EMERGENCY
MEDICINE
P RE T EST ® S ELF -A SSESSMENT
AND
R EVIEW
NOTICE
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EMERGENCY
MEDICINE
PRETEST ® SELF-ASSESSMENT AND REVIEW
SECOND EDITION
Kristi L. Koenig, MD, FACEP
Director, Emergency Management Strategic Healthcare Group
Veterans Health Administration
Washington, DC
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DOI: 10.1036/0071382674
To my mother, the wisest and most supportive person I know.
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CONTENTS
Contributors
Preface xi
ix
Administration, Ethics, and Legal Aspects
Questions 1
Answers, Explanations, and References
4
Anesthesia and Analgesia
Questions 7
Answers, Explanations, and References
9
Cardiologic Emergencies
Questions 11
Answers, Explanations, and References
22
Dermatologic Emergencies
Questions 35
Answers, Explanations, and References
37
Emergency Medical Services and Disaster Medicine
Questions 39
Answers, Explanations, and References
41
Environmental Emergencies
Questions 45
Answers, Explanations, and References
47
Eye, Ear, Nose, Throat, and Maxillofacial Emergencies
Questions 51
Answers, Explanations, and References
59
Gastroenterologic Emergencies
Questions 67
Answers, Explanations, and References
74
vii
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C ONTENTS
viii
Geriatric Emergencies
Questions 83
Answers, Explanations, and References
85
Hematologic and Oncologic Emergencies
Questions 87
Answers, Explanations, and References
91
Infectious Disease Emergencies
Questions 95
Answers, Explanations, and References
101
Metabolic, Endocrinologic, and Rheumatologic Emergencies
Questions 107
Answers, Explanations, and References
112
Neurologic and Psychiatric Emergencies
Questions 119
Answers, Explanations, and References
123
Obstetric and Gynecologic Emergencies
Questions 129
Answers, Explanations, and References
133
Orthopedic Emergencies
Questions 137
Answers, Explanations, and References
141
Pediatric Emergencies
Questions 145
Answers, Explanations, and References
152
Pulmonary Emergencies
Questions 161
Answers, Explanations, and References
167
Renal and Urologic Emergencies
Questions 175
Answers, Explanations, and References
177
Toxicologic Emergencies
Questions 181
Answers, Explanations, and References
186
Questions 191
Answers, Explanations, and References
200
Trauma
CONTRIBUTORS
Kristi L. Koenig, MD, FACEP
Director, Emergency Management
Strategic Healthcare Group
Veterans Health Administration
Washington, DC
H. Gene Hern, Jr., MD, MS
Department of Emergency Medicine
Alameda County Medical Center, Highland Campus
Oakland, California
Eye, Ear, Nose, Throat, and Maxillofacial Emergencies
R. Carter Clements, MD, FACEP
Department of Emergency Medicine
Alameda County Medical Center, Highland Campus
Oakland, California
Toxicologic Emergencies
Amy M. Hutson, MD
Department of Emergency Medicine
Alameda County Medical Center, Highland Campus
Oakland, California
Metabolic, Endocrinologic, and Rheumatologic
Emergenices
Elizabeth Dorn, MD
Department of Emergency Medicine
Alameda County Medical Center, Highland Campus
Oakland, California
Cardiologic Emergencies
Rochelle Eggleston, MD
Department of Emergency Medicine
Alameda County Medical Center, Highland Campus
Oakland, California
Gastroenterologic Emergencies
David K. English, MD, FACEP
Director of Informatics
Department of Emergency Medicine
Alameda County Medical Center, Highland Campus
Oakland, California
Assistant Clinical Professor of Medicine
University of California, San Francisco
San Francisco, California
Administration, Ethics, and Legal Aspects
Cardiologic Emergencies
Geriatric Emergencies
Cherie A. Hargis, MD
Attending Physician
Department of Emergency Medicine
Alameda County Medical Center, Highland Campus
Oakland, California
Hematologic and Oncologic Emergencies
Pediatric Emergencies
Loretta Jackson-Williams, MD PhD
Assistant Professor
Emergency Medicine Department
University of Mississippi
Jackson, Mississippi
Neurologic and Psychiatric Emergencies
Amin Antoine Kazzi, MD, FAAEM, FACEP
Associate Division Chief
Associate Clinical Professor
Division of Emergency Medicine
University of California, Irvine
Dermatologic Emergencies
Pulmonary Emergencies
Linda E. Keyes, MD
Department of Emergency Medicine
Alameda County Medical Center, Highland Campus
Oakland, California
Environmental Emergencies
Renal and Urologic Emergencies
Susan Lambe, MD
Robert Wood Johnson Clinical Scholars Program
University of California, Los Angeles
Los Angeles, California
Anesthesia and Analgesia
Orthopedic Emergencies
ix
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C ONTRIBUTORS
x
Daniel McDermott, MD
Assistant Clinical Professor of Medicine
Division of Emergency Medicine
University of California, San Francisco
San Francisco, California
Pulmonary Emergencies
Flavia Nobay, MD
Department of Emergency Medicine
Alameda County Medical Center, Highland Campus
Oakland, California
Trauma
Susan B. Promes, MD, FACEP
Associate Residency Director
Department of Emergency Medicine
Alameda County Medical Center, Highland Campus
Oakland, California
Assistant Professor of Clinical Medicine
University of California, San Francisco
San Francisco, California
Metabolic, Endocrinologic, and Rheumatologic Emergencies
Obstetric and Gynecologic Emergencies
Augusta J. Saulys, MD, FAAP, FACEP
Associate Director, Emergency Department
Children’s Hospital Oakland
Fellowship Director, Pediatric Emergency Medicine
Children’s Hospital Oakland
Oakland, California
Pediatric Emergencies
Angelo Salvucci, Jr., MD, FACEP
Assistant Clincial Professor of Emergency Medicine
University of Southern California School of Medicine
Los Angeles, California
Medical Director, Emergency Medical Services
Santa Barbara and Ventura Counties, California
Trauma
Eric Snoey, MD
Residency Director
Department of Emergency Medicine
Alameda County Medical Center, Highland Campus
Oakland, California
Assistant Clinical Professor
Department of Internal Medicine
University of California, San Francisco
San Francisco, California
Eye, Ear, Nose, Throat, and Maxillofacial Emergencies
Susan Stroud, MD
Department of Emergency Medicine
Alameda County Medical Center, Highland Campus
Oakland, California
Infectious Disease Emergencies
Gary W. Tamkin, MD
Assistant Medical Director
Emergency Services
NorthBay Medical Center
Fairfield, California
Assistant Clinical Professor
University of California San Francisco
San Francisco, California
Emergency Medical Services and Disaster Medicine
Gastroenterologic Emergencies
William D. Whetstone, MD
Assistant Clinical Professor of Medicine
School of Medicine
Division of Emergency Medicine
University of California, San Francisco
San Francisco, California
Cardiologic Emergencies
PREFACE
This text is intended to help emergency physicians
preparing for the written board certification examination. It
was developed by reviewing the core content areas on the
residency in-service exam, then creating questions with a
proportionately equal emphasis on each section. I wish the
users of this book great success in their careers in emergency medicine. I hope this book contributes to expanding
their knowledge base, not only in order to pass the boards,
but also to help them care for patients in the day-to-day
practice of emergency medicine.
I am deeply grateful to the 20 contributors who spent
countless hours developing questions and answers for this
text. The contributors show a true commitment to teaching
emergency medicine.
I also wish to thank my friends, family, and co-workers
for their patience and guidance. Finally, I am gravely
indebted to my administrative assistant, Liz McCarty,
without whom this book would not have been possible.
xi
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EMERGENCY
MEDICINE
P RE T EST ® S ELF -A SSESSMENT
AND
R EVIEW /2 E
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ADMINISTRATION, ETHICS,
AND LEGAL ASPECTS
QUESTIONS
DIRECTIONS:
1.
All of the following are elements of a hospital’s disaster plan EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
2.
6.
(A) preexisting poor quality of life
(B) a valid do-not-resuscitate order
(C) known irreversible and untreatable terminal
illness
(D) nonsurviveable trauma, such as decapitation
(E) failure to respond to standard protocols according to advanced cardiac life support
disbelief
anger
depression
threats against the suing patient
self-doubt and difficulty making decisions
In a case of suspected child abuse, which of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) A physician must report evidence of abuse but
is not required to report mere suspicions
(B) Physicians are required to report any clear
evidence of abuse but can be successfully
sued for incorrect reports
(C) Physicians are at great legal risk when they
report suspected abuse cases that turn out to
be unfounded
(D) Physicians in all states are required by law to
report any suspected abuse, and complete legal
immunity is provided in every state
(E) The physician should take custody of the child
All of the following statements are true of sexual
assault EXCEPT
Each of the following is an ethical justification to
terminate or withhold cardiopulmonary resuscitation
EXCEPT
Each of the following is an expected physician
response to a malpractice suit EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
counterclockwise shift rotation
isolated night shifts
bright light (10,000 lux) for 2 h after rising
regular exercise
anchor sleep and naps
(A) The physician’s first responsibility is to the
patient, not to the legal system
(B) All patients should be offered follow-up
(C) Lack of genital injuries makes involuntary
intercourse unlikely
(D) Facial or extremity injuries are common
(E) Every female patient should have a
pregnancy test
4.
5.
activation mechanism
capacity assessment
communication
discharge of predisaster patients
training and drills
All of the following are helpful strategies to cope with
shift work EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
3.
Each question below contains five suggested responses. Select the one best response to each question.
7.
A 14-month-old male infant is brought to the ED for
evaluation of diarrhea. The child has an area of alopecia
over the occiput. Ribs are prominent and the skin is
loose, but muscle tone is increased. The child weighs
only 11 pounds. What is the BEST course of action?
(A) Urgent outpatient referral to an endocrinologist
(B) Admission, skeletal survey, and social service
evaluation
(C) Elimination diet for evaluation of
food allergies
(D) Stool culture and test for fecal leukocytes
(E) Evaluation by a pediatric neurologist for
muscular dystrophy
1
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2
A DMINISTRATION , E THICS
8. A 28-year-old woman presents at 2:00 A.M. with a leg
laceration that she sustained the previous afternoon. She
states she struck a coffee table. Examination shows a
healing periorbital contusion and several other ecchymoses of various ages. When questioned, she relates
these to falls sustained while pursuing her active 2-yearold son. A nurse recalls this patient as a “frequent flyer”
who often receives opiates to treat pain. Review of the
records shows a series of visits for various injuries,
including a facial laceration, a wrist fracture, and back
strains and contusions. What is the MOST appropriate
course of action?
(A) Repair the laceration and provide nonopioid
analgesics
(B) Confront the patient about her excessive use of
prescription drugs and offer a referral to substance abuse counseling
(C) Question the patient about her use of alcohol
and administer a standardized diagnostic
questionnaire
(D) Question the patient about domestic violence
and offer referral to a shelter and
support services
(E) Report the case to child protective services
9. With regard to the patient discussed in question 8,
goals of the ED encounter include all of the following
EXCEPT
(A) providing the patient with information about
risks and options
(B) having the spouse arrested
(C) assessing risk of suicide or homicide
(D) assessing safety of the patient and children
(E) offering referral to battered women’s shelters
and services
10. Each of the following is an appropriate question to
ask in a case of suspected domestic violence EXCEPT
(A) Are you in a relationship in which you
have been physically hurt or threatened by
your partner?
(B) What do you do that makes your partner
hit you?
(C) Has your partner ever threatened or abused
your children?
(D) Has your partner ever forced you to have sex
when you did not want to?
(E) What happens when you and your partner fight
or disagree?
AND
L EGAL A SPECTS — Q UESTIONS
11. Each of the following is a risk factor for violent
behavior in the ED EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
male sex
previous violent behavior
depression
alcohol abuse
paranoid schizophrenia
12. The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor
Act (EMTALA) has many provisions that affect emergency care in U.S. EDs. All of the following provisions
are true of EMTALA EXCEPT
(A) A patient in active labor is not considered
“stabilized” until the baby and placenta
are delivered
(B) If capacity exists, a hospital with a “special
service” (such as a burn center) is required to
accept transfers, regardless of the patient’s
financial status
(C) A patient may never be transferred for purely
financial reasons
(D) A hospital must provide a medical screening
examination to anyone who presents
requesting care
(E) Fines under EMTALA are not covered by
traditional malpractice insurance
13. All of the following are appropriate actions to preserve evidence in cases of penetrating trauma EXCEPT
(A) picking up bullet and metal fragments with a
metal instrument to avoid contaminating the
surface with glove residue or skin oils
(B) not incising through skin wounds whenever
possible
(C) when cutting clothing, cut around rather than
through bullet holes and knife holes
(D) not scrubbing wounds
(E) collecting and preserving clothing and belongings and storing them in a secure area
A DMINISTRATION , E THICS ,
AND
L EGAL A SPECTS — Q UESTIONS
14. Each of the following is a true statement about the
use of restraints in the ED EXCEPT
(A) The law requires that the minimal force necessary be used when restraining a patient
(B) As few people as possible should participate in
restraining the patient
(C) From a legal standpoint, restraining patients
against their will is generally better than allowing patients to harm themselves or others
(D) The medical chart must reflect the reason for
placing the patient in restraints
(E) Patients who require restraints should not be
allowed to sign out against medical advice
3
15. All of the following are ethical duties of a physician
EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
protect and preserve life
prevent disability
relieve suffering
respect patient autonomy
provide treatment that is in society’s
best interest
ADMINISTRATION, ETHICS,
AND LEGAL ASPECTS
ANSWERS
1. The answer is D. (Chapter 5) A good hospital disaster plan includes a mechanism of
activation, assessment of the hospital’s capacity, establishment of disaster command,
communication, supplies, administrative and treatment areas, and training and drills.
Although immediate discharge of predisaster patients may augment capacity, it is not
contemplated in the regulations of the Joint Commission of the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations. Good disaster planning also includes assessment of likely hazards
and cooperation between the hospital and the community.
2. The answer is A. (Chapter 288) When shifts must be rotated, they should be rotated
in a clockwise manner (each change to a later, not earlier, shift), ideally with 1 month or
more per rotation. Sporadic night shifts are less disruptive than longer stretches of nights
to circadian rhythms. Anchor sleep involves sleeping for the same 4-h period each night,
regardless of the shift worked.
3. The answer is C. (Chapter 290) Lack of genital injuries does not imply consensual
intercourse, although their presence may suggest force. Toluene dye staining with colposcopy may identify lesions in the posterior fourchette suggestive of rape that are not
visible on routine examination. Because rape is a violent crime, nongenital injuries are
common, particularly of the face and extremities. Preexisting pregnancy must be ruled
out before offering pregnancy prophylaxis. Follow-up is necessary to assess the effectiveness of pregnancy and sexually transmitted disease prophylaxis, and patients frequently require additional counseling.
4. The answer is A. (Chapter 13) Judgments about quality of life are highly subjective
and individual, and physicians should refrain from making such judgments about their
patients. When a patient is known to have an untreatable terminal illness, it is appropriate to withhold resuscitation, but this level of knowledge is rarely available in the emergency setting. Often, only the failure to respond to resuscitation efforts will determine
that the patient has “irreversible cessation of circulatory and respiratory functions.”
5. The answer is D. (Chapter 288) Malpractice stress syndrome is a pattern of response
characterized by disbelief, anger, and depression, followed by isolation, embarrassment,
and self-doubt. The greatest predictor of dysfunction is isolation. Peer support groups
composed of other physicians who have experienced litigation are very helpful in preventing or relieving the sense of isolation.
6. The answer is D. (Chapter 289) Physicians and other licensed health care professionals are required to report any suspicion of child abuse. Every state provides complete
legal immunity for any good-faith report of suspected abuse. Although parents are frequently angry and upset and may threaten lawsuits, a physician cannot be successfully
sued for reporting child abuse unless the report is intentionally false.
7. The answer is B. (Chapter 289) Failure-to-thrive syndrome results from severe
neglect starting in early infancy. Physical examination shows evidence of longstanding
malnutrition, and the child often exhibits wide-eyed, wary behavior. Muscle tone is
4
A DMINISTRATION , E THICS ,
AND
L EGAL A SPECTS — A NSWERS
5
usually increased, but is occasionally decreased. Admission to the hospital generally
results in prompt weight gain, which is diagnostic. A skeletal survey is needed to evaluate for physical abuse, and an extensive social service assessment is mandatory.
8. The answer is D. (Chapter 291) Battered women seek care for a wide variety of
complaints. The most significant reason for failing to make the diagnosis is simple failure to ask. However, only about one-third of battered women will speak to a physician
or nurse about the violence in their lives if direct inquiry is made. Therefore, the diagnosis is not ruled out by a negative answer. Although battered women may resort to substance abuse, there is no established link between substance use and the cause of
violence. Multiple injuries in various stages of healing, substantial delay between injury
and presentation, and frequent visits for vague complaints are factors suggestive of a
diagnosis of domestic violence.
9. The answer is B. (Chapter 291) When physicians have “getting her to a shelter” or
“having him arrested” as the goal of the patient encounter in cases of domestic violence,
they are rarely successful. Women stay in violent relationships for a variety of reasons,
including the very real fear of escalating violence. The highest number of fatalities from
domestic violence occur when the woman leaves or tries to leave the relationship. Leaving the relationship may not be the immediate goal of the patient, and she may be loath
to have her husband and the father of her children arrested.
10. The answer is B. (Chapter 291) The presentations of battered women are so different that the diagnosis may be missed if the physician fails to ask directly about the presence of violence in the patient’s life. Many battered women respond truthfully if
questioned directly in a sensitive, nonjudgmental way. However, the woman needs to
know that she does not deserve to be beaten. Questions that suggest or imply that the
battering is the patient’s fault must be avoided.
11. The answer is C. (Chapter 293) Most perpetrators of violence are males with a history of substance abuse. The best predictor of potential violence is the patient’s history;
any patient with a history of violence must be taken seriously and handled cautiously.
The most common functional disorder related to violence is schizophrenia, especially the
paranoid subtypes. Although the most dangerous functional disorder is mania, depression
is not a strong predictor of violence.
12. The answer is C. (Chapter 3) Under EMTALA (also known as COBRA), every
patient who presents with a request for medical care must receive a “medical screening
examination” to rule out a medical emergency. If a medical emergency is present, the
patient must be stabilized without regard for the financial status of the patient. A patient
in active labor is defined as having an emergency under EMTALA and can only be stabilized by delivery of the infant and the placenta. Fines under EMTALA are not covered
by malpractice insurance. Once a patient is “stable,” EMTALA no longer applies, and
the patient may be transferred for purely financial reasons. However, the burden of proving stability is with the transferring physician and hospital.
13. The answer is A. (Chapter 256) Bullets should not be handled with metal instruments because the instrument may leave marks that can confuse interpretation. Cutting
through holes in clothing or through skin wounds can destroy valuable indications of the
force, direction, and nature of the wounding instrument. Scrubbing wounds can destroy
powder marks from gunshots and obscure abrasions. Clothing and belongings must be
secured to prevent the possibility of tampering.
14. The answer is B. (Chapter 293) Each person who requires restraint should be
approached by a team of four or five trained individuals with a single leader. Ideally, one
person can control each extremity and another can control the head. Inadequate numbers
6
A DMINISTRATION , E THICS ,
AND
L EGAL A SPECTS — A NSWERS
of personnel lead to increased injuries to both the staff and the patient. The minimum
necessary force should be used, and not every patient requires four-point leather
restraint. Patients who require restraint should not leave the ED without complete evaluation. The chart must reflect the reason for the restraints and a specific physician order
for the type and duration of restraint. The patient must be reevaluated frequently.
15. The answer is E. (Chapter 13) Although there has been increasing attention to
physicians’ role in promoting greater social good and preserving resources, the physician
is expected to be an advocate for the patient first and provide treatment that is in that
patient’s best interest. It is in resuscitation that the duties to protect and preserve life
most often conflict with the duties to relieve suffering and respect autonomy. Patient
autonomy is a highly prized ideal in U.S. society.
ANESTHESIA AND
ANALGESIA
QUESTIONS
DIRECTIONS:
Each question below contains five suggested responses. Select the one best response to each question.
16. Which of the following agents is LEAST likely to
cause hypotension at standard doses?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Morphine
Meperidine
Fentanyl
Midazolam
Propofol
17. Which of the following agents may cause truncal and
jaw muscle rigidity?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Morphine
Meperidine
Ketamine
Fentanyl
Etomidate
18. Which of the following agents may precipitate bronchospasm in patients with reactive airway disease?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Midazolam
Etomidate
Ketamine
Propofol
Methohexital
19. Which of the following statements regarding local
anesthetics is FALSE?
(A) Lidocaine and bupivicaine are both amide
anesthetics
(B) Warming and buffering has been shown to
reduce the pain of injection
(C) The duration of anesthesia is twice as long
with bupivicaine as with lidocaine
(D) Duration of anesthesia is prolonged
with epinephrine
(E) Epinephrine can damage local tissue defenses
20. EMLA is appropriate for all of the following procedures EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
venipuncture
laceration repair
lumbar puncture
myringotomy
cautery of genital warts
21. Which of the following statements regarding toxicity
of local anesthetics is FALSE?
(A) The first signs of toxicity are dizziness,
tinnitus, periorbital tingling, and nystagmus
(B) Systemic convulsions are rare and usually
self-limited
(C) Most allergic reactions are to aminoamide
compounds
(D) For patients allergic to local anesthetics,
diphenhydramine hydrochloride 1 percent can
be injected into the wound
(E) To prevent toxicity, avoid rapid injections of
local anesthetic into the wound
22. Which of the following statements about digital
nerve blocks is FALSE?
(A) Digital nerve blocks are more efficacious than
metacarpal blocks
(B) A 27-gauge needle is inserted through the skin
into each side of the extensor tendon, just
proximal to the web
(C) The needle is advanced toward the palm until
its tip is palpable beneath the volar surface of
the finger
(D) It is not necessary to anesthetize the dorsum of
the involved digit
(E) The total volume of anesthetic agent should
not exceed 4 mL
7
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A NESTHESIA
8
23. A 32-year-old male presents with a laceration he sustained after stepping on broken glass at the beach. The
examination reveals an 8-cm cut on the medial plantar
aspect of the left foot. Which peripheral nerve block is
appropriate?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Saphenous nerve
Sural nerve
Posterior tibial nerve
Superficial peroneal nerve
Deep peroneal nerve
AND
A NALGESIA — Q UESTIONS
24. A 20-year-old male kick boxer sustains a lower lip
laceration during a practice match. The wound is complex and crosses the vermilion border. Which is the best
way to achieve anesthesia?
(A) Local infiltration with 1 percent lidocaine
(B) Local infiltration with 1 percent lidocaine
with epinephrine
(C) Inferior alveolar nerve block
(D) Lingular nerve block
(E) Mental nerve block
ANESTHESIA AND
ANALGESIA
ANSWERS
16. The answer is C. (Chapter 33) Fentanyl is a potent, synthetic opioid. Because it does
not trigger histamine release like other opioid analgesics, it causes little hemodynamic
compromise. All the other agents listed cause dose-dependent hypotension.
17. The answer is D. (Chapter 33) Truncal and jaw muscle rigidity are rare side effects
of fentanyl that can lead to impaired ventilation. This rigidity most often occurs at high
doses (10–15 g/kg) and may be reversed by parenteral naloxone. If naloxone is
unsuccessful, paralysis and endotracheal intubation may be necessary.
18. The answer is E. (Chapter 15) Methohexital is an ultra-short-acting barbiturate that
provides sedation and amnesia for short, invasive procedures. Barbiturate administration
may precipitate bronchospasm in patients with moderate to severe reactive airway disease, thus limiting its use in those patients. There is some evidence that ketamine may
have a mild, transient bronchodilatory effect. Midazolam, etomidate, and propofol have
no clinically significant effect on bronchial smooth muscle tone. Of the listed agents,
only ketamine provides analgesia in addition to sedation.
19. The answer is C. (Chapter 32) The duration of anesthesia after bupivicaine is nearly
four times longer than that for lidocaine. With either agent, the duration of action is prolonged when combined with epinephrine. However, the local vasoconstrictive action of
epinephrine may result in local hypoxia that impairs white blood cell function, thereby
damaging local tissue defenses. Both lidocaine and bupivicaine are amide anesthetics.
20. The answer is B. (Chapter 32) EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anesthetics) is a
eutectic mixture of 5 percent lidocaine and prilocaine that is used to produce anesthesia
over intact skin. In the ED, its primary use is to produce anesthesia before venipuncture
and lumbar puncture. In other settings, this cream has been used for anesthesia of
split-thickness graft donor sites, curettage of molluscum contagiosum, cautery of genital warts, and myringotomy. EMLA is not recommended for topical anesthesia of
lacerations because it induces an exaggerated inflammatory response, thereby damaging
host defenses and inviting the development of infection.
21. The answer is C. (Chapter 32) Slow injections limit the chance for local anesthetic
toxicity. When history of allergy is uncertain, an antihistamine such as diphenhydramine
injected directly into the wound can be used as an alternative and achieves anesthesia in
approximately 30 min. True allergic reactions to local anesthetics are rare, especially to
aminoamide compounds such as lidocaine and bupivicaine. The ester derivatives of paraaminobenzoic acid, such as procaine, are responsible for most local anesthetic allergic
reactions. Toxicity should be suspected in patients who complain of dizziness, tinnitus,
and periorbital tingling. Rarely, systemic convulsions follow. These are usually self-limited because of rapid redistribution of the drug, with resultant lower serum levels.
22. The answer is D. (Chapter 32) The dorsal branch of the digital nerve supplies the
dorsal aspect of each digit and should be included in the digital block. Digital nerve
blocks are less time consuming and more efficacious than metacarpal blocks.
9
10
A NESTHESIA
AND
A NALGESIA — A NSWERS
23. The answer is C. (Chapter 32) The posterior tibial nerve innervates the sole of the
foot. To perform a peroneal nerve block, 1 percent lidocaine is injected into the subcutaneous tissue lateral to the posterior tibial artery at the upper border of the medial
malleolus. None of the other nerves listed supply the plantar surface of the foot. The
saphenous nerve provides sensation to the skin over the medial malleolus. The sural
nerve supplies the lateral foot and fifth toe. The superficial peroneal nerve innervates the
dorsum of the foot and the other toes, except the adjacent sides of the first and second
toes, which derive sensation from the deep peroneal nerve.
24. The answer is E. (Chapter 32) A regional block is preferred for a complex lower lip
laceration because it preserves tissue planes and landmarks, facilitating anatomically correct repair. The mental nerve supplies the skin and mucus membranes of the lower lip.
The mental foramen is located inside the lower lip at its junction with the lower gum, just
posterior to the first premolar tooth. To avoid nerve injury, 1 percent lidocaine with epinephrine is injected close to, but not into, the mental foramen. The inferior alveolar and
lingular nerves do not supply the lower lip and thus would not be effective in this patient.
CARDIOLOGIC
EMERGENCIES
QUESTIONS
DIRECTIONS:
Each question below contains five suggested responses. Select the one best response to each question.
25. Stable angina is characterized by all of the following
EXCEPT
(A) episodic chest pain lasting 30 to 45 min
(B) may be accompanied by light-headedness,
palpitations, diaphoresis, dyspnea, nausea,
or vomiting
(C) auscultation may reveal transient S4 or apical
systolic murmur indicative of mitral
regurgitation
(D) provoked by exertion or stress
(E) an ECG taken during an acute attack may
show ST-segment depression or T-wave
inversion
26. Unstable (crescendo or preinfarction) angina is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
(A) exertional angina of recent onset, usually
defined as within 4 to 8 weeks
(B) elevated troponin and new Q waves
(C) angina of worsening character, characterized
by increasing severity and duration
(D) angina at rest (angina decubitus)
(E) increased requirement for nitroglycerin to
control angina
27. What percentage of AMI patients have diagnostic
changes on their initial ECG?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
20
35
50
65
80
28. An ECG with abnormal Q waves and ST-segment
elevation in I, aVL, and V4–V6 would represent infarction in which area of the myocardium?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Inferior
Anteroseptal
Lateral
Anterolateral
Posterior
29. What percentage of unstable angina patients can be
identified by positive troponin assays?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
10
25
33
50
75
30. How long after coronary artery occlusion can
echocardiography detect wall-motion abnormalities?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Within a few heartbeats
5 to 10 min
30 min
1h
2 to 4 h
31. Rupture of a papillary muscle is usually associated
with an infarction of which area of myocardium?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Inferior
Inferior–posterior
Lateral
Anterior
Anteroseptal
11
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C ARDIOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
12
32. Postmyocardial infarction (Dressler’s) syndrome is
characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
chest pain
fever
pleuropericarditis
mediastinitis
pleural effusion
33. All of the following should be used in the initial
management of AMI EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
nifedipine
nitroglycerin
oxygen
aspirin
heparin or low-molecular-weight heparin
(LMWH)
34. The Global Utilization of Streptokinase and Tissue
Plasminogen Activator for Occluded Coronary Arteries
(GUSTO) trial found a reduced mortality rate in groups
taking heparin intravenously with tPA rather than
streptokinase. For which of the following subgroups of
patients were these relatively small benefits of tPA over
streptokinase fewer or nonexistent?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Patients younger than 75 years
Patients with anterior MI
Patients with inferior MI
Patients with posterior MI
Patients in whom thrombolysis was not initiated within 2 h of symptom onset
35. Of the following criteria, which is the BEST for
thrombolytic therapy?
(A) 1-mm ST-segment depression in a single
limb lead
(B) 2-mm ST-segment elevation in two or more
contiguous limb leads in a patient with signs
of cardiogenic shock
(C) 2-mm ST-segment elevation in two or more
contiguous precordial leads
(D) New right bundle branch block
(E) New left bundle branch block with evidence of
cardiogenic shock
36. Absolute contraindications to thrombolytic therapy
include all of the following EXCEPT
(A) recent head trauma
(B) stroke within the past 6 months or any history
of hemorrhagic stroke
(C) suspected aortic dissection
(D) initial BP 240/140
(E) suspected pericarditis
37. By which percentage does aspirin (by itself) reduce
cardiovascular mortality when given in the early stages
of coronary occlusion?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
38.
5
10
20
30
40
Nitrates have all of the following effects EXCEPT
(A) reducing cardiac preload
(B) reducing cardiac afterload
(C) dilating major capacitance vessels of the coronary system thereby improving collateral flow
(D) inhibiting vasospasm
(E) improving clinical outcome when used orally
during AMI
39. Contraindications to blockade include all of the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
heart rate 60 beats per minute
first-degree AV block
severe left ventricular dysfunction
severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
systolic blood pressure 100 with signs of
hypoperfusion
40. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate
intravenous heparin dose in the setting of AMI?
(A) loading dose: 75 U/kg, maintenance infusion:
13 U/kg per hour
(B) loading dose: 7.5 U/kg, maintenance infusion:
13 U/kg per hour
(C) no loading dose, maintenance infusion:
1100 U/h
(D) loading dose: 10,000 U, maintenance infusion:
1000 U/h
(E) loading dose: 1000 U, maintenance infusion:
1200 U/h
41. A 70-year-old man presents to the ED after a 1-min
episode of loss of consciousness while eating dinner.
