CASE A Questions
1. Given the patient’s history, identify the most likely cause of the lesion found on the
lower lip.
a. Aspirin burn
b. Herpes simplex
c. Traumatic mucocele
d. Method of drug ingestion
2. Upon greeting the patient, which of the following signs would be clinically evident as
a result of this patient’s social history?
a. Blank stare
b. Dilated pupils
c. Droopy eyelids
d. Constricted pupils
3. All of the following vital signs are within normal limits EXCEPT one. Which one is
this EXCEPTION?
a. Pulse rate
b. Temperature
c. Blood pressure
d. Respiratory rate
4. All of the following contribute to the patient’s caries rate EXCEPT one. Which one is
this EXCEPTION?
a. Profuse salivation
b. Poor oral hygiene
c. Poor dietary habits
d. Method of drug ingestion
5. Identify the BEST home delivery fluoride system recommended for this patient?
a. Tray
b. OTH rinse
c. Toothbrushing
d. Prescription rinse
6. In addition to drug addiction, which of the following conditions would this patient
most likely have?
a. Herpes
b. Diabetes
c. Tuberculosis
d. HIV infection
7. Identify the U-shaped radiopacity located superior to tooth #14.
a. Nutrient canal
b. Pneumatization
c. Maxillary sinus
d. Zygomatic process
8. Tooth #30 has been restored with:
a. amalgam.
b. gutta percha.
c. composite restoration.
d. porcelain- fused- to- metal crown.
9. What would be the most likely contributing factor to the bone loss between #14
and #15?
a. Mesial drift
b. Open contact
c. Traumatic occlusion
d. Ill-fitting crown on #14
10. This patient will require antibiotic premedication prior to dental hygiene care
because intravenous drug administration can increase the likelihood of bacteremia.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct.
b. The statement is false but the reason is true.
c. The statement is correct but the reason is false.
d. Neither the statement nor the reason are correct.
11. Which of the following would be a contraindication for treatment for this patient?
a. Airpolishing
b. Morning appointment
c. Stress reduction protocol
d. Nitrous oxide/oxygen sedation
12. The use of Benadryl could be a contributory factor to the patient’s xerostomia.
Benadryl is a cholinergic agent.
a. Both statements are TRUE.
b. Both statements are FALSE.
c. The first statement is TRUE. The second statement is FALSE.
d. The first statement is FALSE. The second statement is TRUE.
13. Which of the following instruments would be appropriate for deposit removal on the
mesial surface of the mesiobuccal root of tooth #15?
a. Gracey 1/2
b. Gracey 5/6
c. Gracey 11/12
d. Gracey 13/14
14. The elongation evident on teeth #8 and #9 is the result of:
a. improper receptor placement.
b. excessive vertical angulation.
c. insufficient vertical angulation.
d. improper horizontal angulation.
15. Which of the following would most likely prevent this patient from returning for
future appointments?
a. Dental anxiety
b. Meth addiction
c. Low dental IQ
d. Accessibility to bus line
END OF CASE A
CASE B Questions
16. Based on clinical attachment levels, the patient MOST likely has:
a. generalized fenestration.
b. linear gingival erythema.
c. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
d. necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis.
17. Oral microorganisms likely to be found in the patient include all of the following
EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
a. Fusobacterium
b. Treponema denticola
c. Prevotella intermedia
d. Streptococcus sanguis
18. The drug of choice for treating this condition is tetracycline because tetracycline has
the ability to concentrate in gingival crevicular fluid.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct.
b. The statement is false but the reason is true.
c. The statement is correct but the reason is false.
d. Neither the statement nor the reason are correct.
19. Common clinical findings include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is
this EXCEPTION?
a. Pain
b. Malodor
c. Pseudomembrane
d. Punched out papilla
e. Gingival hyperplasia
20. Which of the following teeth are missing?
a. #4
b. #5
c. #6
d. #11
21. Which of the following should be addressed initially in the treatment plan?
a. Malodor
b. Oral hygiene
c. Antibiotic treatment
d. Restorative treatment on #14
22. All of the following will most likely exacerbate the patient’s oral condition EXCEPT
one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
a. Stress
b. Smoking
c. Poor oral hygiene
d. Current medications
23. Identify the radiopaque shadow seen over the roots of the maxillary central incisors.
a. Maxillary torus
b. Incisive foramen
c. Outline of the nose
d. Nasal palatine duct cyst
24. Identify the type of bone loss seen between teeth #30 and #31.
a. Angular
b. Lateral
c. Horizontal
d. Circumferential
25. The error seen in the right molar bitewing is overlap. This error is caused by
incorrect vertical angulation.
