular area
383.
During the first days in toxic liver dystrophy characterized by fatty dystrophy of
hepatocytes in the center lobular area, then it quickly change into:
A. sclerosis
B. hyalinosis
C. fibrosis
D. cirrhosis
E. * necrosis and autolysis collapse
384.
Fecal mass in patients with bleeding from peptic ulcer is characterized by specific
color and consistency. They have name ...
A. coffee grounds
B. raspberry jelly;
C. metrorrhahia
D. epistaxis
E. * melena
385.
Some chronic gastritis characterized by the presence of antibodies to gastric parietal
cells in blood. This is ...
A. reflux gastritis
B. focal acute gastritis
C. Helicobacter-associated chronic gastritis
D. acute diffuse gastritis
E. * autoimmune chronic gastritis
386.
Formation of false particles in liver cirrhosis leads to:
A. necrosis of hepatocytes
B. sclerosis hepatocytes
C. communities hemosyderosis
D. ischemic foci
E. * disturbed circulation in the liver
387.
Gross mucous resembles Crohn's disease:
A. island;
B. track;
C. conical cavity
D. Multiple cavity like plates
E. * pavement;
388.
In the course of toxic liver dystrophy distinguish stage:
A. Yellow hypertrophy
B. Yellow hypothrophy
C. Yellow gonadal
D. amiloidosis
E. * yellow atrophy
389.
In the course of toxic liver dystrophy distinguish stage:
A. Yellow hypertrophy
B. Yellow hypothrophy
C. Yellow gonadal
D. yellow necrosis
E. * yellow atrophy
390.
In the course of toxic liver dystrophy distinguish stage:
A. red aplasia
B. red anaplasia
C. red agenesia
D. red infarct
E. * red atrophy
391.
In the course of toxic liver dystrophy distinguish stage:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
cicatrization
restitution
substitution
vascularization
* restoration
392.
In the red stage dystrophy in toxic liver dystrophy becomes:
A. gray
B. muscat
C. fat
D. green
E. * yellow with a red spots
393.
In the red stage dystrophy in toxic liver dystrophy often develops:
A. renal failure
B. heart failure
C. cholangiocellular failure
D. DIC syndrome
E. * liver failure
394.
In ulcer-destructive ulcer complications include:
A. stenosis;
B. tetania;
C. chlorhidropenia
D. malignization
E. * bleeding;
395.
In viral hepatitis liver cells damaged by the mechanism:
A. apoptosis
B. response alternatives
C. anaphylactic reaction
D. hypoxia
E. * slow-type hypersensitivity
396.
Inflammation, which extended into all stomach layers is called:
A. Massive gastritis
B. diffuse gastritis
C. widespread gastritis
D. total gastritis
E. * pangastritis
397.
Liver in toxic dystrophy becomes less feeble, yellow comes in stages:
A. red atrophy
B. Sclerosis
C. fibrosis
D. necrotic foci
E. * yellow atrophy
398.
Overgrowth of connective tissue on the course portal tracts in the form of sprouts, the
penetration of particles in the liver, dividing them into small artificial characteristic:
A. necrotic cirrhosis
B. toxic cirrhosis
C. biliary cirrhosis
D. focal hepatic
E. * portal cirrhosis
399.
Precancerous stomach are:
A. sharp erosion surface
B. ulcer
C. acute catarrhal gastritis
D. Chronic hypertrophic gastritis
E. * chronic atrophic gastritis
400.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
401.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
402.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
403.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
404.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
405.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
406.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
407.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
408.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Precancerous stomach are:
sharp erosion surface
ulcer
acute catarrhal gastritis
carcinomatosis
* chronic gastric ulcer
Precancerous stomach are:
sharp erosion surface
ulcer
acute catarrhal gastritis
intestinal metaplasia
* severe dysplasia of gastric mucosal epithelium.
Primary biliary cirrhosis is the result:
calculous cholecystitis
abscessed cholecystitis
purulent hepatitis hranulematoznoho
toxic liver dystrophy
* aseptic destructive (necrotizing), cholangitis and cholangiolitis
Primary hepatitis occurs following:
bacteria
mushrooms
simpler
Streptococci
* Hepatotropic viruses
Primary hepatitis occurs following:
bacteria
mushrooms
simpler
staphylococci
* Alcohol
Primary hepatitis occurs following:
bacteria
mushrooms
simpler
Streptococci
* drugs
Primary hepatitis occurs following:
bacteria
mushrooms
simpler
staphylococci
* stagnation of bile
Secondary biliary cirrhosis caused by:
hepatitis
alcoholic hepatitis
active hepatitis
excess copper in the blood
* cholestasis due to extrahepatic biliary tract obstruction (stone, tumor)
Secondary biliary cirrhosis caused by:
hepatitis
alcoholic hepatitis
active hepatitis
chronic lead intoxication
* biliary tract infection (cholangiolitic cirrhosis)
409.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
410.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
411.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
412.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
413.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
414.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
415.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
416.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
417.
of:
The basis of cirrhosis is:
dystrophy portal tracts
necrosis of bile duct epithelium
necrosis and regeneration of pathological bile duct epithelium
hepatic vascular hyalinosis
* dystrophy and necrosis of hepatocytes
The death of hepatocytes in cirrhosis leads to:
Pathologic restitution portal tracts
incomplete substitution of hepatocytes
hyperplasia and hypertrophy of hepatic bile ducts
liver infarctions
* enhanced regeneration of stored parenchyma
The liver in primary biliary cirrhosis:
not increased red
increased brown-red
increased yellow
gray-red, reduced
* increased in terms of gray-green
The liver in secondary biliary cirrhosis:
brown due to hemosiderin
red due to diapedesis of erythrocytes
yellow color due to fat accumulation in hepatocytes
gray with a red spots
* green due to bile soaking
The signs of aggravation of peptic ulcer is the appearance:
hyalinosic ulcer
sclerosis during ulcer;
amyloid cells in the edges of ulcers
metaplasia mucosa at the edges of ulcers
* fibrynoid changes of vascular walls ulcer;
Violation of circulation in liver cirrhosis is increasing hypoxia, which leads to:
necrobiotic processes in hepatocytes
portal hypertension
local hypertrophy
venous plethora
* dystrophy and death of hepatocytes, regenerate the nodes, enhanced overgrowth of
connective tissue
Viral hepatitis - a disease caused by:
hepatogenic viruses
tixotropic viruses
hepatocellular viruses
AIDS virus
* hepatotropic viruses
When ulcer healing source of stomach forms in its place:
surface erosion
severe erosion, resulting substitution
partial epithelization, as a consequence of substitution
focal metaplasia
* rough scar, which often leads to stenosis of pylorus
A study area with fibrotic inflamed pulp, revealed that cellular infiltration consisting
A. erythrocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes
B. eosinophil, mast cells, neutrophils
C. lymphocytes, mast cells, macrophages
D. * lymphocytes, macrophages, plasma cells
E. lymphocyte, eosinophil, plasma cell
418.
Among age groups are usually observed the development of cement caries?
A. in boys
B. girls
C. in pregnant women
D. * in older people
E. equally in the groups listed
419.
Among the types of dental stone are:
A. fisuric and contact
B. acute and chronic
C. local and distributed
D. surface and deep
E. * supragingival and subgingival
420.
At what degree of fluorosis dentine begins to collapse?
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. * 3rd
D. 4th
E. 5th
421.
At what stage of caries begins to form a cavity in the tooth?
A. surface caries
B. stage spot
C. stage progression
D. * average caries
E. deep caries
422.
Caries development stage begins ...
A. stage of enamel demineralization
B. surface caries
C. chemical changes
D. * stage spot
E. stage alteration
423.
Cement caries usually occurs in ...
A. boys
B. girls
C. * seniors
D. pregnant women
E. equally in all groups listed
424.
Chalk pigmentation spots associated with the accumulation of tyrosine, which
becomes:
A. triiodthyronine
B. thyreotropin
C. Adenosine-3-phosphate
D. * melanin
E. hemosiderin
425.
Chronic pulpitis has the following form ...
A. serous
B. fibrinous
C. abscessed
D. * hranulyuyuchyy
E. Progressive
426.
Developing fluorosis in areas where fluoride content in water and food than
A. 0. 7 mg / l
B. 1 mg / l
C. 1. 2 mg / l
D. * 2 mg / l
E. 4 mg / l
427.
Development of a typical medium caries is within ...
A. 2 / 3 of the surface area of enameling
B. enamel and cement
C. * dentin
D. dental pulp
E. half crown
428.
Development of caries in occlusal surface explains ...
A. Bacterial theory
B. acid theory
C. metabolitna theory
D. * proteolytic theory
E. hormonal theory
429.
Disease process in which the demineralization and destruction of hard tooth tissues
with formation of a defect - is:
A. * caries
B. hyperftorosis
C. tooth erosion
D. pulpitis
E. periodontitis
430.
Dispersal of cement when it caries entitled:
A. hipertsementoz
B. cementoma
C. * cementolisis
D. cementoblastoma
E. all of these terms are synonymous
431.
Favorable background for dental carious lesions are ...
A. hypersecretion of saliva
B. use hard toothbrushes
C. regular use of chewing gum
D. * sexual maturation
E. nothing from the above
432.
Favorable background of wedge defects of the tooth is ...
A. salivary gland disease
B. Staff bone disease
C. oral disease
D. * Gastrointestinal Tract
E. nothing among the above
433.
Fluorosis - is ...
A. * endemic
B. occupational illness
C. iatrogenic disease
D. metabolic diseases
E. hormonal diseases
434.
Fluorosis 3 degrees is called ...
A. poor lesion
B. * moderately expressed affection
C. heavy damage
D. stage complications
E. in the development of fluorosis no stadiynosti
435.
Fluorosis a first degree is called ...
A. poor lesion
B.
C.
D.
E.
436.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
437.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
438.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
439.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
440.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
441.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
442.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
443.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
444.
A.
* very weak damage
moderately expressed affection
heavy damage
stage complications
Fluorosis in its development is ...
5 degrees
* 4 degrees
3 degrees
2 degrees
No degrees of separation
Fluorosis two first degree is called ...
* poor lesion
very weak damage
moderately expressed affection
heavy damage
stage complications
Formation of irregular carious dentin during cavity - a manifestation:
metaplasia
compensatory hypertrophy
physiological regeneration
* reparative regeneration
malignization
Frequently localization of caries?
Bicuspid
* Molar upper jaw
Cutters
Fangs
Mandibular molar
Frequently localization parodontosis:
In the incisors
In the canines
In the bicuspid
In the upper jaw molars
* In the incisors and canines
How is the secondary dentine of the primary?
* degree of mineralization and structural structure
location
absence of cellular elements
no different
no such structure in the teeth
How many stages of development of caries you know?
2 stage
3 stages
* 4 stage
5 stage
its development has not stages
In the majority of tooth decay begins ...
bicuspid
* molars of the upper jaw
cutter
iklah
mandibular molars
In what is developing within typical average caries?
2 / 3 of the surface area of enameling
B.
C.
D.
E.
445.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
446.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
447.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
448.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
449.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
450.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
451.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
452.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
453.
A.
pathological process extends to the enamel and cement
* process passes to dentine
is in the process of destruction of the tooth pulp
destroyed half crown
In which areas are placed interstitial dentykle?
pulp
on the border between dentin and enamel of the tooth
* middle weight dentin
near the tooth root
among sponge trabecula jaw
In which parts of a tooth caries development is the fastest?
* in dentin
in pulp
in cement
in enamel
no data
Most tooth decay affects:
fangs
Cutters
* first big teeth
2nd tricuspid teeth
small teeth
Name the morphological features of dentin regeneration?
* randomly placed dentyn tubules
high content of fluorine and calcium in its structure
lack of it prisms
high content of loose connective tissue in its structures
broken relationship between cells and intercellular substance
Name the factors of fluorosis ...
genetic metabolic
Professional harmful effects on the body
violation of mineral metabolism
insufficient flow of fluoride in the body
* increased arrivals of fluoride in the body
Name the place where are most often dentykles situate.
molars of deciduous teeth
provisional bicuspid teeth
canines of the upper jaw
Permanent bicuspid teeth
* molars of permanent teeth
Uncariose damages of hard tooth tissues include ...
periodontitis
pulpitis
gingivitis
* enamel hypoplasia
hypertsementosis
Nomenclature name soft tissue of the tooth stroma
* pulp
dentine
spongy bone tissue
keloid
Often causes the development of flux:
* Acute apical periodontitis
B.
C.
D.
E.
Gangrenous pulpitis
Fibrous pulpitis
Catarrhal gingivitis
Periodontal disease
454.
One of the factors forming the transparent dentin is an excessive delay in dentin
channels
A. fluoride salts
B. acids
C. * calcium salts
D. phosphorus salts
E. microorganisms
455.
One of the main etiofactor of caries development is ...
A. * bacteria
B. Viruses
C. simple
D. chemical damage to teeth
E. physical damage to teeth
456.
One of the most common causes of periodontitis are:
A. * gingivitis
B. fluorosis
C. acute pulpitis
D. chronic pulpitis
E. caries
457.
One option caries, which is characterized by local dissolution of enamel is ...
A. circular caries
B. early caries
C. lateral tooth decay
D. retrograde caries
E. * stationary caries
458.
Periodontal disease - a chronic periodontal disease:
A. Inflammatory nature
B. Alternatives character
C. Tumor disease
D. * Primary-dystrophic diseases
E. Secondary-dystrophic diseases
459.
Periodontitis often affects ...
A. upper incisors
B. lower incisors
C. bicuspid
D. * lower molars
E. upper molars
460.
Predecessor plaque on the teeth ...
A. * Dental plaque
B. pelikule
C. cuticle
D. tartar
E. bacteria
461.
Primary cause of tooth erosion are ...
A. mechanical damage to the enamel chewing
B. thermal damage to the enamel
C. changes the chemical composition of saliva
D. professional Damage
E. * disease is kryptogenuc
462.
Reactive changes include pulp
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
463.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
464.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
465.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
466.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
467.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
468.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
469.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
470.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
471.
* atrophy, dystrophy, necrosis
necrosis, caries, periodontitis
dentykli, atrophy, pulpitis
atrophy, dystrophy, caries
pulpitis, periodontitis, caries
Resorption of bone tissue disease caused by cells in periodontitis:
osteoblasts
osteocyte
* osteoclast
plasma
macrophages
Synonymous with the diagnosis "subenamelum caries" are:
circular caries
* early caries
lateral tooth decay
stationary caries
retrograde caries
Tell the tooth surface which has the greatest resistance against caries
contact distal
proximal contact
buccal
* lingual
chewing
The concept of early caries means ...
caries development in milk teeth
caries development shortly after cuttings permanent teeth
shortly after the development of caries teeth cuttings
development of caries in children in July 1910 age
* development of caries directly under a layer of enamel
The concept of retrograde cavities means ...
development of caries in the back teeth
development of caries from the back surface of the tooth contact
* development of caries with dental pulp
development of dental caries cement
development of caries from the enamel layer
The development of caries on the smooth surface of the tooth explains ...
Bacterial theory
* acid theory
proteolytic theory
metabolitic theory
hormonal theory
The development of fluorosis caused by excessive amount in the body ...
calcium
phosphorus
* fluorine
boron
iron
The development of fluorosis share on ...
2 degrees
3 degrees
* 4 degrees
5 degrees
No degrees of separation
The earliest stage of development of caries are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
surface caries
* Stage Spot
stage progression
secondary caries
deep caries
472.
The first stage of caries - a ...
A. surface caries
B. prekariyes
C. initial caries
D. fisurnyy caries
E. * Stage Spot
473.
The most common cause of periodontitis are:
A. caries
B. * gingivitis
C. acute pulpitis
D. chronic pulpitis
E. fluorosis
474.
The presence of excessive number of cavities in parotynum ...
A. serves as a catalyst
B. accelerated destruction of hyperactivity in microbial hialuronidazy
C. accelerates fracture between teeth changes
D. * slows the destruction of tooth
E. not affect the course of caries
475.
The reason most often speaks of flux ...
A. * acute apical periodontitis
B. gangrenous pulpitis
C. fibrotic pulpitis
D. catarrhal gingivitis
E. parodontosis
476.
Through many stages of development is caries?
A. 2
B. 3
C. * 4
D. 5
E. its development has stages
477.
Transparent dentine formed as a result of excessive delay in dentynnyh channels
A. microorganisms
B. acids
C. * calcium salts
D. fluoride salts
E. phosphorus salts
478.
Trophic damaged dentin and organic matter on soil development cause disease
alimentary canal
A. fluorosis
B. * wedge-shaped defects of hard tissue
C. erosion of teeth
D. acid hard tissue necrosis
E. pulpitis
479.
What characterized retrograde cavities?
A. distribution of root caries with cement on the neck and enamel crown
B. * carious damage passes from the enamel dentine
C. carious tooth root damage only
D. inflammation occurs in the root canal
E. only damaged tooth pulp
480.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
481.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
482.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
483.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
484.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
485.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
486.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
487.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
488.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What characterized the stationary tooth decay?
disease progresses rapidly to stay in a stationary office
caries developed as iatrogenic disease etiology
* carious damage is progressing
damage only large molar teeth
no such cavities
What does dentycle formed in tooth?
pulp
primary dentin
* secondary dentin
peryodontium
rudimentary elements of permanent teeth
What is the criterion of secondary dentin differences from the original?
* degree of mineralization and structural building
location
presence or absence of cellular elements
no different
no such structure in the teeth
What is the etiological factor of caries?
Viruses
simple
* bacteria
chemical damage to teeth
physical damage to teeth
What is the first manifestation of caries?
appearance of black spots on tooth enamel
appearance of brown stains on tooth enamel
* appearance of white opaque spots on tooth enamel
appearance of radial cracks oriented
appearance of small black enamel erosion
What is the initial phase of wedge defects in tooth?
traumatic damage to the chewing
* trophic disorders of organic matter in enamel and dentin
Acidic chemical influences
alkaline chemical attack
significant temperature differences
What is the precursor to plaque?
pelikula
* Dental plaque
cuticle
tartar
bacteria
What regenerative dentine morphologically different from the typical?
prevailing lack of prisms
high levels of fluoride and calcium in the structures
* chaotic arrangement of dentine tubules
high content of loose connective tissue structures
abnormal ratio between cells and intercellular substance
What special stationary development of caries?
develops after medical interventions on teeth
develops when patients stay in hospital inpatient
* localized only in enamel and progresses
developing in the rudiments of permanent teeth
no such option caries
489.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
490.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
491.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
492.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
493.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
494.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
495.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
496.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
497.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
When excess in the body develops a chemical element fluorosis?
phosphorus
boron
iron
* fluorine
calcium
Which teeth are most often found dentykli?
molars of deciduous teeth
provisional bicuspid teeth
canines of the upper jaw
* molars of permanent teeth
Permanent bicuspid teeth
Why developing fluorosis?
a genetic metabolic
through professional detrimental effects on the body
for violations of mineral metabolism
insufficient flow through the body fluorine
* through increased revenues of fluoride in the body
3 rd degree of fluorosis was named ...
very weak damage
poor lesion
* moderately expressed affection
heavy damage
stage complications
4-th degree of fluorosis was named ...
poor lesion
very weak damage
moderately expressed affection
* heavy damage
stage complications
According to etiology, acid teeth hard tissue necrosis is ...
infections
* occupational diseases
hereditary diseases
polyetiologic disease
idiopathic disease
Acid necrosis hard tissue of teeth in its etiology - is:
* occupational illness
infectious diseases
hereditary pathology
unexplained etiology
vascular disease
Acid tooth hard tissue necrosis affects categories of people ...
chewing tobacco abusers
abusers products that canned acids
with low pH of saliva
* advancement in contact with mineral acids
no dependence
Acute apical periodontitis is inflammation of the form:
Granulematous
* Suppurative
Fibrinous
Alternatives
Productive derivative
498.
Against the background of digestive diseases frequently developing trophic damage
of organic matter and dentin entitled
A. fluorosis
B. * cuneiform hard tissue defects
C. erosion of teeth
D. acid hard tissue necrosis
E. pulpitis
499.
At what stage is formed carious cavities?
A. Stage Spot
B. surface caries
C. * secondary caries
D. stage progression
E. deep caries
500.
A follicle cyst develops from:
A. * enamel organ of tooth which was not cut
B. Granulation tissue
C. Fibrotic tissue
D. Inflammatory infitration
E. From the wall of chronic abscess
501.
A follicle cyst more frequently is combined:
A. with the first premolar
B. * with the second premolar
C. with the first molar
D. with the second molar
E. with the lower incisiva-tooth
502.
A follicle cyst more frequently is combined:
A. with the first premolar
B. * with the third molar
C. with the first molar
D. with the second molar
E. with the lower incisiva-tooth
503.
A follicle cyst more frequently is combined:
A. with the first premolar
B. * with the lower canina-tooth
C. with the first molar
D. with the second molar
E. with the lower incisiva-tooth
504.
A malignant lymphadenoma with typical localization in jaws bones is:
A. a Abrikosov's tumor
B. * a Bercit's tumor
C. a Willms' tumor
D. a Sezary tumor
E. a Khodjkin's tumor
505.
According to the clinic-morphological features the ameloblastomas are:
A. * benign tumor
B. malignanted benign tumor
C. malignant tumor
D. a tumor with local destructive growth
E. a tumular process
506.
Accrding to etiology giant cementoma is a:
A. result of trauma
B. result of specific inflammatory process
C. * inherited disease
D. complication of visceral mycosis
E. manifestation of chronic radiation illness
Adenomatic tumor arises up more often:
A. intra-uterine
B. at infants and children of the first year-old
C. * in the second decade-period of life
D. in the people of mature age
E. in the old people
508.
At a parathyreoid osteodystrophy in the maxillufacial bones to the skeleton is
observed:
A. * lacunar resorbtion and formation of fibrotic tissue
B. specific inflammatory process
C. heterospecific inflammatory process
D. sequestra formation
E. hyperostosis
509.
At a paratireoid osteodystrophy in the bones of maxillufacial skeleton is observed:
A. * lacunar resorbtion and formation of fibrotic tissue
B. specific inflammatory process
C. unspecific (heterospecific) inflammatory process
D. sequestr formation
E. hyperostosis
510.
At acuteinig of inflammation in the wall of radicular cyst develops:
A. Abscess
B. Granulosum
C. Necrosis
D. * Acanthosis of covering epithelium
E. dysplasia of epithelium
511.
At histological research of dentinoma it is possible to discover:
A. trabeculs of inactive odontogenic epithelium
B. immature connecting tissue
C. the islets of dysplastic dentine
D. * all structures that are marked
E. nothing from enumerated
512.
At inflammation the radicular cyst cavity can be filling:
A. * By granulation tissue
B. By fibrotic tissue
C. by fibrinosic exsudate
D. By necrosis
E. By a festering exsudate
513.