Potential cardiac causes of this syncopal episode
include all of the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
bradycardia
tachycardia
aortic stenosis
aortic regurgitation
ischemia
13
C ARDIOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
42. All of the following drugs may contribute to syncope
EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
spironolactone
digitalis
metoprolol
nitrates
synthroid
43. Which artery is MOST likely to be diseased in a
patient who suffers a syncopal episode secondary to
cerebral ischemia?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Carotid
Vertebrobasilar
Anterior communicating artery
Anterior cerebral artery
Posterior communicating artery
44. A 44-year-old man complains of recurrent syncope
associated with upper extremity exercise. What is the
MOST likely cause?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Trigeminal neuralgia
Hypoglycemia
Carotid sinus hypersensitivity
Subclavian steal syndrome
Vasovagal syncope
45. What diagnosis should be suspected in an elderly
patient who experiences a syncopal episode after head
turning or shaving?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
vasovagal syncope
carotid sinus hypersensitivity
orthostatic syncope
cardiomyopathy
seizure disorder
46. Which of the following conditions is NOT associated
with a risk of aortic dissection?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Aortic regurgitation
Aortic stenosis
Bicuspid aortic valve
Marfan’s syndrome
Coarctation of the aorta
47. All of the following findings support the diagnosis of
pericarditis EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
pain relieved by sitting up and leaning forward
presence of a pericardial friction rub
ECG with diffuse ST segment depression
ECG with PR segment depression
pericardial effusion
48. Which of the following statements regarding chest
pain is FALSE?
(A) Burning or gnawing pain may be present
with AMI
(B) An acid or foul taste in the mouth suggests
dypepsia is more likely than angina
(C) Tenderness to palpation in the epigastric region
may be elicited with AMI
(D) Relief of pain with antacids strongly suggests a
gastrointestinal etiology
(E) Epigastric or lower chest discomfort may
be described with both cardiac and
noncardiac causes
49. Risk factors for coronary artery disease include all of
the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
male sex
hypercholesterolemia
estrogen replacement medications
diabetes
cigarette smoking
50. Physical examination and laboratory findings that
may be present in AMI include all of the following
EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
chest wall tenderness
sinus tachycardia or bradycardia
hypertension or hypotension
crackles on pulmonary examination
non–anion-gap metabolic acidosis
51. A patient has a blood pressure of 210/140 accompanied by severe headache, nausea, and vomiting.
Which category of hypertension BEST describes this
presentation?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Hypertensive emergency
Hypertensive urgency
Uncomplicated hypertension
Transient hypertension
Chronic hypertension
52. How quickly and to what level should the blood
pressure be lowered in a patient with a hypertensive
emergency?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
120/80 as quickly as possible
180/90 within 12 h
120/80 within 30 to 60 min
A level that is “normal” for that patient
within 30 to 60 min
(E) A level that is “normal” for that patient
within 4 h
C ARDIOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
14
53. A patient, 8 months’ pregnant, with no medical history presents with a BP of 160/100 and seizures. Which
of the following is the BEST drug for lowering BP in
this setting?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Sodium nitroprusside
Hydralazine
Intravenous nitroglycerin
Nifedipine
Furosemide
54. Sodium nitroprusside has all of the following actions
EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
arteriolar dilator
venodilator
decreasing preload and afterload
near immediate onset of action
duration of action of 1 to 2 h
55. Labetalol is an excellent drug for lowering blood
pressure in all of the following conditions EXCEPT
(A) pheochromocytoma
(B) MAO inhibitor–induced hypertensive
emergencies
(C) clonidine withdrawal
(D) dissecting aortic aneurysm
(E) in patients with congestive heart failure and
hypertension after AMI
56. Each of the following is a risk factor for venous
thrombosis EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
hormone replacement therapy
CHF
central line placement
blood type O
extensive burns
57. A 50-year-old man presents with a painful, swollen
leg that occurred over 2 days. He smokes two packs of
cigarettes per day, and he is moderately overweight. He
recalls striking his calf against a coffee table 3 days
before and suffered an abrasion. His temperature is
100.5°F, and the leg is visibly swollen to the groin with
moderate erythema. Pulses are normal. Which of the
following statements is correct?
(A) Absence of palpable cords and a negative
Homans’ sign make DVT unlikely
(B) The fever and erythema make a diagnosis of
DVT very unlikely
(C) The patient may be started on heparin anticoagulation immediately
(D) Because there is no evidence of pulmonary
embolism, the patient may be started on
coumadin alone
(E) A venogram must be performed within 24 h
58. An elderly man with a history of smoking complains
of sudden, severe pain in the left leg beginning 2 h previously. The leg is cool, pale, and mottled from the
mid-thigh distally, and sensation is decreased. All of the
following are true EXCEPT
(A) the patient likely had an embolus that originated in the heart
(B) the patient should immediately receive thrombolytic therapy with streptokinase or recombinant tPA because there is only a 4-h window
during which reperfusion must be achieved to
preserve limb function
(C) a vascular surgeon should be consulted
immediately
(D) the patient has an overall mortality rate of
about 15 percent
(E) intravenous heparin is indicated
59. In a heart transplant recipient, each of the following
statements is true EXCEPT
(A) Sinus tachycardia at rest can be normal
(B) The effect of atropine is exaggerated in the
denervated heart
(C) The response to -adrenergic drugs is normal
or increased
(D) The ECG is often read as atrial fibrillation
or flutter
(E) The patient will be immunosuppressed for life
60. A 55-year-old man is 2 years post–heart transplantation for dilated cardiomyopathy. He presents with 1 day
of fatigue, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. He is currently
taking cyclosporine, prednisone, and azathioprine. All of
the following statements are true EXCEPT
(A) The patient may have a cytomegalovirus
infection
(B) The patient must be evaluated for possible
acute rejection
(C) The patient should immediately receive 1 g
intravenous methylprednisolone
(D) This illness may cause an episode of rejection
(E) The patient must receive antibiotics before
endoscopic procedures
61. Regarding abdominal aortic aneurysms, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT
(A) Aneurysms larger than 5 cm should be treated
surgically
(B) Fusiform aneurysms smaller than 4 cm can be
managed conservatively
(C) Tenderness of an aneurysm may be an indication for surgery
(D) Most patients complain of back pain
(E) The most common presentation of an
aneurysm is as an incidental finding
15
C ARDIOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
62. A 67-year-old man is brought to the ED by ambulance after a syncopal episode. He was well before the
event, except for mild chronic hypertension. He fell on
pavement, striking his head, so paramedics placed him
in a cervical collar and strapped him to a spine board.
He complains of low back pain, which he attributes to
the spine board. BP is 100/50, and heart rate (HR) is 80
beats per minute. Which of the following is the best
course of action?
(A) Analgesia, ECG, and outpatient referral to
cardiologist
(B) ECG, cardiac enzymes, admit for telemetry
monitoring
(C) Lateral abdominal x-ray, with aortogram
if inconclusive
(D) Intravenous fluids, morphine, computed
tomography (CT) of the abdomen
(E) Immediate surgical consultation, multiple
large-bore intravenous lines, type and
cross-match blood
63. A 60-year-old man presents with 1 h of chest and
upper back pain “like I’m being ripped apart!” BP is
170/110 in the right arm and 110/50 in the left arm.
ECG shows sinus rhythm with left ventricular hypertrophy. Chest x-ray is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?
(A) Nitroglycerin sublingual 3, cardiac enzymes,
admit
(B) Intravenous r-tPA or streptokinase, admit to
cardiac care unit
(C) Intravenous heparin 80 U/kg bolus and 18
U/kg per hour as continuous infusion, ventilation/perfusion lung scan, admit
(D) Intravenous nitroprusside to keep systolic BP
110, intravenous propranolol to keep HR
60, contrast-enhanced CT of the thorax
(E) Intravenous morphine sulfate, emergency gastrointestinal consultation for endoscopy
64. All of the following are acceptable strategies for
diagnosis of DVT EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
duplex ultrasonography
IPG
contrast venography
elevated D-dimer fragments
MRI
65. Each of the following may be a manifestation of
rejection in a cardiac transplant patient EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
dysrhythmias
myocardial infarction
ascites
renal insufficiency
hypotension
66. All of the following statements are true of geriatric
trauma patients EXCEPT
(A) Symptoms of intracranial hemorrhage may
be delayed compared with symptoms in
younger patients
(B) A normal heart rate is a good prognostic sign
(C) Cervical spine fractures are less common with
increasing age
(D) Elderly patients have decreased
pulmonary reserve
(E) Orthopedic injuries alone may cause significant
hypovolemia
67. All of the following statements are TRUE with
regard to mitral valve stenosis (MVS) EXCEPT
(A) Rheumatic heart disease is the most common
cause
(B) Symptoms may be precipitated by atrial
fibrillation, pregnancy, and anemia
(C) Syncope is the most common presenting
symptom
(D) Hemoptysis is the second most common
presenting symptom
(E) If the defect is not corrected, atrial fibrillation
almost always develops
68. All of the following statements are TRUE regarding
mitral valve prolapse (MVP) EXCEPT
(A) There is an increased incidence of sudden
death and dysrhythmias
(B) In patients younger than 45 years, there is an
increased incidence of TIAs
(C) Approximately 1 percent of the population
has MVP
(D) A mid-systolic snap is a classic
auscultatory finding
(E) Most patients are asymptomatic
69. Which of the following statements is FALSE with
respect to aortic stenosis (AS)?
(A) Congential heart disease is the most
common cause
(B) Left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is the most
common ECG finding
(C) Sudden death occurs in 25 percent of patients
(D) Endocarditis occurs in 15 percent of patients
(E) Exertional angina is a common
presenting symptom
C ARDIOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
16
70. For which of the following procedures should
patients with valvular heart disease receive prophylactic
antibiotics?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Incision and drainage of an abscess
Anoscopy
Endotracheal intubation
A and B only
All of the above
71. Which valvular disease is MOST commonly associated with sudden death in younger patients?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Aortic stenosis
Mitral stenosis
IHSS
Tetralogy of Fallot
Mitral valve prolapse
72. Afterload reduction is an important therapeutic
modality in all of the following patients with symptomatic valvular disease EXCEPT
(A) a patient with BP of 125/70, with acute mitral
incontinence secondary to an inferior MI
(B) a patient with aortic insufficiency (AI) with BP
of 135/55 with pulmonary edema
(C) a patient with AS with a BP of 135/70
and angina
(D) a patient with mitral stenosis (MS) with a BP
of 135/65 and pink frothy sputum
(E) a patient with chronic mitral and aortic
insufficiency, a BP of 130/80 and CHF
73. A 25-year-old runner is brought to the ED by ambulance after experiencing witnessed syncope on the track.
Paramedics arrived within 3 min and found the patient
in ventricular fibrillation. A 200-J shock converted the
rhythm to sinus tachycardia, and the patient has
remained stable. He complains of some chest discomfort and tells you he has a familial heart problem and
was told he should not run. BP is 100/80, respiratory
rate (RR) is 20 breaths per minute, and pulse oximetry
is 93 percent. The ECG shows sinus tachycardia at 115
beats per minute with septal Q and upright T waves. In
addition to oxygen administration, which of the following is the MOST important therapeutic intervention?
(A) Aspirin and nitroglycerin
(B) Intravenous fluids and 5 mg
intravenous labetalol
(C) Nitroglycerin and a lidocaine drip
(D) CPAP, nitroglycerin, and furosemide
(E) Aspirin, nitroglycerin, and dopamine
74. All of the following statements are TRUE regarding
emergent pericardiocentesis EXCEPT
(A) Complications include pneumothorax, dysrhythmias, laceration of coronary arteries, and
liver lacerations
(B) Associated mortality with a blind approach is
6 percent
(C) The technique of choice is the left paraxyphoid
approach aiming toward the right shoulder
(D) An ECG unipolar electrode attached to V1 is
the guidance technique of choice
(E) There is a 7 to 15 percent complication rate
with a blind approach
75. A 62-year-old man is brought to the ED by ambulance with confusion and dyspnea. BP is 80/60. With
inspiration, SBP decreases to 55. The monitor shows a
HR of 121 beats per minute, with vacillating amplitude
of the QRS complex. RR is 26 breaths per minute, and
oximetry saturation is 91 percent. Physical examination
shows jugular venous distention (JVD), distant heart
sounds, cool extremities, and diaphoresis. Chest x-ray is
grossly normal. Which of the following would be the
MOST effective therapeutic intervention?
(A) Large-volume resuscitation with crystalloid,
oxygen, and emergent diagnostic spiral CT
(B) Large-volume resuscitation with crystalloid,
oxygen, and dopamine
(C) Immediate intubation, large-volume
resuscitation, and dopamine
(D) Large-volume resuscitation, oxygen, and
immediate involvement of cardiology consult
for placement of an intraaortic balloon pump
(E) Large-volume resuscitation, oxygen, and
pericardiocentesis
76. Which of the following statements is FALSE with
regard to cardiomyopathy (CM)?
(A) Hypertrophic CM is a familial disease associated with decreased compliance, outflow
obstruction, and septal Q waves
(B) The work-up of a newly diagnosed dilated
CM patient should include a check of thyroidstimulating hormone (TSH), phosphate, and
iron, HIV status, and an endocardial biopsy
(C) Patients with restrictive CM secondary to
amyloidosis should be started on a triple
regimen of diuretics, afterload reduction
agents, and digoxin
(D) Fever and myalgias are not part of the presenting symptoms of CM
(E) Most CM patients are best treated with
diuretics, afterload reduction agents,
and digoxin
17
C ARDIOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
77. Which of the following statements is FALSE with
regard to myocarditis?
80. All of the following statements are TRUE about uremic pericarditis EXCEPT
(A) Most patients with myocarditis return to their
baseline cardiac function within several months
of initial presentation
(B) Up to 60 percent of patients with chronic
cardiomyopathy have histologic evidence
of myocarditis
(C) On polymerase chain reaction analysis of
endocardial biopsy, adenovirus is found to
be the most frequent etiologic agent of
acute myocarditis
(D) Forty percent of patients with acute cardiomyopathy have histologic evidence of myocarditis
(E) Cocksackie, influenza B, and Epstein-Barr
(EBV) viruses have all been implicated in
acute myocarditis
(A) Uremic pericarditis is one of most common
causes of cardiac tamponade
(B) Pericarditis is detected clinically in 20 percent
of uremic patients
(C) ECG changes of pericarditis are more common
in uremic patients
(D) Hemodialysis daily for 2 to 6 weeks is the
treatment of choice for uremic pericarditis
(E) Hemodialysis-associated pericarditis requires a
diligent work-up for infectious causes
78. A previously healthy 25-year-old woman with no medical history presents to the ED complaining of 4 h of substernal chest pain, shortness of breath, dyspnea on
exertion, and “not feeling well” during the past few days.
She denies illicit drug use or alcoholism. Vital signs are
remarkable for a BP of 92/60, HR of 135, RR of 30, and
temperature of 101.5°F. ECG shows normal sinus rhythm
with nonspecific T-wave changes. Chest x-ray is normal.
In addition to oxygen, which one of the following represents the BEST initial treatment regimen?
(A) Aspirin, nitroglycerin, check troponin and
myoglobin levels
(B) Aspirin, blocker, check TSH
(C) Intravenous fluids, analgesia, emergent
echocardiogram
(D) Aspirin, nitroglycerin,
emergent ventilation
. .
perfusion (V/Q) scan
(E) Intravenous fluids, lorazepam, antacids
79. All of the following statements are TRUE with
regard to acute pericarditis EXCEPT
(A) Acute pericarditis is associated with transient
dysrhythmias that are usually clinically
insignificant
(B) Aspirin, 650 mg every 4 h for 7 days, should
be initiated if the diagnosis is suspected, so
long as no contraindications are present
(C) Electrical alternans or low-voltage ECG
suggests the presence of pericardial effusion
(D) Concomitant pericardial effusion is common
(E) Sixty percent of patients have complete
recovery within a week
81. A 32-year-old man presents with 1 week of flulike
symptoms and 2 days of sharp intermittent substernal
chest and left shoulder pain that wakes him at night.
The pain is partly relieved by sitting up. BP is 130/65,
HR is 100, RR is 16, and temperature is 100.6°F. On
physical examination, you hear a triphasic whispering
heart sound over the precordium. All of the following
are TRUE with regard to ECG findings associated with
this condition EXCEPT
(A) Diffuse concave ST elevation and PR
depression may be present
(B) ST-segment elevation of less than one-fourth
of the T-wave amplitude is more consistent
with this patient’s condition than with early
repolarization
(C) ST-segment elevation is most prominent in the
limb leads and lateral precordial leads
(D) ST-segment elevation in this condition can be
distinguished from that seen in AMI because
there are no associated T-wave inversions
(E) The PR depression seen with this condition
does not occur with early repolarization
18
C ARDIOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
82.
Which represents the BEST matches of valvular diseases from the left column with ECG findings in the right column?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
MS
AS
mitral valve prolapse
mitral insufficiency
IHSS
1
5
4
3
2
8;
7;
6;
9;
9;
3
2
2
1
5
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
acute inferior ischemia
LVH and bundle branch block
biphasic P waves and right axis
normal sinus rhythm
pseudoinfarction pattern
10
10
7
6
8
83. All of the following statements are TRUE regarding
the treatment of valvular emergencies EXCEPT
85. All of the following statements are TRUE about infectious endocarditis EXCEPT
(A) An intraaortic counterpulsation balloon is
contraindicated in AI
(B) Thrombolytic agents may be helpful in acute
mitral insufficiency
(C) Emergent surgery is usually indicated in acute
aortic and mitral insufficiency
(D) Patients with AS and syncope require urgent
surgical intervention
(E) Patients with decompensated MS and atrial fibrillation should be considered for cardioversion
(A) Cardiac valve leaflets are susceptible to infection because of their limited blood supply
(B) Fatality rates for right-sided disease are greater
than those for left-sided disease
(C) Streptococcus viridans is the most common
organism implicated in left-sided disease
(D) More than three-fourths of cases of right-sided
endocarditis are caused by Staphyloccus aureus
(E) Murmurs are detected in fewer than 50 percent
of patients with right-sided disease
84. A 28-year-old intravenous drug user presents with
dyspnea, agitation, diaphoresis, cool extremities, and
cough productive of pink frothy sputum. He has had
fevers and chills for 2 days but suddenly became short of
breath 1 h before. Vital signs are BP of 105/40, HR of
126, RR of 38 with oximetry saturation of 88 percent,
and temperature of 103.5°F. He has quick, upsweeping
pulses and a diastolic murmur. In addition to emergent
intubation and intravenous furosemide administration,
what is the MOST important immediate action?
86. All of the following statements are TRUE concerning
subacute infectious endocarditis EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Administer naloxone and nitrates
Call for a cardiac surgeon
Perform emergent echocardiography
Draw blood cultures and give intravenous
antibiotics
(E) Administer naloxone and intravenous
antibiotics and place an intraaortic
counterpulsation balloon
(A) The diagnosis is frequently missed
(B) Ten percent of patients have evidence of
peripheral vasculitic embolic lesions
(C) Splenomegaly is present in 25 percent
of patients
(D) Subacute presentations are unusual in
right-sided disease
(E) Neurologic signs from septic emboli are seen
in up to 40 percent of patients
87. All of the following statements are TRUE about CHF
EXCEPT
(A) Patients with CHF have a 50 percent mortality
risk within 5 years
(B) Ventricular ejection fraction is the best
predictor of mortality
(C) Sudden death occurs in 40 percent of
CHF patients
(D) ACE inhibitors have decreased the incidence
of sudden death
(E) Blockers have been shown to be a useful
treatment adjunct
19
C ARDIOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
88. A 59-year-old man presents to the ED by ambulance
with a 1-h history of severe substernal chest pain and
diaphoresis 12 h before presentation. Several hours after
initial resolution of the pain, he developed increasing
shortness of breath and chest heaviness. The patient is
pale, cyanotic, and dyspneic, puffing out one to two
words at a time. Vital signs are BP 102/60, HR 121
(sinus tachycardia), and RR 36 with pulse oximetry
showing 87 percent saturation. ECG shows deep Q
waves in leads V1 through V4 and no ST-segment
changes. The chest x-ray shows normal heart size,
Kerly B lines, and bilateral perihilar infiltrates. All of
the following statements are CORRECT with regard to
this patient EXCEPT
(A) He should be placed on positive pressure
ventilation by face mask and given
intravenous furosemide and nitroglycerin
(B) On insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter,
wedge pressure would be at least 20 mm Hg
(C) The principal role of morphine is to calm
the patient
(D) Dopamine should be started to keep the SBP
between 90 and 100 mm Hg
(E) The patient should receive aspirin and
metoprolol
89. All of the following statements are TRUE with
regard to the treatment of pulmonary edema EXCEPT
(A) Higher doses of nitroglycerin are needed to
alleviate the symptoms of APE than to relieve
stable angina
(B) An appropriate estimate of intravenous
furosemide dose is 1 mg/kg
(C) Dopamine produces a more favorable balance
between myocardial oxygen supply and
demand than does dobutamine
(D) Nitroprusside may induce ischemia in patients
with coronary artery disease
(E) Digoxin has no role in the acute management
of CHF
90. You respond to a “code blue” on the labor-and-delivery ward. The nurse tells you that the patient is a previously healthy 41-year-old African-American woman, 4
days status post normal spontaneous vaginal delivery.
She complained of chest pain and dyspnea and then fell
to the floor unconscious. No seizure activity was noted.
Although initially pulseless, vital signs returned with
assisted ventilations. You find the patient confused,
grunting, and cyanotic. Vital signs are BP 68/50 mm Hg,
HR 121 beats per minute (sinus tachycardia), and RR 28,
with pulse oximetry of 78 percent on high-flow oxygen.
Physical examination shows distended neck veins, normal heart sounds with a prominent S2, a thready pulse
with cool, cyanotic extremities, and adequate tidal volume with no rales or wheezes. Chest x-ray is normal.
Bedside ultrasound of the heart shows a dilated right ventricle with parodoxical septal wall motion. In addition to
immediate intubation and fluid resuscitation, what is the
MOST appropriate therapeutic intervention?
(A) Emergent diagnostic spiral CT
(B) Heparin bolus of 80 U/kg intravenously followed by 18 U/kg infusion
(C) LMWH 1 U/kg every 12 h
(D) r-tPA at a dose of 100 mg over 2 h
(E) Emergent transfer to the angiography suite for
pulmonary arteriography and local infusion
of urokinase
91. All of the following statements are TRUE about diagnostic tests for PE EXCEPT
. .
(A) The V/Q scan is 98 percent sensitive and 35
percent specific for PE
(B) Duplex ultrasound is 95 percent sensitive and
95 percent specific for DVT
. .
(C) The difficulty in using V/Q scan findings for
the diagnosis of PE is the lack of a standardized definition for “clinical suspicion”
(D) A D-dimer of less than 500 U/mL has a negative predictive value of 90 percent
(E) Spiral CT is up to 90 percent sensitive and 96
percent specific for PE
C ARDIOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
20
92. A 29-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of
the acute onset of shortness of breath and chest discomfort. He was discharged from the ICU 2 weeks before,
after surgical correction of a perforated viscus secondary to blunt trauma. Vital signs are BP of 120/60
mm Hg, HR of 100 beats per minute, and RR of 17, with
a room air pulse oximetry of 97 percent. Chest x-ray is
normal, as are initial electrolytes and hematocrit. A
Doppler duplex scan of the lower extremities is normal.
All of the following statements are TRUE with regard
to this presentation EXCEPT
(A) PE is more common in men than in women
before age 50 years
. .
(B) If the patient has a low-probability V/Q scan,
no further work-up is warranted
(C) A normal chest x-ray in the setting of acute
dyspnea and hypoxemia is suggestive of PE
(D) Intravenous heparin administration
should be
. .
strongly considered if the V/Q scan is
“intermediate probability”
(E) Diffuse wheezing on examination would not
reduce clinical suspicion for PE
95.
93. All of the following statements are TRUE about PE
EXCEPT
(A) The risk for embolism from proximal DVT is
highest in the first week
(B) The majority of the patients with PE have at
least one risk factor
(C) Tachypnea is defined as a RR of greater than
16 breaths per minute
(D) Syncope is the presenting complaint in up to
5 percent of cases
(E) The right lower lobe is the most common part
of the lung involved
94. All of the following statements are TRUE about PE
EXCEPT
(A) Seventy percent of the pulmonary vasculature
must be occluded to produce hypoxia and
hypotension
(B) Massive PE presenting with hypotension and
hypoxemia accounts for 5 percent of all cases
(C) The most common ECG abnormality is nonspecific ST and T-wave changes
(D) ECG changes are seen in about 40 percent of
patients with PE
(E) New right bundle branch block should raise
the clinical suspicion for PE
Match the items in the left column with their MOST appropriate counterparts in the right column.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
ankle brachial index 0.6
ankle brachial index 1.0
apteriovenous fistula
ankle brachial index 0.3
monophasic wave every 3 s
1
2
4
1
2
9;
7;
6;
9;
9;
2
3
5
4
3
10
10
8
6
8
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
vascular emergency
triphasic wave over tibialis pedis
Doppler flow sound in diastole
monophasic wave over dorsalis pedis
venous flow
21
C ARDIOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
96. All of the following statements are TRUE about the
use of nuclear medicine in cardiac disease EXCEPT
98. All of the following statements are TRUE regarding
the role of echocardiography in the ED EXCEPT
(A) Thallium 201 is a potassium cation analog that
is taken up by active well-perfused myocytes
during exercise and redistributes to less
well-perfused myocardium during rest
(B) Technetium-99m sestamibi accumulates in
well-perfused myocytes and does not
redistribute at rest
(C) Thallium 201 has a stronger signal and shows
better contrast on positron emission tomography than does technetium-99m sestamibi
(D) Nuclear stress tests for coronary ischemia are
more sensitive than ECG stress tests
(E) The role of nuclear cardiac stress tests in the
ED is to evaluate for coronary ischemia
(A) Normal left ventricular wall motion during
chest pain suggests noncardiac chest pain
(B) Among patients with nonspecific ECG abnormalities and chest pain, echocardiography
changes the admission diagnosis in up to 40
percent of cases
(C) The presence of thin hyperechoic myocardium
implies an area of infarct more than 2 weeks
before presentation
(D) Cardiac ultrasound is superior to clinical
assessment of Killip classification and superior
to ECG in predicting death and major complications
(E) Localized or small wall motion abnormalities
may be apparent on echocardiogram, even in
the presence of nonspecific ECG changes
97. A 56-year-old man with a history of hypertension and
tobacco use complains of intermittent substernal chest
pain without radiation or associated shortness of breath,
nausea, or diaphoresis. Chest pain occurs both with
exertion and at rest and lasts 5 to 10 min at a time. He is
currently pain free, but his ECG shows LVH and
inverted T waves in leads V4 to V6. Two sets of cardiac
enzymes are negative. Which of the following diagnostic tests would be MOST appropriate?
(A) An ECG exercise stress test
(B) A T99 exercise stress test
(C) Echocardiography for evaluation of wall
motion abnormalities
(D) Coronary angiography
(E) A 24-h Holter monitor
CARDIOLOGIC
EMERGENCIES
ANSWERS
25. The answer is A. (Chapter 47) Stable angina is characterized by episodic chest
pain that lasts minutes (usually 5 to 15), is provoked by exertion or stress, and is relieved by rest or sublingual nitroglycerin. Other symptoms may accompany angina.
In addition, transient electrocardiogram (ECG) changes and heart auscultation changes
may exist.
26. The answer is B. (Chapter 47) Unstable angina is defined as (1) exertional angina of
recent onset; (2) angina of worsening character, including an increased nitroglycerin
requirement; and (3) angina at rest. In unstable angina, ST-segment or T-wave changes
may persist up to several hours after the pain episode but without ECG evidence of new
transmural infarction (new Q waves). Troponin is elevated in as many as one-third of
unstable angina episodes, indicating the presence of a microinfarct.
27. The answer is C. (Chapter 47) Although the ECG is the most important diagnostic
test in patients with chest pain, only about half of all patients with acute myocardial
infarction (AMI) have diagnostic changes on their initial ECG. A normal or nonspecific
ECG does not exclude ischemia or negate the need for hospital admission. History and
clinical assessment should guide treatment decisions. Additional ECGs increase diagnostic yield.
28. The answer is C. (Chapter 47) When one area of the myocardium dies, electrical
conduction detected by the ECG is characteristically affected. ST-segment elevation in
leads II, III, and aVF represents inferior infarction. Elevations in leads V1–V3 occur with
anteroseptal infarctions. Elevations in leads I, aVL, and V4–V6 suggest lateral infarction,
whereas elevations in leads V1–V6 suggest anterolateral infarction. ST depression in V1
and V2 represents true posterior infarction. A right-sided ECG should be performed
when inferior ischemia or infarction is detected to assess for right ventricular involvement. If present, extension to the right heart portends a worse prognosis.
29. The answer is C. (Chapter 47) With a monoclonal antibody assay, troponin I can be
measured down to levels as low as 1 ng/mL. Advantages to measuring troponin I include
more specificity than CK-MB in the setting of skeletal muscle damage (e.g., postoperative patients), more sensitivity in detecting unstable angina patients, and the ability to
detect myocardial damage up to 1 week after the event.
30. The answer is A. (Chapter 57) Soon after the onset of myocardial ischemia, muscle
contraction is impaired. This may manifest on echocardiography as a wall-motion abnormality. Experimentally, hypokinesis, akinesis, or dyskinesis can be seen within a few
heartbeats after coronary occlusion. In selected patients in the critical care unit, echocardiography has a sensitivity greater than 70 percent in AMI. In studies of ED patients,
where prevalence of AMI is lower and prevalence of coronary artery disease is higher,
echo has been shown to be sensitive but not specific. Echocardiography is most useful in
patients with cardiogenic shock to diagnose anatomic complications that may be
amenable to surgical correction (i.e., septal or mitral ruptures).
22
C ARDIOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
23
31. The answer is B. (Chapter 47) Papillary muscle rupture is usually associated with an
inferior–posterior infarction and involves the posterior papillary muscle. Outcome
depends on whether the entire muscle body or only the head is ruptured. Rupture of an
entire muscle body is associated with a high mortality rate (up to 50 percent within
24 h). Diagnosis of papillary muscle dysfunction or rupture may be made on echocardiography or by measuring large V waves in the pulmonary artery wedge pressure with
a Swan-Ganz catheter.
32. The answer is D. (Chapter 47) Dressler’s syndrome is characterized by chest pain,
fever, pleuropericarditis, and pleural effusion. An immunologic reaction that occurs 2 to
6 weeks after AMI is responsible for this syndrome. Aspirin or indomethacin is standard
initial therapy. Refractory cases are treated with steroids, but it is difficult to wean
patients from this class of drugs, and recurrences are common. In addition to Dressler’s
syndrome, an acute form of pericarditis, manifested by pain and a friction rub, can
develop during the first 7 days after infarction.
33. The answer is A. (Chapter 47) Currently available calcium channel antagonists are
not recommended for early management of AMI patients. Nifedipine increases mortality
in unstable angina and AMI patients. Verapamil is not recommended in the peri-infarct
period but can be beneficial in the postinfarct phase for patients without heart failure.
34. The answer is C. (Chapter 48) The GUSTO investigators studied 41,021 patients with
AMI from 1081 centers in 15 countries. They reported that front-loaded tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) with intravenous heparin resulted in a reduced mortality rate at 30 days
after treatment (6.3 percent) compared with streptokinase and subcutaneous heparin (7.2
percent) or streptokinase and intravenous heparin (7.4 percent). However, subgroup analysis showed that the relatively small benefits of tPA over streptokinase were fewer or
nonexistent for patients with inferior myocardial infarction (MI), age older than 75 years,
or in whom thrombolysis was not initiated until more than 4 h after symptom onset.
35. The answer is C. (Chapter 48) For patients who are not in cardiogenic shock, ECG
criteria for thrombolytic therapy include one or more of the following: (1) 1-mm ST
segment elevation in two or more contiguous limb leads, (2) 2-mm ST segment elevation in two or more contiguous precordial leads, and (3) new left bundle branch block.
Patients in cardiogenic shock should undergo emergent angiography and mechanical
reperfusion, if available. If angioplasty cannot be performed within 60 min, “frontloaded” tPA is indicated.
36. The answer is D. (Chapter 48) Absolute contraindications to thrombolytic therapy
include active internal bleeding; altered consciousness; stroke in the past 6 months or
any history of hemorrhagic stroke; intracranial surgery within the past 2 months; known
arteriovenous malformation (AVM), aneurysm, or intracranial neoplasm; known bleeding disorder; persistent hypertension greater than 200/120; recent head trauma; suspected
aortic dissection; suspected pericarditis; and trauma or surgery within the past 2 weeks
that could result in bleeding into a closed space.