a. Both the statement and the reason are correct.
b. The statement is false but the reason is correct.
c. The statement is correct but the reason is false.
d. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
26. Considering the patient’s tobacco use, the first step of intervention is to ask the
patient:
a. to quit.
b. when he smokes.
c. how much he smokes.
d. if he is interested in quitting.
27. Which vitamin would the patient MOST likely be deficient?
a. A
b. C
c. D
d. K
28. According to B.V. Black’s Classification System, the restoration on tooth #31 is a:
a. Class I.
b. Class II.
c. Class III.
d. Class IV.
29. Identify the injection(s) needed to provide anesthesia to the maxillary first molar?
a. Middle superior alveolar
b. Anterior superior alveolar
c. Post superior alveolar and greater palatine
d. Middle superior and post superior alveolar
e. Anterior superior and middle superior alveolar
30. During the intraoral examination, the dental hygienist notes a white and leathery hard
palate with red pinpoint lesions scattered throughout. These lesions would most likely
be:
a. Koplick’s spots.
b. geographic palate.
c. denture stomatitis.
d. nicotinic stomatitis
END OF CASE B
CASE C Questions
31. The saliva found on the facial surface of tooth #3 is most likely derived from which
salivary gland?
a. Parotid
b. Sublingual
c. Stensen’s
d. Submandibular
32. On the panoramic radiograph, identify the horizontal radiopaque band seen superior
to the apices of the maxillary teeth.
a. Hard palate
b. Maxillary sinus
c. Palatoglassal air space
d. Ghost images of earrings
33. The patient has noticed a thick whitish coating on his tongue which bleeds upon
brushing. Which organism is MOST likely causing the condition?
a. Candida albicans
b. Streptococcus mutans
c. Staphylococcus acneous
d. Treponema denticola
34. The patient frequently studies outside and complains of getting a sunburn, even in a
short period of time. What would be the most likely cause of his sensitivity?
a. Using sunscreen with a 45 SPF
b. Wearing non-breathable clothing
b. Use of prescription acne medication
d. Not ingesting enough Vitamin C in his diet
35. The patient’s stain is MOST likely caused by:
a. fluorosis.
b. tetracycline.
c. poor oral hygiene.
d. excessive bleaching.
36. The patient will likely be deficient in thiamine because he drinks caffeinated
beverages.
a. The statement is correct but the reason is not.
b. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
c. Both statement and reason are correct and related.
37. Identify the radiographic opacity located distally and superior to tooth #15.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Mucocele
Third molar
Pterygoid plate
Maxillary tuberosity
38. The patient is unhappy with the color of his teeth. What would be the best treatment
option to address his concern?
a. In-office bleaching
b. At-home bleach trays
c. Porcelain laminate veneers
d. Whitening toothpaste and rinse
39. Intrinsic discoloration of teeth may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT one.
Which one is this EXCEPTION?
a. Tobacco
b. Green tea
c. Medications
d. Amelogenesis imperfecta
40. The gingival discomfort the patient describes is most likely related to:
a. candidiasis.
b. erupting 3rd molars.
c. an allergic reaction.
d. poor brushing technique.
41. The inflamed tissue in the anterior is most likely caused by:
a. plaque.
b. genetics.
c. an anterior open bite.
d. a Vitamin C deficiency.
42. The lingual papilla most numerous on the tongue are the:
a. foliate.
b. filiform.
c. fungiform.
d. circumvallate.
43. What parafunctional habit could be contributing to the anterior malocclusion?
a. Buxism
b. Lp licking.
c. Nail biting.
d. Tongue thrusting.
44. The anterior teeth appear to be narrow because the patient was positioned posterior to
the focal trough.
a. The statement is correct but the reason is not.
b. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
c. Both statement and reason are correct and related.