At the congenital form of uncompleted osteogenesis in bones of maxillufacial
skeleton is observed:
A. * normal amount of osteocytes and deficiti of basic matter in bones trabecules
B. the deficit of osteocytes is expressed
C. specific inflammatory process
D. aseptic necrosis of bone tissue
E. substituting of bone tissue by a cartilage
514.
At the histological research of jaw periosteum thay found inflammatory hyperemia,
swollen, moderate infiltration by neutrophilic leucocytes. Inflammation developed after a
trauma. What process is it?
A. * Serosic periostitis
B. Festering periostitis
C. Fibrotic periostitis
D. osteomielitis
E. Secondary amyloidosis
515.
Character of inflammation acute periostitis is:
507.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
fibrotic
* serosal, festering
alterativ, productive
destructive, hyperplastic
primary, recidive
516.
For a adenomatoid tumor typically is:
A. * a odontogenic epithelium forms structures which remind the channels
B. atypizm and polymorphism of odontogenic epithelium are expressed
C. epidermoid metaplasia of odontogenic epithelium
D. metastasis in the regional lymphatic nodes
E. all that are enumerated
517.
For an ameloblastoma the typically is:
A. metastasis by a haematogenic way
B. metastasis by a lymphogenic way
C. * numerous niduses of bone destruction
D. quick growth
E. more often is localized in a maxilla
518.
For what form of ameloblastoma the typically is epidermoid cell metaplasia with
keratin formation?
A. follicle
B. plexiform
C. * akantomatic
D. basalcell
E. granularcell
519.
Histological form of ameloblastoma, which meets more often than other:
A. akantomatosal
B. * follicle
C. basalcell
D. roundcell
E. granularcell
520.
It is possible to see in the internal wall of follicle cyst:
A. atypic cells
B. osteoblasts
C. * mucus productings cells
D. Ferrous cells
E. All that are enumerated cells
521.
Osteomielitis is the:
A. * Marrow inflamation of jaws bones
B. Festering inflammation of mucus membrane
C. Odontogenic antritis
D. Odontogenic sepsis
E. Secondary amyloidosis
522.
Osteomielitis more frequent develops:
A. in a maxilla
B. * in a mandibula
C. frequency of defeat is identical
D. at the same time in the maxilla and mandibula
E. in a maxilla osteomielit arises up never
523.
Periostitis is :
A. infectiously-allergic process which develops in a bone
B. festering-necrotizing process which develops in a bone
C. * an inflammatory process in a periosteum
D. inflammatory process which will strike tissues of parodont and spreads on bones
structures adjoining to him
524.
525.
526.
527.
528.
529.
530.
531.
532.
E. a tumular process is in bone
Premordial cyst develops more often in …
A. In the area of the first molar
B. in the area of the second molar
C. * in the area of the third molar
D. in the area of the first premolar
E. in the area of the second premolar
The ameloblastic fibroma is characterized by:
A. contains the islets of proliferativ odontogenic epithelium
B. contains the fluffy tissue which reminds the tissue of dental papilla
C. typical localization is the area of premolar
D. developsmore more frequently in in child's and young age
E. * all that are enumerated
The benign odontogenic tumor of ectodermal origin is:
A. * ameloblastoma
B. cementoma
C. odontogenic carcinoma
D. osteoblastoclastoma
E. dentinoma
The benign odontogenic tumors of mesenchyma origin are:
A. ameloblastoma, adenomatic tumor
B. * dentinoma, myxoma, cementoma
C. odontogenic carcinoma, osteoblastoclastoma
D. ameloblastic fibroma, odontoameloblastoma
E. all that are enumerated
The benign unodontogenic tumor of jaw is:
A. ameloblastoma
B. odontoameloblastoma
C. * osteoblastoclastoma
D. osteosarcoma
E. all are enumerated
The capsule of sequestral cavity is formed by:
A. the unchanged bone tissue
B. necrotic bone tissue
C. * fibred connecting tissue
D. granular tissue
E. cartilaginous tissue
The cells which form the parenchima of osteoblastoclastomas are belonging to:
A. * osteogenic
B. odontogenic ectodermic origin
C. odontogenic mesenchimal origin
D. melaninproductors
E. ephithelial
The clinic-anatomical forms of ameloblastoma is:
A. odontogenic and osteogenic
B. ectodermal and mesenchimal
C. smallnidus and diffuse
D. acute and recidivic
E. * cystophorous and solid
The inflammatory diseases of jaws are:
A. * periostitis, osteomielitis
B. osteomielitis, osteoma
C. cyst,osteoblastoclastoma
D. periostitis, paratireoid osteodystrophy
E. all that are enumerated disease
The internal surface of radicular cyst wall is covered:
A. By a ferrous epithelium
B. By a transitional epithelium
C. * By a multi-layered flat uncarotinized epithelium
D. By a multi-layered flat carotinized epithelium
E. By fibrotic tissue
534.
The internal surface of wall of premordial cyst is covered:
A. By mature connecting tissue
B. * By a multi-layered flat epithelium
C. By a ferrous epithelium
D. By a transitional epithelium
E. By fluffy connecting tissue
535.
The odontogenic epithelium of ameloblastoma contains the numerous acidophilic
granules. This is a:
A. malignant ameloblastoma
B. plexiform form of ameloblastoma
C. akantomatic form of ameloblastoma
D. basalcell form of ameloblastoma
E. * granularcell form of ameloblastoma
536.
The odontogenic fibroma is characterized by:
A. contains the islets of inactive odontogenic epithelium
B. contains the mature connecting tissue
C. more frequently meets in senior age-dependent groups
D. * all that are enumerated is right
E. all that are enumerated is incorrectly
537.
The pathognomic sign of cemenomas is:
A. a presence of young or mature fibrotic tissue
B. * a formation of cementoid matter with the different degree of mineralization
C. a presence of trabeculs of inactive odontogenic epithelium
D. a presence of trabeculs of odontogenic epithelium with the signs of polymorphism
and atypizm
E. it contains the islets of dysplastic dentine
538.
The primary intracyst carcinoma can develop from:
A. the epithelium of mucus membrane of mouth cavity
B. * the epithelium of disontogenetic odontogenic cysts
C. the odontogenic mesenchyma
D. the bone tissue
E. can develop from all enumerated structures
539.
The primary intracyst carcinoma develops from:
A. the epithelium of mucus membrane of mouth cavity
B. * the epithelium of Malasse's islets
C. the odontogenic mesenchyma
D. the bone tissue
E. can develop from all enumerated structures
540.
The radicular cyst develops as a ressult of:
A. acute abscess
B. chronic abscess
C. acute periodontitis
D. * Chronic periodontitis
E. Follicle cyst
541.
The radicular cyst develops:
A. * from a complex granulomas
B. From a follicle cyst
533.
C. From acute periodontitis
D. From an acute abscess
E. From a chronic abscess
542.
The radicular cyst meets:
A. In 20% from all cases
B. In 40% from all cases
C. In 50% from all cases
D. In 60% from all cases
E. * In 80% from all cases
543.
The typically difference of odontogenic myxoma from the myxomas of other
localization is next:
A. the base of tumor is formed by mucous mass
B. contains the a lot of acid mucopolisaccharides
C. * contains the trabeculs of inactive odontogenic epithelium
D. a tumor does not metastases
E. a tumor is predispositioned to the relapses (recedives) after the surgical delete
544.
The wall of sequestral cavity consists of:
A. unchanged bone tissue
B. granulation tissue
C. connective tissue capsule and ephithelial layer
D. * connective tissue capsule and pyogenic membrane
E. all enumerated variants are possible
545.
What changes are present in bone tissue at acute osteomyelitis:
A. excrescence of granulation tissue
B. sclerosis
C. * resorbtion of bones trabecules
D. regeneration of bones trabecules
E. tissue atipism
546.
What form of ameloblastoma according to a histological structure reminds an enamel
organ?
A. * follicle
B. plexiform
C. akantomatosal
D. basalcell
E. granularcell
547.
What form of ameloblastoma according to a histological structure reminds a basalcell
cancer?
A. follicle
B. plexiform
C. akantomatic
D. * basalcell
E. granularcell
548.
What histological types of cementom do you known?
A. * benign cementoblastoma, cementitious fibroma, giant cementoma
B. benign cementoblastoma, dentinoma, ameloblastoma
C. benign cementoblastoma, cementitious fibroma, odontoameloblastoma
D. cementitious fibroma, giganticcells tumor
E. all that are enumerated
549.
What name of the tumor, which is introduced by the trabecular net of odontogenic
epithelium with whimsical branching?
A. a follicle form of ameloblastoma
B. * a plexiform form of ameloblastoma
C. an akantomatic form of ameloblastoma
D. a basalcell form of ameloblastoma
E. a granularcell form of ameloblastoma
What pathomorphological change characterizes odontogenic osteomyelitis most full?
A. inflammation of peridont
B. inflammation and niduses of peridont destruction
C. inflammation and destruction of peridont, festering-inflammatory process in a
periosteum
D. * festering infiltration of marrow, thrombosis of vessels, festering melting of trombs,
area of hemorrhage and osteonecrosis
E. festering-inflammatory process in a jaw and surrounding tissues
551.
What structure of teeth has the ectodermal origin?
A. dentine
B. odontoblasts
C. pulp
D. * enamel
E. cement
552.
What tumor does not belong to the odontogenic tumor s of the mixed origin?
A. ameloblastic fibroma
B. odontoameloblastoma
C. ameloblastic fibroodontoma
D. * cementitious fibroma
E. odontogenic fibroma
553.
What tumors are belonging to odontogenic carcinomas?
A. osteoblastoclastoma and osteosarcoma
B. basalcell and acidophilic forms of ameloblastomas
C. * malignant ameloblastoma and primary intracyst carcinoma
D. ameloblastic fibroma and odontoameloblastoma
E. all that are transferred
554.
What tumors does not belong to the odontogenic tumors of mesenchymal origin?
A. dentinoma
B. odontogenic myxoma
C. * odontoameloblastoma
D. benign cementoma
E. giant cementoma
555.
A typical diagnostic criteria of dry syndrome is autoimmune sialoadenit and:
A. adenocarcinoma of salivary gland
B. chronic osteomyelitis of the jaw
C. obesity at the top type
D. all referred
E. * polyarthritis
556.
At which disease occurs sialoadenit with salivary gland destruction of lymphocytes
and macrophages?
A. Down syndrome
B. Patau syndrome
C. Shereshevsky-Turner syndrome
D. Syndrome Stein-Leventhal
E. * Sjogren syndrome
557.
At which disease often develops autoimmune sialoadenit:
A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Systemic sclerosis
C. AIDS
D. Viscidosis
E. * Sjogren syndrome dry
558.
Causative agent of mumps are:
A. retrovirus
550.
B.
C.
D.
E.
559.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
560.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
561.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
562.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
563.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
564.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
565.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
566.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
567.
A.
adenoidal pharyngeal conjunctival virus
respiratory syncytial virus
Mycoplasma
* miksovirus
Chronic inflammation sialoadenit in nature tends to be:
alternatives
catarrhal
abscess
gangrenous
* productive
Combined secondary lesions of salivary glands and tearfully known as:
Alport syndrome
Patau syndrome
Cider Zhilbera
Syndrome kartagener
* Syndrome of Mykulich
Diseases of salivary gland origin are:
Genetically-determined
Intoksykatsiynoho origin
Inflammatory origin
Chronic
* Congenital
Erysipelas caused lips:
Staphylococcus
Ps.aeruginosa
Papilloma-virus
With Epstein-Bar
* Streptococcus
Frequently localization of adenolymphoma:
small salivary glands of oral cavity
sublingual gland
submandibular gland
tumor occurs about equally in all glands
* parotid
Frequently localization carcinoma of salivary glands:
sublingual gland
submandibular gland
parotid
tumor occurs about equally in all glands
* small salivary glands hard and soft palate
Frequently monomorphic adenoma localization:
small salivary glands of oral cavity
sublingual gland
submandibular gland
tumor occurs about equally in all glands
* parotid
Frequently pleomorfnoyi adenoma localization:
small salivary glands of oral cavity
sublingual gland
submandibular gland
tumor occurs about equally in all glands
* parotid
Frequently sialoadenitu primary reason:
Epstein-Bar virus
B.
C.
D.
E.
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Fungi of Candida
* Mumps
568.
Frequently sialoadenitu primary reason:
A. Epstein-Bar virus
B. Streptococcus
C. Staphylococcus
D. Fungi of Candida
E. * Cytomegalovirus
569.
Granulomatous heylitis is the first manifestation of the syndrome:
A. Uoterhauzena-Frederiksena
B. Kon
C. Pituitary Kushinh
D. Simonds
E. * Melkerson-Rosenthal
570.
Hlositis - is:
A. inflammation of the lips
B. inflammation of the mucous membrane of mouth
C. salivary gland inflammation
D. inflammation of the jaw bone
E. * tongue inflammation
571.
In the parotid glands in mumps develops
A. Unilateral purulent parotitis
B. two-sided purulent parotitis
C. cirrhosis glands
D. sialolitiaz
E. * duplex interstitial parotitis
572.
Most dangerous complication of furuncle lips:
A. Stroke
B. Lymphadenitis
C. Limphangoitis
D. Dermatitis
E. * Angular vein thrombophlebitis
573.
Name acute infectious viral disease, which is typical for inflammation in the stroma
of parotid salivary glands.
A. measles
B. rubella
C. paragripom
D. Filatov's disease
E. * parotitis
574.
Name innate disease of salivary glands.
A. sialoadenit
B. sialolitiaz
C. onkocitoma
D. all of these
E. * ektopia
575.
Pleomorfna adenoma of salivary glands are often found in:
A. children of the first year of life
B. pubertal age
C. in men under 30
D. in the elderly, regardless of the article
E. * in women after 40 years
576.
What are the main morphological structures are signs of pregnancy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
glandular hyperplasia edometriya
placental polyp
* chorionic villi and decidual tissue
Iron-cystic hyperplasia
Endotservikoz
577.
Termination of pregnancy and the allocation of the uterus before the fetus from 14
weeks of conception denote as:
A. Miscarriage
B. Late abortion
C. *Early abortion
D. Premature birth
E. Criminal abortion
578.
Termination of pregnancy and the allocation of the fetus from the uterus of 14
weeks to 20 weeks from the moment of conception denote as:
A. Miscarriage
B. *Late abortion
C. Early abortion
D. Premature birth
E. Criminal abortion
579.
Allocation of the fetus from the uterus of 28 to 37 weeks is called:
A. Miscarriage
B. Late abortion
C. Early abortion
D. *Premature birth
E. Criminal abortion
580.
Abortion was carried out outside the boundaries of the medical institution is called:
A. Septic abortion
B. *Criminal abortion
C. Artificial board
D. Cystic mole
E. Vesiculare cystic mole
581.
It is called an abortion outside a medical institution:
A. Septic abortion
B. *Criminal abortion
C. Artificial board
D. Puzirny mole
E. Vesiculare cystic mole
582.
Villi cystic placenta reborn, their number increased dramatically, becoming a
conglomerate of the vine with:
A. *Cyst change of placenta
B. Premature birth
C. Late abortion
D. Miscarriage
E. Trubnaya pregnancy
583.
What is the name of the process, when the placenta villi cystic reborn, their number
increased dramatically, becoming a conglomerate of vines:
A. *Vesiculare mole
B. Premature birth
C. Late abortion
D. Miscarriage
E. Tubular Pregnancy
584.
Name the process in endometrium which appears diffuse leukocyte infiltration.
A. Placental polyp
B. Horionepithelioma
C. *Endometritis
D. Septic endometritis
E. Glandular hyperplasia of endometrium
585.
Embriopathias A. *Pathology embryonic period, with 16 days of pregnancy
B. Pathology embryonic period, with 20 days of pregnancy
C. Pathology embryonic period, with 40 days of pregnancy
D. Pathology embryonic period, with 52 days of pregnancy
E. Pathology embryonic period, with 58 days of pregnancy
586.
Which includes embriopatias A. *Pathology embryonic period, with 16 days of pregnancy
B. Pathology embryonic period, with 20 days of pregnancy
C. Pathology embryonic period, with 40 days of pregnancy
D. Pathology embryonic period, with 52 days of pregnancy
E. Pathology embryonic period, with 58 days of pregnancy
587.
What is embriopathias A. *Pathology embryonic period, with 16 days of pregnancy
B. Pathology embryonic period, with 20 days of pregnancy
C. Pathology embryonic period, with 40 days of pregnancy
D. Pathology embryonic period, with 52 days of pregnancy
E. Pathology embryonic period, with 58 days of pregnancy
588.
The most difficult gaps arise in the development of the child injury in the early
neural tube bookmark:
A. *3-4 weeks of intrauterine development
B. 5-6 week of intrauterine development
C. 7-8 week of intrauterine development
D. 9-10 weeks of intrauterine development
E. 11-12 weeks of intrauterine development
589.
What are the disadvantages of the most difficult child development occur when
damage to the neural tube early favorite:
A. 3-4 weeks of intrauterine development
B. 5-6 week of intrauterine development
C. 7-8 week of intrauterine development
D. 9-10 weeks of intrauterine development
E. 11-12 weeks of intrauterine development
590.
When the most difficult developmental damage in children with neural tube early
favorite:
A. *3-4 weeks of intrauterine development
B. 5-6 week of intrauterine development
C. 7-8 week of intrauterine development
D. 9-10 weeks of intrauterine development
E. 11-12 weeks of intrauterine development
591.
Microcephaly, primary marrow hypoplasia relate to:
A. *Embriopathias
B. Fetopathias
C. Pathology consequences
D. Secular change
E. Perinatal Pathology
592.
To which group pathology include microcephaly-(hypoplasia main brain):
A. *Embriopathias
B. Fetopathias
C. Pathology consequences
D. Secular change
E. Perinatal Pathology
593.
Indicate which group pathology include microcephaly-(hypoplasia main brain):
*Embriopathias
Fetopathias
Pathology consequences
Secular change
Perinatal Pathology
594.
Born hydrocephalus, the excess accumulation of liquor in the cerebral ventricle or
subarachnoid space, refers to:
A. *Embriopathias
B. Fetopathias
C. Pathology consequences
D. Secular change
E. Perinatal Pathology
595.
In which group of diseases include hydrocephalus nee-(excessive accumulation of
liquor in the cerebral ventricle or subarachnoid space):
A. *Embriopathias
B. Fetopathias
C. Pathology consequences
D. Secular change
E. Perinatal Pathology
596.
Specify which group of diseases include hydrocephalus nee-(excessive
accumulation of liquor in the cerebral ventricle or subarachnoid space):
A. *Embriopathias
B. Fetopathias
C. Pathology consequences
D. Secular change
E. Perinatal Pathology
597.
Spinal cord herniation associated with splitting dorsal vertebrae divisions, are:
A. *Embriopathias
B. Fetopathias
C. Pathology consequences
D. Secular change
E. Perinatal Pathology
598.
To which group of diseases included spinal cord herniation associated with
splitting dorsal vertebrae divisions:
A. *Embriopathias
B. Fetopathias
C. Pathology consequences
D. Secular change
E. Perinatal Pathology
599.
Specify which group of diseases included spinal cord herniation associated with
splitting dorsal vertebrae divisions:
A. Embriopathias
B. Fetopattias
C. Pathology consequences
D. Secular change
E. Perinatal Pathology
600.
Defect mezhzheludochnoy partition belongs to:
A. Fetopathias
B. Pathology consequences
C. *Embriopathias
D. Birth trauma
E. Perinatal Pathology
601.
To which group of diseases include defect ventricular septa:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
602.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
603.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
604.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Fetopathias
Pathology consequences
*Embriopathias
Birth trauma
Perinatal Pathology
Specify which group of diseases include defect ventricular septa:
Fetopathias
Pathology consequences
*Embriopathias
Birth trauma
Perinatal Pathology
Complete transposition pulmonary artery and aorta refers to:
Fetopathias
Pathology consequences
Birth trauma
*Embriopathias
Perinatal Pathology
To which group of diseases include full transposition pulmonary artery and aorta:
Fetopathias
Pathology consequences
Birth trauma
*Embriopathias
Perinatal Pathology
Specify which group of diseases include full transposition pulmonary artery and
605.
aorta:
A. Fetopathias
B. Pathology consequences
C. Birth trauma
D. *Embriopathias
E. Perinatal Pathology
606.
Stenosis and atresia occurs when the pulmonary artery walls of blood replacement
barrel to the right, often with a defect ventricular septa, and is a manifestation of:
A. Fetopathias
B. Pathology consequences
C. Birth trauma
D. *Embriopathias
E. Perinatal Pathology
607.
Triad Fallouh (defect ventricular septa, pulmonary artery stenosis, right ventricular
hypertrophy) is to:
A. Fetopathias
B. Pathology consequences
C. Birth trauma
D. Perinatal Pathology
E. *Embriopathias
608.
To which the pathology refers tetrad Fallouh (defect ventricular septa, narrowing of
the pulmonary artery, dekstrapozition of aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy):
A. Fetopathias
B. *Embriopathias
C. Pathology consequences
D. Birth trauma
E. Perinatal Pathology
609.
Polycystic of liver - multiple cysts of various sizes, found polycystic of the kidneys
and pancreas, refers to:
A. *Embriopathias
B.
C.
D.
E.
Fetopathias
Pathology consequences
Birth trauma
Perinatal Pathology
610.
To which the pathology of the liver include polycystic - (multiple cysts of various
sizes, found out polycystic kidney and pancreas):
A. *Embriopathias
B. Fetopathias
C. Pathology consequences
D. Birth trauma
E. Perinatal Pathology
611.
Ageneziya of kidney congenital absence of one or both kidneys is related to
A. *Embriopathias
B. Fetopathias
C. Pathology consequences
D. Birth trauma
E. Perinatal Pathology
612.
What pathology refers ageneziya kidney - the absence of one or both kidneys:
A. *Embriopathias
B. Fetopathias
C. Pathology consequences
D. Birth trauma
E. Perinatal Pathology
613.
Renal hypoplasia - reducing weight and volume of the kidney may be one-and twoway:
A. Fetopathias
B. *Embriopathias
C. Pathology consequences
D. Birth trauma
E. Perinatal Pathology
614.
Which renal pathology include renal hypoplasia - reducing weight and volume of
the kidney may be one-and two-way:
A. Fetopathias
B. *Embriopathias
C. Pathology consequences
D. Birth trauma
E. Perinatal Pathology
615.
Displasia renal hypoplasia, with the simultaneous presence of embryonic kidney
tissue, refers to:
A. Fetopathias
B. Pathology consequences
C. Birth trauma
D. Perinatal Pathology
E. *Embriopathias
616.
Congenital emphysema - a dramatic swelling are the top percentage of the left lung
with hypoplasia cartilage, elastic and muscular bronchial tissue related to:
A. *Fetopathias
B. Pathology consequences
C. Birth trauma
D. Perinatal Pathology
E. Embriopathias
617.