37. The answer is C. (Chapter 48) During the early stages of acute coronary occlusion,
platelets form the bulk of the clot. Aspirin is a cyclooxygenase inhibitor that binds irreversibly and thereby inhibits platelet aggregation. The ISIS-2 study randomized 18,000
patients to receive a placebo, low-dose aspirin (160 mg), streptokinase, or a combination
of both aspirin and streptokinase. Administration of aspirin alone led to a significant
reduction in cardiovascular deaths (20 percent). This mortality benefit increased to 40
percent when aspirin was combined with streptokinase.
38. The answer is E. (Chapter 48) Nitrates are vasodilators that reduce cardiac preload
and, to a lesser extent, afterload. The result is a lower cardiac volume, reduced wall
24
C ARDIOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
stress, and decreased myocardial oxygen consumption. Nitrates dilate the major capacitance vessels of the coronary system and improve collateral blood flow in the
myocardium. In addition, they inhibit vasospasm. The largest trial evaluating oral nitrates
to date (ISIS-4) showed no improved outcome with nitrates versus placebo in the setting
of AMI. Although there is no proven outcomes benefit, nitrates are useful in providing
pain relief, an important component of treating AMI.
39. The answer is B. (Chapter 48) -Blocker administration reduces both the short- and
long-term mortality in patients with AMI. More than 28 randomized studies involving
more than 27,000 patients have demonstrated a 14 percent reduction in mortality when
acute blockade was used during AMI. Contraindications to blockade include type I
and II second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, severe chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease, heart rate slower than 60 beats per minute, and hypotension. Because of the
impressive mortality reduction, blockers are now being used in patients with mild heart
failure. First-degree AV block is a relative contraindication.
40. The answer is A. (Chapter 48) The protective benefits of heparin are dependent on
appropriate dosing. In one study, more than 25 percent of patients’ partial thromboplastin
times (PTTs) were not within the therapeutic range during the first 24 h of therapy.
Adherence to weight-based dosing significantly reduced this number to 8.8 percent.
Many practitioners are now switching to a LMWH such as enoxaparin (dose, 1 mg/kg)
given its ease of administration and the lack of need to follow PTTs.
41. The answer is D. (Chapter 46) Cardiac causes of syncope fall into three groups:
rhythm disturbances, ventricular outflow obstructive processes, and myocardial ischemia.
To be considered the cause of syncope, the heart rate should be more than 150 or fewer
than 40 beats per minute. Any process causing acute or chronic obstruction to ventricular inflow or outflow may cause syncope. For the left ventricle, obstructions include aortic stenosis, atrial myxoma, or mitral stenosis. Syncope associated with cardiac ischemia
is usually secondary to dysrhythmia.
42. The answer is E. (Chapter 46) Drugs may cause or contribute to syncope by several
mechanisms. They may precipitate dysrhythmias, aggravate orthostatic hypotension
(antihypertensives), or cause volume depletion (diuretics). The drugs most commonly
associated with syncope are nitrates, diuretics, and antidysrhythmics. Synthroid is not
associated with syncope.
43. The answer is B. (Chapter 46) Syncope is caused by disease affecting either (1) the
bilateral cerebral hemispheres or (2) the reticular activating system (RAS). A vertebrobasilar transient ischemic attack (TIA) may result in a “drop attack” by causing
ischemia to the RAS. An anterior circulation TIA would be unlikely to result in syncope
because it would have to involve both cerebral hemispheres.
44. The answer is D. (Chapter 46) An association between upper extremity exercise and
syncope suggests the presence of subclavian steal syndrome. If blood pressure is measured on each arm, a difference of at least 20 mm Hg is often noted. Obstruction of the
brachiocephalic or subclavian artery causes shunting of blood through the vertebrobasilar system from the normal side past the obstruction, resulting in brain stem ischemia.
45. The answer is B. (Chapter 46) Although rare, carotid sinus hypersensitivity should
be suspected in an elderly patient whose immediate presyncopal state is suggestive of
carotid sinus stimulation, e.g., wearing a tight collar, shaving, or head turning. If carotid
sinus hypersensitivity is suspected, confirmatory carotid sinus massage may be performed at the bedside. A positive response is asystole of 3 s or greater or a drop in systolic blood pressure of at least 50 mm Hg.
C ARDIOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
25
46. The answer is A. (Chapter 45) Aortic dissection is an uncommon cause of chest pain.
Although it may present in all age groups, the majority of cases are seen in hypertensive
men in the fifth to seventh decades. Patients with Marfan’s syndrome, coarctation of the
aorta, bicuspid aortic valves, and aortic stenosis are all predisposed to aortic dissection.
47. The answer is C. (Chapter 51) The pain of pericarditis is generally pleuritic, retrosternal in location, and may radiate to the back, neck, or jaw. Classically, pain is
relieved when the patient sits up and leans forward. Pericardial effusion is often present
and can be detected by echocardiogram. The presence of a pericardial friction rub supports the diagnosis. The ECG may show diffuse ST-segment elevation or T-wave inversions. PR segment depression is a highly specific finding.
48. The answer is D. (Chapter 45) Although various gastrointestinal syndromes may
present with epigastic burning or gnawing pain, this description of pain may also represent angina. Pain associated with an acid or foul taste in the mouth and eructation is
more suggestive of dyspepsia. Tenderness to palpation in the epigastric or upper quadrants suggests a gastrointestinal etiology, but AMI patients may also complain of tenderness on chest palpation. Chest discomfort relieved by antacids may be both cardiac and
noncardiac in origin. Nitroglycerin is a smooth muscle dilator that may afford relief in
cases of lower esophageal spasm or biliary colic. Diagnostic decisions should not be
influenced by response to a therapeutic trial.
49. The answer is C. (Chapter 45) Risk factors include being a male or a postmenopausal female, hypertension, tobacco use, hypercholesterolemia, diabetes, obesity,
and family history. Cocaine use has also been associated with AMI, even in young people with minimal or no coronary artery disease. Estrogen replacement therapy may be
protective against heart disease.
50. The answer is E. (Chapter 47) Although patients with myocardial ischemia can present with almost any vital sign abnormality, a normal physical examination does not preclude the diagnosis of AMI. Sinus tachycardia may be reflective of increased
sympathetic stimulation resulting from ischemia or of decreased left ventricular stroke
volume. Patients with acute ischemia have a slightly higher incidence of abnormal heart
sounds, and crackles on pulmonary examination are twice as common in patients with
AMI as in those with nonischemic chest pain. In one study, chest wall tenderness was
present in 36 percent of chest pain patients without myocardial infarction and in 15 percent of those with acute infarction. Non–anion-gap metabolic acidosis should not be
attributed to AMI.
51. The answer is A. (Chapter 53) Category of hypertension is based on clinical presentation and the level of aggression required for treatment, not on the absolute number of
the blood pressure. A hypertensive emergency is defined as elevated blood pressure with
evidence of end-organ damage or dysfunction. A hypertensive urgency is an elevation of
blood pressure to a level that may be potentially harmful, usually sustained at greater
than 115 mm Hg diastolic without signs, symptoms, or other evidence of end-organ dysfunction. Mild, uncomplicated hypertension is defined as a blood pressure less than 115
mm Hg diastolic without symptoms of end-organ damage. Transient hypertension can be
seen in many conditions such as pain states, anxiety, pancreatitis, thrombotic stroke,
early dehydration, alcohol-withdrawal syndromes, epistaxis, and some overdoses. Treatment of the underlying condition rather than administration of antihypertensive medications is the rule.
52. The answer is D. (Chapter 53) The goal of treatment during a hypertensive emergency is to lower the blood pressure within 30 to 60 min to a level that is “normal” for
the patient. A 30 percent reduction within the first 30 min is a useful guideline.
26
C ARDIOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
Resolution of signs and symptoms is a helpful endpoint, but in elderly patients improvements may lag behind the pressure drop. Absolute numbers for blood pressure are less
important than the patient’s baseline. For example, a young woman with a normal blood
pressure (BP) of 90/60 may be suffering from a hypertensive emergency with a BP of
only 120/80 if she has ingested phenylpropanolamine and complains of severe headache
suggestive of intracranial bleed.
53. The answer is B. (Chapter 101) During pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), uterine blood flow decreases, placing the fetus at risk. Blood pressure reduction is best
accomplished with magnesium sulfate and hydralazine. Hydralazine should be administered in 10- to 20-mg intravenous boluses every 30 min until the desired effect is
achieved. Sodium nitroprusside can be used, but the infusion should be brief and thiocyanate levels must be monitored. Labetalol is another second-line agent in this setting.
Diuretics are contraindicated because the patient with PIH is already volume-contracted.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors should not be used because they cross
the placenta and may depress angiotensin II levels in the fetus. The definitive treatment
of PIH is delivery of the baby.
54. The answer is E. (Chapter 53) Sodium nitroprusside, a rapidly acting arteriolar and
venous dilator, is useful for treating hypertensive emergencies. It causes both arterial and
venous smooth muscles to dilate, decreasing preload and afterload and resulting in
decreased myocardial oxygen demand. Nitroprusside has a rapid onset and short duration
of action (plasma half-life of 3 to 4 min). It is initially metabolized to cyanide by
sulfhydryl groups in the blood and then converted to thiocyanate in the liver by rhodanase.
55. The answer is E. (Chapter 53) In the setting of a hypertensive emergency, intravenous labetalol provides a steady, consistent drop in BP. Labetalol does not change
cerebral blood flow and, therefore, is safe for use in patients with cerebral vascular disease. It is an ideal choice for conditions characterized by excessive catecholamine stimulation such as pheochromocytoma, monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor–induced
emergencies, and abrupt clonidine withdrawal. After an intravenous bolus, blood pressure falls in 5 min, with a maximum response in 10 min. BP control is maintained for up
to 6 h after a single injection. Labetalol is the agent of choice in thoracic aortic dissection. Because labetalol is a nonselective blocker, it can exacerbate heart failure and
induce bronchospasm.
56. The answer is D. (Chapter 55) There are many risk factors for deep venous thrombosis. Blood group A is associated with an increased risk; type O is not. Common risks
include trauma, hormonal and hypercoagulable states, injected drugs, being older than 40
years, obesity, pregnancy, surgery, smoking, immobilization, and a variety of medical illnesses including congestive heart failure (CHF), CVA, stroke, and nephrotic syndrome.
57. The answer is C. (Chapter 55) A patient with four or more risk factors has a high
probability for deep venous thrombosis (DVT). It is reasonable to start anticoagulation
with heparin or LMWH pending confirmation with diagnostic studies. Coumadin should
never be started alone because it can cause a transient hypercoagulable state that promotes thrombus propagation and embolization. Homans’ sign has no clinical predictive
value. A mild fever is consistent with DVT, as is redness. Although venography was
once the gold standard test, duplex ultrasonography is currently favored.
58. The answer is B. (Chapter 55) Systemic thrombolytics produce inferior results compared with either catheter embolectomy or intraarterial thrombolysis. If there are no contraindications, heparin should be administered immediately pending additional treatment.
The heart is by far the most common source of peripheral arterial emboli, and mortality
is usually related to underlying heart disease.
C ARDIOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
27
59. The answer is B. (Chapter 56) Atropine has no effect on the denervated heart
because it acts by blocking actions of the vagus nerve. The response to catecholamines
may be increased by upregulation of receptors in the denervated heart. The resting heart
rate is usually between 90 and 100 beats per minute. The ECG often displays multiple P
waves, from both the new heart and a residual portion of the original atria. Lifelong
immunosuppression is mandatory to prevent rejection.
60. The answer is C. (Chapter 56) Although intravenous methylprednisolone is standard
treatment for acute rejection, it should not be started without consulting the patient’s
transplant center. Every effort must be made to confirm rejection by endomyocardial
biopsy because the severe immunosuppression of antirejection therapy may worsen infectious illnesses, including cytomegalovirus (CMV). Gastroenteritis and other illnesses may
precipitate an episode of rejection by decreasing absorption of medications against rejection. The patient should receive antibiotic prophylaxis for any invasive procedure.
61. The answer is D. (Chapter 54) Most patients with intact aneurysms are asymptomatic. Even grossly obvious aneurysms are usually painless and nontender unless they
are acutely or chronically ruptured. Tenderness is an indication for urgent surgical evaluation. Aneurysms larger than 5 cm are at risk for rupture, whereas aneurysms smaller
than 4 cm rarely rupture unless they are saccular.
62. The answer is E. (Chapter 54) Unheralded syncope in an elderly patient, with new
back or abdominal pain, is suspicious for acute rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
Because the patient may suddenly become hypotensive, immediate surgical consultation
and preparation for surgery is indicated. Aortography may be falsely negative, and the
associated delay may be fatal. Likewise, delay for CT scanning may also result in death.
63. The answer is D. (Chapter 54) Tearing pain, pulse disparity, and hypertension make
aortic dissection the most likely diagnosis. Emergency management includes reducing BP
(with vasodilators such as nitroprusside), reducing shear forces of the aorta with blockers, and testing to determine the extent of dissection. CT, aortography, magnetic resonance
imaging (MRI), and transesophageal echocardiography have all been used successfully.
Although testing protocols differ by institution and test availability, the goal is to determine
the need for surgery. Dissections that involve the ascending aorta (Stanford type A) are
usually best treated surgically, whereas dissections that involve only the descending aorta
(type B) are managed medically unless major vessels or organs are seriously compromised.
64. The answer is D. (Chapter 55) Low levels of D-dimer can exclude DVT, but many
other disorders can lead to elevation, including surgery, trauma, infection, and malignancy. An elevated D-dimer level should be further evaluated with one of the other tests.
A single duplex ultrasound has a positive predictive value for DVT of 94 percent, and a
positive impedance plethysmography (IPG) has 83 percent positive predictive value.
Contrast venography is the traditional gold standard test, but it is invasive, painful, and
sometimes causes iatrogenic venous thrombus. MRI is highly accurate and can visualize
parts of the venous system not usually accessible, such as the calves and the pelvic veins.
However, it is expensive, lacks portability, and many patients are excluded because of
prosthetic implants.
65. The answer is D. (Chapter 56) Renal insufficiency is a common side effect of
cyclosporine immunosuppressive therapy. Although rejection can be entirely asymptomatic, a variety of symptoms are possible. They include all of the classic signs and symptoms of CHF, nausea, vomiting, ascites, any type of dysrhythmia, and even circulatory
collapse. Accelerated coronary artery disease in the transplanted heart is also thought to
represent rejection, and it frequently leads to ischemia or infarction. Chest pain is an
extremely uncommon symptom and does not correlate with myocardial ischemia.
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C ARDIOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
66. The answer is B. (Chapter 245) Although an increased pulse is worrisome, a “normal”
HR does not rule out a serious disease process. The normal tachycardic response to pain
and hypovolemia may be blunted or absent due to medications such as blockers. Also,
the heart becomes less sensitive to catecholamines with advancing age. Due to cerebral
atrophy, increased space within the skull may delay presentation of intracranial hemorrhages. Although overall cervical spine fractures are less common with age, the incidence of C1 and C2 fractures increases.
67. The answer is C. (Chapter 50) Despite widespread treatment of streptoccocal
pharyngitis with antibiotics, rheumatic heart disease remains the most common cause of
MVS. As in most valvular diseases, symptoms present in the fourth and fifth decades,
and dyspnea on exertion is the most frequent presenting complaint. Associated syncope
is uncommon, although it can be the presenting symptom for aortic stenosis or idiopathic
hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS). Hemoptysis is the second most common presenting symptom for MVS, and usually manifests as pink frothy sputum, but sometimes as
frank blood from dilated bronchial veins that rupture as back pressure from the stenosis
increases. Longstanding MVS leads to a dilated left atrium and almost inevitably to atrial
fibrillation if the stenosis is not corrected.
68. The answer is C. (Chapter 50) The increased incidence of TIA in patients younger
than 45 years who have MVP is thought to be secondary to sterile emboli from platelet and
fibrin deposits on the defective valve. Sudden death is very rare in MVP, but is more likely
if the patient presents with syncope or near syncope and ECG abnormalities. Only about 20
percent of patients with MVP have the classic mid-systolic click. Although most patients
are asymptomatic, the incidence of MVP in the general population is 3 to 10 percent.
69. The answer is D. (Chapter 50) The incidence of endocarditis in patients with isolated AS is only about 2 percent. Congenital bicuspid valve is the leading cause of AS,
with rheumatic heart disease being the second, followed by degenerative calcification in
patients older than 70 years. Dyspnea is the most common presenting symptom, followed
by paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, syncope on exertion, angina, and MI. The angina
experienced with AS is often due to a perfusion pressure phenomenon, with inadequate
perfusion from the coronary vessels across the myocardium to the endocardium. LVH is
the most common ECG finding.
70. The answer is D. (Chapter 50) Patients with valvular heart disease are at increased
risk for developing endocarditis. Prophylactic antibiotics should be administered before
abscess drainage, urethral catheter placement (if there is a suspicion of infected urine),
dental procedures, nasal packing, rigid bronchoscopy, cytoscopy, anoscopy, vaginal
delivery, and abortion. Endotracheal intubation does not require prophylaxis.
71. The answer is C. (Chapter 50) IHSS presents clinically about 10 years earlier than
other valvular diseases and is a cause of sudden death among young athletes. Symptoms
of IHSS may be decreased with squatting. MVP is a rare cause of sudden death.
72. The answer is C. (Chapter 50) Afterload reduction is an important therapeutic intervention for most valvular emergencies. Its effect is to optimize forward-moving pressure
gradients. In AS, however, vasodilating agents must be used with caution because they
can decrease perfusion pressure across the thickened myocardium. Rate control is more
important in these patients to maximize ventricular outflow and diastolic perfusion time.
73. The answer is B. (Chapter 50) This is the typical presentation of a patient with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy: a familial disorder with asymmetric hypertrophy of the left ventricle, in particular the septal wall. The ECG shows Q waves with upright septal T waves,
typical of the “pseudo-infarction” pattern. Chest pain is usually due to an imbalance
between the oxygen demand of the hypertrophied myocardium and the available blood
C ARDIOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
29
flow. Tachycardia worsens the symptoms by decreasing diastolic coronary perfusion time,
increasing the end diastolic intraventricular pressure. Blockers are the intervention of
choice. Nitroglycerin and CPAP would not be indicated because they decrease venous
return and further compromise filling of the noncompliant ventricle. Dopamine would
increase the incidence of dysrhythmias after a ventricular fibrillatory arrest.
74. The answer is D. (Chapter 51) Blind or ECG-guided percardiocentesis is associated
with a 7 to 15 percent incidence of complications. These include tension pneumothorax,
liver laceration, AV fistula, and laceration of the coronary or internal mammary vessels
leading to MI or hemopericardium. Echocardiography is the guidance technique of
choice in performing emergent pericardiocentesis because it helps identify the largest
pocket of effusion. Left-to-right subxyphoid approach lowers the incidence of coronary
artery laceration.
75. The answer is E. (Chapter 51) The patient’s presentation is classic for acute percardial tamponade. He displays Beck’s triad (hypotension, JVD, and muffled heart sounds),
and electrical alternans, created by the heart swinging in the pericardial fluid. Differential diagnosis includes pulmonary embolism (PE), tension pneumothorax, AMI, myocardial contusion, and air embolism. Echocardiography is the diagnostic modality of choice
because it can rule out constricting pericardial effusion, show increased right-sided pressures suggestive of PE, and detect wall-motion abnormalities associated with myocardial
compromise. Treatment of pericardial tamponade includes intravenous fluids, oxygen,
and pericardiocentesis. Dopamine may be helpful as a temporizing measure to elevate
BP. Intubation and other forms of positive pressure ventilation are not recommended
because they decrease venous return.
76. The answer is C. (Chapter 51) Although most cases of CM are idiopathic, patients
should have a thorough work-up for all known causes. A history of hypertension, alcohol use, valvular disease, chemotherapy, or heavy metal exposure should be elicited.
Treatment for dilated and restrictive CM is the same, but caution should be used in
patients with amyloidosis because they may be prone to digoxin toxicity due to amyloid
fibril binding of digoxin. The presence of fever and myalgias supports a diagnosis of
myocarditis rather than CM.
77. The answer is C. (Chapter 51) Enteroviruses, especially cocksackie B, predominate
as the causal agent in acute myocarditis. Adenovirus, influenza B, parainfluenza, mumps,
CMV, hepatitis B, herpes, varicella, EBV, and HIV have also been implicated. Myocarditis is detected in 10 percent of routine autopsies and in up to 50 percent of AIDS patients’
autopsies. Up to 40 percent of patients with acute cardiomyopathy and up to 63 percent
of patients with chronic cardiomyopathy have histologic evidence of myocarditis. Histologic evidence includes myocardial necrosis, vacuolization, and lymphocytic infiltration.
Cardiac function returns to baseline level in the majority of patients within weeks to
months of the acute illness. Long-term prognosis is variable.
78. The answer is C. (Chapter 51) Acute myocarditis presents in previously healthy
patients as a viral prodrome followed by dyspnea and tachycardia out of proportion to
the fever. Other possible diagnoses in the described setting include PE, hyperthyroidism,
toxins, and myocardial ischemia. Anxiety is a diagnosis of exclusion. Although all of the
listed interventions should be considered, nitroglycerin is contraindicated in PE because
it decreases needed preload, and blockers or lorazepam could precipitate hypotension
in a patient with acute myocarditis. Echocardiography would be the next diagnostic
modality of choice in the work-up of this patient.
79. The answer is A. (Chapter 51) Acute pericarditis is not associated with dysrhythmias. If dysrhythmias are present, the patient should be assessed for underlying heart disease. Aspirin or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications at high doses are the
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C ARDIOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
treatments of choice for pericarditis, except in cases of uremic pericarditis with co-existing coagulopathy. Steroids and colchicine may also be used, but not as first-line agents.
Echocardiogram should be performed in patients with evidence of pericardial effusion
(electrical alternans or low-voltage ECG) to rule out impending tamponade or underlying
myocarditis. Sixty percent of all patients experience complete recovery within 1 week
and another 18 percent within 3 weeks. Pericarditis recurs in 20 percent of patients.
80. The answer is C. (Chapter 51) The ECG changes suggestive of acute pericarditis are
uncommon in uremic patients because the epicardium is rarely involved. Pericardial friction rubs and pericardial effusions occur frequently. Uremic pericarditis is one of the
most common causes of cardiac tamponade. Treatment consists of daily hemodialysis for
2 to 6 weeks. Hemodialysis-associated pericarditis requires a work-up for viral, bacterial,
and tubercular causes. Aspirin and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications should be
used with caution.
81. The answer is B. (Chapter 51) ECG changes in acute pericarditis classically occur in
three phases. In the first few days, diffuse concave ST elevation predominates, usually no
greater than 5 mm, and is most prominent in the limb leads and in leads V5 and V6. In contrast to the changes seen with early repolarization, with acute pericarditis, the ST segments
are usually greater than or equal to one-fourth of the amplitude of the T wave. PR segment
depression is not associated with early repolarization. The ST elevations seen in acute pericarditis can be distinguished from those seen with AMI in that they are usually diffuse,
concave, less than 5 mm, and unassociated with T-wave inversions. The second and third
phases of ECG changes consist of normalization of the ECG followed by T-wave inversion
with normal ST segments. In some cases, T-wave inversions persist indefinitely.
82. The answer is C. (Chapter 50) The correct combinations are 1 8, 2 7, 3 9, 4
6, and 5 10. MS spares the left ventricle, but inevitably causes left atrial enlargement, seen on ECG as biphasic P waves, especially in leads II and V1. As disease progresses, pulmonary hypertension and right-sided failure develop and manifest as
right-axis deviation. AS leads to LVH, often with left or right bundle branch blocks.
Mitral valve prolapse is usually associated with a normal ECG. Acute inferior MI can
cause ischemia of the papillary muscle and thus acute mitral insufficiency. Flash pulmonary edema in a patient with acute inferior MI should raise the suspicion of mitral
insufficiency. IHSS usually involves asymmetric hypertrophy of the left ventricle and
can show septal Q waves, with upright T waves and poor R-wave progression across the
precordium on ECG. These changes are not related to coronary insufficiency and are
known as a “pseudoinfarction” pattern.
83. The answer is E. (Chapter 50) Intraaortic balloon pumps are contraindicated in AI
because they force blood back down into the open ventricle and cause further cardiac
decompensation. Thrombolytics may be helpful in acute mitral insufficiency secondary
to papillary muscle ischemia, as can be seen in inferior MI secondary to right coronary
occlusion. Emergent surgery is the appropriate therapeutic intervention for acute leftsided valve insufficiency causing cardiac failure. Syncope secondary to aortic stenosis
with minimal exertion usually indicates a critical valve stenosis (diameter 0.5 cm) and
merits recommendation for urgent surgical correction. Cardioversion should not be
attempted for atrial fibrillation with MS because the dysrhythmia is usually longstanding
and associated with a high thromboembolic risk.
84. The answer is B. (Chapter 50) This patient has pulmonary edema secondary to
acute aortic insufficiency with the characteristic clinical findings of a wide pulse pressure and short upsweeping pulses. The most likely cause for acute cardiac failure in this
febrile intravenous drug user is infective endocarditis leading to valve rupture. Concurrent with resuscitation, the most important action is to call a cardiac surgeon to perform
C ARDIOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
31
emergency valve repair. Furosemide and nitrates are helpful temporizing measures to
reduce afterload and improve cardiac output. Blood cultures and empiric antibiotics are
also indicated. Emergent echocardiography would be helpful to confirm the diagnosis
while preparations for surgery are underway. Naloxone has no role, and an intraaortic
counterpulsation balloon is contraindicated.
85. The answer is B. (Chapter 50) Fatality rates for left-sided disease are greater than
those for right-sided disease because of the increased incidence of cardiac failure and
neurologic complications. Streptococcus viridans is the most common organism implicated in left-sided endocarditis, with Staphylococcus aureus increasing in incidence.
Enterococcal and fungal infections are also seen. Right-sided endocarditis is caused by S.
aureus in more than 75 percent of cases, followed by S. viridans and gram-negative rods.
Blood cultures should be drawn from three different venous sites and sent for aerobic,
anaerobic, and fungal cultures. Antifungal agents should be considered in patients with
HIV or other immunocompromised states or in patients with indwelling catheters. Murmurs are heard in only 35 to 50 percent of patients with right-sided disease but in up to
80 percent of patients with left-sided disease.
86. The answer is B. (Chapter 50) Because patients frequently present with nonspecific
complaints, the diagnosis of subacute bacterial endocarditis is often missed. Malaise (95
percent) and intermittent fever (80 percent) are the most common complaints, followed
by anorexia, weakness, and weight loss. Neurologic symptoms such as headache, personality change, altered level of consciousness, and focal deficits are seen in 35 to 40
percent of cases. Peripheral vascular lesions (e.g., splinter hemorrhages, Osler nodes,
Roth spots, Janeway lesions, or petechia) are found in more than 50 percent of patients.
Splenomegaly is seen in 25 percent of patients. Almost all patients have a murmur at
some point during the disease. Subacute endocarditis is predominantly left sided.
87. The answer is D. (Chapter 49) The Framingham heart study reported a 50 percent
mortality in 5 years for CHF patients, with half the population dying within the first
year. ACE inhibitors have been shown to slow the progression of disease and improve
function in CHF patients, but they have not decreased the frequency of sudden death. Blockers are a useful adjunct in selected patients because they counteract the hyperadrenergic neurohumoral feedback seen in congestive failure.
88. The answer is E. (Chapter 49) This patient’s most likely diagnosis is acute pulmonary
edema (APE) status post anterior MI. He should receive aspirin, but blockers should be
avoided because the patient is in cardiogenic shock. Positive pressure ventilation by face
mask (CPAP or BiPAP) or by endotracheal intubation enhances oxygenation of the compromised myocardium and helps decrease preload. Too much positive pressure must be
avoided to not compromise cardiac output. Nitroglycerin decreases preload, relaxes the
pulmonary vasculature, and augments coronary perfusion. Furosemide also helps decrease
preload and afterload. Dopamine may be needed to maintain adequate SBP. Historically,
morphine was thought to decrease afterload and pulmonary hypertension (through central
sympatholytic mechanisms) but is now thought to work primarily through its sedative and
anxiolytic effects to decrease cardiac demand. APE showing cephalization on chest x-ray
is associated with a pulmonary wedge pressure (PWP) greater than 15 mm Hg; the presence
of interstitial edema (Kerly B lines) correlates with a PWP of 19 to 25 mm Hg; and alveolar edema is associated with a PWP greater than 25 mm Hg.
89. The answer is C. (Chapter 49) Dobutamine produces a more favorable balance
between myocardial oxygen supply and demand than does dopamine and is the drug of
choice in normotensive patients with APE. Dopamine may be more useful in hypotensive
patients. Nitroglycerin sublingual for the relief of APE symptoms is usually given at twice
the dose of that given for angina (0.8 vs. 0.4 mg). Loop diuretics at doses of 1 mg/kg
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C ARDIOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
should be administered to hypertensive patients with APE. Nitroprusside can induce
ischemia in patients with coronary artery disease, and thus nitroglycerin is the vasodilator
of choice, having both veno- and vasodilatory effects.
90. The answer is D. (Chapter 52) Pregnancy is considered a hypercoagulable state and
thus a risk factor for DVT and PE. PE is the most common cause of nonsurgical maternal death in the peripartum period. Women older than age 40 years and of African
descent are at highest risk. Thrombolytic therapy is indicated for treatment of massive
PE with refractory hypoxemia and circulatory collapse. The use of thrombolytic agents
has largely replaced thrombectomy, except in cases in which thrombolytic therapy is
contraindicated. This patient is at risk for uterine bleeding because she is 4 days postpartum. Urokinase and streptokinase are less effective than r-tPA in improving symptoms.
Heparin and LMWH are possible treatments for hemodynamically stable PE patients but
would not be indicated in this scenario. Intrapulmonary artery infusion is no more effective than peripheral intravenous administration, and the risk of bleeding at the pulmonary
catheter placement site is high.
. .
91. The answer is A. (Chapter 52) Overall, V/Q scanning
. . is 98 percent sensitive but only
10 percent specific for the diagnosis of PE. A normal V/Q can reliably rule out the diagnosis of PE. A low-probability scan with a low clinical suspicion has a predictive value of
96 percent for exclusion of PE, whereas a high-probability scan with a high
. . clinical suspicion has a 96 percent positive predictive value. The difficulty in using V/Q scan findings
for the diagnosis of PE is the lack of a universal definition of “clinical suspicion.” Ddimers are highly dependent on the assay used to measure them; some clinical trials have
shown a high negative predictive value, but they have not yet become the standard of care.
92. The answer is B. (Chapter 52) PE is more common in men than in women before
. .
the age of 50 years, but this sex difference disappears with age. An intermediate V/Q
scan in conjunction with this high index of suspicion would merit anticoagulation. Risk
of bleeding in this postsurgical trauma patient would need to be weighed against
. . the benefits of heparinization. With this clinical presentation, a low-probability V/Q scan does
not obviate the need for further work-up. In addition to surgery as a PE risk factor, if the
patient had an indwelling central venous catheter in the intensive care unit, he is at risk
for upper extremity DVT. The next diagnostic test would be spiral CT, magnetic resonance angiography, or pulmonary arteriography. PE can induce the release of chemical
mediators that cause bronchoconstriction.
93. The answer is D. (Chapter 52) PE presents with a syncopal episode up to 15 percent
of the time. Altered mental status and generalized seizures may also be the presenting complaint, especially in the elderly. The most common presenting symptoms are chest pain and
dyspnea (up to 85 percent); anxiety occurs in more than 50 percent of PE patients. Tachypnea (RR 16) is seen in more than 98 percent of all cases, and tachycardia (resting HR 100) is seen in up to 44 percent of all patients. Other signs are variable. The risk for
embolism from proximal DVT is highest in the first week of its formation.
