APEH EXAM REVIEW
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
PART 1
(NOTE: The answers to today's questions will appear at the bottom of tomorrow's list of
questions.
1. The painting above represents the warmth and serenity of Italian renaissance art as
depicted by
(A) Titian
(B) Botticelli
(C) Raphael
(D) Giotto
(E) DaVinci
2. The achievements of the Renaissance were due to the growth in all the following
EXCEPT
(A) classical learning that followed rediscovery of classical Greek and Roman works
(B) urban expansion providing an atmosphere conducive to experimentation in art and
thought
(C) an optimistic and individualistic outlook on life
(D) an anti-Christian outlook that expressed itself in a large body of art and literature
(E) patronage of the urban nobility
3. Petrarch stated his belief that the millenium after Rome's fail were
(A) the zenith of Western world civilization
(B) a dark age
(C) similar to the period of the Empire
(D) a paradigm for Europe to emulate
(E) the height of classical culture
4. Renaissance humanism
(A) established the dignity of man, as well as the nobility of the human race
(B) concentrated to find answers aiding man in his struggle for salvation
(C) successfully combined the tenents of Scholastic philosophy with the new interest in
Aristotelian concepts
(D) intended to make people more eloquent and moral
(E) focused on religiosity
5. A constant factor in the attitude toward human characteristics during the Renaissance
was
(A) pride
(B) humility
(C) individualism
(D) religiosity
(E) arrogance
6. The term "Renaissance man" is
(A) an abstract term coined by humanists to characterize anyone dedicated to
Renaissance ideals
(B) a person who is accomplished in many different pursuits and is learned and civilized
(C) Leonardo da Vinci, who was a painter, musician, architect, engineer and naturalist
(D) a magnificent male figure carved by Michelangelo as an expression of his philosophy
(E) a man reborn to the faith
7. All of the following fit the Renaissance world view EXCEPT
(A) self-assuredness
(B) confidence
(C) arrogance
(D) caution
(E) pride
8. Which of the following characteristics of human nature were emphasized during the
Renaissance?
(A) emotions, basic values, and abstract thought
(B) cyncism and baser values as shown by Machiavelli's political works
(C) the human psyche as demonstrated through the works of Leonardo da Vinci
(D) the perfectability of human nature
(E) all the virtues mentioned above, in addition to breadth of knowledge
9. Primary among the causes for expansion of the secular spirit was the
(A) business success of the merchant class
(B) scholasticism
(C) the Church's condoning of wealth as a path to salvation
(D) the introduction of democracy into the Italian city-states
(E) support of the nobility
10. Erasmus maintained that
(A) emphasis upon scientific research will create better living conditions
(B) Protestant revolutionism is the only possible means to reform the church
(C) misery and injustice are due to ignorance and superstition
(D) Christian rulers are duty bound to lead Crusades against the infidel
(E) atheism is a positive good
11. The major focus of the Italian Renaissance was
(A) preoccupied with theology
(B) to provide a harmonious balance of all aspects of human endeavor
(C) wealth and commerce
(D) political liberation and equality
(E) democracy
12. The great emphasis the humanists placed upon education was expressed in their belief
that it should
(A) be a purely private concern
(B) be based only on the Bible
(C) prepare a man for public affairs
(D) be highly technical
(E) be scholarly
NOTE: Answers will appear with the next set of questions.
APEH EXAM REVIEW
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
PART 2
(Note: Answers to today's questions may be found at the bottom of tomorrow's list)
1. Martin Luther's doctrine included all the following EXCEPT
(A) Salvation through faith
(B) transubstantiation
(C) Scripture as the ultimate source of creed
(D) Salvation through good works
(E) opposition to indulgences
2. The political causes of the Protestant Reformation included
(A) the weakening of the nobility
(B) abuses of the clergy
(C) the Italian Church
(D) resentment of the Holy Roman Emperor
(E) the quest for indulgences combined with the the factors above
3. An indulgence in Christian theology was
(A) absolution of future sins
(B) permission to commit sins
(C) forgiveness of sin
(D) a sacrament of the Church
(E) a last rite
4. St. Thomas Aquinas' theology which the Protestant reformers opposed, taught that
(A) sinners do not need a priest to attain grace
(B) man must have faith in an omnipotent God
(C) sacraments are unnecessary
(D) humans have free will to choose between good and evil
(E) all is predestined
5. Luther's posting of the 95 Theses at Wittenburg was inspired by
(A) his belief in predestination
(B) the sale of papal indulgences
(C) his anger over papal illiteracy
(D) his outrage over papal supremacy
(E) a divine act
6. By the 16th Century, the Reformation had extended its influence to all the following
nations EXCEPT
(A) Germany
(B) Switzerland
(C) Spain
(D) Scotland
(E) Sweden
7. For Europe, the Protestant Revolt of Martin Luther
(A) was a cataclysmic event without previous cause
(B) had little impact outside of Germany
(C) was only one of many movements challenging Church corruption
(D) inspired little interest or concern
(E) led to religious toleration
8. The Anabaptists preached
(A) the need for a new Jerusalem on earth
(B) the clergy's role as a guide to salvation was useless
(C) the use of Baptism is ineffectual
(D) that material goods were sinful
(E) that salvation is predestined
9. The most accurate of the following statements concerning the Anglican Church is
(A) It closely resembled Calvinism.
(B) It gained the support of entire population.
(C) It began as a Catholic movement under the king.
(D) It was caused by the people's resentment of the Pope.
(E) It developed as a popular movement in England.
10. The Book of Common Prayer became the
(A) sanctioned prayer book of the Anglican Church
(B) accepted gospel of John Calvin
(C) scripture according to the Presbyterian Church
(D) heresy of the Waldensians
(E) universal prayer book in Europe
11. Martin Luther finally concluded
(A) one's love of God had to be demonstrated by prayer
(B) the sacraments of Baptism and Eucharist were essential to God's grace
(C) ascetic practices were necessary to attain salvation
(D) by faith alone are humans justified in the sight of God
(E) the Pope was infallible
12. All of the following were predecessors of the Luthern reform EXCEPT
(A) John Wycliffe
(B) John Huss
(C) Marsiglio of Padua
(D) Thomas Aquinas
(E) John Gerson
13. Ulrich Zwingli was responsible for the Protestant conversion of
(A) the Netherlands
(B) Switzerland
(C) France
(D) Sweden
(E) Scotland
14. John Calvin's concept of predestination is best verified by
(A) a sign of God's grace at birth
(B) evidence of material success and piety
(C) trial by ordeal
(D) a miraculous occurrence within the congregation
(E) the Holy Office of the Inquisition
15. The German Peasants' Revolt of 1524-1525 was
(A) a desperate attempt to lower prices and break the monopoly of the wealthy
(B) the first documented revolt of the lower classes in Europe
(C) a violent struggle between German peasants and German workers
(D) an attempt by the lower classes to seize political rights
(E) an uprising of serf against noble
YESTERDAY'S ANSWERS
1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A, 5-C, 6-B, 7-D, 8-E, 9-A, 10-C, 11-B, 12-C.
APEH EXAM REVIEW
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
PART 3
(Note: Answers to today's questions may be found at the bottom of tomorrow's questions)
1. The Fuggers of Augsburg were
(A) leaders of the Hanseatic League
(B) bankers
(C) merchants
(D) urban nobility
(E) clergymen
2. The great port of North European commerce in the 16th century was
(A) Rotterdam
(B) St. Petersburg
(C) London
(D) Antwerp
(E) Stockholm
3. The enclosure movement is best described by which statement?
(A) The fencing off of lands without regard for the holdings of the peasants.
(B) It was an agricultural revolution.
(C) It began a development of scientific farming.
(D) It involved the redistribution of lands into parcels among the aristocracy.
(E) It included the enclosure of urban parliamentary voting districts.
4. The London Company was a
(A) partnership
(B) holding company
(C) chartered company
(D) trading company
(E) manufacturing company
5. Magellan's great voyage proved all the following EXCEPT
(A) that the earth was smaller than previously thought
(B) that the islands of Malaya could be reached from the East
(C) that a navigational passage around the tip of South America existed
(D) that the earth was truly round
(E) that sailors could mutiny
6. The voyages of discovery of the 15th and 16th centuries were supported by monarchs
for what reason?