Dislocations and dysplasia of the hip joint is related to:
A. Pathology consequences
B. Birth trauma
C. Perinatal Pathology
D. Embriopathias
E. *Fetopathias
618.
Polidaktiliya - Increase the number of fingers is related to:
A. *Fetopathias
B. Pathology consequences
C. Birth trauma
D. Perinatal Pathology
E. Embriopathias
619.
What pathology refers polydactylia - Increase the number of fingers:
A. *Fetopathias
B. Pathology consequences
C. Birth trauma
D. Perinatal Pathology
E. Embriopathias
620.
Perinatal period starts from:
A. *196 days fetal life and lasts for up to 1 week of life outside the mother's body
B. 197 days fetal life and lasts for up to 1 week of life outside the mother's body
C. 198 days fetal life and lasts for up to 1 week of life outside the mother's body
D. 199 days fetal life and lasts for up to 1 week of life outside the mother's body
E. 200 days fetal life and lasts for up to 1 week of life outside the mother's body
621.
When starting the perinatal period:
A. *196 days fetal life and lasts for up to 1 week of life outside the mother's body
B. 197 days dnya fetal life and lasts for up to 1 week of life outside the mother's body
C. 198 days fetal life and lasts for up to 1 week of life outside the mother's body
D. 199 days fetal life and lasts for up to 1 week of life outside the mother's body
E. 200 days fetal life and lasts for up to 1 week of life outside the mother's body
622.
Infant mortality and childbirth are called:
A. Perinatal mortality
B. Intranatal
C. *Antenatal
D. Neonatal
E. -623.
Hyaline membrane lung disease refers to:
A. Antenatal pathology
B. Intranatal pathology
C. Postnatal pathology
D. *Pneumopathy
E. -624.
What pathology include hyaline membrane lung disease:
A. Antenatal pathology
B. Intranatal pathology
C. Postnatal pathology
D. *Pneumopathy
E. -625.
Birth injury (damage to tissues and organs of the fetus mechanical forces) occurs:
A. Before birth
B. *At the time of childbirth
C. After childbirth
D. As a consequence of childbirth
E. -626.
To which the pathology include birth injury (damage to tissues and organs of the
fetus mechanical forces):
A. Before birth
B.
C.
D.
E.
*At the time of childbirth
After childbirth
As a consequence of childbirth
-627.
Indicate how pathology relates to birth injury (damage to tissues and organs of the
fetus mechanical forces):
A. Before birth
B. *At the time of childbirth
C. After childbirth
D. As a consequence of childbirth
E. -628.
Causes of fetal birth trauma, set in a position of the fetus during labor is all listed,
except:
A. High moving vessels
B. Lack of blood prothrombin
C. The shortage of vitamins C and P
D. Softness bone
E. *The shortage of vitamin C
629.
What pathology include birth injury (damage to tissues and organs of the fetus
mechanical forces):
A. Before birth
B. *At the time of childbirth
C. After childbirth
D. As a consequence of childbirth
E. –
SITUATIONAL TASKS
1. Several days following a myocardial infarction, a 51-year-old man develops the sudden
onset of a new pansystolic murmur along with a diastolic flow murmur. Workup reveals
increased left atrial pressure that develops late in systole and extends into diastole. Which of
the following is the most likely cause of the abnormalities present in this individual?
A. Aneurysmal dilation of the left ventricle
B. Obstruction of the aortic valve
C. Rupture of the left ventricle wall
D. *Rupture of a papillary muscle
E. Thrombosis of the left atrial cavity
2. Three weeks following a myocardial infarction, a 54-year-old man presents with fever,
productive cough, and chest pain. The pain is worse with inspiration, better when he is
sitting up, and not relieved by nitroglycerin. Physical examination finds a friction rub along
with increased jugular venous pressure and pulsus paradoxus (excess blood pressure drop
with inspiration). Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?
A. Caplan’s syndrome
B. *Dressler’s syndrome
C. Ruptured papillary muscle
D. Ruptured ventricular wall
E. Ventricular aneurysm
3. A 59-year-old woman presents with increasing shortness of breath. Physical examination
reveals signs of left heart failure. She is admitted to the hospital to workup her symptoms,
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
but she dies suddenly. A section from her heart at the time of autopsy reveals marked
thickening of the wall of the left ventricle, but the thickness of the right ventricle is within
normal limits. Many of the nuclei of the myocytes in the wall of the left ventricle have a
“box car” appearance. The endocardium does not appear to be increased in thickness or
fibrotic, and the cardiac valves do not appear abnormal. The left ventricular cavity is noted
to be decreased in size. What is the most likely cause of this cardiac pathology?
A. Carcinoid heart disease
B. Cor pulmonale
C. Eccentric hypertrophy
D. *Systemic hypertensive
E. Volume overload
A 71-year-old woman presents with increasing chest pain and occasional syncopal episodes,
especially with physical exertion. She has trouble breathing at night and when she lies down.
Physical examination reveals a crescendo-decrescendo midsystolic ejection murmur with a
paradoxically split second heart sound (S2). Pressure studies reveal that the left ventricular
pressure during systole is markedly greater than the aortic pressure. Which of the following
is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Aortic regurgitation
B. *Aortic stenosis
C. Constrictive pericarditis
D. Mitral regurgitation
E. Mitral stenosis
A 63-year-old man presents with signs of congestive heart failure, including shortness of
breath, cough, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Physical examination reveals a
hyperdynamic, bounding, “water-hammer” pulse and a decrescendo diastolic murmur. His
hyperdynamic pulse causes “bobbing” of his head. Which of the following is the most
frequent cause of the cardiac valvular abnormality present in this individual?
A. Aortic dissection
B. Infective endocarditis
C. Latent syphilis
D. Marfan syndrome
E. *Rheumatic fever
Physical examination of an asymptomatic 29-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic
fever during childhood finds an early diastolic opening snap with a rumbling late diastolic
murmur. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Mitral regurgitation
D. *Mitral stenosis
E. Pulmonic stenosis
A 7-year-old boy presents with the acute onset of fever, pain in several joints, and a skin
rash. Physical examination finds an enlarged heart, several subcutaneous nodules, and a skin
rash on his back with a raised, erythematous margin. Laboratory tests find an elevated
erythrocyte sedimentation rate and an elevated antistreptolysin O titers. Within the past
month, this boy most likely had which one of the following abnormalities?
A. Anitschkow cells develop in the lungs
B. Aschoff bodies develop in the skin
C. *Beta-hemolytic streptococci infection of the pharynx
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection of the aorta
E. Stenosis of the mitral valve
An autopsy done on a 23-year-old man who died suddenly with no previous medical history
reveals the right ventricle to be dilated with near total transmural replacement of the right
ventricle (RV) free-wall myocardium by fat and fibrosis. No skin or hair abnormalities are
seen. What is the best diagnosis?
A. *Arrhythmogenic RV cardiomyopathy
B. Endocardial fibrosis
C. Hyper-serotonin RV syndrome
D. Loeffler endomyocarditis
E. Naxos syndrome
9. A 31-year-old woman presents with fever, intermittent severe pain in the left upper quadrant
of her abdomen, and painful lesions involving her fingers and nail beds. History reveals that
she had acute rheumatic fever as a child and that when she was around 20 years of age she
developed a new cardiac murmur. At the present time one of three blood cultures submitted
to the hospital lab grew a specific bacteria. Which of the following is the most likely cause
of her disease?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. * α-hemolytic viridans streptococci
C. Candida species
D. Group A streptococci
E. Pseudomonas species
10. A 23-year-old woman develops the sudden onset of congestive heart failure. Her condition
rapidly deteriorates and she dies in heart failure. At autopsy, patchy interstitial infiltrates
composed mainly of lymphocytes are found, some of which surround individual myocytes.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s heart failure?
A. Autoimmune reaction (to group A β-hemolytic streptococci)
B. Bacterial myocarditis (due to S. aureus infection)
C. Hypersensitivity myocarditis (due to an allergic reaction)
D. Nutritional deficiency (due to thiamine deficiency)
E. *Viral myocarditis (due to coxsackievirus infection)
11. At the time of autopsy of a 39-year-old woman who died of complications of systemic lupus
erythematosus, several medium-sized vegetations are found on both sides of the mitral valve
and tricuspid valve. Which of the following is the basic abnormality that produced these
cardiac vegetations?
A. Turbulent blood flow through an incompetent mitral valve
B. Excess secretion of a vasoactive amine
C. *Presence of an anticardiolipin antibody
D. Cachexia produced by a hypercoagulable state
E. Bacterial colonization of an abnormal valve
12. A 37-year-old woman presents with prolonged cramps, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and
episodic flushing of the skin. Additionally, she develops pearly white, plaque-like deposits
on the tricuspid valve leaflets. Which of the following disorders is most likely to be present
in this individual?
A. Rheumatic heart disease
B. Amyloidosis
C. Iron overload
D. Hypothyroidism
E. *Carcinoid heart disease
13. A 59-year-old patient receiving chemotherapy with the anthracycline Adriamycin develops
severe heart failure. Sections from an endocardial biopsy specimen reveal vacuolization of
the endoplasmic reticulum of the myocytes. Adriamycin therapy most frequently causes
what type of cardiomyopathy?
A. *Dilated cardiomyopathy
B. Hyperplastic cardiomyopathy
C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
D. Obliterative cardiomyopathy
E. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
14. A 3-month-old girl is being evaluated for feeding difficulty and failure to thrive. Physical
examination finds pallor, peripheral cyanosis, tachypnea, and fine expiratory wheezing.
Chest x-ray shows cardiac enlargement. She is admitted to the hospital, quickly develops
severe cardiac failure, and dies 3 days after admission. At the time of autopsy the
endocardium is found to have a “cream cheese” gross appearance. Histologic sections from
this area reveal thickening of the endocardium due to a proliferation of fibrous and elastic
tissue. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C. Infective endocarditis
D. Libman-Sachs endocarditis
E. * Restrictive cardiomyopathy
15. A 49-year-old man 7 days after being admitted to the hospital for an inferior wall,
transmural myocardial infarction suddenly becomes short of breath. Physical examination
reveals hypotension, elevated jugular venous pressure, and muffled heart sounds. His
systemic blood pressure drops 13 mmHg with inspiration. Which one of the following
pathologic processes produced these clinical findings?
A. Acute inflammation of the pericardium due to an autoimmune reaction
B. Acute mitral regurgitation due to rupture of a papillary muscle
C. Acute suppurative inflammation of the pericardium due to bacterial infection
D. *Blood accumulation in the pericardial cavity due to rupture of the ventricular wall
E. Serous fluid accumulation in the pericardial cavity due to congestive heart failure
16. A 35-year-old man179. A 35-year-old man presents with weight loss, fever, and fatigue.
Physical examination finds signs and symptoms of mitral valve disease. Further workup
finds a pedunculated mass in the left atrium. The tumor is resected and histologic sections
reveal stellate cells in a loose myxoid background. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Chordoma
B. Fibroelastoma
C. Leiomyoma
D. *Myxoma
E. Rhabdomyoma
17. A 2-year-old girl is being evaluated for growth and developmental delay. She has had
several past episodes when she would suddenly have trouble breathing, become blue, and
then assume a squatting position to catch her breath. Workup finds a defect in the wall of the
ventricular septum, increased thickness of the right ventricle, and dextroposition of the aorta.
Which of the following cardiovascular abnormalities is most likely to be present in this
child?
A. Coarctation of the aorta
B. Incompetence of the mitral valve
C. Patency of the foramen ovale
D. Persistence of the AV canal
E. *Stenosis of the pulmonic valve
18. A 2-month-old girl is being examined for a routine checkup. She was born at term, and there
were no problems or complications during the pregnancy. The baby appeared normal at birth
and has been asymptomatic. Physical examination at this time finds a soft systolic murmur
with a systolic thrill. No cyanosis is present, and her peripheral pulses are thought to be
within normal limits. An ECG reveals slight left ventricular hypertrophy. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Coarctation of the aorta
B. Patent ductus arteriosus
C. Persistent truncus arteriosus
D. Tetralogy of Fallot
E. *Ventricular septal defect
19. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the flow of blood in an
individual with an atrial septal defect who develops Eisenmenger’s syndrome?
A. Aorta to pulmonary artery to lungs to left atrium to left ventricle to aorta
B. Left atrium to right atrium to right ventricle to lungs to left atrium
C. Left ventricle to right ventricle to lungs to left atrium to right ventricle
D. *Right atrium to left atrium to left ventricle to aorta to right atrium
E. Right ventricle to left ventricle to aorta to right atrium to right ventricle
20. A 43 years old man is diagnosed clinically with the subacute progressive
glomerulonephritis. Its morphological equivalent is:
A. Intracapillar proliferative glomerulonephritis;
B. Glomerulosclerosis
C. Membranous glomerulonephritis;
D. * Extracapillary proliferative glomerulonephritis
E. Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis.
21. In the villages of saliva mumps patient the microscopic study showing giant cells that
contain large basophilic intranuclear inclusion surrounded by a zone enlightenment. The
appearance of these cells resembles SAUVIGNY eye. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. mumps
B. non-specific bacterial parotitis
C. candidiasis mumps
D. non-contagious mumps because of lead poisoning
E. * cytomegalovirus parotitis
22. During an ectopic pregnancy in the uterine wall of the pipe through a small hole, which is
overweighted with packages tamponirovalos blood. What is the name of such a
complication?
A. Blood drop
B. *Covered the gap
C. Cystic drop
D. Incomplete tubal abortion
E. Full Pipe abortion
23. In microscopic examination revealed endometrial villi chorion, the convolution of blood
decidual tissue. What is the process of being developed?
A. Glandular hyperplasia of endometrial
B. Iron-cystic hyperplasia of endometrial
C. *Placental polyp
D. Fibrous polyp
E. Adenomatous polyp
24. In the microscopic study revealed endometrial villi of chorion, the convolution of blood
decidual tissue. What is the process of being developed?
A. Glandular hyperplasia of endometrial tissue
B. Iron-cystic hyperplasia endometrial tissue
C. *Placental polyp
D. Fibrous polyp
E. Adenomatous polyp
25. In the microscopic examination of endometrial tissue revealed diffuse leukocyte
infiltration. What is the process of being developed?
A. Placental polyp
B. Horionepithelioma
C. *Endometritis
D. Septic endometritis
E. Glandular hyperplasia of endometrium
26. A 56 year old man was taken to the hospital with complaints of general weakness, pain and
burning in the region of tongue, extremity numbness. In the past he had resection of cardiac
part of ventricle. Blood test: Hb- 80 g/L; RBC- 2,0*1012/L; colour index of blood- 1,2;
leukocytes - 3,5*109/L. What type of anemy is it?
A. A. Iron-deficient
B. Hemolytic
C. Aplastic
D. * В12 folic-deficient
E. Posthemorrhagic
27. A 7 year old child had an acute onset of disease. Pediatrician stated that mucous membrane
of fauces is hyperemic and covered with a lot of mucus. Mucous membrane of cheeks has
whitish stains. Next day the child's skin of face, neck, body was covered with coarselypapular rash. What disease may be presumed?
A. Allergic dermatitis
B. Diphteria
C. Scarlet fever
D. * Measles
E. Meningococcemia
28. Microscopic analysis of tissue sampling from patient's skin reveals granulomas that consist
of epithelioid cells surrounded mostly by T-lymphocytes. Among epithelioid cells there are
solitary giant multinuclear cells of Pirogov-Langhans typ. In the centre of some granulomas
there are areas of caseous necrosis. Blood vessels are absent. What disease are the described
granulomas typical for?
A. * Tuberculosis
B. Syphilis
C. Leprosy
D. Rhinoscleroma
E. Glanders
29. Autopsy of an 8 year old boy who was ill with pharyngeal and tonsillar diphtheria and died
one week after illness begin revealed myocardial changes in form of small-focal
myocardiocyte necroses, stroma edema with slight lymphocytic infiltration. What type of
myocarditis is it:
A. Septic
B. * Alterative
C. Granulomatous
D. Focal-intermediate, exudative
E. Interstitional
30. A 7 year old child was taken to the infectious disease hospital with complaints of acute pain
during swallowing, temperature rise up to 390С, neck edem. Objective signs: tonsills are
enlarged, their mucous membrane is plethoric and covered with a big number of whitishyellowish films that are closely adjacent to the mucous membrane. After removal of these
films the deep bleeding defect remains. What type of inflammation is it?
A. Purulent
B. Crupous
C. Serous
D. Hemorrhagic
E. * Diphteritic
31. Autopsy of a man who died from ethylene glycol poisoning revealed that his kidneys are a
little bit enlarged, edematic; their capsule can be easily remove. Cortical substance is broad
and light-grey. Medullary substance is dark. What pathology had this man?
A. * Necrotic nephrosis
B. Acute tubular-interstitial nephritis
C. Lipoid nephrosis
D. Acute glomerulonephritis
E. Acute pyelonephritis
32. Recovery from an infectious disease is accompanied by neutralization of antigens by
specific antibodies. What cells produce them?
A. * Plasmocytes
B. Tissue basophils
C. Fibroblasts
D. T-lymphocytes
E. Eosinophils
33. A patient with an acute myocarditis has the clinic presentations of cardiogenic shock. What
pathogenetic mechanism plays the main part in shock development?
A. Depositing of blood in veins
B. Decrease of diastolic flow to the heart
C. * Disorder of pumping ability of heart
D. Increase of vascular tone
E. Decrease of vascular tone
34. Histologic examination revealed in all layers of appendix a big number of
polymorthonuclear leukocytes; hyperemia, stases. What disease are these symptoms typical
for?
A. Superficial appendicitis
B. * Phlegmonous appendicitis
C. Gangrenous appendicitis
D. Chronic appendicitis
E. Simple appendicitis
35. A 20 year old patient complains of excessive thirst and urinary excretion up to 10 L a day.
The level of glucose in blood is normal, there is no glucose in urine. What hormone deficit
can cause such changes?
A. Insulin
B. Cortisol
C. Oxytocin
D. * Vasopressin
E. Triiodothyronine
36. Dystrophic changes of heart are accompanied by dilatation of cardiac cavities, decrease of
heart beat force, increased volume of blood that remains in cardiac cavity after systole; veins
are overfille. What state is this presentation typical for?
A. Cardiac tamponade
B. Tonogenic dilatation
C. Cardiosclerosis stage
D. Emergency phase of myocardial hypertrophy
E. * Myogenic dilatation
37. The symptoms of regeneration process (callus) on the place of fracture were revealed at the
histologic specimen of tubular bon. What tissue forms this structure?
A. * Fibrous bone tissue
B. Loose connective tissue
C. Reticular tissue
D. Epithelial tissue
E. Lamellar bone tissue
38. During the experimental analysis of chondrohistogenesis a sclerotome was damage. What
cells will it make impossible to differentiate?
A. Smooth myocytes
B. Fibroblasts
C. Epidermocytes
D. * Chondroblasts
E. Myoblasts
39. After a psychoemotional stress a 48 year old patient had a sudden attack of acute heart pain
with irradiation to the left hand. Nitroglycerine suppressed pain in 10 minutes. What
pathogenetic mechanism is principal for the pain development?
A. Increased need of myocardium in oxygen
B. Dilatation of peripheral vessels
C. Embarrassement of coronary vessels
D. * Spasm of coronary vessels
E. Coronary vessel occlusion
40. Skin samples of a patient with bronchial asthma revealed allergen sensitization of poplar
fuzz. What factor of immune system plays the main part in development of this
immunopathological state?
A. Sensitized Т-lymphocytes
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. * IgE
E. 41. A patient has the following diagnosis: renal hypertension. What is the initial pathogenetic
factor of arterial hypertension development in this case?
A. * Renal ischemia
B. Intensified renin synthesis
C. Hypernatremia
D. Intensified angiotensin synthesis
E. Hyperaldosteronism
42. Patient with pigmentary xeroderma are characterized by anamalously high sensivity to
ultraviolet rays that causes skin cancer as a result of enzyme systems incapability to restore
damages of hereditary apparatus of cells. What process abnormality is this pathology
connected with?
A. DNA recombination
B. * DNA reparation
C. Genetic complementation
D. Genetic conversion
E. DNA reduplication
43. A one year old child has enlarged head and belly, retarded cutting of teeth, destruction of
enamel structur. What hypovitaminosis causes these changes?
A. Hypovitaminosis С
B. Hypovitaminosis В2
C. Hypovitaminosis А
D. Hypovitaminosis В1
E. * Hypovitaminosis D
44. What vitamin deficit causes the simultaneous disorder of reproductive function and
dystrophy of skeletal musculature?
A. Vitamin К
B. * Vitamin Е
C. Vitamin В1
D. Vitamin D
E. Vitamin А
45. A man had an acute onset of disease, he complained of chill, temperature rise up to 400С,
headache, cough, dyspnoe. On the fifth day of illness he died. Autopsy revealed: his lungs
were enlarged, they had a look of "coal-miner's lungs". What illness is such postmortem
diagnosis typical for?
A. Respiratory syncytial infection
B. Adenovirus infection
C. * Influenza
D. Croupous pneumonia
E. Multiple bronchiectasis
46. A patient with chronic glomerulonephritis has disorder of incretory function of kidneys.
What blood elements deficit will result from it?
A. Erythrocytes and leukocytes
B. * Erythrocytes
C. Leukocytes and thrombocytes
D. Thrombocytes
E. Leukocytes
47. The lung hypertension and cardiac insufficiency of right ventricle with ascites and edemata
developed at patient with pneumosclerosis. What is the principal pathogenetic mechanism of
edemata development?
A. Decrease of osmotic blood pressure
B. Increase of oncotic pressure of intercellular fluid
C. Increase of vascular permeability
D. Decrease of oncotic blood pressure
E. * Increase of hydrostatic blood pressure in veins
48. A 46 year old patient was admitted to the hematological department. It was found that he
had disorder of granulocytopoesis and thrombocytogenesis processes. In what organ does
this pathological process take pace?
A. Lymphatic ganglion
B. Thymus
C. Spleen
D. Palatine tonsil
E. * Red bone marrow
49. Two days after myocardial infarction a patient had a sudden systolic pressure decrease up to
60 mm, tachycardia up to 140/min, dyspnea; the patient lost consciousness. What
mechanism is principal for the shock pathogenesis?
A. * Decrease of cardiac volume
B. Decrease of circulating blood volume
C. Anaphylactic reaction
D. Paroxysmal tachycardia
E. Intoxication
50. A patient has the sudden decrease of Са2+ content in blood. What hormone secretion will
increase?
A. Thyrocalcitonin
B. * Parathormone
C. Vasopressin
D. Aldosterone
E. Somatotropin
51. The chemical burn of esophagus caused its local constriction as a result of scar formation.
What cells of loose connective tissue take part in scar formation?
A. Young fibroblasts
B. Myofibroblasts
C. * Mature specialized fibroblasts
D. Fibrocytes
E. Fibroclasts
52. What substance makes saliva viscous and mucous, has protective function, protects mucous
membrane of oral cavity from mechanical damage?
