1st SCW TEST
1.
What date is observed as the official anniversary of the Seabees?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2.
Marvin Shields
Lawrence “Bucky” Myers
Ben Moreell
John Wayne
Warning Plan
Operation Plan
Warning Order
Operation Order
What plan or order gives the authority to initiate supply,
personnel and administrative procedures required by a move?
a.
b.
c.
d.
6.
4
5
6
7
Which of the following plans or orders provides the course of
action to accomplish a future mission?
a.
b.
c.
d.
5.
1940
1941
1942
1943
Who was the first and only Seabee in history to receive the Medal
of Honor?
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.
March
March
March
March
How many articles are contained in the Code of Conduct for U.S.
fighting forces?
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
5
5
5
5
Warning Plan
Operation Order
Warning Order
Execution Order
What center provides the primary centralized control facilities
for the Battalion Commander?
a.
b.
c.
d.
MOCC
AMOCC
COC
ACOC
7.
What center controls, coordinates, and monitors movement of
personnel, supplies, and equipment to an embarkation staging
area?
a.
b.
c.
d.
8.
Which of the following reports provides a monthly statement of a
command’s enlisted personnel account?
a.
b.
c.
d.
9.
A-Co
B-Co
HQ-Co
C-Co
The distribution of personnel shortages and excesses is
determined by what document?
a.
b.
c.
d.
13.
S-3 Operations Officer
Command Master Chief
S-1 Administrative Officer
Military Advisor
Which company is known as the general Construction Company?
a.
b.
c.
d.
12.
Gunner’s Mate
Military Advisor
S-7 / S-2 Training and Intelligence Officer
Platoon Commander
Who is the legal officer in the Battalion?
a.
b.
c.
d.
11.
MCA
EDVR
EPMAC
BUPERS
Whose primary duties include providing advice and expertise in
small arms?
a.
b.
c.
d.
10.
MOCC
AMOCC
COC
ACOC
Naval Mission Plan
EDVR
BUPERS Manual
Naval Manning Plan
Who prepares operation orders for the Battalion?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Military Advisor
Commanding Officer
Executive Officer
S-3 Operations Officer
14.
Establishing equal opportunity programs for each command is the
responsibility of the _____________________?
a.
b.
c.
d.
15.
Which company is known as the Shops and Utilities Company?
a.
b.
c.
d.
16.
3
5
7
9
mA
mA
mA
mA
OPNAV
OPNAV
OPNAV
OPNAV
5100/11
5100/12
5100/13
5100/14
Steel-toed shoes
Hard hats
Both A and B
None
Who chairs the Command’s safety policy committee?
a.
b.
c.
d.
20.
to
to
to
to
Which of the following is/are worn at all construction sites,
shop spaces, warehouses, storage yards, industrial areas and
other areas designated by the Safety Officer?
a.
b.
c.
d.
19.
1
3
5
7
Which of the following OPNAV forms is for Unsafe/Unhealthful
Working Condition Reporting?
a.
b.
c.
d.
18.
A-Co
B-Co
C-Co
HQ-Co
At what current level does the GFCI trip?
a.
b.
c.
d.
17.
Chief of Naval Education and Training
BUPERS Manual
Chief of Naval Operations
Command Managed Equal Opportunity Officer
Department Head
Executive Officer
Commanding Officer
Safety Officer
Which of the following shop operations has the highest potential
for eye hazards?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Operating overhead machinery
Running the hazardous material storeroom
Cutting or welding metals
Testing electrical tools
21.
Prior to first use, temporary power sources are inspected,
certified safe and ________________?
a.
b.
c.
d.
22.
A lockout device can be any device that is designed to secure a
switch, valve or similar item in the _______________?
a.
b.
c.
d.
23.
108 dB
104 dB
84 dB
80 dB
What is the purpose of a mishap investigation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
27.
Commanding Officer
Gas-free Engineer
Work site supervisor
Safety Officer
A combination of insert type and circumaural type hearing
protective devices are required in areas where noise exceeds what
decibel level?
a.
b.
c.
d.
26.
108 dB
104 dB
84 dB
80 dB
Who is authorized to certify a confined space as safe for
personnel to enter?
a.
b.
c.
d.
25.
“On” or “Open” position
“On” or “Safe” position
“Off” or “Safe” Position
“Off” or “Open” position
Navy personnel must enter a hearing testing program when they
work for an eight-hour period in a designated hazardous noise
area above what decibel level?
a.
b.
c.
d.