(A) royal sailing academies now allowed sailors tO venture into the open sea
(B) religious fervor encouraged exploration
(C) to break the monopolies of Venice and Genoa
(D) to encourage nationalism
(E) to gain papal support
7. The astrolabe was a
(A) 30x magnification telescope
(B) new and powerful development of binoculars
(C) navigational handbook
(D) device to measure the position of the stars
(E) planetarium
8. The most prevalent reason for 15th and 16th century voyages of exploration was
(A) the hope of personal enrichment
(B) to discover barbarian peoples
(C) to weaken Arab control of the Mediterranean
(D) to proselytize the Christian faith
(E) the need for adventure
9. The Cameralists were
(A) merchants desiring a monopoly on trade
(B) dealers in gold bullion
(C) Germans who supported mercantalism
(D) French industrialists
(E) laissez-faire economists
10. Which of the following classes was LEAST affected by 16th century inflation?
(A) the bourgeoisie
(B) the urban poor
(C) the rural aristocracy
(D) the urban nobilty
(E) agricultural workers
11. "The ordinary means therefore to encrease our wealth and treasure is by Forraign
Trade, wherein we must ever observe this rule: to sell more to strangers yearly than we
consume of theirs in value."
The above quotation, from England's Treasure by Forraign Trade by Thomas Mun,
provided the philosophy for the English system of
(A) Bullionism
(B) Regulated companies
(C) Statism
(D) Mercantalism
(E) Capitalism
12. The new society of the Commercial Revolution is best characterized by
(A) the elimination of the domestic system
(B) the increase of the urban population
(C) the pursuit of materialism and self-interest
(D) fewer agricultural workers
(E) a strong nobility
13. The first and second English Navigation Acts were designed to
(A) restrict foreign trade
(B) increase the value of English currency
(C) enhance English tarrifs and shipping
(D) provide lower customs duties on imports
(E) support triangular trade
14. Bullionism as an economic theory was based upon
(A) the quantity of precious metals within a nation
(B) the ratio of value between gold and silver
(C) the royal tax placed upon precious metals
(D) the amount of gold backing paper currency
(E) free trade
15. The Commercial Revolution included all the following characteristics EXCEPT
(A) the growth of private and national banking
(B) changes in the methods of production
(C) laws establishing price controls
(D) development of capitalism
(E) expansion of trade routes
ANSWERS TO PART 2
1-B, 2-E, 3-C, 4-D, 5-B, 6-C, 7-C, 8-B, 9-C, 10-A, 11-D, 12-D, 13-B, 14-B, 15-A.
APEH EXAM REVIEW
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
PART 4
(NOTE: The answers to today's questions will appear at the bottom of tomorrow's list of
questions.)
1. The growth of absolutism resulted in wars prompted by the
(A) militant policies of the Huguenots
(B) merchants greed for profits
(C) Hapsburg's new Spanish acquisitions
(D) religious differences and dynastic ambitions
(E) interest in new trade routes
2. Louis XIV supported all the following EXCEPT
(A) the building of the Palace of Versailles
(B) cooperation with the Estates-General
(C) art and culture
(D) the theory of divine right of kings
(E) the policies of Cardinal Richelieu
3. Of the following, which nation BEST completes the statement:
"Others wage war; you, _________, marry"?
(A) England
(B) France
(C) Austria
(D) Spain
(E) Belgium
4. "There are four essential characteristics or qualities of royal authority
First, royal authority is sacred
Second, it is paternal
Third, it is absolute
Fourth, it is subject to reason."
Based upon the above statement, from Politics Drawn from the Very Words of the Holy
Scripture by Jacques Bousset, which of the following would NOT be a policy of a 17th
century absolutist state7
(A) a decentralized government
(B) a large bureaucracy
(C) a professional army
(D) a theory of divine right of kingship
(E) a royal judiciary system
5. Which of the following best reflects Louis XIV's philosophy of government?
(A) The king is responsible for the happiness of his subjects.
(B) Only the Estates-General can meet the needs of France.
(C) The king is responsible only to God.
(D) The separation of powers is necessary for proper government.
(E) The Fronde was just)fied.
6. In England, responsibility for the civil war which led to the downfall of absolutism
rests mainly with
(A) Charles I and James II
(B) radical Protestants
(C) Members of Parliament
(D) Scottish Presbyterians
(E) Irish Catholics
7. The political theorist whose views supported that of the British middle class was
(A) SamuelJohnson
(B) Thomas Hobbes
(C) Lord Byron
(D) John Locke
(E) Lord Acton
8. The Protectorate of Oliver Cromwell represents the first
(A) English theocratic government
(B) victory of English democracy
(C) development of English absolutism
(D) successful leadership of Parliament
(E) attempt at religious freedom
9. The failure of the Puritan Revolution was due to
(A) armed revolt
(B) dissatisfaction with the policies of Cromwell
(C) the revolt of the Anglicans
(D) resistance by the Lollards
(E) the departure of the Separatists to Holland
10. The portrait above with its suggestion of power, confidence, and self-assurance
depicts Louis XIV's Minister of State
(A) Sully
(B) Necker
(C) Richelieu
(D) Turgot
(E) Rousseau
11. "He reduced everyone to subjection, and brought to his court those very persons he
cared least about. Whoever was old enough to serve did not demur. It was still another
device to ruin the nobles by accustoming them to equality and forcing them to mingle
with everyone indiscriminately."
The statement above by the Duc de Saint-Simon refers to the reign of
(A) Louis XV
(B) Charles VII
(C) Louis XI (Spider King)
(D) Louis XIV
(E) Charles V
12. After the death of Oliver Cromwell, England witnessed the
(A) resurgence of Catholicism
(B) reestablishment of the Stuarts
(C) restoration of military rule
(D) revival of the Tudor dynasty
(E) Long Parliament
13. Which of the following did NOT occur under the rule of Oliver Cromwell?
(A) Persecution of the Jews
(B) Prohibition of public entertainment
(C) Crushing the Irish rebellion
(D) Expansion of maritime trade
(E) Stringent religious policies
14. The term "Glorious Revolution of 1688," refers to the
(A) revolt of the Huguenots against Louis XIV
(B) replacement of an English monarch by Parliament
(C) revolt of the Netherlands against Spain
(D) establishment of Anglicanism in England
(E) peasant's revolt against James II
15. Which of the following statements conceming the Glorious Revolution is true?
(A) It was a violent act.
(B) It was an absolutist act.
(C) It was a constitutional act.
(D) It brought Charles II to the throne.
(E) It ended in disaster.
16. The term "English Restoration," refers to the restoration of
(A) property to the Anglican Church
(B) the Tudor dynasty
(C) Roman Catholicism in England
(D) Charles II to the throne
(E) Puritanism
Answers to: Part 3
1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C, 5-A, 6-C, 7-D, 8-A, 9-C, 10-A, 11-D, 12-C, 13-C, 14-A, 15-C
APEH EXAM REVIEW
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
PART 5
(Note: Answers to today's questions may be found at the bottom of tomorrow's list)
1. Thinkers of the Enlightenment considered humanity as
(A) emotional believers in God
(B) bundles of feelings, animal urges, and fears
(C) a link in the rationally ordered chain of beings
(D) the only reason for a divinely inspired universe
(E) incapable of reason
2. The impact of the Enlightenment on the political development of Europe can best be
seen in
(A) social order maintained by natural law
(B) a desire for new criminal laws
(C) Rousseau's call for liberty and equality
(D) a pacifist view concerning war
(E) a resurgence of democracy
3. Prominent thinkers in the 17th and 18th centuries challenged popular beliefs. Which
statement correctly reflects one of these challenges?
(A) The age of reason and science gradually worked to eliminate superstitions.
(B) John Calvin demanded that witch trials be eliminated.
(C) Isaac Newton criticized alchemy.
(D) Jean Bodin insisted on legislation outlawing witch trials.
(E) Voltaire's support of the Church's view of heresy.
4. Which of the following statements concerning scientific research in the 17th and 18th
centuries is INCORRECT?
(A) It was based on the belief that understanding nature's laws can contribute to human
progress.
(B) It was pursued only at the great universities.
(C) It gave a firm foundation to physics, chemistry, and medicine.
(D) It became intemational in scope.
(E) It involved inductive and deductive reasoning.
5. The 18th century philosophers were
(A) university scholars
(B) deists believing in a prime mover
(C) utopians concerned over an ideal society
(D) writers supporting the concept of social reform
(E) specialists in Greek philosophy
6. Which of the following CANNOT be linked with the concepts of the 18th century
Enlightenment?