A. Glucose
B. Amylase
C. Kallikrein
D. Lysozyme
E. * Mucin
53. During the embryogenesis of oral cavity the development of dental enamel was disturbe.
What source of dental development was damaged?
A. Dental saccule
B. Mesenchyma
C. Dental papilla
D. * Epithelium
E. Mesoderma
54. A patient with kidney disease has high blood pressure, espesially the diastolic.
Hypersecretion of what biologically active substance causes blood pressure rise?
A. Catecholamines
B. Vasopressin
C. * Renin
D. Adrenaline
E. Noradrenaline
55. There is a 9 year old boy in endocrinological department, who has already had a few
fractures of extremeties caused by fragility of bones. Malfunction of what endocrinous
glands (gland) takes place?
A. Epiphysis
B. Thymus
C. Thyroid gland
D. * Parathyroid glands
E. Adrenal glands
56. A 22 year woman has enlarged lymphatic ganglions. Histological analysis of a ganglion
revealed lymphocytes, histiocytes, reticular cells, small and great Hodgkin's cells,
multinuclear Reed-Sternberg cells, solitary foci of caseous necrosis. What disease are these
changes typical for?
A. Cancer metastasis
B. Lymphosarcoma
C. * Lymphogranulematosis
D. Acute leukemia
E. Chronic leukemia
57. After recovering from epidemic parotiditis a patient began to put off weight, he was
permanently thirsty, drank a lot of water, had frequent urination, voracious appetit. Now he
has complaints of skin itch, weakness, furunculosis. His blood contains: glucose - 16
mmole/L, ketone bodies - 100 mcmole/L; glucosuria. What disease has developed?
A. * Insulin-dependent diabetes
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Insulin-independent diabetes
D. Malnutrition diabetes
E. Steroid diabetes
58. Before teeth come out first on their roots appears a solid tissue that looks like membrane
reticulated bone. What tissue is it?
A. Enamel
B. * Cement
C. Loose fibrous connective tissue
D. Dentin
E. Dense fibrous connective tissue
59. A patient with adenoma of glomeral zone of adrenal cortex (Conn's disease) has arterial
hypertension, convulsions, polyuria. What is the main link in pathogenesis of these
disorders?
A. Glucocorticoid hyposecretion
B. Glucocorticoid hypersecretion
C. Catecholamine hypersecretion
D. * Aldosterone hypersecretion
E. Aldosterone hyposecretion
60. 15 minutes after a car accident examination of a 35 year old man revealed massive injury of
lower extremities without serious external loos of blood. The victim is in excited stat. What
component of pathogenesis of traumatic shock is basic and requires urgent correction?
A. * Pain
B. Cardiac function disorder
C. Acute renal insufficience
D. Internal loss of plasma
E. Intoxication
61. A 65 year old patient suddenly die. She suffered from thrombophlebitis of deep veins of
shin. Autopsy revealed: trunk and bifurcation of pulmonary artery contain red loose masses
with dull corrugated surface. What pathological process did the morbid anatomist reveal in
pulmonary artery?
A. Foreign body embolism
B. Thrombosis
C. Fat embolism
D. * Thromboembolism
E. Tissue embolism
62. During the electronical microscopic analysis of salivary gland the cell fragmets were
revealed which are surrounded by a membrane and contain condensed particles of nuclear
substance and solitary organelles; the inflammatory reaction around these cells is absent.
What process is meant?
A. Karyopicnosis
B. * Apoptosis
C. Karyorhexis
D. Coagulation necrosis
E. Karyolysis
63. A patient complains of having urination disorder. He is diagnosed the hypertrophy of
prostate gland. What part of gland is damaged?
A. Right lobe
B. Apex
C. Base
D. Left lobe
E. * Median lobe
64. A man permanently lives high in the mountains. What changes of blood characteristics can
be found in his organism?
A. Decrease of hemoglobin content
B. Decrease of colour index of blood
C. * Increase of erythrocytes number
D. Decrease of reticulocytes number
E. Erythroblasts in blood
65. Microspecimen analysis of child's finger skin revealed that epidermis has signs of
inadequate development. What embryonal leaf was damaged in the process of development?
A. Entoderma
B. Mezenchyma
C. Ectomezenchyma
D. Mesoderma
E. * Ectoderma
66. Autopsy of a woman who died of tumorous dissemination of mucinosous
cystadenocarcinoma and before that had to stay in bed for a long time revealed big necrotic
areas of skin and soft subjacent tissues in sacral region. What form of necrosis is the case?
A. Sequester
B. Infarction
C. * Pressure sore
D. Zenker's necrosis
E. Caseous necrosis
67. A man who took part in disaster-management at a nuclear power plant had hemorrhagic
syndrome at the same time with acute radiation sickness. What is the most important thing
for the pathogenesis of this syndrome?
A. Low activity of anticoagulative blood system
B. * Thrombocytopenia
C. High activity of anticoagulative blood system
D. Destructed structure of vessel walls
E. High activity of fibrinolysis factors
68. A woman after labor lost 20 kg of body weight, her hair and teeth fall out, she has muscle
atrophy (hypophysial cachexia). Synthesis of what hypophysis hormone is disturbed?
A. Gonadotropic
B. Corticotrophic
C. * Somatotropic
D. Prolactin
E. Thyreotropic
69. A patient who suffered form syphilis took a course of antibiotic therapy and fully recovere.
Some time later he was infected again with Treponema pallidum. What form of infection is
it?
A. Superinfection
B. Recurrence
C. Secondary infection
D. * Reinfection
E. Complication
70. During the histologic lung analysis of a man who died from cardiac insufficiency the
inflammation focuses were reveale. Alveoles were full of light-pink fluid, here and there
with pinkish fibers that formed a close-meshed reticulum with a small number of
lymphocytes. What type of exudate is present in lungs?
A. Fibrinous
B. Hemorrhagic
C. Serous
D. * Serofibrinous
E. Purulent
71. A 53 year old patient consulted a doctor about white patch on the mucous membrane of
tongue. This patch sticks out from the mucous membrane, its surface is cracked.
Microscopic analysis reveals thickening of multilayer epithelium, parakeratosis and
acanthosis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Geographic tongue
B. Papilloma
C. Median rhomboid glossitis
D. Epidermoid cancer
E. * Leukoplakia
72. After consumption some tinned meat a patient had diplopia, acute headache, deglutition
disorder, hard breathing, muscle weakness. The diagnosis was botulism. What factor of
pathogenicity are the clinic presentations of this disease connected with?
A. Fibrinolysin
B. Plasmocoagulase
C. * Exotoxin
D. Endotoxin
E. Hemolysin
73. A patient's preliminary diagnosis is toxoplasmosis. What material was used for diagnostics
of this disease?
A. * Blood
B. Sputum
C. Feces
D. Urine
E. Duodenal contents
74. A 30 year old patient who was taken to the hospital with diagnosis acute glomerulonephritis
has proteinuria. What disorder caused this occurrence?
A. * Increased permeability of renal filter
B. Decreased number of functioning nephrons
C. Delayed excretion of nitrogen metabolism products
D. Increase of hydrostatic blood pressure in capillaries
E. Decreased oncotic pressure of blood plasma
75. During morphologic analysis of pulp floor three zones can be distinctly differentiated: the
one of softened dentin, transparent dentin and replacing dentin. What stage of caries are
these changes typical for?
A. Chronic caries
B. Deep caries
C. Stain stage
D. Superficial caries
E. * Median caries
76. The impact of oxitocine on uterus wall helps to stop uterine bleeding after labor. What
membrane of this organ reacts on the effect of this hormone?
A. Perimetrium
B. Endometrium
C. Parametrium
D. * Myometrium
E. Submucous membrane
77. A 4 year old child had Mantoux test. 60 hours after tuberculin introduction a focal skin
hardening and redness 15 mm in diameter appeare. It was regarded as positive test. What
type of hypersensitivity reaction is this test based upon?
A. Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity
B. Immediate hypersensitivity
C. Complement-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity
D. E. * Delayed-type hypersensitivity
78. Microscopic analysis of tissue sampling from affected area of mucous membrane of oral
cavity revealed bacillus in form of accumulations that looked like a pack of cigarettes. ZiehlNeelsen staining gives them red colour. What kind of pathogenic organism was most likely
revealed in tissue sampling?
A. A.bovis
B. M.avium
C. M.tuberculosis
D. A.israilii
E. * M.leprae
79. During the histologic examination of thyroid gland of a man who died of cardiac
insufficiency together with hypothyroidism there was found the diffusive infiltration of
gland by lymphocytes and plasmocytes, parenchyma atrophy and growth of connective
tissue. Formulate a diagnosis:
A. Thyroid gland adenoma
B. Thyrotoxic goiter
C. * Hashimoto's thyroiditis
D. E. Purulent thyroiditis
80. During the tooth development the enamel organ has prismatic cells with hexagonal
intersection; the nucleus is situated in the central part of the cell. What cells are meant?
A. Preodontoblasts
B. Cambial cells
C. * Preenameloblasts
D. Enamel pulp cells
E. Exterior enameloblasts
81. Microscopic analysis of brain base vessels of a patient who died of ischemic stroke revealed
that intima of cerebral vessels is irregular, with moderate quantity of yellow stains and
yellowish-whitish patches that narrow lumen. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Nodular periarteritis
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. * Atherosclerosis
D. Rheumatism
E. Primary hypertension
82. While the examination of patient's oral cavity the dentist found xerostomia, numerous
erosions. What vitamin deficit caused this effect?
A. * Vitamin А
B. Vitamin Р
C. Vitamin К
D. Vitamin Н
E. Vitamin РР
83. A 10 year old child lives in the region where fluorine content in water is above the mark. A
dentist examined the child and found teeth damage in form of chalky and also pigmentary
stains and stripes. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Wedge defects
B. * Fluorosis
C. Median caries
D. Tooth erosion
E. Acidic necrosis of hard tooth tissues
84. Histologic analysis of uterus mucous membrane revealed twisting glands, serrated and
spinned, they were extended by stroma growth with proliferation of its cells. Formulate a
diagnosis:
A. Cystic mole
B. Placental polyp
C. Leiomyoma
D. * Glandular hyperplasia of endometrium
E. Acute endometritis
85. The microscopic analysis of bronch biopsy revealed a tumor that consisted of circumscribed
accumulations of atypical cells of multylayer plane epithelium, here and there with typical
"pearls". What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Solid carcinoma
B. * Epidermoid cancer with keratinization
C. Epidermoid cancer without keratinization
D. Scirrhus
E. Mucous carcinoma
86. Autopsy of a man who died of typhoid fever revealed ulcers along the ileum. These ulcers
have even sides, clean fundus formed by muscle layer or even by serous tunic of an
intestine. What stage of disease does the described presentation correspond with?
A. Stage of medullary swelling
B. * Stage of "clean" ulcers
C. Stage of necrosis
D. Stage of "dirty" ulcers
E. Stage of ulcer healing
87. Tissue sample of soft palate arches that was taken because a tumor was suspected
(microscopic analysis revealed an ulcer with dense fundus) revealed mucous membrane
necrosis, submucous layer was infiltrated by lymphocytes, epithelioid cells, plasmocytes,
solitary neutrophils. There was also evident endovasculitis and perivasculitis. What disease
are these changes typical for?
A. * Primary syphilis
B. Vensan's ulcerative-necrotic stomatitis
C. Aphthous stomatitis
D. Faucial diphteria
E. ulcerative stomatitis
88. Autopsy of a 5 year old child revealed that pia maters of brain are extremely plethoric,
nebulous, have a look of yellowish-green "bonnet". Microscopic analysis: pia mater of brain
is very thickened, plethoric, impregnated with purulent exudate containing fibrin. What
disease is meant?
A. Anthrax
B. Measles
C. * Meningococcosis
D. Influenza
E. Tuberculosis
89. After a long-lasting and grave illness the blood pressure of a patient fell up to 60/40 mm; he
has tachicardia, dyspnea, black-out. How can this state be defined?
A. * Preagony
B. C. Apparent death
D. Shock
E. Agony
90. A woman has ovary hyperemia, increase of hematofollicular barrier permeability with
edema development, infiltration of follicle wall by segmentonuclear leukocytes. The volume
of follicle is big, its wall is thinned. What period of sex cycle does the described picture
correspond with?
A. * Preovulatory stage
B. Ovulation
C. Relative rest period
D. Menstrual period
E. Postmenstrual period
91. A 50 year old woman had her tooth extracte. The tissue regenerated. Which of the following
organelle are the most active during tissue regeneration?
A. Lysosomes
B. * Ribosomes
C. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum
D. Postlysosomes
E. Centrosomes
92. A dead man who suffered from a stomach ulcer for a long time died of massive stomach
hemorrhage (in the stomach and intestine there is more than 2,5 l (0,66 gallon) of blood).
What type of anaemia is represented?
A. acute post-hemorrhagic anaemia
B. chronic post-hemorrhagic anaemia
C. megaloblastic anaemia
D. *acute post-hemorrhagic anaemia.
E. hypochromic anaemia
93. A dead man who suffered from a stomach ulcer for a long time died of massive stomach
hemorrhage (in the stomach and intestine there is more than 2,5 l (0,66 gallon) of blood).
What is the colour of the skin and tissue of the deceased?
A. yellow coloured and swelling
B. * pale coloured, anaemic.
C. . rose coloured and hot
D. . blue coloured and cold
E. . dark coloured with ecchymoses
94. A dead man who suffered from a stomach ulcer for a long time died of massive stomach
hemorrhage (in the stomach and intestine there is more than 2,5 l (0,66 gallon) of blood).
What microscopic changes will there be in his internal organs?
A. swelling, dystrophic changes.
B. hypertrophied, serous exudation
C. amyloid accumulation, hypertrophy
D. * anaemic, dystrophic changes.
E. hyalinosis
95. A dead man who suffered from a stomach ulcer for a long time died of massive stomach=
hemorrhage (in the stomach and intestine there is more than 2,5 l (0,66 gallon) of blood).
What changes are there in the hemopoietic organs?
A. * hyperplastic changes
B. hypotrophy changes
C. atrophy changes
D. dystrophy changes
E. no changes
96. An ill woman aged 22 has icteric sclera and skin, and enlarged spleen. Blood test, reveals
decreased and falciform erythrocytes. What type of anaemia is represented?
A. megaloblastic anaemia
B. anaemia by Adisson-Birmer
C. * hemolytic anaemia
D. hypochromic anaemia
E. posthaemorrhagic anaemia
97. An ill woman aged 22 has icteric sclera and skin, and enlarged spleen. Blood test, reveals
decreased and falciform erythrocytes. What is the name of the disease?
A. В12 vitamin-deficit anaemia
B. Addison-Biermer anaemia
C. B12 achrestic anemia
D. neoplastic anaemia
E. * falciformcell anaemia
98. An ill woman aged 22 has icteric sclera and skin, and enlarged spleen. Blood test, reveals
decreased and falciform erythrocytes. What is the pathogenesis of the disease?
A. * defective erythrocytes can't live along time
B. neoplastic processes lead to erythrocytes destroyed
C. defective erythrocytes are attacked by antibodies
D. defective erythrocytes are is phagocytized by macrophages
E. there are agglutination of erythrocytes
99. An ill woman aged 22 has icteric sclera and skin, and enlarged spleen. Blood test, reveals
decreased and falciform erythrocytes. What macroscopic changes are there in the spleen?
A. hypoplastic & atrophy processes
B. neopplastic processes, necrosis & hemorrhages
C. * hyperplastic processes & hemosiderosis
D. splenomegaly and stasis of erythrocytes
E. blood & B-leucocytes accumulation
100.
An ill woman has metrorrhagia of more than two months and has not sought medical
help. There is increased weakness, paleness, tachycardia, and dyspnoea. What type of
anaemia is represented?
A. hemolytic
B. acute posthemorrhagic
C. * chronic posthemorrhagic
D. hypoplastic
E. deficiency
101.
An ill woman has metrorrhagia of more than two months and has not sought medical
help. There is increased weakness, paleness, tachycardia, and dyspnoea. What changes are
there in the circulating blood?
A. * decrease of erythrocytes, hemoglobin, nucleic (young) erythrocytes are possible
B. decrease of erythrocytes, increase of hemoglobin and bilirubin
C. agglutination of erythrocytes, stasis in the microcirculatory vessels
D. hemolysis, hemoglobinosis
E. bilirubineamia, anisocytosis and poikilocytosis of erythrocytes are possible
102.
A 70-year-old male patient with an expressed hepatosplenomegaly and cachexia
underwent a diagnostic puncture biopsy of his liver. A histological examination revealed
that along the portal tracts there were numerous infiltrates of monomorphous round cells
verified as prolymphocytes and B-lymphocytes. What disease are the above changes
characteristic of?
A. Lymphosarcoma
B. Acute lymphoplastic leukaemia
C. Lymphogranulomatosis
D. *Chronic lymphatic leukaemia
E. Cesari's disease
103.
A death of a 7-year-old boy resulted from acute posthaemorrhagic anaemia caused
by a profuse bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract. A postmortem examination revealed:
macroscopically - an anaemia of the internal organs, an enlargement of lymph nodes in
different groups, thymomegaly, a moderately manifested hepatosplenomegaly, a bright red
bone marrow; microscopically - a hypercellular bone marrow with some monomorphous
infiltrate of blast cells, diffuse-focal tumour infiltrates in the liver, spleen, lymph nodes,
meninges and substance of the brain. Make a diagnosis for this form of leukaemia.
A. *Acute lymphoblastic
B. Acute myeloblastic
C. Acute stem cell
D. Acute monoblastic
E. Acute plasmablastic
104.
A histological examination of an enlarged cervical lymph node revealed the
following microscopic signs: proliferation of the lymphoid cells with various degrees of
maturity, presence of giant Hodgkin's and Reed-Sternberg cells, as well as eosinophils,
plasma cells and neutrophilic leukocytes, among which there were foci of necrosis and
fibrosis. Which of the variants of lymphogranulomatosis listed below was the most
probable?
A. With prevalence of the lymphoid tissue
B. Nodular sclerosis
C. *Mixed-cell variant
D. With suppression of the lymphoid tissue
E. Hodgkin's sarcoma
105.
A histological examination of an enlarged lymph node revealed a proliferation of
lymphocytes, histiocytes, reticular cells, acidophilic leukocytes, small and large Hodgkin's
cells, multinuclear Reed-Sternberg cells. Which of the diseases listed below do the described
morphological data correspond to?
A. Lymphosarcoma
B. Metastasis of carcinoma
C. Chronic leukaemia
D. Acute leukaemia
E. *Lymphogranulomatosis
106.
A male patient, who worked for a long period of time with petrol, develops
progressing anaemia and the haemorrhagic syndrome. A biopsy of his breastbone reveals
prevalence of a fatty tissue, and there are some small islets of haemopoiesis with solitary
cells of myelopoiesis. What is your diagnosis?
A. Chronic myeloleukosis
B. Pernicious anaemia
C. Haemolytic anaemia
D. *Hypoplastic anaemia
E. Aplastic anaemia
107.
A tumour was found in the locus of a pathological fracture of a rib in a male patient.
The case history contained information about persistent proteinuria with presence of
abnormal proteins of Bence-Jones type, as well as presence of osteolytic foci in the bones of
the spine, skull and pelvis. Histologically, the tumour cells were represented by plasmablasts
and plasmacytes. What is your diagnosis?
A. Primary macroglobulinaemia
B. Heavy-chain disease
C. Osteosarcoma
D. *Multiple myeloma
E. Fibrosarcoma
108.
An autopsy of a female, who suffered from some blood disease (in her clinical blood
analysis leukocytosis achieved 100x109), revealed a pyoid bone marrow (microscopically, it
had myelocytes, promyelocytes and blast cells), an enlarged spleen weighing up to 7 kg
(microscopically, it had ischaemic infarcts and an infiltration of the pulp by myelocytes), an
enlarged liver weighing up to 6 kg (microscopically, it had a diffuse leukaemic infiltration
of the sinusoids). Name the diagnosis which was the most probable one of those listed
below.
A. Acute granulocytic leukaemia
B. *Chronic granulocytic leukaemia
C. Acute stem cell leukaemia
D. Acute lymphocytic leukaemia
E. Multiple myeloma
109.
An autopsy of a male, who died from chronic renal insufficiency, revealed numerous
nodes with soft elastic consistency in the ribs, bones of the vault of the skull and the
breastbone. The osseous substance was decalcified according to the nodes. The kidneys
were enlarged, light grey, dense, their section had some greasy lustre. What is your
diagnosis?
A. Primary amyloid nephropathy
B. Parathyroid osteodystrophy
C. *Multiple myeloma
D. Osteoma
E. Osteosarcoma
110.
An autopsy of a male, who suffered from frequent fractures of his bones and died
from uraemia, revealed phenomena of osteoporosis and multiple smooth-walled defects (as
if produced by punching) in the bones of the skull, ribs and spine. A microscopic
examination of the bone marrow revealed its diffuse infiltration by tumour cells of the
lymphoplasmacytic line. Which of the diagnoses listed below was the most probable?
A. *Multiple myeloma
B. Primary macroglobulinaemia
C. Heavy-chain disease
D. Paget's disease
E. Recklinghausen's disease
111.
An autopsy of a person, who died at a haematological department, revealed
numerous haemorrhages in the skin, mucous and serous membranes, enlarged dark-grey
tonsils. The lymph nodes of different localization were up to 1.5 cm in diameter, soft, and
grey-pink on section. The bone marrow of the femur was dark red. Microscopically, the
lymph nodes, liver, spleen and kidneys contained leukaemic infiltrates consisting of
lymphoblasts. It was known that during the life-time the clinical blood analysis showed up
to 3 x 10l2 of erythrocytes, 100x109 of leukocytes, a lot of lymphoblasts with presence of
mature forms and absence of prolymphocytes. Which of the diagnoses listed below was the
most probable?
A. Lymphogranulomatosis
B. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
C. *Acute lymphocytic leukaemia
D. Lymphosarcoma
E. Chronic granulocytic leukaemia
112.
An X-ray examination of a male patient revealed numerous foci of osteoporosis and
osteolysis in his flat bones. A high content of tumour plasma cells was found in a
trepanobiopsy. What is your diagnosis?
A. Acute monocytic leukaemia
B. Chronic myeloleukaemia
C. Osteosarcoma
D. *Multiple myeloma
E. Fibrosarcoma
113.
At autopsy of a man who suffered from frequent fractures and died of uremia, in the
bones of the skull, ribs and spine - the phenomenon of osteoporosis and multiple "punched"
defects. Microscopic examination of bone marrow revealed its diffuse infiltration of tumor
cells limfoplazmotsitarnogo series. Which of the following diagnoses most reliable?
