AP/DE U.S. Government – Unit I (Chapters 1-3) Test – 2014-2015
Multiple Choice = 2 points each, FRQ = 16
DO NOT WRITE ON THIS TEST. ALL ANSWERS SHOULD BE RECORDED ON A PIECE OF NOTEBOOK PAPER.
1. The national government under the Articles of Confederation
a. Consisted of three branches
b. Demanded economic equality
c. Had a bicameral legislature
d. Had a powerful executive
e. Required unanimous passage of all amendments
2. What type of federally derived funds are most likely to be critical for an agency
that depends on the federal government for its existence?
a. categorical grants
b. block grants
c. fund grants
d. revenue-sharing programs
e. tax grants
3. Which of the following was the most important effect of replacing the Articles of
Confederation?
a. The protection of free speech and right to privacy
b. The protection of states’ rights
c. The establishment of direct democracy
d. The establishment of judicial review
e. The creation of a strong central government
4. Most forms of economic activity in the US are considered to be governed in one
form or another under the
a. First Amendment
b. Interstate Commerce Clause
c. Doctrine of implied powers
d. State reserved powers
e. 14th Amendment
5. A major concern of the Anti-Federalist involved
a. Their desire to strengthen the central government by decreasing elements of
direct democracy
b. their fear that the states would maintain their dominance under the new
government
c. their fear that foreign governments would try to over power the new nation
d. The belief that a strong chief executive was necessary
e. a desire to see codified law guaranteeing individual protections added to
the Constitution
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6. Which of the following statements accurately describe the system of checks and
balances?
I.
The power to veto bills allows the president to check the Judiciary
II.
The Senate must confirm presidential nominations
III.
The Supreme Court may declare presidential acts unconstitutional
IV.
Congress checks the power of the judicial branch by nominating justices
V.
Congress controls the budget of the United States government
VI.
The Court can declare laws unconstitutional
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
I, II, and VI
II, III, V, and VI
III and V only
V and VI only
I-VI
7. According to the writings of the Federalist papers, which of the following reflects
a major reason for the support of a federal system?
a. Local governments are best suited to meet the needs of the majority interests in the country
b. Local governments will maintain their authority and will be able to care for their citizens
c. The central government is best suited to recognize the needs and interests of local government
d. There will be a constant clashing of opinions between the interests of the local and federal
governments
e. Factions would be strengthened by the formation of a federal system
8. Which of the following is NOT a challenge to democracy?
a. Diverse political interests
b. Limited participation in government
c. Escalating campaign costs
d. Increased levels of education
e. Increased technical political expertise
9. Shay’s rebellion was significant in that it
a. allowed powerful commercial interest to express their disenchantment with the status quo
b. symbolized the weakness of the central government under the Articles of Confederation
c. was the first organized protest against slavery in the South
d. allowed the upper class to voice their discontent with the system
e. won great concessions for the small farmer by showing that organized protest could meet with
victory
10. Governments in which all power resides in the central government are called:
a. Federal governments
b. Confederate governments
c. Unitary governments
d. Pluralist governments
e. National governments
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11. Which of the following governmental bodies is MOST directly responsible to the
electorate?
a. The House of Representatives
b. The Senate
c. The Executive
d. The Supreme Court
e. The Bureaucracy
12. The Tenth Amendment to the Constitution has been interpreted by the Supreme
Court to
a. prevent states from taxing agencies of the federal government
b. reserve powers to the states
c. restrict the application of judicial review
d. allow for the burning of the flag as an expression of protest
e. limit the use of the legislative veto
13. The difference between a mandate and a condition of aid is
a. with a mandate the federal government tells a state government what it must do if it wants grant
money
b. a mandate applies to a block grant; a condition of aid applies to a categorical grant
c. a mandate applies to a categorical grant; a condition of aid applies to a block grant
d. with a mandate it makes no difference who is paying for the cost of a program
e. the two are essentially the same
14. The enumerated powers of Congress and the national government are those
a. requiring ratification by the states
b. set out in the first ten amendments
c. not specifically spelled out in the Constitution, but nonetheless
acknowledged
d. involving taxes, spending & fiscal policy
e. specifically articulated in the Constitution
15. From clean-air legislation, welfare reforms, and most recently, healthcare
reform the states constitute a ___________ to develop and test public policies and
share the results with other states and sometimes the national government.
a. severe reluctance
b. neglected resource
c. major roadblock
d. national laboratory
e. last chance
16. All of the following are consequences of the federal system in the United States
EXCEPT
a. inequality on government services across sub-national entities
b. opportunities for experimentation in government programs
c. multiple points of access for interest groups
d. decentralization of political conflict
e. a strict division of power among levels of government.
