UNIVERSIDAD IBEROAMERICANA A.C.
MAESTRIA EN INGENIERÍA DE CALIDAD
EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES
ENFOCADO A SEIS SIGMA
ELABORÓ:
DR. PRIMITIVO REYES AGUILAR
AGOSTO 2006
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
1. Enterprise-Wide Deployment
1. Review the following assessment statements:
o There is low industry rivalry
o There are few regulatory requirements
o There is currently a positive growth cycle
What SWOT analysis area is most clearly being portrayed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Strengths
Weaknesses
Opportunities
Threats
2. What quality luminary is generally recognized as having created the
control chart?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Deming
Shewhart
Juran
Ishikawa
3. Why is Six Sigma called TQM on steroids?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Because of the extensive training element required
Because of the inclusion of statistical and lean tools
Because of the heavy impact of top management support
Because of the impact of cost savings on the bottom line
4. To combat external threats, which of the following tactics can be
utilized?
I. Exploit internal strengths
II. Exploit the internal weaknesses of the competition
III. Exploit the external opportunities
a.
b.
c.
d.
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
2
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
5. Which of the following are important methods of improving the
subsystem integration of business departments?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Direct contact among managers
A hierarchical referral system
The establishment of liaison roles
The creation of project matrix structures
a.
b.
c.
d.
I, II and III only
I,III and IV only
II,III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
6. According to Pande, which of the following are legitimate reasons for
NOT embracing a Six Sigma effort?
I. The company currently has an effective improvement effort
II. Current changes are overwhelming the company resources
III. The potential gains aren’t sufficient fund Six Sigma
a.
b.
c.
d.
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
7. In what area would upper management be most helpful in the
initiation of a Sic Sigma effort?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Providing direct training to black belts
Planning and implementing the deployment effort
Providing key resources to the organization
Directing the improvement project
a.
b.
c.
d.
I and III only
I and III
II and IV only
II, III and IV
8. What is the best upper management reason for not providing black
belt assistance to an improvement team?
a. Black belt resources may be tight
b. It forces the team to develop their own skills
c. It may not be required
3
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
d. It requires the team to ask for help
9. Which of the following would most likely function as a project team
leader?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Black belts
Six Sigma managers
Steering Committee members
Trained facilitators
a.
b.
c.
d.
I and II only
I and IV only
II, III and IV only
I, II, II and IV
10. Which of the following terms is the broadest type of organizational
memory and learning?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Document Management
Knowledge Management
User interface and process layer
Knowledge repository
11. A supplier provides a product in a box. After the product is
consumed, the purchaser attempts to recycle the box by storing
personal items in it. However, the hinges of the box soon fail. This
scenario describes whose statement on quality?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Juran’s
Dmening’s
Taguchi’s
Shewhart’s
12. The dissemination of knowledge within a modern organization is
normally coordinated by
a.
b.
c.
d.
IT or MIS department
Quality department
Engineering department
Technology department
4
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
13. Relative to the duties and responsibilities of departments within a Sic
Sigma company, the most critical requirement calls for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Task focus and teams
The establishment of liaison roles
A matrix organizational structure
Cross-functional collaboration
14. Review the following assessment statements:
-
We have tremendous cost advantages
We have good marketing skills
Our finances are solid
Our management team is outstanding
What SWOT analysis area is most clearly being described?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Strengths
Weaknesses
Opportunities
Threats
15. What quality guru is MOST widely associated with DOE?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Deming
Juran
Ishikawa
Taguchi
16. Review the following assessment statements:
-
We have obsolete facilities
Our technology is outdated
We have weak marketing skills
Our management team is relatively inexperienced
What SWOT analysis area is most clearly being described?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Strengths
Weaknesses
Opportunities
Threats
5
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
17. Which of the following terms describes the knowledge residing in the
minds of employees, but not in a data base?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Organizational memory
Knowledge management
Tacit Knowledge
Organizational learning
18. Which of the following quality gurus are most closely associated with
the term total quality control and total quality management?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
VI.
Crosby
Feigenbaum
Ishikawa
Deming
Juran
Taguchi
a.
b.
c.
d.
IV and V only
II and III only
I and VI only
II and V only
19. The phrase “improve quality, decrease costs, improve productivity,
capture the market with better quality and price, stay in business and
provide jobs,” refers to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Deming’s Chain Reaction
Feigenbaum’s Principles of TQC
Ishikawa’s Characteristics on CWCQ
Juran’s Basic for Success
20. Increasing performance in a Six Sigma Corporation from 3 sigma to 4
sigma would reduce defects per million by a factor of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
8
10
16
21. Which of the following items would be considered process outputs?
I.
II.
Money
Products
6
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
III.
IV.
V.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
Specifications
Services
Designs
a.
b.
c.
d.
I, II and III only
I, II, III and V only
II, IV and V only
II, III, IV and V only
22. In a nutshell, Six Sigma is considered:
a.
b.
c.
d.
A business improvement approach
A focus on critical customer items
An elimination of mistakes and defects
A concentrated focus on business outputs
23. What (two) organizational steps typically provide feedback to
business systems and processes?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Customers
Suppliers
Inputs
Outputs
a.
b.
c.
d.
I and II only
III and IV only
II and III only
I and IV only
24. Which of the following authorities is most clearly identified with SWOT
analysis?
a.
b.
c.
d.
M. Porter
R. Snee
A. Feigenbaum
M. Harry
25. Which two of the SWOT analysis elements clearly requires a firm to
assess the external business environment?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Strengths
Weaknesses
Opportunities
Threats
7
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
III and IV only
26. In the Six Sigma structure, process owner are also referred to as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Champions or sponsors
Sponsors or master black belt
Black bet or champions
Mater black belts or directors
27. Successful knowledge management would be LEAST likely to
employ:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Multiple transfer channels
Clear purpose and language
Parallel specialized tracks
Standardized flexible structure
28. If the objective in a firm is to build capabilities in maintaining and
improving performance, arrange the following items in increasing
levels of achievement.
I.
II.
III.
Knowledge
Organizational learning
Knowledge management
a.
b.
c.
d.
III, II, I
I, II, III
I, III, II
II, I, III
29. What is the typical length of training for a typical black belt program?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Four days
Four weeks
Four months
Four non-consecutive months
30. Coaching, guiding and mentoring for a typical Six Sigma project, in
a large corporation, will generally come from a :
8
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
Process owner
Black belt
Master Black Belt
Team leader
31. The defect levels, as reported by Motorola in their Six Sigma program,
are higher than one might expect from use of a standard normal
table or traditional capability calculations. Why is this true?
a. Motorola found their processes followed the exponential
distribution
b. Motorola allowed for failure on one tail only
c. Motorola allowed for a 1.5 sigma shift in the mean
d. Motorola found that six sigma increased process variation
32. Review the following assessment statements:
-
There is strong global competition
There is slow market growth
There are strict regulatory requirements
What SWOT analysis area is most clearly being described?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Strengths
Weaknesses
Opportunities
Threats
33. What three strategy elements does Harry include with traditional
DMAIC approach to Six Sigma?
a.
b.
c.
d.
R,S,I
R,I,S
S,I,C
S,P.P
34. Why has Six Sigma been successful in many organizations?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Bottom line results are enhanced
A+/- 1.5 sigma shift is included
A disciplined approach is used
A sound statistical approach is used
a. I, II and III only
9
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
b. I, III and IV only
c. I, II and IV only
d. II, III and IV only
35. The most frequent error made by top management, when dealing
with system variation is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Treating common causes as special causes
Considering all causes to be local causes
Recognizing that common causes require quick action
Treating special causes as common causes
36. The link across different media ( data bases, text data, video, audio,
etc) is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Data layer
User interface
Procession layer
Data repository
37. Using Six Sigma a company at 3.5 sigma would have a failure rate of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.4 ppm
233 ppm
1350 ppm
6210 ppm
38. A process flow chart is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
A map of the process
Very similar to a PERT diagram
Used only by managers
A way to detect non conformities
39. The most important success factor for Six Sigma deployment in the
company is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Education
Management support
Organizational infrastructure
Reward and recognition
40. Select the quality Guru who endorsed spreading the quality
improvement message by intensive education and training of people:
10
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
Philip Crosby
Juran
Dr. Ishikawa
Dr. Deming
41. Identify the quality guru who believed the best approach in quality
improvement is allocate individual responsibility and managing
projects as in financial processes
a.
b.
c.
d.
Dr. Ishikawa
Philip Crosby
Juran
Dr. Deming
42. The set of active processes that support a firm in creating,
assimilating, disseminating and applying its knowledge, it is referring
to:
a. Organizational memory
b. Tacit knowledge
c. Organizational learning
d. Knowledge management
43. One key concern for SWOT analysis is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Lack of planned change
Lack of objectivity
Market changing situations
Lack of experts to do the analysis
44. Which of the following is the more acceptable option for the
deployment of a Six Sigma Project?
a. Focus in cost savings
b. Focus in human personality problems
c. Focus in appearance improvement
d. Focus in accounting recording
45. A company with low performance in quality, productivity and
profitability is considering a Six Sigma initiative:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Smart, they could take low lying fruit
Unwise, they need to attend basic activities first
Smart, They need first make a process map
Smart, they need a Six Sigma structure
11
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
2. Business Process Management
1. When using the SIPOC model, any change in process outputs will be
related to one or more changes in:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
System inputs
Process inputs
Process actions
Customer actions
I and II only
I and IV only
I, II and III only
I, II, III and IV
2. How many defects per million opportunities would be reduced if a
company increased their Six Sigma capability from 4.5 to 5.4?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1402
1398
1350
1302
3. As an alternative to QFD, the plotting of items of customer importance
versus the customer’s corresponding satisfaction level, using a form of
Likert scale, would most appropriately be called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
A matrix diagram
A perceptual map
A cause-and-effect matrix
A correlation chart
4. A chart is constructed that has defect types on the X axis, customers on
the Y axis, and numbers of defects at the corresponding column and
row intersections is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
A matrix diagram
A correlation chart
A Pareto diagram
A cause and effect diagram
12
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
5. According to Juran, what the customer thinks he/she desires, would be
classified as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Stated needs
Real needs
Perceptive needs
Cultural needs
6. If a project requires and initial investment of $3,000 and yields returns of
$1,000 per year, the payback period (ignoring taxes and interest) is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
4 months
3 years
3.33 years
4 years
7. When considering stakeholder groups, which of the following terms is
most identified with the term “community”?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Society
Government
External customers
Suppliers
8. From either a stockholder, community or organizational standpoint any
American Company which has a VAE (value added per employee) of
$20,000 is not likely to survive. Why is this statement true?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Investors won’t buy the stock
Company overhead (administrative expense) is not being considered
The employee’s pay benefit exceed this amount
Most other companies attain $40,000 or more VAE
9. Listening to the customer, normally means:
a.
b.
c.
d.
The external customer
The intermediate user
The internal customer
The marketing department
10. The “next process is your customer” refers to:
a. “Do it right” for the next operation
b. Desire for better cooperation among departments
13
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
c. “Zero defects” for the next process
d. Process efficiency is very important
11. The QFD process can be described as a:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Financial metrics approach
Customer competitive assessment
Customer driven process
Technical results driven process
12. For a customer driven company with high quality and value, we need
to:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Know our customer
Analyze our service performance
Keep cost reduction programs going
Have strict rules and procedures that employees must follow
I and II only
II and III only
I and IV only
I, II, III and IV
13. The internal customer can be helped through a reduction of which
methods or practices?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Silo effect
Department competition
Using only staff specialists to provide expert device
Minimal communications between departments
I and II only
II, III and IV only
III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
14. If a company fails to meet their quarterly projected sales and profit
forecasts, which of the following stakeholders groups would be LEAST
effected?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Suppliers
Stockholders
Employees
Society
14
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
15. Customer segmentation may occur by:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
City, state
Random variation
Age, sex
Natural Selection
I and II only
I and III only
I, II and III only
I, III and IV only
16. Our surveys from customers, what do high customer satisfaction
numbers Not indicate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Customer Satisfaction
Customer service
Customer loyalty
Product quality satisfaction
17. One would say that, from a overall perspective, the activities of a
company are tied together by:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Customers
Stockholders
Suppliers
Process management
18. Complain cards are useful for the collection of problems. What could
be wrong with the cards?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Only 10% of the complaints are recorded
They are a source of trivial complains
They mean extra work to handle and process
They cost too much money to process
19. The advantages of a quality cost system would NOT include which of
the following items?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Aligns quality and company goals
Provides a prioritization system for the allocation of resources
Insures the resolution of specific quality problems
Provides a manageable overview of quality
15
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
20. The consumer market has all of the following characteristics EXPECT for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
A large number of customers
Detailed knowledge about the product
A simple purchase transaction
Small purchase amounts
21. In selecting base for measuring quality costs, which of the following
should be considered?
I. Is it sensitive to increases and decreases in production schedules?
II. Is it affected by mechanization and the resulting lower direct labor
costs?
III. In it affected by seasonal product sales?
IV. Is it oversensitive to material price fluctuations?
a.
b.
c.
d.
I and III only
I, III and IV only
I, II and III only
I, II, III and IV
22. The key difference between internal and external customers is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Their interest in the product or service
Internal customers can influence the design of the product
External customers usually influence the design of the product
External customers best determine the true quality of the product
23. Benchmarking of performance is:
a. Not applicable to most organizations because their processes are
unique
b. Infrequently used because each company needs to protect their
trade secrets
c. Ignored because of the perceived barriers to sharing internal
company information
d. Discouraged because of anti-trust laws
24. The balanced scorecard can be described as a method or process for
managers to use to focus on:
I.
II.
III.
Business performance metrics
Strategy management
Financial metrics
16
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
Stakeholder interests
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
II and IV only
25. Community or society quality benefits resulting from a business
enterprise would NOT include which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Safe products to use
Enhanced ability to pay taxes
Prestige and self-fulfillment
An expansion of job openings
26. A review of purchase orders for quality requirements falls into which one
of the following quality cost segments?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Prevention
Appraisal
Internal Failures
External failures
27. The life cycle of a customer includes all of the following steps EXCEPT:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Acquisition
Attrition
Reacquisition
Innovation
28. Benchmarking may be a key element for improvement? What could
possibly be wrong with it?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Benchmarking too many companies
Benchmarking too few companies
Just copying processes
Reducing creativity
29. Understanding, controlling and improving an organization’s processes
to create value for all stakeholders would be called:
a. The SIPOC diagram
b. Process performance metric
c. Business process management
17
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
d. The establishment of KPIVs and KPOVs
30. Market segmentation achieves:
a.
b.
c.
d.
A targeted homogeneous marketplace
Uniform marketing plans
Uniform product
Targeted subsets of the market
31. Benchmarking I normally undertaken by a company or organization for
the purpose of
I.
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Finding a leader in an area felt to be deficient
Developing methods of measuring performance
Identifying the gap between the present
performance
and
desired
I only
II only
II and III only
I, II and III
32. Focus groups can best be defined as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Small groups with a specific topic
A segmented group of suppliers
A segmented group of intermediate users
A pre-selected group of users
33. Which of the following is NOT a method for customer service data
collection?
a. Customer surveys
b. Internal surveys
c. Customer visits
d. Complaint analysis
34. Which level is not included in the Harry’s recommendation for business
process levels:
a. Business
b. Shareholder
c. Operations
d. Process
18
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
35. The relevant stakeholders not include the following:
a. Employees
b. Potential suppliers
c. Potential Competitors
d. Process owners
36. How do the companies measure the value of a customer?
a. Loyalty
b. Lifetime worth
c. Current volume contribution
d. Friendship
37. Sketch a Process Flow for a manufacturing company, indicating the
Main processes, the support processes and the Customer Oriented
Processes
38. Sketch a Process Approach Octopus for a service company
39. Sketch a Turtle diagram for a company process
40. Sketch a Turtle diagram for two ISO 9001:2000 mandatory procedures
19
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
3. Project Management
1. The Hawthorne studies conducted by Elton Mayo concluded that:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Increasing illumination would increase worker productivity
Workers responded favorably to humane treatment
The needs of management were not understood at the floor level
Group behavior is influenced by a relatively few floor level leaders
2. A project team has been functioning very well for about two months.
One member has suggested a different approach to solving the
problem they have been working on. The other members strongly
reject the idea. This example of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Mind think
Group think
Isolationism
Active-passive behavior
3. Which of the following might indicate that a team is having problems?
I. The team has increasing difficulty staying on the senior
management calendar for a progress briefing.