45. What is the condition observed at the root apices of teeth #17 and #32?
a. Taurodontism
b. Periapical abscess
c. External resorption
d. Incomplete root formation
END OF CASE C
CASE D Questions
46. What is the radiopacity seen bilaterally below the angle of the mandible?
a. Clavicle
b. Sternum
c. Hyoid bone
d. Crico-throid cartilage
47. The inverse Y landmark seen superior to tooth #6 refers to the intersection of the:
a. nasal septum and nasal cavity.
b. maxillary sinus and nasal cavity.
c. nasal cavity and inferior nasal conchae.
d. floor of the maxillary sinus and hard palate.
48. Albuterol functions as a(n):
a. beta blocker.
b. adrenergic agonist.
c. bronchoconstrictor.
d. adrenergic antagonist.
49. What oral microbial species would most likely be elevated in this patient?
a. Neisseria
b. Prevotella
c. Mycobacterium
d. Sacchromyces
50. What method of stain removal would be MOST appropriate for this patient?
a. Ultrasonic
b. Prophy jet
c. Polishing not indicated
d. Hand instrumentation and rubber cup
51. Which of the following should be considered to determine the chemotherapeutic
agent recommended for this patient?
a. Smoking
b. Patient’s age
c. Use of Prozac
d. Hormone replacement therapy
52. Identify the restorations on the mandibular right and left first molars.
a. Amalgams
b. Composites
c. Cast gold crowns
d. Porcelain fused-to-metal
53. Xerostomia may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTION?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Smoking
Menopause
Medications
Radiation therapy
54. Based on probing depths and radiographs, the long-term prognosis for tooth #15 is:
a. poor.
b. guarded.
c. excellent.
d. hopeless.
55. The gingival margin on tooth #6 can best be described as:
a. cyanotic.
b. stippled.
c. receded.
d. hyperplastic.
56. All of the following restorative procedures would be appropriate to replace #4
EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
a. Implant
b. Cantilever bridge
c. Removable partial denture
d. Porcelain fused-to-metal bridge
57. According to Angle’s Classification, the molar occlusion on the right side is a Class
III. The molar occlusion on the left side is a Class I.
a. Both statements are TRUE.
b. Both statements are FALSE.
c. The first statement is TRUE; the second is FALSE.
d. The first statement is FALSE; the second is TRUE.
58. What is the rationale for exposure of vertical bitewings for this patient?
a. Patient comfort
b. Detect periapical pathology
c. Evaluate interproximal caries
d. Better evaluate periodontal structures
59. Smoking increases the incidence of all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is
this EXCEPTION?
a. Halitosis
b. Stomatitis
c. Periodontal disease
d. Recurrent apthous ulcers
60. The microvascular system in this patient would most likely be compromised because
the patient is on hormone replacement therapy.
a. The statement is correct but the reason is not.
b. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
c. Both statement and reason are correct and related.
END OF CASE D
CASE E Questions
61. The patient complains of TMJ pain. A review of the panoramic radiograph suggests
that:
a. her pain is due to the absence of a joint capsule.
b. her pain is due to the absence of the articular eminence.
c. her pain is due to the extreme wear of the head of the condyle.
d. there is no radiographic evidence of an anatomical abnormality which would
account for her TMJ-related pain.
62. All of the following are possible causes for the patient’s difficulty in brushing and
flossing EXCEPT one. Which one is THIS exception?
a. Gout
b. Arthritis
c. Menopause
63. When interviewing this patient, the dental hygienist notices she has a very round face
and a large hump on her back. What is the most likely cause of these physical
characteristics?
a. Gout
b. Cushing’s Syndrome
c. Stress from dental anxiety
d. Swelling caused by arthritis
64. Which instrument would be most appropriate to remove the calculus from the distal
of tooth #18?
a. 204 S
b. Gracey 11-12
c. Gracey 13-14
d. Gracey 15-16
65. What operator error can be seen on the mandibular left canine periapical?
a. Cone cut
b. Light leak
c. Thyroid collar
d. Static electricity
66. All of the following are possible sources of dentinal hypersensitivity EXCEPT one.
Which one is THIS exception?
a. Gingival recession
b. Use of a powered toothbrush
c. Use of tooth-whitening agent
d. Use of a tartar-control toothpaste
67. What is the most likely explanation for the discrepancy in clinical crown length with
the maxillary central incisors?