94. The answer is A. (Chapter 52) PE can be categorized as “massive” or “submassive.”
Massive PE presents with hypotension and hypoxemia, accounts for 5 percent of all
cases, and is associated with a 40 percent mortality rate. Submassive PE presents with
normal hemodynamics and hypoxemia. It carries a 2 percent mortality rate if treated
appropriately; mortality rates increase to 20 percent if untreated. Only 40 to 50 percent
of the pulmonary vasculature must be occluded for hypoxia and hypotension to manifest.
However, patients with preexisting cardiac or pulmonary disease show signs of massive
PE with lesser degrees of occlusion. ECG changes are seen in about 40 percent of
patients with PE, most commonly nonspecific ST and T-wave changes. Other ECG
changes include inverted T waves in the precordial leads, mimicking subendocardial
infarct, new right-axis deviation or right bundle branch block, and an S1Q3T3 pattern.
C ARDIOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
33
95. The answer is D. (Chapter 255) The correct combinations are: 1 9, 2 7, 3 8,
4 6, and 5 10. Doppler flow studies are a useful adjunct for ED evaluation of peripheral vascular integrity and disease. Normal arteries have a biphasic or triphasic waveform.
Monophasic waveforms with each pulse indicate poor arterial flow and probable proximal
arterial stenosis. These patients present clinically with a history of claudication. Monophasic flow that changes with respiration suggests detection of venous flow, and the probe
should be repositioned to assess arterial flow. Flow during diastole heralds an arteriovenous fistula. Normal ankle brachial indices (ABIs) are greater than or equal to 1.0.
ABIs less than 0.9 indicate arterial injury. With rest ischemia, ABIs are less than 0.5 and
a vascular surgeon should be consulted. If the ABI is less than 0.3, a vascular emergency
exists.
96. The answer is C. (Chapter 57) The role of nuclear imaging in risk stratification of
patients with equivocal presentations is evolving. The two radioisotopes most widely
used are thallium 201 and technetium-99m sestamibi (T99). Thallium 201 is a potassium
cation analog that is taken up by active well-perfused myocytes during exercise. It redistributes to less well-perfused myocardium during rest and shows “cold spots” on imaging. T99 has higher energy photon emission and shows better contrast than does
thallium, but does not redistribute and requires a second injection for the rest study. A
nuclear study is an excellent diagnostic modality for patients with ECG changes that
limit the usefulness of an ECG stress test (e.g., left bundle branch block, LVH, and concurrent digitalis therapy). The sensitivity of nuclear stress testing for coronary ischemia
is greater than 85 percent versus only 60 to 70 percent for the ECG stress test.
97. The answer is B. (Chapter 57) Despite two sets of negative cardiac enzymes and a
prolonged pain-free period, this patient needs to be risk-stratified for evidence of coronary ischemia. In patients with LVH and a possible strain pattern, ECG stress tests can
be nondiagnostic. An echocardiogram can show wall-motion abnormalities in patients
with nonspecific ECG changes but is unlikely to show a wall-motion abnormality in this
patient in the absence of chest pain. A Holter monitor might pick up dysrhythmias but
would not be the best test to evaluate for ischemia. Angiography is invasive and not generally used as the first line to evaluate for coronary ischemia in a pain-free patient.
98. The answer is B. (Chapter 57) Echocardiography is a useful adjunct in evaluating
patients presenting to the ED with chest pain. The echocardiogram can detect wallmotion abnormalities indicative of ischemia or infarct, even in the presence of nonspecific ECG changes. Echo findings change the diagnosis of up to 18 percent of patients
with nonspecific ECG changes. Normal left ventricular wall motion during chest pain
suggests a noncardiac origin of the chest pain. Cardiac ultrasound is superior to clinical
assessment of Killip classification and more accurate than ECG in predicting death and
major complications. It may also detect areas of prior infarct, valvular abnormalities,
intraventricular thrombi, signs of right-heart strain, and pericardial effusion.
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DERMATOLOGIC
EMERGENCIES
QUESTIONS
DIRECTIONS:
Each question below contains five suggested responses. Select the one best response to each question.
99. All of the following have been associated with the
development of Stevens-Johnson syndrome EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
systemic steroids
mycoplasma
herpes simplex virus
anticonvulsants
a seasonal profile
100. Which one of the following statements is true about
erythema multiforme?
(A) Steroids shorten the course of the disease
(B) Bullous skin lesions cause denudement
of the skin
(C) Prophylactic antibiotics reduce the risk of
infection
(D) Mucosal lesions can be maculopapular,
urticarial, or target shaped
(E) Patients must be instructed to have a follow-up
visit in 1 week
101. All of the following can be found in association with
allergic contact (toxicodendron) dermatitis EXCEPT
(A) urticaria
(B) vesicles and bullae
(C) sparing of the palmar aspects and web spaces
of the hands
(D) a linear pattern of erythema and papules
(E) a 3- to 5-day course for dermatologic
manifestation
103. All of the following are true about erysipelas
EXCEPT
(A) facial and scalp manifestations occur in infants
and the elderly
(B) it progresses to skin desquamation
(C) bacteremia common in the lower extremity
manifestations
(D) fever
(E) a sharp well-demarcated edge
104. All the following statements are true about black
widow spider bites EXCEPT
(A) Benzodiazepines are very effective in relieving
symptoms
(B) The spider is not always black
(C) Antivenin is very effective in relieving
symptoms
(D) The classic round ulceration with raised edges
appears within 1 to 2 days after the bite
(E) The neurotoxin can cause a rigid painful
abdomen, hypertension, shock, coma and
muscle paralysis
105. All of the following have been associated with
brown recluse spider bites EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
a poor response to dapsone
myalgias and arthralgias
seizures
hemolysis
renal failure
102. Clinical features of a disseminated gonococcal
infection include all of the following EXCEPT
(A) an association with menses
(B) an association with pregnancy
(C) fever and multiple papular, vesicular or
pustular lesions
(D) arthralgias
(E) treatment with oral ciprofloxacin is replacing
the traditional use of intravenous ceftriaxone
35
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D ERMATOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
36
106. All of the following are indicated in the treatment of
scabies infestations in pregnancy and young children
EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
premethrin (Elemite)
lindane
calamine lotion
5 percent sulfur solution
two or three applications 24 or 12 h apart,
respectively
107. All the following statements are true about tinea
capitis infections EXCEPT
(A) Topical antifungal therapy is ineffective
(B) Adenopathy is a common presenting complaint
(C) Antibiotics are required when a pustular
“kerion” develops
(D) It is most common in children
(E) It requires a minimum of 6 weeks of therapy
DERMATOLOGIC
EMERGENCIES
ANSWERS
99. The answer is A. (Chapter 241) Steroids have not been associated with StevensJohnson syndrome (SJS). Nearly 50 percent of cases of SJS are considered to be idiopathic. Implicated agents include mycoplasma, herpes simplex viruses, malignancies, and
medications. Those medications include anticonvulsants and antibiotics. Cases commonly appear in the fall and spring.
100. The answer is B. (Chapter 241) Bullous skin lesions can be found in erythema multiforme. They cause denudement of the skin. Lesions are typically maculopapular,
urticarial, target shaped, vesicular, or bullous. Mucosal lesions are typically vesiculobullous. Systemic steroids are controversial. They may provide symptomatic relief. However, they do not shorten the course of the disease. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not proven
to be effective and can result in colonization by drug-resistant bacteria. Follow-up in less
than 1 week is essential to monitor for the potential development of SJS. Topical steroids
are used for symptomatic relief.
101. The answer is E. (Chapter 239) A 3- to 5-day course for the dermatologic manifestation is not typical of the disease. Mild cases typically last 7 to 10 days, whereas severe
ones can require more than 3 weeks of therapy. Urticarial eruptions result from systemic
absorption. Common manifestations include linear patterns, erythema, papules, vesicles,
and bullae. Target lesions of erythema multiforme have been reported. Lesions on the
hands typically are dorsal and spare the palmar aspect and web spaces.
102. The answer is E. (Chapter 241) Disseminated gonococcal infections should be
treated with intravenous ceftriaxone or ciprofloxacin for 7 days. Oral outpatient management with ciprofloxacin is not an accepted standard of care for complicated cases of
gonococcal infections. An association with menses, late pregnancy, and the immediate
postpartum period is common. Fever, arthralgias, and multiple (10 to 20) papular, vesicular, or pustular lesions are classic features of the disease.
103. The answer is C. (Chapter 238) Erysipelas is a distinct Streptococcus A cellulitis.
High fever is common. Bacteremia is also typically common except in lower extremity
manifestations. Facial and scalp manifestations are predominately in infants and in the
elderly. It progresses to skin desquamation during convalescence. A sharp well-demarcated advancing edge is distinctive.
104. The answer is D. (Chapter 242) The “bull’s eye” pattern is found in cases of brown
recluse spider bites and is not consistent with black widow spider bites. Erythema and
swelling typically appear within 20 to 60 min after the bite. Pain and cramps begin 20 to
40 min later, locally and then generally. Symptoms typically resolve 2 to 3 days after the
bite. Antivenin (Lyovac), benzodiazepines, and opiates are all very effective in relieving
symptoms. However, antivenin is typically reserved for complicated cases, pregnancy,
children, the cardiac patient, and the elderly. Being a horse serum preparation, antivenin
therapy carries risks such as anaphylaxis and serum sickness. The spider is not always
black; it has a classic orange-red hourglass-shaped marking. A rigid abdomen that
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D ERMATOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
mimics peritonitis occurs when abdominal wall muscles are involved. In severe envenomations, the powerful neurotoxin can cause hypertension, shock, coma, and muscle
paralysis.
105. The answer is A. (Chapter 242) The venom in brown recluse spider bites includes
proteases, hemolytic enzymes, and substances that affect coagulation and the complement system. Pain, myalgias, arthralgias, vomiting, seizures, hemolysis, and renal failure
all have been described as manifestations of the bite. Dapsone is a leukocyte inhibitor
and has been associated with preventing the progression of tissue necrosis. Patients must
be closely monitored for side effects such as hemolysis and agranulocytosis.
106. The answer is B. (Chapter 242) Lindane and cromatiton are two scabicides with
potential toxicity that should be avoided in pregnancy and young children. Premethrin
(Elemite) and a 5 percent sulfur solution are used typically in two applications 24 h
apart. A third application 12 h later can be also used. Calamine lotion is used after the
treatment to alleviate the itching that may last a few more days.
107. The answer is C. (Chapter 238) Tinea capitis infections of the scalp require up to 6
weeks of oral antifungal therapy. Patients then should be reevaluated to assess the need
for a longer course of therapy. Topical antifungal therapy is ineffective. Posterior cervical adenopathy, hair loss, and itching are common presenting complaints. A pustular
“kerion” may develop and does not indicate a need for antibiotics. The disease is most
common in children.
EMERGENCY MEDICAL SERVICES
AND DISASTER MEDICINE
QUESTIONS
DIRECTIONS:
Each question below contains five suggested responses. Select the one best response to each question.
108. Which of the following acts of Congress authorized
the U.S. Department of Transportation to fund ambulances, communications, and training programs for prehospital medical services?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
1966
1973
1966
1973
1965
National Highway Safety Act
National Highway Safety Act
Public Law 93-154
Public Law 93-154
EMS Act
109. Which of the following is NOT a component of
“off-line” medical control?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Protocol development
Quality assurance
Budget development
Provider education
Approval of medical devices used in
out-of-hospital care
110. Approximately what percentage of an EMS system’s volume deals with children 16 years or younger?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
0 to 5
5 to 10
10 to 15
15 to 20
2
111. Which of the following is a contraindication to the
application of a femoral traction splint?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Angulated tibia fracture
Femur fracture
Pelvic fracture
Ankle fracture
Severe head trauma
112. Which of the following statements regarding a twomember crew configuration of a prehospital helicopter
is TRUE?
(A) The crew should consist of individuals with
the same level of training so that scope and
limitations of practice are clearly understood
by each member
(B) Patient outcome is improved by using crews
with a higher level of formal training
(C) A paramedic–paramedic configuration is the
best choice because paramedics are most
familiar with the prehospital environment
(D) A physician crew member is desirable but
often impossible because of budget constraints
(E) Using a physician as one member of the
crew has not been shown to improve
patient outcome
113. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the use
of helicopters in EMS?
(A) Ideally, the pilot should decide whether it
is safe to fly before being told the nature of
the mission
(B) Interfacility transfers are more than twice as
frequent as scene responses
(C) Patients with injuries that could be exacerbated
by low barometric pressure (with resultant
barotrauma) are poor candidates for
helicopter transport
(D) A helicopter needs a minimum of a 60-ft2
landing zone
(E) Per patient mile, helicopters are safer than
ground ambulances
39
Copyright 2000 The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. Click Here for Terms of Use.
E MERGENCY M EDICAL S ERVICES
40
114. You are asked to give a lecture to the paramedics
about what they should consider when performing interfacility transfers of neonates to a higher level of care.
All of the following mechanisms for conserving body
temperature are LESS effective in neonates than in
adults EXCEPT
(A) shunting blood from the skin and periphery to
the core
(B) increasing basal metabolic rate
(C) voluntary muscle activity
(D) shivering
(E) nonshivering thermogenesis
115. During the same lecture described in question 114,
what fluid type would you advise the paramedics to use
during transport of a neonate with a birth weight greater
than 1000 g?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Normal saline
Half normal saline
Lactated ringers
5 percent dextrose in water
10 percent dextrose in water
116. In preparation for interfacility transport, you decide
to prophylactically intubate a critically ill child. Cuffed
endotracheal tubes should NOT be used in children
younger than which age?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
15 years
10 years
7 years
5 years
3 years
117. Which of the following are phases to a disaster
response according to the ACEP classification system?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Activation
Triage
Recovery
A and C
All of the above
118. Which of the following is NOT one of the seven
key functions of the Incident Command System (ICS)?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Information officer
Liaison officer
Safety officer
Finance section chief
Triage officer
AND
D ISASTER M EDICINE — Q UESTIONS
119. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the National Disaster Medical System (NDMS)?
(A) It deals strictly with civilian, not wartime,
casualties
(B) It is a partnership between four federal
agencies
(C) It was created in the early 1960s when policy
makers realized the United States did not have
a hospital bed system that could accommodate
mass casualties
(D) It is an organizational arm of the United States
Red Cross
(E) Patients are triaged to different hospitals under
the direction of the state EMS medical director
120. What is the MOST common presenting complaint
by patients at a mass gathering?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Dermal injury
Musculoskeletal injury
Headache
Abdominal pain
Chest pain
121. Above which gestational age should premature
infants generally be aggressively resuscitated?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
24
25
26
27
28
weeks
weeks
weeks
weeks
weeks
122. Which of the following is TRUE regarding out-ofhospital cardiac arrest?
(A) The annual incidence of out-of-hospital
cardiac arrest is about 1 per 100,000 in the
United States
(B) Sudden cardiac death is the number one cause
of out-of-hospital death in the United States
(C) Ventricular tachycardia is a positive predictor
for survival of out-of-hospital cardiac arrest
(D) Cardiac arrest makes up approximately 20
percent of an urban EMS system’s call volume
(E) Prehospital thrombolytic therapy after
successful return of spontaneous circulation
in a patient with ECG changes consistent
with myocardial infarction improves patient
outcome
EMERGENCY MEDICAL SERVICES
AND DISASTER MEDICINE
ANSWERS
108. The answer is A. (Chapter 1) The 1966 National Highway Safety Act authorized the
U.S. Department of Transportation to fund ambulances, communications, and training
programs for prehospital medical services. In 1973, Public Law 93-154 was passed with
the goal to improve emergency care and EMS on a national scale. This law identified 15
essential elements of an EMS system: (1) personnel, (2) training, (3) communications,
(4) transportation, (5) facilities, (6) critical care units, (7) public safety agencies, (8) consumer participation, (9) access to care, (10) standardization of patients’ records, (12)
public information and education, (13) independent review and evaluation, (14) disaster
linkage, and (15) mutual aid agreements.
109. The answer is C. (Chapter 1) The medical director is responsible for off-line (indirect) medical control. The major components of off-line medical control are (1) development of protocols for drugs and devices, (2) development of medical accountability
(quality assurance), and (3) development of ongoing education. Budget development
may be an administrative task of the service medical director, but it is not considered an
off-line medical control component.
110. The answer is B. (Chapter 4) It is estimated that 5 to 10 percent of a system’s volume consists of pediatric patients. The most common pediatric emergencies are trauma,
respiratory emergencies, and seizures. Cardiac arrest in children is rare (approximately
1 per 10,000 children per year in the United States).
111. The answer is C. (Chapter 2) The femoral traction splint is the preferred device for
immobilization of femur fractures. Traction is applied by using a hitch on the ankle that
encounters resistance when the splint impinges proximally on the pelvis. These splints
cannot be used if a pelvic fracture is suspected because pressure on the pelvis may further displace the fracture and increase bleeding. A hip dislocation is another contraindication to using a femoral traction splint.
112. The answer is E. (Chapter 3) Multiple configurations are possible for a helicopter
medical crew. The most frequently used pairing is a nurse with a paramedic because of
their complementary clinical skills. The literature does not support the belief that the
addition of a physician to the crew leads to better patient outcomes.
113. The answer is C. (Chapter 3) Because helicopters generally transport patients at altitudes less than 3500 ft, low barometric pressure with barotrauma is usually not a factor.
Mission patterns differ widely among flight programs, with the national average in 1997
for scene and interfacility flights being 30 and 70 percent, respectively. Although EMS
helicopters have a crash rate exceeding that of non-EMS helicopters, it is probably true
that, per patient mile, EMS helicopters are safer than ground ambulances. Pilots should
assess the weather and other safety hazards independent of the nature of the mission so
that they are not pressured to risk unsafe flights out of concern for the patient’s condition.
114. The answer is E. (Chapter 4) Mechanisms for conserving body temperature include
(1) shunting blood from the skin and periphery to the core, (2) increasing basal metabolic
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D ISASTER M EDICINE — A NSWERS
rate, (3) voluntary muscle activity, (4) shivering, and (5) nonshivering thermogenesis.
Neonates have limited ability to maintain normal body temperature and should be transported in a “neutral thermal environment.” Of the mechanisms listed, nonshivering thermogenesis is the only one that is as effective in neonates as in adults.
115. The answer is E. (Chapter 4) Because of the risk of hypoglycemia, all neonates
should receive glucose-containing fluids in preparation for and during transport. Ten percent dextrose should be used in infants with a birth weight greater than 1000 g. Five
percent glucose is safer in smaller infants because of the risk of hyperglycemia with the
more concentrated solution.
116. The answer is C. (Chapter 4) Because the narrowest anatomic portion of the airway
is below the cords in children younger than 7 years, cuffed endotracheal tubes should
not be used in this population. In addition, the distance between the thoracic inlet and
carina is extremely short in small children, so care must be taken to avoid a right mainstem intubation.
117. The answer is D. (Chapter 5) The American College of Emergency Physicians
(ACEP) describes three phases of a disaster response: activation, implementation, and
recovery. The first phase, the “activation phase,” has two components: notification and
initial response, and establishment of an incident command post. The second phase is
the “implementation phase” and consists of three components: search and rescue, triage
with stabilization and transport, and definitive scene management. The third and final
stage is the “recovery phase.” Recovery refers to withdrawal from the scene and return
to normal operations.
118. The answer is E. (Chapter 5) The ICS is a nationally accepted management structure
used to organize a disaster response. It was first used to respond to a series of wildfires
in Southern California in 1970. There are seven key functions that the incident commander must manage. The typical organization of the seven functions is an information officer, liaison officer, and safety officer, all attached to the incident commander, plus four
section chiefs for finance, logistics, operations, and planning. The triage officer would be
located in a subfunction rather than in one of the seven top areas. ICS has the flexibility
to expand or contract depending on the nature and magnitude of the disaster.
119. The answer is B. (Chapter 5) The NDMS is a partnership between four federal agencies: the Department of Health and Human Services, Department of Defense, Federal
Emergency Management Agency, and Veterans Administration. It was established in
1984 to address the need for a national system to provide hospital beds in the event of
mass casualties resulting from war or a civilian disaster. The NDMS links the federal
government with state and local agencies and private sector hospitals to address health
and medical care needs after a catastrophic disaster. Part of its medical response component consists of disaster medical assistance teams comprised of civilian volunteers.
120. The answer is A. (Chapter 6) Mass gatherings present unique challenges to emergency responders. Large numbers of people are located at a single site, making treatment and transportation difficult. The most common presenting complaint at mass
gatherings is dermal injury, followed by headache, musculoskeletal complaints, and
gastrointestinal complaints.
121. The answer is A. (Chapter 4) Although the legal age of viability differs by state, an
infant born at a gestational age of less than 24 weeks, weighing less than 500 g, and who
has gelatinous skin and fused eyes is generally not viable. By contrast, infants born after
24 weeks of gestation are likely to have a relatively good outcome and should be aggressively resuscitated.
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D ISASTER M EDICINE — A NSWERS
43
122. The answer is B. (Chapter 1) Sudden cardiac death is the number one cause of out-ofhospital death in the United States. The annual incidence of out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is
1 per 1000. Ventricular fibrillation, not tachycardia, is a positive predictor for survival of
cardiac arrest. Cardiac arrest comprises about 5 percent of the volume of calls in an EMS
system. Studies of field administration of thrombolytic agents by paramedics have shown
that it is feasible but does not improve outcome. However, equipping ambulances with
12-lead ECGs can decrease the time to ED treatment of thrombolytic candidates.
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ENVIRONMENTAL
EMERGENCIES
QUESTIONS
DIRECTIONS:
Each question below contains five suggested responses. Select the one best response to each question.
123. All of the following are predisposing factors for
hypothermia EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Wernicke’s disease
alcoholism
hyperglycemia
severe burns
extremes of age
124. Which of the following statements regarding heatrelated illness is FALSE?
(A) Adult patients with a core temperature of 40°C
(104°F) require aggressive cooling measures
(B) Salicylate ingestion may induce hyperpyrexia
(C) Elderly and psychiatric patients are at
increased risk for heat stroke
(D) The body acclimatizes to heat exposure by
gradually decreasing the sodium and chloride
concentration in sweat
(E) Oral rehydration inadequately compensates for
fluid losses
125. All of the following are true of chemical burns
EXCEPT
(A) acids cause deeper tissue injury than do alkalis
(B) most chemical burns should be copiously
irrigated with water
(C) calcium gluconate is a specific antidote for
hydrofluoric acid burns
(D) Neosporin ointment is useful for removing tar
from skin
(E) time of exposure is the most important factor
in determining the extent of tissue damage
126. Which of the following types of electrical injury is
correctly paired with its resultant complication?
(A) Low-voltage alternating current (AC) and
ventricular fibrillation
(B) lightning and ventricular fibrillation
(C) high-voltage AC and superficial burns
(D) lightning and compartment syndrome
(E) high-voltage AC and tetanic contraction
127. All of the following statements are true regarding
cold-related injury EXCEPT
(A) chilbains (pernio) is more common in women
(B) dry heat is the best method for rewarming
frostbite
(C) early surgical intervention is contraindicated
for severe frostbite
(D) body parts affected by cold injury are more
sensitive to reinjury
(E) trench foot may result in irreversible damage
128. What is the MOST common finding in a patient
with a brown recluse spider bite?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Severe itching
Severe muscle cramps
Anaphylaxis
Local tissue necrosis
Respiratory failure
129. A 25-year-old man complains of pain and swelling
in the hand and forearm, perioral numbness, and vomiting after trying to catch a rattlesnake. Blood pressure is
90/60 mm Hg. All of the following are appropriate therapies EXCEPT
(A) fluid resuscitation
(B) administration of 10 vials of antivenin
(C) measurement of coagulation factors and
platelets
(D) immediate fasciotomy of the arm
(E) pain medication
45
Copyright 2000 The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. Click Here for Terms of Use.
E NVIRONMENTAL E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
46
130. All of the following are signs and symptoms of
acute altitude mountain sickness EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
headache
ataxia
vomiting
fatigue
peripheral edema
131. A 22-year-old otherwise healthy diver sustains a
wound while diving in the Gulf of Mexico and presents
with a temperature of 100.6°F and a draining leg wound
with surrounding warmth, redness, tenderness, and
swelling. Which of the following antibiotics is LEAST
appropriate?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Ciprofloxacin
Ceftriaxone
Cefazolin
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Cefuroxime
132. A 55-year-old male diver begins complaining of
back pain and urinary retention 1 h after a dive. What is
the MOST likely diagnosis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Barotrauma to the bladder
Lumbar strain
Neurotoxin from a marine envenomation
Nitrogen narcosis
Decompression sickness
133. Which of the following is LEAST important in the
initial evaluation of a near-drowning victim?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Arterial blood gas (ABG)
Core temperature
Chest x-ray (CXR)
C-spine precautions
Electrolytes
134. Which of the following patients require admission
to a burn-care facility?
(A) A 35-year-old man with extensive partialthickness burns on the back, shoulders, and
buttocks
(B) A 60-year-old diabetic with a full-thickness
burn of the entire forearm
(C) A 25-year-old woman with full-thickness burns
of both hands and lower arms
(D) A 40-year-old house-fire victim with multiple,
small partial-thickness burns and wheezing
(E) All of the above
135. All of the following are useful in determining the
severity of radiation exposure EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
time to development of nausea and vomiting
lymphocyte count
type of radiation exposure (e.g., vs. )
presence of skin erythema
severity of symptoms
136. A 35-year-old man presents complaining of
headache, weakness, nausea, and vomiting after working with paint remover in an enclosed space. Which of
the following statements regarding management of this
patient’s problem is TRUE?
(A) A special antidote kit is required
(B) Carboxyhemoglobin level is not helpful in
this case
(C) Treatment must continue longer in patients
with this exposure than from other sources
(D) The patient’s oxygen–hemoglobin dissociation
curve is shifted to the right
(E) Severe metabolic acidosis may be present
ENVIRONMENTAL
EMERGENCIES
ANSWERS
123. The answer is C. (Chapter 186) Hypoglycemia and Wernicke’s disease may lead to
hypothermia secondary to hypothalamic dysfunction. Other endocrine disorders such as
hypothyroidism and hypoadrenalism predispose to hypothermia because of decreased
metabolic rate. Severe burns and other dermal diseases may impair the ability of the skin
to thermoregulate or prevent vasoconstriction. Patients at the extremes of age are more
vulnerable to hypothermia. The use of any drug, including alcohol, that causes altered
sensorium places a patient at higher risk for hypothermia.
124. The answer is A. (Chapter 187) Heat stroke is defined as a body temperature of
greater than 40°C (104°F) accompanied by altered mental status and anhidrosis. Patients
with heat stroke should be aggressively cooled to a temperature of 40°C (104°F), at which
point cooling measures should stop to avoid overshoot hypothermia. Prognosis is related
to the rate of cooling rather than to the initial temperature. Salicylates cause uncoupling
of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to increased heat production. Elderly and psychiatric patients are at increased risk for heat stroke because they are less likely to remove
themselves from hot environments. Ingestion of psychiatric medications also increases
susceptibility to heat stroke. The body is able to acclimatize to hot temperatures over time
by various mechanisms including decreasing the concentration of sodium and chloride in
sweat. In the acute situation however, the body is not accurately able to assess fluid losses
and cannot compensate by oral rehydration. Athletes given free access to water when
exercising in the heat will only drink 50 percent of their fluid losses.
125. The answer is A. (Chapter 195) Acids generally cause protein denaturation and
coagulation necrosis that create a tough eschar, limiting the spread of the toxic compound. Alkalis cause liquifaction necrosis, allowing the agent to penetrate more deeply
into the tissue and cause more extensive damage. The mainstay of therapy for all chemical burns is reducing the length of time of exposure to the compound by immediate
copious irrigation with water. In addition, hydrofluoric acid burns should be treated with
calcium gluconate. Neosporin contains plyuoxylene sorbitan, an emulsifying agent that is
useful for removing tar.
126. The answer is A. (Chapters 196 and 197) The type of injury pattern from an electrical burn depends on the source: high-voltage AC, low-voltage AC, or lightning. The
most common initial rhythm in cardiac arrest is asystole from lightning strikes and ventricular fibrillation from low-voltage AC. Low-voltage AC causes tetanic contraction
of muscle and may cause victims to pull themselves closer to the source secondary by
flexor muscle contraction. The immediate cause of death from high-voltage AC and
lightning is apnea. Lightning causes superficial burns and a ferning pattern, whereas AC
results in deep tissue burns and injury. Although minimal external signs of damage are
present after this deep tissue injury, compartment syndrome requiring fasciotomy may
develop. High-voltage AC is usually a single blast that throws the victim from the
source. Lightning can also cause a blast effect.
127. The answer is B. (Chapter 185) Rapid rewarming is the primary therapy for frostbite. The injured part should be immersed in warm water (40–42°C). Dry heat from fires
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E NVIRONMENTAL E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
or car exhaust should be avoided because it may cause thermal damage in addition to the
cold injury. Early surgical intervention is not indicated because the extent of injury is
difficult to assess initially and areas of eschar may be protective to underlying healing
tissue. Once affected by chilbains, frostnip, or other cold injury, the body part involved
becomes more susceptible to reinjury. Trench foot develops from exposure to wet, cold,
but nonfreezing conditions over hours to days. Early on, tissue damage is reversible but
can become permanent if the foot is not removed from the cold environment.
128. The answer is D. (Chapter 188) The brown recluse species (Loxosceles reclusa) is
one of the most common types of spider in the United States. A necrotic wound that may
take weeks or months to heal often follows a bite. Wounds may be resistant to treatment
and result in long-term disability. Severe muscle cramping, particularly of the abdominal
musculature, is the hallmark of black widow spider envenomation. Anaphylaxis may
result from insect stings, the most common being from yellow jackets. Respiratory failure may result from anaphylaxis and rarely from black widow spider envenomation, but
it is not common after brown recluse spider bite.
129. The answer is D. (Chapter 189) The mainstay of treatment after rattlesnake bites is
neutralization of the venom with antivenin. Large amounts of antivenin may be required.
Coagulation factors and platelets should be checked in all snake-bite victims to help
determine the severity of envenomation. Supportive care, including fluid resuscitation, is
important for all patients with pit viper envenomation. If compartment syndrome is suspected, pressures should be measured. Fasciotomy should only be performed when compartment pressures remain above 30 mm Hg after medical treatment.
130. The answer is B. (Chapter 191) Acute mountain sickness can occur at altitudes as
low as 6900 ft (2100 m). Susceptibility differs by individual and is also influenced by
rate of ascent, altitude of usual residence, and sleeping altitude. Signs and symptoms
resemble those of an alcohol hangover and include headache, nausea, and fatigue or
weakness. Patients may exhibit fluid retention and mild peripheral edema. The presence
of ataxia suggests a more serious condition, high altitude cerebral edema (HACE).
HACE may progress to coma and death if the patient does not descend quickly to a
lower altitude.
131. The answer is C. (Chapter 190) Infections from marine-acquired wounds require
special care. The wound should be cultured for both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria,
and antibiotic treatment should be initiated to include coverage for Vibrio species.
This requires a second- or third-generation cephalosporin, ciprofloxacin, trimethoprimsulfamethoxazole, or tetracycline. Fresh-water wound infections should be treated with
antistaphylococcal and antistreptococcal antibiotics along with an aminoglycoside to
cover Aeromonas species.
