HR TAMPA
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE QUIZ
1.
Title VII states that employers cannot discriminate based on all BUT which of the following:
a. age
b. sex
c. race
d. religion
2.
Racial data are not permitted on application blanks, and therefore the EEOC allows a “visual”
survey that is not used in the selection process. This ______ is considered separately from the
application blank:
a. EEO-1 report
b. EEO supplementary form
c. applicant flow data form
d. EEO compliance investigation form
3.
Job enlargement is the concept of:
a. increasing the depth of the job
b. broadening the scope of the job
c. adding responsibility and challenge to the job
d. giving a person an entire job to perform
4.
What changes in U. S. businesses are due to global competition?
a. foreign-owned firms investing in U. S. plant, equipment, and services
b. increased employment and productivity to maintain the U. S. market advantage
c. closed facilities, reduced productivity and reduced employment in the automotive industry
d. U. S. businesses adopting the Japanese team-management practices
5.
If relative to your work effort, you are paid more than a lazy co-worker, you probably believe:
a. that the company’s compensation system is equitable
b. that the company’s compensation system is unfair
c. that your co-worker is being cheated by the company
d. in the concept of equal pay for all work
6.
When a discrimination complaint is received by the EEOC or a similar agency, it must be
processed. The correct order of the steps in completing the process of compliance is:
a. conciliation; right to sue; litigation; jurisdiction
b. litigation; conciliation; jurisdiction; right to sue
c. jurisdiction; conciliation; right to sue; litigation
d. right to sue; conciliation; jurisdiction; litigation
7.
Once a ______ case of discrimination has been made, the burden of proof shifts to the employer to
show that no illegal discrimination occurred:
a. prima facie
b. valid
c. reliable
d. disproportionate
8.
Job analysis responsibilities of the HR unit include:
a. setting internal job responsibilities
b. filling out position analysis questionnaires
c. writing job descriptions and job specifications
d. developing performance standards for each job class
9.
______ occurs when there is a substantially different rate of selection in hiring, promotion, or
other employment decisions which works to the disadvantage of members of protected groups.
a. reverse discrimination
b. a prima facie case
HR TAMPA
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE QUIZ
c.
d.
the “4/5 ths” rule
adverse impact
10. When conducting the following HR tasks, which is the proper order?
a. job specification, job description, job analysis, job evaluation
b. job analysis, job description, job specification, job evaluation
c. job description, job evaluation, job specification, job analysis
d. job evaluation, job description, job analysis, job specification
11. What indicates the what, why, where, and how a job is done?
a. job analysis
b. job descriptions
c. job specifications
d. job evaluations
12. Which of the following types of union security clauses require all new employees to join the union
within a specified period of time?
a. union shop
b. closed shop
c. maintenance of membership
d. agency shop
13. Which of the following is NOT part of the information needed in differentiation of jobs for job
analysis?
a. working conditions
b. supervision of employees
c. training required
d. interaction with others
14. In which type of organization structure are both flexibility and informal relationships most
emphasized:
a. functional
b. matrix
c. line and staff
d. project
15. An organization needed to hire 50 management trainees. They advertised and received 100
applications - 5 Hispanics and 25 women. The selection rate for non-minorities was 25%. How
many minorities should be hired to avoid an adverse impact chain?
a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 12
16. At which level of learning allows a person to translate or interpret information?
a. application
b. comprehension
c. analysis
d. synthesis
17. A Technician II earns $12.00 per hour. The range for Technician II is $10.00 to $20.00 per hour.
What is the compa-ratio for this Technician II position?
a. 1.20
b. .60
c. .80
HR TAMPA
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE QUIZ
d.
.85
18. An organization that gives preference to applicants referred by current employees could be guilty
of:
a. disparate treatment
b. a historically discriminatory practice
c. reverse discrimination
d. intentional discrimination
19. A highly structured job questionnaire focuses on which one of the following elements?
a. worker-oriented behaviors
b. technological similarities of different jobs
c. job-oriented elements
d. technical aspects of work
20. Which of the following conditions is an example of a work force indicator?
a. consumer price index
b. gross domestic product
c. interest rates
d. wage rates
21. Which of the following is composed of motions and is a “distinct identifiable work activity”?
a.
task
b. duty
c.
job
d. position
22. The three key elements included in a job analysis are:
a. responsibilities, tasks, reporting structure
b. knowledge, skills, abilities
c. competencies, qualifications, procedures
d. reporting structure, pay range, essential job functions
23. For a development program to succeed, which level(s) of management must be deeply involved?
a. top management
b. middle management
c. primarily the HR managers
d. all levels of management
24. Which clause in a labor contract identifies the unilateral right to decide or make changes in any
areas not identified in that contract?