II. Training funds for the team members have been significantly cut
back
III. New ideas have stopped flowing into the team from individuals
outside the team
IV. Conflict among team members is increasing and becoming
unmanageable
a.
b.
c.
d.
IV only
II and IV only
I, II, III and IV
II, III and IV only
4. Identify two techniques useful for team facilitators when narrowing a
list of potential problem areas to investigate:
I. Brainstorming
II. Normal group
III. 4-M Diagram
IV. Multivoting
20
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
I and III only
II and IV only
I and IV only
II and III only
5. The primary purpose of rewards and recognition for teams and team
members, from an organizational management perspective, is:
I.
To document performance for the annual performance
evaluations
To monetarily compensate team members for the extra time and
effort that they put into team activities
To avoid having to pay team members overtime or to provide
compensatory time off the job
To reinforce desired behaviors and induce repetitions of those
behaviors in the future by the team members and others
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
I
II
III
IV
6. The key attribute for individual team members is:
I.
That they are able to work alternative work schedules to
accommodate team activities
That they believe in the value of teams in bringing more that one
brain to the process of problem solving
That they have extensive experience with organization and its
industry
That they understand the full scope of the problem at hand
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
I
II
III
IV
7. Which of the two following teams are likely to disband upon
completion of a specific job or application?
I.
II.
III.
Self directed
Project
Cross functional
21
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
IV.
Improvement
a. I and II only
b. I and III only
c. II and III only
d. III and IV only
8. One of a team’s most important early responsibilities to management
is to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Assess the suitability of the office spaces assigned the team
Set up a rewards procedure
Develop and refine the team’s objective
Attend the kickoff team meeting
9. Which of the following is NOT considered to be one of the new quality
management tools?
The answer A is the correct, incorrect choice
a. Scatter diagrams
b. PDPC charts
c. Tree diagrams
d. Matrix diagrams
10. A project has more than one critical path. This means that:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Crashing an event might shorten the project time
The critical path was nor calculated correctly
Delaying an event on a critical path may not delay the project
Shortening any one event cannot shorten the project duration
11. Which of the modern quality management tools could use 3” x 5”
cards or post-it-notes as part of the brainstorming or idea generation
stage?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Tree diagrams
Affinity diagrams
Matrix diagrams
Interrelationship diagraphs
Activity network diagrams
I, II and V only
I, III and IV only
II, IV and V only
I, II, IV and V only
22
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
12. Project documentation should ideally be done by:
A. Maintaining detail notes during the project and the converting this to
a formal written report after the project is completed
B. Getting the work done first, and the summarizing the events later
C. Distribution plans at the project start, status reports during, and the
final report at the end of the project
D. The project leader who issues the project proposal and final summary,
and the interim information available upon request
a.
b.
c.
d.
A
B
C
D
13. The arrow diagram has been converted and expanded in use as a
quality management tool. It is referred to as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Systematic diagram
Activity network diagram
Interrelationship diagraph
PDPC
14. One of the human dynamics that occurs within work teams is conflict.
What are the advantages of having some internal team conflict?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
It increases a team’s energy level
It minimizes the confidentiality issue
It offers diverse perspective for problem solution
It provides the opportunity for greater activity
I and II only
I, III and IV only
II, III and IV only
III and IV only
15. Divided member loyalties, having personal confrontations, thinking
individually, and learning team members roles are indicators that a
team is in which stage of its evolution’
a. Forming
b. Storming
23
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
c. Performing
d. Norming
16. New quality management tools are being used to help the problem
solving process. Which of the following tools provides a numeric
ranking of options?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Interrelationship diagraph
Affinity diagram
Activity network diagram
Prioritization matrices
17. Projects typically encounter conflicts in demand for the same
resources. One method which helps to minimize the effects of this
conflict is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Uniform allocation technique (UAT)
Peak smoothing
Reciprocal need adjustments
Resource Leveling
18. In company of moderate size, which of the following organizations
would be most repressive to the decision making ability of their
employers?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Horizontal
Vertical
Team based
Flat and wide
19. Which of the seven modern quality management tools use techniques
that incorporate a form of flow charting?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Tree diagrams, activity network diagrams and matrix diagrams
PDPC charts, tree diagrams, activity network diagrams
Affinity diagrams, tree diagrams, interrelationship diagraphs
Matrix diagrams, PDPC charts, tree diagrams
20. Types of communication within an organization encompass:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Downward and upward
Horizontal
Formal
Rumors
24
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
I and III only
II and IV only
I, II and III only
I, II, III and IV
21. What activities can a team facilitator or leader use to combat
digression and tangents within a work team?
I.
II.
III.
Use a written agenda
Direct the conversation back on track
Engage in a team group thinking activity
a. I and II only
b. I and III only
c. II and III only
d. I, II and III
22. What widely used organizational structure places conflicting demands
upon middle management and other specialists?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Vertical
Matrix
Geographic
Product
23. A team sponsor or champion typically:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Is a liaison between the team and upper management
Attends all team meeting
Directs the team on implementing solutions
Fulfills the facilitator role
24. The proper sizing of a team is:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Something that senior management should determine as a part of
the team charter
Best based upon including representatives of all those parties
affected by the problem
A straightforward management decision
A complex balancing of considerations of inclusion and
manageability
a. I
b. II
25
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
c. III
d. IV
25. Elements of team member diversity, which often impact a team’s
makeup and performance, include which of the following?
I.
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Member skills and viewpoints
Member thinking styles (left brain; right brain)
Member temperaments and personalities
I only
II only
I and III only
I, II and III only
26. What is a major distinction between the CPM and PERT methods in the
evaluation of project performance?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Only the PERT method can be displayed on a Gantt chart
The PERT technique allow for easier crashing of project time
The PERT technique permits network relationship but CPM does not
The PERT technique is event oriented, while CPM is activity centered
27. It is noted that the involvement and participation of which of the
following team roles expands and increases over time?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Team members
Facilitator
Sponsor
Leader
28. Team briefing presentations to senior management should include
which of the following considerations?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
The time of senior management is scarce and valuable
Every member of the team should have a speaking/briefing role
Identify the problem and the proposed action desired from the
briefing
Address known “hot button” and sensitivities
Handouts should require that somebody contact the author(s) to
explain what they say
a. I, III, IV and V only
26
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
b. II, IV and V only
c. I, II, III, IV and V
d. I, III and IV only
29. When developing the potential for win-win agreements, what strategy
sequence is most appropriate?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Verify areas of agreement
Resolve any differences
Confirm each party’s goals
Consider alternate solutions
III, IV, I, II
I, III, IV, II
I, III, II, IV
III, I, IV, II
30. A team charter should include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Operating scope
b. Purpose
c. Objectives
d. Cost
Answer D is the correct incorrect choice
31. Project management usually contains a phase known as the
statement of work. The best description of this activity includes which
of the following?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The start and end dates of project as well as major milestones
An expansion of the project objectives
Additional specification detail including the required input data
and deliverable items.
A plan which includes a detailed listing of those activities
necessary to complete the project
I and II only
II and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
32. Which of the following statements are advantages of the matrix
organization versus a hierarchical organization?
27
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
I.
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
Works better in a project focused environment
Provides clearer lines of authority
Promotes the easy formation and use of teams
I only
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
33. The fundamental purpose of establishing teams is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Provide team members a form of job enrichment and broadening
Improve the internal efficiencies of the organization
Teach team members new problem solving skills
To avoid spending money on outside consultants
34. During a project work breakdown structure, a number of planning
activities occur. Which of the following items is NOT include?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The project objective is defined
The work is divided into smaller activities
The interrelationship between activities is defined
The project schedule is established
35. Assume that you are developing a project schedule and want to
simplify the charting process. List the following techniques in order of
complexity from less complex to most complex.
I.
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
CPM
Gantt
Pert
I, II, III
I, III, II
II, III, I
III, II, I
36. The slack time along a critical project path:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Is the difference between the earliest and the latest start dates
Is equal to the “crash” time
Is neither less than nor greater than zero
Is the highest risk area
28
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
37. Effective communications support which of the following?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Business objectives
The strategic plan
Product requirements
Customer requirements
Corporate requirements
I, IV and V only
I, II, III and IV only
II, III, IV and V only
I, II, III, IV and V
38. Project management is summarized as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Vision, plan and implement
Goals, objectives and measurement
Designing, engineering and manufacturing
Planning, scheduling and controlling
39. In a project network, if he earliest an event can take place is week 45,
the most likely time it will take place is week 49 and the latest it can
take place without delaying the project completion is week 51, What
is the even slack time?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2 weeks
4 weeks
6 weeks
Cannot be determined from the above information
40. Team empowerment derives from:
I.
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
he organizational management
Access to organizational information
Access granted to organizational resources
I only
II and III only
I and III only
I, II and III
41. Valid reasons for removing a team member from a team include:
29
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
Personality conflicts
Lack of skills by the member
Member poor attendance record for team meetings
Member work load for their activities
II and IV only
I, III and IV only
II and III only
I, II, III and IV
42. In order for a team to understand and anticipate the resistance than
that other members of the organization may have for a proposed
recommendation, what team tool would be most useful?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Multivoting
Groupthink
Force field analysis
Nominal group think
43. Consider the following network, with events marked within the circles
and durations un weeks:
2
3
1
5
4
1
1
3
2
2
8
3
6
3
9
1
5
4
1
2
10
1
7
3
The critical path is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1-3-6-8-10
1-3-6-9-10
1-4-6-8-10
1-4-6-9-10
44. Prior to participating on a team, each team member should:
a. Be trained in problem solving techniques
b. Have undertaken a study of group dynamics
c. Have participated in a team motivation seminar
30
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
d. Have a knowledge of the team’s intended purpose
45. Planning for feedback by the project leader during a project should
address:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The method of reporting
What is to be communicated
When reports are to be made
Project milestones
I, II and III only
II and III only
I and IV only
I, II, III and IV
46. The change agent is a person or group that acts as the catalyst and
assumes the responsibility for managing the change process., Change
agents ca be internal or external to the organization. Which of the
following are advantages of internal change agents?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
They possess a broader knowledge of the company
They are more objective and technically prepared
They generally have more control and authority
They have more diverse experiences and networking resources
I and III only
II and IV only
I, II and III only
I, II, III and IV
47. Which of the following is NOT a primary reason for periodic projects
reviews?
a.
b.
c.
d.
To highlight the project team’s effort
To update goal achievement
To review the schedule
To review the costs
48. Change agents ( the person or group that acts as the catalyst and
assumes responsibility for managing the change process) may be
internal or external. Which of the following may be disadvantages of
sing internal change agents?
I.
They may be part of the problem
31
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
They may be not have diverse knowledge
They may be biased or too close to the problem
I and III only
I, II and III only
I, II and IV only
I and IV only
49. Which groups of employees in the organization have the most to lose
by employee involvement efforts?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Top management
Middle management
Supporting staff functions
Operators
50. The normal order of the stages of a team’s development are often
referred to as?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Forming, norming, storming, performing
Develop, build, optimize
Forming, storming, norming and performing
Forming, building, optimizing and performing
51. When selecting potential team members, it is important that
candidates:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Are from the same work group
Are at the same level within the organization
Can discontinue their normal duties while participating on the team
Have a reason to work together
52. Reluctance of a line manager to release manpower or resources to a
project manager is one type of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Matrix management
Objective management
Organizational roadblock
Harmonization of responsibility and authority
53. When a team finds itself divided into two groups and they have
reached an impasse on a solution, then:
a. The team leader should disband the team
32
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
b. The facilitator should guide the team through the process
c. The sergeant at arms should ask one group to excuse themselves
d. The team should split and have each group work on solutions
54. Methods to overcome employee resistance to change include:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Mandating the change
Negotiating the conditions of the change
Providing training on the charge
Involvement with the change project
I, II and III only
I, II and IV only
I, III and IV only
II, III and IV only
55. Please arrange the following quality management techniques in
sequential order from least complex to most complex. The complexity
involves both the ease of use and the amount of subject familiarity,
necessary for effectiveness.
1.- Affinity diagram
2.- Tree diagram
3.- Matrix diagram
4.- Prioritization matrix
a.
b.
c.
d.
1, 2, 3, 4
2, 1, 4, 3
3, 1, 2, 4
1, 3, 2, 4
56. The resources available for a team to use is determined by the:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Facilitator
Team leader
Team members
Team sponsor
57. A manager who directs two subordinates to work out a problem is
displaying which of the following conflict resolution tactics?
a. Avoidance
b. Compromise
c. Competing
33
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
d. Collaboration
58. Which of the seven new quality management tools can be useful in
organizing facts about an unfamiliar subject?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The affinity diagram
The process decision program chart (PDPC)
The matrix diagram
The prioritization matrix
I only
I and II only
I, II and III only
I, II, III and IV
59. The primary purpose of rewards and recognition for team members
from an organizational management perspective is:
I.
To document performance for the annual performance
evaluations
To monetarily compensate team member for the extra time and
effort that they put into team activities
To avoid having to pay team embers overtime or to provide
compensatory time off the job
The reinforce desired behaviors and induce repetitions of those
behaviors in the future by the team members and others
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
I
II
III
IV
60. What team role is most likely to define objectives for a team?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Leader
Sponsor
Facilitator
Member
34
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
61. For many of the new quality management tools the typical strength
relationship symbols are illustrated via:
A.
+ - o
B.
O 

C.
 - +
D.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A
B
C
D
62. Identify two techniques useful for team facilitators when narrowing a
list of potential problem areas to investigate:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Brainstorming
Normal Group Technique
4-M Diagram
Multivoting
I and III only
II and IV only
I and IV only
II and III only
63. The use of Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) requires:
a.
b.
c.
d.
The critical path to be known in advance
Slack times to be added to the critical path
Time estimates for each activity in the network
Less data than a Gant Chart
64. The elements of project management are:
I.
II.
III.
Objectives
Planning
Scheduling
35
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
Controling
I, II and III only
I, II and IV only
I, III and IV only
II, III and IV only
65. The critical path in a project means that:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The project is important to the profits of the organization
Slack times con be used to delay the ending date of the project
Events on this path have no slack time
Delays of events on this path delay ending date of the project
I and IV only
II and IV only
III and IV only
II, III and IV only
66. Advantages of computer software driven project management
methods include:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ability to analyze “what-if” options
Automatic calculation of the critical path
The effects of actual results on the project are known
Training requirements are minimal
I, II and III only
II, III and IV only
II and III only
I, II, III and IV
67. Which of the following is NOT a team leader role?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Conducts meetings
Schedules the nest meeting
Acts as a liaison with management
Distributes meeting minutes
68. A skilled facilitator will:
I.
II.
III.