a. Recession
b. Ice chewing
c. Occlusal trauma
d. Passive eruption
68. Which of the following toothbrush recommendations would be most appropriate for
this patient?
a. Power toothbrush
b. Hard-bristled toothbrush
c. End-tuft toothbrush with narrow handle
d. Narrow handle toothbrush with a small head
69. Due to her TMJ discomfort, the dentist is fabricating a night guard. What impression
material would be most appropriate?
a. wax
b. gypsum
c. alginate
d. rubber base
70. Identify the small radiolucent dot seen inferior to the apices of the mandibular
incisors.
a. Wharton’s duct
b. Lingual foramen
c. Genial tubercles
d. Incisive foramen
71. What would be the instrument of choice to remove the supragingival calculus on the
lingual surfaces of the mandibular anteriors?
a. File
b. H 6/7
c. Gracery 1/2
d. Gracey 5/6
72. What salivary glands are the likely source of the supragingival calculus on the
lingual surfaces of the mandibular anteriors?
a. Parotid
b. Von Ebner
c. Minor labial
d. Submandibular
73. What active ingredient found in desensitizing toothpaste is most effective?
a. Chlorine dioxide
b. Potassium nitrate
c. Tetrasodium phosphate
d. Sodium lauryl sulfate
74. Which of the following conditions best explains the radiolocency between teeth #1
and #2 on the panoramic radiograph?
a. Cervical burnout
b. Iatrogenic trauma
c. Root surface caries
d. Toothbrush abrasion
75. The restoration on tooth #30 is an example of:
a. tertiary prevention.
b. primary prevention.
c. secondary prevention.
END OF CASE E
CASE F Questions
76. The radiolucency seen at the apex of the mandibular left second premolar is most
likely:
a. an abscess.
b. the genial tubercle.
c. the mental foramen.
d. the inferior alveolar canal.
77. The radiolucencies found at the apices of teeth #18 and #31 are most likely the result
of:
a. periodontal abscess.
b. the age of the patient.
c. external root resorption.
d. trauma from orthodontic appliances.
78. At the patient’s last physical examination, his physician prescribed glyburide but the
prescription was never filled. What disorder was detected by the physician that MOST
likely warranted this prescription?
a. Asthma
b. Anxiety
c. Type 1 Diabetes
d. Type 2 Diabetes
79. Because the patient frequently enjoys sugary snacks between meals, what intraoral
microbial population would MOST likely thrive in this patient’s mouth?
a. Clostridium
b. Corynebacterium
c. Candida albicans
d. Viridens group of streptococcus
80. The patient presents with:
a. overbite.
b. end-to-end bite.
c. anterior open bite.
d. posterior open bite.
81. When educating this patient about his snacking/eating habits in relation to causing
caries, which of the following is considered MOST challenging to the oral cavity?
a. Time of ingestions
b. Consistency of food
c. Frequency of intake
d. Amount of consumption
82. What opacities are found inferior to the angle of the mandible?
a. Sialolith
b. Chin rest
c. Hyoid bone
d. Third molar
83. When providing care for the patient, which of the following would be MOST
appropriate?
a. Talk to him using age appropriate terminology and style.
b. Contact the school counselor about resolving the conflict with his peers.
c. Tell him if he does not floss he will have cavities on his teeth when his braces
are removed.
d. Lecture him on the negative consequences of eating sugar related to both his
weight and his family history of diabetes.
84. What artifacts are radiographically evident on the anteriors?
a. Denticles
b. Pulp stones
c. Orthodontic brackets
d. Amalgam restorations
85. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Teeth #17 and #32 are congenitally missing.
b. Teeth #1 and #16 are present, but are unerupted.
c. Teeth #19 and #30 have experienced mesial drift.
d. Teeth #3, #14, #19 and #29 have orthodontic bands.
86. Which of the following toothbrushing method is MOST appropriate for the patient?
a. Bass
b. Fones
c. Charters
d. Stillman
87. What parafunctional habit can be contributing to this patient’s anterior occlusion?
a. Bruxism
b. Eating habits
c. Tongue thrust
d. Mouth breathing
88. The inflammation found on the maxillary anterior region would best be described as:
a. gingivitis.
b. periodontitis.
c. lichen planus.
d. gingival hyperplasia.