24.
Checked
Locked
Opened
Tagged
To
To
To
To
determine person(s) at fault
prevent similar mishaps
recover damages
report the mishap
What type(s) of respirator(s) is/are used by the NCF?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Self-contained Breathing Apparatus
Air Purifying Respirator
Supplied Air Respirator
All of the above
28.
The command asbestos policy is extremely important since asbestos
is recognized as a/an __________________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
29.
How many principal pressure points are there on the human body?
a.
b.
c.
d.
30.
Vomiting
Cramps
Exhaustion
Choking
In the body the large vessels that carry blood from the heart are
_____________?
a.
b.
c.
d.
32.
22
18
20
11
The abdominal thrust (Heimlich) maneuver is a treatment for which
of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
31.
Major health hazard
First aid hazard
No health hazard
Command health hazard
Capillaries
Arteries
Veins
Tubercles
Which of the following should not be done when examining an
injured person?
a. Keep the
slightly
b. Move the
c. Describe
d. Keep the
maintain
33.
Which of the following can not be used to remove a victim that is
in contact with an energized circuit?
a.
b.
c.
d.
34.
victim lying down with their feet elevated
above their head
victim no more than is absolutely necessary
the victim’s injuries to him/her in graphic detail
injured person comfortably warm; warm enough to
normal body temperature
Dry stick
Your hands
Rope or leather belt
Blanket
Shock is a condition in which the circulation of blood is
seriously disturbed and causes a lack of oxygen to body systems.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
35.
What is the first method used in the control of bleeding?
a.
b.
c.
d.
36.
Pressure Points
Direct Pressure
Elevation
Tourniquet
It is imperative that a sucking chest wound be sealed as soon as
possible with an airtight dressing taped on 4 sides.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
37.
What type of burn forms blisters and is often the most painful?
a.
b.
c.
d.
38.
What type of heat casualty exhibits the following signs: hot dry
skin, constricted pupils and a very high body temperature?
a.
b.
c.
d.
39.
Heat
Heat
Heat
Heat
Stroke
Exhaustion
Cramps
Prostration
A victim that is shivering, listless, indifferent, and drowsy is
most likely suffering from ________________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
40.
First Degree
Second Degree
Third Degree
Special Category Burn
Deep Frost Bite
Superficial Frost Bite
Immersion Foot
Hypothermia
When reinforcing a battle dressing you should always remove the
old dressing before applying another dressing.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
41.
In a _________ fracture, the bone breaks the skin and tissues.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Closed or Simple
Open or Compound
Dislocation
Sprain or Strain
42.
Which of the following is not a method of disinfecting water for
drinking in the field?
a.
b.
c.
d.
43.
When performing 1-man CPR, the ratio of breaths to heart
compressions is?
a.
b.
c.
d.
44.
1
1
2
2
to
to
to
to
5
10
10
15
When performing 2-man CPR, the ratios of breaths to heart
compressions is?
a.
b.
c.
d.
45.
Iodine Tablets
Calcium Hydrochloride Ampoules
Boiling
Reverse Osmosis
1
1
2
2
to
to
to
to
5
10
10
15
Which of the following are characteristics of the Material Safety
Data Sheet (MSDS)?
a. Communicates to the user the chemical, physical, and hazardous
properties of that material
b. Document generated by the manufacturer about the material
c. Communicates the name, address, emergency contacts, fire and
explosive data, reactivity data, precautions for safe
handling, and control measures of the material
d. All of the above
46.
Personal protection equipment is not required when handling
Hazardous Materials or Hazardous Waste.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
47.
What is the storage procedure for incompatible materials?
a. Any container can be used as long as the materials are
separated
b. Materials may be stored in approved containers within 50 feet
of an ignition source
c. Materials may be stored in approved containers if they are
separated and placed a minimum of 50 feet from an ignition
source
d. Flammables, corrosive materials and toxic materials can be
stored together
48.
Explain the general procedures to follow when a Hazardous
Material / Hazardous Waste (HM/HW) spill is discovered.
a. Must have response team within 4 hours and some what of a
disposal plan
b. Unit must respond whenever they can
c. Reports must be made and tests conducted to ensure no
contamination remains same in the contamination area
d. Respond immediately with approved team, equipment, disposal
plan, reports made and tests conducted for remaining
contamination and disposal within strict guidelines
49.