Intervene when process ceases
Correct the group when their ideas are wrong
Take sides when one side is correct
36
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
Make sure all options are heard
I and III only
II and IV only
I and IV only
I, II, III and IV
69. Good team members:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Provide valid excuses when they miss a meeting
Don’t argue with the team, when it is wrong
Encourage participation by other team members
Withhold unpopular information from the team
70. Which of the following describes poorly functioning teams?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Members act independently without interdependency
Objectives are realistically set and met
Team members have covert agendas
Team members listen to what is being said
I, II and IV only
II and IV only
II, III and IV only
I and III only
71. An accommodating
appropriate when:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
approach
to
conflict
resolution
is
most
One party is wrong
The issue is much more important to one party
Both views as seen as important
An integrated solution is desired
I and II only
II and III only
I and IV only
II and IV only
72. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the effort/impact
approach to consensus problem resolution?
a. All team members must participate
b. Objective data must obtained
37
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
c. It takes longer to reach a decision
d. It presents the alternatives in a format that cannot be contested
73. When giving instructions to those who will perform a task, the
communication process is completed:
a. When the worker goes to his work station to do the task
b. When person giving the instruction has finished talking
c. When the worker acknowledges these instructions by describing how
he/she will perform the task
d. When the worker says that he/she understands the instructions
74. The matrix diagram is used to show the relationship between 2
variables. Matrices can be developed in several ways. Which one
illustrates relationships in three planes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
L-type
T-type
C-type
Y-type
75. Please arrange the following modern quality management tools in
order of decreasing complexity. Consider that the complexity involves
both the ease of use and the amount of subject familiarity necessary
for effective use.
1.
2.
3.
4.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Priority matrix
Matrix diagrams
Tree diagram
Affinity diagram
4, 3, 2, 1
1, 2, 3, 4
2, 4, 3, 1
2, 1, 3, 4
38
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
4. Six Sigma – Define
1. Using the DMAIC approach to process improvement, approximately
what percent of time should be spent by the team in the define and
measure stages?
a.
b.
c.
d.
15%
30%
50%
65%
2. If a project charter was found to lack company impact measurement,
what is missing in most situation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The importance of the improvement team to the company
Non use of the SIPOC diagram
Customer satisfaction improvement
Financial impact or cost saving
3. What is the best definition of RTY?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Significant differences in individuals yields
The drop in yield at the worst process step
The cumulative calculation of yield through multiple steps
The total yield output of multiple processes
4. Six sigma project improvement teams would be the LEAST likely to be
assigned to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
An area in great need of improvement
A major new equipment installation
A major source of customer complains
An area requiring internal cost reduction
5. Stakeholders that could help define a project charter include:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Customers
Suppliers
Management
Benchmark results
a. I and II only
39
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
b. I and III only
c. I, II and III only
d. I, II, III and IV
6. The principle purpose of project milestones is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Keeping the project on track
Assuring management that the project team is busy
Accumulating information for the final report
Rewarding the team with a management presentation
7. A critically based Pareto analysis would most likely focus on:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Internal scrap categories
Potential safety risks
Both real and potential economic losses
Occurrences of customer complaints
I, II and III only
II, III and IV only
II and III only
I, II and IV only
8. If an improvement team were to investigate their customer base by
moving from general to more specific customer needs, what
technique would be employed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pareto analysis
Kano model
CTQ tree
Affinity diagram
9. The business case portion of a project charter would be likely to
contain:
a.
b.
c.
d.
A summary of the strategic reasons for the project
A problem or goal statement
The resources available to the project team
The boundaries of the project team
10. The composition of a team for a very critical Six Sigma project should
include:
I.
Highly qualified personnel
40
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
Very interested personnel
Highly trained personnel
Immediately available personnel
I and III only
II and III only
I, II and III only
I, II, III and IV
11. What is the main disadvantage of presenting a team with an initial
project lasting more than 160 days?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Excessive costs
A lowered expectation of success
Too much time away from regular duties
The possibility that the team will expand the project boundaries
12. Identify the secondary or consequential customer metrics from the list
below:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Conformance quality
Defect per unit (DPU)
Color range
Average age of receivables
Technical support
II and IV only
I, III and V only
I, II and IV only
I, II, III, IV and V
13. In addition to detail of the issue that the team wants to improve, the
problem statement should contain:
a.
b.
c.
d.
The critical to quality tree
A reference to a baseline measurement
An identification of team composition
Any other pertinent steps in the define step
14. Using Kano analysis, what would be considered a latent requirement?
I.
II.
III.
A basic requirement
A variable requirement
A delighter
41
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
IV.
A satisfier
a.
b.
c.
d.
I only
II and III only
III only
II and IV only
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
15. If you are reading this question you are a customer of QCI. Identify
QCI process output elements from the list below:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
VI.
VII.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Binder suppliers
Solution texts
Authors
Paper suppliers
Libraries
Question CDs
Study Primers
II, IV and VII only
I and IV only
III and V only
II, III and VII only
16. A problem statement identifies:
a.
b.
c.
d.
The boundaries of the project
The composition of the improvement team
The issue that the project team wants to improve
The strategic reasons for the project
17. There are five fabricating operations that can be performed in any
sequence. Four of the operations yield 98% recovery and one yields
80% recovery. What is the preferred production sequence, assuming
that the 80% operation cannot be immediately improve?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Place the 80% operation first
Place the 80% operation in the middle
Place the 80% operation last
It doesn’t matter, the RTY is the same
18. Arrange the following CTQ elements in appropriate time sequence
from start to finish.
I.
Add additional levels as needed
42
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
II.
III.
IV.
V.
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
Identify the customer’s needs
Identify the customers
Validate the requirements with the customer
Identify the customer’s basic requirements
III, II, IV, V, I
II, III, IV I, V
II, III, V, IV, I
III, II, V, I, IV
19. Which of the following is NOT a primary reason for periodic project
reviews?
a.
b.
c.
d.
To highlight the project team’s effort
To update goal achievement
To review the schedule
To review the costs
20. Project typically encounter conflicts in demand for the same
resources. One method which helps to minimize the effects of this
conflict is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Uniform allocation technique (UAT)
Peak smoothing
Reciprocal need adjustments
Resource leveling
21. Which of the following might indicate that a team is having problems?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The team has increasing difficulty staying on the senior
management calendar for progress briefing
Training funds for the team members have been significantly cut
back
New ideas have stopped following into the team from the
individuals outside the team
Conflict among team members is increasing and becoming more
unmanageable
IV only
II and IV only
I, II, III and IV
II, III and IV only
43
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
22. The boundaries of a project are contained in the:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Problem statement
Project scope
Goal statement
Resources required
23. In the preparation of a project, efforts should be made to identify
and involve various parties affected by the planned changes. These
other parties are known as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Process owners
Champions
Team leaders
Stakeholders
24. The purpose of “rolled throughput yield” in the Six Sigma define step
would NOT be to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Spot significant differences in yield
Provide a baseline metric
Use the calculation for customer analysis
Analyze a process flow for improvement ideas
25. The Pareto chart is a widely used quality tool. The principles of Pareto
analysis have been used in many projects. Which of the following
statements is an inappropriate application of a Pareto chart?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A frequency based ranking of categories
An alphabetic based ranking of categories
A critically weighted ranking of categories
A financially weighted ranking of categories
26. A new customer satisfaction tool known as the Kano model is used for
analyzing customer requirements. Which of the following are NOT
considered a Kano Model category?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Moments of truth
Dissatisfiers
Delighters
Satisfiers
44
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
27. Identify those measurements from the list below that do NOT directly
reflect a dimension of product quality?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Price
Delivery speed
Reliability of delivery
Technical support
I only
II and III only
II and IV only
I, II, III and IV
28. In Six Sigma define step, the critical to quality tree is used by the
project team. The various levels of the tree are determined EXCEPT for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
The exact metrics for the customer
The needs of the customer
The basic drivers for the customer
The potential third level CTQ metrics
29. The project charter will contain a business case, which can be
defined as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
A reasoning for the redesign of a process or product
The full arguments for the project
A short summary of the strategic reason for the project
A case study of the project situation
30. Potentially, the most difficult area to obtain meaningful information,
during the Six Sigma define phase would be:
a.
b.
c.
d.
From internal manufacturing
From primary customers
From principal suppliers
From internal process input areas
45
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
31. In the construction of the Pareto Chart for the number of defects in a
book binding operation, four categories of defects were recorded, as
identified in the following table:
Emulsion
65
Grease
15
Sewing
20
Other
30
-
The correct conventional listing for the Pareto Chart categories from
left to right would be:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Emulsion, other, sewing and grease
Grease, sewing, other and Emulsion
Grease, sewing, Emulsion and other
Emulsion, sewing, grease and other
32. The composition of a team for a typical Six Sigma project should:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Be composed of interested floor operators and area staff
Consist of qualified people with the expertise needed
Consist of a cross-functional blend people from various departments
Consists of Green belts, at the very least
33. The acquisition of customer data is essential to understanding
customer wants and needs. Customer surveys can provide very
valuable information for the organization. A major flaw with customer
data from unhappy customer would be:
a.
b.
c.
d.
An insufficient customer sample size
Getting information from unintended end users
Collection only data from happy users
Sales not responding to the data
46
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
34. The project charter will be useful in many ways, including:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Providing a consistent target for the team
Permitting the team leader to develop milestones from it
Assuring the champion will assign responsible team members
Ensuring team members will support the charter
35. As it relates to the delivery of a meal, what would the topics of speed,
price and good taste represent?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
General needs
CTQ areas
Quality drivers
Specific needs
I and II only
II and IV only
II and III only
III and IV only
36. Identify the techniques which may be used by
improvement teams to define an improvement project.
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Six
Sigma
SIPOC
DMAIC
RTY
VOC
I, II and III only
I, III and IV only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
37. Which of the following is the LEAST likely element to be contained un
a project charter?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Identification of the team members
The role of the team members
The quality and type of resources provided
The project scope
47
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
38. The basic dimensions of quality as outlined by a number of quality
authorities would include:
I.
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Durability
Aesthetics
Value-added
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
39. A project charter is essential for the team to develop because:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The team will be focused on the appropriate problem
The solution will be aligned towards the organization’s goals
The team champion will be supportive
The carter provides a complete history of the project
I and II only
I and III only
I, II and III only
I, II, III and IV
40. The Kano model is used to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Measure supplier performance
Analyze customer requirements
Describe takt time
Calculate rolled throughput time
41. A commonly reported problem associated with Six Sigma projects
deals with:
a.
b.
c.
d.
A failure to complete any project charter documentation
A desire to complete projects on time
A requirement that projects must be at least $ 100 000 in value
A lack of business impact for any company
42. The business case portion of a project charter would be likely to
contain:
a. A summary of the strategic reasons for the project
b. A problem or goal statement
48
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
c. The resources available to the project team
d. The boundaries of the project team
43. The SIPOC process map stands for suppliers, inputs, process, outputs
and customer. It provides a view of the process that contains
approximately how many steps?
a.
b.
c.
d.
21-41 steps
16-20 steps
8-15 steps
4-7 steps
44. The RTY calculation for the following process would be:
Step A
Step B
A.
YA  YB  YC  YD
B.
(YA )(YB )(YC )(YD )
Step C
 YA  YB  YC  YD 
4
4


C. 
D.
1
1
1
1



YA YB YC YD
a.
b.
c.
d.
A
B
C
D
49
Step D
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
45. A team has undertaken a project to reduce scrap for a particular
defect from 6% to 2%. However, recent data indicates that the scrap
rate is really closer to 7.5%. What action steps should the team now
take?
I.
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Accumulate sufficient information to confirm the 7.5% rate
Abandon the project because the reduction to 2% is now unlikely
Modify the project statement with the best available statement
changes
II and IV only
I and IV only
I, III and IV only
III and IV only
46. What is the main disadvantage of presenting a team with an initial
project lasting more than 160 days?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Excessive costs
A lowered expectation of success
Too much time away from regular duties
The possibility that the team will expand the project boundaries
47. Resistance to change resulting from an improvement project can
cause failures. The project team might consider development of a
plan to handle stakeholders. This plan is most likely to be termed:
a.
b.
c.
d.
A communications plan
A resistance plan
A PERT chart
A Gantt chart
48. A matrix, developed during the Six Sigma define stage that plots
levels of commitment versus key stakeholders is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
A responsibility communications chart
A compliant/support chart
A SCIUOH chart
A current position chart
49. Affinity diagrams are useful tools to help analyze and solve what
type(s) of problems:
I.
Unfamiliar problems
50
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
Structured problems
Mathematical models
I only
II only
II and III only
I, II and III
50. Which of the following items is the LEAST likely candidate to assist the
problem definition stage of Six Sigma?
a.
b.
c.
d.
SIPOC diagrams
Pareto Analysis
Product yield data
Pre-control technique
51. The principle purpose of project milestones is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Keeping the project on track
Assuring management that the project team is busy
Accumulating information for the final report
Rewarding the team with a management presentation
52. In addition to Pareto analysis by defect occurrence, other Pareto
assessments can be made. Which of the following is LEAST likely?
a.
b.
c.
d.
An alphabetic matrix below
A weighting by customer criticality
An arrangement based on financial impact
An analysis of two or more time periods
53. A project team is formed to solve a distribution problem; the team
members are position; the stakeholders are identified; the customer
of the project must be determined. The customer of the project is
NOT likely to be which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Stockholder
End user
Process owner
External customer
54. The target length of an initial project should be approximately:
a. 60 days
51
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
b. 90 days
c. 120 days
d. 180 days
55. A critical to quality (CTQ) tree can be of value to the Six Sigma
project team. It can translate customer requirements to quantified
requirements. This will allow the organization to focus on a problem.
An example of a quantified requirement for a mail order publishing
house is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cycle time to print a book
Inexpensive pricing for a book
The weigh of a book not to exceed 3 pounds
Exceptional copy quality
56. What is the best definition of RTY?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Significant differences in individual yields
The drop in yield at the worst process step
The cumulative of yield through multiple steps
The total yield output of multiple processes
57. In order to assist a team in selection an improvement project, which
of the following tools would be LEAST helpful?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The SIPOC high level process map
The DMAIC process
Pareto analysis of defect levels
The determination of RTY for major processes
58. How many of the following items should be known at the end of the
define phase?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The key process(es) involved in the project
The importance of the project
The goals of the project
The scope of the project
I, II and III only
I, III and IV only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
52
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
59. The process map known as SIPOC provides team members an
understanding of the process. It is a view of the process take at:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Floor level
A very high level
The customer’s perspective
A very detailed level
60. Understanding customer needs is a constant requirements for
organizations. Customer data and information is often collected in
various amounts. The organization should resolve to:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Use more proactive approaches
Focus on improvement plans
Identify customer satisfaction drivers
Sort out the unneeded customer data
I only
II and III only
I, II and III only
I, II, III and IV
61. A breakdown of CTQ requirements is accomplished using a diagram
as depicted below:
What is the CTQ structure called?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A CTQ flow diagram
A CTQ tree diagram
A CTQ Gantt chart
A CTQ work breakdown
53
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
62. Which of the following scenarios would be LEAST likely to follow the
Pareto principle:
a.
b.
c.
d.
20% of the operators produce 80% of the product
20% of the machines will produce 80% of the defects
20% of the customers will lodge 80% of complaints
80% of complaints will fall in 20% of the defect categories
63. Six Sigma project methodology normally begins with what initial step?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Problem definition
Define
Project charter
Champion approval
64. It has been observed that some of the initial companies that
undertook Six Sigma did not have a define phase in the classical
DMAIC approach. What was their logic for this omission?
a. They did not think the define phase to be important
b. They assumed upper management would have projects already
defined
c. They incorporated the define phase into the measure phase
d. They believed that a project could never be defined until it had been
investigated
65. The Kano Model is an indicator of customer satisfaction. It is quite
useful to help the organization understand the appropriate customer
satisfaction level. The organization should be aware that the Kano
Model can NOT:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Analyze customer needs and requirements
Determine the basic satisfier for the customer
Meet the latent requirements of the customers
Determine when the customer’s expectations have risen
66. Using the Kano Model, improvement teams most often select
improvement projects from among which of the following customer
need categories?