89. The appearance of teeth #24 and #25 is due to:
a. congenital syphilis.
b. retained mamelons.
c. parafunctional habits.
d. orthodontic treatment.
90. Although the orthodontic wire was removed for the prophylaxis appointment, which
auxiliary home care aid would be most appropriate for interproximal plaque control?
a. Floss holder
b. Tufted floss
c. Wedge stimulator
d. Rubber tip stimulator
END OF CASE F
CASE G Questions
91. Identify the radiolucency seen superior to the roots of the maxillary left posterior
teeth.
a. Maxillary sinus
b. Zygomatic arch
c. Periapical abscess
d. Inferior nasal conchae
92. Identify the material used to restore tooth #11.
a. Amalgam
b. Silver point
c. Gutta percha
d. Porcelain-fused-to-metal crown
93. A recommended fluoride protocol for this patient would be:
a. neutral sodium.
b. acidulated phosphate.
c. prescription stannous rinse.
d. no fluoride is recommended.
94. Which of the following should be considered when treating this patient?
a. Treat patient sitting up
b. Speak slowly and loudly
c. Recommend a large handled toothbrush
d. Provide patient with Braille printed materials
95. In the clinical photo of the patient’s right side, lost tooth structure is noted at the
cervical portion of the first molar, second bicuspid, and cuspid. This phenomenon is
referred to as:
a. erosion.
b. attrition.
c. abrasion.
d. abfraction.
96. The recession on the buccal surface of tooth #3 is 5mm. What is the total clinical
attachment loss of this tooth?
a. 4 mm
b. 5 mm
c. 6 mm
d. 7 mm
97. The patient’s partial denture is an example of:
a. primary prevention.
b. tertiary prevention.
c. secondary prevention.
98. Because the patient wears the partial denture at night, he is more prone to all of the
following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
a. Candidiasis
b. Epulis fissuratum
c. Traumatic fibroma
d. Pyogenic granuloma
99. All of the following are appropriate cleaning methods for the care of the removable
partial denture EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
a. Hypochloride
b. Denture brush
c. OTC denture cleaner
d. Prescription mouth rinse
100. Baby aspirin was MOST likely prescribed for this patient for the following?
a. Ehance vision
b. Arthritis prevention
c. Cardiac prophylactic
d. Treat occasional headaches
101. Which of the following would be a barrier to care for this patient?
a. Age
b. Transportation
c. ASA Classification
d. History of depression
102. The mandibular anterior radiographs are light. This was caused by too high KVP
setting.
a. Both statements are TRUE.
b. Both statements are FALSE.
c. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE.
d. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE.
103. Aspirin reduces inflammation by:
a. promoting diapedesis.
b. increasing clotting time.
c. acting on the hypothalamus.
d. interfering with prostaglandin synthesis.
104. The patient is most likely taking hydrochlorothiazide for treatment of hypertension
because HCTZ acts as a diuretic.
a. Both statements are TRUE.
b. Both statements are FALSE.
c. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE.
d. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE.
105. What treatment modification is recommended due to the patient’s medical status?
a. Remove eyeglasses
b. Elevate chair slowly upon completion.
c. Elevate patient’s feet during treatment.
d. Use high speed suction to control saliva.
END OF CASE G
CASE H Questions
106. Which of the following best describes the root of tooth #13?
a. Ankylosis
b. Dehiscence
c. Fenestration
d. Dilaceration
e. Condensing osteitis
107. The gingival tissue on the facial of teeth #8 and #9 can best be described as:
a. edematous.
b. fibrotic.
c. cyanotic.
d. erythematous
108. Tooth #31 is:
a. carious.
b. missing.
c. exfoliated.
d. hypererupted.
e. in occlusion with #3.
109 Which of the following medictions is prescribed for this patient’s pernicious
anemia?
a. B12
b. Iron
c. Advil
d. Inderal
110. Antibiotic premedication is necessary for this patient because her history of mitral
valve prolapse puts her at high risk for infective endocarditis.
a. The statement is correct but the reason is not.
b. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
c. Both statement and reason are correct and related.
111. According to the radiographs, which statement best describes this patient’s
periodontal condition?
a. The alveolar bone level is within normal limits.
b. The alveolar bone level represents severe periodontitis.
c. The alveolar bone level represents moderate periodontitis.
d. The retainer from #22-27 is necessary due to the bone loss present on the
mandibular teeth.