a. management rights clause
b. grievance clause
c. union security clause
d. distributive clause
25. Which of the following is the best way for an organization to determine recruiting effectiveness?
a. analyze yield ratios
b. conduct a needs assessment
c. conduct employee surveys
d. review industry data
26. The extent to which the job includes an identifiable unit of work with a visible outcome is called:
a. skill variety
b. task identity
c. task significance
HR TAMPA
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE QUIZ
d.
autonomy
27. An exemption that allows employers to purposefully exclude a protected group member from
employment is:
a. BFC
b. OFCCP
c. BFOQ
d. EEOC
28. Productivity is most often defined as the:
a. ratio of output to input
b. ratio of input to output
c. amount of effort invested
d. same as effectiveness
29. A benefit is:
a. a reward for organizational membership
b. tied directly to performance
c. an incentive
d. direct compensation
30. The first step in the EEO compliance investigation, once jurisdiction has been determined to exist,
is:
a. an attempt to reach no fault settlement
b. charges are filed by an individual, a group of individuals, or their representative
c. the regulatory commission staff reviews the specifics of the charges
d. the complaint is processed
31. Which of the following learning curves illustrates how a trainee learns the basics of a new,
complex skill?
a. plateau
b. S-shaped
c. increasing returns
d. decreasing returns
32. The employer has legal and financial obligations when investing benefit program funds under
ERISA. This is known as:
a. prudent person rule
b. fiduciary responsibility
c. improshare
d. financial regulation
33. Which of the following quality management consultants advocates a 14-point program and ‘four
quality absolutes’?
a. W. Edwards-Deming
b. Joseph M. Juran
c. Philip B. Crosby
d. All three consultants
34. This portion of an affirmative action plan identifies the number of protected group members
employed and the types of jobs that they hold in the organization.
a. utilization analysis
b. availability analysis
c. minority group identification
d. job group analysis
HR TAMPA
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE QUIZ
35. The Americans with Disabilities Act:
a. prohibits pre-employment physical examinations
b. covers many conditions of disability but not including rehabilitated drug users, and victims of
AIDS
c. applies to federal contractors and subcontractors having contacts valued more than $2,500
d. applies to private businesses having gross sales volumes greater than $250,000
36. The Confined Space Entry standard may require which of the following?
a. observers, attendants, and emergency rescue personnel
b. locking devices to prevent unexpected equipment start-up
c. equipment operator proficiency training
d. general knowledge of infectious diseases
37. An employee resigns because the employer has made the working conditions intolerable. This is
an example of:
a.
retaliatory discharge
b.
involuntary retirement
c.
constructive discharge
d.
coerced resignation
38. Assessing internal strengths and weaknesses involves understanding current employees and their
skills. This can be completed by considering all BUT one of the following concerns:
a.
individual performance data
b.
number of individuals performing each job
c.
individual mobility and geographic preferences
d.
individual employee demographics
39. Graphic rating scales and checklist performance appraisals are examples of:
a.
Behavioral Anchored Rating scales
b.
category rating methods
c.
paired comparison methods
d.
multiple rating systems
40. Many expatriates:
a. experience anxiety regarding their continued career progression during the period they are
“out of sight, out of mind”
b. regard an overseas assignment as the ultimate success
c. lose economic parity when they are repatriated
d. are not re-absorbed into the company when their overseas assignment ends
41. A common complaint about the effectiveness of training centers or seminar centers is that:
a. they are too expensive
b. the material is too elementary
c. they interfere with the worker’s family life
d. they do not deal with workplace realities
42. Organizational and recognition picketing is prohibited if a union has been recognized or a valid
election occurred within the previous _______
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 6 months
d. 12 months
43. Which approach to international staffing treats each subsidiary as a distinct national entity with
“some” decision-making autonomy?
a. Ethnocentric
b. Polycentric
HR TAMPA
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE QUIZ
c.
d.
Geocentric
Regiocentric
44. Which of the following learning strategies relies on deductive reasoning?
a. tunnel
b. hourglass
c. funnel
d. inverted funnel
45. One of the following is not a major employee problem serviced by EAPs
a. alcoholism or drug abuse
b. mental or emotional disorders
c. marital or family problems
d. financial counseling
46. Which of the following statements about defined contribution plans is TRUE?
a. Employees have an ongoing responsibility to contribute to the plan.
b. Employees of not-for-profit or public-sector organizations are not eligible.
c. Employers have no obligation to contribute to the plan, only to manage it.
d. Employees assume risk in relation to how well the plan does.