(A) belief in man's capacity to reason
(B) belief in humanity's capacity for self-improvement
(C) application of natural science in daily life
(D) belief in tradition as a source of truth
(E) acceptance of natural rights
7. The philosopher Rene Descartes' concept of rationalism may best be expressed in Latin
as
(A) "cogito, ergo sum"
(B) "carpe diem"
(C) "sic transit gloria mundi"
(D) "guadeamus igitur"
(E) "caveat emptor"
8. Spinoza's ethical philosophy is contained in which of the following statements?
(A) Reason is the only infallible guide to wisdom.
(B) Understanding the harmony of nature is the perfect good.
(C) The universe is a machine governed by laws which man cannot override.
(D) There is no such thing as original sin
(E) God does not exist.
9. In his work Leviathan, Thomas Hobbes maintained that
(A) the future is bright with promise, if men abandon old superstitions
(B) man has a perpetual desire for power
(C) God alone is the source of knowledge
(D) reality is a myth
(E) humanity is inherently good
10. John Locke's approach to knowledge is stated in which of the following?
(A) There are no self-evident truths.
(B) Only divinely inspired reason can be true.
(C) Reason has the power to form a general body of truth.
(D) One must directly observe nature to discover its laws.
(E) Natural rights do not exist.
11. John Locke's Treatise on Civil Government proposed a political philolosophy which
was used to justify the
(A) American Revolution
(B) Thirty Years War
(C) Revolutions of 1848
(D) Revolution of 1830
(E) Seven Years' War
12. According to Locke, if there is evil in the world it is the result of
(A) human nature
(B) divine plan
(C) man's environment
(D) original sin
(E) natural law
13. Which of the following of the Enlightenment thinkers was particularly interested in
education?
(A) Voltaire
(B) Diderot
(C) Montesquieu
(D) Rousseau
(E) Condorcet
14. Newton's view of the physical universe encompassed
(A) an incomprehensible void
(B) a divine order and plan
(C) a machine of pefect order
(D) an irrational agglomeration
(E) a cosmos based upon the Ptolemaic plan
15. The German philosopher Gotthold Lessing (1729-1781) was convinced that
(A) the Aryan race was a superior one
(B) no one religion had a monopoly of truth
(C) man is the root of all evil
(D) man's life is brutish, nasty, and short power was to be glorified
Part 4
1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A, 5-C, 6-C, 7-D, 8-A, 9-B, 10-C, 11-D, 12-B, 13-A, 14-B, 15-C, 16-D
APEH EXAM REVIEW
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
PART 6
(Note: Answers to today's questions may be found at the bottom of tomorrow's list)
1. Which statement BEST describes the soical conditions in France in the 1780's that
triggered the revolution?
A. feudal privileges of tax exempion reduces revenues in France.
B. the monarchy, nobiliy and clergy were unwilling to compromise their traditional
rights.
C. merchants resented their social status separating them from the nobility
D. concepts and theories of class conflict appealed to those who resented government
controls
E. the" san coulotes," wished representation in the Estates General
2. All of the following French taxes were burdensome to the middle class EXCEPT
A. corvee B. Gabelle C. Taille D. tithe E. capitation
3. The "philosophes" of the Enlightenment disagreed in regard to which concept of
government?
A. Governmental power is limited by the will of the people.
B. The governed have the right to rebel against an offensive government
C. the natural rights of mankind include life and liberty
D. By means of a social contract, individuals have given up all rights to the monarch
E. Man's social environment influences his actions.
4. In his "Spirit of the Laws", Baron de Montesquieu favored which of the following
systems of government for France?
A. Democracy
B. Monarchy
C. Oligarghy
D. Limited Monarchy
E. Autocracy
5. The map pictured above relates to what cause of the French Revolution?
A. The inequaliy of representation in the Estates-General
B. The lack of a centrally located capital for France
C. The inability to properly collect taxes in France
D. The confusing array of local governments and laws in France
E. The independent duchies and counties
6. The IMMEDIATE cause for the calling of the Estates-General in May, 1789 was
A. a revolt by the privileged classes against Louis XVI's wish to tax them
B. refusal of the bourgeoisie to pay additional taxes
C. the outbreak of rebellion in the rural departments
D. the inability of the army to maintain order
E. the storming of the Bastille
7. All of the following conditions were unique to France in 1789 in comparison with the
rest of Europe EXCEPT
A. poor harvests
B. financial bankruptcy
C. lack of representation for the lower classes
D. continuation of feudal taxes
E. a medieval class structure
8. The IMMEDIATE cause of the French Revolution on July 14, 1789 was the
A. desire of the nobility to force the King to grant them concessions
B. rise in the price of bread
C. uprising in Paris ofthe san-culottes,who stormed the Bastille
D. march of the women on Versailles
E. the execution of Louis XIV
9. "What is the third estate?" he asked... the answer he gave... 'everything.'"
A. Marquis de Condorcet
B. Marquis de Lafayette
C. Maximilien Robespierre
D. Abbe Sieyes
E. Bishop Talleyrand
10. The first estate in France in 1789 inculded no more than 1 percent of the population,
yet owned about what percent of the land?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 40
E. 100
ANSWERS TO
Part 5
1-C, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B, 5-D, 6-D, 7-A, 8-C, 9-B, 10-C, 11-A, 12-C, 13-D, 14-C, 15-B
APEH EXAM REVIEW
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
PART 7
(NOTE: The answers to today's questions will appear at the bottom of tomorrow's list of
questions.)
1. The policies of the victorious powers against France at the Congress of Vienna were
characterized by
(A) the desire for revenge
(B) the need to strip France of her colonies
(C) the desire to maintain a European balance of power
(D) the wish to permanently exile Napoleon
(E) England wished to rule the seas
2. Prince Klemens von Metternich strongly advocated a policy of
(A) secret alliances
(B) isolation of Russia
(C) anti-nationalism and conservatism
(D) liberalism
(E) neutrality
3. The term "Concert of Europe," refers to
(A) the lasting peace and alliance system formed by the Congress of Vienna
(B) the secret alliance of France and England to prevent Russian expansion
(C) the restoration of legitimate monarchies of Europe
(D) a consensus that the policies of Europe were to be based upon Christian ideals
(E) the cultural emphasis inspired by Austrian composers
4. The Quadruple Alliance included which of the following?
(A) Spain, Russia, France, and Prussia
(B) Great Britain, Austria, Prussia, and Russia
(C) France, Austria, Prussia, and Russia
(D) Great Britain, Holland, Belgium, and Denmark
(E) Italy, Norway, Sweden, and Russia
5. The Holy Alliance differed from the Quadruple Alliance in that
(A) the major powers were not members
(B) it was an idealistic and unpragmatic agreement
(C) it did not include Russia
(D) it supported nationalistic policies
(E) it was supported by the Pope
6. All of the following countries successfully revolted in 1828-1830 EXCEPT
(A) Belgium
(B) France
(C) Greece
(D) Poland
(E) Serbia
7. The prevalent form of government for two decades after the Congress of Vienna was a
(A) parliamentary democracy
(B) constitutional monarchy
(C) dictatorship
(D) dynastic monarchy
(E) mercantile oligarchy
8. All of the following were characteristics of Romanticism EXCEPT
(A) a realization of human limits
(B) sympathy for revolts against oppression
(C) a reverence for nature
(D) an emphasis on the individual
(E) a call for social reform
9. Which cultural form was most suitable for the expression of 19th century
Romanticism?
(A) sculpture
(B) architecture
(C) literature
(D) science
(E) philosophy
10. "We recognize, however, that we always have the right to answer any appeal for help
addressed to us by a legitimate authority, just as we recognize that we have the right of
extinguishing the fire in a neighbor's house in order to prevent its catching our own."
The quotation cited above supports the principle of legitimacy which was supported by
which of the following statesmen?
(A) Talleyrand
(B) Alexander I
(C) Metternich
(D) Castelraegh
(E) Ferdinand I
11. "Beauty is truth, truth beauty,-that is all ye know on earth, and all ye need to know."
-Ode on a Grecian Urn
The line above expresses the Romantic ideal as written by
(A) William Wordsworth
(B) John Keats
(C) Samuel Coleridge
(D) William Godwin
(E) Victor Hugo
12. Which of the following English romantic poets died while aiding the Greeks in their
war for independence?
(A) Percy Bysshe Shelley
(B) Lord Byron
(C) George Gordon
(D) John Keats
(E) George Sand
13. A romantic French literary indictment of the social cruelty of the 19th century was
written by
(A) Francois de Chateaubriand
(B) Michel Montaigne
(C) Alexander Dumas
(D) Victor Hugo
(E) Heinnch Heine
14. Foremost in supplanting classicism in painting with romanticism was
(A) Jacques David
(B) Jean Ingres
(C) Eugene Delacroix
(D) Camille Corot
(E) Honore Daumier
15. The composer whose music set in motion the elements of awe, fear, longing, and
embodied the essence of Romanticism, would most likely be
(A) Joseph Hayden
(B) Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart
(C) Ludwig van Beethoven
(D) George Frederick Handel
(E) Franz Schubert
Part 6
1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-D, 5-D, 6-A, 7-C, 8-C, 9-D, 10-C
APEH EXAM REVIEW
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
PART 8
(NOTE: The answers to today's questions will appear at the bottom of tomorrow's list of
questions.)