132. The answer is E. (Chapter 192) Barotrauma is the most common affliction of divers
and usually affects the ears, sinuses, lungs, and, rarely, the gastrointestinal tract. The
bladder is not involved. Decompression sickness (DCS) is caused by formation of gas
bubbles in tissues after ascent from a dive and results in vascular occlusion, usually in
the venous circulation. DCS may have cutaneous manifestations including rash and pruritus. It classically causes joint and back pain and may be associated with neurologic
symptoms secondary to spinal cord involvement. Patients with neurologic or other severe
forms of DCS should be referred for hyperbaric oxygen therapy. Nitrogen narcosis is due
to the anesthetic effects of breathing nitrogen at high partial pressures and causes divers
to become altered on deep dives.
133. The answer is E. (Chapter 193) Near-drowning victims require aggressive resuscitation and evaluation. A core temperature must be obtained because near-drowning
patients are frequently hypothermic and require rewarming. Furthermore, hypothermic
E NVIRONMENTAL E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
49
patients in cardiac arrest should continue to be resusucitated until the core temperature
reaches at least 30°C. CXR may demonstrate pulmonary edema but may be initially normal. Patients with a normal CXR may still be hypoxic, and oxygenation should be measured by ABG or pulse oximetry. Because many near-drownings occur secondary to
trauma, all victims need their C-spines evaluated for injury. Electrolytes are rarely abnormal in near-drowning victims unless a large amount of salt-water has been aspirated.
134. The answer is E. (Chapter 194) Burn-center admission criteria include: patients 10
to 50 years old with partial-thickness burns over an area greater than 15 percent of total
body surface area (TBSA) or full-thickness burns greater than 5 percent TBSA; any
patient younger than 10 years or older than 50 years with partial-thickness burns greater
than 10 percent TBSA or full-thickness burns greater than 3 percent TBSA; any patient
with partial- or full-thickness burns to the face, hands, feet or perineum, or circumferential limb burns; a patient with burns and inhalation injury; and any patient with burns and
underlying medical problems. Percentage of TBSA can be calculated in adults by the
rule of nines by using the size of the back of the patient’s hand as 1 percent or a Lund
and Browder burn diagram. Children have a relatively larger head size and smaller legs.
135. The answer is E. (Chapter 199) Although severity of symptoms does not correlate
with dose of radiation received, time to onset of symptoms does. Skin erythema indicates
skin exposure greater than 300 rem (3 Sv); seizures occur with central nervous system
exposure greater than 2000 rem (20 Sv). Lymphocyte counts greater than 1200/L 48 h
after exposure suggest good prognosis, counts between 300 and 1200 indicate fair prognosis, and counts less than 300 indicate poor prognosis. The type of radiation exposure
is important in determining the severity of injury. Rays readily penetrate body tissues.
Particles do not penetrate skin, and particles only barely penetrate the skin. Both and particles can cause damage if inhaled or ingested.
136. The answer is C. (Chapter 198) Carbon monoxide (CO) exposure occurs from many
sources including fires, engines, home furnaces, and heaters. Methylene chloride, a
chemical found in many paint removers, is inhaled and then converted to CO when
metabolized by the liver. The elimination half-life of CO from methylene chloride is
about twice that of inhaled CO because it is stored in tissues and gradually released. Carboxyhemoglobin levels guide therapy and may indicate severity of exposure. CO binds
hemoglobin with a 250 times greater affinity than does oxygen. Therefore, all patients
should be treated with 100 percent oxygen therapy. Once bound, CO causes the hemoglobin molecule to hold more tightly to oxygen at the other binding sites, thus shifting
the oxygen–hemoglobin dissociation curve to the left. The presence of a high carboxyhemoglobin level and a severe metabolic acidosis should suggest concomitant intoxication with cyanide, as can commonly occur in house or industrial fires. CO alone does not
cause a severe metabolic acidosis.
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EYE, EAR, NOSE, THROAT, AND
MAXILLOFACIAL EMERGENCIES
QUESTIONS
DIRECTIONS:
Each question below contains five suggested responses. Select the one best response to each question.
137. A 23-year-old female presents to the ED complaining
of 24 h of left eye irritation and redness. Physical examination shows normal visual acuity, pupillary action, and
motor function. There are several patches of dark red
blood scattered across the sclera. The patient denies any
history of trauma. All of the following are important considerations in this setting EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
hypertension
coagulopathy
ruptured globe
incidental ocular trauma
domestic violence
Questions 138–139.
138. A 30-year-old contact-lens wearer complains of 2
days of left eye pain and discharge with blurred vision.
She immediately stopped using the contact lens at the
onset of symptoms and began antibiotic drops left over
from a previous eye infection. There is moderate conjunctival injection and a pinhole-corrected visual acuity
of 20/40 on the left. Slit lamp shows an oval-shaped
corneal abrasion with dense fluorescein uptake and a
halo of white stromal infiltrate. The most likely infective organism associated with this disorder is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Herpes zoster
Herpes simplex
Pseudomonas
Staphylococcus
Candida albicans
140. A 65-year-old female arrives via ambulance minutes
after accidentally instilling several drops of cyanoacrylate (SuperGlue) into the left eye. She mistook the tube
of glue for the artificial tears she uses for dry eyes. The
upper and lower lids are joined medially, and there is a
large concretion of glue on the lateral corneal surface.
All of the following are accepted treatments EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
immediate copious water irrigation
acetone soaks
mineral oil
mechanical debridement
surgical debridement
141. A 15-year-old boy presents to the ED with a blunt
injury to the right eye sustained in a brawl during
school recess. He describes watery, clear discharge,
photophobia, and a dull ache in the injured right eye.
Physical examination shows 20/80 visual acuity correcting to 20/40 with pinhole. The right pupil is dilated and
sluggishly reactive, but extraocular movements are
intact. There is scleral and ciliary injection with moderate cell and flare in the anterior chamber on slit lamp
examination. The MOST likely diagnosis is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
traumatic cranial nerve III palsy
traumatic mydriasis with iritis
conjunctivitis with traumatic lens dislocation
conjunctivitis with iris sphincter rupture
conjunctivitis with ruptured globe
139. Appropriate management for the above patient may
include all of the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
culture of the corneal lesion
frequent topical antibiotic therapy (every 12 h)
cycloplegic drops
pain control
eye patch
51
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E YE , E AR , N OSE , T HROAT ,
52
AND
M AXILLOFACIAL E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
Questions 142–143.
Questions 146–147.
142. A patient presents to the ED complaining of mild
pain with markedly decreased vision after blunt eye
trauma. Physical examination shows 20/100 vision with
pinhole, an afferent pupillary defect, and a meniscus of
red cells in the lower portion of the anterior chamber.
Treatment of this condition may include all of the following EXCEPT
146. A 62-year-old female with a medical history of
hypertension, diabetes, and glaucoma complains of
1 day of sudden, painless loss of vision to the right eye.
Physical examination shows only hand-motion visual
acuity to the affected side. There is an afferent pupillary
defect and absent red reflex on the right. You are unable
to visualize the fundus. Slit lamp examination is normal. The MOST likely diagnosis is
(A) hospitalization for rest and elevation of
the head
(B) atropine 1 percent topical eye drops
(C) topical prednisolone
(D) aminocaproic acid
(E) surgical wash out of the anterior chamber
143. Potential complications of the above disorder
include all of the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
rebleed in 2 to 5 days
acute glaucoma
cataract
corneal staining
optic atrophy
144. A 25-year-old male presents to the ED after being
struck in the right eye with a fist. On examination of
extraocular movement, you notice entrapment of upward
gaze with diplopia. You make a clinical diagnosis of an
orbital blowout fracture. While awaiting radiographic
confirmation, each of the following physical findings
could be anticipated EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
anesthesia to the right anterior cheek
orbital emphysema
enophthalmos
subconjunctival hemorrhage
CSF rhinorrhea
145. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding acute traumatic retinal detachments?
(A) Most detachments can be visualized on standard fundoscopy
(B) Eighty percent of detachments occur within
24 h of the traumatic event
(C) Most detachments originate in the
inferotemporal quadrant
(D) Visual outcome depends on the extent of
involvement of the optic disc
(E) Sudden onset of pain is a prominent feature
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
acute open-angle glaucoma
optic neuritis
vitreous hemorrhage
central retinal artery occlusion
central retinal vein occlusion
147. Which of the following would constitute the most
appropriate management of this patient’s condition?
(A) Pilocarpine, intravenous diamox, and urgent
laser iridectomy
(B) Intravenous prednisolone
(C) Expectant management with delayed
phototherapy
(D) Ocular massage
(E) Anterior chamber paracentesis
148. A victim of an assault with a baseball bat presents
to the ED for evaluation. Assessment shows an obvious
mid-face fracture and unstable mandible. The left eye is
noted to be mildly proptotic with severe conjunctival
swelling and a subconjunctival hemorrhage. The pupil
is fixed and mid-point. Visual acuity is to count fingers
only. Appropriate initial management would include all
of the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
broad-spectrum antibiotic coverage
sedation and analgesia
radiographic imaging via CT
antibiotic ointment and gauze eye patch
immediate ophthalmologic consultation
149. A 35-year-old mother of four children presents complaining of bilateral eye irritation, redness, and decreased
vision of 2 weeks. She describes worsening symptoms
despite having self-treated with over-the-counter eye
drops. All four children are developing symptoms. Physical examination shows injected conjunctiva, tender
preauricular nodes, and keratitis with subepithelial infiltrates. The MOST likely diagnosis is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
corneal ulcer
Herpes simplex conjunctivitis
Herpes zoster conjunctivitis
Staphylococcal conjunctivitis
epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
E YE , E AR , N OSE , T HROAT ,
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M AXILLOFACIAL E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
150. A 62-year-old male seeks medical attention for 5
days of unilateral eye redness, irritation, and decreased
vision. On review of systems, the patient denies fever,
weight loss, myalgias, or headache. Physical examination
is notable for 20/100 vision on the affected side, injected
conjunctiva, and more than one cell in the anterior chamber. Intraocular pressure is measured at 15 bilaterally.
There is a small vesicle present at the tip of the nose. All
of the following therapies are appropriate EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
cyclopentolate drops
acyclovir drops
prednisolone drops
Viroptic (trifluridine) drops
ophthalmologic consultation
Questions 151–152.
151. A 75-year-old female with diabetes and hypertension complains of abrupt onset of right eye pain, blurred
vision, unilateral headache, and mild nausea. Physical
examination is notable for 20/200 vision on the right,
conjunctival injection, and a cloudy, edematous cornea.
Vision does not correct with pinhole. The pupil is midpoint and nonreactive to light. Slit lamp examination is
negative for corneal staining. Which of the following
tests would be MOST appropriate at this point?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Pupillary dilation and direct fundoscopy
Orbital CT with 3-mm cuts
Schiotz tonometry
Intraocular ultrasound
152. The MOST appropriate initial therapy for this patient
would include
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
parenteral steroid therapy
anterior chamber paracentesis
pilocarpine ophthalmologic drops
tropicamide ophthalmologic drops
phenylephrine ophthalmologic drops
53
153. A 43-year-old African-American male presents with
complaints of 2 weeks of progressive left eye pain, redness, and photophobia. He states that he has had several
similar episodes in the past, all of which spontaneously
resolved. Review of systems is positive for a recent
diagnosis of restrictive lung disease but negative for
joint pains, headache, or dysuria. Physical examination
shows mildly decreased visual acuity and scleral injection greatest at the limbus. Slit lamp examination is
notable for moderate anterior chamber cell and flare, a
small hypopion, but no corneal uptake. The MOST
likely underlying diagnosis in this patient is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Reiter’s syndrome
rheumatoid arthritis
HLA-B27
sarcoidosis
tuberculosis
154. A 25-year-old hockey player complains of 2 days
of right eye blurred vision after catching an elbow to
the face during a match. Physical examination shows a
resolving periorbital ecchymosis. Visual acuity is
20/200 OD and 20/20 OS correcting to 20/20 bilaterally with pinhole. Fundoscopy and visual field examinations are normal. Which of the following conditions
do you suspect?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Acute posttraumatic cataract
Retinal detachment
Lens dislocation
Hyphema
Preexisting myopia
E YE , E AR , N OSE , T HROAT ,
54
Questions 155–156.
155. A 71-year-old hypertensive male reports sudden
painless loss of vision to the right eye beginning 20 min
before. He experienced no headache, dizziness, chest
pain, or syncope. Since his arrival to the ED, his vision
has returned to normal. Physical examination shows
20/30 visual acuity bilaterally, normal intraocular pressure, and a quiet anterior chamber on slit lamp examination. Fundoscopy shows copperwire changes with few
flame hemorrhages. The MOST likely etiology of this
patient’s disorder is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
central retinal artery occlusion
central retinal vein occlusion
temporal arteritis
amaurosis fugax
retinal detachment
156. Appropriate initial management for the patient above
can include which of the following treatments?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Ocular massage
Parenteral steroids
Anterior chamber paracentesis
Antiplatelet therapy
Laser retinal surgery
157. A 59-year-old male presents 4 h after experiencing
an abrupt, painless loss of vision in the left eye. Physical examination shows severe visual impairment on the
left, with light perception only, and an afferent pupillary
defect. Fundoscopy is notable for a pale retina and a
cherry-red–appearing macula. You make a diagnosis of
central retinal artery occlusion. Regarding this patient,
all of the following statements are true EXCEPT
(A) The cherry-red spot depicts localized retinal
hemorrhage
(B) Urgent anticoagulation may be indicated
(C) Open angle glaucoma has been associated with
this disorder
(D) Anterior chamber paracentesis may dislodge
intraarteriole clot
(E) This patient has a poor prognosis, with a less
than 10 percent chance for return of vision
AND
M AXILLOFACIAL E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
158. A 47-year-old female presents with a 6-h history of
sudden, painless visual loss to the left eye. Vital signs
show a heart rate of 85 beats per minute, blood pressure
of 180/110 mm Hg, and respiratory rate of 16 breaths
per minute. Corrected visual acuity is 20/25 OD and
20/200 OS. There is an afferent pupillary defect on the
left. The conjunctiva, sclera, cornea, and anterior chamber are normal. Fundoscopy shows macular edema and
marked venous dilation with retinal hemorrhages in all
four quadrants. The MOST likely etiology of this presentation is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
central retinal artery occlusion
central retinal vein occlusion
amaurosis fugax
temporal arteritis
malignant hypertension
159. A 22-year-old female complains of 1 day of dull
right eye pain and blurry vision. Review of systems is
positive for occasional double vision, and one episode
of right-hand numbness the previous year which spontaneously resolved. The patient denies fevers, weight
loss, or rash. Visual acuity is 20/100 OD and 20/20 OS.
There is pain on range of motion in the affected eye.
Conjunctiva, sclera, and slit lamp examinations are
normal. Fundoscopy shows a swollen, hyperemic optic
disc on the right side. What is the MOST likely cause
of this disorder?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Intracranial mass lesion
Multiple sclerosis (MS)
Orbital cellulitis
Acute angle closure glaucoma
Iridocyclitis
160. A 15-year-old male presents with no significant
medical history and complains of right-sided headache,
nausea, and fatigue. Before the onset of the headache,
the patient experienced a large dark “hole” in his right
visual field with adjacent bright flashing lights. All
visual symptoms resolved with the onset of headache.
Physical examination is notable for bilateral photophobia, normal visual acuity, and normal external eye and
slit lamp examinations. The patient has a supple neck
and nonfocal neurologic examination. The MOST likely
etiology of the patient’s symptoms is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
amaurosis fugax
TIA
subarachnoid hemorrhage
retinal detachment
ocular migraine
E YE , E AR , N OSE , T HROAT ,
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M AXILLOFACIAL E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
161. An 18-year-old male presents to the ED with his
mother complaining of right-sided monocular blindness
after being struck in the face by a younger sibling. Examination of the head and neck shows no obvious signs of
trauma. Visual acuity is “no light perception” OD and
20/20 OS. Pupillary response is normal, and there is no
afferent pupillary defect. Slit lamp examination and fundoscopy are normal. Neurologic examination is nonfocal.
The most likely etiology of this patient’s disorder is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
cortical blindness
functional blindness
retinal detachment with macular involvement
vitreous hemorrhage
traumatic lens dislocation
162. A patient presents with a bilateral homonymous
quadranopsia involving the right upper visual field.
Which of the following represents the MOST likely
anatomic location of the abnormality?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Prechiasmal, right side
Optic chiasm
Postchiasmal, prethalamic, left side
Occipital lobe, right side
Occipital lobe, left side
163. All of the following statements regarding acute
angle closure glaucoma are true EXCEPT
(A) It is the most common form of glaucoma
(B) It may be precipitated by emotional upset
(C) It has been associated with certain over-thecounter medications
(D) It may be treated with laser iridectomy
(E) It may result in abdominal pain, nausea
and vomiting
164. All of the following statements regarding the ED
use of topical ophthalmic steroids are true EXCEPT that
topical steroids
(A) can exacerbate ocular Herpes simplex
infections
(B) are often prescribed for ocular Herpes zoster
infections
(C) improve symptoms in cases of traumatic iritis
(D) may result in cataract formation
(E) are therapeutic in cases of allergic
conjunctivitis
55
165. All of the following patients are at risk for necrotizing external otitis EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
AIDS patients
cancer patients
diabetics
elderly patients
swimmers
166. Bullous myringitis is commonly related to which
organism?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Haemophilus influenzae
Moraxella catarrhalis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
167. Which of the following is NOT associated with
acute mastoiditis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Bezold abscess
Facial palsies
Hearing loss
Meningitis
Normal tympanic membrane in 30 percent
of cases
168. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen
in a patient with mastoiditis of more than 3 months?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Haemophilus influenzae
Bacteroides species
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Moraxella catarrhalis
Pseudomonas species
169. What is the most common cause of hearing loss in a
previously healthy patient?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Barotrauma
Cerumen impaction
Neuronitis
Otitis media
Tympanic membrane perforation
170. In the absence of a foreign body in the external auditory canal, which of the following is the most common
cause of unilateral sensory hearing loss?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Acoustic neuroma
Autoimmune disorders
Meniere’s disease
Pharmacologic ototoxicity
Viral neuronitis
E YE , E AR , N OSE , T HROAT ,
56
171. Tympanic membrane perforations occur in all of the
following conditions EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
barotrauma
direct trauma
lightning strike
mandible fracture
otitis media
172. What is the most common form of barotrauma in
recreational scuba divers?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Barotitis media
Canal squeeze
Eustachian barotrauma
Inner ear barotrauma
Auricular barotrauma
173. Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor for epistaxis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Cocaine use
Hypertension
Infection
Peptic ulcer disease
Uremia
174. All of the following are important questions to ask a
patient with acute epistaxis EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Is there a history of drug use?
How long has there been bleeding?
Is there ear pain?
Is there a history of liver disease?
Is there a sensation of blood in the back
of the throat?
175. All of the following are accepted methods of controlling anterior epistaxis EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
direct cautery of a bleeding vessel
nasal packing
embolization
direct pressure
application of vasoconstrictive agents
176. Complications of epistaxis controlled with anterior
nasal packing include all of the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
anemia
dislodgment
sinusitis
toxic shock syndrome
vertigo
AND
M AXILLOFACIAL E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
177. A posterior source of epistaxis should be suspected
in all of the following conditions EXCEPT
(A) bleeding from both nares
(B) epistaxis with associated presyncope
or syncope
(C) presence of foreign body
(D) no anterior source
(E) sensation of blood down back of throat
178. Which type of force is most likely to cause a nasal
bone fracture?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Barotrauma
Frontal
Inferior to superior
Lateral
Superior to inferior
179. Complications of nasal trauma include all of the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
avascular necrosis of the nasal septum
extraocular movement dysfunction
fracture of the cribriform plate
saddle deformity
septal hematoma
180. Clinical features suggestive of nasal foreign body in
children include all of the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
persistent foul-smelling rhinorrhea
persistent unilateral epistaxis
recurrent unilateral epistaxis
recurrent unilateral otitis media
unilateral sensation of nasal obstruction
181. Common bacterial pathogens that produce acute
sinusitis include all of the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Haemophilus species
Bacteroides species
Moraxella species
Streptococcal species
Staphylococcal species
182. All of the following are complications of sinusitis
EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
facial cellulitis
mastoiditis
periorbital cellulitis
Pott’s Puffy tumor
subdural empyema
E YE , E AR , N OSE , T HROAT ,
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M AXILLOFACIAL E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
183. Signs and symptoms associated with mandibular
fractures include all of the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
deformity of the dental arch
limited range of motion
mental nerve anesthesia
subconjunctival hemorrhage
sublingual hematoma
184. Which area of the mandible is MOST commonly
fractured?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Angle
Condyle
Molar
Mental
Symphysis
185. Which of the following is the LEAST likely clinical feature of a zygomatic–maxillary complex (ZMC)
fracture?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Diplopia
Epistaxis
Facial emphysema
Mental nerve anesthesia
Subconjunctival hemorrhage
186. What is the MOST common finding after orbital
floor fracture?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Corneal abrasion
Diplopia
Epistaxis
Retinal detachment
Sinusitis
187. Which of the following maxillofacial fractures
extends bilaterally through the frontozygomatic suture
lines?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
LeForte I
LeForte II
LeForte III
Mandibular fracture
Pyramidal fracture
188. Which of the following fractures is MOST commonly associated with CSF rhinorrhea?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
LeForte I
LeForte II
LeForte III
Pyramidal fracture
ZMC fracture
57
189. After a mandible dislocation, in which direction is
the condyle of the mandible MOST commonly displaced
relative to the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) fossa?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Anteriorly
Laterally
Medially
Posteriorly
Posterolaterally
190. Symptoms of TMJ syndrome (myofascial pain dysfunction) include all of the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
bruxism
crepitus
dysphonia
earache
tinnitus
191. All of the following are causes of sialoadenitis
EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
diabetes
irradiation
paramyxovirus
phenothiazines
uremia
192. In which of the following glands does sialolithiasis
(salivary calculi) MOST frequently occur?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Lacrimal
Meibomian
Parotid
Sublingual
Submandibular
193. Classic symptoms of peritonsillar abscess (PTA)
include all of the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
drooling
muffled voice
sore throat
stridor
trismus
194. In which age group is retropharyngeal abscess
MOST likely to occur?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
in
in
in
in
in
those
those
those
those
those
1 to 5 years old
5 to 10 years old
10 to 15 years old
15 to 25 years old
older than 60 years
E YE , E AR , N OSE , T HROAT ,
58
195. All of the following are commonly seen in Ludwig’s angina EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
decreased neck motion
drooling
dysphagia
palpable fluctuance
trismus
AND
M AXILLOFACIAL E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
196. Each of the following is associated with Ludwig’s
angina EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
age between 20 and 60 years
chronic alcoholism
diabetes mellitus
female sex
systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
EYE, EAR, NOSE, THROAT, AND
MAXILLOFACIAL EMERGENCIES
ANSWERS
137. The answer is C. (Chapter 230) This patient has a subconjunctival hemorrhage.
Symptoms are typically limited to minor irritation and eye watering, with an otherwise
normal physical examination. The cause is usually minor ocular trauma that may have
been inconsequential to the patient. Domestic violence is always a concern. Sneezing and
violent coughing are also associated with this disorder. More serious nontraumatic causes
include hypertension and coagulation disorders. Ruptured globe often presents with a
subconjunctival hemorrhage, but other features such as decreased visual acuity, pain, and
abnormal intraocular pressure dominate the clinical picture.
138–139. The answers are C and E, respectively. (Chapter 230) Contact-lens–related
disorders can range from simple conjunctivitis to keratitis, corneal abrasion, and even
corneal ulcer. This patient presents with eye pain, redness, and decreased visual acuity.
The white haze around the abrasion represents white cell infiltration and confirms the
diagnosis of corneal ulcer. Pseudomonas is the leading organism in contact-lens–related
bacterial ulcers and can devastate a cornea in 24–48 h. Treatment includes all of the stated
items except an eye patch, which is contraindicated because it may worsen the underlying
infection or retard healing.
140. The answer is B. (Chapter 230) Cyanoacrylate-based glues form strong tissue bonds
within seconds of application. The small tubular dispensers resemble many ophthalmologic medications, leading to accidental exposures. Physician use of tissue adhesives for
wound closure may become a new source of risk. Although acetone and ethanol/water
mixtures can dissolve glue on normal skin, these substances are extremely toxic to the
eye and must be avoided. Mineral oil may soften the glue enough to allow separation of
the lids. Mechanical or surgical debridement is usually necessary to remove glue from the
cornea. A corneal abrasion typically results, which can be treated in the usual fashion.
141. The answer is B. (Chapter 230) There are a number of potential consequences to
blunt eye trauma. The constellation of eye pain, photophobia, ciliary injection, and anterior chamber cell and flare is strongly suggestive of traumatic iritis. Furthermore, the ciliary body may respond to blunt trauma with either spasm and constriction (traumatic
miosis) or dilation and cycloplegia (traumatic mydriasis), as demonstrated in this case.
Cranial nerve III palsy is an unlikely result of blunt eye trauma, particularly if extraocular movements are intact. Iris sphincter rupture refers to small rents in the margin of the
iris, resulting in a triangular notch in the border of the pupil.
142–143. The answers are A and C, respectively. (Chapter 230) The condition described
is a hyphema: blood in the anterior chamber resulting from a rupture of one or more
iris stromal vessels. Severity of the bleed can vary from minor hemorrhage visible only
on slit lamp to the “8-ball” hyphemas in which the anterior chamber is filled with clot.
Between 8 and 33 percent of patients experience a rebleed usually after 2 to 5 days,
which is invariably worse than the original event. Potential complications include
acute and chronic glaucoma related to occlusion of the trabeculae, corneal staining, and
optic atrophy. Cataracts may occur after blunt eye trauma, but this is independent of the
hyphema. Treatment centers on the prevention of rebleeding (bed rest and aminocaproic
59
60
E YE , E AR , N OSE , T HROAT ,
AND
M AXILLOFACIAL E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
acid) and patient comfort (cycloplegics, prednisolone). Studies have debunked the practice of routine hospitalization after finding no difference in outcome between treatment
and control groups. Daily intraocular pressure monitoring is nevertheless recommended
to assess for developing glaucoma.
144. The answer is E. (Chapter 230) The orbital blowout fracture results from the transmission of a sudden rise in intraorbital pressure downward through the thin orbital floor
into the maxillary sinus. Subsequent prolapse of the inferior rectus muscle, orbital fat,
and connective tissue may result in enophthalmos and diplopia because of the restricted
upward gaze. There can be compression of the infraorbital branch of cranial nerve V-2,
resulting in anesthesia to the cheek and upper lip. Communication with the air-containing maxillary sinus permits the development of orbital emphysema, particularly after a
sneeze or blowing one’s nose. Subconjunctival hemorrhage is common, but cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) rhinorrhea has not been described with this fracture.
145. The answer is C. (Chapter 230) The typical retinal detachment is heralded by painless flashes of light, floaters, and a shade across the visual field. Interestingly, most
detachments follow a latent period, up to 8 months posttrauma in 50 percent of cases.
Detachments begin as small tears in the ora serrata (called dialysis), most frequently
affecting the inferotemporal quadrant, followed by the superonasal quadrant. Because
most detachments are very peripherally situated on the retina, standard fundoscopy is
typically inadequate for visualization. Although a number of techniques have been developed to correct the detachment, visual outcome remains largely determined by the degree
of macular involvement.
146–147. The answers are C and C, respectively. (Chapter 230) Diabetic retinopathy
carries a risk of spontaneous vitreous hemorrhage. The bleed may range from minor,
with symptoms limited to a few floaters, to severe, with painless loss of vision, a dark
pupil, and absent red reflex. This latter finding and absence of pain are the keys to diagnosing this condition and would not be expected in any of the other disease processes
listed. Treatment is expectant. Once the vitreous clears, the patient can undergo photocoagulation therapy to prevent future hemorrhage.
148. The answer is D. (Chapter 230) This case scenario should suggest two likely diagnoses: ruptured globe and retroorbital hematoma. The differentiation between these two
entities may be difficult on purely clinical grounds. Both are characterized by pain,
visual and pupillary defects, marked conjunctival swelling (chemosis), and occasionally
proptosis. The management keys are to provide comfort for the patient, advance the
work up (CT, computed tomography), and avoid worsening the condition through secondary trauma. This last comment is particularly directed at ruptured globes, where all
pressure on the eye must be meticulously avoided to prevent extrusion of intraocular
contents and permanent loss of vision. A metallic shield should be placed over the eye
instead of the usual compressive two-gauze eye patch.
149. The answer is E. (Chapter 230) Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis is a highly contagious
form of viral conjunctivitis. It is characterized by rapid spread through contact groups,
tender preauricular adenopathy, keratitis with subepithelial infiltrates, and an unusually
long course (2–3 weeks). Differential diagnosis includes contact conjunctivitis, episcleritis, and atypical viral conjunctivitis. Treatment is symptomatic, but occasionally antibiotics are given to avoid secondary infection.
150. The answer is D. (Chapter 230) The presence of a nasal vesicle and eye pain
strongly suggest Herpes zoster with ocular involvement via the shared nasociliary branch
of the trigeminal nerve. Virtually any part of the eye may be affected including the lids,
conjunctiva, cornea, ciliary body, or extraocular muscles. Treatment is directed at control
of symptoms: topical prednisolone to decrease inflammation, cycloplegic drops to reduce
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spasm, and acyclovir to reduce the length and severity of infection. Viroptic, which is
typically used for Herpes simplex infections, is ineffective against Herpes zoster.
151–152. The answers are D and C, respectively. (Chapter 230) The constellation of
signs and symptoms demonstrated by this patient is highly suggestive of acute angle closure glaucoma. These patients typically present with eye pain, headache, a fixed midpoint pupil, an edematous cornea, and decreased vision. Elevated intraocular pressure as
measured by Schiotz tonometer, a TonoPen, or an applanation tonometric device secures
the diagnosis. This disorder occurs in anatomically susceptible patients who have small
or shallow anterior chambers. There is an increased resistance to the flow of aqueous
humor from the posterior to the anterior chamber, resulting in intraocular hypertension.
Attacks are often precipitated by conditions that result in pupillary dilatation: prolonged
exposure to dim light or the use of anticholinergic or sympathomimetic agents.
Therapy of acute angle closure is two pronged: (1) increase the flow of aqueous
through the trabecular meshwork and (2) decrease the overall production of aqueous.
Cholinergic agents such as pilocarpine cause miosis that in turn creates a more favorable
angle for aqueous flow. -Adrenergic agents (timolol) decrease aqueous production, and
acetazolamide and mannitol, both diuretic agents, decrease total intraocular volume. Mydriatic agents must be avoided because they may worsen already compromised flow through
the narrowed angle.
153. The answer is D. (Chapter 230) The patient’s ophthalmologic disorder is most consistent with anterior uveitis, also known as iritis. Pain and photophobia with an active
anterior chamber sediment (cell, flare, or hypopion) is characteristic of this disorder.
Uveitis is often a response to some underlying inflammatory condition, and a major goal
of management is to explore the broad differential. All of the listed items have been
associated with uveitis. However, based on the patient’s sex, race, and recent diagnosis
of restrictive lung disease, sarcoidosis is the most likely culprit.
154. The answer is C. (Chapter 230) The key to this problem is realizing that the
patient’s poor visual acuity resolves with pinhole, implying a pure refractive error. This
leaves essentially two possibilities: lens dislocation and myopia. The acute onset of
symptoms and severity of the visual impairment support the diagnosis of lens dislocation. Partial lens dislocation may also occur, resulting in the unusual symptom of unilateral diplopia. Surgery is required for lens removal and replacement with an implant.
155–156. The answer is D for both questions. (Chapter 230) Amaurosis fugax describes
a condition of transient, monocular, graying or blurring of all or part of the visual field.
The pathophysiology is similar to transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) of the cerebral circulation and involves the obstruction of retinal arterioles by cholesterol or fibrin platelet
emboli. Cholesterol emboli, also called Hollenhorst plaques, typically arise from atherosclerotic disease of the carotid artery and may presage future strokes. They are occasionally visible on fundoscopy as small refractile bodies within a retinal vessel. The key
to diagnosis is the transient nature of the symptoms. Management should focus on investigation and remedy of the source of the emboli and stroke prevention, typically with
antiplatelet drugs.