47. A manager can best affect an employee’s development by:
a. giving him/her a pay raise
b. concentrating on the employee’s goals and potential
c. talking to the employee’s spouse
d. requiring him/her to conform to a dress code
48. In the safety hierarchy, the first priority is:
a. to train and instruct
b. to install warning signs
c. to eliminate the hazard completely
d. to provide physical protective gear
49. A technique that avoids group think in forecasting HR needs is:
a. judgmental
b. nominal group
c. Delphi
d. brainstorming
50. Which of the following behavior changes might an organization expect from the implementation
of a physical fitness program?
a. fewer losses due to accidents
b. less absenteeism
c. improved blood pressure
d. lower workers’ compensation costs
51. Organizations compute accident frequency and severity rates for reporting to OSHA EXCEPT
when:
a. figuring the frequency of time-off-the-job cases
b. figuring the number of lost work days
c. figuring the number of injuries that respond to first aid treatment
d. figuring the number of deaths
52. The Act which limited the issuance of federal court injunctions against labor disputes and “yellowdog” contracts was the:
a. Norris-LaGuardia Act
b. Sherman Anti-Trust Act
HR TAMPA
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE QUIZ
c.
d.
Wagner Act
Civil Rights Act
53. An employee falls from an unstable scaffolding while talking on a cellular phone. This is an
example of an:
a. unsafe conditions
b. incident
c. unrecognized hazard
d. access control violation
54. An employer who shares a common area or premises with a company being struck by its union
may do the following:
a. restrict picketing to specified area
b. establish a separate or reserved entrance for its employees
c. assist company being struck by sharing its workers
d. obtain court injunction under the secondary boycott restriction
55. Determining training needs must be done before a course of action can be planned. The
identification of training needs by comparing the requirements of the job to the knowledge, skills,
and abilities of employees is an example of which of the following?
a. organizational analyses
b. task analyses
c. individual analyses
d. environmental analyses
56. The economic rationale for most security programs is based on which of the following cost
considerations
a. Risk containment requirements
b. Lost investment income incurred in a loss
c. Insurance or other indemnity available
d. Protection costs versus cost of losses incurred without the protection
57. Joanne Knowles is a clerk typist who is paid a salary of $360 per week. This week, Joanne
worked four hours overtime (44 hours) and also received a non-discretionary bonus of $40.00.
What is Joanne’s gross pay for this week?
a. $420.00
b. $430.50
c. $454.00
d. $460.00
58. A written accident report should contain information about all except one of the following:
a. identify why the accident occurred
b. identify by name and social security number, all the witnesses to the accident
c. recommendation about how the accident could have been prevented
d. recommendation about what changes could prevent future similar accidents
59. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be the result of social and recreational programs and
benefits?
a. increased employee happiness
b. strengthened interpersonal relationships
c. increased job satisfaction
d. stronger team spirit
60. A strike occurs when workers refuse to work in order to put pressure on an employer. This type of
strike occurs during the life of the collective bargaining agreement without approval of union
leadership, and in violation of a no-strike clause in a labor contract:
HR TAMPA
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE QUIZ
a.
b.
c.
d.
economic strike
jurisdictional strike
sympathy strike
wildcat strike
61. The funds in a flexible spending account can be used to purchase any of the following, except:
a. disability insurance
b. child-care benefits
c. pensions
d. life insurance
62. After an election has been directed by the NLRB, the union has requested a list of all employees’
names and addresses (Excelsior list). The company must do the following:
a. provide the list directly to the union
b. advise the union why the list will not be provided
c. inform the NLRB of the request
d. provide the list to the NLRB
63. This type of bargaining occurs when one party must win and the other must lose over a conflicting
issue:
a. distributive bargaining
b. integrative bargaining
c. principle negotiation
d. intra-organizational bargaining
64. Your company advertised several openings for network administrators. The applicant flow log
shows the following data:
EEO CATEGORY
Blacks
Whites
Hispanics
APPLICANTS
5
20
10
INTERVIEWS
1
10
5
HIRES
1
5
2
The information shows the following bottom line concept:
a. no adverse impact on any protected group
b. adverse impact on both Hispanics and Blacks
c. adverse impact on Hispanics
d. advance impact on Blacks
65. Using the above information, the yield ratio for qualified Hispanics is:
a. 20%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. a violation of the 4/5ths rule
66. The factor comparison method is actually a combination of the _______ and _______ methods.
a. point, market pricing
b. Hay Associates, ranking
c. ranking, point
d. job classification, forced choice ranking
67. Remaining economically competitive even while paying relatively high wages, can be achieved if
one can also attain an offsetting high productivity level. This concept uses the idea of:
a. labor productivity
b. individual productivity
c. effort
HR TAMPA
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE QUIZ
d.