I.
II.
III.
Satisfiers
Dissatisfiers
Delighters
54
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
I only
I and II only
I and III only
I, II and III
67. Ideally, customer feedback should satisfy organization needs such as:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Identifying customer requirements
Fulfilling ISO 9000 requirements
Spotting upcoming trends
Having data for analysis
I only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, III and IV
55
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
5. Six Sigma - Measure
1. Identify the distribution that has a mean equal to the variance
a.
b.
c.
d.
Poisson
Weibull
Exponential
Chi-square
2. A histogram is also know as:
I.
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A cumulative frequency graph
A relative frequency graph
A population distribution function
I only
II only
II and III only
I, II and III
3. In the measurement of the distance between two points, which of
the following factors is LEAST likely to be influenced by the person
making the measurement?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Precision of measurement
Accuracy of measurement
Calibration of the measurement instrument
True distance between the two points
4. Given the data below is normally distributed and the population
standard deviation is 3.1, what is the 90% confidence interval for the
mean?
- 22, 23, 19, 17, 29, 25
a.
b.
c.
d.
20.88 - 24.12
20.42 - 24.59
21.65 - 23.35
17.4 - 27.6
5. Which of the following statements regarding process flow charts
is/are accurate?
I.
There can be multiple paths through the flowchart
56
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
There can only be a single process flow start point
Flow charts can have parallel processes
A flow chart can have multiple end points
I and III only
I, II and IV only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV only
6. All of the factors that might be contributing to a production problem
must be discovered. Which of the following problem-solving tools
would be the best selection?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pareto diagrams
Fishbone diagrams
Histograms
Control charts
7. Which of the following is an example of variable data?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Paint chips per unit
Tension on fan belts
Percent of defective units in a lot
Audit points
8. A process that is normally distributed will have which of the following
characteristics?
a.
b.
c.
d.
It is predictable
It is bimodal
It is skewed
It is truncated
9. Which of the following distributions has a domain of x, greater than or
equal to zero?
I.
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Lognormal
Weibull
Exponential
I only
II and III only
I and III only
I, II and III
57
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
10. Identify the data conversion that would be MOST difficult to
accomplish
a.
b.
c.
d.
Attribute data converted to variables data
Variables data converted to attribute data
Accumulated go/no go data converted to variables data
Variables data converted to go/no go data
11. Regardless of the distribution of the individuals, the distribution of the
average of n samples will follow which distribution as n becomes
large?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Normal
Poisson
Exponential
Lognormal
12. Given the data bellow, what is the 90% confidence interval for the
variance?
- 12, 13, 9, 7, 19, 15
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.21 - 99.07
15.32 - 28.66
8.27 - 79.88
16.87 - 56.52
13. The data from an R&R study will determine which of the following?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Accuracy
Reproducibility
Process variation
Repeatability
Sensitivity
I, II and III only
II, III and IV only
III, IV and V only
I, IV and V only
14. The typical responsibilities of a calibration department would include
which of the following?
I.
II.
Ensuring traceability of all calibrations to a standard laboratory
Maintaining an adequate record system
58
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
Suspending measuring equipment from use when conditions
warrant
Identifying equipment with a level indicating calibration status
I, II and III only
I, II ad IV only
I, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
15. Measuring and test equipment are normally calibrated to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Comply with federal regulations
Determine and/or assure their precision
Determine and/or assure their accuracy
Check the validity of reference standards
16. The equation below represents the:
 1  ln x   2 
f ( x) 
exp  
 
X 2
 2    
1
a.
b.
c.
d.
Lognormal probability density function
Normal probability density function
Exponential probability density function
Weibull probability density function
17. Two advantages of process mapping are the ability to:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Visualize the process being described
Discover manufacturing problems only
Solve quality problems quickly
Check current processes for duplication or redundancy
I and IV only
II and III only
I and III only
II and IV only
59
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
18. Pallets of product are staged in a warehouse prior to shipment. There
are indications
that container damage
is
occurring
disproportionately at aisle and row end locations. The best method
of data collection to confirm this theory would be:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Random sampling
Sequential sampling
Skip-lot sampling
Stratified sampling
19. Select the incorrect statement from among the following. The Ids of
a certain piece of tubing are normally distributed with mean 1.00”.
The proportion of tubing with Ids less than 0.90 is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Less than the proportion of Ids greater than 0.90”
Less than 50 percent
Less than the proportion with IDs greater than 1.10”
Less than the proportion with Ids greater than 1.00”
20. Which of the following is NOT a statistical level of measurement?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ordinal
Nominal
Numerical
Ratio
21. The diameter of a population of ball bearings is normally distributed
with a mean of 75 and a standard deviation of 8. What is the
probability of the average diameter of 10 randomly selected ball
bearings being greater than 77?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0.3751
0.4013
0.2146
0.0210
22. When calibration is being performed on a measuring device and no
applicable national reference standard exist, then an acceptable
alternative is to:
a. Create the standard based on 10 readings from each of 3
technicians
b. Petition NIST to establish a standard for the device
60
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
c. Document the method of establishing and maintaining the standard
used
d. Indicate in the device calibration records “Calibration Not Required”
23. The major advantage of process mapping is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Presenting a topological representation of the situation
Capturing all process variables in a compact matrix
Defining the likely source of the defects
Visualizing the process being described
24. Which of the following is a discrete probability distribution?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Exponential
Poisson
Binomial
Lognormal
I and II only
II and III only
I and IV only
III and IV only
25. Given the following information:
-
Probability of 1 or more defects = .69
Probability of 2 or more defects = .34
Probability of 3 or more defects = .12
Probability of 4 or more defects = .03
-
What is the probability of 2 or fewer defects?
a.
b.
c.
d.
.34
.69
.46
.88
26. Use this data for the following question.
- Raw data: 307, 309, 310, 315, 309, 310
- Coded data: 7, 9, 10, 15, 9, 10
What is X bar?
61
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
10
12
310
312
27. If the specifications for a process are unknown but the standard
deviation of the process is known to be1.0, which of the following
can NOT be determinate?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
CR
CP
PR
PP
I and II only
I and III only
III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
28. When selecting an audit sample size, which of the following rules
should govern your choice?
A. Since quality may change over time, we should look at a fixed
quantity each time period for audit purposes
B. We need only a very small sample for audit purposes, as long as it is
chosen at random
C. Any size sample if randomly selected can be suitable for audit
purposes, since we are not directly performing lot acceptance or
rejection
D. ANSI/ASQ Z 1.4 is a scientific sampling procedure and we need
scientific sampling for audit purposes
a.
b.
c.
d.
A
B
C
D
29. The purpose of using a fishbone diagram is to:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Separate a problem into smaller components
Define the problem in a sequential order
Show how various causes interact
Display many possible causes in a graphical manner
62
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
I, II and III only
II, III and IV only
I, III and IV only
I, II and IV only
30. Historically, the number of flaws in the finish of surface has an
average of 0.45. What is the probability of a randomly selected item
having more than 1 defect in the surface finish?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0.0755
0.2869
0.6376
0.3624
31. Which of the following statements is (are) NOT true?
I.
II.
III.
The number of combinations is always greater than or equal to the
number of permutations
The number of combinations is independent of order
The equation below is used to compute the number of
combinations
Crn 
a.
b.
c.
d.
n!
r!(n  r )!
I only
II only
II and III only
I and II only
32. Identify the three types of checksheets commonly used to record
counted, measured and locational data:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
Measles Charts
Attribute lists
Recording checksheets
Checklists
Variable Lists
a. I, III and IV only
b. II, III and IV only
c. III, IV and V only
63
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
d. II, III and V only
33. A process is centered and the Cp is 0.8. This indicates that the
specification range is what % of the process width?
a.
b.
c.
d.
125%
80%
at least 100%
120%
34. Which of the following are applications of flowcharts?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Discrete assembly or machining steps
Continuous processes such as liquid handling
Office and non-technical processes
Auditing of quality systems
I, II and III only
I, III and IV only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
35. When would Cp equal Cpk in a capability index calculation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
When the standard deviation is low
When the specification limits are wide
When CP = PP
When the process is perfectly centered
36. A process calls for the mean value of a dimension to be 2.02”. Which
of the following should be used as the null hypothesis to test whether
or not process is achieving this mean?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The mean of the population is 2.02”
The mean of the sample is 2.02”
The mean of the population is not 2.02”
The mean of the sample is not 2.02”
37. One use of recording checksheets is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Automated charting of variable data
Collecting tally counts of attribute data
Identification of process variables
Creating a process map
64
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
38. If it is suspected that a process requiring a process capability
determination is not a normal process but appears to be stable. The
least desirable action to take, at this point would be to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Advise the customer and request specification changes
Reduce variation to the point that it doesn’t matter
Transform the data to that of a normal distribution
Test the normality assumption using a chi-square test
39. A basic requirement of most gage calibration system specifications is:
A. All inspection equipment must be calibrated with master gage blocks
B. Gages must be color coded for identification
C. Equipment must be labeled or coded to indicate date calibrated, by
whom, and date for next calibration
D. Gages must be identified with a tool number
a.
b.
c.
d.
A
B
C
D
40. A capability study, conducted during a pilot run of 100 units ,
indicated that the Cpk upper value to be 1.8 while the Cpk lower
value was 0.90. The customer requires a Cpk minimum value of 1.25.
What action should be taken?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Center the process
Reduce variability
Renegotiate the customer specification
100% inspect until new equipment is available
41. A histogram is used to plot the number of voids found versus the
weight of a plastic injection molded part. We would expected the
shape of the distribution to be:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Normally distributed
Binomially distributed
A decreasing slope
Bimodal
42. The confidence interval for population variance is:
65
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
Based on the F distribution and the square root of n
Equal to the confidence interval for the population mean
A function of n-1 and the chi-square distribution
Asymptotic to a lower boundary of 0 as n approaches infinity
43. If, in a t-test, alpha is .05 Therefore:
a. 5% of the time we will say that there is no real difference, but in reality
there is a difference
b. 5% of the time we will say that there is a real difference when there
really is not a difference
c. 95% of the time we will make an incorrect inference
d. 95% Of the time the null hypothesis will be correct
44. The distribution which has a mean equal to the standard deviation is
the:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Poisson
Exponential
Weibull
Raleigh
45. Recognizing the nature of process variability, the process capability
target is usually:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Looser than product specifications
The same as product specifications
Tighter than product specifications
Not related to product specifications
46. Which of the following are exclusively variable gages?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ring gages
Pneumatic gages
Plug gages
Gage blocks
II and IV only
I, II and III only
IV only
II and III only
66
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
47. In the establishment of a calibration schedule, which of the following
statements apply?
a. The importance of tool pressure and operator “feel” must be
emphasized
b. The cleanliness of all tools must be controlled
c. A time or usage interval must be established and maintained
d. Adequate instruction in the care and operation of the tools is
necessary
48. The probability of Steve passing his math course is 0.7. The probability
of Steve passing his history class is 0.8. If the probability of Steve
passing both courses is 0.56, what is the probability Steve will pass
either math or history?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0
1
0.99
0.94
49. Precision can best be defined as:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The ability to target a process to a specify normal value
The average reading determined after repeated measurements
by different operators
The difference between the average of repeated measurements
on the same item
The agreement or closeness of measurements on the same item
I only
II only
III only
IV only
50. A process capability index has been calculated for a stable, nonautomated process. Then, the operator is told to check samples at
random and make centering adjustments to the process bases on
the sample readings. Based on this information one would expect to
find:
a.
b.
c.
d.
That the process capability has gotten worse
That the process capability had gotten better
That the two capabilities are virtually identical
That the outcome would be unpredictable
67
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
51. What graphical data method can show the value of all individual
readings?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A stem and leaf plot
A grouped probability density function
A typical histogram
A complex box plot
52. All standards are traceable to a “grand standard”. Arrange the
following items in an appropriate downward sequence of
traceability:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Work Center
Metrology laboratory
Quality Control System (Inspection Department)
Standards Laboratory
National Institute of Standards and Technology
I, IV, II, III, V
V, IV, II I, III
I, III, II, V, IV
V, IV, II, III, I
53. Which of the following statements about check sheets is NOT true?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Recording subjective opinion doesn’t makes it measure data
Check sheets cannot record subjective data
A shopping list is a check sheet
Both variable and attribute data can be recorded on a check sheet
54. Which of the following are attribute data?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
VI.
Number of stitches on the seam of a regulation softball
Diameter of a squash ball
Number of dimples on a regulation golf ball
Tabulation of the number of sick hours charged by the baseball
bat shaping operator
Distance between the opposing lacrosse creases (goals) on the
playing field
Time remaining in the third quarter of play of the baseball game
a. II, V and IV only
b. I, II, III, IV, V and VI
c. I, III and IV only
68
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
d. I, III, V and VI only
55. In flowcharts, the diamond symbol is used to represent:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Process steps
Decision branch
Start of a process
Continuation
56. A manufacturer of children’s wagons would like to visualize where
the defects occur on the wagons. The defects encountered so far
include missing bolts, paint peeling, missing decals, cracked wood,
sharp edges and bent metal parts. A useful tool for this application is
a:
a.
b.
c.
d.
X-type matrix
Measles chart
Regression analysis
Scatter diagram
57. The accuracy level of an instrument when compared to standard
can only be:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Less than the standard to which is compared
Greater than the standard to which is compared
Equal to the standard to which is compared
Less than or equal to the standard to which it is compared
58. The standard deviation as a percent of the mean is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Relative precision
Coefficient of variation
Standard deviation of the mean
Standard error
59. Measurement error
a.
b.
c.
d.
Is normally the fault of the inspector
Can be determined
Is usually of little consequence
Can be eliminated by frequent calibrations of the measuring device
69
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
60. The most essential value of a surface plate in precision measurement
application is which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
It provides a flat working surface
It provides a surface free of minor vibration
It provides an accurate reference surface
It provides a chemically resistant work surface
61. If the 90% confidence for the mean is 181.3 to 203.8, which of the
following statement is correct?
a. 90% of all values in the population fall between 181.3 and 203.8
b. 90% of all values are either greater than 203.8 or less than 181.3
c. The probability of randomly selecting a valuable between 181.3 and
203.8 is 90%
d. There is a 90% chance that the population mean falls between the
values
62. The beta risk is the risk of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Selecting the wrong hypothesis
A hypothesis not being rejected when it is false
Accepting a hypothesis when it is true
Rejecting a hypothesis when it is true
63. If the specification limits are wider than the control limits, then:
a.
b.
c.
d.
The process is capable
The process capability index is greater than 1.0
The specification limits replace the control limits on the chart
None of the above
64. Given a Cp of 1.5 for a process and the same standard deviation
and specification limits for the calculation of capability or
performance indices, one would not be surprised to find:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
CR and PR to be equal
CR to be less than Pp
PR to be less than Cp
Cp and Pp to be equal
a. I only
b. I and IV only
c. II and III only
70
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
d. I, II, III and IV
65. The expression below is which of the following?
n!
P X (1  P ) n  x
X !(n  X )!
a.
b.
c.
d.
