Biology 2107/03
Fall 2000
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Name ______________________________
Final Examination
Version A
Write your name in the correct space on the mark-sense sheet and the exam booklet.
Both the exam booklet and the mark-sense sheet must be turned in at the end of the
period.
Indicate the version letter (A, B, C, or D) in the “Key ID” box in the upper left corner
of the mark-sense sheet.
Each question has only one correct answer. When a group of choices is used for more that
one question, a choice may be used more than once.
You may write in the exam booklet, but only the mark-sense sheet will be graded. No other
paper, scratch paper, etc., may be used.
Students must turn in the exam before leaving the room for any reason. A student may not
continue working on the exam after having left the room.
If you want your final grade posted, write “Please Post” under your name on the
mark-sense sheet. Both the lab and lecture grades will be posted.
100 questions
1.
What is the reduced electron donor that is oxidized in the first step of the
light dependent reactions of photosynthesis?
(a)
(b)
(c)
2.
(d)
(e)
NADPH
carbohydrate
When the reduced electron donor is oxidized in the first step of the light
dependent reactions of photosynthesis, what does it become?
(a)
(b)
(c)
3.
oxygen
water
CO2
oxygen
water
CO2
(d)
(e)
NADP
carbohydrate
Which of the following best describes the absorption of light by
chlorophylls a and b?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Chlorophylls a and b absorb all wavelengths of visible light equally
well.
Chlorophylls a and b do not absorb visible light, but only absorb
light of higher energy levels (such as ultraviolet light).
Chlorophylls a and b do not absorb visible light, but only absorb
light of lower energy levels (such as ultraviolet light).
Chlorophylls a and b predominately absorb only certain
wavelengths of visible light (the action spectrum). Other
wavelengths, in the green range, are reflected.
Page 1
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The following choices are used for questions 4 - 9.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
antennae pigments
reaction centers
thylakoids
stroma
4.
This is the location where the light-independent reactions (Calvin-Benson
cycle) take place.
5.
This is the location where CO2 is reduced to form carbohydrate.
6.
This is a network of chlorophyll molecules that absorb most of the light
for photosynthesis.
7.
These specialized chlorophyll molecules use the energy of light to initiate
an electron transport chain.
8.
These are stacked membranes in the chloroplast where the
photosynthetic electron transport chain is located.
9.
P680 and P700 are examples of these.
**************************************************************
10. Which of the following best describes the function of the light dependent
reactions of photosynthesis?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
To produce ATP and NADPH, which are necessary for the light
independent reactions.
To reduce CO2 and form carbohydrates.
To use O2 to oxidize carbohydrates and form CO2, which is
necessary for the light independent reactions
To absorb light energy and then to re-emit it at a lower wavelength
To produce ADP and NADP, which are necessary for the light
independent reactions.
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Page 2
The following choices are used for questions 11 - 19.
(a)
(b)
(c)
G0
G1
G2
(d)
(e)
S
M (Mitosis)
11.
This refers to the stage in which the nucleus of the cell divides.
12.
In a dividing cell, the chromosomes are in an unreplicated state
throughout this stage. Note: The term “dividing cell” refers to a cell that
is proceeding through all the stages of the cell cycle and is destined to
divide (as contrasted with a mature cell that no longer divides).
13.
Sister chromatids are formed during this stage.
14.
This stage is also known as stationary phase.
15.
This is the stage during which chromosomes are visible with a compound
light microscope.
16.
This is the stage during which DNA replication takes place.
17.
When a cell has reached its final state of maturity and no longer divides,
it goes into this stage.
18.
This is the stage between the period of DNA replication and the division
of the nucleus.
19.
This stage is divided into prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and
telophase.
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20. The cell cycle is carefully regulated by a biochemical cascade that
determines whether or not the cell will divide. Between which two stages
of the cell cycle does one find the major regulation of the cycle?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Between
Between
Between
Between
G1 and S
G2 and S
S and M
M and G1
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21.
Sister chromatids
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
22.
Homologous chromosomes
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
23.
are genetically identical, because they come from the process of
DNA replication.
are very similar genetically, but not necessarily identical, because
they come from two different parents.
are connected to each other at the centromere.
More than one of the above statements is true.
None of the above are true.
are genetically identical, because they come from the process of
DNA replication.
are very similar genetically, but not necessarily identical, because
they come from two different parents.
are connected to each other at the centromere.
More than one of the above statements is true.
None of the above are true.