1. The variety of revolutionary economic changes in Europe in the 18th century resulted
in
(A) acceptance of the natural right to private property
(B) reliance upon the commercial class by absolute rulers
(C) recognition of the needs of the working class
(D) the growing influence of the capitalist class
(E) the rise of socialism
2. Industrialization in England resulted from all the following factors EXCEPT
(A) a supportive Parliament
(B) high domestic food prices
(C) an effective central bank
(D) an overseas market for finished goods
(E) a stable government
3. Which of the following was most important in changing the textile industry?
(A) low cost American cotton
(B) the "piece goods" domestic system
(C) labor saving machinery in large mills
(D) permitting child labor within factories
(E) the development of water power
4. James Hargreaves and Richard Arkwright were both associated with
(A) machine tools
(B) textile-spinning machines
(C) railroad equipment
(D) steam engines
(E) agricultural machinery
5. The British Factory Act of 1833
(A) restricted the number of hours of permitted work
(B) raised wages dramatically
(C) provided compensation for disabled workers
(D) prohibited the employment of children under 9 years old
(E) provided sanitary working conditions
6. The 1852 lithograph above entitled "Cockerill's Works" intended to display the
(A) apocalypse resulting from the effects of industrialization
(B) environmental damage wrought by the factory system
(C) awesome power of the new industrial technology
(D) arduous result of round the clock shifts
(E) benefits produced by the new steam technology
7. The English Luddites were workers who
(A) demanded better pay and working conditions
(B) anti-industrialists who destroyed machines
(C) were utopian socialists
(D) fought for greater representation in Parliament
(E) unionized British industry
8. The Chartists demanded
(A) a suffrage for the working class
(B) elimination of tarriffs on imports
(C) free trade for entrepreneurs
(D) repeal of the Corn Laws
(E) collective bargaining
9. The lack of industrialization of Continental Europe before 1815 is BEST explained by
(A) setbacks caused by the French revolution and Napoleonic wars
(B) the small scale of enterprises on the Continent
(C) the scarcity of raw materials
(D) the lack of skilled labor
(E) ineffective transportation systems
10. Industrialization of Continental Europe after 1815 resulted from all the following
EXCEPT
(A) the removal of numerous tarnffs
(B) population increases in developed nations
(C) state intervention to stimulate industry
(D) increased technical advice from England
(E) improved roads, bridges, and railroads
11. Which of the following industries in France and Belgium gained an international
reputation during the reign of Louis XIV?
(A) Silk and lace
(B) Railroads
(C) Iron and steel
(D) Mining
(E) Coal
12. Which of the following was a customs union, reducing tarriffs among its members?
(A) Credit Mobilier
(B) Societe Generale
(C) Zollverein
(D) Continental System
(E) Le Fisc
13. The prerequisites of an industrial revolution include all the following EXCEPT
(A) a fully developed transportation system
(B) markets for the sale of goods
(C) rigid governmental regulation of the economy
(D) a commercial class of entrepreneurs
(E) a viable source for raw materials
14. The economic position of the working class is BEST described in which statement?
(A) Population increase brought unemployment and poverty.
(B) The availability of cheaper food eliminated hunger.
(C) Typhus, tuberculosis, and cholera were eliminated.
(D) Welfare programs in the cities were funded by local governments
(E) Private charities greatly allieviated hunger and distress.
15. Of the following, which was NOT a major problem for the working class in the
1850's?
(A) Absence of affordable housing
(B) Availability of unskilled jobs
(C) Improvement of public sanitation
(D) Affordable public transportation
(E) Adequate health care
16. Prostitution in the late 19th century generally was
(A) decreasing
(B) remaining constant
(C) increasing
(D) regulated
(E) illegal
17. In the late 19th century, married middle class women were
(A) treated as equals with their husbands
(B) given greater control over their families
(C) excluded from family finances
(D) totally subservient to their husbands
(E) encouraged to pursue independent careers
18. In his The Condition of the Working Class in England in 1844, Friedrich Engels
accused which class of exploiting the workers?
(A) Landed gentry
(B) Aristocrats
(C) Middle class
(D) Nobility
(E) Monarchy
Part 7
1-C, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B, 5-B, 6-D, 7-D, 8-A, 9-C, 10, C, 11-B, 12-B, 13-D, 14-C,
15-C
APEH EXAM REVIEW
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
PART 9
(NOTE: The answers to today's questions will appear at the bottom of tomorrow's list of
questions.)
1. Nineteenth Century nationalism was all of the following EXCEPT
(A) a feeling of pride and unity based upon the factors of common race, language, and
religion
(B) a middle class movement supporting national identity based on liberal reforms
(C) a sentiment derived from romantic notions of the past
(D) a political movement often exploited by national leaders through force and violence
(E) a process supported by the aristocratic and royal factions
2. Of the states listed below, which was MOST affected by a rising tide of nationalism?
(A) Germany
(B) Austria-Hungary
(C) Italy
(D) England
(E) Russia
3. The revolutions of 1848 were triggered by the
(A) publication of the Communist Manifesto
(B) Hungarians led by Louis Kossuth
(C) British suppression of the Chartists
(D) Serbians support of pan-Slavism
(E) uprising in Paris against Louis Phillipe
4. Which of the following statements concerning one of the 1848 revolutions is TRUE?
(A) England was required to grant Ireland further concessions.
(B) Hungary was permitted greater autonomy within the Habsburg Empire.
(C) Austria was defeated by Italian forces led by Sardinia.
(D) King Fredrick of Prussia yielded to liberal demands of the Frankfurt Assembly.
(E) Tsar Alexander II's power was reduced by the Duma.
5. Of the following nations, which pair was NOT adversely affected by the revolutions of
1848
(A) Prussia - Austria
(B) France - Germany
(C) England - France
(D) Prussia-Russia
(E) Russia - England
6. As a result of the revolution of 1848 in France, Louis Phillipe was replaced by
(A) Louis xvm
(B) Charles X
(C) Louis Napoleon Bonaparte
(D) Philip VI
(E) Charles VIII
7. "Dilettante, despot, dictator, and emperor." The previous adjectives would BEST apply
to which 19th century European ruler?
(A) Napoleon III
(B) Fredrick William IV
(C) Alexander II
(D) Victor Emmanuel II
(E) Victoria I
8. The uprisings in France in 1871 was known as the
(A) Second Revolution
(B) Third Republic
(C) Paris Commune
(D) Massacre of Chios
(E) The Affair of the Barricades
9. The Dreyfus Affair of 1894 provided a controversial instance of
(A) monarchism
(B) infidelity
(C) militarism
(D) anti-semitism
(E) corruption
10. Bismarck was able to become chancellor of Prussia as a result of
(A) a coup d'etat
(B) popular election
(C) revolution in 1848
(D) popular demand
(E) appointment by the king
11. Bismarck's success in diplomacy was based upon his policies of
(A) liberalism and pacifism
(B) nationalism and militarism
(C) socialism and communism
(D) democracy and constitutionalism
(E) absolutism
12. Bismarck's overall Realpolitik is best exemplified by his
(A) combining liberal and progressive Prussian concepts
(B) clever manipulation of the German masses
(C) policies based upon pragmatic understanding of international affairs
(D) disregard of religious divisions
(E) autocratic leadership
13. As Prussian chancellor, Bismarck's major objective was to
(A) strengthen the economy
(B) enhance democracy
(C) unite Germany
(D) support the monarchy
(E) consolidate the economy
14. Which term signifies a united German culture?
(A) Volksgeist
(B) Blut und Eisen
(C) Realpolitik
(D) Landtag
(E) Drang nach Osten
15. The Danish War of 1864 was instigated over the question of
(A) reparations
(B) Schleswig-Holstein
(C) the Zollverein
(D) the Sudetenland
(E) access to the North Sea
Part 8
1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-B, 5-D, 6-C, 7-B, 8-A, 9-A, 10-D, 11-A, 12-C, 13-C, 14-A, 15-B, 16-C,
17-B, 18-C
APEH EXAM REVIEW
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
PART 10
NOTE: Answers to today's questions will appear on Monday as my class will not meet
until then and I do not wish to provide them with the answers to their homework.