General term for the Poisson distribution
General term for the Pascal distribution
General term for the binomial distribution
General term for the hyper geometric distribution
66. Five computer manuals with the missing chapter were mixed with 10
good manuals. If 3 manuals are dawn at random, what is the
probability of selecting no manuals with missing chapters?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0.7037
0.2637
0.2529
0.0910
67. The distribution used to describe the time between failures which
occur independently and at a constant rate, is the:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Lognormal
Weibull
Gamma
Exponential
68. Which of the following statistical distributions can be used to
compare sample means?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Chi-square distribution
Normal distribution
t distribution
Exponential distribution
69. What percentage of the area under the standard normal curve is
included within (+/-) 1.5 standard deviations from 0?
a. 0.8664
b. 0.7500
71
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
c. 0.6680
d. 0.9332
70. Identify those graphical methods that are alternatives to histograms
in displaying variable data:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Scatter diagrams
Box plots
Stem and leaf plots
Ordinal plots
I, III and IV only
II and III only
I, II and III only
I, II, III and IV
71. In Ishikawa diagrams, the box at the far right usually contains the:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Problem statement
Environmental factors
Methods
Manpower considerations
72. Identify the legitimate techniques for assure data accuracy and
integrity from the options below:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Avoid unnecessary rounding of data
Screen data to remove entry errors
Remove outlier data, as they arise
Record data in time sequence when appropriate
I and IV only
I, II and IV only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
73. A number derived from sample data, which describes the data in
some useful way, is called a:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Constant
Statistic
Parameter
Critical value
72
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
74. Identify the new quality management tool that would be of greatest
assistance in identifying the impact that various process input
variables could have on key process output variables.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Prioritization matrices
Tree diagram
Activity network diagrams
Process decision program charts
75. The measurement and recording of the length of a product in
centimeters would reflect the application of which measurement
scale?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Nominal
Ordinal
Interval
Ratio
73
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
6. Six Sigma – Analyze
1. Which of the following regression statements is NOT true?
a. The range of the correlation coefficient is from -1 to 1
b. The range of the coefficient of determination is from 0 to 1
c. A negative correlation coefficient indicates negative correlation
d. The lower the correlation coefficient the lower the correlation
2. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
I.
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
In multiple regression, extrapolation beyond the region of
observation can lead to erroneous predictions
At least 3 variables are involved in multiple regression
Multiple regression involves one independent and two or more
dependent variables
I only
II only
I and II only
I, II and III
3. A product was yielding 90% recovery before an improvement was
made. To determine if a 2% change (in either direction) has been
made at the 95% confidence level, what sample size should be taken?
a.
b.
c.
d.
468
648
864
1728
4. What test statistics must be known in order to compute a confidence
interval for variation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Chi-square value
z value
t value
x value
5. A small change truly exists between a current process and an
experimental process. However, an insufficient sample size is
collected to determine this difference. What type or error would result?
74
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
A type II error
A I-alpha decision
A type I error
A I-beta decision
6. Extrapolation is a method of prediction which involves primarily:
a.
b.
c.
d.
7.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Engineering judgment
Hypothesis testing
Mathematical calculation and measurement
Confidence intervals
How are the expected values in a contingency table calculated?
Column total – row total / grand total
( Column total ) ( row total ) / grand total
Column total + row total/grand total
Row total – column total/grand total
8. The correlation coefficient for Test # 1 equals -0.89 and the correlation
coefficient for Test # 2 equals to 0.79. Assuming the test are different
subject areas, what statement is untrue?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Both test show a strong correlation
The scatter around the regression line is greatest for Test # 1
The slope for Test # 1 is negative
Y increases as X increases in Test # 2
9. If the calculated chi-square is much greater than the critical chisquare in a contingency table, which of the following statements is
(are) true?
I.
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The null hypothesis of equality of result is rejected
The null hypothesis of equality of results is accepted
The coefficient of contingency must exceed 1
I only
I and III only
II only
II and III only
10. The probabilistic regression model for any particular observed value of
Y contains a term β0, which represents:
a. The Y axis intercept, when x=0
75
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
b. The Y axis intercept, when x=1
c. The slope of the model
d. The x axis intercept, when y=0
11. The current process produces fifty units per shift, a new process
yielded fifty-two units per shift for sixteen straight shifts with a standard
deviation of four units per shift. What is our confidence that the
process has changed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
< 90%
90-95%
90-99%
>99%
12. The opposite on an alpha risk is hypothesis testing is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Beta risk
I-beta risk
Level of confidence
I-level of confidence
13. Goodness of fit calculations for various distributions have many
features in common. Which two of the following are included?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
They all use the same DF
They all use the same assumed distributions
They all use a calculated chi-square test statistics
They are use data values structured in cells
I and II only
II and III only
I and III only
III and IV only
14. When plotting a multi-vari chart on graph paper, what metric is used
for the horizontal scale?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Time
Count data
Variable data
Percentages
76
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
15. Refer to the following partial ANOVA table:
Source
Materials
Machines
Errors
SS
900
2100
300
DF
2
2
10
MS
14
What are the three missing MS values?
a.
b.
c.
d.
450, 1050, 30
60, 140, 20
450, 190.91, 20
45.0, 190.91, 30
16. If the means of two populations are close in value then:
a.
b.
c.
d.
The null hypothesis will not be rejected
A large sample necessary to reject the null hypothesis
A null hypothesis decision will often be delayed
The appropriate critical value is very important
17. Refer to the following partial ANOVA table:
Source
SS
DF
MS
Materials
900
2
450
Machines
2100
2
1050
Errors
300
10
30
14
Calc. F
What are the calculated F values?
a.
b.
c.
d.
225, 525
45, 105
15, 35
32.14, 75
18. No change exist between a test trial and a current process. A sample
size, that was too small for the change (delta) of interest, was then
collected. What type of decision would most probably be made?
a. A type II error
b. A I-alpha decision
c. A type I error
77
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
d. A I-beta decision
19. The current process produces fifty units per shift, a new process
produced sixty units per shift for ten consecutive shifts. The highest shift
was sixty-six units and the lowest shift during the trial was fifty-four units.
With what level of confidence can we say the process has changed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
We can’t. The standard deviation is unknown
90% confidence
95% confidence
>99% confidence
20. A one tail F test (95% confidence) with ten samples, yielded a
variance of nine and nine samples, yielded a variance of four. What F
critical value would be used?
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.23
3.44
3.39
3.14
21. Ratios of two variances drawn from the same normal population are
described by which one of the following distributions?
a.
b.
c.
d.
F
Student’s t
Chi-square test
Normal
22. How is the level of significance defined?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The probability of rejecting a null hypothesis when it is true
The probability of not rejecting a null hypothesis when it is true
The probability of accepting a null hypothesis when it is true
The probability of not accepting a null hypothesis when it is true
23. In what statistical test is two subtracted from the total number of
samples to determine the degrees of freedom?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Paired t test
Two mean equal variance, t test
Students t test
Chi-square test, with known variance
78
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
24. Identify the correct statements regarding contingency tables analysis
from the options below:
I.
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
If X2 equals to zero there is a mathematical error
The larger the X2 value the greater the chance of significance
The number of rows and columns must be equal
I only
II only
I and III only
II and III only
25. What inference test does not require some knowledge of a test of
population variation?
a. t test
b. Paired t test
c. z test
d. Chi-square test
26. When analyzing experimental data, which term describes the
condition in which the error variance is inconsistent among
observations?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Stochastic variation
Homoscedasticity
Heterogeneous
Heteroscedasticity
27. Given the sample data: 5, 15, 10, 7, 20. What is the unbiased estimator
of the sample variance?
a.
b.
c.
d.
27.50
29.84
37.30
46.62
28. For a linear correlation the total sum of squares equals 1600 and the
total cum of squared errors equals 1000. What is r2 ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0.600
0.625
0.375
0.750
79
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
29. Three machines are being evaluated in a one way ANOVA, a total of
sixteen trials have been conducted. How many degrees of freedom
are available to evaluate the error term?
a.
b.
c.
d.
12
13
14
15
30. Which two of the following confidence interval calculations require
the use of Z table values?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Larger sample means
Small sample means
Variation confidence intervals
Proportion confidence intervals
I and II only
II and III only
I and III only
I and IV only
31. Given the following results obtained from a fixed factor randomized
block designed experiment in which the production outputs of three
machines A, B, C, are compared:
A
4
8
5
7
6
B
2
0
1
-2
4
C
-3
1
-2 -1
0
How many degreed of freedom are used to compute the error variance?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
3
12
14
32. Assuming that a X2 goodness of fit test is being performed with a fixed
number of cells and fixed confidence level, which of the following
distributions would have the most degrees of freedom?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Normal
Poisson
Binomial
Uniform
80
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
33. An analysis of variance (ANOVA) is the usual for experiments involving
several treatments at various levels. A reason for the use of ANOVA for
significance testing is:
a. Equality of sample means can be tested by comparing sample
variances
b. Within treatment variation and between treatment variation can be
totaled
c. The t-test is inadequate for testing beyond two means
d. The F test is a measure of the variances
34. A string tension gauge is used to validate settings on a tennis racket
stringing machine. What are the 90% confidence limits for the
estimate true value string tension?
-
String tension measurements: 57 pounds, 56 pounds, 60 pounds, 62
pounds, 55 pounds, 59 pounds
a.
b.
c.
d.
61.79 pounds, 54.54 pounds
60.28 pounds, 56.06 pounds
60.34 pounds, 56.00 pounds
59.94 pounds, 56.39 pounds
35. A study was made on the effects of several health additives for a
number of elite runners. The results of a One-Way ANOVA are
presented in the following table. How many additives were in the
study?
Source
Between
Within
Total
a.
b.
c.
d.
Df
3
15
18
Sum of Squares
55.00
450.50
505.50
MS
3
4
15
18
36. A technique used to measure the degree of independence between
two random variables is:
a. Regression analysis
b. Hypothesis testing
c. Correlation analysis
81
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
d. Sampling
37. The determination of temporal variation in multi-vari charting means:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Variation within piece
Variation over time
Variation piece to piece
Variation within batch
38. What is the principal advantage of multi-vari charting?
a.
b.
c.
d.
It graphically displays the variation in a process
It keeps track of the time that measurements were made
It assists in the breakdown of components of variation
It is much easier to plot that most control charts
39. To determine if there is a difference between treatment means, there
s a breakpoint between using an analysis of variance or a t-test. The
analysis of variance test can be used:
a.
b.
c.
d.
With two or more treatment means
With three treatment means
With four treatment means
With any number of treatment means
40. An F distribution resembles most closely:
a.
b.
c.
d.
A t distribution
A chi-square distribution
An exponential distribution
A log normal distribution
41. Components of variance can be developed for a One-Way ANOVA
experiment. Generally, the experiment will be based on a randomized
model. The components of variance will enable the experiments to
determine which of the following?
I.
II.
III.
The extent of contribution by each source of variance
How much of the variance is due to differences in treatment
means
How much of the variance is due to experimental error
a. I only
b. I only
82
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
c. II and III only
d. I, II and III
42. It is desirable to reduce the variation in a process. The current is known
to be six. A new process yielded a standard deviation of two for
twenty-five trials. What is the chi-square calculated statistics?
a.
b.
c.
d.
13.85
15.66
16.00
18.24
43. Refer to the following ANOVA table:
Source
Materials
Machines
Errors
SS
900
2100
300
DF
2
2
10
14
MS
450
1050
30
Calc. F
15
35
Critical
What are the missing critical values, assuming 95% confidence?
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.10, 4.10
19.40, 19.40
3.74, 4.60
4.60, 3.74
44. In one way ANOVA, how is the SSE (the experimental error sum of
squares ) usually determined?
a.
b.
c.
d.
By dividing SST by the total DF
By subtracting SST from Total SS
By dividing Total SS by SST
By subtracting Total SS from SST
45. Why should an experimenter plot data points and graph the least
squares line if a probabilistic regression model exist?
a.
b.
c.
d.
To visually present the relationship to others
To check for fit; there may be a calculation error
There’s no rational reason for doing so
To permit a projection outside if the test area
83
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
46. Identify the true statements, regarding non-parametric techniques,
from the options below:
I.
II.
No assumption of a population distribution is made
They are more powerful than corresponding parametric tests using
the same sample size
They are useful in solving many engineering problems
Many of these tests require data ranking
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
III only
II and III only
I, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
47. What inference test compares observed and expected frequencies
of test outcomes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
F test
Chi-square test
t test
Paired t test
48. Most practitioners of regression analysis would not be surprised to find
that:
The coefficient of determination is greater than r2
B. The r2 value is a smaller absolute value than r
C. T he correlation coefficient equals r2
D. The correlation coefficient equals the slope of the line
A.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A
B
C
D
49. A multi-vari chart indicates:
- 15% within piece variation
- 65% piece to piece variation
- 10% over time variation
What is the normal action sequence to reduce variation?
a. Cyclical, temporal, positional
b. Positional, cyclical, temporal
84
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
c. Cyclical, positional, temporal
d. Temporal cyclical positional
50. From a statistical standpoint, the sample size for hypothesis testing
depends on:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The required type I and type II risk
The minimum population shift of interest
The variations in the population of interest
The cost of taking a sample
I and III only
I, II and III only
II and IV only
I, II, III and IV
51. In which of the following hypothesis tests would be the degrees of
freedom be a tricky calculation, often resulting in rounding to the next
lowest whole number?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A chi-square test, with a known population variance
A chi-square test, with and unknown population variance
A two mean t test with unknown, (considered equal ) variances
A two mean t test with unknown, ( considered unequal ) variances
52. A study was made on the effects of several health additives for a
number of elite runners. The result of a One-Way ANOVA are
presented in the following table. How many subject (runners) were in
the study?
Source
Between
Within
Total
a.
b.
c.
d.
Df
3
15
18
Sum of Squares
55.00
450.50
505.50
MS
18
19
3
4
53. In hypothesis testing if one stated a one minus the level of confidence
risk, what statistic would be under consideration?
a. The alpha risk
85
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
b. The I-alpha risk
c. The beta risk
d. The I-beta risk
54. Six independent samples are taken of smokestack gas. The mean
value of a critical pollutant was 30.2 ppm for the six samples, with a
standard deviation S = 5 ppm. Assuming that the samples were taken
at random times, what is the 90% confidence interval for the
proportion of the critical pollutant in the smokestack gas?
a.
b.
c.
d.
30.2
30.2
30.2
30.2




4.11ppm
3.96 ppm
4.00 ppm
3.36 ppm
55. Calculate the F value and determine the 80% confidence limits for
2
2
S1  50, v1  9, S 2  29, v2 12
a.
b.
c.
d.
.684, 3.965
.724, 3.810
.700, 3.850
2.30, 2.52
56. If a multi-vari chart shows that 60% of variation is within piece, 25% of
variation is piece to piece and 10% of variation occurs over time,
what would be indicated action sequence?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Temporal, positional, cyclical
Positional, temporal, cyclical
Cyclical, positional, temporal
Positional, cyclical, temporal
57. I f four inspectors were evaluated, for the detection or non-detection
of a defect in twenty samples, how many degrees of freedom would
be used to determine the critical chi-square value?
a.
b.
c.
d.
16
8
6
3
86
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
58. Which of the following statements about the coefficient of correlation,
r, is (are) true?
I.
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
r will have the same sing as 1
r equals 0, when 1 =0
When r equals 1, 1 is positive
I only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II and III
59. When plotting a multi-vari chart on graph paper, what metric is used
for the vertical scale?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Time
Count data
Variable data
Percentages
60. The alpha critical region, to determine if a new pen writes more
strokes before refill, would be placed:
a.
b.
c.
d.
In the upper tail
In both upper and lower tails
In the lower tail
In neither tail
61. A study was made on the effects of several health additives or a
number of elite runners. The results of a One-Way ANOVA are
presented in the following table. What are the MS values?
Source
Between
Within
Total
P< .05
a.
b.
c.
d.
Df
3
15
18
Sum of Squares
55.00
450.50
505.50
55.0, 450.50. 505.50
55.0, 450.50
18.3, 30.0, 28.1
18.3, 30.0
87
MS
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
62. A correlation of +0.95 for two variables, x and y, means that:
I.
II.
a.
b.
c.
d.