A. *Multiple myeloma
B. Primary makroglobulinemiya
C. Heavy chain disease
D. Paget's disease
E. Recklinghausen's disease
114.
At autopsy of the deceased in the hematological unit revealed multiple hemorrhages
in the skin, mucous and serous membranes, enlarged tonsils dark gray color. The lymph
nodes of various sites to 1,5 cm in diameter, soft, grayish-pink in cross-section. The bone
marrow of the femur dark red. Microscopic examination of lymph nodes, liver, spleen and
kidneys revealed leukemic infiltration of lymphoblasts. Which of the following diagnoses
most reliable?
A. Lymphogranulomatosis
B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
C. *Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Lymphosarcoma
E. Chronic myeloid leukemia
115.
At autopsy the body of the deceased, who suffers from blood (complete blood
leukocytosis reached 100 ×109, found: pioidny bone marrow, increased to 7 kg spleen
(microscopically in it - ischemic heart attacks and infiltration of the pulp myelocytes)
increased to 6 kg of liver (microscopically in it - diffuse leukemic infiltration of sinusoids).
Which of the following diagnoses most reliable?
A. Acute myeloid leukemia
B. *Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute undifferentiated leukemia
D. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
E. Multiple myeloma
116.
At necropsy males 78 years revealed patchy replacement of red bone marrow is
yellow. Lymph nodes, spleen reduced in size with marked atrophy of the parenchyma. Such
changes are characteristic:
A. Hemolytic anemia
B. Fanconi anemia
C. Anemia Ehrlich
D. *Ageing
E. Iron-deficiency anemia
117.
Autopsy of a woman, who died from renal insufficiency, revealed in her spinal
column, cranial bones and ribs some defects of the osseous tissue with tumour nodes on
their margins. The kidneys were enlarged, dense and "greasy" on section. Microscopically,
the tumour nodes and bone marrow were characterized by a proliferation of tumour cells of
the plasmacytic line. Which of the diseases listed below corresponds to the description?
A. Metastasis of pulmonary carcinoma into bones
B.
C.
D.
E.
Osteosarcoma
*Multiple myeloma
Osteoporosis
Osteomyelitis
118.
During the microscopic examination of an enlarged cervical lymph node 14 years old
girl was found: lymphoid follicles are missing, there are areas of sclerosis and focal
necrosis, cellular composition of the polymorphic site, there are lymphocytes, eosinophils,
atypical cells are large (Berezovsky-Sternberg cells) and mononuclear cells, as large. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Burkitt's lymphoma
B. Acute lymphatic leukemia
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. *Lymphogranulomatosis
E. Granulosarcoid
119.
Histological examination of enlarged lymph node revealed proliferation of
lymphocytes, histiocytes, reticulum cells, eosinophils, small and large cells of Hodgkin's and
Reed-Sternberg cells, whom of these diseases are responsible described morphological data?
A. Lymphosarcoma
B. Cancer Metastasis
C. Chronic leukemia
D. Acute leukemia
E. *Lymphogranulomatosis
120.
In a patient with X-ray examination in the flat bones revealed multiple cells of
osteoporosis and osteolyzis. In trepanobioptate found a high content of cancer of plasma
cells. Your diagnosis.
A. Acute monocytic leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. *Multiple myeloma
D. Lymphogranulomatosis
E. Histiocytosis
121.
Patients in both jaws radiologically detected numerous defects in the form of round
holes with smooth walls. Histologically: the phenomenon osteolizisa and osteoporosis in the
background of weak bone formation. In the urine - protein Bence-Jones. Name the disease.
A. Chronic myeloid leukemia.
B. *Myeloma disease.
C. Chronic erythroleukemia.
D. Acute undifferentiated leukemia.
E. Acute myeloid leukemia.
122.
The patient with the dental examination revealed atrophy of the mucous membrane
of the tongue with red spots (Gunter’s glossitis). The sclera is yellowish. Color index greater
than unity. For what anemia is characterized by these changes?
A. Pernicious
B. Hemolytic
C. Chronic posthaemorrhagic
D. Iron.
E. 123.
The patient, who long worked with petrol, progressing anemia and hemorrhagic
syndrome. In the biopsy of sternum predominant adipose tissue, revealed a few small islands
with isolated blood cells myelopoiesis. Your diagnosis.
A. Chronic myeloid leukemia
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. *Hypoplastic
E. Iron deficiency anemia
124.
Thoracotomy in a 55-year-old male patient revealed a packet of lymph nodes in the
anterior mediastinum; a biopsy was taken from one of them. Microscopically, there were
infiltrates consisting of lymphocytes, histiocytes, eosinophils and Reed-Stemberg
multinuclear cells which were surrounded by vegetations of a fibrous connective tissue.
Name the clinical-morphological form of lymphogranulomatosis.
A. Lymphogranulomatosis with suppression of the lymphoid tissue
B. Mixed-cell variant of lymphogranulomatosis
C. * Lymphogranulomatosis, nodular sclerosis
D. Lymphogranulomatosis with prevalence of the lymphoid tissue
E. 125.
When imaging in a patient in the mediastinum were found enlarged lymph nodes.
Histological examination of the lymph nodes detected circular growths of connective tissue
that surrounded granulemopodobnye formation of lymphocytes, plasma cells and large
Berezovsky-Sternberg cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Lymphosarcoma
C. *Lymphogranulomatosis
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Lymphoid
126.
A 40-year-old female patient underwent an operation of thyroidectomy. A
histological examination of the thyroid tissue revealed that its follicles differed in size,
contained some foamy colloid, the follicular epithelium was high and in some places it
formed papillae. The stroma of the gland had clusters of lymphocytes which formed follicles
with light centres. Make a diagnosis of the disease of the thyroid gland.
A. *Toxic goiter
B. Hashimoto's disease
C. Ligneous thyroiditis
D. Acute nonsuppurative thyroiditis
E. Nodular goiter
127.
A histological examination of the thyroid gland revealed a significant infiltration of
its tissue by lymphocytes, formation of lymphoid follicles, an atrophy of parenchymatous
elements and a significant vegetation of the connective tissue. What disease is characterized
by this picture?
A. Colloid goiter
B. Endemic goiter
C. *Hashimoto's disease
D. Diffuse toxic goiter
E. Parenchymatous goiter
128.
An autopsy of a young female, who died from adrenal insufficiency, revealed diffuse
hypermelanosis of the skin, hyperplasia of the cells in islets of Langerhans in the pancreas,
the adrenal glands were sharply reduced in size and their thinned cortical substance had foci
of necrosis, haemorrhages and sclerosis. What is your diagnosis?
A. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
B. Primary aldosteronism
C. Cushing's disease
D. *Addison's disease
E. Pheochromocytoma
129.
In a young male, an abundant quantity of the somatotropic hormone and enlargement
of the nose, lips, ears, lower jaw, hands and feet were revealed. What is your diagnosis?
A. Pituitary dwarfism
B. Cushing's disease
C. Addison's disease
D. Adiposogenital dystrophy
E. *Acromegaly
130.
In a male patient with an increased level of the parathormone, a histological
examination in the area of a pathological fracture of his femur revealed foci of a lacunar
resolution of the osteoid beams and new formation of a fibrous tissue. What is your
diagnosis?
A. Multiple myeloma
B. *Parathyroid osteodystrophy
C. Osteoblastoclastoma
D. Paget's disease
E. Osteopetrosis
131.
A male patient with phenomena of hypothyroidism died from heart failure. On
histological examination, his thyroid gland revealed a diffuse infiltration of the gland by
lymphocytes and plasmacytes, an atrophy of the parenchyma and a vegetation of the
connective tissue. What disease was it?
A. Acute nonsuppurative thyroiditis
B. Ligneous thyroiditis
C. *Hashimoto's disease
D. Nodular goiter
E. Toxic goiter
132.
An autopsy of a 45-year-old female, who was suffering from arterial hypertension,
diabetes mellitus and ovarian dysfunction during past 15 years, revealed obesity by the
upper type, a pituitary basophil adenoma in the anterior lobe of the hypophysis, hyperplasia
of the adrenal cortex. Which of the diagnoses listed below was the most probable?
A. *Cushing's disease
B. Cushing's syndrome
C. Hypertensive disease
D. Addison's disease
E. Adiposogenital dystrophy
133.
A 50-year-old female took medical advice complaining of excretion of a large
amount of urine and excessive thirst. On examination, her nourishment was reduced, the
skin was dry, density of the urine ranged from 1001 to 1010, data of an ultrasound
examination and computed tomography of the brain revealed a tumour in the posterior lobe
of the hypophysis. Indicate the most probable disease.
A. Acromegaly
B. Babinsky-Frelich disease
C. *Diabetes insipidus
D. Simmonds disease
E. Cushing's disease
134.
A 46-year-old male patient, who suffered from bulimia, polydipsia, polyuria with
glucosuria and albuminuria, died of renal insufficiency. On autopsy, the kidneys were
reduced in size, dense and had a fine-grained surface. The pancreas was reduced and
partially substituted for a fatty tissue. Microscopically, islets of Langerhans were fine, in
some places they were substituted for a connective tissue, solitary ones were hypertrophic.
The kidneys reveal intracapillary glomerulosclerosis. Which of the diagnoses was the most
probable?
A. Subacute glomerulonephritis
B. *Diabetes mellitus
C. Chronic indurative pancreatitis
D. Diabetes insipidus
E. Chronic glomerulonephritis
135.
A 36-year-old female patient underwent resection of the both lobes of her thyroid
gland; each of them was 5 x 6 cm in size, pink-yellow, moderately dense and had a tuberous
surface. A microscopic examination revealed follicles of various size, some of them were
dilated like cysts and filled with some colloid; the follicular walls were lined with the
smoothed cuboidal epithelium; the stroma of the gland was redundantly developed owing to
the connective tissue, there were foci of calcinosis. Which of the diseases listed below
corresponded most to the changes found?
A. Parenchymatous goiter
B. *Colloid goiter
C. Toxic goiter
D. Hashimoto's disease
E. Ligneous thyroiditis
136.
An autopsy of a 24-year-old female (from her case history it is known that a year
before the woman had given birth to a child) revealed a sharp decrease of the body weight
down to 38 kg, the skin was dry and thin, the weight of the internal organs was lowered.
Also, there was a sharp decrease in the weight of the adenohypophysis, the latter had
cicatrices; there were foci of dystrophy, necrobiosis and hyalinosis in the diencephalon. The
ovaries, thyroid and adrenal glands had phenomena of hypotrophy, the mucous membrane of
the intestines was atrophied. Which of the diagnoses was the most probable?
A. Nutritional dystrophy
B. Suprarenal cachexia
C. Cachexia associated with chronic amoebiasis
D. Cachexia associated with pellagra
E. *Cerebrohypophysial cachexia
137.
An autopsy of a 45-year-old female patient, who suffered from obesity by the upper
type, steroid diabetes mellitus, arterial hypertension and secondary ovarian dysfunction,
revealed hypertrichosis, hirsutism, striae on the skin of the thighs and abdomen. The anterior
lobe of the hypophysis contained a white-pink encapsulated tumour, 2.5 cm in diameter
(microscopically, it was a pituitary basophil adenoma); the adrenal glands were
characterized by bilateral hyperplasia of the fascicular layer. Which of the diagnoses was the
most probable?
A. Cushing's syndrome
B. Adiposogenital dystrophy
C. *Cushing's disease
D. Simmonds disease
E. Pituitary dwarfism
138.
A 52-year-old male died from renal insufficiency. On microscopic examination of
his organs, the pancreas revealed lipomatosis and sclerosis with an atrophy of islets of
Langerhans, the kidneys had hyalinosis of the mesangium and glomeruli (KimrnelstielWilson syndrome) and a glycogenic infiltration of the epithelium of the tubules, the liver
was characterized by fatty degeneration. Which of the diagnoses listed below was the most
probable?
A. *Diabetic glomerulosclerosis
B. Arterial nephrosclerosis
C. Amyloid shrunk kidneys
D. Chronic glomerulonephritis
E. Goodpasture's syndrome
139.
An autopsy of a male, who died from chronic renal insufficiency, revealed
atherosclerosis of the aorta and large arteries, small and dense kidneys with a finegrained
surface, an enlarged yellow-brown and flaccid liver, the pancreas was reduced in size.
Microscopically, there was atherocalcinosis of the aorta and arteries, an atrophy of the
parenchyma, sclerosis and lipomatosis of the pancreas; the kidneys were characterized by
hyalinosis of the mesangium and glomeruli, a glycogenic infiltration of the epithelium of the
tubules, with large-drop adiposis in the hepatocytes. What pathological process took place in
the kidneys?
A. *Diabetic nephrosclerosis
B. Arterial nephrosclerosis
C. Chronic pancreatitis
D. Chronic glomerulonephritis
E. Steatosis
140.
On autopsy of a male, who died from uraemia, it was found that the pancreas was
reduced in size, his contracted kidneys had a fine-grained surface, the liver was enlarged,
yellow and flaccid. Microscopically, the pancreatic tissue revealed an atrophy of the
parenchyma, including islets of Langerhans, the atrophied parenchyma was substituted for
hyperplastic connective and fatty tissues. The kidneys were characterized by sclerosis and
hyalinosis of the glomeruli, as well as by a glycogenic infiltration of the tubules; there was a
fatty degeneration in the liver and a fibrinous inflammation in the mucous coats of the
trachea, bronchi and stomach. What disease did the died person suffer from?
A. Chronic indurative pancreatitis
B. Chronic glomerulonephritis
C. Hypertensive disease
D. *Diabetes mellitus
E. Steatosis
141.
An autopsy of a male revealed a tumour in the anterior lobe of the hypophysis,
enlarged adrenal glands, a reduction of the gonads in size, a hypertrophy of the left cardiac
ventricle, the pancreas was reduced in size and thickened. Histologically, there was a
pituitary basophil adenoma and a hyperplasia of the cortical layer in the adrenal glands. The
pancreas was characterized by a moderately expressed atrophy of the parenchyma, including
islets of Langerhans. What disease did the patient suffer from?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Adiposogenital dystrophy
C. *Cushing's disease
D. Cushing's syndrome
E. Simmonds disease
142.
For a histological examination, a lobe and a part of the isthmus of the thyroid gland
were received. The tissue of the gland was dense and tuberous, on section it was pale brown
and had grey-whitish foci. Microscopically, against a background of an atrophy of the
follicles of the gland, there was some diffuse lymphoplasmacytic infiltration of the stroma
with formation of lymphoid follicles. What pathological process were these changes typical
for?
A. Toxic goiter
B. *Allergic thyroiditis
C. Thyroid adenoma
D. Colloid goiter
E. Sporadic goiter
143.
A histological examination of a thyroid gland revealed follicles of various size and
shape which were lined with the columnar epithelium; the latter proliferated and formed
papillae of various size. The follicular lumens contained some liquid and vacuolized colloid.
The stroma of the gland was characterized by a lymphoplasmacytic infiltration, in some
places with formation of lymphatic follicles having light centres. Which of the diagnoses
was the most probable?
A. Colloid goiter
B. Nodular goiter
C. Hashimoto's disease
D. Ligneous thyroiditis
E. *Toxic goiter
144.
An autopsy of a 48-year-old male, who died from vascular collapse, revealed an
increased pigmentation of the skin, the adrenal glands were reduced in size, the brownyellow liver was enlarged. On histological examination, foci of necrosis with a tuberculous
granulation tissue were found in the adrenal glands. The liver was characterized by
phenomena of fatty degeneration. Which of the diagnoses was the most probable?
A. *Addison's disease
B. Steatosis
C. Primary aldosteronism
D. Cushing's syndrome
E. Lipofuscinosis
145.
At autopsy in the lungs is determined by chronic bronchitis. The cavity is lined with
a flat focal bronchial epithelium. A manifestation of a pathological process are changes in
the bronchial mucosa?
A. *Metaplasia
B. Dispalasia
C. Hypoplasia
D. Hypertrophy
E. Hyperplasia
146.
At autopsy in the lungs is determined by the expansion of the bronchi. The cavity is
lined with enhanced bronchial columnar epithelium from the pus in the lumen. A
manifestation of a pathological process are changes in the bronchial mucosa.
A. *Bronchiectasis
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Asthma
D. Bronchopneumonia
E. Hot abscess
147.
At autopsy men 40 years, who died from complications of influenza, the signs of
bronchopneumonia. Enter the localization of pathological changes in this disease:
A. *Respiratory division lung
B. Pleura
C. Mediastinum
D. Pericardium
E. Upper respiratory
148.
At autopsy of the body men aged 35, who had abused alcohol, showed signs of lobar
pneumonia. Which organism is more often the cause of this type of pneumonia?
A. Aeruginosa
B. Streptococcus
C. Staphylococcus
D. *Pneumococcus Frenkel
E. Chlamydia
149.
At autopsy the lungs revealed bronchiectasis. The cavity is lined with enhanced
bronchial columnar epithelium from the pus in the lumen. Changes in the bronchial mucosa
- an expression:
A. *Hypertrophy
B. Hyperplasia
C. Regeneration
D. Metaplasia
E. Organization
150.
An autopsy of a 45-year-old male patient, who had had double bronchopneumonia
and died under the phenomena of intoxication, revealed in the lower lobe of the right lung
some thick-walled cavity, 4 cm in diameter, filled with liquid yellowish masses. What
pathological process complicated the course of pneumonia?
A. Tuberculoma
B. Gangrene
C. *Abscess
D. Sequester
E. Empyema
151.
At autopsy the woman's body 35 years, who died from complications of influenza,
the signs of bronchopneumonia. What goes through pathogen in respiratory department of
the lungs in this disease?
A. Contact
B.
C.
D.
E.
*Bronchogenic
Primary
Secondary
Enteral
152.
At autopsy the woman's body 48 years, who died from complications of SARS,
showed signs of bronchopneumonia. Specify the most common way of penetration of the
agent in this disease:
A. Hematogenous or lymphogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. *Bronchogenic
D. Mixed
E. Enterogenny
153.
At bronchoscopy in men 40 years revealed hyperemia and edema of the mucous
membrane with the presence of small hemorrhages and mucus in the lumen. Enter the
diagnosis:
A. Lobar pneumonia
B. *Bronchitis
C. Bronchopneumonia
D. Lobar pneumonia
E. Intermediate pneumonia
154.
At necropsy men 50 years old, who suffered from chronic bronchitis, revealed
tumor-like formations around the right main bronchus. Histological examination - clumps of
cells laminated, flat epithelium with signs of polymorphism and abundance of mitosis. What
process has evolved in the lungs?
A. Bronchiectasis
B. Emphysema
C. Chronic pneumonia
D. *Cancer
E. Pneumosclerosis
155.
At necropsy men who died of chronic pulmonary heart, were found morphological
signs hypertension pulmonary circulation. Which of these symptoms most characteristic?
A. *Expansion of the right ventricle
B. Increased left ventricular
C. Expansion of the left and right ventricular
D. Expansion of the right atrium
E. Expansion of the left atrium
156.
At necropsy men who died of chronic pulmonary heart, were found morphological
signs of "pulmonary heart." Which of these symptoms most characteristic?
A. *Expansion of the right ventricle
B. Increased left ventricular
C. Expansion of the left and right ventricular
D. Expansion of the right atrium
E. Expansion of the left atrium
157.
At the opening of men 50 years old, suffers from chronic bronchitis, revealed tumorlike formations around the right main bronchus. Histological examination - clumps of cells
laminated, flat epithelium with signs of polymorphism and abundance of mitosis. What is
the etiological factor for this disease?
A. *Smoking
B. Supercooling
C. Excessive insolation
D. Fluctuations in atmospheric pressure and temperature
E. Alcoholism
158.
Female 38 years old for several years suffered from atopic bronchial asthma. What
are the morphological changes were observed in the microscopic examination of bronchial
wall in the period between the attacks?
A. *Thickening of the basement membrane of epithelium
B. Thinning of the basement membrane of the epithelium
C. Thinning and sclerosis of the basement membrane of the epithelium
D. Pathological changes are absent
E. The changes only under the basement membrane
159.
Female 38 years old for several years, suffering from atopic bronchial asthma. What
pathogenetic mechanism is most likely?
A. Autoimmune reaction and hypersensitivity reaction with Ig A
B. Hypersensitivity reaction with Ig A
C. Hypersensitivity reaction with Ig M
D. *Hypersensitivity reaction with Ig E
E. Autoimmune process
160.
In patients with final stage chronic renal failure during bronchoscopy revealed
hyperemia and edema of the mucosa with the presence of small hemorrhages and mucus in
the lumen of the bronchi. Name of these changes?
A. Bronchiectasia
B. Precancerous condition
C. Cancer
D. Bronchiolitis
E. *Bronchitis
161.
In the pulmonary section of a patient admitted with a diagnosis of chronic
nonspecific lung disease. Which of the following diseases the patient suffered:
A. Lung cancer
B. Purulent pneumonia
C. *Bronchiectasis
D. Measles pneumonia
E. Respiratory distress syndrome
162.
Male 50 years died of chronic heart failure, which developed as a result of
bronchiectasis. During the autopsy of the lungs revealed multiple saccular bronchiectasis.
Specify the mechanism of their formation:
A. When coughing and decreases sharply when intrabronchial pressure in areas of least
resistance to change bronchial wall expands
B. Coughing when intrabronchial pressure rises sharply in most parts of the bronchial
wall of resistance to change extends
C. When coughing and decreases sharply when intrabronchial pressure in areas of
greatest resistance to change bronchial wall expands
D. Coughing when intrabronchial pressure rises sharply in areas of least resistance
decreases bronchomotor
E. *Coughing when intrabronchial pressure rises sharply in areas of least resistance to
change bronchial wall expands
163.
Male 65 years died from chronic heart failure. “Pulmonary heart” developed as a
result of occupational disease - silicosis. What could cause the development of this disease:
A. *Prolonged inhalation of dust containing free silica SiO2.
B. Prolonged inhalation of coal dust
C. Prolonged inhalation of ambient dust
D. Prolonged inhalation of decomposition products of cellulose from cotton
E. Prolonged inhalation room and coal dust
164.
Male 65 years died of congestive heart failure, which developed as a result chronic
nonspecific lung diseases. During the autopsy revealed signs of chronic bronchitis. Give
frequent cause of this disease:
A. Hypothermia
B.
C.
D.
E.
*Smoking
Fluctuations in atmospheric pressure
Temperature drops
Excessive insolation
165.
Male 65 years died of congestive heart failure, which developed as a result of
bronchiectasis. During the autopsy the lungs showed signs of chronic diffuse obstructive
pulmonary emphysema. Give frequent cause of this disease:
A. Gangrene of the lung
B. Mediastenitis
C. Hamman-Rich syndrome
D. Acute bronchitis
E. *Chronic diffuse bronchitis
166.
Male 70 years died from chronic heart failure, “lung heart”, which developed as a
result of occupational disease - anthracosis. What could cause the development of this
disease:
A. Prolonged inhalation of dust containing free silica SiO2.
B. Prolonged inhalation of ambient dust
C. Prolonged inhalation of decomposition products of cellulose from cotton
D. Long-term smoking
E. *Prolonged inhalation of coal dust
167.