SPECIAL NOTE to the Wizard's students. Good luck withyour practice test tomorrow,
Remember the DBQ Rubric!!
1. Which of the following is the BEST reason for the beginnings of late 19th century
imperialism?
(A) the need to develop manufacturing in non-industrialized nations
(B) the global competition of European nations for claims to less developed areas
(C) missionary activities to proselytize and convert the heathens
(D) the acquisition of territories promising strategic benefit
(E) national security and the need for an international balance of power
2. The "New" imperialism of the 19th century differed from the old in that it was
motivated by
(A) the need for raw materials and new markets
(B) the belief in the concept of manifest destiny
(C) religious concerns
(D) the need to exile political protesters
(E) contempt for the native populations
3. Of the following nations, which could lay claim to having the oldest colonies in
subsaharan Africa?
(A) England
(B) Spain
(C) Belgium
(D) France
(E) Portugal
4. Which of the following factors was primarily responsible for the "Great Trek," of the
Boers into South Africa?
(A) hatred and contempt for the Xhosa peoples
(B) pressure from the British settlements in Capetown
(C) losses in the Boer War
(D) desire to preserve the "Afrikaans" language
(E) fear of reprisal from Zulu warriors
5. The cartoon above entitled "The Colossus," attempted to satirize which imperialistic
figure?
(A) Leopold II of Belgium
(B) General Kitchener of England
(C) Cecil Rhodes
(D) Otto von Bismarck
(E) Henry M. Stanley
6. Which statement concerning the Boer War is INCORRECT?
(A) It was accepted by all the participants to the Berlin Conference.
(B) It forced the British to resort to brutal policies of subjugation.
(C) It lasted for three years before the British military could pacify Dutch farmers.
(D) It was initiated by English settlers in their desire for precious resources.
(E) It led to a universal censure of British colonial policy.
7. The colony later called the Congo, was first claimed for Belgium through the "treaty,"
arrangements of
(A) David Livingstone
(B) Horatio H. Kitchener
(C) Cecil Rhodes
(D) Henry M. Stanley
(E) Pierre de Brazza
8. The Berlin Conference on Africa of 1884-85 established all the following principles of
imperialism EXCEPT
(A) Colonies would be recognized only after effective occupation.
(B) Leopold II's personal rule of the Congo was recognized.
(C) Slavery and the slave trade were disapproved.
(D) Germany had a preeminent right to colonies south of the Congo.
(E) The Congo basin was declared a free trade zone.
9. The Battle of Omdurman of 1898 demonstrated the overwhelming military superiority
of the British against which African territory?
(A) Egypt
(B) Transvaal
(C) The Sudan
(D) Libya
(E) Nigeria
10. The Fashoda Affair involved which of the following pairs of European nations?
(A) Germany - France
(B) France - Russia
(C) Belgium- Italy
(D) Portugal - Spain
(E) England- France
11. The most sign)ficant effect of British rule in India was the
(A) declaration of various Indian principalities to be protctorates
(B) development of a school system in which the language of instruction was English
(C) establishment of a modern economy and communications
(D) establishment of a British controlled civil service
(E) encouragement of the native population to revolt
12. Ismail, the khedive of Egypt, is an example of a 19th century
(A) imperialist
(B) pro-western reformer
(C) religious zealot
(D) anti-western reformer
(E) liberal
13. Foreign investment of European nations during the age of imperialisr..
(A) derived predominantly from Germany, England, and France
(B) was invested mostly within productive colonies and spheres of influence
(C) was limited to the western hemisphere
(D) was reduced in comparison with the 18th century
(E) remained stable
14. All of the following are true of European trade in the 19th century EXCEPT
(A) it increased dramatically in size and scope
(B) there was little intra-European trade
(C) it was encouraged through better transportation and communication
(D) it was stimulated through free trade policies
(E) it profited from stable governments and economic policies
15. Which statement concerning the United States as an imperial power is MOST
accurate?
(A) It both, protected its neighboring nations and exploited them.
(B) It defended poorer nations in the western hemisphere from European investors.
(C) It intervened militarily only when diplomatic means were exhausted.
(D) It supported only democratically inspired revolutions.
(E) It extended the full benefits of freedom and civil liberties to its subjects.
16. European spheres of influence in China were brought about through
(A) missionary activity
(B) military force
(C) diplomacy
(D) voluntary trade agreements
(E) naval blockades
Part 9
1-E, 2-B, 3-E, 4-B, 5-E, 6-C, 7-A, 8-C, 9-D, 10-E, 11-B, 12-C, 13-C, 14-A, 15-B
APEH EXAM REVIEW
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
PART 11
NOTE: The answers to today's questions will appear at the bottom of tomorrow's list of
questions.
1. Of the following, which factor in European politics made internal stability impossible?
(A) Public resentment of conscription and military service.
(B) Dissatisfaction with the slow pace of governmental reform.
(C) The general lowering of the standard of living in the early 20th century.
(D) The failure of the middle class to eliminate class distinctions.
(E) Universal sympathy for dissidents and imprisoned socialists.
2. The inability of the Great Powers to maintain stability in the Balkans led to
(A) Italian hopes to acquire Italia Irredenta and Dalmatian territory
(B) Pan-Slavism spurred on by Serbia among the nationalities of the Habsburg Empire
(C) The Greek independence movement, which led to the elimination of Ottoman rule in
the Balkans
(D) The Berlin Congress of 1878 which transferred Ottoman territories in the Balkans to
Austria-Hungary, Greece, and Russia
(E) These causes in combination with Austrian intransigience
3. Which of the following measures were supported by Otto von Bismarck in order to
quell socialist and anarchist pressure?
(A) limitations on the powers of the individual German states
(B) a Kulturkampf against the Roman Catholic Church
(C) the abolition of workers' rights to publish and meet
(D) regulation of religious seminaries
(E) the compulsory imposition of civil marriage
4. The government of the Third French Republic came under right-wing pressure by
(A) General Boulanger and his followers
(B) radical socialists
(C) disgruntled workers
(D) liberal humanitarians
(E) zealous Huguenots
5. The cartoon "Dropping the Pilot," shown above demonstrates what source of instability
among the Great Powers in the late 19th century?
(A) Czar Nicholas Il's antagonism towards Sergei Witte
(B) Count Berchtold's resignation from the government of Franz Joseph of Austria
(C) Uoyd George's dispute with Edward VII over taxing the wealthy
(D) William II's dismissal of Otto von Bismarck as chancellor
(E) Napoleon III's insult to William I of Prussia
6. Domestic stability in Britain was due to all of the following EXCEPT
(A) the belief that Britain had a workable system of government
(B) the extension of suffrage in 1884
(C) the prosperity enjoyed by laborers and unskilled workers
(D) the legalization of trade unions
(E) compulsory education for all children
7. The concessions granted by Nicholas II's October Manifesto were the DIRECT result
of
(A) general dissatisfaction with his policies
(B) the massacre of demonstrators on January, 1905
(C) Russia's defeat in Russo-Japanese War of 1905
(D) Lenin's revolutionary pamphlet "What is to Be Done?"
(E) incitement to revolution by the Mensheviks
8. The chief purpose of the Triple Alliance was to
(A) provide for a "Drang nach Osten"
(B) maintain a balance of power between England and Germany
(C) isolate France and restrain Russia
(D) keep Turkey from controlling the Dardanelles
(E) support Austria-Hungary's control of her nationalities
9. The Entente Cordiale was an understanding between
(A) France and Russia
(B) Italy and France
(C) Belgium and England
(D) England and France
(E) Italy and England
10. Austria's annexation of Bosnia-Herzegovina, and the Balkan War of 1912, heightened
feelings of
(A) anti-imperialism
(B) religious discrimination
(C) class struggle
(D) pan-slavism
(E) pan-Germanism
11. The Moroccan Crises of 1905-1911 engendered hostility and bitterness between
(A) Austria-Hungary and Serbia
(B) France and Germany
(C) Russia and England
(D) Italy and Turkey
(E) Spain and France
12. What was the purpose of the German Schlieffen Plan?
(A) A peace initiative
(B) Imperialistic expansion
(C) Economic revival
(D) An alliance system
(E) Military strategy
13. Responsibility for the First World War rests witl.
(A) Germany, due to its aggressive policies
(B) Russia, resulting from Pan-Slavism
(C) Austria-Hungary, whose ultimatum incited Serbia
(D) no one nation, as all the belligerents were unwilling to compromise
(E) Serbia, on whose territory the Austrian Archduke was assassinated
14. The conspiracy to assassinate Francis Ferdinand was apparently motivated by
(A) popular support of the Black Hand society
(B) middle class nationalist leaders
(C) Serbian fears of Francis Ferdinand's liberal policies towards Slavic minori~ies
(D) Francis Ferdinand's plans for a tripartite empire
(E) Bosnian and Herzogovinian resentment of Austrian annexation
15. The military campaigns of World War I
(A) followed the pre-war strategy of dynamic offensives
(B) developed into defensive campaigns resulting in stalemate
(C) were based upon the advantage of technology enjoyed by the victors
(D) were decisively won with the support of naval power
(E) demonstrated the value of airpower
16. All of the following were land battles during World War I EXCEPT
(A) the Marne
(B) Verdun
(C) Jutland
(D) Tannenberg
(E) Ypres
Part 10
1-E, 2-A, 3-E, 4-B, 5-C, 6-A, 7-D, 8-D, 9-C, 10-E, 11-C, 12-B, 13-A, 14-B, 15-A, 16-B
APEH EXAM REVIEW
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
PART 12
(NOTE: The answers to today's questions will appear at the bottom of tomorrow's list of
questions.)