There is a strong linear relationship between x and y
y may be predicted from x using the equation y=0.95x
I only
II only
Both I and II
Neither I and II
63. It is desirable to reduce the variation in a process. The current
variance is known to be seven. A new process yielded a standard
deviation of two for twenty-five test trials. What is the calculated
statistic and decision for 95% confidence?
a.
b.
c.
d.
13.71, reject the null
13.71 fail to reject the null
13.85 reject the null
13.85 fail to reject the null
64. Which factors must be considered to discriminate differences in input
parameters when calculating sample size?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Parameter shift sensitivity
Population variance
Risk size, both alpha and beta
Population size
I and III only
II and III only
I, II and III only
I, III and IV only
65. What is the Z value needed to conduct a two tail in a statistical
inference problem, specifying 90% level of confidence?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1.96
1.28
1.65
2.24
66. Identify those tests that require a chi-square calculation.
I.
Goodness of fit
88
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
Contingency coefficient
Friedman test
Mood’s median test
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and IV only
I, II, III and IV
67. For a one tail F test ( 95% confidence ) with ten samples yielding a
variance of nine and nine samples yielding a variance of four, what
would the test result?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Fail to reject the null hypothesis
Reject the null hypothesis
Accept the alternate hypothesis
Fail to reject the alternate hypothesis
68. A limousine service wants to find the most consistent route between
the city center and the airport ease scheduling conflicts. 6 timed runs
were made along route A and the standard deviation was 10.5
minutes. Along route B, 8 test runs were made and the standard
deviation dropped to 5.2 minutes. Determine whether there is
sufficient evidence to determine that route B is more consistent, with
95% confidence. What are the calculated and critical test values and
what was the result?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Critical = 3.58, Calculated = 0.245, fail to reject the null hypothesis
– route B is not more consistent
Critical = 3.98, Calculated = 4.08, Reject the null hypothesis – route
B is more consistent
Critical = 4.88, Calculated = 4.08, Reject the null hypothesis – route
B is more consistent
Critical = 3.97, Calculated = 2.02, Fail to reject the null hypothesis –
route B is not more consistent
I only
II only
III only
IV only
89
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
69. Your company has just installed a new computer data entry system
and you must determine the new input error rates. Management
requires you to report the error rate within 0.5%, at a 95% confidence
level. What sample size do you need if the population standard
deviation is 1.2%?
a.
b.
c.
d.
15
16
22
23
70. A regression analysis yielded a total sum of squared errors of 1000 and
a total sum of squares equal to 1600. What is the correlation
coefficient?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cannot be determined from the given information
+0.375 or -0.375
+0.612 or -0.612
+0.790 or -0.790
71. A Six sigma black belt is performing a hypothesis of two sample means.
Sixteen samples of method A and sixteen of method B are produced.
The standard deviations are unknown, but thought to be the same.
How many degrees of freedom are to be used for the t test?
a.
b.
c.
d.
16
30
31
32
72. What table value is normally used to place a confidence interval on
the slope of a line in simple linear regression?
a.
b.
c.
d.
t
F
z
Chi-square
73. Identify the non-parametric test that uses a t test statistic
a.
b.
c.
d.
Spearman rank coefficient
Levene’s test
Runs test
Mood’s median test
90
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
74. An analysis of variance (ANOVA) is used to analyze the data
gathered in an experiment. One-Way ANOVA implies that this tool
deals with:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
One level
Independent samples
One dependent variable
One independent variable
I only
II and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
75. Identify the confidence interval calculation that is most likely to be
non-symmetrical
a.
b.
c.
d.
Large sample mean
Small sample mean
Variation confidence interval
Proportion confidence interval
91
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
7. Six Sigma – Improve
1.
In designed experiments, if the main effect A can not be
distinguished from the interaction term BC, then it can be stated that:
a.
b.
c.
d.
A is a main effect, not significantly different from BC
A is diffused into BC
A is an alias of BC
A and BC have an interaction element
2.
Residuals are estimates of experimental error obtained by
subtracting the predicted responses from the observed responses.
The residuals should be checked for behavior. This can be
accomplished by which of the following methods?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Applying a statistical test such as a t test
Using a normal probability plot
Using a box-and-whiskers box chart
Comparing the Xs to the Ys
3.
What is the major disadvantage of the one factor at a time
experimental strategy?
a.
b.
c.
d.
It can be more costly to conduct
It fails to account for interactions between factors
It offers no ability to vary factors together
It is less efficient than designed experiments
4.
A 3 x 3 Latin Square would have how many error degrees of
freedom?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Two
Three
Four
Five
5.
Good planning and execution of an experimental design essential
for success. Which of the following steps is out of sequence?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Select an experimental design
Set objectives
Select process variables
Execute the design
92
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
5. Verify the data
6. Analyze and interpret the results
7. Present the results
a.
b.
c.
d.
Select an experimental design
Set objectives
Verify data
Select process variables
6.
As good experimenter, you have built a predictive model of the
experimental data. The differences between the actual response
data and the model data are termed:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Confounded data
Nested experiments
Residuals
Efficiency of estimators
7.
A Box-Behnken experimental design is an independent quadratic
design. The endpoints of the design are not used for testing. The BoxBehnken design possesses which of the following features?
I.
II.
III.
It requires 3 levels for each factor
It is rotatable design
It always requires fewer runs than other central composite design
a.
b.
c.
d.
I and II only
II and III only
I and III only
I, II and III
8.
Which of the following
interactions, is factual?
statements,
regarding
experimental
a. They occur with experimental signal factors and not variation (noise)
factors
b. They occur frequently during experimentation
c. They are noted often in randomized block designs
d. They occur most often when multiple input factors are evaluated
9.
One has to determine a mailing method to obtain the best response
rates for an educational program. The proposed methods include
mailing on Wednesdays, not Mondays; “special delivery” versus
regular delivery; or follow up on the mailing versus no follow up on the
93
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
mailing. This could involve several thousand items over a length of
time. Which of the following methods is LEAST desirable?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Send mailings based on changing 1 factor at a time
Use a mailing based on a full factorial design
Generate a fractional factorial design
Use a Plackett and Burman design
10. What form of product design did Taguchi state was the most
neglected area?
a.
b.
c.
d.
System design
Product design
Parameter design
Tolerance design
11. Response surface methodology is useful for all of the following
studies, EXCEPT:
a.
b.
c.
d.
A response to several input variables
Two responses for two input variables
A response to multiple input variables in a planar surface
A single point study
12. The following Latin Square design of gas mileage by 5 drivers ( A, B,
C, D & E) with 5 different cars and 5 different carburetors. The
proposed Latin Square design lacks what requirement?
Car
1
2
3
4
5
a.
b.
c.
d.
I
A
B
C
D
E
II
B
A
D
E
A
Carburetor Type
III
C
D
A
A
B
The car versus carburetor interaction
A balanced model involving all factors
The car and driver interaction
The inner matrix of Greek letters
94
IV
D
E
A
B
C
V
E
A
B
C
D
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
13. The preferred method for determining for determining an optimal
point on a response surface is termed:
a.
b.
c.
d.
One factor at a time
Steepest ascent
The rising ridge approach
Mound methodology
14. The term level in experimental design refers to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
The complexity of the design
The specific settings of input factors
The number of output responses
The number of independent trials of tests
15. EVOP is an experimental strategy that has produced some good
results on the production floor. It involves small changes in the process
to test for improvements. Testing and data collection in an EVOP
experiment is typically performed by:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Supervisors of the process
Operators of the process
Engineers
Six Sigma black belts
16. A mixture design ( such as the Sample-Lattice design ) has all of the
following assumptions EXCEPT:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Errors are independent
Errors are distributed with zero mean
Error will be determined by the Bonferroni method
Errors have a common variance
17. Plackett and Burman experimental designs are called screening
designs. A screening can be defined as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
An experimental with interactions among the main effects
The use of non-geometric experimental designs
An identification of the key input factors
A fractional factorial experimental
18. Central composite designs are one of the classes of response
surface designs. They are popular because:
95
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
Sequential runs of linear or curvature effects (if needed) can be
made
They provide much information from minimum of runs
They require only one set of runs for superior results
They are quite flexible over different experimental regions
I only
II and III only
I, II and IV only
I, II, III and IV
19. Given the Simplex-Lattice matrix below, what would the proper form
of the design variables: q and m?
X1
0
0.5
1
0
0.5
0
a.
b.
c.
d.
X2
0
0
0
0.5
0.5
1
X3
1
0.5
0
0.5
0
0
{6,3}
{3,2}
{3,4}
{2,3}
20. Which of the following design runs are possible for a three factor
simplex-lattice design?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
1.333, 0, 1
1, 0, 0
0.5, 0.5, 0.5
0.333, 0.667, 0
a.
b.
c.
d.
I and II only
I and III only
II and IV only
II and III and IV only
21. Any experimental equation that shows two factors multiplied by
each other can indicate:
I.
II.
A slope
A twist
96
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
III.
IV.
A curve
An interaction
a.
b.
c.
d.
I and II only
II and III only
I and III only
II and III and IV only
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
22. For a simplex- lattice design the following formula or equation
determines:
Y 
a.
b.
c.
d.
q  m  1!
m!q  1!
The canonical formula for linear coefficients
The portion of each polynomial in the experimental model
The canonical coefficient for cubic model
The number of design points
23. A one half fractional factorial design for three at two levels would be
considered:
a.
b.
c.
d.
A resolution II design
A resolution III design
A resolution IV design
A resolution V design
24. The market value of a house is to be determined by 2 input factors.
The input factors are the square feet of living space and the number
of bedrooms. If the input factors are highly correlated with each
other, this could indicate that:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A multicollinearity condition exists
The variables are linear combinations of each other
This is an interrelation of factors
One of the factors is redundant
I only
I and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
97
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
25. The linear graphs which accompany Taguchi design have as their
objectives:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Providing a compact design layout
Providing a visualization of the design options
Depicting where main factors can be assigned
Depicting where interactions may be evaluated
II only
I, II and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
26. The key to achieving design robustness is to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Control the signal factors
Choose high signal-noise ratios
Make the output response insensitive to noise variation
Design tolerances before parameters
27. A L8 (27)design matrix is show below. What statements are true of this
experimental design?
Column
number
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
run
number
o
o
x
o
x
x
o
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
1
1
1
1
2
2
2
2
1
1
2
2
1
1
2
2
1
1
2
2
2
2
1
1
1
2
1
2
1
2
1
2
1
2
1
2
2
1
2
1
1
2
2
1
1
2
2
1
1
2
2
1
2
1
1
2
Note:
o – means ok to use column
x – means use, but involved with interactions from other columns
I.
Use seven factors if no interaction are present
98
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
Use with four factors, which will be confounded with 2-factor
interactions
Column 3 is suitable for use un a four – factor experiment
The design will be saturated at seven factors
I only
II and III only
I, II and IV only
I, II, III and IV
28. When conducting a simplex-lattice mixture, which of the following
statements is NOT true?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The proportion of one component can be twice of another
Trial can be conducted with only one component
A trial can be conducted with two of three components
An equal number of test must be conducted for each blend
29. Taguchi Methods uses a linear graph to help interpret the
corresponding orthogonal array. For instance in an L9 array, a linear
graph with factors 1 and 2 at the endpoints, and factors 3 and 4 at
the midpoint indicates:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Factor 3 and 4 are possible interactions of factors 1 and 2
Factor 3 is the only interaction between 1 and 2, the 4 is a mistake
Factor 4 is the only interaction between 1 and 2, the 3 is a mistake
The linear graph should be a triangle with 1, 2, 3 at the end points
30. An experiment was conducted on five different extruders of polymer,
with readings from 4 die positions, marked A, B, C and D. Each die
position is unique for each extruder. There were 4 applications per die
position. Each extruder had its own die, and the 4 positions were
marked for testing. This is a type of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
5 x 4 factorial experiment
Nested experiment
Completely randomized experiment
Fractional factorial experiment
31. Experimental design can be effectively used to:
I.
II.
III.
Choose between alternatives
Select key factors affecting a response
Reduce variability of a process
99
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
Control uncontrollable noise factors
I only
II and III only
I, II and III only
I, II, III and IV
32. Experimental design usually call for testing a number of factors and
keeping all other conditions as nearly constant as possible. Taguchi
Methods call for similar techniques, but with a twist. Noise are
changed a bit to determine robustness. Where are the noise factors
placed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Control array
Inner array
Outer array
Quadratic array
33. If an experiment has an alias, one would say that the two factor
effects are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Confounded
Blocked
Misnamed
Mixtures
34. A response surface experiment attempts to accomplish which of the
following?
I.
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Moving toward the optimal point after each experiment
Determining the equation of the response surface near the
optimal point
Inexpensive and simple experimentation, similar to EVOP
I only
II only
I and II only
I, II and III
35. Evolutionary Operation (EVOP) is being considered at your plant.
You present these arguments for its use:
I.
II.
EVOP is a conservative strategy for improvement
Product runs will be conducted with very little scrap
100
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
For any one series of tests only a few variables are changed
The runs and analysis can be conducted by production operators
I only
II and III only
I, II and IV only
I, II, III and IV
36. A L8 (27) design matrix is shown below. An experimental consisting of
4 factors is being planned. Interactions are expected in this design
plan. Where should the 4 factors be placed?
Column
number
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
run
number
o
o
x
o
x
x
o
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
1
1
1
1
2
2
2
2
1
1
2
2
1
1
2
2
1
1
2
2
2
2
1
1
1
2
1
2
1
2
1
2
1
2
1
2
2
1
2
1
1
2
2
1
1
2
2
1
1
2
2
1
2
1
1
2
Note: x – means involved with interactions from other columns
a.
b.
c.
d.
Columns 1, 2, 3 and 4
Columns 1, 3, 5 and 6
Columns 1, 2, 4 and 7
Any four columns are acceptable
37. For the analysis of response surfaces, one special design is a cube
with eight points, supplemented with a 23 factorial. The points are on
each axis. These axis points are at a radius equal to the vertex. There
are 15 points (including the center point). This design is termed:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Central composite design
Box-Behnken design
Response surface method
EVOP
101
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
38. A Latin Square design, consisting of the following factors: 5 cars, 5
carburetors and 5 drivers, would be considered what type of
experiment?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A factorial experiment of 125 runs
A 4 level experiment
A 5 factor experiment
A one-fifth fractional factorial experiment
39. A lack of statistical knowledge on the experimenter’s part could
result in several items going wrong including:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Confounding of undesired effects and interactions
Experimental results corrupted by measurement error
Inappropriate ranges of control variables
Misidentified control factors causing distorted results
I only
II and III only
I, II and IV only
I, II, III and IV
40. A four factor, three level experiment must be conducted. What are
the fewest number of trials possible if all interactions are ignored?
a.
b.
c.
d.
9
18
27
81
41. Data from mixture experiments are gathered and analyzed through
canonical polynomials. These polynomials are primarily defined as
canonical because:
a.
b.
c.
d.
The sum of the proportions must equal one
The polynomials are different from regular regression equations
The number of terms in the polynomial are (q+m-1)!/m!(q-1)!
The terms in the polynomials have simple interpretations
42. If the sample space contains several unknown minimax areas, then
what can happen using steepest ascent methodology?
a. Many tests may be required
b. The yield contours must be ignored
102
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
c. The design area around point p must be expanded
d. A wrong answer can result
43. An experimental design using a Latin Square of 3 factors and 5 level
will be able to determine which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Main treatment effects and interactions
Interactions only
Column and row effects
Main treatment effects
44. A fractional factorial design for 5 factors (A, B, C, D and E) at 2 levels
(+,-) with 8 runs has been designed. In this design, the D and E factors
were overlayed into a standard 2 level, 3 factor design. The design
matrix has which effects confounded?