Which best describes the required training for all hands with
respect to the HM/HW program?
a. Non-supervisory personnel receive specialized job-safety and
health training
b. Management receives training to ensure an aggressive and
continuing OSH program is implemented throughout the
activity
c. Supervisors receive training enabling them to recognize
unsafe and unhealthful conditions and practices and develop
skills necessary to manage the activity’s OSH program
d. All of the above
50.
The purpose of secondary labeling of hazardous material is to
inform the user by means of words, pictures, and/or symbols, the
specific health hazards, of the chemical in the container.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
51.
Booming is an effective means of oil spill containment on calm
water.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
52.
Minor property is valued between __________________________?
a.
b.
c.
d.
53.
$1.00 and $50.00
$1.00 and $100.00
$300.00 and $1,000.00
$300.00 and $5,000.00
What is the NAVSUP 1220-2 used for?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ordering material by NSN
Ordering material by part number
Requesting a change in allowance quantities
As a single line item Release/Receipt document
54.
What form is used to receive or turn in material to DRMO?
a.
b.
c.
d.
55.
1149
364
1348-1A
91
What dollar value of tool loss requires a DD 200(survey)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
56.
DD
SF
DD
SF
Line item over $35
Total loss over $100
Both A & B
All lost tools require survey
If item experiences 2 or more demands (hits) within a year, it
qualifies for the Selected Item Management (SIM) program.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
57.
What is purpose of a COSAL?
a.
b.
c.
d.
58.
To
To
To
To
serve as an example for submitting requisitions
provide authority to stock repair parts
track outstanding orders
provide procedures for vehicle maintenance
The Supply Officer of an NMCB is responsible for CTR and MLO as
well as the traditional supply outlets.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
59.
The thirteen digit stock number that identifies items in the
federal supply system is known as the ___________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
60.
NIS
AEL
APL
NSN
This ________ lists all repair parts installed in equipment and
the components to which they apply.
a.
b.
c.
d.
APL
AEL
ARP
ACR
61.
The two-character alphanumeric code designating inventory manager
is known as the __________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
62.
Which of the following acronyms is used when an item is ordered
and not on station?
a.
b.
c.
d.
63.
COSAL
TOA
MLN
OPTAR
Which of the following forms is used as a requisition and
consumption-reporting document for procuring non-NSN material?
a.
b.
c.
d.
67.
MLO
CTR
CSR
ARP
A listing of equipment and its support material, which allows a
unit to be self-sufficient for 1200 construction hours or 60
days, is the __________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
66.
SIM
COG
ROD
AEL
Which functional outlet issues and inventories repair parts for
CESE and material handling equipment?
a.
b.
c.
d.
65.
NSN
NC
COG
NIS
The inventory control principle is known as __________?
a.
b.
c.
d.
64.
COG
NIS
NSN
SIM
NAVSUP
NAVSUP
NAVSUP
NAVSUP
1250-3
1250-4
1250-1
1250-2
Which of the following forms is used to establish custody of
utility uniform articles?
a.
b.
c.
d.
COMCBPAC/COMCBLANT
COMCBPAC/COMCBLANT
COMCBPAC/COMCBLANT
COMCBPAC/COMCBLANT
4400/1
4400/2
4400/3
4400/4
68.
What is the Frequency Range of the AN/PRC-119?
a.
b.
c.
d.
69.
Notify COC and inform them you are changing your call sign
Call Beadwindow on that particular net
Contact that caller and ask them if they made a mistake
Call Gingerbread on that particular net
Radio
Communication Wire
Hand and arm signals
Messenger
Say nothing
Roger Out
Change to alternate frequency
Change your call sign
By stacking the SB-22 switchboard and utilizing the operator
pack, how many lines can be utilized?
a.
b.
c.
d.
74.
2
4
6
8
While transmitting from your station to another, the receiving
station responds with "Beadwindow" what is your response?
a.
b.
c.
d.
73.
kHz in 25 Hz steps
in 25 kHz steps
Mhz in 25 kHz steps
in 25 Hz steps
What is the least secure means of communication?
a.
b.
c.
d.
72.
87.975
90 Mhz
87.975
90 kHz
While monitoring the Battalion Tactical Net, you notice that
someone is using your call sign. What is the correct procedure
you should follow?
a.
b.
c.
d.
71.
to
to
to
to
How many Crypto fills can a KYK-13 hold in its memory?
a.
b.
c.
d.