Patient age 67 died from chronic heart failure due to chronic nonspecific lung
diseases. At autopsy of the body revealed signs of chronic bronchitis. Which of the chemical
factors could contribute to its development:
A. *A pair of chlorine, nitric oxide
B. Carbon dust
C. Room dust
D. Ultraviolet irradiation
E. Fluctuations in atmospheric pressure
168.
Patient age 67 died from chronic heart failure due to chronic nonspecific lung
diseases. At autopsy of the body revealed signs of focal ill pneumosclerosis. After a
pathological process it developed?
A. Acute bronchitis
B. Fibrinous pleurisy
C. Emphysema
D. Lobar pneumonia
E. *Abscesses
169.
Patient age 67 died from chronic heart failure due to chronic nonspecific lung
diseases. At autopsy of the body revealed signs of diffuse reticular pneumosclerosis. After a
pathological process it developed?
A. *Unfinished bronchopneumonia
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Fibrinous pleurisy
D. Emphysema
E. Abscess
170.
Patients suffering from chronic bronchitis, X-ray revealed darkening around the right
main bronchus. Histological examination revealed the accumulation of cells multilayered,
squamous epithelium with the phenomena of polymorphism and a large number of mitoses.
What process has evolved in the lungs?
A. Bronchiectasis
B. Emphysema
C. Chronic pneumonia
D. *Cancer
E. Pneumosclerosis
171.
The patient admitted to hospital with high fever, cough, with lots of smelly sputum.
X-rays revealed a cavity with fluid level. Performed lobectomy. Macroscopically revealed
pus filled cavity, which communicates with the bronchus. Enter the diagnosis:
A. *Abscess
B. Lung
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Acute bronchitis
E. Empyema
172.
The patient 60 old years, died of chronic heart failure due to chronic nonspecific lung
diseases. At autopsy the body showed signs of chronic pulmonary emphysema. As can be
seen after opening the chest?
A. *Lungs unabated
B. Lung collapses
C. Slightly reduced in volume
D. Lungs partially reduced in volume
E. Collapses only one lung
173.
The patient was admitted to hospital with high fever, cough, an abundance of foulsmelling sputum. X-rays revealed a cavity with fluid level. Performed lobectomy.
Macroscopically revealed pus filled cavity, which communicates with the bronchus. What
kind of disease a patient?
A. Bronchiectasis
B. Emphysema
C. Chronic pneumonia
D. *Lung abscess
E. Pneumosclerosis
174.
The patient X-ray revealed darkening around the right main bronchus. Histological
examination of biopsy revealed accumulation of cells laminated, squamous epithelium with
the phenomena of polymorphism and a large number of mitoses. As a result, diagnosed with
lung cancer. What was the cause of this pathology?
A. Acute bronchitis
B. Emphysema
C. Atypical form of pneumonia
D. *Chronic bronchitis
E. Lobar pneumonia
175.
X-rays revealed a cavity with fluid level. Performed lobectomy. Macroscopically
vychvlyaetsya pus filled cavity, which communicates with the bronchus. What a
complication often develops in this case?
A. *Amyloidosis
B. Cancer
C. chronic bronchitis
D. Acute bronchitis
E. Empyema
176.
A 39-year-old female with a clinical picture of acute abdomen underwent surgical
removal of an enlarged uterine tube. On examination, the serous coat of the uterine tube was
dark purple, the lumen contained some blood clots. A histological examination of the wall of
the tube revealed that the mucous membrane had layers of the decidual cells, and there were
villi of the chorion among the blood clots. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Tubal pregnancy
B. Placental polyp
C. Choriocarcinoma
D. Haematosalpinx
E. Salpingitis
177.
A histological examination of a scrape from the uterine cavity of a 45-year-old
woman with clinical manifestations of a disordered ovariomenstrual cycle revealed that the
number of the endometrial glands was increased, the lumens in some of them were
significantly dilated and rounded, the epithelium of the glands had morphological signs of
the phase of proliferation. What is your diagnosis?
A. Glandular hyperplasia of endometrium
B. Atypical hyperplasia of endometrium
C. Glandular polyp of endometrium
D. *Glandulocystic hyperplasia of endometrium
E. Endometrial adenocarcinoma
178.
On gynaecological examination, a red area, 0.7 cm in diameter, was found in the
vaginal portion of the uterine cervix. A histological examination of a biopsy from the uterine
cervix revealed that the squamous epithelium was substituted for the columnar one, as well
as accumulation and new formation of glands under the integmentary epithelium were
observed. What is your diagnosis?
A. Adenosis
B. Simple endocervicosis
C. *Proliferative endocervicosis
D. Papillary endocervicosis
E. Healing endocervicosis
179.
Microscopically, a scrape from the uterine cavity, taken in a 36-year-old female
against a background of uterine bleeding, revealed a neoplasm which consisted of a large
number of light epithelial cells of Langhans and multinuclear symplasts, the number of
figures of mitosis was increased. The stroma was absent, the vascular cavities were lined
with the above cells. Make a diagnosis of the uterine tumour.
A. *Choriocarcinoma
B. Endometrial polyp
C. Endometrial adenocarcinoma
D. Simple hydatidiform mole
E. Invasive hydatidiform mole
180.
A histological examination of the vaginal portion of the uterine cervix revealed
substitution of the stratified squamous epithelium for the simple columnar one with
numerous underlying glands without any signs of their new formation. Which of the
diagnoses listed below was the most probable?
A. Papillary endocervicosis
B. *Simple endocervicosis
C. Progressing endocervicosis
D. Healing endocervicosis
E. Adenosis
181.
A scrape from the uterine cavity revealed in the blood some particles of a neoplasm
which had an organoid structure and consisted of the columnar epithelial cells which formed
glandular structures; the stroma of the neoplasm was significantly developed, the area of its
"pedicle" had glomi of thick-walled vessels. Which of the tumours was the most probable?
A. Uterine adenocarcinoma
B. Glandular hyperplasia of endometrium
C. Uterine fibroadenoma
D. Endometriosis
E. *Endometrial polyp
182.
A 34-year-old female took medical advice of a gynaecologist complaining of a
uterine haemorrhage for 10 days after her menses. A scrape from the uterine cavity revealed
a large number of the endometrial glands which were spirally convoluted, dichotomically
divided and ramified in a tree-like manner. The stroma of the endometrium was hyperplastic
and had a great number of predecidual cells. Which of the diagnoses was the most probable?
A. Atypical hyperplasia of endometrium
B. Mixed hyperplasia of endometrium
C. *Glandular hyperplasia of endometrium
D. Glandulocystic hyperplasia of endometrium
E. Remnants of abortion
183.
A mammary gland of a 25-year-old female revealed a slightly tender node, 3 cm in
diameter; a sectorial resection of the mammary gland was made. Macroscopically, the node
was whitish and had round hollows 0.1-0.3 cm in diameter. Microscopically, there was a
vegetation of the connective tissue with foci of hyalinosis, an atrophy of the glandular
lobules and dilation of the lumens in some places. What disease are the above
morphological changes typical for?
A. Fibrous mastopathy
B. *Fibrocystic mastopathy
C. Sclerosing adenosis
D. Fibroadenoma of mammary gland
E. Carcinoma
184.
Within the first stage of labour, the blood pressure in a female elevated (220/110 mm
Hg), she developed convulsions and a loss of consciousness. Her death resulted from a sharp
impairment of cerebral circulation. An autopsy revealed jaundice, an intracerebral
haemorrhage, a pulmonary oedema with microfocal haemorrhages into the pulmonary
parenchyma, an enlarged yellow liver with numerous haemorrhages, enlarged flaccid
kidneys with a swollen cortical layer, where on microscopic examination symmetrical
necroses were found. Which of the diagnoses listed below was the most probable?
A. Haemorrhagic insult
B. Viral hepatitis
C. *Eclampsia
D. Necrotic nephrosis
E. Haemorrhagic pneumonia
185.
On gynaecological examination of a 36-year-old female, a red focus, which was 0.8
x 0.5 cm in size and had uneven contours, was found in the mucous coat of the vaginal
portion of the uterine cervix on its border with the mouth of the womb. A microscopically
examination revealed substitution of the stratified squamous epithelium for the columnar
one, as well as accumulation and new formation of glands from the cambial elements of the
columnar epithelium in the cervical channel were observed under the integmentary
epithelium. Which of the diagnoses listed below was the most probable?
A. Simple endocervicosis
B. Adenomatosis of uterine cervix
C. Healingendocervicosis
D. *Proliferative endocervicosis
E. Dysplasia of epithelium of uterine cervix
186.
Several days following a myocardial infarction, a 51-year-old man develops the
sudden onset of a new pansystolic murmur along with a diastolic flow murmur. Workup
reveals increased left atrial pressure that develops late in systole and extends into diastole.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the abnormalities present in this
individual?
A. Aneurysmal dilation of the left ventricle
B. Obstruction of the aortic valve
C. Rupture of the left ventricle wall
D. *Rupture of a papillary muscle
E. Thrombosis of the left atrial cavity
187.
Three weeks following a myocardial infarction, a 54-year-old man presents with
fever, productive cough, and chest pain. The pain is worse with inspiration, better when he
is sitting up, and not relieved by nitroglycerin. Physical examination finds a friction rub
along with increased jugular venous pressure and pulsus paradoxus (excess blood pressure
drop with inspiration). Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these
findings?
A. Caplan’s syndrome
*Dressler’s syndrome
Ruptured papillary muscle
Ruptured ventricular wall
Ventricular aneurysm
188.
A 59-year-old woman presents with increasing shortness of breath. Physical
examination reveals signs of left heart failure. She is admitted to the hospital to workup her
symptoms, but she dies suddenly. A section from her heart at the time of autopsy reveals
marked thickening of the wall of the left ventricle, but the thickness of the right ventricle is
within normal limits. Many of the nuclei of the myocytes in the wall of the left ventricle
have a “box car” appearance. The endocardium does not appear to be increased in thickness
or fibrotic, and the cardiac valves do not appear abnormal. The left ventricular cavity is
noted to be decreased in size. What is the most likely cause of this cardiac pathology?
A. Carcinoid heart disease
B. Cor pulmonale
C. Eccentric hypertrophy
D. *Systemic hypertensive
E. Volume overload
189.
A 71-year-old woman presents with increasing chest pain and occasional syncopal
episodes, especially with physical exertion. She has trouble breathing at night and when she
lies down. Physical examination reveals a crescendo-decrescendo midsystolic ejection
murmur with a paradoxically split second heart sound (S2). Pressure studies reveal that the
left ventricular pressure during systole is markedly greater than the aortic pressure. Which of
the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Aortic regurgitation
B. *Aortic stenosis
C. Constrictive pericarditis
D. Mitral regurgitation
E. Mitral stenosis
190.
A 63-year-old man presents with signs of congestive heart failure, including
shortness of breath, cough, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Physical examination reveals
a hyperdynamic, bounding, “water-hammer”pulse and a decrescendo diastolic murmur. His
hyperdynamic pulse causes “bobbing” of his head. Which of the following is the most
frequent cause of the cardiac valvular abnormality present in this individual?
A. Aortic dissection
B. Infective endocarditis
C. Latent syphilis
D. Marfan syndrome
E. *Rheumatic fever
191.
Physical examination of an asymptomatic 29-year-old woman with a history of
rheumatic fever during childhood finds an early diastolic opening snap with a rumbling late
diastolic murmur. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Mitral regurgitation
D. *Mitral stenosis
E. Pulmonic stenosis
192.
A 7-year-old boy presents with the acute onset of fever, pain in several joints, and a
skin rash. Physical examination finds an enlarged heart, several subcutaneous nodules, and a
skin rash on his back with a raised, erythematous margin. Laboratory tests find an elevated
erythrocyte sedimentation rate and an elevated antistreptolysin O titers. Within the past
month, this boy most likely had which one of the following abnormalities?
A. Anitschkow cells develop in the lungs
B. Aschoff bodies develop in the skin
C. *Beta-hemolytic streptococci infection of the pharynx
B.
C.
D.
E.
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection of the aorta
E. Stenosis of the mitral valve
193.
An autopsy done on a 23-year-old man who died suddenly with no previous medical
history reveals the right ventricle to be dilated with near total transmural replacement of the
right ventricle (RV) free-wall myocardium by fat and fibrosis. No skin or hair abnormalities
are seen. What is the best diagnosis?
A. *Arrhythmogenic RV cardiomyopathy
B. Endocardial fibrosis
C. Hyper-serotonin RV syndrome
D. Loeffler endomyocarditis
E. Naxos syndrome
194.
A 31-year-old woman presents with fever, intermittent severe pain in the left upper
quadrant of her abdomen, and painful lesions involving her fingers and nail beds. History
reveals that she had acute rheumatic fever as a child and that when she was around 20 years
of age she developed a new cardiac murmur. At the present time one of three blood cultures
submitted to the hospital lab grew a specific bacteria. Which of the following is the most
likely cause of her disease?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. * α-hemolytic viridans streptococci
C. Candida species
D. Group A streptococci
E. Pseudomonas species
195.
A 23-year-old woman develops the sudden onset of congestive heart failure. Her
condition rapidly deteriorates and she dies in heart failure. At autopsy, patchy interstitial
infiltrates composed mainly of lymphocytes are found, some of which surround individual
myocytes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s heart failure?
A. Autoimmune reaction (to group A β-hemolytic streptococci)
B. Bacterial myocarditis (due to S. aureus infection)
C. Hypersensitivity myocarditis (due to an allergic reaction)
D. Nutritional deficiency (due to thiamine deficiency)
E. *Viral myocarditis (due to coxsackievirus infection)
196.
At the time of autopsy of a 39-year-old woman who died of complications of
systemic lupus erythematosus, several medium-sized vegetations are found on both sides of
the mitral valve and tricuspid valve. Which of the following is the basic abnormality that
produced these cardiac vegetations?
A. Turbulent blood flow through an incompetent mitral valve
B. Excess secretion of a vasoactive amine
C. *Presence of an anticardiolipin antibody
D. Cachexia produced by a hypercoagulable state
E. Bacterial colonization of an abnormal valve
197.
A 37-year-old woman presents with prolonged cramps, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea,
and episodic flushing of the skin. Additionally, she develops pearly white, plaque-like
deposits on the tricuspid valve leaflets. Which of the following disorders is most likely to be
present in this individual?
A. Rheumatic heart disease
B. Amyloidosis
C. Iron overload
D. Hypothyroidism
E. *Carcinoid heart disease
198.
A 59-year-old patient receiving chemotherapy with the anthracycline Adriamycin
develops severe heart failure. Sections from an endocardial biopsy specimen reveal
vacuolization of the endoplasmic reticulum of the myocytes. Adriamycin therapy most
frequently causes what type of cardiomyopathy?
A. *Dilated cardiomyopathy
B.
C.
D.
E.
Hyperplastic cardiomyopathy
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Obliterative cardiomyopathy
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
199.
A 3-month-old girl is being evaluated for feeding difficulty and failure to thrive.
Physical examination finds pallor, peripheral cyanosis, tachypnea, and fine expiratory
wheezing. Chest x-ray shows cardiac enlargement. She is admitted to the hospital, quickly
develops severe cardiac failure, and dies 3 days after admission. At the time of autopsy the
endocardium is found to have a “cream cheese” gross appearance. Histologic sections from
this area reveal thickening of the endocardium due to a proliferation of fibrous and elastic
tissue. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C. Infective endocarditis
D. Libman-Sachs endocarditis
E. * Restrictive cardiomyopathy
200.
A 49-year-old man 7 days after being admitted to the hospital for an inferior wall,
transmural myocardial infarction suddenly becomes short of breath. Physical examination
reveals hypotension, elevated jugular venous pressure, and muffled heart sounds. His
systemic blood pressure drops 13 mmHg with inspiration. Which one of the following
pathologic processes produced these clinical findings?
A. Acute inflammation of the pericardium due to an autoimmune reaction
B. Acute mitral regurgitation due to rupture of a papillary muscle
C. Acute suppurative inflammation of the pericardium due to bacterial infection
D. *Blood accumulation in the pericardial cavity due to rupture of the ventricular wall
E. Serous fluid accumulation in the pericardial cavity due to congestive heart failure
201.
A 35-year-old man179. A 35-year-old man presents with weight loss, fever, and
fatigue. Physical examination finds signs and symptoms of mitral valve disease. Further
workup finds a pedunculated mass in the left atrium. The tumor is resected and histologic
sections reveal stellate cells in a loose myxoid background. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Chordoma
B. Fibroelastoma
C. Leiomyoma
D. *Myxoma
E. Rhabdomyoma
202.
A 2-year-old girl is being evaluated for growth and developmental delay. She has
had several past episodes when she would suddenly have trouble breathing, become blue,
and then assume a squatting position to catch her breath. Workup finds a defect in the wall
of the ventricular septum, increased thickness of the right ventricle, and dextroposition of
the aorta. Which of the following cardiovascular abnormalities is most likely to be present in
this child?
A. Coarctation of the aorta
B. Incompetence of the mitral valve
C. Patency of the foramen ovale
D. Persistence of the AV canal
E. *Stenosis of the pulmonic valve
203.
A 2-month-old girl is being examined for a routine checkup. She was born at term,
and there were no problems or complications during the pregnancy. The baby appeared
normal at birth and has been asymptomatic. Physical examination at this time finds a soft
systolic murmur with a systolic thrill. No cyanosis is present, and her peripheral pulses are
thought to be within normal limits. An ECG reveals slight left ventricular hypertrophy.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Coarctation of the aorta
B.
C.
D.
E.
Patent ductus arteriosus
Persistent truncus arteriosus
Tetralogy of Fallot
*Ventricular septal defect
204.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the flow of blood in an
individual with an atrial septal defect who develops Eisenmenger’s syndrome?
A. Aorta to pulmonary artery to lungs to left atrium to left ventricle to aorta
B. Left atrium to right atrium to right ventricle to lungs to left atrium
C. Left ventricle to right ventricle to lungs to left atrium to right ventricle
D. *Right atrium to left atrium to left ventricle to aorta to right atrium
E. Right ventricle to left ventricle to aorta to right atrium to right ventricle
205.
Prior to surgery, which of the following is the best medical therapy for a newborn
infant with transposition of the pulmonary artery and aorta?
A. *Give prostaglandin E2 to keep the ductus arteriosus open
B. Give prostaglandin F2 to close the ductus arteriosus
C. Give oxygen to keep the ductus arteriosus open
D. Give indomethacin to keep the ductus arteriosus open
E. Give indomethacin to close the ductus arteriosus
206.
A 55-year-old man presents with prolonged epigastric pain and severe vomiting.
Laboratory evaluation finds that his blood pH is increased to 7.46, while his serum
bicarbonate is increased to 30 mM. Blood gases also reveal the arterial carbon dioxide to be
increased. Physical examination finds the man to be afebrile with dry mucous membranes
and decreased skin turgor. His heart rate is increased, but his respiratory rate is decreased in
frequency. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. *Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
B. Mixed metabolic acidosis and metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis with renal compensation
D. Respiratory alkalosis with no compensation
E. Respiratory alkalosis with renal compensation
207.
An anxious 19-year-old woman presents with perioral numbness and carpopedal
spasm. Laboratory examination reveals decreased PCO2 and decreased bicarbonate. Which
of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Metabolic acidosis due to ketoacidosis
B. Metabolic acidosis due to renal tubular acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis due to thiazide diuretic
D. Respiratory acidosis due to hypoventilation
E. *Respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation
208.
A 35-year-old woman during her first pregnancy develops oligohydramnios. At 34
weeks of gestation she delivers a stillborn infant with abnormal facial features consisting of
wide-set eyes, low-set floppy ears, and a broad-flat nose. Which of the following
abnormalities is most likely to be present in this still-born infant?
A. Absence of the thymus
B. *Bilateral renal agenesis
C. Congenital biliary atresia
D. Cystic renal dysplasia
E. Urinary bladder exstrophy
209.
An 8-month-old male infant presents with progressive renal and hepatic failure.
Despite intensive medical therapy, the infant dies. At the time of autopsy, the external
surfaces of his kidneys are found to be smooth, but cut section reveals numerous cysts that
are lined up in a row. Which of the following is the mode of inheritance of this renal
abnormality?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. *Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive
E. Mitochondrial
210.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the clinical combination of
generalized edema, hypoalbuminemia, and hypercholesterolemia in an adult whose
urinalysis demonstrated marked proteinuria, with fatty casts and oval fat bodies?
A. Nephritic syndrome
B. *Nephrotic syndrome
C. Acute renal failure
D. Renal tubular defect
E. Urinary tract infection
211.
A 35-year-old woman recovering from hepatitis B develops hematuria, proteinuria,
and red cell casts in the urine. Which one of the following statements best describes the
expected renal changes in this patient?
A. Plasma cell interstitial nephritis
B. IgG linear fluorescence along the glomerular basement membrane
C. *Granular deposits of antibodies in the glomerular basement membrane
D. Diffuse thickening of the glomerular basement membrane by subepithelial immune
deposits
E. Nodular hyaline glomerulosclerosis
212.
A 2-year-old boy is being evaluated for the development of progressive peripheral
edema. Physical examination finds that he is afebrile, and his blood pressure is within
normal limits. Laboratory examination finds decreased serum albumin, increased serum
cholesterol, and normal BUN and creatinine levels. Examination of his urine finds massive
proteinuria and lipiduria, but no red blood cells are seen. The loss of albumin in the urine is
much greater than the loss of globulins. A histologic section from a renal biopsy examined
with a routine H
flattening and fusion of the foot processes of the podocytes. The basement membrane is not
fragmented and electron dense deposits are not found. What is the best diagnosis?
A. Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (DPGN)
B. Heymann glomerulonephritis (HGN)
C. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)
D. Membranous glomerulopathy (MGN)
E. *Minimal change disease (MCD)
213.
A 28-year-old man presents with moderate proteinuria and hypertension. Histologic
sections of a kidney biopsy reveal the combination of normalappearing glomeruli and
occasional glomeruli that have deposits of hyaline material. No increased cellularity or
necrosis is noted in the abnormal glomeruli. Additionally, there is cystic dilation of the renal
tubules, some of which are filled with proteinaceous material. Electron microscopy reveals
focal fusion of podocytes, and immunofluorescence examination finds granular IgM/C3
deposits. Further workup finds a mutation involving the NPHS2 gene, the product of which
is found within the slit diaphragm of the glomerulus. What is the normal protein product of
this gene?
A. Cubilin
B. Megalin
C. Nephrin
D. *Podocin
E. Polycystin
214.