1. Two scientific fields that showed particularly rapid progress during the late 19th
century were
(A) biology and chemistry
(B) economics and geology
(C) mathematics and physics
(D) archaeology and anthropology
(E) sociology and paleontology
2. The basic thesis of the Origin of Species is described in which statement below?
(A) Life originated in a spontaneous combination of the essential elements of protoplasm.
(B) Acquired characteristics may be transmitted to offspring.
(C) The human race has evolved from anthropoid apes.
(D) Nature selects variants that succeed in the struggle for existence and survive as the
fittest.
(E) Populations increase more rapidly than food supplies, and the weaker perish.
3. The discovery of the laws of heredity is a direct result of the work of
(A) Jean Lamarck
(B) Auguste Weismann
(C) Hugo De Vries
(D) GregorMendel
(E) Theodor Schwann
Which of the following scientists does not logically belong with the others?
(A) Louis Pasteur
(B) Joseph Lister
(C) Charles Darwin
(D) Robert Koch
(E) Ignaz Semmelweiss
5. The discovery of the X-ray in 1895 is credited to which of the following?
(A) Madame Curie
(B) William von Rontgen
(C) Ernest Rutherford
(D) Niels Bohr
(E) Clerk Maxwell
6. Auguste Comte was concerned with the study of
(A) the relationship of ethics to empiricism
(B) the differences between the supernatural and human
(C) the study of man and the discovery of knowledge
(D) spirituality and theology
(E) philosophy and mysticism
7. Both behaviorism and psychoanalysis
(A) attempted to explain irrational behavior as based upon predictable drives and
impulses
(B) studied human beings as driven by unexplainable urges
(C) compared human feelings to that of lower life forms
(D) eliminated the concept of subconcious thought
(E) considered mental illness as genetically transmitted
8. The major impact resulting from Sigmund Freud's research stemmed from his
(A) view that behavior can be modified through pain
(B) belief that women are less rational than men
(C) theory that repression was rooted in sexuality
(D) acceptance of free sex as a healthy manifestation
(E) concept of positive reinforcement
Sigmund Freud believed that mental disorder is the result of
(A) a response to a stimulus in the environment
(B) a conflict between natural instinct and societal pressures
(C) an unhealthy desire for the opposite sex
(D) failure during adult life
(E) imbalances within the cellular stucture
10. The "Id" is the term utilized by Freud to describe
(A) sexual urges
(B) depraved childhood
(C) rational behavior
(D) irrational unconcious
(E) the unknowable soul
11. All of the following were European evolutionist philosophers EXCEPT
(A) Herbert Spencer
(B) Thomas Huxley
(C) Ernst Haeckel
(D) Friedrich Nietzche
(E) Jean Paul Sartre
12. Friedrich Nietzche believed that the essence of morality is based upon
(A) Christianity
(B) Power
(C) Rationalism
(D) Social justice
(E) Democracy
13. Which of the following French writers does NOT fit within the realist school?
(A) Honore de Balzac
(B) Gustave Flaubert
(C) Emile Zola
(D) Jean Paul Sartre
(E) Anatole France
14. The works of the reknown realist writer Thomas Hardy (1840-1928) included all of
the following EXCEPT
(A) Return of the Native
(B) Jude the Obscure
(C) Penguinlsland
(D) Tess of the Ubervilles
(E) Far From the Madding Crowd
PART 11
1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A, 5-D, 6-C, 7-B, 8-C, 9-D, 10-D, 11-B, 12-E, 13-D, 14-C, 15-B, 16-C
APEH EXAM REVIEW
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
PART 13
(NOTE: The answers to today's questions will appear at the bottom of tomorrow's list of
questions.)
1. Totalitarian systems in Europe succeeded in creating a feeling of national purpose by
(A) subordinating the individual to the state
(B) supporting authority and strong leadership
(C) idealizing the corporate state of all facets of life
(D) glorifying the past
(E) exalting a national political party in combination with the above
2. Policies and attitudes that originated in World War I include all the following
EXCEPT
(A) failure to protect national self-determination
(B) changes in economic policies to counter economic depression
(C) the growth of militarism and nationalism
(D) uncompromising policies of revenge and irredentism
(E) disillusionment with the League of Nations
3. Of the following, which is NOT related to modern totalitarianism?
(A) A unified and powerful leadership exercised by a single individual.
(B) Elevation of the state over the individual.
(C) Reducing parliamentary bodies to an advisory role.
(D) Distinction between public and private needs.
(E) Ultra-nationalist policies of aggression.
4. The background causes for the rise of totalitarianism can be related most closely to the
(A) French Revolution
(B) unification of Germany and Italy
(C) rise of the Bolsheviks
(D) writings of Adolf Hitler
(E) legacy of World War I
5. Both the Locarno Agreement and the Kellogg-Briand Pact of 1928
(A) renounced aggressive wars
(B) repudiated Germany's war debts
(C) set limits on naval tonnage
(D) supported religious freedom
(E) denounced the spread of fascism
6. The Washington Naval Conference of 1922 attempted to
(A) scuttle the majority of Gemmany's fleet
(B) prohibit the use of battleships in warfare
(C) develop a ratio of fleet tonnage for the major naval powers
(D) support an increase in the size of the United States Navy
(E) allow Japanese access to European ports
7. The occupation of the Gemman Ruhr district in 1923 resulted directly from
(A) the aggressive pol*ies of the Nazi party
(B) French revenge for losses suffered in World War I
(C) the collapse of the Gemman Weimar Republic
(D) France's refusal to reduce Gemman war reparation payments
(E) Gemlan military rearmament
8. Which of the following countries was MOST affected by inflation after World War I?
(A) The United States
(B) Italy
(C) France
(D) England
(E) Gemmany
9. The intemational Depression of the 1930's was triggered by
(A) overproduction and lack of demand for manufactured goods
(B) unemployment
(C) the replacement of the gold standard
(D) the collapse of the credit markets on Wall Street
(E) the rise of the Nazi's to power in Gemmany
10. Which of the following Bolshevik concepts was developed by Lenin but not found in
Marx's works?
(A) The exploited working class will rise up in revolution.
(B) Capitalism will eventually destroy itself.
(C) The "dictatorship of the proletariat" will be directed by a communist elite.
(D) The violent characteristic of a worker's revolution is deplorable, yet necessary.
(E) Capitalism will be vanquished by communism, as feudalism yielded to capitalism.
11. In the early 1920's within the Soviet Union,
(A) the government was solidly entrenched under Lenin's control
(B) communism was universally accepted
(C) the middle class supported the Bolsheviks
(D) the economy had recovered from the First World War
(E) the civil war between the Reds and Whites created great hardship
12. Which of the following was Lenin's close associate and heir apparent?
(A) Alexander Kerensky
(B) Joseph Stalin
(C) Nikita Khrhushchev
(D) Leon Trotsky
(E) Gregory Rasputin
13. The significance of the New Economic Policy of 1921 was
(A) the collectivization of the Soviet economy
(B) the resumption of limited private ownership
(C) the equal distribution of all private property
(D) improved and expanded public housing
(E) a huge increase in consumer goods
14. All of the following were included in Joseph Stalin's reforms EXCEPT
(A) a forced increase in the output of consumer goods
(B) a five year economic plan to set goals for economic production
(C) agricultural collectivization and nationalization
(D) revival of militarism and nationalism
(E) confiscation and nationalization of kulak properties
15. Considering the Soviet constitution and the policies of the Stalinist regime, real
power in the Soviet Union lies with the
(A) citizenry, who are guaranteed extensive rights
(B) Supreme Soviet of the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics
(C) Communist party, as the only permitted political grouping
(D) Presidium of the Communist party
(E) Council of Ministers
ANSWERS TO
PART 12
1-A, 2-D, 3-D, 4-C, 5-B, 6-C, 7-A, 8-C, 9-B, 10-D, 11-E, 12-B, 13-D, 14-C
APEH EXAM REVIEW
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
PART 14
(NOTE: The answers to today's questions will appear at the bottom of tomorrow's list of
questions.