157. The answer is A. (Chapter 230) Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) is a true
ophthalmologic emergency relating to obstructed blood supply to the retina. Reestablishment of retinal circulation must be accomplished within 90 min of symptom onset. Persistent visual loss beyond 2 h offers little hope for recovery. Therapeutic interventions
focus on dislodging and dissolving the clot and include (1) anterior chamber paracentesis, which may decompress the eye and dislodge the clot, (2) intermittent (on and off)
ocular massage, (3) inhalation of carbon dioxide, which causes retinal artery dilation and
an improved perfusion gradient, and (4) acute anticoagulation. CRAO has been associated with hypertension, diabetes, vascular disease, sickle cell anemia, and glaucoma. The
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cherry-red spot refers to the macula, which has an alternate blood supply and appears
bright red against the pale background of the ischemic retina.
158. The answer is B. (Chapter 230) Central retinal vein occlusion distinguishes itself
from other causes of painless monocular vision loss with its characteristic fundoscopic
findings. Retinal vein dilation and diffuse hemorrhages, sometimes described as “blood
and thunder,” contrast markedly with the pale retina of central artery occlusion or the relatively normal-appearing fundi of temporal arteritis and amaurosis fugax. Malignant
hypertension can produce similar appearing flame hemorrhages, but the process is invariably bilateral, and the visual impact tends to be less marked.
159. The answer is B. (Chapter 230) This patient has optic neuritis, defined as inflammation or demyelination of any portion of the optic nerve. Classic signs and symptoms
include visual loss of variable severity and dull eye pain that typically is worse with eye
movement. Patients also describe a dimness to their vision and a loss of color intensity.
When the optic disc is involved, it appears swollen and hypervascular. Causes include
MS, Lyme disease, lupus, sarcoid, syphilis, and toxin exposure. Optic neuritis is a classic
first presentation of MS as is diplopia because of lesions of the medial lateral fasciculus.
This patient’s age and prior neurologic symptoms support the diagnosis of MS.
160. The answer is E. (Chapter 230) This patient is describing a classic, prodromal aura
of migraine headaches. Typical aura symptoms precede the headache, last 10–15 min,
and consist of a wide range of photoimagery: scotomas, scintillations, flashing lights, and
even visual hallucinations. Although amaurosis fugax and TIA can present with scotoma,
these are unlikely to occur in this age group or in association with headache. Retinal
detachment would not resolve with time, and subarachnoid hemorrhage, although still a
consideration, should have meningismus and no aura.
161. The answer is B. (Chapter 230) Patients with functional blindness fall into two categories: hysterical conversion reaction and malingering. “No light perception” vision in
the setting of a normal pupillary response and an absent afferent pupillary defect strongly
suggest functional blindness. Cortical visual tracts can be tested by eliciting optokinetic
nystagmus. This is an involuntary reflex in which the affected eye tracks objects moving
in a horizontal direction, e.g., a tape measure moving back and forth or a spinning top
with painted vertical lines. Cortical blindness can occur with bilateral occipital infarction
(unlikely in this patient).
162. The answer is E. (Chapter 230) Homonymous visual field cuts imply a postchiasmal
location of the abnormality because this is the first point where fibers from the same
visual field of both eyes join. Fibers further divide between the thalamus and occipital
lobe into upper and lower quadrant visual fields. The most common location for quadranopsia defects is the occiptal lobe. Stroke, tumor, and atypical migraine may present with
quadranopsia. Visual fields are named from the perspective of the patient, i.e., the right
visual field corresponds to the left side of the retina. Therefore, a right-sided visual field
cut involves the left-sided neurologic tracks.
163. The answer is A. (Chapter 230) Primary open angle glaucoma is the most common
form of glaucoma, accounting for more than 90 percent of cases. It is currently the leading
cause of blindness in the United States. Attacks of closed angle glaucoma are precipitated
by events resulting in prolonged pupillary dilatation: dimly lit rooms, anticholinergic and
sympathomimetic medications, and emotional upset that can produce increased adrenergic
outflow. Headache, nausea, and abdominal pain may be more pronounced in presenting
symptoms than eye complaints. Laser iridectomy represents definitive therapy.
164. The answer is D. (Chapter 230) Cataract formation is a complication of prolonged
steroid use. The short-term limited use of topical steroids in the ED does not pose a risk
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for cataracts. Use of steroids in Herpes simplex infections must be avoided all costs.
However, their use in a variety of inflammatory conditions such as iritis, Herpes zoster
reactivations, or allergic conjunctivitis can be highly beneficial.
165. The answer is E. (Chapter 231) Necrotizing external otitis, also called malignant
external otitis, is a dreaded progression of otitis externa. This disease requires aggressive
treatment with anti-pseudomonal antibiotics. Eighty to ninety percent of cases occur in
elderly, diabetic patients, with the remainder in debilitated or immunocompromised
hosts. Swimmers commonly contract a benign, self-limited form of otitis externa.
166. The answer is D. (Chapter 231) Bullous myringitis is commonly associated with
Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection. It is a variant of acute otitis media, in which bullae
or vesicles are visualized on the tympanic membrane. These blebs resolve spontaneously
and require no specific therapy. Therapy of acute otitis media with bullous myringitis
consists of antipyretics, analgesics, and antibiotics directed at Mycoplasma species.
167. The answer is E. (Chapter 231) Acute mastoiditis is a serious complication of acute
otitis media. Symptoms of mastoiditis include otalgia, otorrhea, headache, and hearing
loss. Serious complications include osteitis, subperiosteal abscess, meningitis, facial
nerve palsies, and extension of the abscess into the neck (Bezold abscess). The tympanic
membrane may show erythema, opacity, perforation with drainage, or loss of landmarks.
A normal ear examination is present in fewer than 10 percent of cases.
168. The answer is E. (Chapter 231) In chronic mastoiditis, defined as lasting longer than
3 months, mixed infections are the most common. P. aeruginosa is the predominant
organism through Bacteroides species are also commonly found. Other causes of chronic
mastoiditis include Mycobacterium tuberculosis and sterile infection.
169. The answer is B. (Chapter 231) Although barotrauma, perforation, and otitis media can
cause hearing loss, cerumen impaction is the most likely cause. The resultant loss of conductive hearing would lead to an abnormal Weber test, with lateralization to the affected
ear. The Rinne test would demonstrate bone conduction greater than air conduction.
170. The answer is E. (Chapter 231) Unilateral sensory loss presents with a normal Rinne
test (air conduction greater than bone conduction) and a Weber test that lateralizes to the
unaffected ear. Viral neuronitis is the most common cause, with mumps as the most frequent agent in children. Acoustic neuromas and Meniere’s disease present less frequently
with hearing loss. Other uncommon etiologies of unilateral hearing loss include autoimmune disorders, blood dyscrasias, and idiopathic causes.
171. The answer is D. (Chapter 231) Tympanic membrane rupture commonly occurs
after direct trauma and blast injuries with changes in air or water pressure. Otitis media,
lightning strikes, and caustic exposure can also cause perforation. Whereas temporal
bone fracture can cause rupture, isolated mandible fracture does not.
172. The answer is A. (Chapter 231) Barotitis media (middle ear squeeze) is the most
common form of barotrauma in scuba divers. On descent, pressure on middle ear gas
increases. With eustachian tube dysfunction (due to anatomic abnormality or respiratory
infection), the tympanic membrane retracts, resulting in mucosal engorgement, hemorrhage, and often tympanic membrane perforation. The resultant cold water in the middle
ear commonly produces vertigo, nausea, and vomiting. Divers may also complain of
acute pain and diminished hearing secondary to conductive hearing loss.
173. The answer is D. (Chapter 233) Both infection and cocaine use can cause mucosal
erosions in the nose, resulting in epistaxis. Lowering blood pressure in a hypertensive
patient may aid in control of epistaxis after pain is controlled. Uremia-induced dysfunction
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in the normal clotting cascade may also contribute to epistaxis. Peptic ulcer disease by
itself does not cause epistaxis, and it is not a predisposing factor unless the patient takes
nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs.
174. The answer is C. (Chapter 233) History of drug use, both illicit and prescribed, is
important to ascertain in a patient presenting with epistaxis. Cocaine and medications
that interfere with the normal clotting cascade may predispose to bleeding. In addition,
liver disease or hemophilia can make achieving hemostasis challenging. A sensation of
blood in the back of the throat suggests a more serious posterior bleed. Ear pain does not
by itself aid in the evaluation of epistaxis.
175. The answer is C. (Chapter 233) Direct pressure applied for 5 to 10 min is the initial
means of managing epistaxis. If a bleeding vessel is identified and the bleeding is temporarily controlled, cautery with a silver nitrate stick often provides definitive treatment.
Nasal packing with a sponge or petroleum gauze is also efficacious, but the packing is
uncomfortable and it must remain in place. Topical vasoconstrictive agents such as
cocaine have been described to aid in the control of anterior epistaxis, but these agents
must be used with caution in elderly patients. Embolization may play a role in the management of posterior, but not anterior, hemorrhage.
176. The answer is E. (Chapter 233) The failure rate of anterior nasal packing is about 25
percent. Anemia may result when anterior nasal packing fails to control the bleeding. Posterior dislodgment of nasal packing may occur but was more common in the past when
physicians made their own packing material. Sinusitis and toxic shock syndrome have
both been described as complications. Vertigo should not be attributed to nasal packing.
177. The answer is C. (Chapter 233) Bleeding from both nares is more often associated
with a posterior source because the site of hemorrhage is closer to the choanae and blood
may cross the midline. The sensation of blood in the oropharynx is also more common
with a posterior bleed. Anterior bleeding usually remains unilateral and rarely flows
down the throat unless the patient is supine. Epistaxis-associated syncope suggests a
large blood loss, making a posterior source more likely. A nasal foreign body is more
likely to cause an anterior bleed secondary to erosion or irritation of the nasal mucosa.
178. The answer is D. (Chapter 233) The nasal bones are protected to some extent by
surrounding cartilaginous tissue. Blows to cartilage are less likely to produce fractures
than are strikes directly to bone. Lateral forces are more likely to produce fractures
because there is no cartilaginous padding. Barotrauma has little role in nasal fractures. A
simple nasal fracture is a clinical diagnosis and does not require x-ray confirmation.
179. The answer is B. (Chapter 233) The main complications of nasal fractures are fractures to the cribriform plate and nasoseptal hematoma. Patients with nasal fractures must
always be assessed for the presence of septal hematoma. Untreated septal hematomas
often become infected and can result in avascular necrosis. Cartilaginous destruction
occurs from compromised blood flow and may cause a cosmetic deformity known as the
saddle deformity. Extraocular movements are typically unaffected by simple nasal
trauma. If impaired, an orbital wall fracture must be sought.
180. The answer is D. (Chapter 233) Diagnosing nasal foreign bodies in small children
requires a high degree of clinical suspicion. Older children are less likely to place objects
into their noses. Clinicians should suspect a foreign body when a young child presents
with persistent nasal drainage, sinusitis, or epistaxis. Although common in children,
recurrent otitis media has not been associated with the presence of a nasal foreign body.
181. The answer is B. (Chapter 233) Sinusitis can be debilitating for patients and difficult
for clinicians to treat. Acutely, the major causes of sinusitis tend to be aerobic bacteria.
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Anaerobes should be suspected with persistent symptoms. Bacteroides species are more
often implicated in chronic than in acute sinusitis.
182. The answer is B. (Chapter 233) Sinusitis can have grave consequences if left
untreated. Local infiltration into the surrounding bone and soft tissues causes spreading
infection. Cellulitis, both periorbital and facial, is a well-documented complication. In
addition, sinusitis can lead to facial abscesses or subdural empyemas. Pott’s Puffy tumor
results from destruction of the anterior table of the frontal bone, with local abscess formation. Mastoiditis is not commonly seen after sinusitis.
183. The answer is D. (Chapter 249) Mandibular fractures produce a variety of signs and
symptoms. Limited range of motion of the jaw, deformity of the dental arch, and malocclusion are prominent features. Mental nerve anesthesia and sublingual hematomas are
often overlooked. Subconjunctival hemorrhage, although seen in mid-face fractures, does
not commonly occur with mandible fractures.
184. The answer is A. (Chapter 249) The angle of the mandible is the most commonly
fractured portion. This is closely followed by the condyle, molar, and mental regions.
With angle fractures, the proximal segment is often displaced superiorly to the distal segment. This is caused by the pterygomasseteric sling pulling the proximal segment
upward. Most mandible fractures heal well with intermaxillary fixation (wiring the upper
and lower teeth in occlusion).
185. The answer is D. (Chapter 249) Symptoms of ZMC fractures include epistaxis,
diplopia from disrupted and entrapped extraocular muscles, and facial emphysema (from
fracture of the maxillary sinus causing air in the local tissues). In addition, subconjunctival
hemorrhage can occur from blood tracking from fracture sites along the maxilla. Mental
nerve anesthesia is often seen in mandibular fractures but less commonly in ZMC fractures.
186. The answer is B. (Chapter 249) Orbital floor fractures occur from direct blows to
the globe that cause transmitted forces to the orbital encasement. The orbital floor is the
weakest structure and is most commonly fractured. Extraocular muscles or the surrounding fat may become trapped in an orbital floor fracture, leading to diplopia. Sinusitis may
be a complication if the orbital floor fracture extends into the maxillary sinus. As the
sinus fills with blood, a fertile culture medium for bacteria is produced. Corneal abrasions, epistaxis, and traumatic retinal detachment may also be seen after facial trauma.
187. The answer is C. (Chapter 249) LeForte III fractures extend through the frontozygomatic suture lines, across the orbits, and through the base of the nose. The LeForte II fracture, also known as the pyramidal fracture because of its extension in a pyramidal fashion
through the maxilla, does not involve the zygomatic suture lines. The LeForte I fracture is
even more limited and involves only the maxilla. All the LeForte-type fractures produce
a free-floating jaw in which the body of the maxilla is separated from the base of the skull
superior to the palate. Mandibular fractures tend not to involve the suture lines.
188. The answer is C. (Chapter 249) A patient who presents with clear nasal discharge
after a facial injury must be suspected of having CSF rhinorrhea. Of the fractures listed,
this is most commonly a complication of a LeForte III injury that extends through the
cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone. CSF leaks through the torn meninges, providing a
direct communication with the subarachnoid space. If a CSF leak is undetected and
untreated, brain abscess or encephalitis may develop.
189. The answer is A. (Chapter 232) In most mandible dislocations, the condyle of the
mandible is displaced anteriorly as the condyle slips out of the TMJ fossa. The muscles of
the mandible may spasm, causing trismus and making reduction more difficult. Reduction
consists of downward pressure on the mandible while the jaw is opened wide to free the
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condyle from its dislocated position anterior to the eminence. After relocation, the chin is
pressed backward to allow the mandible to return to the fossa as the jaw is closed.
190. The answer is C. (Chapter 232) TMJ syndrome is a common and debilitating problem. Symptoms include bruxism (grinding of teeth), crepitus over the joint, earache, and
tinnitus from proximity to the facial nerves. Dysphonia is not a common presenting
symptom of TMJ syndrome because word enunciation does not typically involve much
mandible movement. TMJ treatment includes analgesics, muscle relaxants, warm compresses, dental occlusions to limit bruxism, and stress reduction.
191. The answer is A. (Chapter 232) Although diabetes can place a patient at risk by
causing dehydration, it is not a primary cause of sialoadenitis. Causes of acute salivary
gland dysfunction include irradiation, paramyxovirus (mumps), phenothiazines, and uremia. Systemic diseases such as tuberculosis, actinomycoses, and sarcoidosis may present
with chronic sialoadenitis. Squamous carcinomas and lymphomas are also in the differential of enlarged salivary glands. Treatment is directed at the underlying disease.
192. The answer is E. (Chapter 232) More than 80 percent of salivary calculi are found in
the submandibular gland. Five to twenty percent occur in the parotid gland, with only rare
formation in the sublingual gland. Lacrimal glands do not contain salivary calculi. Meibomian glands are located on the eyelid, and obstruction may lead to chalazion formation.
193. The answer is D. (Chapter 235) Stridor occurs when there is a narrowing of the
hypopharynx. It is classically seen with advanced epiglottitis, as air traverses through a
narrowed opening. PTAs tend to not produce enough airway compromise to produce stridor. Drooling, muffled voice, sore throat, and trismus all occur frequently.
194. The answer is A. (Chapter 235) Retropharyngeal abscesses occur predominately in
children younger than 5 years. Complications include mediastinitis secondary to spread
via contiguous fascial planes, airway obstruction, empyema, and erosion into the
carotid artery. A lateral soft tissue x-ray of the neck is diagnostic in up to 88 percent
of cases and should be performed at the bedside if there is any concern for impending
airway obstruction.
195. The answer is D. (Chapter 234) Ludwig’s angina is a potentially life-threatening
infection of the submandibular space involving the connective tissue, fascia, and muscles, but not the glands. Patients frequently give a history of recent odontogenic infection. Ludwig’s angina often produces trismus, dysphonia, and dysphagia. The infected
tissues are often indurated (described as “brawny” edema) but not fluctuant. In addition
to assessing for airway compromise, broad-spectrum antibiotics and emergent consultation for possible surgical drainage are the mainstays of treatment.
196. The answer is D. (Chapter 234) Ludwig’s angina occurs most frequently in previously healthy males age 20 to 60 years. Alcoholism, diabetes, and SLE may also be predisposing factors. Because one-third of patients ultimately require tracheostomy or
intubation, airway equipment should be at the bedside of any patient suspected of having
this diagnosis.
GASTROENTEROLOGIC
EMERGENCIES
QUESTIONS
DIRECTIONS:
Each question below contains five suggested responses. Choose the one best response to each question.
197. All of the following are contraindications to passing
a nasogastric tube EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
suspected perforation of the esophagus
confirmed perforation of the esophagus
history of esophageal varices
nearly complete obstruction of the esophagus
due to benign or malignant strictures
(E) presence of an esophageal foreign body
198. A 5-year-old male presents to the ED 3 h after a
possible button battery ingestion. The patient is in no
acute distress, vital signs are stable, and examination is
benign. A chest x-ray shows what appears to be a small
button battery in the stomach. Which of the following is
the MOST appropriate next action?
(A) Upper GI series to further delineate the exact
location of the foreign body
(B) Attempt battery removal by the Foley balloon
catheter technique
(C) Immediate GI consultation for endoscopic
removal
(D) Immediate surgical consultation
(E) Discharge to home with parental observation
and weekly radiographs
199. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding PUD?
(A) Cigarette smoking is not a predisposing factor
(B) NSAIDs destroy gastric mucosa by increasing
secretion of hydrochloric acid
(C) There is an association with infection with
Helicobacter pylori
(D) Patients classically complain of burning epigastric pain that occurs immediately after eating a spicy meal
(E) Broad-spectrum antibiotics to treat H. pylori
are considered first-line therapy
200. A 44-year-old male with a long history of alcohol
use and presumptive gastritis presents to the ED complaining of sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and
vomiting. Vital signs are blood pressure (BP) of 110/60
mm Hg, heart rate of 110 beats per minute, temperature
of 101°F, and respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute.
Examination is remarkable for diaphoresis and epigastric tenderness with mild guarding. Laboratory work-up
is within normal limits except for a white blood cell
count (WBC) of 30,000 and an amylase level of 2,000.
Chest x-ray shows a small amount of free air under the
diaphragm. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
(A) Acute pancreatitis with associated MalloryWeiss syndrome
(B) Acute pancreatitis with associated Boerhaave’s
syndrome
(C) Acute pancreatitis with associated enzymatic
destruction of bowel wall
(D) Acute pancreatitis secondary to anterior duodenal ulcer perforation
(E) Acute pancreatitis secondary to posterior duodenal ulcer perforation
201. When assessing a patient for acute appendicitis,
which of the following describes the obturator sign?
(A) Pain produced by internal rotation of the fixed
right thigh with the patient supine
(B) Pain produced by external rotation of the fixed
right thigh with the patient supine
(C) Pain produced by extension of the right thigh
with the patient in the left lateral decubitus
position
(D) Pain sensation in the right lower quadrant with
palpation of the left lower quadrant
(E) Cutaneous hyperesthesia in the T10, T11, and
T12 dermatomes
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68
G ASTROENTEROLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
202. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding radiographic differences in appearance between the
small and large bowels?
205. A 55-year-old male without significant medical history presents to the ED with the complaint of left lower
quadrant pain and constipation. Vital signs are temperature of 100.5°F, pulse of 85, BP of 150/80, and respiratory rate of 12. The patient’s physical examination is
unremarkable except for mild left lower quadrant tenderness without guarding and rebound. Rectal examination shows heme-negative stool and no tenderness.
Laboratory examinations, including a chemistry panel,
are within normal limits except for a WBC of 13,000
with a left shift. Which of the following would be the
MOST appropriate management for this patient?
(A) Transverse linear densities that arise from the
bowel wall and extend part way into the lumen
are characteristically seen in the small intestine
(B) Haustrae are the transverse linear densities
found in the small intestine
(C) Transverse linear densities that extend completely across the bowel lumen are found in
the colon
(D) Plicae circulares are the transverse linear
densities found in the colon
(E) Haustrae are less numerous and situated farther
apart than plicae circulares
203. Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor
for the development of a hernia?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Ascites
Obesity
Cystic fibrosis
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Peritoneal dialysis
204. All of the following are TRUE regarding Crohn’s
disease EXCEPT
(A) it is characterized by segmental involvement of
the intestinal tract
(B) there is an associated 10- to 30-fold increase in
the development of carcinoma of the colon
(C) approximately 90 percent of patients develop
perianal fissures, fistulas, abscesses, or rectal
prolapse
(D) extraintestinal manifestations include arthritis,
dermatitis, and hepatobiliary disease
(E) peak incidence occurs between ages 15 and
22 years
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Prompt surgical evaluation in the ED
Emergent upper GI series
Emergent barium enema
Discharge to home with bowel rest and
oral antibiotics
(E) Discharge home with repeat abdominal examination in 12 h or sooner if worse
206. Which of the following is the MOST common cause
of painful rectal bleeding?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Internal hemorrhoids
External hemorrhoids
Diverticulitis
Anal fissure
Rectal foreign body
207. Which one of the following infectious etiologies of
diarrhea accounts for the highest percentage of cases?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Bacterial
Parasitic
Undetermined
Viral
Fungal
208. All of the following are TRUE regarding acalculous
cholecystitis EXCEPT
(A) it occurs in 5 to 10 percent of patients with
acute cholecystitis
(B) patients are frequently elderly and have a
history of diabetes
(C) it often occurs as a complication of another
process
(D) diagnosis is difficult due to the subtle clinical
presentation
(E) gallstones are absent
G ASTROENTEROLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
69
209. All of the following statements regarding hepatitis
are TRUE EXCEPT
213. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding acute abdominal pain?
(A) the incubation period for hepatitis A is 15 to
50 days
(B) hepatitis B is primarily spread through blood
and body fluids
(C) although the clinical course of hepatitis C is
milder than that of hepatitis B, there is more
risk for later development of cirrhosis and
hepatocellular carcinoma with hepatitis C
(D) hepatitis D can cause both acute and
chronic hepatitis
(E) although the clinical course is similar, there is
a lower rate of fulminant liver failure and
death from hepatitis E than from hepatitis A.
210. Which of the following drugs is NOT associated
with acute pancreatitis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Heparin
Furosemide
Rifampin
Salicylates
Warfarin
211. Which of the following etiologic agents is the MOST
common cause of infection in liver transplant patients?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Candida
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes simplex virus
P. carinii
L. monocytogenes
212. In working up a patient with acute abdominal pain,
which of the following etiologies is LEAST likely to
represent an immediate life threat?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Myocardial infarction
Splenic rupture
Abdominal aortic aneurysm
Perforated duodenal ulcer
Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
(A) Peritonitis causes a visceral type of pain and
is secondary to peritoneal inflammation from
an irritant
(B) Obstruction of a hollow viscus produces a
colicky, diffuse visceral pain associated with
nausea and vomiting
(C) Intraabdominal causes of pain include
bacterial peritonitis, bowel ischemia, and
tuboovarian abscess
(D) Referred pain from the abdomen may radiate
to the back or groin, but not into the thorax
(E) Metabolic disorders are rarely a significant
source of acute abdominal pain
214. All of the following are TRUE regarding the evaluation of a patient with acute abdominal pain EXCEPT
(A) the onset, location, and severity of pain are
useful differentiating factors
(B) the most important physical examination
modality is palpation
(C) the WBC may be normal even in inflammatory
conditions such as appendicitis
(D) ultrasonography is a valuable imaging tool
increasingly available to emergency physicians
(E) analgesic medications should be withheld until
a surgeon evaluates the patient because they
may obscure the diagnosis
215. Which of the following is the MOST common cause
of upper GI bleeding?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Esophageal varices
Mallory-Weiss tear
PUD
Erosive gastritis
Arteriovenous malformations
216. A patient presents with what appears to be massive
lower GI hemorrhage. Which one of the following is the
LEAST likely etiology?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Diverticulosis
Angiodysplasia
Gastric varices
Duodenal ulcer
Hemorrhoids
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G ASTROENTEROLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
217. A 56-year-old male with a history of heavy alcohol
use presents to the ED complaining of vomiting blood
for several hours. Vital signs are BP of 90/60, pulse of
110, respiratory rate of 16, and temperature of 98°F.
Primary resuscitative measures are begun, and placement of an NGT shows active bright red bleeding.
Which of the following is the treatment of choice?
221. Which of the following is TRUE regarding meat
impaction in the esophagus?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Tamponade with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube
Therapeutic upper GI endoscopy
Octreotide infusion
Vasopressin infusion
Immediate referral for surgical intervention
218. Which of the following is a mechanical or obstructive cause of dysphagia?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Aortic aneurysm
Candida esophagitis
Multiple sclerosis
Scleroderma
Gastroesophageal reflux
219. Which one of the following statements regarding
esophageal trauma is TRUE?
(A) Ingestion of lye causes a partial-thickness burn
to the mucosa
(B) Contrast studies are contraindicated if a
perforation is suspected
(C) Swallowed foreign bodies may cause a
partial-thickness laceration that leads to
severe bleeding
(D) Mallory-Weiss syndrome involves a laceration
of the otherwise normal esophagus after
repeated emesis
(E) Boerhaave’s syndrome is a full-thickness perforation, usually leading to severe mediastinitis
220. Which one of the following patients who swallowed
a foreign body is MOST likely to require endoscopy or
surgery for definitive treatment?
(A) An asymptomatic child with a button battery
shown to be in the stomach on x-ray
(B) A 34-year-old male with an impacted piece of
steak, who is tolerating his secretions well
(C) A 6-year-old male who swallowed a penny
that appears to be in the esophagus on x-ray
(D) An adult psychiatric patient who swallowed a
razor blade
(E) A 22-year-old male who swallowed heavily
wrapped cocaine that appears to have passed
the pylorus
(A) Endoscopy should be performed within 6 h,
even in patients who are handling their own
secretions
(B) Esophageal pathology is present in up to 50
percent of patients
(C) Glucagon, nifedipine, and meat tenderizer
should all be tried before endoscopy
(D) After the patient feels the bolus has passed, a
barium swallow should be performed
(E) Patients without airway compromise can be
observed as outpatients and scheduled for a
24-h follow-up
222. In a young, otherwise healthy patient with a newly
suspected diagnosis of PUD, what would be the MOST
appropriate course of action in the ED?
(A) Begin symptomatic and therapeutic treatment
with cimetidine
(B) Immediate referral for endoscopy
(C) Begin empiric treatment of H. pylori with a
triple antibiotic regimen
(D) Begin combination therapy with an H2 receptor
antagonist, proton pump inhibitor, and antacids
(E) Begin therapy with sucralfate and order an
H. pylori breath test
223. In a patient with PUD, all of the following clinical
signs or symptoms should raise concern of a complication EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
passage of melanotic stool
burning epigastric pain occurring every night
abrupt onset of mid-back pain
repeated episodes of vomiting over the
previous 12 h
(E) severe, diffuse abdominal pain
G ASTROENTEROLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
71
224. A 25-year-old male presents to the ED with abdominal pain. His pain is vague, periumbilical, and associated with anorexia and nausea. He is afebrile with
normal vital signs. Physical examination is normal
except for mild umbilical discomfort, without guarding
or rebound. Initial work-up includes a normal CBC and
urinalysis. Which one of the following would be the
LEAST appropriate course of action?
228. Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding
hernias in children?
(A) Abdominal computed tomography (CT) to
evaluate for appendicitis
(B) Abdominal ultrasound to evaluate for
appendicitis
(C) Coverage with broad-spectrum antibiotics for
acute appendicitis
(D) Observation with surgical consultation if
symptoms progress
(E) Observation and discharge home with close
follow-up if symptoms resolve
225. Which of the following scenarios may represent
acute appendicitis?
(A) A 4-year-old male with vomiting and lethargy
(B) A 75-year-old female with fever and
abdominal pain
(C) A 26-year-old female who is 32 weeks pregnant with right upper quadrant pain
(D) A 45-year-old male with AIDS and who has
vomiting and diarrhea
(E) All of the above
226. What is the MOST common cause of large bowel
obstruction?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Adhesions
Incarcerated hernia
Diverticulitis
Neoplasm
Sigmoid volvulus
227. Which of the following is TRUE regarding small
bowel obstruction?
(A) It is rarely associated with abdominal pain
(B) It usually presents with clear, nonbilious
vomiting
(C) Diffuse, severe abdominal tenderness indicates
secondary peritonitis
(D) X-ray shows air-filled bowel with prominent
haustrae
(E) Nasogastric tube decompression is generally
ineffective
(A) All umbilical hernias should be referred for
immediate surgical repair
(B) Inguinal hernias usually resolve spontaneously
(C) Umbilical hernias are highly prone to
incarceration
(D) Indirect inguinal hernias are caused by
congenital failure of the processus vaginalis
to close
(E) Umbilical hernias are caused by congenital
weakness of the linea albus of the rectus sheath
229. All of the following statements are TRUE regarding
hernias EXCEPT
(A) indirect inguinal hernias result from congenital
defects and frequently incarcerate
(B) direct inguinal hernias result from acquired
defects in the transversalis fascia and rarely
incarcerate
(C) femoral hernias occur more commonly in
males and frequently incarcerate
(D) acquired umbilical hernias are associated
with obesity and pregnancy and frequently
incarcerate
(E) pelvic hernias are extremely rare but
may occur through the sciatic and
obturator foramina
230. All the following are TRUE regarding Crohn’s disease EXCEPT
(A) up to 50 percent of patients have involvement
of both small bowel and colon
(B) extraintestinal manifestations are common and
include arthritis, uveitis, and liver disease
(C) abscesses and fistulas are frequent complications
(D) Up to 10 percent of patients develop perianal
complications
(E) Obstruction can occur as a result of stricture
formation and bowel-wall edema
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G ASTROENTEROLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
231. A healthy 25-year-old male complains of constant
throbbing rectal pain that worsens immediately before
defecation. Examination is remarkable for a temperature
of 101.5°F and a tender, fluctuant, erythematous mass
in the perianal region. Fullness and induration are
appreciated on rectal examination. What would be the
MOST appropriate course of action?
235. A 40-year-old female with known gallstones presents with colicky right upper quadrant pain and vomiting. She has a history of similar episodes that usually
resolve after 3 to 4 h. Vital signs are BP of 110/60,
pulse of 78, respiratory rate of 16, and temperature of
98.4°F. Physical examination shows a mildly tender
right upper quadrant without signs of peritonitis. Which
one of the following would be LEAST appropriate in
her ED management?