A 6-year-old boy presents with bilateral swelling around his eyes. His parents state
that the child’s eyes have become “puffy” over the past several weeks, and his urine has
become smoky-colored. Physical examination reveals mild bilateral periorbital edema, but
peripheral edema is not found. The boy is afebrile and his blood pressure is slightly
elevated. A urinary dipstick reveals mild proteinuria, while microscopic examination of the
boy’s urine reveals hematuria with red blood cell casts. Laboratory tests reveal increased
ASO titers and decreased serum C3 levels, but C2 and C4 levels are normal. A microscopic
section from the kidney reveals increased numbers of cells within the glomeruli. An electron
microscopic section of the kidney reveals large electron-dense deposits in the glomeruli that
are located between the basement membrane and the podocytes. The foot processes of the
podocytes are otherwise unremarkable. Which one of the listed infections did this child most
like recently have that precipitated this renal disease?
A. An E. coli infection of the small or large intestines
B. A fungal infection of the urethra or urinary bladder
C. A staphylococcal infection of the skin or mouth
D. *A streptococcal infection of the pharynx or skin
E. A viral infection of the upper or lower respiratory tract
215.
A 47-year-old man presents with increasing peripheral edema and dark, tea-colored
urine. Laboratory examination finds decreased serum albumin, while examination of a 24-h
urine specimen reveals marked proteinuria. Microscopic examination of this patient’s urine
reveals numerous red cells along with rare red cell casts. Electron microscopic examination
of a renal biopsy from this patient reveals dense, ribbon-like deposits in the lamina densa of
the glomerular basement membrane. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. IgA nephropathy
C. Lipoid nephrosis
D. *Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
E. Membranous glomerulopathy
216.
A 21-year-old woman presents because her urine has turned a brown color. She
states that about 2 months ago her urine turned brown 2 days after a cold and stayed brown
cell casts. Further laboratory tests include a complete blood count (CBC), serum
electrolytes, BUN, creatinine, glucose, antinuclear antibodies (ANAs), and serum
complement levels (C3 and C4). All of these tests are within normal limits.
Immunofluorescence examination of a renal biopsy from this patient reveals the presence of
large, irregular deposits of IgA/C3 in the mesangium. A linear staining pattern is not found.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. *Berger’s disease
B. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
C. Goodpasture’s syndrome
D. Lipoid nephrosis
E. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
217.
A 43-year-old man with a history of microscopic polyarteritis acutely develops renal
failure with oliguria and hematuria. Laboratory examination reveals the presence of serum
p-ANCA (antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies). A renal biopsy is diagnostic of type III
rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Which of the following histologic changes is most
likely to have been present in this biopsy specimen?
A. Eosinophilic masses were seen attached to the capsule of Bowman’s space
B. Fibrinoid necrosis was present in many of the afferent arterioles
C. Large numbers of neutrophils were seen in the interstitium and tubules
D. *Numerous crescents were present in the glomeruli
E. The basement membrane was seen to be split by mesangial cells
218.
A 28-year-old man with a history of malaise and hemoptysis presents with the acute
onset of renal failure. Laboratory examination reveals increased serum creatinine and BUN,
but no antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) nor antinuclear (ANA) antibodies are
present. Urinalysis reveals the microscopic presence of red blood cells and red blood cell
casts, while a renal biopsy reveals crescents within Bowman’s space of many glomeruli.
Immunofluorescence reveals linear deposits of IgG and C3 along the glomerular basement
membrane. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Alport’s syndrome
B. Diabetic glomerulopathy
C. *Goodpasture’s syndrome
D. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
E. Wegener’s granulomatosis
219.
A 26-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and malaise. She states that
recently she develops a red facial rash whenever she goes outside on a sunny day. Physical
examination finds that she is afebrile, but her blood pressure is slightly increased and slight
peripheral edema is found. Laboratory evaluation finds slightly elevated BUN and
creatinine, while dipstick examination of her urine reveals slight proteinuria with
microscopic hematuria. Very rare granular and red cell casts are seen. Laboratory
examination is also positive for serum antinuclear antibodies, one of which is anti–doublestranded DNA. A renal biopsy reveals changes of diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis,
and the diagnosis of class IV lupus nephritis is made. Which of the following histologic
changes is most characteristic of class IV lupus nephritis?
A. Mesangial deposits form a “holly leaf” pattern
B. Positive immunofluorescence staining forms a “string of popcorn” pattern
C. Splitting of the basement membrane forms a “tram-track” pattern
D. Thickening of the basement membrane forms a “spike and dome” appearance
E. *Thickening of the glomerular capillaries forms a “wire-loop” appearance
220.
An asymptomatic 24-year-old woman is found to have microscopic hematuria with a
routine urinalysis. Her blood pressure and kidney function are within normal limits, but it is
discovered that several members of her family also have asymptomatic microscopic
hematuria. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely to be present in this woman?
A. A hereditary defect in the renal transport of neutral amino acids
B. A lack of the globular domain of type IV collagen
C. A mutation involving the cytoplasmic btk gene
D. * Diffuse thinning of the glomerular basement membrane
E. The presence of C3 nephritic factor in the serum
221.
Histologic sections of a kidney reveal patchy necrosis of epithelial cells of both the
proximal and distal tubules with flattening of the epithelial cells, rupture of the basement
membrane (tubulorrhexis), and marked interstitial edema. Acute inflammatory cells are not
seen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute pyelonephritis
B. *Acute tubular necrosis
C. Chronic glomerulonephritis
D. Chronic pyelonephritis
E. Diffuse cortical necrosis
222.
During a routine physical examination, a 42-year-old woman is found to have an
elevated blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg. Workup reveals a small left kidney and a
normal-sized right kidney. Laboratory examination reveals elevated serum renin levels.
Further workup reveals that renal vein renin levels are increased on the left but decreased on
the right. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s hypertension?
A. Atherosclerotic narrowing of the left renal artery
B. Atherosclerotic narrowing of the right renal artery
C. *Fibromuscular hyperplasia of the left renal artery
D. Fibromuscular hyperplasia of the right renal artery
E. Hyaline arteriolosclerosis
223.
A 53-year-old man presents with severe headaches, nausea, and vomiting. He also
relates seeing spots before his eyes and is found to have a diastolic blood pressure of 160
mmHg. Microscopic examination of a renal biopsy demonstrates hyperplastic arteriolitis.
Gross examination of his kidneys is most likely to reveal which one of the following
changes?
A. A finely granular appearance to the surface
B. * Multiple small petechial hemorrhages on the surface
C. Diffuse, irregular cortical scars overlying dilated calyces
D. Cortical scars overlying dilated calyces in renal poles
E. Depressed cortical areas overlying necrotic papillae of varying stages
224.
A 35-year-old woman presents with the sudden onset of severe, colicky pain on the
right side of her abdomen. She does not relate the pain to food, but says that she cannot find
a pain-free position. Physical examination finds marked tenderness over the right
costovertebral angle, but rebound tenderness is not present. A pelvic examination is
unremarkable. Microscopic examination of her urine reveals the presence of numerous red
blood cells. The urine is negative for esterase and nitrite, and no bacteria are seen. Which of
the following is the most likely cause of her signs and symptoms?
A. Bilirubin gallstones
B. *Calcium oxalate kidney stones
C. Cholesterol gallstones
D. Magnesium ammonium phosphate kidney stones
E. Acute uric acid nephropathy
225.
An 8-month-old infant boy presents with an enlarging abdominal mass. Laboratory
evaluation finds normal urinary levels of vanillylmandelic acid (VMA). The mass is
removed surgically and microscopic sections reveal undifferentiated mesenchymal cells,
immature tubules, and abortive glomerular formation. This tumor is most closely associated
with abnormalities involving which one of the listed genes?
A. MET gene
B. PRCC gene
C. p16INK4a gene
D. VHL gene
E. * WT-1 gene
226.
Physical examination of a 3-day-old male infant reveals urine leaking from the area
of the umbilicus. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Balanoposthitis
B. Meckel’s cyst
C. Meckel’s diverticulum
D. Omphalocele
E. *Urachal fistula
227.
A 19-year-old man presents with dysuria and a mucoid or watery urethral discharge.
No prostatic pain is present. Microscopic examination of the discharge reveals numerous
neutrophils, but no organisms are seen. Which of the following organisms is the most likely
cause of this patient’s signs and symptoms?
A. * Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Escherchia coli
C. Mycoplasma genitalium
D. Mycoplasma hominis
E. Trichomonas vaginalis
228.
Which of the following histologic changes is most likely to be seen when examining
a mucosal biopsy of the urinary bladder from an individual with acute cystitis due to
infection with Escherichia coli?
A. An infiltrate of lymphocytes and plasma cells
B. *An infiltrate of neutrophils
C. Inflammation with eosinophils
D. Noncaseating granulomas
E. Sheets of macrophages with granular cytoplasm
229.
A 49-year-old man who is a long-term smoker presents with frequency and
hematuria. Histologic examination of sections taken from an exophytic lesion of the urinary
bladder reveals groups of atypical cells with frequent mitoses forming finger-like
projections that have thin, fibrovascular cores. These groups of atypical cells do not extend
into the lamina propria and muscularis. No glands or keratin production are found. Which of
the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Adenocarcinoma, noninvasive
Inverted papilloma, noninvasive
Transitional cell carcinoma in situ
* Papillary transitional cell carcinoma, noninvasive
Squamous cell carcinoma in situ
TESTS for figures
1. Name the diagnosis of disease of the heart layers, which is represented in Figure 2.57.
A. Hemorrhagic pericarditis
B. purulent pericarditis
C. serous pericarditis
D. fibrinous pancarditis
E. fibrinous pericarditis*
2. At the heart of dermatomyositis observed dystrophy, cardiomyocytes mediate myocarditis, and
the pathological process is completed (Figure 2.34):
A. The partial regeneration of cardiomyocytes
B. Complete regeneration of cardiomyocytes
C. Pathological cardiomyocyte regeneration
D. Focal elastofibrosis
E. Diffuse cardiosclerosis atrophy of cardiomyocytes*
3. A characteristic feature of lupus glomerulonephritis (Fig. 2.31-2) is the deposition:
A. Non-immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire sticks"
B. Immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire Rings
C. Non-immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire Rings
D. Non-immune complexes and utonsheniem capillaries in the form of " wire loops"
E. Immune complexes and thickening of capillaries in the form of " wire loops"*
4. What are the characteristic feature of lupus glomerulonephritis (Fig. 2.31-2):
A. Non-immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire sticks"
B. Immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire Rings
C. Non-immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire Rings
D. Non-immune complexes and utonsheniem capillaries in the form of " wire loops"
E. Immune complexes and thickening of capillaries in the form of " wire loops"*
5. What is a characteristic feature of lupus glomerulonephritis (Fig. 2.31-2):
A. Non-immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire sticks"
B. Immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire Rings
C. Non-immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire Rings
D. Non-immune complexes and utonsheniem capillaries in the form of " wire loops"
E. Immune complexes and thickening of capillaries in the form of " wire loops"*
6. The consequence of lupus glomerulonephritis (Fig. 2.31-2) is the development of:
A. Wrinkled kidneys
B. Cystic expansion of renal
C. Hydronephrosis Kidney
D. Motley kidney
E. Utonshenie kidney*
7. What are the characteristic feature of lupus glomerulonephritis (Fig. 2.31-2):
A. Non-immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire sticks"
B. Immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire Rings
C. Non-immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire Rings
D. Non-immune complexes and utonsheniem capillaries in the form of " wire loops"
E. Immune complexes and thickening of capillaries in the form of " wire loops"*
8. In the heart (Fig. 2.32) patients on systemic lupus erythematosus develops:
A. Sepsis
B. Bacterial valvulitis
C. Bacterial endocarditis
D. Nebakterial endocarditis
E. Nebakterial Libman-Sachs endocarditis*
9. What is characterized by a diffuse pleural interstitial myocarditis (Fig. 2.35):
A. No significant infiltration of lymphocytes, histiocytes, neutrophils and eosinophils in the
presence of single granulomas Ashof-body
B. Significant infiltration of lymphocytes in the presence of single granulomas Ashof-body
C. Significant infiltration of lymphocytes
D. No significant interstitial infiltration of neutrophils in the presence of single granulomas
Ashof-body
E. Significant infiltration of lymphocytes, histiocytes, neutrophils and eosinophils in the
presence of solitary Ashof-body*
10. Focal exudative interstitial myocarditis manifested (Fig. 2.35):
A. To a large focal interstitial infiltration by lymphocytes
B. To a large focal interstitial infiltration eosinophils
C. To a large focal interstitial infiltration of plasma cells
D. Ashof- body
E. The small focal interstitial infiltration of lymphocytes, histiocytes and neutrophils*
11. What is manifested focal interstitial myocarditis, exudative (Fig. 2.35):
A. To a large focal interstitial infiltration by lymphocytes
B. To a large focal interstitial infiltration eosinophils
C. To a large focal interstitial infiltration of plasma cells
D. Ashof- body
E. The small focal interstitial infiltration of lymphocytes, histiocytes and neutrophils*
12. The development of sclerosis myocarditis completed (Fig. 2.34) at:
A. Not a favorable flow of rheumatism
B. The occurrence of rheumatic disease with frequent relapses
C. The occurrence of rheumatic fever with high activity indices of blood
D. Predominance of endocarditis
E. Favorable course of rheumatism*
13. Cardiosclerosis a result of myocarditis (Fig. 2.34) at:
A. Predominance of endocarditis
B. Not the favorable development of rheumatic
C. The occurrence of rheumatic disease with frequent relapses
D. The occurrence of rheumatic fever with high activity indices of blood
E. Favorable development of rheumatic*
14. Pericarditis rheumatism has character(Fig. 2.57):
A. Mixed inflammation
B. Purulent exudative inflammation
C. Hemorrhagic exudative inflammation
D. Catarrhal exudative inflammation
E. Serous exudative inflammation*
15. What are the nature of inflammation in the pericardium(Fig. 2.57) :
A. Mixed inflammation
B. Purulent exudative inflammation
C. Hemorrhagic exudative inflammation
D. Catarrhal exudative inflammation
E. Serous exudative inflammation*
16. What is the nature of inflammation in the pericardium (Fig. 2.57):
A. Mixed inflammation
B. Purulent exudative inflammation
C. Hemorrhagic exudative inflammation
D. Catarrhal exudative inflammation
E. Serous exudative inflammation*
17. Pericarditis rheumatism has character(Fig. 2.57):
A. Mixed inflammation
B. Purulent exudative inflammation
C. Hemorrhagic exudative inflammation
D. Catarrhal exudative inflammation
E. Serous exudative inflammation*
18. Frequently rheumatic pericarditis completed education(Fig. 2.57):
A. Suppuration pericardial cavity
B. Papillary proliferation of the pericardium
C. Inflammation
D. Рapillary transformation of the epicardium
E. Adhesions pericardial cavity*
19. The result of pericarditis(Fi.2.57) is education:
A. Suppuration pericardial cavity
B. Papillary proliferation of the pericardium
C. Inflammation
D. Рapillary transformation of the epicardium
E. Adhesions pericardial cavity*
20. Most rheumatic pericarditis(Fig. 2.57) concludes obliteration of the cavity of the heart bags with
calcification, formation of connective tissue in this case leads to the development:
A. Cor Pulmonale
B. Tiger Heart
C. Hairy heart
D. Bovine heart
E. Stone heart*
21. Histological examination of kidney tissue revealed focal and diffuse thickening of the basal
membrane with the formation of " wire loops " Fig. 2.31. Occurs appearance gematoksiliny
body. What clinical and anatomical form of the disease.
A. Cardiac
B. Arthritic
C. Mixed
D. Cerebral
E. Visceral*
22. Histological examination of kidney tissue revealed focal and diffuse thickening of the basal
membrane with the formation of " wire loops " Fig. 2.31. Occurs appearance gematoksiliny
body. What clinical and anatomical form of the disease.
A. Cardiac
B. Arthritic
C. Mixed
D. Cerebral
E. Visceral*
23. What clinical and anatomical form of the disease on Fig. 2.31. Histologically in the study of
kidney tissue revealed focal and diffuse thickening of the basal membrane with the formation of
" wire loops”. Appear gematoksiliny calf
A. Cardiac
B. Arthritic
C. Mixed
D. Cerebral
E. Visceral*
24. What pathological processes caused the name of spleen ("porphyry") in lymphogranulomatosis
(Fig. 2.30)?
A. Amyloidosis
B. Hyalinosis
C. Necrosis and amyloidosis
D. Sclerosis and hyalinosis
E. Necrosis and sclerosis*
25. The specific pathognomonic sign of this type of anaemia is atrophy of fundal mucus cells in
stomach. Name disease. (Fig. 2.38)
A. Acute posthemorrhagic
B. Chronic posthemorrhagic
C. Hemolytic
D. Aplastic
E. Pernicious (vit. B 12-deficiency)*
26. The sign of what pathological process is decrease of glands in the mucus layer of stomach (a
number 1 on Fig. 2.38) at pernicious (vit. B 12-deficiency) anemia?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Aplasia
D. Sclerosis
E. Atrophy*
27. At histological research of stomach (Fig. 2.38) patient with anaemia founded atrophy of glands
and sclerosis (1), focal lymphocytes infiltration (2). Name the type of anaemia.
A. Acute posthemorrhagic
B. Chronic posthemorrhagic
C. Hemolytic
D. Aplastic
E. Pernicious (vit. B 12-deficiency)*
28. At histological examination of lymph node revealed of Hodgkin's giant single - nucleus cells
(Fig. 2.29). What pathological process shown in the lymph node slide?
A. Acute leukemia
B. Ekstramedullar hemopoiesis
C. Chronic erythromyelosis
D. Chronic lympholeukosis
E. Lymphogranulomatosis*
29. At histological examination of lymph node diagnosed lymphogranulomatosis (Fig. 2.29).
Determine group of hemopoietic and lymphatic tissue diseases?
A. Pretumor disease
B. Immune inflammation
C. Systemic disease hemopoietic tissue
D. Malignant tumor of mesenhyma
E. Regional tumor - lymphomas*
30. At histological examination of lymph node in patient with lymphogranulomatosis detected giant
single - nucleus cells (Fig. 2.29). Name the cells marked by arrow on the lymph node slide.
A. Pirogov-Langhans' giant cells
B. Mykulich' cells
C. Eosinophil
D. Berezovsky-Sternberg' cells
E. Hodgkin' cells*
31. In patients diagnosed lymphogranulomatosis. What specific cells founded in the lymph nodes
(Fig. 2.29)?
A. Pirogov-Langhans' giant cells
B. Mykulich' cells
C. Anichkov' cells
D. Virchow' cells
E. Hodgkin' cells*
32. Autopsy of a woman, who died from lymphogranulomatosis revealed enlarged spleen. On the
section - multiple white-yellow areas of necrosis and sclerosis (Fig. 2.30). What is named of
such spleen?.
A. Sebaceous
B. Sago-like spleen
C. Glazed
D. Hyperplastic
E. Porphyry*
33. Autopsy of a woman, who died from lymphogranulomatosis revealed enlarged spleen. On the
section - multiple white-yellow areas of necrosis and sclerosis (porphyry) (Fig. 2.30). Name the
diseases which characterizing such spleen.
A. Acute leukemia
B. Ekstramedullar hemopoiesis
C. Chronic miyeloleykosis
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
E. Lymphogranulomatosis*
34. At histological examination of the stomach (Fig. 2.38) patients with anemia founded glands
atrophy and sclerosis (1), focal lymphocytic infiltration (2). Name the cause of this phenomen.
A. Iron deficiency
B. Excess vit. B12
C. Deficiency of folic acid
D. Bone marrow aplasia
E. Deficiency of vit. B12*
35. Hodgkin's disease (lymphoma) (Fig. 2.29) – is
A. acute lymphoma
B. Acute limphotcytoma
C. Acute limphocytoblastoma
D. chronic lymphocytic leukemia
E. Chronic recurrent lymphoma*
36. Hodgkin's disease (lymphoma) (Fig. 2.29) is:
A. episodic
B. endemic
C. pandemic
D. sporadic
E. isolated (local) and generalized*
37. In Hodgkin's disease often affects the spleen (Fig. 2.30) (necrotic foci white-yellow color,
multiple sclerosis, lymphocytic infiltration), so is called:
A. sugar-coated spleen
B. hyaline spleen
C. fibrous spleen
D. sago-like spleen
E. porphyric spleen*
38. In the lymph nodes in lymphogranulomatosis revealed proliferation of lymphocytes, histiocytes,
atypical small and large mononuclear cells (Fig. 2.29):
A. Ponce
B. Gaucher
C. Pirogov
D. Berezovsky
E. Hodgkin's*
39. In the patient histologically diagnosed limphogranulomatous (Hodgkin's disease) (Fig. 29).
Distinguish the following clinical and morphological form of the disease
A. variant with monocytosis
B. variant polycytosis
C. variant geterocytosis
D. version of the anemia
E. variant with a predominance of lymphoid tissue*
40. In the patient histologically diagnosed limphogranulomatous (Hodgkin's disease) (Fig. 2.29).
Distinguish the following clinical and morphological form of the disease:
A. diffuse fibroblastocytosis
B. knotty fibrosis
C. multinodular cirrhosis
D. focal fibrosis
E. nodular sclerosis*
41. In the patient was histologically diagnosed limphogranulomatous (Hodgkin's disease) (Fig.
2.29). Distinguish the following clinical and morphological form of the disease:
A. multinodular cirrhosis
B. knotty fibrosis
C. diffuse fibroblastocytosis
D. single cell variant
E. mixed-cell variant*
42. Hodgkin's giant cells (Fig. 2.29) contain:
A. giant vacuoles
B. giant fat inclusion
C. giant phagosomes
D. giant lysosomes
E. large hyperchromic nucleus*
43. Pathomorphological manifestations of pernicious anemia in the gastric mucosa (Fig. 2.38) are:
A. polyposis
B. ulceration
C. exacerbation of the inflammatory process
D. development of chronic colitis
E. atrophic and sclerotic changes*
44. The patient revealed atrophy and sclerosis of the gastric mucosa (Fig. 2.38) and hyperchromic
anemia. Among the following hyperchromic anemia is
A. Iron deficiency:
B. Metaplastic
C. Hemolytic
D. Posthemorrhagic
E. B12-deficient*
45. During the endoscopy the patient revealed atrophy and sclerosis of the gastric mucosa (Fig.
2.38), the laboratory - megaloblastic hyperplasia of the bone marrow, which is caused by
hypovitaminosis:
A. A
B. B1
C. C
D. PP
E. B12*
46. The patient endoscopy revealed atrophy and sclerosis of the gastric mucosa (Fig. 2.38) and
hyperchromic anemia. More typical blood cells and bone marrow with B12-deficiency anemia
are:
A. Anisocytes
B. Microcytes
C. Normoblasts
D. Hypochromic red blood cells
E. Megaloblasts*
47. What stage of Caries do you see on Fig. 2.56?
A. superfacial
B. middle
C. Fig. shows traumatic tooth defect
D. Fig. shows the erosion of tooth
E. deep*
48. What is the pathology that is depicted on Fig. 2.56?
A. tooth erosion
B. fluorosis
C. secondary caries
D. pulpitisis
E. deep caries*
49. What does the marker 1 (Fig. 2.56) show us?
A. damaged tooth enamel
B. caverns in carious dentin
C. dental pulp
D. destroyed pulp in the tooth cavity
E. carious caverns in dentin and pulp*
50. Which stage of caries do you see on Fig. 2.15?
A. stage spots (enamel structure is not changed)
B. surface (enamel damaged)
C. average (beginning of the dentin destruction)
D. there is not tooth tissue
E. medium or deep (dentine is damaged)*
51. What is marked by number 3 on Fig. 2.15?
A. transparent dentin
B. softening and destroying of dentin
C. typical dentine
D. reparative dentine
E. extended irregular dentine tubules*
52. What is marked by number 1 on Fig. 2.15?
A. transparent dentin
B. extended irregular dentine tubules
C. typical dentine
D. reparative dentine
E. softening and destroying of dentin*
53. What is marked by number 2 on Fig. 2.15?
A. Extended irregular dentine tubules
B. softening and destroying of dentin
C. typical dentine
D. reparative dentine
E. transparent dentin*
54. What is marked by number 1 on Fig. 2.5 (preparation of tooth with deep caries and complication
by pulpitis)?