During meiosis
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
a haploid germ line cell divides to form diploid gamete cells.
the homologous chromosomes of a germ line cell are separated.
the nucleus of the germ line cell divides to form two identical
nuclei, each with the same number of chromosomes as the germ
line cell nucleus.
More than one of the above statements is true.
None of the above are true.
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The following choices are used for questions 24 - 28.
(a)
(b)
(c)
Interphase
Prophase
Metaphase
(d)
(e)
Anaphase
Telophase
24.
If a dividing cell is treated with colchicine (a chemical that inhibits
spindle fiber formation), then division will stop at this stage.
25.
This term is used to collectively refer to G1, S, and G2.
26.
During this stage, the chromosomes are aligned along the equator of the
spindle apparatus.
27.
During this stage, the daughter chromosomes decondense and form two
new nuclei at the poles of the spindle apparatus.
28.
During this stage, the sister chromatids separate and become daughter
chromosomes.
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29. A certain species has a haploid chromosome number of 46. What is its
diploid number?
(a)
(b)
(c)
30.
(d)
(e)
92
184
When two haploid cells combine during fertilization, the resulting cell is
called a
(a)
(b)
(c)
31.
11.5
23
46
zygote
gamete
gemmule
(d)
(e)
gonad
graft
In animals, germ line cells are located in organs called
(a)
(b)
(c)
zygotes
gametes
gemmules
(d)
(e)
Page 5
gonads
grafts
32.
In animals, meiosis takes place in organs called
(a)
(b)
(c)
33.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Both DNA strands of the double-stranded DNA of a gene are used
as a template during transcription.
The template DNA strand of a gene has an identical nucleotide
sequence to the RNA it encodes (except that it has T’s instead of
U’s)
The template DNA strand of a gene is complementary to the RNA it
encodes
DNA does not serve as a template during transcription.
Transcription refers to the synthesis of proteins on a ribosome.
It
It
It
It
It
attaches an amino acid to a rRNA molecule.
attaches an amino acid to a tRNA molecule.
attaches an amino acid to a mRNA molecule.
synthesizes tRNA by attaching ribose nucleotides into a chain.
synthesizes tRNA by attaching ribose nucleotides into a chain.
To which site on the ribosome does the next aminoacyl tRNA bind during
the elongation phase of translation?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
36.
gonads
grafts
Which of the following best describes the action of an aminoacyl tRNA
synthetase enzyme?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
35.
(d)
(e)
Which of the following statements is true?
(a)
34.
zygotes
gametes
gemmules
The
The
The
The
The
transcriptional (T) site
replicative (R) site
aminoacyl tRNA (A) site
peptidyl tRNA (P) site
ouatta (O) site
A promoter
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
is a protein that binds to RNA polymerase to enhance the process
of transcription.
is a DNA sequence to which RNA polymerase binds.
is a DNA sequence to which ribosomes bind.
is the location where DNA replication begins.
is an initiation factor in the process of translation.
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37.
A certain mutation in E. coli is a chain-termination (or nonsense)
mutation. Compared to the wild type, one of the nucleotide bases in the
mutant is substituted for another so that a sense codon UCG in the
coding region is changed into the stop codon UAG. This means that
translation terminates prematurely, resulting in a protein that is too
short to carry out its enyzmatic functions.
It is possible to isolate another E. coli mutant gene called a nonsense
suppressor mutation. If cloned into the strain with the chain-termination
mutation, the nonsense suppressor causes the normal wild type
characteristics to return. However, the nonsense suppressor gene does
not encode the same protein as the chain termination gene. What does
the nonsense suppressor encode?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
The nonsense suppressor encodes a repressor protein that blocks
transcription of the chain-termination gene.
The nonsense suppressor encodes the aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
specific for tRNA with the anticodon AGC.
The nonsense suppressor encodes a tRNA molecule with the
anticodon AGC.
The nonsense suppressor encodes a tRNA molecule with the
anticodon AUC.
The nonsense suppressor encodes a transcriptional termination
protein.
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The following choices are used for questions 38 - 45.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
DNA replication
transcription
translation
More than one of the above.
None of the above.
38.
In this process, the monomer units in the newly formed polymer chain
base-pair directly with the nucleotides on the template.
39.
The end product of this process is a pair of homologous chromosomes
attached at the centromere.
40.
This process is synonymous with protein synthesis.
41.
This process is synonymous with chromosomal replication.
42.
This process is synonymous with glycolysis.
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43.
This process can be blocked when a repressor protein binds to the
promoter region.
44.
In this process, the sequence of monomers on a newly formed polymer
chain is determined by the nucleotide sequence of a DNA template.