1. Which of the following statements describes the MOST notable difference between
World Wars I and II ?
(A) Domestic pressures threatened the European balance of power before both wars.
(B) Both wars arose from conflicts between nations and their leaders.
(C) A common enemy was used by governments in both cases, to divert attention from
domestic economic problems.
(D) Both struggles involved a substantial number of the world's population.
(E) New weapons of mass destruction developed radically different methods of warfare.
2. Which of the following best represents the attitude of the European democracies when
confronted with German, Italian, and Japanese aggression after 1931?
(A) Frustration
(B) Pacifism
(C) Isolationism
(D) Appeasement
(E) Neutrality
3. The major reason for the continued British support for appeassing Adolf Hitler was
(A) to maintain a balance of power against France
(B) to gain time for British rearmament
(C) a result of British guilt over the harshness of the Versailles treaty
(D) in order to check nationalist movements in Eastern Europe
(E) that he was viewed as an opponent to communism
4. Which of the following was LEAST effective in opposing the aggression of Nazi
Germany?
(A) The Little Entente
(B) The Kellog-Briand Pact
(C) The League of Nations
(D) The Locarno Agreements
(E) The Big Three
5. The Treaty of Rapallo of 1922 was signed between
I. Austria
II. Russia
III. England
IV. Germany
V. France
(A) IandII
(B) IIandm
(C) III and IV
(D) I and V
(E) II and IV
6. The Munich Conference of 1938 officially granted Germany the right to annex
(A) Rhineland
(B) Austria
(C) Poland
(D) Danzig
(E) Sudetenland
7. All of the following leaders of the 1930's are correctly paired with their respective
nations EXCEPT
(A) Joseph Stalin-U.S.S.R
(B) Benito Mussolini - Italy
(C) Neville Chamberlain - England
(D) Edouard Daladier - Austria
(E) Francisco Franco - Spain
8. Which correctly describes the MOST tragic result of the policy of appeasement?
(A) Hitler's repudiation of the Locarno Agreement
(B) The Munich Agreement of 1938
(C) The Spanish Civil War of 1936
(D) The German-Soviet Non-Agression Pact of 1939
(E) The "anchluss" of Austria in 1938
9. In the painting above, the artist is attempting to convey the
(A) surrealistic nature of life
(B) the horrors of the Spanish Civil War of 1936
(C) the nonsensical aspects of daily existence
(D) primitivist view of civilization
(E) torture facing sinners in the world to come
10. The outbreak of the Second World War began with the German
(A) attack upon Czechoslovakia
(B) annexation of Austria
(C) invasion of Belgium
(D) defeat of France
(E) attack on Poland
11. The military defensive system in which France placed her faith was called
(A) "force de frappe"
(B) Vichy
(C) Dunkirk
(D) Chateau-Thierry line
(E) The Maginot line
12. " ... We shall not flag nor fail. We shall go on to the end ... whatever the cost may be,
we shall fight on the beaches, we shall fight on the landing grounds, we shall fight in the
fields and in the streets, we shall fight in the hills; we shall never surrender ... "
The speaker in the quotation above was most likely speaking in the aftermath of which
military catastrophe of World War II?
(A) The attack on Poland on September 1, 1939.
(B) The German siezure of Norway in April 1940.
(C) The evacuation of Dunkirk in May 1940.
(D) The attack on Pearl Harbor on December 7, 1941.
(E) The Battle of Stalingrad in the winter of 1942-43.
13. In which situation did alliances and guarantees of mutual assistance prove MOST
useful during the Second World War?
(A) Poland, with the aid of British and French military intervention.
(B) Greece, which was aided by England in resisting German attacks.
(C) Czechoslovakia, whose sovereignty was guaranteed by the Treaty of St. Germain.
(D) Germany, whose military was supported in North Africa by its Axis partners
(E) Great Britain, which was aided in her war effort by the Lend-Lease Act of 1941.
14. All of the following military campaigns of World War II marked a turning point in
that conflict EXCEPT
(A) The Battle of Britain- 1940
(B) The Battle of the Philippines - 1942
(C) The Battle of El-Alamein- 1942
(D) The Battles of the Coral Sea and Midway - 1942
(E) The D-Day landings in Norrnandy- 1944
15. In which of the following battles in the Soviet Union did the Germans suffer their
most resounding defeat?
(A) Moscow
(B) Leningrad
(C) Stalingrad
(D) Smolensk
(E) Kiev
PART 13
1-E, 2-B, 3-D, 4-E, 5-A, 6-C, 7-D, 8-E, 9-D, 10-C, 11-E, 12-D, 13-B, 14-A, 15-C
APEH EXAM REVIEW
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
PART 15
NOTE: The answers to today's questions will appear at the end of part 16 which will be
posted tomorrow.
1. The relationships of the Allied Powers after World War n were most notably changed
by the
(A) outbreak of the Communist revolution in China
(B) loss by England and France of their colonial empires
(C) Soviet policy of expanding the USSR's sphere of influence and control in eastern
Europe
(D) quadruple partition of Germany and its resulting tensions
(E) United States policy of providing financial assistance to her former enemies
2. Which of the following BEST illustrates the foreign policy of the United States during
the post-war period?
(A) The Truman Doctrine
(B) The Containment policy
(C) The Marshall Plan
(D) The North Atlantic Treaty Organization
(E) The policies above in conjunction with United Nations support
3. Which Soviet policy decision caused the major intensification of the Cold War?
(A) Soviet propaganda which blamed "imperialist" powers for international crises
(B) Soviet establishment of "people's republics" in Eastern Europe contrary to the Yalta
agreements
(C) Soviet mistrust of capitalism leading to a complete break in diplomatic relations with
the U.S.
(D) Soviet refusal to repay obligations under the Lend-Lease agreement
(E) Soviet espionage in the West, leading to the development of the USSR's own nuclear
arsenal
4. The primary purpose of the Truman Doctrine involved
(A) the offer of substantial economic aid to the democracies of Europe
(B) providing military, economic, and social programs to democratic governments
fighting communism
(C) placing controls on access to nuclear weapons
(D) aiding underdeveloped nations in Latin America
(E) utilizing the CIA to foment revolution in communist nations
5. "A shadow has fallen upon the scenes so lately lighted by the Allied victory. Nobody
knows what Soviet Russia and its communist intemational organization intend to do in
the immediate future ... From Stettin in the Baltic to Trieste in the Adriatic, an iron
curtain has descended across the continent."
Westminister College Fulton, MO. March 5, 1946.
The author of this speech is which of the following?
(A) Harry S. Truman
(B) Dwight D. Eisenhower
(C) Douglas MacArthur
(D) Winston Churchill
(E) George C. Marshall
6. The FIRST nation given direct assistance by the United States in its attempt to combat
communist insurgency was
(A) Italy
(B) The Philippines
(C) Greece
(D) Yugoslavia
(E) Germany
7. Which of the following Eastem European nations successfully rejected control over its
communist party by Moscow?
(A) Poland
(B) Hungary
(C) Yugoslavia
(D) Czechoslovakia
(E) Rumania
8. A major failure of the United Nations in the post-war period was
(A) its inability to stop the proliferation of nuclear weapons
(B) its failure to forsee the hostility developing between the U.S. and U.S.S.R.
(C) the limits placed upon the power of the secretary-general
(D) its lack of success in mediation within crises situations
(E) its lack of power to enforce peace-keeping decisions among permanent Security
Council members
9. Which of the following United Nations agencies has the greatest role within
international relations?
(A) The Security Council
(B) The Food and Agriculture Organization
(C) The General Assembly
(D) The World Health Organization
(E) The Economic and Social Council
10. West Germany's economic recovery in the 1950's was based upon its embrace of
(A) communism
(B) socialism
(C) a mixed economy
(D) welfare statism
(E) free market capitalisrl.