70.
30
30
30
30
24
29
25
12
The TA-312/PT has a range of how many miles?
a.
b.
c.
d.
4 to 7
Limited to the length of the wire
14 to 22
2.5 to 10
75.
What three factors effect radio communication?
a.
b.
c.
d.
76.
When handling Top Secret information, what is one of the
conditions that must exist?
a.
b.
c.
d.
77.
Wire
Semaphone
Radio
Hand signals
Which of the following prowords is used to pass extremely
critical messages?
a.
b.
c.
d.
81.
Wire
Semaphone
Radio
Hand signals
What is the secondary method of communicating in a defense area?
a.
b.
c.
d.
80.
Long Range Communication
Line of Sight Communication
Satellite Communication
Sideband Communication
What is the primary method of communicating in a defense area?
a.
b.
c.
d.
79.
Handler must carry a weapon
Briefcase must be handcuffed to carrier
Two person integrity
Handler must have a minimum clearance of Confidential
What is one of the capabilities of the AN/PRC-119?
a.
b.
c.
d.
78.
Weather, Terrain, Frequency of transmission
Cosmic activity, Wind direction, Temperature
Terrain, Wind speed, Sun light
Operator, Wildlife, Sideband of transmission
Immediate
Flash
Routine
Priority
The safety on any weapon is to remain on safe until you are
actually aiming at a target and ready to fire.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
82.
What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?
a.
b.
c.
d.
50m
55m
45m
50yards
83.
The M9 pistol has how many safeties?
a.
b.
c.
d.
84.
What is the maximum range of the M16A2E3?
a.
b.
c.
d.
85.
500/800m
550/850m
550/800m
500/850m
What type of fire is not less than 1m above and not higher than
68 inches above the ground and can exist for 700m over level or
evenly sloping ground?
a.
b.
c.
d.
87.
3435m
3400m
3500m
3534m
The maximum effective range of the M16A2E3 point and area target
are?
a.
b.
c.
d.
86.
1
2
3
4
Plunging
Grazing
Overhead
Diving
Firing over hills, forests walls and other defenses is a tactical
purpose of the 60mm.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
88.
What is the maximum effective range of the MK-19 40mm machine
gun?
a.
b.
c.
d.
89.
3490m
2100m
3534m
1500m
What is a delay beyond normal ignition time for round
functioning?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hangfire
Misfire
Cook-off
Runway round
90.
What is the actual rate of fire a weapon can deliver for an
indefinite period is?
a.
b.
c.
d.
91.
What is the complete failure of a round to fire called?
a.
b.
c.
d.
92.
Chemical
Incendiary
Illuminating
Fragmentation
Which grenade produces 55,000-candle power for a period of 25
seconds?
a.
b.
c.
d.
96.
1100/3725m
1500/2212m
1830/6800m
1630/6800m
Which of the following grenades is used to destroy equipment?
a.
b.
c.
d.
95.
100/250m
150/300m
200/350m
150/350m
What are the maximum effective range and maximum range for the
M2HB.50 Cal?
a.
b.
c.
d.
94.
Hangfire
Cook-off
Misfire
Damaged round
What are the maximum ranges for point and area targets for the
M203 grenade launcher?
a.
b.
c.
d.
93.
Sustained rate of fire
Rate of fire
Substantial rate of fire
Cyclic rate of fire
Illuminating
Fragmentation
Incendiary
Chemical
What is the effective casualty radius of the M-67 fragmentation
grenade?
a.
b.
c.
d.
10
15
20
25
97.
What type of grenade is used for signaling?
a.
b.
c.
d.
98.
What is the theoretical number of rounds a weapon can fire in 1
minute called?
a.
b.
c.
d.
99.
Attack the enemy and do not stop for any reason
Lay on the ground and freeze
Get out of the light stop and freeze
Move out of the light as quickly and quietly as possible
How many basic colors are used on a military map?
a.
b.
c.
d.
104.
Protection against enemy fire
Protection from enemy observation
Parking vehicles in rows of three
Hiding ammunition in cache sites
Which action should you take if caught at night in the light of a
ground flare while on a security patrol?
a.
b.
c.
d.
103.
Hasty individual position
Improved one man fighting position
Improved two man fighting position
None of the above
What is the definition of concealment?
a.
b.
c.
d.
102.
Ammo pouches
Canteen
MCU-2/P
Suspenders
Which of the following is the simplest fighting position?
a.
b.
c.
d.