45.
This process occurs on ribosomes.
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46. How does deoxyribose differ from ribose?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
47.
A nucleotide consists of
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
48.
Ribose is found in DNA, and deoxyribose is found in RNA.
Deoxyribose has an additional –OH group not found in ribose.
Deoxyribose is a component of nucleotides, and ribose is a
component of amino acids.
More than one of the above.
None of the above.
an amino acid attached to a tRNA molecule
a small ribosomal subunit attached to a mRNA molecule and a
met-tRNA molecule.
a pentose sugar attached to a nitrogenous base and a phosphate
molecule.
More than one of the above.
The nitrogenous base uracil (U) is closest in structure to which of the
following bases?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
adenine (A)
thymine (T)
cytosine (C)
guanine (G)
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The following information pertains to questions 49 – 50.
The nucleotide sequence listed below represents the transcriptional template
strand of a gene.
Template DNA strand
49.
Which of the following is the mRNA transcribed from the template DNA?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
50.
TACAGAAGTTGATGCATC
Tyr Arg Ser
Met Ser Ser Thr Thr
UACAGAAGUUGAUGCAUC
AUGUCUUCAACUACGUAG
OICU
Which of the following is the peptide that is produced when the mRNA is
translated? (The standard 3-letter abbreviations for amino acids are
used.)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Tyr Arg Ser
Met Ser Ser Thr Thr
UACAGAAGUUGAUGCAUC
AUGUCUUCAACUACGUAG
OICU
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51. In the hierarchy of structural organization in living systems, a tissue
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
is a collection of distinctively different types of cells that work
cooperatively to accomplish a specific task.
is a collection of very similar (or identical cells) cells that have
differentiated for a specific purpose.
is a collection of membrane-bound structures that collectively form the
structure of a cell.
is a collection of monomer units that are linked to form a single
covalently-bound molecule.
can refer to any level of structural organization that has a defined
function or purpose.
52.
The structural boundary that defines the “outside” of all cell types is the
(a)
(b)
(c)
cell wall
outer limits
basal lamella
(d)
(e)
cytoperiphery
plasma membrane
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The following choices are used for questions 53 – 54.
(a)
(b)
(c)
reproduction
genetic encoding
metabolism
(d)
(e)
evolution
regulated transport
53.
This is the best term to describe the processes by which cells assimilate
energy and raw materials from their environment.
54.
This is the best term to describe changes in living organisms that result
in increased ability to survive and increased diversity of species.
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The following choices are used for questions 55 - 57.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Protons
Electrons
Neutrons
More than one of the above
None of the above
55.
Consider these two isotopes of oxygen, oxygen-16 and oxygen-18. An
atom of oxygen-16 differs from an atom of oxygen-18 in the numbers of
these particles.
56.
The atomic number of an atom is defined as the number of this type of
particle.
57.
Interactions between two different atoms are mediated primarily by this
type of particle (specifically, those particles in the “valence shells” of the
atoms).
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The following choices are used for questions 58 - 63.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ionic bonding
Covalent bonding
Polar Interactions
Hydrophobic Interactions
58.
This is the best term to describe the interactions between sodium and
chloride ions in a salt crystal.
59.
This term refers to the “sharing” of electrons between two atoms.
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60.
In an aqueous solution or suspension, this type of interaction is typically
the strongest and most stable.
61.
This is the best term to describe a glycosidic bond.
62.
Hydrogen bonding, such as the type found in the secondary structures of
proteins, is a specialized form of this bonding.
63.
This is the best term to describe the interactions between oil molecules
that have floated to the top of an oil-water mixture.
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64. A substance with a pH less than seven
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
is acidic, and has a greater [H+] than a neutral substance.
is basic (alkaline), and has a greater [H+] than a neutral substance.
is acidic, and has a lower [H+] than a neutral substance.
is basic (alkaline), and has a lower [H+] than a neutral substance.
None of the above are true.
65.
Which of the following best describes the structure of a water molecule?
(a)
A central oxygen bonded to two hydrogens, with all three atoms in a
straight line.
A central hydrogen bonded to another hydrogen and to an oxygen, with
all three atoms in a straight line.
A central oxygen bonded to two hydrogens, with an angle of about 110
between the two hydrogens.
A central hydrogen bonded to another hydrogen and to an oxygen, with
an angle of about 110 between the second hydrogen and the oxygen.
(b)
(c)
(d)
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The following choices are used for questions 66 - 68.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Hydrolysis Reaction
Condensation (Dehydration) Reaction
Hydrophilic
Hydrophobic
Heat Capacity
66.