unit labor cost
68. Which of the following acts established that the official policy of the U. S. government
encouraged collective bargaining?
a. Wagner Act
b. Taft-Hartley Act
c. Landrum-Griffin Act
d. Norris-LaGuardia Act
69. The Age Discrimination in Employment Acts:
a. will become more important as our work force ages
b. protects all workers over 40 against discrimination
c. applies to workers ages 40-70
d. means that older workers can never be terminated
70. Common assessment center activities include:
a. role-playing, cases, pen-and-paper tests
b. role-playing, job rotation, lectures
c. leaderless groups, games, job rotation
d. cases, lectures, tests
71. Equal Employment Opportunity regulations require that application forms:
a. must be valid predictors of job-related behaviors
b. must include EEOC-required data on the race and sex of applicant
c. must use the same form for all applicants regardless of whether the job opening is
for managerial, technical, clerical or production work
d. must be accompanied by a resume
72. Pre-employment drug testing is only legal if the test:
a. is used selectively with certain suspect applicants
b. is administered to all job applicants in a non-discriminatory manner
c. is repeated by a different lab if initial results are positive for drug use
d. is preceded by a medical questionnaire
73. Flexible benefit plans can tailor benefit packages to fit individual employees. Advantages of such
plans include all but one of the following:
a. cost-control efforts
b. benefit communication costs
c. employee awareness
d. recruiting, hiring and retaining employees
74. When an interviewer asks standardized questions of every applicant for the same job, it is:
a. a stress interview
b. a non-directive interview
c. a structured interview
d. an unstructured interview
75. Mental ability tests are used to measure:
a.
general level of intelligence
b. conceptual reasoning
c.
ability to learn or acquire keyboarding skill
d. general knowledge
76. During a de-authorization election, employees who failed to vote are:
a. in effect, casting a vote for de-authorization
b. have no effect on the election outcome
HR TAMPA
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE QUIZ
c.
d.
in effect casting a vote against the de-authorization of the union.
not counted as employees for the purpose of the election
77. _______ pension plan, all the funds for pension benefits are provided by the employer:
a. defined contribution
b. defined benefit
c. contributory
d. noncontributory
78. Which job evaluation method is the most widely used?
a. classification method
b. market pricing
c. ranking method
d. point factor method
79. Amendments to the original Age Discrimination Act eventually established mandatory retirement
age as:
a. 65
b. 70
c. 75
d. none of the above
80. A research interview:
a. diagnoses an employee’s strengths and weaknesses
b. is an alternative to a printed survey
c. requires the interviewer to be carefully non-judgmental and not offer any type of
feedback to the interviewee
d. is more cost effective than buying prepared survey systems
81. If an employee normally earns $400 per week, is protected by a 90% SUB program, and
is receiving $160.00 unemployment compensation per week, his or her weekly SUB payment will
be:
a. $147.60
b. $160.00
c. $200.00
d. $360.00
82. Gathering data on compensation rates for workers performing similar jobs in other organizations is
known as:
a. scattergramming
b. compensation grading
c. wage/salary survey
d. pay structuring
83. To develop a weighted application blank, firms use:
a. EEOC guidelines
b. applicant evaluation
c. job analysis
d. uniform guidelines
84. The main focus of job evaluation is:
a. to determine the relative worth of jobs
b. to produce a pay system that ensures internal equity for jobs
c. to equalize the pay system so that all people performing under the same title,
(e.g. ‘secretary’) regardless of the nature of their task, will receive the same wage
d. to distinguish among the relative hazardousness of jobs and assign higher pay scale
HR TAMPA
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE QUIZ
to the more dangerous tasks
85. The most important factors HR specialists use in choosing from an array of selection tests are:
a. establishing the “best” test and always using the same test for the same purpose
b. ease of administering and interpreting
c. validity and reliability
d. having the test focused on job-related aptitudes and skills
86. When an organization conducts its own hourly employee wage survey:
a. employers with comparable positions should be selected
b. only employers of a similar size should be surveyed
c. only unionized firms should be surveyed
d. only similar industry firms should be surveyed
87. Tom Hart, who is a trainer in the claims department, has each trainee complete the claims form
one section at a time. He then checks for errors and gives feedback to the trainee. This concept is
based on:
a. immediate confirmation
b. positive reinforcement
c. negative reinforcement
d. punishment
88. A HR audit is:
a. an effort to evaluate the value of organizational human resources
b. an attempt to quantify the value of organizational human resources
c. an effort to evaluate the current state of HR management in an organization