101.
Sustained rate of fire
Rate of fire
Substantial rate of fire
Cyclic rate of fire
Which of the following items is NOT normally attached on the web
belt of the 782 gear?
a.
b.
c.
d.
100.
Colored Smoke
Riot Control
White Phosphorous
Chemical
3
4
5
6
What does the reddish-brown color signify on a military map?
a.
b.
c.
d.
105.
How many patrol planning and preparation steps are there?
a.
b.
c.
d.
106.
Man made features
All relief features
Roads
Water
6
8
10
12
The objective of defense is to hold ground already occupied, and
keep it clear of the enemy.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
107.
If you are a prisoner of war, what information do you give to
your captors?
a.
b.
c.
d.
108.
112.
Supplementary
Alternate
Primary
Secondary
Within a barrier plan, what are the 3 classes of wire
entanglements?
a.
b.
c.
d.
111.
1
2
3
4
What position is used to protect against a surprise enemy attack?
a.
b.
c.
d.
110.
social security number and title.
of birth and unit.
to give nothing at all.
social security number and date of birth.
How many fighting positions are used in a defense?
a.
b.
c.
d.
109.
Your name, rank,
Name, rank, date
You are required
Your name, rank,
Triple strand, Double strand, Standard fence
Razor wire, Barbed wire, Single apron fence
Single entanglement, Double entanglement, Triple entanglement
Supplementary, Tactical, Protective
What basic fire team formation provides good all around security?
a. Wedge
b. Column
c. Skirmishers
d. Echelon
In defensive combat, emphasis is placed on which of the following
types of patrols?
a.
b.
c.
d.
113.
Fire commands consist of six necessary elements. The first
letter of the most important word of each of these elements is
used to form what acronym?
a.
b.
c.
d.
114.
Bill of Materials Sheet
Material Takeoff Worksheet
Construction Activity Summary Sheet
Long Lead – Time Line Item Worksheet
What does the acronym ABFC stand for?
a.
b.
c.
d.
119.
LHA
LSD
LPH
LST
What form is filled out using the Battalion’s Level II Master
Activities Summary Sheet?
a.
b.
c.
d.
118.
Establishment of a minimum operating strip
Establishment of a secondary operating strip
Repair of an adequate taxiway
Repair of an aircraft-parking apron
When transporting causeways, aboard which of the following ships
is side loading accomplished?
a.
b.
c.
d.
117.
Sanitary
Military
Tactical
Medical
What is the first priority of the Rapid Runway Repair
organization?
a.
b.
c.
d.
116.
SALUTE
KODCOA
ADDRAC
SMEACS
What consideration has the highest priority in the selection of
tent campsite?
a.
b.
c.
d.
115.
Combat
Contact
Security
Reconnaissance
Another Big Faraway Camp
Advance Base Facilities and Components
Advance Base Functional Components
American Battalion Facilities and Components
In the ABFC system, how many parts are contained in volume two?
a.
b.
c.
d.
120.
Which of the following is included among the contents of the
NAVFAC P-437?
a.
b.
c.
d.
121.
at
at
at
at
level
level
level
level
one,
one,
one,
one,
60
26
20
90
at
at
at
at
level
level
level
level
two
two
two
two
TAU
AFFF
Fixed water sprinkling
Portable CO2 extinguisher
What is the minimum distance latrines and garbage pits can be
located from the nearest natural water supply?
a.
b.
c.
d.
126.
90
40
46
60
What type of fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire?
a.
b.
c.
d.
125.
150
125
72
90
How many personnel need to be trained at battalion level one and
two in order to satisfy the requirements of Rapid Runway Repair?
a.
b.
c.
d.
124.
T
NT
C
N
What is the minimum number of Rapid Runway Repair (RRR) command
center personnel a battalion should have qualified?
a.
b.
c.
d.
123.
Size of the crew it takes to operate facilities
Amounts of fuel required operating components
Drawings of facilities and assemblies
Number of acres a facility occupies
In the ABFC system, what code identifies assemblies required for
use in Northern temperature zone?
a.
b.
c.
d.
122.
2
3
4
5
50 feet
100 feet
30 yards
100 yards
What is the minimum distance a garbage pit can be located from
messing facilities?
a.
b.
c.
d.
30 feet
50 feet
30 yards
100 yards
127. What is the most common method of disinfecting drinking water?
a.
b.
c.
d.