This is the best term to describe the breakdown of peptidoglycan by
lysozyme.
67.
This is the best term to describe the formation of a triglyceride from a
glycerol molecule and three fatty acids.
68.
This is the best term to describe the formation of a peptide bond.
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69. Which of the following statements is true?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Fatty acids with a greater degree of saturation have fewer C=C double
bonds and form glycerides have higher melting points.
Fatty acids with a greater degree of saturation have more C=C double
bonds and form glycerides have higher melting points.
Fatty acids with a greater degree of saturation have fewer C=C double
bonds and form glycerides have lower melting points.
Fatty acids with a greater degree of saturation have more C=C double
bonds and form glycerides have lower melting points.
****************************************************************************
The following choices are used for questions 70 - 71.
(a)
(b)
(c)
This is a property of prokaryotic cells.
This is a property of eukaryotic cells.
This could be a property of either prokaryotic or eukaryotic cells.
70.
Extensive internal membrane systems, including complex organelles
having double membranes.
71.
Plasma membranes containing folds that carry out metabolic processes
of respiration and photosynthesis.
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The following choices are used for questions 72 – 75.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
nucleus
mitochondrion
chloroplast
endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi apparatus
72.
The inner membrane of this organelle contains folds known as cristae.
73.
Proteins destined for secretion are synthesized on ribosomes attached to
the membrane of this organelle.
74.
This organelle is the site of cellular respiration (the process by which
oxygen is used to conserve metabolic energy in the form of ATP).
75.
Most of the inside of this organelle is filled with chromatin.
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The following choices are used for questions 76 – 77.
(a)
(b)
(c)
Microfilaments
Microtubules
Intermediate filaments
76.
These are composed of actin.
77.
These play a major role in maintaining the shape of cells. They also
mediate changes in cell shape, such as in the pseudopods of an amoeba
or the stress fiber attachments of a cell in culture.
Page 13
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The following diagram shows the structure of phosphatidyl ethanolamine and
applies to questions 78 - 81.
78.
Which of the following best describes the overall structure that is shown?
(a)
(b)
(c)
Triglyceride
Amino Acid
Cholesterol
79.
Which of the following terms best describes the part labeled “B” in the
diagram?
(a)
(b)
(c)
Fatty acid chain
Amino Acid
Polar head group
80.
Which of the following terms best describes the solubility of this
substance (overall structure) in water?
(a)
(b)
(c)
hydrophobic
hydrophilic
amphipathic
(d)
(e)
(d)
(e)
(d)
(e)
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Phospholipid
Disaccharide
Monosaccharide
Active site
dualistic
multiphasic
81.
This substance is sold in powdered form by chemical supply houses. If
some of the powdered form of this substance were mixed thoroughly with
water, what would happen?
(a)
(b)
The substance would separate from the water and float to the top.
The substance would completely dissolve in the water, making a uniform
solution.
The substance would become chemically oxidized.
The substance would become chemically reduced.
The substance would form microscopic spherical vesicles, suspended in
the water, with the surface of the vesicles made up of lipid bilayers.
(c)
(d)
(e)
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82. Some integral membrane proteins have the ability to move. How would
you best characterize this membrane protein mobility?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
The proteins have free movement in all directions within, across, and
through the membrane (the “free-wheeling” model).
The proteins can move transversely (“flip-flop”) from one side of the
membrane to the other, but they cannot move laterally (side-to-side) (the
“trans-crystalline” model).
The proteins can move laterally (side-to-side), but they cannot
transversely (“flip-flop”) from one side of the membrane to the other (the
“fluid mosaic” model).
The proteins completely move out of the phospholipid bilayer and travel
through the inside of the cell (through the cytoplasm) until they reach
the phospholipid bilayer on the other side (the “subway shuttle” model).
The proteins completely move out of the phospholipid bilayer and travel
around the outside of the cell (through the aqueous fluid in which the
cell is suspended) until they reach the phospholipid bilayer on the other
side (the “perimeter bypass” model).
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Page 15
The following choices are used for questions 83 - 84.
(a)
Simple diffusion directly across a phospholipid bilayer
(b)
Facilitated diffusion across a membrane
(c)
Active transport across a membrane
(d)
Both (a) and (b)
(e)
Both (b) and (c)
83.
This process is almost always mediated by a membrane-bound carrier
protein.
84.
This process requires the expenditure of the cell’s energy, usually in the
form of ATP hydrolysis or energy stored in a concentration gradient.