112. What is Black’s Classification for the restoration on tooth #19?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Class I
Class II
Class III
Class IV
Class V
113. Which primary teeth are retained?
a. B only
b. C only
c. B and I
d. C and H
e. There are no retained primary teeth
114. What regimen would be the best choice for this patient prior to a dental
prophylaxis?
a. 2 gm. Amoxicillin 1 hour prior to treatment
b. 2 gm. Cephalexin 1 hour prior to treatment
c. 600 mg. Clindamycin 1 hour prior to treatment
d. No antibiotic regimen would be prescribed
115. Which of the following conditions does this patient most likely have?
a. Hypotension
b. Hypertension
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Hyperthyroidism
116. All of the following describe this patient’s anterior occlusion EXCEPT one. Which
one is this EXCEPTION?
a. Severe overjet
b. Severe overbite
c. Class II occlusion
d. Class III occlusion
117. The radiographic error seen in the anterior left bitewing was caused by:
a. cone cut.
b. patient movement.
c. insufficient vertical angulation.
d. insufficient horizontal angulation.
118. The area on the gingiva surrounding the cervical portion of teeth #8 and #9 can best
be described as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
clefted.
abfraction.
dehiscense.
fenestration.
McCall’s festoon.
119. The patient’s chief complaint is most likely attributed to:
a. arthritis.
b. poor oral hygiene.
c. cobalamine deficiency.
d. improper tongue brushing.
120. What is the antioxidant found in the dental alloy on tooth #19?
a. Zinc
b. Copper
c. Silver
d. Palladium
END OF CASE H
CASE I Questions
121. When seating this patient, the dental hygienist notices a distinct gait. This condition
is known as:
a. dysgeusia.
b. polydipsia.
c. telekinesia.
d. bradykinesia.
122. This patient may exhibit all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTION?
a. Dementia
b. Xerostomia
c. Resting tremor
d. Postural instability
e. Expressionless face
123. Teeth #17 and #32 should be extracted for this patient because impacted 3rd molars
can develop cysts.
a. The statement is correct but the reason is not.
b. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
c. Both statement and reason are correct and related.
d. The statement is incorrect but the reason is a true statement.
124. The patient’s weight loss is MOST likely due to:
a. oral hygiene status.
b. sensitivity of posterior teeth.
c. side effects of his medications.
d. depression from the loss of his wife.
125. According to AHA Classification, this patient would be considered:
a. normal.
b. prehypertensive.
c. Stage I hypertensive.
d. Stage II hypertensive.
126. Which artery should be used when taking this patient’s pulse?
a. Carotid
b. Radial
c. Brachial
d. Brachiocephalic
127. Parkinson’s Disease is caused by deterioration of the basal ganglian. This
deterioration is caused by a lack of dopamine.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Both statements are TRUE.
Both statements are FALSE.
The first statement is TRUE; the second is FALSE.
The first statement is FALSE; the second is TRUE.
128. All of the following treatment modifications would be appropriate for this patient
EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
a. Saliva substitute
b. Protective eyewear
c. Antimicrobial mouthrinse
d. Mid-morning appointment
129. Caution should be exercised when prescribing drugs for this patient because:
a. elderly excrete drugs more rapidly than younger adults.
b. elderly may require higher doses than the average adult.
c. elderly metabolize drugs less rapidly than younger adults.
d. Parkinson’s Disease has contraindications for numerous drugs.
130. This patient’s caries are MOST likely caused by all of the following EXCEPT one.
Which one is this EXCEPTION?
a. Xerostomia
b. Lack of flossing
c. Improper toothbrushing
d. Diet high in sucrose
131. The discolored area located on the gingival third of tooth #30 is MOST likely:
a. erosion.
b. extrinsic stain.
c. cervical caries.
d. radiation caries.
e. cervical burn-out.
132. According to G.V. Black’s Classification system, the lesion on the buccal surface of
tooth #19 would be:
a. Class I.
b. Class II.
c. Class III.
d. Class IV.
e. Class V.