Test
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A
+
+
+
+
B
+
+
+
+
C
+
+
+
+
D
+
+
+
+
E
+
+
+
+
ABC in confounded with E
AB in confounded with D
AC in confounded with E
BC in confounded with D
I and II only
I and IV only
II and III only
II and IV only
45. Most modern computer programs will perform an analysis of
experimental residuals. What other techniques can be employed?
I.
II.
III.
Control Charts
Histograms
Normal probability plots
103
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
IV.
Dot plots
a.
b.
c.
d.
I and II only
II, III and IV only
II and IV only
I, II, III and IV
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
46. The following experimental design model below is described as a
second – order model. The model has these characteristics:
Y  B0  B1 X1  B12  X1  X 2   B2 X 2  
I.
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Curvature is present in the model
An interaction of factors is shown
Error is present in the model
I only
II and III only
I and III only
I, II and III
47. The iterative approach to DOE refers to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
The use of sequential experimentation
Assuring the stability of the process experimentation
Assuring the capability of the measurement system
Appropriate estimates of experimental error
48. The following design equation;
y  b0  b1 x1  b2 x2  
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Is a quadratic equation
Is a first order equation
Accounts for no curvature
Has an interaction
I only
II and III only
I and III only
I, II, III and IV
104
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
49. A fractional factorial experiment is to be conducted. The main
effects will not be confounded with the two factor interactions. But
two factor interactions may be confounded with other two factor
interactions. The design resolution is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Resolution II
Resolution III
Resolution IV
Resolution V
50. One would classify Plackett-Burman designs as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Screening designs
Geometric designs
Orthogonal designs
Parallel experiments
51. Taguchi methodology seeks to reduce the loss to society by:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Reducing variation in the process
Reducing variation in the product
Utilizing Shingo techniques
Improving the product development
variation
process
for
reduced
I only
II and III only
I, II and IV only
I, II, III and IV
52. Modern designed experiments can best be defined as having a
methodology to:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Vary independent variables simultaneously
Perform trials in a carefully planned manner
Change factors one or two at a time
Hold many factors constant
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, III and Iv
105
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
53. Box-Wilson central composite designs (CCC and CCI) are rotatable
designs. This implies:
a.
b.
c.
d.
The points of the exterior star design can be moved around easily
Star point are +/1 unit away from the center of the design space
There is a consistent and stable variance about any star point
The star points are 1.414 units away from the center
54. Plackett and Burman designs are used for screening experiments.
There are geometric and non-geometric designs. It has been stated
that runs of 12, 20, 24, 28 and 36 runs are non-geometric designs. This
is because:
a. The runs are in multiples of 4
b. The non-geometric design has 2 – factor interactions confounded
with main effects
c. The geometric design are in powers of 2
d. A PB design of 12 runs can have 11 factors covered
55. If confounding occurs in the three factor experiment (A, B and C)
conducted at two levels, one would expect that factor A would be
confounded with:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Factor B
Factor C
The BC interaction
Either the AB or AC interaction
56. A prime reason to consider the use of Evolutionary Operation (EVOP)
in industrial facilities would be:
a. When a bold strategy for improvement is considered
b. When existing industrial processes are not running at their highest
efficiencies
c. To test large samples in a conservative manner
d. Because calculations for EVOP are simplified and will lead to better
results
57. In a mixture experiment, the independent factors are blended in to
the end product. All of the following are proper mixtures of three
components EXCEPT for:
a. 0.33, 0.33, 0.33
b. 1.0, 0, 0
106
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
c. 0.50, 0, 0.50
d. 0.25, 0.25, 0.25
58. An experiment is to be conducted, you have requested that a
statistics professor develop a design for you. From a practical
viewpoint, you should review the design because:
I.
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The professor may have limited plant knowledge
There may be undesirable combinations of variable control levels
The design may cause a violation of known physical laws
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
59. Taguchi methods employ a series of arrays in the experimental
design. Which of the following choices includes noise factors?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Signal-to-noise arrays
Inner arrays
Outer arrays
Replication arrays
60. As the Six Sigma resource for the plant, you are considering the
makeup of an experimentation team. The team should consist of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Yourself only
Yourself and a technician
A functional team
A cross-functional team
61. Many experimental design authors suggest the use of control runs.
These control runs can include tests at the standard process setpoints.
The conduct of a test with the centerpoints as a setpoints would most
clearly imply or suggest:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Use of a central composite design
Use of a simplex-lattice design
Use of a response surface method
Use of a full factorial design
107
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
62. Which of the following statements is true about a Latin Square
design?
a. It allows for the effects of interaction in the design
b. It does not allow for the effects of the interaction in the design
c. It eliminates the need to ensure that the effects of interaction are
additive
d. It is useful because the underlying distribution does not need to be
normal
63. A randomized complete block design is used to reduce the residual
error in an experiment. A special type of randomize complete block
design will remove 2 sources of variability in the design by blocking in
2 directions. This is referred to as a:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Greco – Latin square
Latin Square design
Hyper – Greco – Latin design
Randomized incomplete block
64. Designed experiments can be best described as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Better than one factor at a time testing
Requiring special situations for application
A challenge to the classical method of testing
A careful planned application of the scientific method
65. In examining the residual of an experiment, one would expect to
see all of the following results, EXCEPT?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Some residuals higher than predicted
Some residuals lower than expected
Some residuals exhibiting correlation
A consistent amount of error across the test range
66. An experiment was conducted to determine the effectiveness of a
new and improved feed for hogs. The exact amount (x) of feed was
measured and the change in the weight of the hogs become the
response variable. If it was determined that the initial weight of the
hogs was correlated to the weight gained then the initial weight of
the test hog could be termed:
a. Covariate
b. Collinear
108
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
c. Confounding
d. Interacting effect
67. Experimental design involves process variables including:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Input variables
Output variables
Predictor variables
Dependent variables
I and II only
II and III only
III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
68. A designed experiment is to be conducted with four factors at three
levels. The factors and levels will be randomized and as uniform as
possible. This design is termed:
a.
b.
c.
d.
A one-way ANOVA design
A completely randomized design
A two-way ANOVA design
A Latin Square
69. Box – Wilson central composite designs are experimental designs
with center and “star” points that allow for estimation of curvature. In
CCC designs, if the distance from the center of the design space to a
factorial point is +/- 1 unit, what is the distance from the center to a
star point?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Square root of 2
1
0.576
Alpha
70. For a mixture experiment, the design is expressed as { 4, 5 }, This
implies:
a.
b.
c.
d.
5 trials of 4 components
4 proportions, 5 components
4 components, 6 proportions
4 side cube, 5 points in the cube face
109
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
71. Taguchi methods uses a linear graph to help interpret the
corresponding orthogonal array. For instance, for a L4 array, a linear
graph with factors 1 and 2 the end points and factor 3 at the
midpoint indicates:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Factor 3 is the interaction of factors 1 and 2
That factor 4 is missing since it is a L4
The main factors (1 and 3) are interactions
Factor 2 will be the experimental result
72. Randomized block designs are best suited for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Screening objectives
Comparative objectives
Response surface objectives
Regression model objectives
73. When mixture components are subject constraints such as maximum
or minimum values, what types of designs are most appropriate?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Constrained mixture designs
Simplex – Lattice designs
Extreme vertices designs
Simple centroid designs
I and II only
I and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
74. A 1/3 fractional factorial experiment of 9 runs with 3 factors at 3
levels and interactions can be designed as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
33-1
L9
32
1/3 ( 3 x 4 )
a.
b.
c.
d.
A
B
C
D
110
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
75. A Taguchi L9 design consist of:
I.
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
9 design runs
3 factor levels
4 input factors
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
111
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
8. Six Sigma – Control
1.
If points on a c chart are outside of the control limits and we wish
to set up a control chart for future production
A. More data are needed
B. Discard those points falling outside the control limits, for which you
can identify and assignable cause and revise the limits
C. Check with production to determine the true process capability
D. Discard those points falling outside the control limits and revise the
limits
a.
b.
c.
d.
A
B
C
D
2.
a.
b.
c.
d.
There are several different varieties of media control charts. If
median values and ranges are plotted, what would be expected
to be different than experienced with and X bar – R chart for the
same sample size? Assume that control limits are used.
The middle value would be circled on the median chart
The range chart would have different control limits
The median control limits would be wider apart
The lower limit on the range chart could not be zero
3.
You have just returned from a two – week vacation and are going
over with your QC manager, the control charts which have been
maintained during your absence. He calls your attention to the
fact that one of the X bar – charts shows the last 50 points to be
very near the center line. In fact, they all seem to be within about
one sigma of the center line. What explanation would you offer
him?
A. Somebody “goofed” in the original calculation of the control limits
B. The process standard deviation has decreased during the time the
last 50 sample were taken and nobody thought to recomputed the
control limits.
C. This is a terrible situation. I’ll get on it right away and see what the
trouble is. I hope we haven’t produced too much scrap.
D. This is fine, the closer the points are to the center line the better our
control
112
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
a.
b.
c.
d.
A
B
C
D
4.
a.
b.
c.
d.
If two – sigma limits are substituted for conventional three- sigma
limits on a control chart, which of the following occurs?
Decrease in alpha risk
Increase in beta risk
Increase in alpha risk
Increase in sample size
6.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A process is checked at random by inspection of samples of four
shifts after a polishing operation and X bar and R chart are
maintained. A person making a spot check measures two shafts
accurately and plots their range on the R chart. The point falls just
outside the control limit. He advises the department foreman to
stop the process. This decision indicates that:
The process level is out of control
The process level is out of control but not the dispersion
The person is misusing the chart
The process dispersion is out of control
5.
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
If a process is out of control, the theoretical probability that a single
point on the X bar chart will fall between plus one sigma and the
upper control limit is:}
0.2240
0.1587
Unknown
0.3413
7.
When using a control chart, a point plotting within the limits on the
chart is:
a. The equivalent of type I error
b. The equivalent of type II error
c. The equivalent of accepting the hypothesis that the process is in
control
d. The equivalent of not rejecting the hypothesis that the process is in
control
113
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
8.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A process is running under pre–control conditions and two
consecutive pieces have been sampled. The first piece is
measured to be in the green zone. What is the probability that the
second piece will be measured to be in the red or yellow zone?
Zero
1/49
1/98
1/196
9.
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
In which one of the following is the use of an X bar and R chart
liable to be most helpful as a tool to control a process:
The machine capability is wider than the specification
The machine capability is equal to the specification
The machine capability is somewhat smaller than the specification
The machine capability is very small compared to the specification
10. What type of control chart employs a V-mask?
a.
b.
c.
d.
EWMA
Moving average
CuSum
Short run
11. What lean technique is most widely used to make problems visible?
a.
b.
c.
d.
JIT
5S
Kaizen
SMED
12. An attempt to minimize the impact of human error in a process is
called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Poka – yoke
Jidohka
Kaizen
Muda
114
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
13. Which of the following statements is NOT true in regard to X bar
control charts?
A. The width of the limits are usually set at plus or minus 3 standard
deviations of the process
B. The width of the limits are inversely proportional to the square root of
the sample size
C. If the process is in control, 2700 points per million will fall outside the
control limits
D. If the process is in control, ½ the points will fall below the center line
a.
b.
c.
d.
A
B
C
D
14. What does the parameter
chart?
a.
b.
c.
d.

stand for when plotting an EWMA
The variance
The depth of memory
The time that sample is taken
The number of observations to be monitored
15. Which of the following techniques
compliment the visual factory concept?
a.
b.
c.
d.
does
NOT
necessarily
Kanban
Tool boards
5S
Poka-yoke
16. Given that resistors are produced in lots of 1000 and the average
number of defective resistors per lot is 12.7, what are the upper
and lower limits for the control chart appropriate for this process?
a.
b.
c.
d.
LCL = 2.0 UCL = 23.4
LCL = 3.8 UCL = 20.2
LCL = 0.031 UCL = 0.131
LCL = 1.5 UCL = 26.7
17. If six consecutive samples were taken from a process and
measured precisely, one would still expect to find differences.
What type of variation would be most difficult to determine?
115
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
Lot a lot variation
Piece to piece variation
Inherent process variation
Error of measurement
18. Total productive maintenance involves coordinated group
activities fro greater equipment effectiveness. Which of the
following elements are also included?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Predictive maintenance
Preventative maintenance
Increased machine reliability
Ease of maintenance
I and II only
II and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
19. What % of product should fall between the P – C lines (green zone)
on a pre-control chart, assuming that the process is stable?
a.
b.
c.
d.
60%
68.4%
86%
95.4%
20. When using a pre-control chart, it’s possible to have two
consecutive samples outside of the target are but inside of the
specification. What is the expectation that two consecutive
samples would both fall between the target area and
specification limit on the high side?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1/7
1/49
1/196
1/98
21. In control chart theory, the distribution of the number of defects
per unit follows very closely the:
a. Normal distribution
b. Binomial distribution
c. Chi-square distribution
116
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
d. Poisson distribution
22. If we drew a large number of samples from a controlled process,
we would not be surprised to discover:
I.
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Some differences among the values of the sample means
A distribution of sample means around some central value
That many sample means differ from the process average
I only
II only
I and III only
I, II and III
23. If the specifications limits are narrower than the control limits, then:
I.
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The process is not capable
The process is considered to be out of control is a point falls
beyond the specification limits
The specification limit replace the control limits on the chart
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
24. As applied to a Six Sigma environment, how would control chart
variables be selected?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
From CTQ characteristics
From KPIV’s
From KPOV’s
From non-critical KPIVs and KPOVs
I and IV only
I, II and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV only
25. The main difference between traditional Kaizen and the Kaizen
blitz approach is:
a. The number of people involved
b. The pace of the change effort
117
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
c. The amount of floor space saved
d. The commitment level of maintenance
26. Why are variable control chart subgroup size generally 3, 4, 5 or 6?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Larger subgroup sizes would permit an opportunity for process
changes within the subgroup
The fit onto traditional chart paper very well
They are large enough so that averages of data will follow the
normal distribution
They permit a separation of within time from time to time variation
II and III only
I and II only
I, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
27. If value of one is used for
outcome?
a.
b.
c.
d.

in an EWMA chart, what will be the
The chart becomes meaningless
Only older data would be considered
The variance of the EWMA statistic cannot be calculated
The plot becomes a Shewhart chart
28. In addition, to determining if a process is in statistical control, what
other applications can be made from variable control chart data?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Determining if changes made to the system were effective
Determining the natural tolerance range of the process
Determining when corrective action is necessary
Determining if inspection costs can be minimized
I and III only
I, III and IV only
II and III only
I, II, III and IV
29. Identify the most logical reason for using short run SPC charts:
a. There is limited operator time
b. There is limited data
c. There is a need to plot multiple variables per chart
118
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
d. There is a need to simplify the charting process
30. If a process is truly in control, what is the probability of observing a
run violation of seven or more consecutive points on either side of
the X bar chart centerline?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1/32
1/64
1/128
1/256
31. What is the inherent danger in using an X bar and sigma chart with
sample size of 25?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Finding appropriate control limit factors
Interpreting the chart property
Recording 25 data points in the data table
Capturing too much variation in the sample
32. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the short
run set chart?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The control limits are looser than with X bar – R charts
The X – bar value is subtracted from the target
It can be used to plot die cavity data
Both high and low range values are plotted
33. A “p” chart:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Can be used for only one type of defect per chart
Plots the number of defects in a sample
Plots either the fraction or percent defective in order of time
Plots variations in dimensions
34. Which control chart is normally used when monitoring the number
of nonconformities per unit?
a.
b.
c.
d.
c chart
x bar chart
np chart
u chart
35. What two distinct types of variation are noted in control charts?
119
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
Random and chance
Special and assignable
Chance and assignable
Normal and random
36. Certain Six Sigma improvement efforts have resulted in the need to
replace the existing measurement system and others have not.