128.
If exposed to chemical agents, how long will the MK-III chemical
protective overgarment provides protection?
a.
b.
c.
d.
129.
Boiling
Filtration
Chlorination
Superchlorination
6 hours
6 days
100 hours
30 days
The M8A1 automatic chemical agent alarm system can be used to
detect a blister agent attack.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
130.
Headache, runny nose, excessive salivation, difficulty breathing,
nausea, pinpointed pupils, and localized twitching of muscles are
symptoms of exposure to what?
a.
b.
c.
d.
131.
Bloodshot eyes, irritation of throat, hoarseness, coughing, and
burns in moist areas are symptoms of what?
a.
b.
c.
d.
132.
Nerve agents
A hangover
Blister agents
Blood agents
Exposure
Exposure
Exposure
Exposure
to
to
to
to
nerve agents
a hangover
blister agents
blood agents
Dryness of throat, coughing, headache, burning eyes, and
accumulation of fluid in the lungs are all symptoms of exposure
to choking agents.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
133.
The M8 chemical detector paper detects what chemical agents?
a.
b.
c.
d.
134.
Which of the following chemical agent liquids will M9 paper
detect and what color will the M9 paper show?
a.
b.
c.
d.
135.
Yellow background with red letters
Blue background with red letters
White background with black letters
Red background with yellow letters
What are the three different types of CBR surveys?
a.
b.
c.
d.
140.
One minute
Two minutes
Three minutes
Five minutes
Areas of terrain contaminated with chemical agents should be
identified with which of the following marking signs?
a.
b.
c.
d.
139.
M256A1 chemical agent detector
M11 decontamination apparatus
M291 sdk
M12A1 pdda
Skin decontamination should be accomplished within how many
Minute(s) of exposure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
138.
Immediate
Operational
Thorough
None of the above
What is used to perform immediate skin decontamination?
a.
b.
c.
d.
137.
Blood agent / red
Blister agent / Yellow
Nerve agent / red
Both a and c
MOPP gear exchange is performed during what level of
decontamination?
a.
b.
c.
d.
136.
Blister
G series nerve agent
V series nerve agent
All of the above
Detection, Hasty, and Deliberate
Area, Point, and Route
Primary, Secondary, and Final
External, Internal, and Area
When netting a 463L pallet, which way do the hooks face and how
many D-rings does the pallet have?
a. Inboard/22
b. Outboard/22
c. Inboard/20
d. Outboard/20
141.
What are the ACLs for the following aircrafts: C-130, C-141, C-17
and C-5, respectively?
a.
b.
c.
d.
142.
/
/
/
/
120,000lbs
125,000lbs
150,000lbs
135,000lbs
Maintenance of equipment on a convoy
Repairing break downs
Towing equipment
All the above
Red, blue, and green.
Green, yellow, and red.
Red, yellow, and pink
Brown. Blue, and red
Water and fuel
Tools
Milk
Repair parts
My Heavy
Material
May Have
Material
Equipment / Warehouse Equipment
Handling Equipment / Weight Handling Equipment
Extra / We Have Equipment
Heavy Equipment / Wide Hauling Equipment
What colors are the background of the Organic and Augment
Equipment decals?
a.
b.
c.
d.
147.
80,000
85,000
90,000
95,000
What do MHE and WHE stand for, respectively?
a.
b.
c.
d.
146.
/
/
/
/
What are sixcons used for?
a.
b.
c.
d.
145.
45,000
47,000
50,000
52,000
What are the three-color classifications of convoy routes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
144.
/
/
/
/
In a convoy what is the Maintenance Officer responsible for?
a.
b.
c.
d.
143.
20,000
23,000
25,000
27,000
Blue / Green
Orange / Yellow
Red / White
White / Red
What is a SF-91 is used for?
a. Pre-start Checks
b. Inventory Record
c. Accident Report
d. Operator’s License
148.
A vehicle must be in at least what condition code to be in Live
Storage?
a.
b.
c.
a.
149.
SS
A5
F8
BZ
ORM will always eliminate risks?
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
150.
What is the correct ORM sequence?
a. Supervise, assess hazards, identify hazards, make risk
decisions.
b. Identify hazards, assess hazards, and make risk decisions,
supervise.
c. Assess hazards, make risk decisions, supervise, identify
hazards.
d. Supervise, identify hazards, and make risk decisions, assess
hazards.