(A) Discharge home with instructions for sitz baths
and bulk laxatives
(B) Discharge home with instructions for sitz baths
and topical steroid cream
(C) Incision and drainage in the ED using local
anesthetic
(D) Anoscopy to evaluate for internal hemorrhoids
or cryptitis
(E) Surgical consultation for incision and drainage
in the operating room
232. Which of the following is TRUE regarding hemorrhoids?
(A) Internal hemorrhoids are usually painful and
associated with heavy bleeding
(B) External hemorrhoids are relatively painless
and rarely thrombose
(C) Internal hemorrhoids are usually nonpalpable
and best evaluated with anoscopy
(D) Both internal and external hemorrhoids require
prompt surgical referral for treatment
(E) Thrombosed internal hemorrhoids may be
treated with excision of the clots in the ED
233. Which of the following causes of constipation may
NOT be safely managed on an outpatient basis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Hypothyroidism
Fecal impaction
Hyperparathyroidism
Lead poisoning
Sigmoid volvulus
234. Which of the following is the MOST common presentation of gallstones?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Acute pancreatitis
Acute cholecystitis
Biliary colic
Ascending cholangitis
Gallbladder empyema
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Intravenous fluid administration
Pain control with opiate analgesics
Pain control with ketorolac
Antiemetic administration
Immediate surgical consultation
236. All of the following are TRUE regarding acute
rejection in liver transplant patients EXCEPT
(A) acute rejection is most commonly seen 7 to
14 days posttransplant
(B) clinical presentation is easily differentiated
from postoperative complications
(C) it may be triggered at any time by tapering of
immunosuppressive agents
(D) diagnosis can only be made with certainty by
ultrasound with biopsy
(E) acute rejection is managed primarily by
high-dose glucocorticoids
237. All of the following are causes of unconjugated
hyperbilirubinemia EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
acetaminophen poisoning
hemolytic anemia
transfusion reaction
congestive heart failure
sickle cell anemia
238. A 35-year-old male who was exposed to hepatitis
A presents with new-onset jaundice and vomiting.
Vital signs are normal, and physical examination
shows mild hepatomegaly with right upper quadrant
tenderness. Laboratory studies show an ALT of 300
U/L; total bilirubin of 9 mg/dL; prothrombin time of
16.0 s (normal 10.0–12.0 s), and glucose of 75
mg/dL. After intravenous fluid administration, vomiting resolves, and he is able to tolerate oral hydration.
Which of the following would indicate that the patient
should be admitted to the hospital?
(A) Elevated ALT, indicating hepatocellular
damage
(B) Hyperglycemia
(C) Symptomatic vomiting
(D) Prolonged prothrombin time
(E) Age 30 years
G ASTROENTEROLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
73
239. What is the MOST common cause of pancreatitis in
an urban hospital setting?
242. A patient who has recently undergone gastrointestinal surgery presents to the ED with abdominal pain and
vomiting. Which of the following would be the LEAST
likely surgical complication?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Cholelithiasis
Alcoholism
Abdominal trauma
Penetrating peptic ulcer
Salicylate poisoning
240. Which of the following is NOT a complication of
acute pancreatitis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
Myocardial depression
Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)
Malabsorption
Pancreatic pseudocyst
241. A 55-year-old female presents to the ED with a
fever 4 days after undergoing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. What is the MOST likely cause of the fever?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Pneumonia
Thrombophlebitis
Urinary tract infection
Wound infection
Deep venous thrombosis
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Intestinal obstruction
Intraabdominal abscess
Pancreatitis
Cholecystitis
Pseudomembranous colitis
243. A patient with suspected cholelithiasis presents to
the ED. What is the initial imaging study of choice?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Abdominal plain film
Abdominal ultrasound
Abdominal CT
Radionuclide scan (HIDA)
Barium contrast radiography
GASTROENTEROLOGIC
EMERGENCIES
ANSWERS
197. The answer is C. (Chapter 71) A nasogastric tube (NGT) is useful for diagnostic
purposes in the setting of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding; most cases of esophageal
injuries are due to ingestion, intestinal obstruction, and multisystem trauma. An NGT
should not be attempted in patients with actual or suspected perforations of the esophagus, nearly complete obstruction of the esophagus due to benign or malignant strictures,
or the presence of an esophageal foreign body. Patients with esophageal varices may be
bleeding from another GI source. If bleeding is profuse, the source should be confirmed
by endoscopy. For patients with severe facial trauma, an orogastric tube should be placed
instead of an NGT.
198. The answer is E. (Chapter 72) Button batteries lodged in the esophagus require emergency removal to avoid esophageal burns and perforation. If the button battery has passed
the esophagus and the patient is asymptomatic, home observation with serial x-rays to
ensure passage through the pylorus is the appropriate course of action. Most button batteries that have passed the esophagus will transit through the entire body within 24 to 48
h without difficulty. If the battery is of large diameter and the patient is younger than 6
years, the battery is less likely to pass, and endoscopic retrieval is the preferred treatment.
199. The answer is C. (Chapter 73) Cigarette smoking is a predisposing factor for peptic
ulcer disease (PUD), possibly due to an inhibition of bicarbonate ion production or to
increased gastric emptying. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) inhibit
prostaglandin synthesis and thus bicarbonate production and mucosal blood flow, allowing ulcer formation. Although H. pylori infection is associated with PUD, treatment is
not necessarily associated with resolution of the symptoms. Patients with PUD typically
complain of burning epigastric pain that occurs 1 to 3 h after a meal or wakes them in
the middle of the night. Elderly patients with PUD are less likely to experience pain than
their younger counterparts.
200. The answer is E. (Chapter 83) Because the pancreas adheres to the posterior duodenum, ruptured posterior duodenal ulcers generally penetrate into the pancreas rather than
perforate into the free peritoneum. Anterior ulcers are more likely to perforate into the
peritoneal cavity. A Mallory-Weiss tear of the esophageal wall usually presents with
symptoms similar to reflux esophagitis and causes moderate, self-limited bleeding.
Patients with Boerhaave’s syndrome rapidly deteriorate to a state of shock and septicemia due to a malignant mediastinitis.
201. The answer is A. (Chapter 74) An inflamed appendix may irritate the obturator muscle. The obturator sign is present when a supine patient complains of right lower quadrant pain during passive internal rotation of the flexed right thigh, a motion that stretches
the obturator muscle. Other clinical signs of acute appendicitis include the psoas sign
(right lower quadrant pain on thigh extension with the patient in the left lateral decubitus position), Rovsing’s sign (right lower quadrant pain with palpation on the left), and
cutaneous hyperesthesia in the T10, T11, and T12 dermatomes.
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75
202. The answer is E. (Chapter 75) Large and small bowel obstructions can be distinguished radiographically by differences in appearance between the small intestine and
the colon. Plicae circulares are transverse linear densities found in the small intestine.
They extend completely across the bowel lumen. Haustrae are thicker, less numerous
projections located in the colon. They extend only partly into the lumen.
203. The answer is B. (Chapter 76) Ascites, peritoneal dialysis, ventriculoperitoneal
shunt, cystic fibrosis, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease all predispose patients
to hernia formation because they increase intraabdominal pressure. Other risk factors
include a positive family history, undescended testis, and genitourinary abnormalities.
204. The answer is B. (Chapter 77) There is a 10- to 30-fold increase in the development of colon cancer in patients with ulcerative colitis (UC), not Crohn’s disease. Firstdegree relatives of patients with UC have a 3.5-fold increased risk of developing
Crohn’s disease and a 15-fold increased risk of developing UC. Crohn’s disease is a
chronic inflammatory disease of the GI tract of unknown cause characterized by segmental involvement of the intestinal tract. Regional enteritis and terminal ileitis are
other terms used to describe the same disease.
205. The answer is D. (Chapter 77) The patient described in the scenario most likely has
diverticulitis. Patients with localized pain and no signs and symptoms of peritonitis or
systemic infection do not require hospitalization. Outpatient management consists of
bowel rest, broad-spectrum oral antibiotic therapy, and close follow-up.
206. The answer is D. (Chapter 78) Anal fissures result from a linear tear of the anal
canal beginning at or just below the dentate line and extending distally along the anal
canal. Patients complain of sharp, cutting pain, most severe during and immediately after
a bowel movement. Bleeding is scant and bright red. Anal fissures are especially painful
because of the rich supply of somatic sensory nerve fibers located in the anoderm.
207. The answer is D. (Chapter 79) Viruses cause the vast majority of infectious diarrheas. The most common agents are Rotavirus, Calicivirus, Astrovirus, and Norwalk
agent. Bacteria cause about 20 percent of cases of diarrhea by either direct invasion or
secondary to enterotoxin production. Parasites are next most common etiologic agents.
208. The answer is D. (Chapter 81) Acalculous cholecystitis occurs in 5 to 10 percent of
patients with acute cholecystitis. Patients frequently are elderly and have a history of diabetes mellitus. There are two distinguishing features of acalculous cholecystitis: (1) it
frequently occurs as a complication of another process and (2) patients frequently are
gravely ill on initial presentation.
209. The answer is E. (Chapter 82) Although hepatitis B is spread primarily through
blood and body fluids, up to 50 percent of cases have no clear etiology. The clinical
course of hepatitis C is milder than that for hepatitis B, but there is a greater risk for
long-term adverse complications. Hepatitis D is a cause of both acute and chronic hepatitis. Despite a similar clinical course, fulminant liver failure and death are more common
after infection with hepatitis E than with hepatitis A.
210. The answer is A. (Chapter 83) Drugs and toxins are major causes of acute pancreatitis. Some of the medications associated with the occurrence of acute pancreatitis are
oral contraceptives, estrogens, phenformin, glucocorticoids, rifampin, tetracycline, isoniazid, thiazide diuretics, furosemide, salicylates, indomethacin, calcium, warfarin, and
acetaminophen. Other etiologic factors contributing to the development of pancreatitis
include infection, collagen vascular disease, metabolic disturbances, and trauma.
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G ASTROENTEROLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
211. The answer is B. (Chapter 86) Complications of infections in liver transplant
patients account for nearly 90 percent of deaths. The most common infectious agent after
transplantation is Cytomegalovirus (CMV), a herpes virus. Reported occurrence ranges
from 23 to 85 percent of all liver transplant patients. Fortunately, CMV is rarely fatal.
212. The answer is D. (Chapter 68) When approaching a patient with acute abdominal
pain, the clinician must consider conditions that can be an immediate threat to the
patient’s life. Splenic rupture, ruptured ectopic pregnancy, and abdominal aortic
aneurysm can all be associated with massive bleeding and rapid decline. Extraabdominal
conditions that present with abdominal pain such as myocardial infarction can also be
life threatening. Perforated duodenal ulcers are serious but almost never result in significant hemorrhage, and thus are not usually an immediate threat to life.
213. The answer is B. (Chapter 68) Three types of pain responses are possible with acute
abdominal pain. Peritonitis is a somatic pain and is usually sharper, more constant, and
more localized than visceral pain. Obstruction of a hollow viscus is a common cause of
visceral pain and is colicky, intermittent, and usually mid-line. Referred pain is often felt
in the back, groin, or thighs. Patients may also complain of pain in the supraclavicular
region, especially if the diaphragm is irritated by collections of blood or pus. Abdominal
pain can arise from intraabdominal, extraabdominal, metabolic, or neurogenic origins.
Intraabdominal origins of pain are divided into three categories: peritoneal inflammation,
obstruction of a hollow viscus, and vascular etiologies. Extraabdominal sources can arise
from the abdominal wall, thorax, or pelvis (as in the case of tubo-ovarian abscess). Metabolic disorders such as diabetic ketoacidosis and sickle cell crisis often present with diffuse abdominal pain.
214. The answer is E. (Chapter 68) The evaluation of abdominal pain should begin with
a detailed history. The onset, severity, location, and character of pain and the presence of
associated symptoms guide work-up and treatment. Although a complete physical examination is necessary, palpation of the abdomen is the most important modality for diagnosis. Laboratory tests are useful adjuncts, but the limitations of a complete blood count
(CBC) must be recognized. Helpful imaging modalities include standard radiographs,
ultrasonography, barium contrast studies, and computed tomography. Intravenous opiate
analgesia is humane and may actually assist in diagnosis by facilitating physical examination in a patient who could otherwise not tolerate it.
215. The answer is C. (Chapter 70) Upper GI bleeding is defined as bleeding that originates proximal to the ligament of Treitz. PUD, including gastric, duodenal, and stomachal ulcers, is the most common cause of upper GI bleeding, accounting for nearly 60
percent of cases. The next most common etiologies for upper GI bleeding are erosive
gastritis, esophagitis, and duodenitis, together representing 15 percent of all cases. Gastric irritants such as alcohol, salicylates, and NSAIDs predispose patients to upper GI
bleeding. Esophageal and gastric varices account for only 6 percent of upper GI bleeding
but carry a high mortality rate. They result from portal hypertension and are seen most
commonly in patients with alcoholic liver disease. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is due to a
mucosal tear in the esophagus and is classically associated with repeated bouts of retching. Arteriovenous malformations are an uncommon cause of upper GI bleeding.
216. The answer is E. (Chapter 70) The most common cause of what initially appears to be
lower GI bleeding is actually bleeding from an upper GI source. Brisk bleeding from either
varices or PUD can be the cause of apparent lower GI hemorrhage. Diverticulosis and
angiodysplasia are the most common causes of confirmed lower GI bleeding. Both occur
more commonly in the elderly, are painless, and may be massive. Although hemorrhoids
are a common etiology of minor lower GI bleeding, they do not usually cause significant
hemorrhage. Other less frequent sources of lower GI bleeding include malignancies,
inflammatory bowel disease, polyps, infectious gastroenteritis, and Meckel’s diverticulum.
G ASTROENTEROLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
77
217. The answer is B. (Chapter 70) GI bleeding is a common problem seen in the ED and
is potentially life threatening. For patients with significant active bleeding, emergency
endoscopy is the treatment of choice. Esophageal varices can be treated endoscopically
with either band ligation or sclerotherapy, resulting in control of acute bleeding in up to
90 percent of patients. Hemostasis can be achieved with nonvariceal sources of bleeding
as well. Drug therapy with both octreotide and somatostatin reduces bleeding from both
varices and PUD and is a useful adjunct to endoscopy. Vasopressin therapy has largely
been discontinued due to a high rate of adverse effects including hypertension, arrhythmias, myocardial ischemia, and decreased cardiac output. Balloon tamponade can be
used as a temporizing measure to control bleeding by placing direct pressure on the gastric and esophageal mucosa. However, it is frequently associated with complications,
including mucosal ulceration, esophageal or gastric rupture, asphyxiation from dislodged
balloons, and aspiration pneumonia. Although it is appropriate to make a surgeon aware
of a critical patient, emergency surgical intervention is indicated only in those patients
who fail endoscopic hemostasis and medical therapy.
218. The answer is A. (Chapter 71) Dysphagia is an awareness of something wrong
with the smooth pattern of swallowing. Its presence, with or without odynophagia
(pain on swallowing), almost always indicates an esophageal problem. The two basic
causes of dysphagia are mechanical (narrowing or obstruction of the lumen) and
nonobstructive. Mechanical problems may arise from within the esophageal lumen, the
wall, or from sources outside the esophagus that compress extrinsically, such as the
thyroid or cardiovascular structures. Mechanical etiologies include swallowed foreign
bodies, esophageal tumors, hiatal hernias or compression from a goiter, enlarged
lymph nodes, or thoracic aortic aneurysm. Nonobstructive dysphagia can be either
motility related (from intrinsic muscular or nervous disorders) or nonmotility related
(from reflux or inflammation). Etiologies of nonobstructive dysphagia include scleroderma, esophageal spasm, stroke, reflux esophagitis, multiple sclerosis, and infection,
especially in immunocompromised patients.
219. The answer is E. (Chapter 71) Injuries to the esophagus may be classified as partial
thickness (involving the mucosa or submucosa) or full thickness (involving the muscle
layers). The esophagus has no serosa, so complete perforation tends to extend into the
mediastinum. Partial tears are often caused by swallowed objects and tend to heal spontaneously with some dysphagia, odynophagia, and mild upper GI bleeding. Ingestion of
caustic substances such as lye causes a more severe full-thickness injury, usually without
complete perforation. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is a type of partial-thickness laceration
that occurs in a weakened esophageal wall. It is caused by increased abdominal pressure,
usually from violent, repeated emesis. Boerhaave’s syndrome is a full-thickness perforation, also associated with violent emesis. Forceful expulsion of fluid through the perforation leads to a rapidly progressive mediastinitis. If perforation is suspected, water-soluble
contrast should be used in an imaging study to confirm the diagnosis.
220. The answer is D. (Chapter 72) Swallowed foreign bodies can be innocuous or life
threatening. Most objects pass spontaneously and can be managed expectantly. Adults
with meat impaction who are tolerating secretions can be watched for up to 12 h and will
usually pass the bolus with the aid of sedation and other adjunctive therapies. Children
with a coin lodged in the esophagus must have it removed but do not always need
endoscopy. Children who have ingested a button battery must have it removed if it
lodges in the esophagus. However, asymptomatic children with a battery in the stomach
can be observed. Cocaine ingestion is becoming increasingly common and can pose a
problem when the cocaine is loosely wrapped or fails to pass the pylorus. If a tightly
wrapped packet appears to be passing through the intestinal tract, observation is appropriate. Ingestion of sharp objects is more concerning. Large objects and those with
extremely sharp edges such as razor blades should be removed before they pass the
stomach because they are associated with a high perforation rate once past the pylorus.
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221. The answer is D. (Chapter 72) Patients who are managing their own secretions after
meat impaction can be treated expectantly. However, the impaction should not be
allowed to remain longer than 12 h. Endoscopy is the preferred method for removal, but
alternatives may be tried if it is not available. Glucagon, nifedipine, and sedation have all
been reported to work. Meat tenderizer has been advocated in the past but is not currently recommended because of the risk of complications from enzymatic action on the
esophagus. Up to 97 percent of patients with meat impaction have underlying esophageal
pathology, and a barium swallow should be performed to confirm passage and evaluate
pathologic conditions.
222. The answer is A. (Chapter 73) There are several approaches to the patient with suspected PUD. Traditional therapeutic regimens heal the ulcer, relieve pain, and prevent
complications, but do not prevent recurrence. Therapy with an H2 receptor antagonist,
proton pump inhibitor, sucralfate, or antacids would be appropriate. They have all been
shown to heal ulcers equally well when used alone, and combination therapy is rarely
necessary. Treatment of H. pylori infections is usually reserved for patients with documented infection. Serologic testing is used to detect H. pylori, and the breath test (using
carbon-labeled urea) is used primarily after treatment to confirm eradication of infection.
Immediate referral for definitive diagnosis by endoscopy may be indicated with concerning symptoms but is not necessary in an otherwise healthy patient.
223. The answer is B. (Chapter 73) PUD is characterized by burning epigastric pain that
is relieved by food. Pain typically recurs as the gastric contents empty, usually at night.
Complications of ulcer disease include hemorrhage, perforation, and gastric outlet
obstruction from scarring or edema at the pylorus. Signs and symptoms that should alert
the clinician to hemorrhage are the vomiting of bright red blood, coffee-ground emesis,
melena, or hematochezia. Perforation usually manifests with sudden, generalized abdominal pain due to peritonitis that results from leakage of gastric or duodenal contents. Perforation with posterior extension into the pancreas presents as abrupt back pain. Gastric
outlet obstruction typically leads to persistent nonbilious vomiting. Patients with any of
these complications require immediate resuscitation and specialty consultation.
224. The answer is C. (Chapter 74) The approach to a patient with possible appendicitis
can be difficult given the wide spectrum of presentations. Early in the course, pain may
not be localized to the right lower quadrant, and the patient is often afebrile. Diagnostic
imaging may be useful in suspicious, but atypical cases. Both CT and ultrasound have
been widely used, and local availability may determine which test is selected. Clinical
observation with serial examinations for 4 to 6 h is an alternative approach to imaging.
Patients whose examination progresses should have early surgical consultation. If the
clinical condition remains benign, a 12- to 24-h follow-up with instructions to return
sooner if the condition worsens is appropriate. Broad-spectrum antibiotics play an important role in the management of patients with appendicitis who are awaiting surgery.
However, they should not be given to patients with undiagnosed abdominal pain because
the antibiotics may obscure the diagnosis.
225. The answer is E. (Chapter 74) Certain groups of patients have atypical presentations
and are at risk for delayed diagnosis of acute appendicitis. Children younger than age 6
years have a rate of misdiagnosis approaching 57 percent and up to 90 percent perforation rates. Confounding factors include communication difficulties and atypical symptoms of peritonitis such as lethargy. Elderly patients also have a high incidence of
perforation, and symptoms may be subtle, even late in the course. Pregnant patients pose
difficulty because the gravid uterus changes the position of the appendix in the abdomen,
and pain may be in an unusual location. An ultrasound can aid in distinguishing a pelvic
from an abdominal etiology for the pain. Patients who are immunocompromised are susceptible to delayed diagnosis because of their frequent unrelated GI symptoms. CT is
helpful in differentiating surgical from nonsurgical conditions.
G ASTROENTEROLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
79
226. The answer is D. (Chapter 75) It is important to distinguish between large and small
bowel obstruction because treatment differs by the site of the obstruction. The most common cause of colonic obstruction is neoplasm, and anyone with symptoms of large bowel
obstruction should be evaluated for carcinoma. The next most frequent cause is diverticulitis, followed by sigmoid volvulus and, less commonly, cecal volvulus. Surgical adhesions are the most frequent cause of small bowel obstruction, followed by incarcerated
hernias and primary small bowel lesions.
227. The answer is C. (Chapter 75) Although the site and nature of the bowel obstruction
determines the clinical presentation, almost all patients complain of pain. Vomiting is
also uniformly present and is typically bilious with proximal obstruction and fecal with
distal obstruction. The presence of severe abdominal tenderness indicates a course complicated by peritonitis secondary to impending or actual perforation and requires immediate surgical consultation. Abdominal x-ray can confirm the diagnosis of bowel
obstruction, identify free air from a perforation, and localize the site of obstruction.
Transverse linear densities (plicae circulares) that extend completely across the bowel
lumen characterize the small bowel. Haustrae are found in large bowel. Although surgical intervention is usually required for confirmed mechanical obstruction, an NGT
should be placed for decompression of bowel contents and air.
228. The answer is D. (Chapter 76) Hernias are extremely common in children, with indirect inguinal and umbilical hernias being the most prevalent types. Failure of the processus vaginalis to close after the testis and spermatic cord (round ligament in females)
descend through the inguinal canal results in an indirect inguinal hernia. Inguinal hernias
are prone to incarceration and strangulation in the first year of life. Thus, they require
timely surgical consultation after ED reduction and are usually repaired electively shortly
after diagnosis. Umbilical hernias are more common in females and result from weakness
or incomplete development of the fibromuscular ring surrounding the umbilical cord.
Umbilical hernias rarely incarcerate, and more than 80 percent close spontaneously by the
age of 3 or 4 years. After age 4, children should be referred for surgical closure.
229. The answer is C. (Chapter 76) Hernias are extremely common but most often are
asymptomatic. Inguinal hernias occur more commonly in males, and femoral and umbilical hernias are more frequent in females. Indirect inguinal hernias result from congenital
failure of the peritoneal evagination to close and frequently incarcerate and strangulate.
Direct inguinal hernias are acquired defects that do not involve passage through the
inguinal canal and rarely incarcerate. Femoral hernias are protrusions through the femoral
canal, and they frequently incarcerate. Umbilical hernias in adults are acquired defects,
usually resulting from increased abdominal distention secondary to obesity, pregnancy, or
ascites. In contrast to the defect in young children, umbilical hernias in adults frequently
incarcerate. Rare types of hernias include pelvic and lumbar types. These often present
atypically and with intermittent bouts of obstruction.
230. The answer is D. (Chapter 77) Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease characterized by segmental involvement of both the small and large intestines, with
the ileum being most commonly affected. In addition to GI symptoms of abdominal pain,
anorexia, diarrhea, and weight loss, approximately one-third of patients have extraintestinal manifestations. These associated symptoms may be arthritic, dermatologic, hepatobiliary, or vascular in nature. Complications of Crohn’s disease occur frequently, and
75 percent of patients require surgery within 20 years of onset of symptoms. Intraabdominal abscesses, fistulas, and bowel obstructions are common conditions necessitating
surgical intervention. Perianal complications are the most frequent, seen in up to 90 percent of patients, and include perianal abscesses, fissures, fistulas, and rectal prolapse.
231. The answer is E. (Chapter 78) Abscesses are common in the perianal and perirectal
region and usually begin with infection of an anal crypt and gland. Infection can progress
80
G ASTROENTEROLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
to involve areas of potential space surrounding the anorectum, including the perianal,
perirectal, ischiorectal, intersphincteric, and supralevator spaces. Because of inadequate
drainage, there is up to a 32 percent recurrence rate in patients who have a simple incision and drainage performed in the ED with local anesthetic. In addition, deep abscesses
have the potential to spread insidiously and extensively through the communicating submucosal tissues and may point some distance away from the anal verge. Hence, all but
the most superficial, isolated perianal abscesses should be drained in the operating room.
232. The answer is C. (Chapter 78) Hemorrhoids are one of the most common problems
afflicting human beings, and they may be internal or external in origin. Internal hemorrhoids arise above the dentate line, are not readily visible or palpable, and are best visualized through an anoscope. They are typically painless and present with self-limited
bleeding accompanying defecation. Unless a complication occurs, treatment is local and
nonsurgical, with relief of symptoms by sitz baths and bulk laxatives. Complications
such as thrombosis and strangulation are usually painful, accompanied by significant
edema, and require surgical evaluation. In contrast, external hemorrhoids are typically
painful, easily visualized and palpated at the anal verge, and frequently thrombose.
Treatment is also with sitz baths and laxatives, but local excision of clot is also appropriate and can provide significant relief.
233. The answer is E. (Chapter 79) Constipation is the most common digestive complaint
in the United States, and the differential diagnosis is broad. Determining the rapidity of
onset is important because acute constipation mandates evaluation for intestinal obstruction. Disorders causing obstruction such as volvulus, tumor, hernia or adhesions require
surgical consultation and admission. Other causes of constipation can usually be managed on an outpatient basis with medications and instruction on behavior modification.
Patients with fecal impaction may be discharged home after manual disimpaction has
been performed. If an organic cause such as hypothyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, or
heavy metal poisoning is suspected, work-up may be initiated in the ED if close followup is arranged with the patient’s primary physician.
234. The answer is C. (Chapter 81) Patients with gallstones present in a variety of ways,
and biliary colic (or symptomatic cholelithiasis) is the most common. The pain is colicky
in nature, occurs after meals, and typically lasts from 1 to 6 h. Pain lasting longer than
6 h that is accompanied by fever or leukocytosis suggests a diagnosis of cholecystitis.
Biliary colic and acute cholecystitis are by far the most common manifestations of gallstone disease. Complications from gallstones may be life threatening. Acute pancreatitis,
ascending cholangitis, gallbladder empyema, and emphysematous cholecystitis all require
aggressive patient resuscitation and prompt surgical consultation.
235. The answer is E. (Chapter 81) Patients with uncomplicated symptomatic cholelithiasis do not require immediate surgical intervention. ED intervention is geared toward
pain relief and correction of volume deficits. Pain control can be achieved with administration of opiate analgesics or ketorolac. Antiemetics and gastric decompression with an
NGT may be necessary for treatment of protracted vomiting. If the patient’s symptoms
resolve within 4 to 6 h and she tolerates oral fluids, discharge to home with outpatient
follow-up is appropriate.
236. The answer is B. (Chapter 86) Liver transplantation is becoming more common, and
patients will be seen in the ED for a variety of associated conditions. Allograft rejection
occurs in two syndromes, acute and chronic. Acute rejection usually occurs at 7 to 14
days posttransplant, at a frequency varying from 40 to 80 percent. The incidence declines
after several months but may be triggered by tapering of immunosuppressive drugs. Clinical presentation is subtle and difficult to distinguish from complications such as infection, hepatic artery thrombosis, and biliary obstruction. Diagnosis can only be made with
certainty by hepatic ultrasound and biopsy. Management is with high-dose glucocorti-
G ASTROENTEROLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
81
coids and subsequent taper and is best done at a transplant center. Chronic rejection
occurs in 5 percent of cases and is the major cause of late graft failure.
237. The answer is A. (Chapter 80) Hyperbilirubinemia can be conjugated or unconjugated depending on whether the defect occurs before or after the conjugation phase in
the hepatocyte. If increased production of bilirubin exceeds the ability of the hepatocytes
to conjugate it, unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia occurs. This is the case in hemolysis
from transfusion reactions, hemolytic anemia, and sickle cell anemia. With congestive
heart failure, the liver is unable to take up and conjugate bilirubin. In patients with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, the cause may be either intrahepatic or extrahepatic. Intrahepatic cholestasis results from an inability of the hepatocyte to excrete conjugated
bilirubin due to damage of the biliary endothelium or hepatocyte damage, as in toxic
hepatitis from acetaminophen poisoning. In extrahepatic cholestasis, there is obstruction
of outflow in the biliary tree, as occurs with gallstones.
238. The answer is D. (Chapter 82) Hepatitis A, spread primarily by the fecal-to-oral
route, is most common in children and adolescents. Adults tend to have a more severe or
prolonged course but only rarely develop fulminant hepatic failure. Symptom onset is
abrupt, and jaundice and hepatomegaly are usually mild. Outpatient management is generally sufficient, with emphasis on rest, adequate oral intake, and avoidance of hepatic
toxins. Indications for admission include encephalopathy, prothrombin time prolonged
more than 3 s, intractable vomiting, hypoglycemia, bilirubin greater than 20 mg/dL, age
older than 45 years, and immunosuppression. Elevated liver enzymes alone are not an
indication for admission and are not reliable indicators of disease severity.
239. The answer is B. (Chapter 83) Acute pancreatitis is a common cause of abdominal
pain, with a prevalence estimated at 0.5 percent. In the United States, cholelithiasis and
alcoholism account for up to 90 percent of cases. Alcohol-related disease is more common in the urban hospital setting and typically affects males between the ages of 35 and
45. Biliary disease is more frequent in the community hospital setting and typically
affects females older than age 50. After biliary and alcohol disease, drugs account for up
to half of the remaining cases.
240. The answer is D. (Chapter 83) Acute pancreatitis is unique compared with other
intraabdominal processes because of its propensity to cause remote systemic effects. Pancreatitis evokes a generalized systemic inflammatory response that may lead to shock,
ARDS, DIC, and eventually multisystem organ failure. Local complications include
phlegmons, abscesses, and pseudocysts, usually in the first 2 to 3 weeks after onset of
disease. Malabsorption may be seen with chronic pancreatitis but does not occur until
more than 90 percent of glandular function is lost.
241. The answer is C. (Chapter 84) Laparoscopic procedures and early postsurgical discharge are becoming increasingly common cost-effective alternatives to laparotomy. As
a result, more patients are presenting to the ED with postoperative fever. Fever during
the first 24 h is usually caused by atelectasis or necrotizing streptococcal infections. In
the first 24 to 72 h, respiratory complications such as pneumonia, and intravenous
catheter related complications (e.g., thrombophlebitis) are the predominant causes. Urinary tract infections become evident 3 to 5 days postoperatively and are more common
in females and patients who have had bladder catheterization or instrumentation. Clinical
signs of wound infection usually develop 7 to 10 days postoperatively. Deep venous
thrombosis may result in fever at any time but usually not before postoperative day 5.
242. The answer is E. (Chapter 84) After GI surgery, functional ileus is an expected complication. Small bowel tone usually returns in 24 h and colonic function in 3 to 5 days.