What could be the reasons for staying with an existing system?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
It’s precise enough
No better equipment exists
The current measurement is based on count data
The improvement has not been successful
I only
II and III only
I, II and IV only
I, II, III and IV
37. When used together for variables data, which of the following pair
of quantities is the most useful in preparing control charts?
a.
b.
c.
d.
AQL, p – bar
p, n
X-bar and R
R, sigma
38. An R chart is the most closely related to a:
a.
b.
c.
d.
c chart
S chart
U chart
Xbar chart
39. An X bar – R chart with n = 5 has been plotted for some time and
has demonstrated random variation. Upon review of the last 30
plot points, the expected number of runs around the centerline on
the X bar chart is expected to be approximately which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
4
12
9
16
120
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
40. Standard work as visualized by the Japanese means:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Working harder
Working safer
Working productively
Working under extreme constraints
I and II only
III and IV only
II and III only
I and IV only
41. Which of the following are included in the principles of 5 S?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sorting out
Systematic arrangement
Self-discipline
Systems management
I only
I, II and III only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
42. There are “six big losses” that many TPM efforts attempt to minimize.
Identify the element that would NOT be included:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Equipment failure
Reduced yields
Employee absenteeism
Setup and adjustment
43. Non-value added activities on the factory flow are most clearly
controlled by the elimination of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Gemba
Muda
Poka-yoke
Kaizen
44. The control chart that is most sensitive to variations in a
measurement is:
a. p chart
121
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
b. np chart
c. c chart
d. X bar and R chart
45. American visitors to an aluminum plant in Japan were given white
gloves to wear. What category of the 5S program was being
displayed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sort
Scrub
Straighten
Standardize
46. A short run means chart, as suggested by Bothe, requires which of
the following conditions?
I.
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
That mean values be converted into Z values
That no traditional interpretation rules apply
That the control limits be  A2
I only
II and III only
I and III only
I, II and III
47. The best chart for analyzing volatile data, like stock market
averages or commodity prices, would be:
a.
b.
c.
d.
EWMA
CuSum
Moving Average
Short run
48. What is a major component of SPC?
a.
b.
c.
d.
EVOP
Control Charts
Total productive maintenance
DOE
49. Review the following 5S elements and identify the step that is being
referenced.
-
Determine who has missing items
122
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
-
Create a name and location for everything
Use aisle and material placement markings
Use labels, tool boards and color codes
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sort
Straighten
Scrub
Systematize
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
50. Since CuSum charts are more complicated to operate than
Shewhart control charts, what is the most logical reason for using
them at all?
I.
II.
III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
They require less data
They can be computer generated
They can detect smaller shifts in the process mean
I only
II and III only
I and III only
I, II and III
51. Which of the following charts does NOT require the averaging of
variable data ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Moving average chart
X bar – R chart
mX – mR chart
Multi-vari chart
52. Given an average of 1.93 nonconformities per 5 units, what is the
upper limit of the control chart used in this situation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
6.10
2.45
7.13
3.79
53. The sensitivity of a p-chart to changes in quality is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Equal to that of a range chart
Equal to that of a chart for averages
Less than that of a c chart
Greater than that of a u chart
123
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
54. How many of the following Japanese techniques are supportive of
operational control?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Poka yoke
5S
TPM
Kanban
II and IV only
I, II and IV only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
55. Kanban concepts includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pull instead of push
JIT
One piece flow
Storage in the warehouse but not on the production floor
56. Identify the LEAST likely result of adopting standardized work
procedures:
a.
b.
c.
d.
The tend to minimize variability
They are a basis for training
They assume marketplace success
They preserve know-how and expertise
57. Which of the following types of control charts has the largest
average run length for small shifts in the process mean?
a.
b.
c.
d.
X bar
Cumulative sum
EWMA
Dodge-Romig
58. Kaizen techniques:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Are initiated by manufacturing workers
Should be planned properly
Can be expensive and nor worth doing
Are important only when producing products
124
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
59. Compute the upper control limit an S chart, based on a sample
size of 10, if the process is in control with a mean of 40 and a
sample standard deviation of 7
a.
b.
c.
d.
12.0
13.3
15.7
21.0
60. Pre-control starts a process specifically centered between:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Process limits
Specification limits
Normal distribution limits
Three-sigma control limits
125
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
9. Lean Enterprise
1. Lean enterprise may be summarized as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
An entire organization involved with improvement
Implementation of SMED cycle time techniques
Poka-yoke principles in the workplace
Ergonomics principles in the workplace
2. The theory of constraints concentrates mainly on:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Understanding customer needs
Developing a value stream map
Achieving on-time goals
Removing process bottlenecks
3. Where is the weakest link in the system chain?
Demand 30 units / hr
STEP I
STEP II
STEP III
20 units/hr
40 units/hr
12 units/hr
a.
b.
c.
d.
STEP IV
STEP V
16 units/hr
20 units/hr
CUSTOMER
Step I
Step III
Step IV
Step V
4. Ergonomics reduces injuries and lost production. Which of the following
are sound ergonomic principles in the work place?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Safety programs
Changing employees to fit work place
Re-designing tools to reduce stress
Job rotations
I only
II and III only
I, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
126
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
5. What is the maximum output per hour from the system below?
Demand 30 units / hr
STEP I
STEP II
STEP III
20 units/hr
40 units/hr
12 units/hr
a.
b.
c.
d.
STEP IV
STEP V
16 units/hr
20 units/hr
CUSTOMER
20
16
12
6
6. Lean thinking enables companies to:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Find the best way to specify value for the customer
Identify the value stream for each product
Permit the customer to pull values as needed from the producer
Reduce waste
I and IV only
II and III only
I, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
7. Identify elements of Muda from the options below:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Over production
In process inspection by operators
Repair
Excess motion
I and IV only
I, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
I and III only
8. Which of the following is NOT a defect elimination and defection
techniques?
a. Vender certificate of compliance
b. Poka-yoke
127
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
c. Source inspection
d. Self checks by operators
9. Value stream mapping means:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Flow charting techniques
An identification of inputs, tasks and outputs
A pictorial view that identifies process steps
A graphical slow-charting technique that shows material and
information flows
10. Identify the element that is NOT associated with excess inventory?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Storage space
Additional labor
Transportation vehicles
Expensive poka-yoke devices
11. What is a jidhoka?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A totally automated process to reduce defectives
A device that identifies good parts
A technique which separates defectives from good parts
A device that stops the machine whenever a defective is produced
12. Which of the following task is value added?
a.
b.
c.
d.
An appropriate product development process
Reworking parts to meet customers requirements
MRB meetings
Efficient material handling of customer returns
13. Identify the most common technique to reduce set-up time:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Kaizen
SMED
Six Sigma
Value stream mapping
14. Identify the best way to error proof activities?
a. By corrective actions
b. By preventive actions
c. By containment actions
128
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
d. By temporary actions
15. When comparing push versus pull concepts, who is really doing the
push?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The customer
Cycle time
Company management
The takt time
16. Calculate the takt time as per the system data provided?
Demand 30 units / hr
STEP I
STEP II
STEP III
20 units/hr
40 units/hr
12 units/hr
a.
b.
c.
d.
STEP IV
STEP V
16 units/hr
20 units/hr
CUSTOMER
5 minutes
1. 8 minutes
3 minutes
2 minutes
17. ABC manufacturing company has just hired a new manger as a
champion to implement lean initiatives. The champion’s first task is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Review the lean program with senior management
Define the current state map
Develop an implement program
Talk to everyone about their personal needs
18. What is the equipment availability is there are 7.5 hours available per
shift, 30 minutes of setup time, 15 minutes of planned downtime and
15 minutes of unscheduled equipment failure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
87%
93%
90%
85%
129
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
19. The Shingo prize business model does NOT consider:
a.
b.
c.
d.
The strategic planning process
Benchmarking
Innovation
Community support
20. Which of the following is non-value added activity?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Design reviews
Vendor assessments
Inventory reductions
Receiving inspection to ensure incoming quality
21. A value stream map does NOT normally provide data on:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Changeover time
Cycle time
Work in process inventory
Finished goods inventory
22. Identify the lean thinking statement that is NOT true?
a. Lean concepts include value, value stream, flow, pull and perfection
b. Lean spans product development, production, purchasing and
customer support
c. Lean streamlines processes for better output
d. Lean thinking often means reduction of people
23. Which of the following is NOT considered muda?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Design reviews
Uneven scheduling of work
Reshaping a die after installation
Breakdowns in machinery
24. Which of the following is NOT considered Muda?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Rework due poor molding
Performing design validation
In-process inspection by a inspector
Re-tooling because of engineering changes
130
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
25. Identify the business element that NOT might reduce cycle time?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Utilizing problem solving tools
Implementing 5S
Practicing SMED
Supervising people
26. What forms of transportation and storage are considered muda?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Conveyer belts
Hand trucks
Fork trucks
Pallets and bins
II and III only
I and III only
I and IV only
I, II, III and IV
27. Which two of the following approaches are appropriate for gradual
improvements?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Standard work
Poka-yoke
Taguchi loss function
Six Sigma efforts
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
III and IV only
28. According to Womack, the most important lean principle is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pursue quality
Make value flow
Pursue cost reduction
Satisfy customers
29. What is required for SMED?
a. All internal and external setup steps must be reviewed in detail
b. Outside specialists with knowledge on dies must be consulted
131
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
c. Outstanding
personnel
communications
between
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
operators
and
setup
d. Process mapping of improvement steps
30. Lean manufacturing would be most concerned with:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Reducing waste
Reducing people
Reducing management layers
Eliminating bottlenecks in a process
I and IV only
I, II, III and IV
I, II and IV only
I and III only
31. Identify the most difficult limitation in achieving continuous flow.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Untrained employees
Existing equipment
Employee culture
Middle management involvement
32. Which of the following characterize the Muda of waiting?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Idle operators
Machinery breakdown
Uneven schedules
Unnecessary meetings
I and II only
II, III and IV only
I, II, III and IV
I, III and IV only
33. Which of the following is NOT a TOC principle?
a. Maximizing throughput
b. The system optimization is the sum of the optimum individual process
steps
c. System thinking is essential managing change and solving problems
d. Continuous improvement is required
132
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
34. In a production factory, utilizing the pull system, which of the following
may NOT be achieved?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Reduced raw material inventory
Reduced in-process inventory
Increased prices
Reduced finished good inventory
35. Which of the following is NOT a critical element in cycle time
reduction?
a.
b.
c.
d.
JIT training
Middle management commitment
Motion studies
Kaizen
36. One would say that continuous flow manufacturing:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Increases product damage
Requires less storage and transport
Reduces cycle time
Provides mechanisms to solve other production problems
I and II only
I and III only
II and IV only
II, III and IV only
133
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
10. Design for Six Sigma
1. In the new product process, the “fuzzy front end” refers to:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Idea generation
Sorting of ideas
Study concepts
Feasibility checkouts
I and II only
II and III only
I and III only
I, II, III and IV
2. In the roof of the house of quality, an analysis is performed on the
relationships of engineering characteristics. Conflicts in optimization
can be identified. This is similar to which other DFSS technique?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pugh method
FMEA
Axiomatic design
TRIZ
3. The person or team responsible for the new product from initial
concept to final launch is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
The team
Project manager
General manager
The designer
4. New products will account for a large percentage of company sales.
The typical ratio of a new product ideas to successful products is in
the range of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1:1
7:1
20:1
50:1
134
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
5. In Taguchi Methods, a factor that results in a response variable and
can be equated to an independent variable is called a:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Control Factor
Signal factor
Noise factor
Dependent variable
6. The stage gate process is used by many companies to screen and
pass projects. Many companies may fail to use the process properly.
A common problem in the stage gate process that could negate its
benefits would be:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Failure to kill a project
Too many kills in the system
Teams are overloaded with projects
Requirements are not established
7. When calculating tolerances, the following average loss function
equation is used in what situation?
A0 20
L( y )  2
y
a.
b.
c.
d.
Smaller-is-better
Nominal-is-best
Larger-is-better
6 Sigma-is-better
8. In the design of many parts and products, it is best if the deviation
from the target not exceed a certain amount. The best tolerance
objective is termed:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Nominal-is-best
Larger-is-better
Smaller-is-better
6 Sigma-is-better
135
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
9. Six Sigma design uses the following sequence in the creation of new
products:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Define
Verify
Design
Analyze
Measure
II, I, V, IV and III
I, V, II, IV and III
I, V, IV, III and II
I, V, IV and III only
10. Robust design methods can be used in product design. The various
factors to consider in robust design include all the following EXCEPT:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Tolerance parameter factor
Noise factors
Signal factors
Control factors
11. Taguchi’s function describes the financial loss to society that will
occur upon a deviation of a quality characteristics from its target
value. Identify the loss function equation statement that is NOT true:
L( y)  k ( y  m) 2
a.
b.
c.
d.
L(y) is the financial loss to society
k is the derived constant
y is the tolerance
m is the target value
12. In robust design, the functional limits or tolerances of a device are set:
a.
b.
c.
d.
by experimentation and testing
by using a safety factor of 4
By using engineering experience
By using 6 sigma limits
13. A product is functionally robust if it meets these requirements:
I.
Input factors are within tolerance limits
136
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
Can withstand variation in input conditions
Can achieve performance requirements
Can have limited input variation
I only
II and III only
I and III only
I, II, III and IV
14. DFM ( or design for manufacturability ) attempts to accomplish all of
the following objectives, EXCEPT for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Testability
Environmental control
Producibility
Reduced number of manufacturing operations
15. Ishikawa developed a tree diagram ( a map called a “ quality table” )
to translate customer desires into design requirements. Therefore, the
characteristics of good quality could be passed on to the product
development function. This map is commonly referred to as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Failure mode and effects analysis
Quality function deployment
Advanced quality planning
Cause and effect diagramming
16. In robust design technology, which of the following factors would NOT
be considered a noise factor?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ambient temperature
Carbon content in cast iron
Weather conditions
Sun spots
17. In robust design, a factor that can cause unknown variability, or an
error in the response factor is considered a:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Signal factor
Control factor
Noise factor
Response factor
137
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
18. Taguchi has a set of equations for signal-to-noise calculations. The
signal-to-noise equation below represents
yi2
S

    log 1010
N
n
a.
b.
c.
d.
Larger-is-better
Nominal-is-best
Normal ser
Smaller-is-better
19. In the design of a product, Design for X ( DFX ) can be described as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Design for anything
A very effective method for manufacturability of parts
A new technique encompassing Six Sigma
A knowledge-based design approach
20. In axiomatic design, the coupling of functional requirements creates
which of the following problems?
a.
b.
c.
d.
There will be more information generated
The design will not handle the linkages in proper order
A resolution of the conflicts from the additional requirements
The optimization of one function may affect the others
21. The product development process should consist of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
An individual product developer
A relay team of function to function specialist
Internal quality teams
Multi-functional teams
22. TRIZ is a methodology for problem solving and is quite useful in the
design phase of a product. Which of the following methods are
employed in TRIZ?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Trial and error
Reference to a trick
Use of physical effects (physics)
Combination of tricks and physics
138
UIA – MIC EXAMEN DE CONOCIMIENTOS GENERALES SEIS SIGMA
a.
b.
c.
d.
P. REYES / JUNIO 2004
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III only
II, III and IV only
23. In axiomatic design theory, there are 4 domains: customer, functional
physical and process. The mapping of information for each domain
makes axiomatic design somewhat similar to the QFD. That is, the
previous domain represents a “what” type of attribute. The receiving
domain represents another type of attribute, described as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Where
Why
When
How
24. Quality Function Deployment, also known as the House of Quality, is
used in the design process. It has various benefits, the most critical
being:
a.
b.
c.
d.
People are aligned and think together
Designers have access to the right technical specs
Customers put their wants down on paper
Competitive analysis is developed objectively
139