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17. The term “devolution” refers to the transfer of responsibility for policies:
a. From the local to the state level
b. From the local to the national level
c. From the state to the national level
d. From one state to another
e. From the national to the state or local levels
18. The reserved powers of the state governments can best be described as those
powers
a. not specifically granted to the national government or denied to the states
b. implied in the Fifth Amendment
c. listed specifically in the Tenth Amendment
d. exercised by both national and state governments
e. granted to states as part of the implied powers doctrine
19. During the 1960s, the nature of federal grants began to change because
a. Kennedy had vetoed so many of them
b. Congress vastly slowed the flow of money to the states
c. States began refusing the grants due to the number of strings attached
d. The federal government began devising large grants in aid programs
e. The federal government lost its ability to finance grants due to the federal budget deficit
20. Of the following, which has been used most to expand the power of the national
government?
a. The commerce clause of the Constitution
b. The habeas corpus clause of the Constitution
c. The bill of attainder clause of the Constitution
d. The First Amendment
e. The Fifth Amendment
21. Which of the following best describes the theory of federalism known as cooperative
(marble cake) federalism?
a. The federal government and the states each have separate and mutually exclusive roles and
responsibilities; neither controls the other
b. The states have some powers reserved to them, which they may exercise if the Supreme Court
permits.
c. The federal government and the state have separate but overlapping powers; where these powers
conflict the federal government prevails.
d. The states may only exercise those powers delegated to them by Congress
e. The federal government may exercise only those powers specifically enumerated in the
Constitution.
22. The Supreme Court ruled the legislative veto unconstitutional on the grounds that
such vetoes
a. were the province of the courts alone
b. violated the principle of separation of powers
c. would give the executive branch too much power
d. would give too much authority to non-elected officials
e. were and unwarranted infringement on the rights of state governments
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23. The Connecticut Compromise resolved the controversy at the Constitutional
Convention involving
a. the method of choosing a president
b. the regulation of interstate and foreign trade
c. representation in Congress
d. the protection of the institution of slavery
e. ratification of the Constitution
24. James Madison’s Federalist 10 articulated the belief of the Founding Fathers that the
Constitution would
a. lead to a tyranny of the majority
b. promote the growth of political parties
c. control the effects of political factions
d. allow the states to maintain their preeminence
e. lead to a tyranny of the minority
25. The Supreme Court first declared that the courts have the power to overturn
government acts that conflict with the Constitution in
a. Marbury v. Madison
b. McCulloch v. Baltimore, Maryland
c. Gibbons v. Ogden
d. US v. Lopez
e. Plessey v. Ferguson
26. The “full faith and credit” clause in Article IV of the Constitution is primarily
designed to ensure the principle of
between states.
a. Communication
b. Reciprocity
c. Honesty
d. Commerce
e. Goodwill
27. British documents such as the Magna Carta, the Petition of Right, and the English
Bill of Rights
a. stressed the absolute supremacy of the monarch
b. advanced the concept of limited government
c. were written by John Locke
d. were rejected by the Founding Fathers
e. were rejected by the British Parliament
28. In general, over the past 200 years, in terms of balance of power between the states
and the national government, the national government has
a. grown significantly weaker that all states in most areas
b. lost power to the states, particularly in foreign matters
c. experienced no change in power
d. grown relatively stronger, particularly in economic matters
e. completely displaced states in matters dealing with health, welfare, and education
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29. Which of the following is NOT an example of cooperative federalism?
a. No Child Left Behind
b. The National Defense Education Act
c. The Elementary and Secondary Education Act
d. Building Highways
e. The U.S. Postal Service
30. Most amendments to the Constitution have been ratified by the vote of
a. ratifying conventions in 3/4ths of the states
b. ¾ of the state legislatures
c. Two thirds of the members of both houses of Congress
d. ¾ of the popular vote
e. Amendments must be ratified by all of the above
31. Which of the following arguments is strongest in calling for a reduction in the
separation of powers called for in the US Constitution?