11. France in the post-war period was marked by the obstinate leadership of
(A) Jean Monnet
(B) Charles De Gaulle
(C) Giscard D'Estang
(D) Georges Pompideau
(E) Claude Monet
12. In 1957, the Treaty of Rome provided for the establishment of the
(A) North Atlantic Treaty Organization
(B) Council of Europe
(C) European Economic Community
(D) European Coal and Steel Community
(E) Marshall Plan
13. The Soviet Union's attempt to expand its sphere of influence in the 1960's was
demonstrated by all of the following EXCEPT
(A) the Cuban Missile Crisis of 1962
(B) the Six Day War of 1967
(C) the"Prague Spring" of 1968
(D) the principle of "peaceful coexistence"
(E) the Berlin Wall
14. Which post-war leader is incorrectly paired with the country he led?
(A) Tito and Italy
(B) DeGaulle and France
(C) Adenauer and West Germany
(D) Khrushchev and the U.S.S.R.
(E) Macmillan and England
15. Attempts to lessen tensions between the U.S. and U.S.S.R. in the 1970's were based
upon the concept of
(A) detente
(B) "more than one road to socialism"
(C) the Brezhnev Doctrine
(D) "peaceful coexistence"
(E) linkage
16. The decolonization process in sub-Saharan Africa was LEAST violent in which of the
following former colonies?
(A) The Congo
(B) Rhodesia
(C) Kenya
(D) Nigeria
(E) Angola
17. Hostility between Arabs and Jews in the nation of Israel was exacerbated by which of
the following?
(A) Britain's inability to maintain order during the Mandate period
(B) Increased Jewish demands for a homeland after the Holocaust
(C) Arab resistance to Jewish immigration after 1933
(D) Inability of Arabs and Jews to compromise their political and religious ideologies
(E) The factors listed above
18. American involvement in Vietnam is best categorized as the result of
(A) French defeats at Bien Dien Phu
(B) The Gulf of Tonkin incident
(C) Ho Chi Minh's radical communism
(D) Political decisions spanning a twenty year period
(E) President Lyndon Johnson's policies
Part 14
1-E, 2-D, 3-E, 4-C, 5-E, 6-E, 7-D, 8-B, 9-B, 10-E, 11-E, 12-C, 13-E, 14-B, 15-C
APEH EXAM REVIEW
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
PART 16
NOTE: Today's answers are at the end of this post. The Wizard thanks you for
participating in his Multiple Choice Challenge and wishes you all the best on your test
today. Remember it is divorced, beheaded and died, divorced, beheaded, surrived.
Finally, remember to do all 6 parts of the DBQ rubric!!!! This year you will need at least
3 examples of point of view and you must have 3 groups---each groups must have at least
2 documents.
1. Achievements of science and technology in the 20th century are described in the
statements below. Which statement is LEAST accurate?
(A) Discoveries in the health field have revolutionized treatment for illness and extended
life expectancy.
(B) Insecticides such as DDT have practically eliminated malaria.
(C) Scientific discoveries have eliminated the major problems of human existence.
(D) The internal combustion engine has become an ubiquitous part of modern life.
(E) Electronic devices have aided the development of automation.
2. All of the following were components of Albert Einstein's contributions to modern
science EXCEPT
(A) the doctrine of a finite universe
(B) space-time continuum
(C) theory of relativity
(D) E = mc2
(E) an ether-filled static universe
3. A major change in the development of post-World War scientific development is
(A) emphasis upon the social sciences
(B) dependence upon corporate and governmental grants
(C) greater emphasis upon individuals rather than university research teams
(D) concentration upon national rather than international research
(E) increased competition among scientists
4. The "computer revolution," pioneered by the American company Texas Instrument,
was based upon the new technology of
(A) main frames
(B) microprocessors
(C) laptops
(D) closed loops
(E) pascal programming
5. "This conjunction of an immense military establishment and a large arms industry is
new in American experience. The total influence-economic, political even spiritual-is felt
in every city, every statehouse, every office of federal government ....We must guard
against the acquisition of unwarranted influence, whether sought or unsought by the
military-industrial complex."
Dwight D. Eisenhower, "Farewell Address"
What did President Eisenhower refer to by the "military-industrial complex?"
(A) A psychological desire for an aggressive foreign policy.
(B) A complicated development of high technology weapons systems.
(C) A web of interlocking interests and political pressures by weapons manufacturers and
the military.
(D) A network of high ranking military officers and industrialists.
(E) A communist attempt to infiltrate the government.
6. The first American to set foot upon the moon in 1969 was
(A) NeilArmstrong
(B) John Glenn
(C) Chuck Yaeger
(D) Sally Ride
(E) Edwin Aldrin
7. The Soviet satellite first launched on October 4, 1957 was called
(A) Soyuz
(B) Iskra
(C) Cosmos
(D) Sputnik
(E) Galactikos
8. The European Council for Nuclear Research (CERN) is currently completing a one
billion dollar project dealing with
(A) nuclearfission
(B) nuclear safety
(C) nuclear weaponry
(D) a particle accelerator
(E) protron physics
9. The drawbacks of science and technology are BEST indicated by which of the
following statements?
(A) The internal combustion engine has created more problems for society than it has
solved.
(B) The discovery of "miracle drugs" has led to a large population increase.
(C) Science and technology seem to create new problems as they offer innovative
solutions to old ones.
(D) Automation has created unemployment as it has improved the manufacturing process.
(E) The development of nuclear energy for peaceful uses has created frightening risks of
radiation and waste disposal.
10. With the publication of James Watson and Francis Crick's book The Double Helix,
the public became more aware of
(A) medical research on identical twins
(B) improvements in cancer treatments
(C) the development of the artificial heart
(D) the structure of DNA
(E) high energy physics research
11. All of the following may be categorized as "miracle drugs," first discovered from
1935 -1955 with the exception of
(A) smallpox vaccination
(B) sulfa drugs
(C) penicillin
(D) antibiotics
(E) polio vaccination
12. The German sociologist Max Weber was most concerned about what factor in
constant striving of modern man?
(A) alienation
(B) work-induced stress
(C) the Protestant ethic
(D) sublimation
(E) group dynamics
13. Which of the following treatments is NOT related to oncology (cancer)?
(A) radiation
(B) chemotherapy
(C) radioactive isotopes
(D) tetracycline
(E) genetic infusions
14. Which of the following authors was part of the "lost generation," whose ideals were
shattered by two world wars?
(A) Robert Sherwood
(B Ernest Hemingway
(C) Theodore Dreiser
(D) NoelCoward
(E) Andre Malraux
15. Of the following authors and their works, which best exemplified the "stream of
conclousness," method?
(A) T.S. Eliot's The Waste Land
(B) Norman Mailer's The Naked and the Dead
(C) Ernest Hemingway's For Whom the Bell Tolls
(D) Franz Kafka's The Castle
(E) James Joyce's Ulysses
16. All of the following are dissident Russian writers or poets EXCEPT
(A) Boris Pasternak
(B) Roy Medvedev
(C) Ivan Turgeniev
(D) Aleksander Solzhenitsyn
(E) Yevgeny Yevtushenko
17. Within modern philosophy, the most noteworthy of the existentialists has been
(A) Albert Camus
(B) Gertrude Stein
(C) Jean Paul Sartre
(D) KarlBarth
(E) Fr~iedrich Nietzsche
18. All of the following are apparent in the trend of European family life EXCEPT
(A) increasing rate of divorce
(B) declining birth rate
(C) working mothers
(D) single parent families
(E) marriage at an early age
19. The turmoil inspired by the younger generation especially in the 1960's and 1970's
may best be described as
(A) a protest against the Vietnam war
(B) dedication to a"relevant" counterculture
(C) a reaction to the conservatism of the "establishment," or older generation
(D) a rebellion against universal conscription
(E) involving only a relatively small group of "hippies"
20. Worldwide concern over ecology and environmental protection has been the result of
(A) increased industrial pollution
(B) fear of the consequences of the "greenhouse effect"
(C) air pollution resulting from automobile emmissions
(D) the damage caused by "acid rain"
(E) each of these problems within various parts of the earth
PART 15
1-C, 2-E, 3-B, 4-B, 5-D, 6-C, 7-C, 8-E, 9-A, 10-E, 11-B, 12-C, 13-D, 14-A, 15-A, 16-B,
17-E, 18-E, 19-C, 20-E
PART 16
1-C, 2-E, 3-B, 4-B, 5-C, 6-A, 7-D, 8-D, 9-C, 10-D, 11-A, 12-C, 13-D, 14-B, 15-E, 16-C,
17-C, 18-E, 19-C, 20-E