133. Identify the small ovoid radiolucency foung in the apical region of the mandibular
premolars.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
mental fossa
mental foramen
lingual foramen
incisive foramen
submandibular fossa
134. On the panoramic radiograph, the horizontal radiolucent band located superior to
the maxillary incisors is the:
a. focal trough.
b. Frankfort plane.
c. palatoglossal air space.
d. nasopharyngeal air space.
e. glossopharyngeal air space.
135. Which of the following auxiliary aids would be the BEST recommendation for this
patient to use?
a. Oral irrigator
b. Floss holder
c. Manual toothbrush
d. Electric toothbrush
e. Toothpick in a holder
END OF CASE I
CASE J Questions
136. The incisal chipping noted on tooth #25 is MOST likely due to:
a. caries.
b. erosion.
c. improper toothbrushing.
d. wearing tongue jewelry that is too long.
137. Aspirin works primarily by:
a. decreasing clotting time.
b. reducing systolic blood pressure.
c. disrupting leukotriene production.
d. interfering with prostaglandin synthesis.
138. When conducting the oral examination, the dental hygienist notices that tooth #24
has severe faciolingual mobility with vertical displacement. What is the classification for
this type of tooth mobility?
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class IV
d. Class III
139. In order to determine viability of pulpal tissues for tooth #24, which test would be
MOST appropriate?
a. Electric pulp test
b. Heat conductivity examination
c. Bursts of compressed air to the area
d. Application of ice to the tooth surface
140. When recommending a toothpaste for cold hypersensitivity, all of the following
additives are effective EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
a. Sodium citrate
b. Pyrophosphate
c. Potassium nitrate
d. Strontium chloride
141. Upon examination, the dental hygienist notes that this patient has unilateral,
ulcerative lesions on the roof of his mouth. When questioned, the patient states that he
gets the same type of sores at least ‘4 or 5 times a year’. These lesions are MOST likely
a result of:
a. candidiasis.
b. allergic reaction.
c. herpes simplex infection.
d. recurrent aphthous stomatitis.
142. During instrumentation, the dental hygienist notices that this patient’s mouth is
extremely dry. What is the MOST likely cause of this condition?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Heavy aspirin use
Lack of regular flossing
Side effect of allergy medication
Xerostomia associated with tongue piercing
143. Based on the patient’s medical and dental findings, what is his ASA classification?
a. I
b. II
c. IV
d. III
144. This patient demonstrates:
a. tachypnea.
b. bradypnea.
c. tachycardia.
d. bradycardia.
145. The patient states that his lower front teeth have gotten shorter over the last two
years. Upon inspection, the dental hygienist notices incisal wear in the mandibular
anterior region where the patient routinely chews on his tongue jewelry. This is MOST
likely an example of:
a. erosion.
b. attrition.
c. abrasion.
d. malocclusion.
146. When selecting the BEST hand instrument for subgingival calculus removal on the
mesial surface of tooth #24, which instrument design traits are MOST appropriate?
a. Scaler with rigid shank
b. Scaler with ribbed handle
c. Curet with extended shank
d. Curet with contra-angled shank
147. Which of the following protocols should be followed for this patient prior to
beginning dental hygiene treatment?
a. Observe routine dental management
b. Recheck blood pressure in five minutes (if still elevated, consult with physician
prior to rendering treatment).
c. recheck blood pressure in five minutes and consult with physician (no treatment
until elevation is corrected).
d. stress reduction protocol and recheck blood pressure prior to treatment for three
consecutive appointments (if consistently elevated, consult with physician).
148. When preparing the area surrounding tooth #24 for a bone graft, the oral surgeon
notices that three of the four associated osseous walls are compromised. This type of
bony defect is known as a:
a.
b.
c.
d.
one-wall defect.
two-wall defect.
four-wall defect.
three-wall defect.
149. The patient complains that his teeth are too close together to floss and gets
frustrated when the floss shreds. Which oral physiotherapy aid would be the MOST
appropriate to recommend for interproximal plaque removal?
a. Toothpick
b. Oral irrigation
c. Interdental brush
d. Waxed dental floss
150. All of the following are possible side effects of regular aspirin use EXCEPT one.
Which one is this EXCEPTION?
a. Tinnitus
b. Salicylism
c. Gastrointestinal upset
d. Decreased clotting time
END OF CASE J
END OF P.M. SECTION OF EXAM