****************************************************************************
85. What is the function of the Na+-K+ ATPase pump in the plasma
membrane of cells?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
For each cycle in its mechanism, it transports three sodium ions (Na+)
into the cell, two potassium ions (K+) out of the cell, and hydrolyzes one
ATP molecule.
For each cycle in its mechanism, it transports three sodium ions (Na+)
out of the cell, two potassium ions (K+) into of the cell, and hydrolyzes
one ATP molecule.
For each cycle in its mechanism, it transports three sodium ions (Na+)
into the cell, two potassium ions (K+) out of the cell, and synthesizes one
ATP molecule.
For each cycle in its mechanism, it transports three sodium ions (Na+)
out of the cell, two potassium ions (K+) into the cell, and synthesizes one
ATP molecule.
86.
The protein that coats endocytotic vesicles and secretory vesicles is called
(a)
(b)
(c)
actin
tubulin
porin
(d)
(e)
Page 16
clathrin
laughin
87.
Read the following statements about enzyme action:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Enzymes are catalysts.
Enzymes significantly change the free energy (G) of a reaction by
changing the final equilibrium concentrations of the reactants and
products.
Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction by creating a
stabilized intermediate state known as an “Enzyme-Substrate
Complex”
Amino acid side chains often interact directly with the substrate.
The cell must manufacture a new enzyme molecule for each
substrate molecule that it converts to product (the law of enzymesubstrate stoichiometry).
Which of the following is correct?
Only statement I is true.
Only statements I, III, and IV are true.
Only statements I and III are true.
Only statements I, II, and III are true.
Only statements I, IV, and V are true.
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The following choices are used for questions 88 – 90.
(a)
(b)
(c)
cohabitant
cofactor
coenzyme
(d)
(e)
competitive inhibitor
noncompetitive inhibitor
88.
This is a substance that is chemically similar to the substrate of an
enzyme and can bind to the enzyme’s active site, blocking access by the
substrate.
89.
This is a substance that is not part of the amino acid structure of an
enzyme, but is required for the activity of certain enzymes. This term
specifically refers to a substance that is covalently bound to the enzyme.
90.
High concentrations of ATP in a cell stop the action of
phosphofructokinase, one of the early enzymes in the glycolytic pathway.
Structural studies have shown that the ATP does not bind to the active
site of the enzyme; instead, it binds to a different location and changes
the conformation of the enzyme. Which of the terms given above best
describes what ATP does to phosphofructokinase?
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Page 17
The following choices are used for questions 91 – 93.
(a)
(b)
oxidation
reduction
91.
During glycolysis, NAD is converted into NADH. What has happened to
the NAD?
92.
A process in which an atom gains electrons.
93.
Imagine a chemical reaction in which carbon dioxide is converted into
methane (CH4). What has happened to the carbon atom in this reaction?
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The following choices are used for questions 94 - 97.
(a)
(b)
(c)
glycolysis
fermentation
respiration
94.
The final electron acceptor in this process is oxygen (in almost all
organisms)
95.
The final electron acceptor in this process is an acid or alcohol derived
from pyruvic acid.
96.
The net yield of ATP in this process is two ATP per molecule of glucose.
97.
During this process, the carbons of pyruvic acid are completely oxidized
to form three CO2 molecules.
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98. During respiration, which of the following processes is most directly
responsible for the synthesis of the greatest amount of ATP?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
the
the
the
the
the
conversion of glucose into pyruvic acid
conversion of pyruvic acid into lactic acid
conversion of pyruvic acid into acetyl CoA and CO2
citric acid (Kreb’s) cycle
respiratory electron transport chain
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99.
The major purpose of fermentation in bacteria and yeast is
(a)
the synthesis of organic acids to regulate the pH of the organism’s
environment.
to provide a means for bacteria to identify each other by the production
of different fermentation end products.
to produce large quantities of ATP from pyruvic acid, since very little ATP
is produced during glycolysis.
to oxidize NADH into NAD.
to regenerate ADP for the process of glycolysis.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
100. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is a good “common currency” of energy for
the cell because
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
it is highly unstable, breaking down rapidly to provide the cell with a
“boost” of energy.
its G of hydrolysis is about –7.5 kcal/mol, making ATP hydrolysis a
thermodynamically favorable reaction.
the phosphate group that is released during ATP hydrolysis may become
attached to a protein, causing the protein to undergo a conformational
change and to do useful work.
Both (a) and (b) are true.
Both (b) and (c) are true.
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