a. allowing for more prompt and decisive leadership in times of crisis
b. weaken the presidency and give greater protection against executive dictatorship
c. disperse credit or blame equally among the three branches of government
d. apportion responsibility for implementing government programs among members of Congress
e. give a greater share of the legislative power to the states
32. The Founders did not include the US Constitution an explicit statement of state
powers but added it later in the
a. Seventh Amendment
b. Thirteenth Amendment
c. Second Amendment
d. Tenth Amendment
e. Sixth Amendment
33. The Full Faith and Credit clause would require all of the following EXCEPT:
a. that a marriage performed in Las Vegas be valid in other states
b. that a driver’s license serve as identification when a person travels across state lines
c. that a divorced parent pay child support even if his/her children reside in another state
d. that a birth certificate issued by any state can be used to open a bank account in a different
state
e. that something against the law in one state is against the law in all states
34. The Elastic Clause gives Congress the authority to
a. overrule the president’s veto
b. pass laws necessary to carry out its assigned powers
c. form an unlimited number of committees and subcommittees
d. check the power of the Supreme Court by approving the president’s nominees for justices
e. regulate money and control the budget
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35. The theory behind the shift in categorical grants to block grants was to
a. give the federal government greater control over the money going to the states
b. let Congress impose new wide sweeping grants
c. allow those most familiar with state and local needs to determine how to use funds
d. Eliminate the funding and construction of all elements of social welfare systems
e. Make sure that anti-discrimination regulations were followed
36. All of the following represent examples of the use of checks and balances EXCEPT
a. 35 successful vetoes made by President George W. Bush
b. The Senate rejection of the 1999 Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty
c. The Supreme Court ruling that the Flag Desecration Act was unconstitutional
d. Congress invoking the provisions of the War Powers Act, requiring Congressional
authorization for use of armed forces
e. Congress passing the Crime Bill after a conference committee made changes
37. The claim that federalism promotes democracy by increasing the opportunities for
political participation is undermined by:
a. the lower voter turnout
b. the difficulty in finding candidates to run for local office
c. the limited coverage the media gives to political races
d. the role that interest groups play in American politics
e. the high turnover in the Congress
38. In addition to formal amendments, the US Constitution has been changed by
I.
Custom and tradition
II.
Passing state laws
III.
Judicial interpretation
a. I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
39. Under a federal system of government, all of the following are true EXCEPT
a. in cases where powers are in conflict, the state governments are supreme
b. local matters are largely handled on a local level
c. federal and state governments have powers that sometimes overlap
d. in cases where powers are in conflict, the national government is supreme
e. national matters are the responsibility of the federal government
40. In determining congressional representation and taxation, the Constitution
a. Did not count slaves
b. Counted slaves the same as free persons
c. Counted slaves as one-half of a person
d. Was silent on the issue of how slaves would be counted, leaving the issue to each state to decide
e. Counted slaves as three-fifths of a person
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41. A major concern of the Anti-Federalists involved:
a. Their desire to strengthen the central government
b. Their fear that the states would maintain their dominance under the new
government
c. Their fear that foreign governments would try to overpower the new nation
d. Their belief that a strong chief executive was necessary
e. Their desire to see a Bill of Rights guaranteeing individual protections
42. In the Federalist Papers, James Madison expressed that the best opportunity to
preserve liberty would be found in the diversity of interests or “factions” in
American society. Which theory of government does this most align with?
a. Pluralist Theory
b. Social Contract Theory
c. Hyper pluralism
d. Republican Theory
e. Direct Democracy
FRQ:
The Federalist system in the United States was intended to divide power between the federal government
and state governments. Since the creation of the federal system, however, power has tended to gravitate
from the states to the federal government.
a) Explain how TWO of the following have shifted power to the federal government.
o McCulloch v. Maryland
o Federal grants to states
o The Civil Rights movement
b) Explain how ONE of the following Supreme Court cases from the Rehnquist Court
reverted power back to the states from the federal government.
o Unites States v. Lopez
o United States v. Morrison
o Printz v. United States
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