d. a formal research effort to evaluate the current state of HR management in an
organization
89. According to Deming, the most disliked managerial activity is performance appraisal because:
a. it may be difficult to establish a measurable standard to measure against
b. employees are hostile to the idea of performance appraisal
c. managers would rather not be responsible for passing judgments on their
subordinates
d. it involves making comparisons between employees
90. An application form:
a. should include personal data about the applicant including name, address, social
security number, age, sex, marital status, education, experience, medical history, legal history
and references
b. provides the interviewer with a profile of the applicant that can be used in the
interview
c. must include a section about proof of citizenship
d. is required even if all employees are related to the owner/manager of a business
Scenario I
Emerald Jewelers has a management vacancy in its Ecuador office that needs to be filled immediately. Overseas
assignments are easy to fill, especially when they are in developed countries, because foreign assignments improve
one's career advancement. However, the Ecuador office is not considered a desirable location and the company is
concerned about filling the position. The company tries to maintain equal numbers of male and female expatriate
managers, and at the present there are 14 males and 13 females in foreign assignments. Based on seniority and
performance, the next three people in line for an overseas assignment are Sharon Liddle, Tom Simms, and Ann
Rogers. The company is concerned about offering the position to Sharon Liddle because she is pregnant, she has two
children in grade school, and her spouse is employed in a nearby company. Top management is concerned about the
stress of refusing an overseas assignment. On the other hand, Tom is single and Ann is a single parent with three
teenage children.
HR TAMPA
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE QUIZ
1. If the position is offered to Sharon and she accepts, what does research regarding expatriate
managers indicate is the most likely reason why she will fail?
a. Sharon’s family will have difficulty adjusting to a new environment
b. Sharon will be unable to adjust to a new language and different culture.
c. Sharon will be unable to learn the demands of the new job.
d. Sharon will not be accepted by her co-workers
2.
What is the best way to handle offering the job to Sharon?
a. Offer this job to another candidate to prevent creating unnecessary stress in her life and
marriage.
b. Offer her the job, but allow her to gracefully postpone accepting an overseas assignment.
c. Offer her the job and let her know that forfeiting this opportunity would likely remove her
from the list for future consideration.
d. Do not offer her the job, but assure her that she will be considered for the next assignment.
3. What are the best training materials to help Sharon adjust to culture shock?
a. A map showing prominent roads and important locations.
b. A Spanish/English dictionary
c. A book describing the political and economic history of the country
d. Video modeling showing the people and their customs.
4.
If Sharon is offered and refuses the overseas assignment and management considers offering the
job to Tom or Ann, which of the following considerations is illegal?
a. Offering the job to Ann since a woman is next in line for an overseas assignment.
b. Offering the job to Tom since he doesn't have any teenage children to care for.
c. Offering the job to Tom since he has never traveled overseas before.
d. Offering the job to Ann because being overseas would make dating more difficult for Tom.
Scenario II
During the first day of interviews, the director and the assistant director of sales interviewed 14 people who applied
to work as sales representatives. Before interviewing more applicants, the director decided to correlate how she
ranked these 14 applicants with how the assistant director ranked them. The correlation between the two rankings
was .35.
1. This correlation is a measure of
a. Conspect reliability
b. Alternate Forms reliability
c. Split halves reliability
d. Concurrent reliability
2. The correlation indicates that the interview process
a. Is not valid.
b. Is not reliable.
c. Is accurate 35 percent of the time.
d. Is reliable 35 percent of the time.
3. The correlation indicates that the director and assistant director probably
a. Are using a patterned interview schedule.
b. Are asking irrelevant questions.
c. Have different criteria for what makes a good sales representative.
d. Have different levels of previous interviewing experience.
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COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE QUIZ
4. Which of these processes probably contributed most to the correlation?
a. Halo effect
b. Contrast effect
c. Inconsistent criteria
d. Leniency-strictness effect
5. As they prepare to interview more applicants the director and assistant director should
a. Agree to average their rankings.
b. Review the job descriptions to clarify the necessary job skills.
c. Develop a 10-point rating scale rather than a ranking scale.
d. Evaluate the applicants independently.