A. lymphocytes and histiocytes
B. abscess formation in pulp
C. sclerosis and fibrosis of pulp
D. hydropic dystrophy of pulp
E. hyperaemia and stasis in the capillaries of pulp*
55. What type of dystrophy marked by number 2 on Fig. 2.5 (preparation of tooth with deep caries
and complication by pulpitis)?
A. hyaline dystrophy of pulp
B. leukoplakia of pulp
C. hyalinosis of pulp
D. sclerosis and fibrosis of pulp
E. hydropic (vakuol) pulp dystrophy*
56. In which part of the tooth is placed number 3 on Fig. 2.5 (preparation of tooth with deep caries
and complication by pulpitis)?
A. superficial of the tooth
B. enamel-dentine border
C. deep divisions of a tooth cavity
D. tooth enamel
E. marginal portion of the tooth dentine*
57. What is marked by number 4 on Fig. 2.5 (preparation of tooth with deep caries and complication
by pulpitis)?
A. hyperaemia and stasis in the capillaries of pulp
B. lymphocytes and histiocytes
C. abscess formation in pulp
D. hydropic dystrophy of pulp
E. sclerosis and fibrosis of pulp*
58. What is marked by number 5 on Fig. 2.5 (preparation of tooth with deep caries and complication
by pulpitis)?
A. periodontal of tooth
B. transparent dentine of the tooth
C. tooth enamel
D. tooth cement
E. dentine with elements of destruction*
59. What is marked by number 6 on Fig. 2.5 (preparation of tooth with deep caries and complication
by pulpitis)?
A. central department of tooth crown
B. transparent dentine of the tooth
C. typical dentine
D. tooth cement
E. tooth enamel*
60. About what do the changes show us (indicated by number 1 on Fig. 2.8 (preparation of tooth
with deep caries, chronic pulpitis))?
A. formation of reparative dentin
B. hydropic dystrophy of pulp
C. formation of adipose tissue
D. forming callus
E. sclerotic and atrophic changes in pulp*
61. About what do the changes show us (indicated by number 3 on Fig. 2.8 (preparation of tooth
with deep caries, chronic pulpitis))?
A. sclerotic and atrophic changes in pulp
B. hydropic dystrophy of pulp
C. adipose tissue formation
D. callus forming
E. denticles and calcificates inside of the altered pulp*
62. What is markered by number 1 on Fig. 2.13 (the tooth at acute purulent pulpitis)?
A. formed dentycles
B. sclerotic and atrophic changes in pulp
C. necrosis of pulp
D. forming of callus
E. irregular dentine with extended tubules*
63. What is markered by number 2 on Fig. 2.13 (the tooth at acute purulent pulpitis)?
A. macrophages around the abscess
B. pulp necrosis
C. substitution dentine in the tooth cavity
D. forming callus
E. connective tissue of pulp with fibroblasts*
64. What part of tooth is markered by number 3 on Fig. 2.13 (the tooth at acute purulent pulpitis)?
A. external surface of the
B. tooth enamel
C. dentine of tooth
D. cementum of tooth
E. tooth cavity*
65. What is markered by number 4 on Fig. 2.13 (the tooth at acute purulent pulpitis)?
A. grown up of pulp connective tissue with fibroblasts
B. macrophages around the abscess
C. granulemma formation
D. forming of callus
E. purulent melting pulp*
66. What pathology is the on Fig. 2.14?
A. granulema
B. fibromatosis
C. papiloma
D. sharp end condiloma
E. dens-alveolar portion of jaw*
67. What is markered by number 1 on Fig. 2.14 (preparation of alveolar processus of jaw)?
A. periodontal damage
B. caries of dens neck
C. circular caries
D. bone resorption
E. mucosal defect and formation of periodontal gum niche*
68. What is markered by number 2 on Fig. 2.14 (preparation of alveolar processus of jaw)?
A. mucosal defect and formation of periodontal gum niche
B. periodontal damage
C. circular caries
D. bone resorption
E. dens stone formation*
69. At endoscopical research a doctor found the changes of mucus membrane of stomach (Fig.
2.28.B). What previous diagnosis did a doctor put?
A. Acute gastritis
B. Chronic gastritis with acuteening
C. Chronic hyperplastycal gastritis (Menetrie)
D. There are no visible changes mucus
E. Chronic atrophy gastritis*
70. At pathoanatomical research a doctor noticed a pied picture of stomach mucus membrane (Fig.
2.28.C). What pathological process did a doctor see?
A. Pigmental spots of stomach mucus.
B. Catarrhal inflammation of stomach mucus.
C. Perforation of stomach mucus.
D. Abscesses of stomach.
E. Haemorrhagic erosion.*
71. Pathoanatomical macroscopic research found pathology of stomach (Fig. 2.28.C). This
pathology was confirmed by a microscopic method (Fig. 2.28.D). What pathology do you see?
A. Pigmental spots of stomach mucus.
B. Catarrhal inflammation of stomach mucus.
C. Perforation of stomach mucus.
D. Abscesses of stomach.
E. Haemorrhagic erosion of stomach mucus.*
72. At posthumous research of 40-years-old man a pathologist found pathology of mucus membrane
of stomach (Fig. 2.37.A). What did a doctor see?
A. Acute fibrinous gastritis
B. Chronic atrophic gastritis
C. Chronic polypus gastritis
D. Chronic gastric ulcer
E. Acute gastric ulcer*
73. Pathoanatomical research of stomach found the pathology of mucus membrane in dying man
(Fig. 2.37.B). Your diagnosis is..
A. Acute fibrinous gastritis
B. Chronic atrophic gastritis
C. Chronic polypus gastritis
D. Acute gastric ulcer
E. Chronic gastric ulcer*
74. At macroscopic research a pathologist found the pathology of stomach mucus (Fig. 2.37.B).
What pathology do you see?
A. Fibrinous inflammation of mucus membrane
B. The acid burn of mucus membrane on a small curvature
C. Hyperplastycal gastritis (Menetrie)
D. Metaplasy of mucus membrane
E. Atrophy and deformation of mucus membrane*
75. Pathoanatomical research of gastroenteric tract found the pathology of duodenum.. (Fig. 2.36.A)
A. Acute gastric ulcer
B. Chronic gastric ulcer
C. Acute duodenitis
D. Acute ulcer of duodenum
E. chronic ulcer of duodenum*
76. In the pathoanatomical department was delivered a man which died in the cardiologic
department. In the history of diseases was written that the man complained on pain in a stomach
a long time. At research of internalss a pathologist discovered (Fig. 36.B) ..
A. Acute bleeding from a gastric ulcer
B. Erosion of mucus stomach
C. traumatic destroing of duodenum
D. Perforated ulcer of duodenum
E. erosive vessels on the bottom of duodenum chronic ulcer*
77. The pathoanatomical macroscopic research of gastroenteric tract discovered (Fig. 2.36)
A. Acute ulcer of duodenum
B. Signs of repair of acute ulcer of duodenum
C. Gastric ulcer with complication by bleeding
D. Chronic gastric ulcer with arrosive vessels on a bottom
E. chronic ulcer of duodenum with arrosive vessels on a bottom*
78. Macroscopic research of gastroenteric tract found pathology of mucus stomach (Fig. 2.26.A). It
is ..
A. Acute gastritis
B. Chronic gastritis in the acute condition
C. Gastric ulcer
D. Haemorragic gastritis
E. Scar of mucus*
79. Macroscopic research of gastroenteric tract of man, which died from acute peritonitis,
discovered .. (Fig. 2.26.B)
A. inflammation of stomach
B. Pancreanecrosis
C. Fatty hepatosis of liver («ancerine» liver)
D. Muscat liver
E. Perforated ulcer of duodenum*
80. Pathoanatomical research of stomach mucus discovered cicatrical tissue in the pylorus area. It
became reason of .. (Fig. 2.26.B)
A. Gastric ulcers
B. Ulcers of a duodenum
C. Perforations of stomach
D. Perforations of a duodenum
E. Dilatations of stomach*
81. After surgical operation in the abdominal cavity the ectomied organ was presented to the
pathologist for research (Fig. 2.27.A.). Your diagnosis ..
A. Acute phlegmonous appendicitis
B. Acute fibrinous-festering appendicitis
C. Acute destructively-necrotizing appendicitis
D. Chronic appendicitis
E. Acute catarrhal appendicitis*
82. After appendectomy the appendix was given to the pathologist for research (Fig. 2.27.B.). Your
diagnosis ..
A. Abscess of appendix
B. Fibrinous appendicitis
C. Phlegmonous appendicitis
D. Chronic appendicitis
E. Mucocele (mucocyst)*
83. The removed at the operation appendix became the object of pathoanatomical research. Name
the diagnose using the original view of organ (Fig. 6.A.).
A. Acute fibrinous-festering appendicitis
B. Acute phlegmonous appendicitis
C. Acute destructively-necrotizing appendicitis
D. Chronic appendicitis
E. Acute catarrhal fibrinous appendicitis*
84. Specify (Fig. 2.16) fibrinous exudate (lobar pneumonia):
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 1*
85. Specify leukocyte infiltration in lobar pneumonia (Fig. 2.16):
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 2*
86. Specify (Fig. 2.16) the thickened walls of the alveoli (lobar pneumonia):
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
E. 3*
87. Specify leukocyte infiltration in lobar pneumonia (Fig. 2.16):
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 2*
88. Name the pathological process (Fig. 2.16):
A. bronchopneumonia
B. bronchitis
C. pneumonia
D. larengit
E. lobar pneumonia*
89. Select the pus in the abscess cavity (Fig. 2.19):
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 1*
90. Select the wall abscess (Fig. 19):
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 2*
91. Select the dilated vessels in the lung abscess (Fig. 2.19):
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
E. 3*
92. Select the neutrophilic infiltration in the lung abscess (Fig. 2.19):
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
E. 4*
93. What are the pathological process (Fig. 2.19):
A. lobar pneumonia
B. bronchitis
C. cancer
D. larengit
E. abscess*
94. Specify (Fig. 2.20) the leucocyte infiltration (bronchopneumonia):
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 1*
95. Specify (Fig. 2.20) the exudate in the bronchial lumen (bronchopneumonia):
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 2*
96. Specify (Fig. 2.20) the advanced vessels (bronchopneumonia):
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
E. 3*
97. Specify (Fig. 2.20) the thickened walls of the alveoli (bronchopneumonia):
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
E. 4*
98. What is the pathological process in this Figure (Fig. 2.20):
A. lobar pneumonia
B. bronchitis
C. pneumonia
D. larengit
E. bronchopneumonia*
99. What are the pathological process (Fig. 2.21):
A. bronchopneumonia
B. bronchitis
C. pneumonia
D. larengit
E. carnification*
100.
Specify (Fig. 2.22) the leukocyte infiltration (intermediate pneumonia):
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 1*
101.
Specify (Fig. 2.22) the extended alveolar walls (intermediate pneumonia):
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 2*
102.
Specify (Fig. 2.22) the advanced vessels (intermediate pneumonia):
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
E. 3*
103.
What are the pathological process (Fig. 2.22):
A. pneumonia in influenza
B. viral bronchitis
C. pneumonia
D. Viral larengit
E. intermediate pneumonia*
104.
Specify (Fig. 2.23) the leukocyte infiltration (chronic bronchitis):
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 1*
105.
Specify (Fig. 2.23) the advanced vessels (chronic bronchitis):
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
E. 3*
106.
Specify (Fig. 2.23) the exudate in the lumen of the bronchus (chronic bronchitis):
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 2*
107.
Name (Fig. 2.23) the pathological process:
A. bronchopneumonia
B. intermediate pneumonia
C. pneumonia
D. larengit
E. bronchitis*
108.
Specify (Fig. 2.24) advanced lumen alveoli (emphysema):
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 2 i 4
E. 1*
109.
Specify (Fig. 2.24) thinning alveolar septum:
A. 1
B. 3
C. 1 i 4
D. 1 i 2
E. 2 i 4*
110.
Name the pathological process (Fig. 2.24):
A. bronchopneumonia
B. intermediate pneumonia
C. pneumonia
D. larengit
E. emphysema*
111.
Specify hyperchromic nuclei (Fig. 17):
A. 2 and 3
B. 3 and 1
C. 3
D. 2
E. 1*
112.
Specify the cancer cells (Fig. 2.17):
A. 1
B. 2 and 3
C. 3
D. 3 and 1
E. 1 and 2*
113.
What type of cell atypizm can be seen in the picture (Fig. 2.17):
A. biochemical
B. fabric
C. intercellular
D. interstices
E. cell and tissue*
114.
Name the pathological process (Fig. 2.17):
A. bronchopneumonia
B. intermediate pneumonia
C. pneumonia
D. larengit
E. cancer*
115.
What type of cell atypizm is numbered 1 (Fig. 2.25):
A. hipohromii nuclei
B. different size fibers
C. atypical location of glands
D. irregular shape of glands
E. hyperchromic nuclei*
116.
What type of cell atypizm can be seen (Fig. 2.17):
A. cancer than in normal
B. different size fibers
C. Atypical location of glands
D. irregular shape of glands
E. polymorphism nuclei*
117.
What type of cell atypizm can be seen (Fig. 2.17):
A. cancer than in normal
B. different size fibers
C. Atypical location of glands
D. irregular shape of glands
E. different size nuclei*
118.
Specify (Fig. 2.25) the cancer cells:
A. 1
B. 2 and 3
C. 3
D. 3 and 1
E. 2*
119.
What types of atypizm can be seen (Fig. 2.25):
A. biochemical
B. fabric
C. intercellular
D. interstices
E. cell and tissue*
120.
Name the pathological process (Fig. 2.25):
A. bronchopneumonia
B. intermediate pneumonia
C. pneumonia
D. larengit
E. lung*
121.
What type of cell atypizm can be seen (Fig. 2.25):
A. cancer than in normal
B. different size fibers
C. Atypical location of glands
D. irregular shape of glands
E. polymorphism nuclei*
122.
What type of cell atypizm can be seen (Fig. 2.25):
A. cancer than in normal
B. different size fibers
C. Atypical location of glands
D. irregular shape of glands
E. different size nuclei*
123.
Name the pathological process (Fig. 2.20):
A. lobar pneumonia
B. tracheitis
C. larengit
D. lung
E. bronchopneumonia*
124.
Name the pathological process (Fig. 2.24):
A. lobar pneumonia
B. tracheitis
C. larengit
D. lung
E. emphysema*
125.
Specify (Fig. 2.25) the diagnosis:
A. bronchitis
B. tracheitis
C. laryngitis
D. pericarditis
E. cancer of the lung*
126. Histological examination of lung tissue (Fig. 2.6) revealed dense protein masses, which are
colored intensely with eosin, and are on the respiratory regions of the lungs. Hyaline membranes
composed of fibrin. They block the exchange of gases in the lungs. What kind of pathology:
A. Pathology of the placenta
B. Fetopathy
C. Blastopathy
D. Antenatal Pathology
E. Perinathal pathology*
127. Histological examination of lung tissue (Fig. 2.6) revealed dense protein masses, which are
colored intensely with eosin, and are on the respiratory regions of the lungs. Hyaline membranes
composed of fibrin. They block the exchange of gases in the lungs. What kind of pathology:
A. Pathology of the placenta
B. Fetopathy
C. Blastopathy
D. Antenatal Pathology
E. Pneumopathy*
128. What is the pathology of lung tissue is on Fig. 2.6. Histology revealed dense protein masses,
which are colored intensely with eosin, and firmly stick to the walls of respiratory regions of the
lungs. Hyaline membranes are composed of fibrin and blocks gas exchange in the lungs.
A. Pathology of the placenta
B. Fetopathy
C. Blastopathy
D. Antenatal Pathology
E. Pneumopathy*
129. What is the pathology of lung tissue in Fig. 2.6. Histology revealed dense protein masses,
which are colored intensely with eosin, and firmly stick to the walls of respiratory regions of the
lungs. Hyaline membranes are composed of fibrin and blocks gas exchange in the lungs.
A. Pathology of the placenta
B. Fetopathy
C. Blastopathy
D. Perinatal pathology
E. Congenital malformations of the respiratory system*
130. Grossly the brain tissue preterm neonates revealed a hematoma in the cavity of the ventricles
with the development of tamponade (Fig. 2.7). What are the causes of birth injury, embodied in
the state of the fetus:
A. Embriopathy - malformations, which are accompanied by venous congestion in the tissues
of the fetus
B. Fetopathy, which are accompanied by haemorrhagic syndrome
C. Rigidity tissue birth canal
D. All of the options
E. Premature birth or fetal postmaturity*
131. Grossly the brain tissue preterm neonates revealed a hematoma in the cavity of the ventricles
with the development of tamponade (Fig. 2.7). What are the causes of birth trauma rooted in the
mother's birth canal:
A. Distortion of the pelvis
B. Tumors of the birth canal
C. oligohydramnios and premature rupture of membranes
D. Rigidity tissues birth canal
E. All of these options correct*
132. What are the causes of birth injury, embodied in the mother's birth canal, which lead to the
development of pathologic changes, shown in Fig. 2.7. Grossly the brain tissue in a premature
newborn revealed a hematoma in the cavity of the ventricles with the development of
tamponade.
A. Distortion of the pelvis
B. Tumors of the birth canal
C. Oligohydramnios and premature rupture of membranes
D. Rigidity tissues birth canal
E. All of these options correct*
133. Grossly the brain tissue preterm neonates revealed a hematoma in the cavity of the ventricles
with the development of tamponade (Fig. 2.7). What are the possible causes of birth trauma
rooted in the dynamics of birth:
A. fetal hypoxia
B. oligohydramnios and premature rupture of membranes
C. Rigidity tissues birth canal
D. All of these options correct
E. accelerated labor*
134. Grossly tissue of the abdominal cavity in a child who died at 2 days was found additional
spleen( Fig. 2.58). What it is:
A. Aplasia
B. Hypoxia
C. Ectopia
D. All of the options
E. Congenital hypertrophy*
135. Grossly tissue of the abdominal cavity in a child who died at 2 days was found additional
spleen (Fig. 2.58). Specify in what time period are formed such changes
A. Period blastogenesis
B. Period fetogeneza
C. Early fetal period
D. postural fetal period
E. Period embryogenesis*
136. Grossly tissue of the abdominal cavity of the child, who died at 2 days, found additional
spleen (Fig. 2.58). Indicate to what pathology include these changes.
A. Blastopathy
B. Fetopathy
C. Early fetal period
D. Postural fetal period
E. Embriopathy*
137. At Fig. 2.9 shows kefalogematoma newborn baby. What the reason for this pathological
process:
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Blastopathy
C. Embriopathy
D. Fetopathy
E. Overlay forceps*
138. At Fig. 2.9 shows kefalogematoma newborn baby. What the reason for this pathological
process:
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Blastopathy
C. Embriopathy
D. Fetopathy
E. Accelerated labor*
139. At Fig. 2.9 shows kefalogematoma newborn baby. What the reason for this pathological
process:
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Blastopathy
C. Embriopathy
D. Fetopathy
E. Prolonged labor*
140. At Fig. 2.9 shows kefalogematoma newborn baby. What the reason for this pathological
process:
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Blastopathy
C. Embriopathy
D. Fetopathy
E. State of prematurity or newborn postmaturity*
141. At Fig. 2.9 shows kefalogematoma newborn baby. What the reason for this pathological
process:
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Blastopathy
C. Embriopathy
D. Fetopathy
E. Oligohydramnios*
142. Women 32 years removed uterine tube. Histologically, it revealed chorionic villi, which are
depicted on Fig. 2.11. Name the cause of intervention:
A. Abdominal Pregnancy
B. Ovarian Pregnancy
C. Uterine pregnancy
D. Vesicular mole
E. Tubal pregnancy*
143. After removal of uterine tubes of women 32 years old, histologically revealed chorionic
villi, which are depicted on Fig. 2.11. Name the cause of intervention:
A. Abdominal Pregnancy
B. Ovarian Pregnancy
C. Uterine pregnancy
D. Vesicular mole
E. Tubal pregnancy*
144.
The presence of decidual reaction and chorionic villi shown in Fig. 2.11 shows:
A. Specific granulomatous inflammation
B. Nonspecific granulomatous inflammation
C. Аcute inflammation
D. Chronic inflammation
E. Pregnancy*
145. A young woman was operated on urgently rupture uterine tube . Gistological reaction
revealed decidual and chorionic villi (Fig. 2.11).This is typical:
A. Specific granulomatous inflammation
B. Nonspecific granulomatous inflammation
C. Acute inflammation
D. Chronic inflammation
E. Pregnancy*
146.
What pathology is shown in Fig. 2.41 the number 3:
A. uterine pregnancy
B. tubal pregnancy
C. teratoma
D. Corpus luteum
E. Ovarian Pregnancy*
147.
Name the structure shown in Fig. 2.10.
A. embryoblast
B. trophoblast
C. Embryon
D. Chorion
E. Fetus*
148.
In what period of developing pathology shown on Fig. 2.12.
A. Gametopathy
B. Embriopathy
C. Congenital
D. bicuspid aortic
E. Blastopathy*
149.
Aentsefaly - agenesis of the brain, shown in Fig. 2.39 refers to:
A. Gametopathy
B. Blastopathy
C. Afterbirth pathology
D. Hypoplasia
E. Embriopathy*
150.
What pathology is shown in Fig. 2.2
A. Hypoplasia of muscle tissue
B. Dysplasia
C. chondrodysplasia
D. Perverted Osteogenesis
E. Congenital face-heyloshiz*