Test on Head and Neck > Eye & Ocular Adnexa
01/10/13
QUESTION 1:
The relative risk of developing a squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck for
a patient who abuses both cigarettes and alcohol is
(A) 4-fold increased risk
(B) 10-fold increased risk
(C) 22-fold increased risk
(D) 35-fold increased risk
QUESTION 2:
The primary lymphatic drainage of the midline of the upper lip is
(A) Submandibular nodes
(B) Submental nodes
(C) Intraparotid nodes
(D) Preauricular nodes
QUESTION 3:
Level V lymph nodes in the neck are located
(A) In the submental area
(B) In the anterior triangle
(C) In the posterior triangle
(D) In the inferior jugular chain
QUESTION 4:
Lymphatic drainage from the supraglottic larynx is primarily to
(A) The prelaryngeal (Delphian) node
(B) Paratracheal nodes
(C) Deep cervical nodes
(D) Superior jugular nodes
QUESTION 5:
Which of the following infections have been correlated with nasopharyngeal
carcinoma?
(A) Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
(B) Epstein Barr virus (EBV)
(C) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
(D) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
QUESTION 6: INCORRECT (You answered D; the correct answer is B)
The most common causative organism in otitis externa is
(A) Staphylococcus aureus
(B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(C) Streptococcus pneumonia
(D) Herpes simplex type 1
QUESTION 7:
Which of the following meet the diagnostic criteria for acute sinusitis?
(A) Symptoms of facial pressure, headache, cough
(B) Symptoms of nasal discharge and ear pain
(C) Opacification of sinus on plain radiograph
(D) Opacification of sinus on CT scan
QUESTION 8:
Initial treatment of a patient with allergic rhinitis and chronic sinusitis includes
(A) Oral antibiotics for 3-6 weeks alone
(B) Oral antibiotics for 3-6 weeks + tapering oral steroids
(C) Antihistamines and nasal steroid spray alone
(D) Endoscopic debridement + oral antibiotics for 3-6 weeks
QUESTION 9:
Depicted in Fig. 38-2 is an 18-year-old male whose left eye was struck with a
baseball. He complains of double vision, a headache, and tenderness in his left
cheek. The most likely injury is
FIG. 38-2
(A) orbital floor fracture
(B) intracranial hemorrhage
(C) retinal detachment
(D) LeFort III fracture
QUESTION 10:
Timely antibiotic therapy is most likely to prevent which of the following
complications of Streptococcal pharyngitis?
(A) Endocarditis
(B) Glomerulonephritis
(C) Scarlet fever
(D) Rheumatic fever
QUESTION 11:
Which of the following is an indication for tonsillectomy in children?
(A) >5 infections
(B) >3 infections with strong family history
(C) >3 infections in one year
(D) >1 week missed from school in a year due to tonsillar infections
QUESTION 12:
Which of the following is the most common therapy used in the treatment of
recurrent respiratory papillomatosis?
(A) Laryngoscopy with excision and/or ablation of lesions
(B) Oral acyclovir
(C) Intralesional cidofovir injection
(D) Intralesional steroid injection
QUESTION 13:
What is the most likely diagnosis for the lesion seen in the photo below? (See Fig.
18-5.):
FIG. 18-5.
(A) Laryngeal granuloma
(B) Polypoid laryngitis
(C) Vocal cord cyst
(D) Leukoplakia of the vocal cord
QUESTION 14:
What is the probability that a neck mass measuring 2.5 cm in an adult is
malignant?
(A) 20%
(B) 40%
(C) 60%
(D) 80%
QUESTION 15:
Which of the following temporal bone fractures is most likely to have an associated
facial nerve injury?
(A) Transverse
(B) Longitudinal
(C) Oblique
(D) Open
QUESTION 16:
Bell's palsy is most commonly associated with
(A) Injury to the temporal bone
(B) Acute sinusitis
(C) Infection with Herpes simplex
(D) Infection with Herpes zoster
QUESTION 17:
Primary repair is possible after excision of what percentage of the lip?
(A) <10%
(B) <25%
(C) <33%
(D) <50%
QUESTION 18:
A classic Le Fort Type I fracture involves the
(A) Forehead
(B) Nose
(C) Maxilla
(D) Mandible
QUESTION 19:
The most common location for Kaposi's sarcoma of the oropharynx is
(A) Tongue
(B) Palate
(C) Floor of the mouth
(D) Tonsil
QUESTION 20:
Which of the following is removed in a modified radical neck dissection?
(A) Level I-V lymph nodes
(B) Internal jugular vein
(C) Sternocleidomastoid muscle
(D) All of the above
QUESTION 21:
The treatment of choice for a small squamous carcinoma of the lip is
(A) Surgical excision alone
(B) Radiotherapy alone
(C) Surgical excision + adjuvant chemotherapy
(D) Radiotherapy + adjuvant chemotherapy
QUESTION 22:
A 36-year-old female presents with pain and loss of vision in her right eye,
worsening over 3 days. Her past medical history is significant for left TN treated
with carbamazepime for 4 years and depression controlled with sertraline. On
neurologic examination, her right eye vision in 20/400, left is 20/40. She has a
Marcus-Gunn pupil (afferent pupillary defect) on the right. Her extraocular
movements are intact although testing causes increased pain in the eye.
Fundoscopic examination reveals no abnormality in either eye.
The most likely diagnosis for this patient is
(A) hysteria
(B) carbamazepime toxicity
(C) optic neuritis
(D) amaurosis fugax
QUESTION 23:
Branchial cleft anomalies involving the pyriform sinus arise from the
(A) 1st branchial cleft
(B) 2nd branchial cleft
(C) 3rd branchial cleft
(D) 4th branchial cleft
QUESTION 24:
Which of the following is also removed when resecting a thyroglossal duct cyst?
(A) Anterior jugular vein
(B) External jugular vein
(C) Hyoid bone
(D) Superior laryngeal cartilage
QUESTION 25:
The most common parotid tumor is
(A) Warthin's tumor
(B) Pleomorphic adenoma
(C) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
(D) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
QUESTION 26:
What is the most common site of origin of ocular sebaceous carcinoma?
(A) Meibomian gland
(B) gland of Zeis
(C) lacrimal gland
(D) caruncle
(E) multicentric origin
QUESTION 27:
A 36-year-old female presents with pain and loss of vision in her right eye,
worsening over 3 days. Her past medical history is significant for left TN treated
with carbamazepime for 4 years and depression controlled with sertraline. On
neurologic examination, her right eye vision in 20/400, left is 20/40. She has a
Marcus-Gunn pupil (afferent pupillary defect) on the right. Her extraocular
movements are intact although testing causes increased pain in the eye.
Fundoscopic examination reveals no abnormality in either eye.
The most likely diagnosis for this patient is optic neuritis.
The most appropriate next step in the above patient's management is
(A) psychologic evaluation
(B) serum carbamazepime level and liver function testing
(C) MRI of the brain and possible lumbar puncture
(D) carotid duplex imaging
QUESTION 28:
How many bones make up the orbit?
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 6
(E) 4