Mechanical ileus can be delayed and is usually due to adhesions. Intraabdominal
abscesses are often accompanied by fever and tenderness and are most frequently caused
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G ASTROENTEROLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
by preoperative contamination or spillage of bowel contents during surgery. Pancreatitis is
usually due to direct manipulation of the pancreatic duct and occurs commonly after biliary tract surgery and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography. The etiology of
cholecystitis is unclear, and acalculous cholecystitis is a particular concern. It occurs most
commonly in elderly males, and early operative intervention reduces morbidity and mortality. Other postoperative complications include fistula formation and tetanus (reported in
GI surgery from intraoperative spillage of Clostridium tetani in devitalized tissue).
Pseudomembranous colitis is a complication of perioperative courses of antibiotics but
typically presents with diarrhea, fever, and occasionally crampy abdominal pain.
243. The answer is B. (Chapter 87) Ultrasound has emerged as a valuable tool for certain
conditions in the ED. It is the initial study of choice for evaluation of patients with right
upper quadrant pain and can accurately detect cholelithiasis. Plain film radiography is a
poor imaging choice to detect gallstones but is useful in evaluating obstruction or suspected perforation. CT is the diagnostic tool of choice for many abdominal conditions,
including pancreatitis, some trauma, and selected aortic aneurysms, but is more costly
and invasive than ultrasound for evaluating gallstones. Radionuclide scanning is a useful
adjunct if ultrasound results are inconclusive or acalculous cholecystitis is suspected.
Barium radiography is useful for imaging in some GI conditions, especially suspected
intussusception, but not for evaluating the gallbladder.
GERIATRIC
EMERGENCIES
QUESTIONS
DIRECTIONS:
Each question below contains five suggested responses. Choose the one best response to each question.
244. All of the following are true statements about falls
in the elderly EXCEPT
(A) most falls occur on steps or other uneven
surfaces
(B) most falls result in isolated orthopedic injuries
(C) decreased visual acuity and memory loss make
it difficult for elderly patients to avoid
environmental hazards
(D) syncope is a frequent cause of falls
(E) falls are the most common accidental injury in
patients older than 75 years
245. Which of the following statements is MOST correct
regarding abdominal pain in the elderly?
(A) Elderly patients are unlikely to have the problems of younger patients, such as appendicitis
or cholecystitis
(B) Given the same underlying diagnosis for
an acute abdominal disorder, the elderly
have about the same mortality rate as
younger patients
(C) The elderly exhibit less pain and tenderness
than younger patients, but they are more likely
to have fever and leukocytosis than are
younger patients
(D) Diagnostic delays and preexisting illnesses lead
to a higher mortality in elderly patients than in
younger patients
(E) The elderly are more likely than younger
patients to seek early medical attention for
abdominal pain
246. A 75-year-old male is brought to the ED by his sonin-law for evaluation of altered level of consciousness.
The patient has reportedly been bedridden for 2 days.
Examination shows advanced sacral decubitus ulcers
and bilateral ecchymoses of the upper arms. The son-inlaw and the daughter both live with the patient. The
son-in-law reports that the patient has been increasingly
paranoid in recent weeks, with delusions of poisoning.
What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Urosepsis
Elder abuse
Dementia
Alcohol withdrawal
Medication side effect
247. All of the following are true about elder abuse
EXCEPT
(A) physical abuse, neglect, and chronic verbal
aggression are all forms of elder abuse
(B) the abuser is often dependent on the victim for
financial and emotional support
(C) dementia increases the risk of abuse
(D) abuse correlates with personality problems of
the caretaker
(E) a majority of abuse cases can be diagnosed by
patient history alone
83
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G ERIATRIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
84
248. An 80-year-old male is brought by ambulance from
church for evaluation of a syncopal episode. The patient
denies chest pain or palpitations and has no history of
cardiac or cerebrovascular disease. Witnesses report no
seizure activity. They loosened his shirt and tie immediately after the event, and the patient regained consciousness quickly. The patient has had several previous
similar episodes for which he did not seek medical
attention. One occurred while shaving and another
occurred while dressing for church. Of the following,
what is the MOST likely diagnosis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Gastrointestinal hemorrhage
Psychogenic syncope
Carotid sinus hypersensitivity
Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
Pulmonary embolism
249. All of the following are true of lacerations and
wound care in the elderly EXCEPT
(A) the elderly have about the same response to a
tetanus toxoid booster as younger patients
(B) the incidence of tetanus increases with age
(C) aging skin tears with minor friction
(D) in the elderly, skin tears usually present as
epidermal flaps
(E) with aging, there is a decrease in cellular
growth rate and a degeneration of collagen and
elastic fibers
GERIATRIC
EMERGENCIES
ANSWERS
244. The answer is A. (Chapter 245) Most elderly individuals who fall do so on a level
surface, and most sustain isolated orthopedic injuries. Age-related changes in postural
stability, balance, motor strength, and coordination make the elderly more prone to tripping and falling. Decreased visual acuity and increased memory loss can cause the
patient difficulty in recognizing and avoiding environmental hazards. Syncope has been
implicated in many cases of elderly patients who fall.
245. The answer is D. (Chapter 69) The elderly are at risk for acute appendicitis, acute
cholecystitis, peptic ulcer disease, and intestinal obstruction. Diagnosis is challenging
because elderly patients often lack classic signs and symptoms of an acute abdomen such
as abdominal rigidity, fever and other abnormal vital signs, and leukocytosis. They may
fail to seek early medical attention, and their many preexisting illnesses contribute to a
higher mortality rate.
246. The answer is B. (Chapter 292) Certain injuries and historical features are characteristic of abuse. Bilateral upper arm bruises are suggestive of holding or shaking, and
advanced decubitus ulcers are inconsistent with a history of being bedridden for only 2
days. Abuse is often dismissed as paranoia or dementia. Although any of the other diagnoses may be present, the underlying problem is elder abuse. Social services must be
immediately involved in the case management.
247. The answer is E. (Chapter 292) Only about one-third of cases can be diagnosed by
the victim’s statements; another 6 percent are revealed by other informants. More cases
are diagnosed by physical examination (43 percent) and social service assessment in the
hospital (19 percent). Abuse correlates best with dependency and behavior problems of
the caretaker/abuser, but dementia is also a significant risk factor.
248. The answer is C. (Chapter 46) The diagnosis of carotid sinus hypersensitivity
should be suspected in elderly patients whose immediately presyncopal state is suggestive of carotid sinus stimulation, e.g., wearing a tight collar, shaving, or head turning.
Carotid sinus hypersensitivity accounts for as much as 5 percent of syncope in the
elderly. The diagnosis may be confirmed by bedside carotid sinus massage with cardiac
monitoring and atropine at the bedside. Syncope is a very rare presentation of TIA. A
pulmonary embolism large enough to cause syncope is commonly fatal.
249. The answer is A. (Chapters 40 and 44) Many elderly patients are inadequately
immunized against tetanus, and their response to booster vaccination is diminished. The
incidence of tetanus increases with age. A more liberal use of tetanus immune globulin
is recommended in the elderly. Collagen and elastic fibers decrease with age, leading to
skin tears with only minor friction. Epidermal flaps should be reapproximated with the
least possible tension.
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HEMATOLOGIC AND
ONCOLOGIC EMERGENCIES
QUESTIONS
DIRECTIONS:
Each question below contains five suggested responses. Choose the one best response to each question.
250. Which one of the following drugs is LEAST likely
to result in thrombocytopenia?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Heparin
Quinine
Quinidine
Estrogen
Heroin
251. All of the following statements regarding platelet
abnormalities are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) bleeding complications may arise if platelets
are 50,000/L
(B) patients are at risk for spontaneous bleeding if
platelet counts are 10,000/L
(C) when platelets drop below 10,000/L, the
patient should receive a platelet transfusion
(D) patients with ITP respond well to platelet
transfusion
(E) each unit of platelets transfused should raise
the platelet count by about 10,000/L
252. A suicidal 28-year-old male ingested a handful of
rodenticide pellets containing brodifacoum 30 min before
ED presentation. Paramedics administered 1 mg/kg of
activated charcoal en route to the hospital. The patient
is awake and alert, with normal vital signs. There is no
evidence of mucosal bleeding, skin bruising, or abdominal pain. A test for occult fecal blood is negative. Laboratory examinations for prothrombin time (PT), partial
thromboplastin time (PTT), complete blood count
(CBC), and platelets are all normal. What is the MOST
appropriate action?
(A) Give additional charcoal, observe for 2 h, and
discharge to psychiatry if stable
(B) Admit and request urgent psychiatric
consultation
(C) Administer vitamin K 1 mg intravenously,
observe for 2 h, and discharge to psychiatry
if stable
(D) Administer vitamin K 5 mg subcutaneously,
observe for 4 h, and discharge to psychiatry if
stable
(E) Admit, mobilize pharmacy resources to
assess vitamin K inventory, and obtain
psychiatric consultation
253. All of the following antibiotics are associated with
drug-induced deficiencies of vitamin K–dependent factors EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
cefotaxime
trimethoprim
cefoperazone
moxalactam
cefamandole
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H EMATOLOGIC
88
254. All of the following proteins require vitamin K to
function properly EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
factor II (prothrombin)
factor VII
factor IX
factor X
antithrombin III
255. All of the following statements regarding fresh
frozen plasma (FFP) are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) it contains all factors
(B) intravenous administration can lead to volume
overload
(C) viral transmission is possible with transfusion
(D) it is a first-line treatment for uremic patients
with bleeding
(E) it is a first-line treatment for bleeding patients
with a coagulopathy
256. A 50-year-old male presents with a crush injury to
the left lower extremity. He underwent a 45-min extrication after an accident at a construction site. Peripheral
pulses are intact, but sensorimotor function is diminished. He is hemodynamically stable after standard
resuscitation, but the wound site continues to bleed
despite a pressure dressing. Available laboratory results
include hemoglobin of 12, hematocrit of 32, platelet
count of 45,000/L, PT of 18, and fibrinogen of 80
mg/dL. The surgical team has been called to treat the
wound. While awaiting their arrival, all of the following
are appropriate interventions EXCEPT
(A) give 2 units of FFP
(B) type and screen 2 units of packed red
blood cells
(C) give cryoprecipitate, 10 bags
(D) give platelets, 6 packs
(E) give low-molecular-weight heparin
257. All of the following statements concerning heparin
therapy are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) it facilitates antithrombin III binding to activated factors II, IX, XI, and XII
(B) the most common complication is bleeding
(C) one milligram of protamine sulfate neutralizes
1000 units of heparin
(D) thrombocytopenia is a common complication
(E) co-use of cimetidine or NSAIDs increases
bleeding risk
AND
O NCOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
258. All of the following statements regarding thrombocytopenia in the setting of heparin use are TRUE
EXCEPT
(A) the incidence is lower with low-molecularweight heparin
(B) the most common form is transient and seldom
lowers the platelet count below 100,000/L
(C) the type with platelet antibody formation can
be life threatening and may lower the platelet
count below 50,000/L
(D) arterial thromboses can occur in the more
severe form
(E) patients must have a previous exposure to
heparin to develop anti-platelet antibodies
259. All of the following statements regarding thrombolytic drugs are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) they are contraindicated if the patient has a
history of hemorrhagic stroke
(B) they cannot be used if the patient has
active bleeding
(C) they must be avoided if aortic dissection
is suspected
(D) they decrease pulmonary artery pressures,
improve reperfusion, and increase survival
after massive pulmonary embolus
(E) they are indicated for treatment of acute
myocardial infarction
260. Which one of the following is the LEAST common
hematologic complication of HIV?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Thrombocytopenia
Anemia
ITP
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
Acquired circulating antibodies
261. All of the following statements regarding factor VIII
inhibitors are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) PTT is normal, but the PT is prolonged
(B) these inhibitors may develop in patients with
previously normal hemostasis
(C) if present, mortality rate approaches 50 percent
(D) these inhibitors may develop in patients with
underlying conditions such as pregnancy and
autoimmune or lymphoproliferative disorders
(E) these inhibitors can be seen in patients
with congenital factor VIII deficiency
(hemophilia A)
H EMATOLOGIC
AND
89
O NCOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
262. All of the following statements regarding lupus anticoagulant are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) it is an antiphospholipid antibody that interferes with coagulation
(B) most patients with lupus anticoagulant do
not have lupus (SLE) or a clinical
bleeding disorder
(C) affected patients are at risk for arterial and
venous thrombosis
(D) affected women may have recurrent fetal loss
(E) it is associated with a normal PTT
263. A 15-year-old male with hemophilia A presents with
hoarseness, stridor, and anterior neck swelling after an
assault in which he sustained a “karate chop” to the
throat. What is MOST appropriate sequence of actions?
(A) endotracheal intubation, factor VIII replacement, neck CT
(B) factor VIII replacement, lateral soft-tissue film
of the neck
(C) factor VIII replacement, neck CT, close
observation for need to intubate
(D) check PTT and factor VIII assay, neck CT,
close observation for need to intubate
(E) surgical airway, check factor VIII levels
264. All of the following statements regarding desmopressin (DDAVP) are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) it is a beneficial treatment for mild to moderate hemophilia A
(B) it can raise factor VIII activity up to threefold
(C) the usual dose is 0.3 g/kg of body weight
intravenous or subcutaneous every 12 h
(D) a rise in factor VIII levels occurs between
4 and 6 h after administration
(E) common side effects include headache and
mild hyponatremia
265. A 22-year-old female with sickle cell anemia (Hb SS)
presents with a 2-day history of pleuritic chest pain and
mild dyspnea. Vital signs are: temperature 38°C, pulse 90,
blood pressure of 126/80 mm Hg, respiration rate of
24 breaths per minute, and room air pulse oximetry of
92 percent. Chest x-ray and electrocardiography are unremarkable. Which one of the following is the LEAST
appropriate action?
(A) Give empiric antibiotics, such as cefuroxime
and erythromycin
(B) Hydrate the patient with normal saline at
200 cc/h
(C) Treat pain with morphine sulfate boluses of
4 to 6 mg intravenously
(D) Obtain a baseline
arterial blood gas and
. .
arrange a V/Q scan or spiral CT
(E) Give supplemental oxygen
266. A 62-year-old African-American male who received
TMP-SMX and pyridium for a urinary tract infection 2
days previously at an outside clinic presents to the ED
complaining of dark urine. He denies fever or low back
pain. Urinalysis shows a dark yellow urine, positive for
blood, leukocytes, nitrites, bilirubin, and urobilinogen
and negative for ketones, glucose, and protein.
Microscopy shows red blood cells, white blood cells,
and bacteria. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
rhabdomyolysis
side effect of pyridium
gallbladder obstruction
G6PD deficiency
hepatitis
267. A 60-year-old female presents to the ED with a
fever of 37.8°C, mild confusion, and headache for the
past 2 days. The patient is awake with no nuchal rigidity or lateralizing neurologic signs. CT is negative for
mass effect or intracranial bleed. Laboratory findings
show a platelet count of 20,000/L, reticulocytosis,
mild leukocytosis with a left shift, schistocytes on
peripheral smear, and mild azotemia. Urinalysis shows
proteinuria and hematuria. All of the following are
appropriate actions EXCEPT
(A) administering FFP
(B) plasma exchange transfusion
(C) prednisone or methylprednisolone
intravenously
(D) platelet transfusion
(E) ICU admission
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H EMATOLOGIC
268. A 50-year-old male with known malignancy complains of bilateral lower extremity weakness and acute
urinary retention. Ambulation has become increasingly
difficult over the past 2 days. Examination is remarkable for percussion tenderness at the thoracolumbar
junction. Rectal sphincter tone is preserved. All of the
following actions are appropriate EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
giving decadron 10 mg intravenously
giving solumedrol 30 mg/kg
ordering CT of the thoracolumbar region
calling for emergent neurosurgical consult
placing a Foley catheter with a leg bag and
discharging with close urology follow-up
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O NCOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
269. A 55-year-old female with previously documented
metastatic breast cancer presents to the ED with an
altered sensorium. She is afebrile, and there are no focal
neurologic signs. Serum calcium is 15 mg/dL. Which of
the following is the LEAST appropriate action?
(A) Oncology consultation followed by glucocorticoid administration
(B) Intravenous saline infusion
(C) Intravenous furosemide administration
(D) Oral phosphate administration
(E) Intravenous inorganic phosphate bolus administration
HEMATOLOGIC AND
ONCOLOGIC EMERGENCIES
ANSWERS
250. The answer is D. (Chapters 210–211) Drugs are commonly responsible for thrombocytopenia. Although all of the listed agents are associated with a reduction in platelet count,
there are fewer case reports involving estrogen than those involving heparin, quinine, quinidine, or heroin. Other drugs that cause thrombocytopenia include sulfa-containing antibiotics, amrinone, ethanol, aspirin, valproic acid, indomethacin, thiazide diuretics, phenytoin,
cimetidine, penicillin, and interferon.
251. The answer is D. (Chapter 211) Patients with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
(ITP) have platelet antibodies that increase platelet destruction, thereby limiting the efficacy of transfusion. Patients with hypersplenism are also poor candidates for platelet
transfusion because they sequester transfused platelets out of the general circulation. Most
patients with platelets fewer than 50,000/L should receive platelet transfusions to protect
against bleeding complications. If platelets drop to less than 10,000/L, platelet transfusion is strongly advised because of the risk of spontaneous bleeding, including intracranial
hemorrhage. Each pack of platelets transfused raises the platelet count by approximately
10,000/L.
252. The answer is E. (Chapter 211) Patients who have ingested significant amounts of
brodifacoum require admission and treatment with massive amounts of vitamin K, possibly exceeding the pharmacy’s inventory. This type of rat poison is a “superwarfarin”
with a long half-life that was created to combat emerging warfarin resistance in rodent
pests. Ingestion of “superwarfarin” is associated with a severe, potentially fatal coagulopathy. Profuse mucosal bleeding and internal hemorrhage are common clinical manifestations. Treatment of warfarin overdose depends on the clinical picture, not on the
magnitude of PT prolongation. Patients may require large doses of vitamin K (50–100
mg/day) for several weeks. Fresh frozen plasma may also be required. A 10- to 15-mg
dose of vitamin K should be administered subcutaneously or intramuscularly to patients
who are bleeding. Intravenous vitamin K carries a risk of anaphylaxis, but 1 mg intravenously is considered a safe quantity to give. Patients may be resistant to warfarin therapy for up to 2 weeks after vitamin K administration.
253. The answer is B. (Chapter 211) Trimethoprim is a sulfa drug associated with thrombocytopenia, not a coagulopathy secondary to vitamin K deficiency. Drug-induced deficiency of vitamin K–dependent factors is seen with cephalosporins that have an
N-methylthiotetrazole side chain. These include the second-generation drug cefamandole
and the third-generation drugs cefotaxime, cefoperazone, and moxalactam.
254. The answer is E. (Chapter 211) Antithrombin III is a protein that forms complexes
with factors VII, IX, X, XI, and XII and prothrombin, thereby inhibiting their function.
It is not vitamin K–dependent. Factors II, VII, IX, and X, protein C, and protein S are all
dependent on vitamin K for proper functioning. Parenchymal liver disease decreases synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X. Because vitamin K is fat soluble, malabsorption,
hepatic cholestasis, and poor nutrition contribute to vitamin K deficiency.
91
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255. The answer is D. (Chapter 211) FFP is not a first-line treatment for patients with
uremia and excessive bleeding because of its inability to tolerate the large volume load.
Treatment of a bleeding uremic patient should include packed red blood cells, erythropoietin, desmopressin, dialysis, conjugated estrogen, platelet transfusion, or cryoprecipitate infusion. Cryoprecipitate carries a risk of viral transmission and has mostly been
replaced by desmopressin. FFP administration also carries a risk of virus transmission.
Each unit of FFP contains 200 to 250 units of each coagulation factor. FFP is indicated
in the treatment of patients with severe liver disease and bleeding.
256. The answer is E. (Chapter 211) In addition to the traumatic injury, this patient has
evidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), suggested by the prolonged
PT, low fibrinogen, and decreased platelets. Clinical manifestations of DIC include
bleeding, thrombosis, and purpura fulminans. This patient’s continued bleeding and prolonged PT are indications for FFP and cryoprecipitate (to replete fibrinogen). Platelet
transfusion is indicated when platelet count is less than 50,000/L and there is bleeding,
or if platelet count is less than 20,000/L regardless of bleeding. Packed red blood cells
should be ready in case the hemoglobin and hematocrit continue to drop. Whereas lowdose heparin (5–10 units/kg/h) is used to treat patients with purpura fulminans, low-molecular-weight heparin is not used to treat DIC. Patients with DIC who may benefit from
standard heparin therapy include those with carcinoma, acute promyelocytic leukemia, or
retained uterine products.
257. The answer is C. (Chapter 211) One milligram of protamine sulfate will neutralize
100 units of standard-molecular-weight heparin and is indicated in the setting of severe
bleeding after the heparin infusion has been stopped. Bleeding is a common complication
of heparin use and occurs in about one-third of patients. One to seven percent of patients
will have serious or life-threatening bleeding. Concomitant use of cimetidine, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), aspirin, warfarin, and steroids increase a
patient’s bleeding risk. Underlying conditions that also increase risk of bleeding include
history of renal failure, gastrointestinal bleeding, ethanol use, malignancy, recent trauma,
and bleeding diatheses. Thrombocytopenia is a common complication of heparin use.
258. The answer is E. (Chapter 211) Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia with
anti–platelet antibody formation is uncommon but is potentially life threatening. Patients
with previous exposure to heparin may have an immediate reaction, whereas patients
without previous exposure will more likely develop antibodies over the next 6 to 10
days. Arterial thrombosis is a possible complication. If platelet levels fall below
50,000/L, heparin transfusion must be stopped; some clinicians have advocated future
avoidance of heparin. A more common form of heparin-associated thrombocytopenia
without antibody formation occurs in about 25 percent of patients. A transient decrease
in platelet count occurs, but seldom below 100,000/L. The etiology is postulated to be
due to platelet aggregation and splenic sequestration.
259. The answer is D. (Chapters 211, 216) Thrombolytic drugs have been used to treat
massive, acute pulmonary emboli. With treatment, reperfusion is improved and pulmonary artery pressures are decreased. However, clinical trials that conclusively demonstrate improved survival are lacking.
260. The answer is D. (Chapter 211) Thrombocytopenia is the most common hematologic complication of HIV infection. Immune platelet destruction, such as that seen with
ITP, is also common. Anemia frequently occurs secondary to decreased erythropoiesis
and bone marrow suppression from infection or drug therapy. A lupus-type anticoagulant
prolongs the PTT and may appear and disappear in concert with the onset and treatment
of opportunistic infections. Anti–cardiolipin antibodies, another type of acquired circulating antibody, increase the patient’s risk of thrombosis. TTP is an uncommon complication of HIV infection. It may actually herald HIV infection when appearing with a
H EMATOLOGIC
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93
pentad of fever, thrombocytopenia, neurologic symptoms, renal insufficiency, and
microangiopathic hemolytic anemia.
261. The answer is A. (Chapter 211) Factor VIII inhibitors prolong the PTT (reflecting
the intrinsic coagulation cascade), but not the PT (reflecting the extrinsic coagulation
cascade). This same pattern is seen in patients with hemophilia A (factor VIII deficiency). The incidence of factor VIII inhibitors is low, estimated at 0.2 to 1.0 per million,
but the mortality rate approaches 50 percent. Patients develop massive spontaneous
ecchymoses and hematomas. About half of affected people are otherwise healthy and
older than 65 years. Associated underlying autoimmune disorders include systemic lupus
erythematosus (SLE), rheumatoid arthritis, and ulcerative colitis. Associated lymphoproliferative disorders include multiple myeloma, Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia, and
benign monoclonal gammopathy. Pregnancy and the immediate postpartum period are
also associated. A factor VIII–specific assay shows low or absent factor VIII activity.
Treatment involves repletion or supplementation of factor VIII and prothrombin.
262. The answer is E. (Chapter 211) Lupus anticoagulant, an antiphospholipid antibody,
is often an incidental laboratory finding. Only 5 to 15 percent of patients have SLE, and
clinical bleeding is rare unless the patient has an underlying predisposing condition such
as hypoprothrombinemia, significant thrombocytopenia, or uremia. Patients with lupus
anticoagulant display mild to moderate PTT prolongation and a normal or slightly prolonged PT. Arterial and venous thrombosis occurs in 23 to 53 percent of patients. Recurrent fetal loss is secondary to placental vessel thrombosis and infarction.
263. The answer is A. (Chapter 211) This patient has impending airway compromise and
should be emergently intubated. After the airway is secured, factor VIII should be
replaced and computed tomography (CT) of the neck should be performed. Patients with
hemophilia are at risk for spontaneous bleeding and posttraumatic bleeding. Because this
patient with hemophilia A has a potentially life-threatening hemorrhage, he requires an
initial dose of factor VIII of 50 units/kg. If no factor VIII concentrate is readily available, cryoprecipitate (100 units of factor VIII per bag) or FFP (1 unit of factor VIII/mL)
can be administered as a temporizing measure.
264. The answer is D. (Chapter 212) DDAVP is a synthetic peptide, not a blood product,
so there is no risk of viral transmission. For hemophilia A patients who respond, the rise
in factor VIII levels occurs within 1 h of administration. The usual dose is 0.3 g/kg
intravenously or subcutaneously every 12 h for three to four doses, after which temporary tachyphylaxis may occur. DDAVP is postulated to work by causing a release of von
Willebrand factor (vWF) from endothelial cells. Increased levels of vWF are able to
carry additional factor VIII in the plasma. Mild hyponatremia may occur because of the
effect similar to that of anti-diuretic hormone.
265. The answer is B. (Chapter 213) Acute chest syndrome, characterized by fever, dyspnea, tachypnea, hypoxia, pleuritic chest pain, leukocytosis, and pulmonary infiltrates, is
this patient’s most likely diagnosis. Despite the later development of consolidation, initial chest x-ray is often unremarkable. Acute chest syndrome occurs when a pulmonary
infarct becomes secondarily infected, and it is seen in 30 percent of patients with sickle
cell disease, accounting for 15 percent of adult deaths. It may be difficult to differentiate
between acute chest syndrome and pneumonia or pulmonary infarction, and most .hema.
tologists recommend empiric antibiotics. If pulmonary embolism is suspected, V/Q or
spiral CT is indicated. Pulmonary angiography carries the risk of further exacerbating
pulmonary sickling and should be avoided. Aggressive hydration may precipitate adult
respiratory distress syndrome.
266. The answer is D. (Chapter 213) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is an inherited enzyme disorder that affects up to 10 percent of the world’s population. This deficiency leaves senescent red blood cells vulnerable to oxidative stress
94
H EMATOLOGIC
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O NCOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
and causes hemoglobin to precipitate in the form of Heinz bodies. It is X-linked and
manifests in male heterozygotes and female homozygotes. Hemolytic crises occur after
bacterial or viral infection, metabolic acidosis, fava bean ingestion, or exposure to oxidant drugs. The most common oxidant drugs are sulfa drugs such as TMP-SMX, chloroquine, pyridium, and nitrofurantoin. With rhabdomyolysis, the urinalysis is positive for
blood (myoglobin), but red cells are absent on microscopy. Pyridium will color urine
orange. Over a period of several days, a patient with gallbladder obstruction would have
pain and might have a urine positive for bilirubin but negative for urobilinogen because
the conjugated bilirubin would not reach the intestine.
267. The answer is D. (Chapter 214) This patient has thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. This disorder is characterized by a microangiopathic hemolytic anemia that results
in microthrombi in capillaries and arterioles throughout the body, especially in the brain,
heart, kidneys, pancreas, and adrenal glands. Schistocytes are present on peripheral
smear. Treatment includes ICU admission, steroids, and plasma exchange transfusion
using FFP. Because platelets can exacerbate thrombosis, transfusion should be avoided
unless there is uncontrolled hemorrhage.
268. The answer is E. (Chapter 217) This patient has evidence of acute spinal cord compression in the thoracic region, demonstrated by bilateral radiculopathy. Aggressive
work-up and treatment may help prevent permanent neurologic disability. He requires
urgent neurosurgical consultation, high-dose steroids, magnetic resonance imaging, and a
Foley catheter. Acute spinal cord compression is common in patients with multiple
myeloma, lymphoma, and metastatic breast, lung, and prostate cancers. It can also occur
in the setting of epidural hematoma, infection, or fracture.
269. The answer is E. (Chapter 217) This patient has severe hypercalcemia that could
adversely affect cardiac, neurologic, and muscular function. Saline infusion (1 to 2 L)
followed by 80 mg intravenous furosemide are standard initial therapies. Glucocorticoids
are efficacious for the treatment of hypercalcemia in the setting of lymphoma, hematologic emergencies, and metastatic lung and breast cancers. Peak effectiveness is not
reached for several days. Bisphosphonate and mithramycin are also highly efficacious
treatments. One gram of inorganic phosphate, infused over an 8-h period, and never as a
bolus, will rapidly reduce serum calcium, but potential adverse effects include accelerated soft-tissue calcifications, hypocalcemia, hypotension, renal failure, and death.
INFECTIOUS DISEASE
EMERGENCIES
QUESTIONS
DIRECTIONS:
Each question below contains five suggested responses. Choose the one best response to each question.
270. A 25-year-old male with a history of recent unprotected sexual intercourse presents with a complaint of
urethritis. Gram stain of a urethral smear shows intracellular gram-negative diplococci. All of the following
actions are recommended EXCEPT
(A) administering a single oral dose of cefixime
400 mg
(B) administering a single oral dose of
azithromycin 1 g
(C) obtaining a serologic test for syphilis
(D) advising the patient to obtain HIV testing
(E) administering a single oral dose of
metronidazole 2 g
271. Which one of the following is NOT a recommended
regimen for the treatment of N. gonorrhoeae urethritis
or cervicitis?
(A) Ceftriaxone 125 mg intramuscularly,
single dose
(B) Azithromycin 2 g orally, single dose
(C) Ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally, single dose
(D) Ofloxacin 400 mg orally, single dose
(E) Cefixime 400 mg orally, single dose
272. Which of the following characteristics or findings
are suggestive of the secondary stage of syphilis?
(A) Painless chancre with indurated borders on the
penis, vulva, or other areas of sexual contact
(B) Red papular rash on the trunk and flexor
surfaces that spreads to the palms and soles
(C) Findings that develop about 21 days after
initial infection
(D) Involvement of the cardiovascular and
nervous systems
(E) Symptoms that develop years after
initial infection
273. A 19-year-old female presents with painful pustular
lesions on the vulva. She recalls having unprotected
sexual intercourse approximately 10 days before with a
male partner who had a single small lesion on the penis.
She also reports dysuria that began when she noticed
the lesions. All of the following statements are TRUE
regarding the diagnosis EXCEPT
(A) although direct viral culture is more sensitive
for detecting the organism, a smear of these
lesions may show large intranuclear inclusions
(B) infection occurs by direct contact with mucosal
surfaces or nonintact skin
(C) systemic symptoms including fever, headache,
and myalgias are uncommon
(D) appropriate initial therapy consists of antiviral
drugs including acyclovir, famciclovir, or
valacyclovir
(E) recurrent outbreaks of these lesions occur in 60
to 90 percent of patients
274. A female patient reports a recent sexual contact with
a partner who has just been treated for a suspected STD.
During the examination, a urine test for pregnancy is
found to be positive. Which of the following antibiotics
is safe to prescribe before referring the patient to an
obstetrician for prenatal care?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Acyclovir
Azithromycin
Cefixime
Metronidazole
All of the above
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I NFECTIOUS D ISEASE E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
275. The diagnosis of toxic shock syndrome requires a
temperature above 38.9°C (102°F), a systolic blood
pressure (BP) below 90 mm Hg, an orthostatic decrease
of systolic BP by 15 mm Hg or syncope, a rash with
subsequent desquamation, and involvement of at least
three organ systems. Which of the following systems is
NOT considered in the diagnosis?
277. An HIV-positive patient presents to the ED complaining of shortness of breath and nonproductive cough.
Chest x-ray shows diffuse interstitial infiltrates, and O2
saturation is 85 percent on room air. All of the following
statements regarding this patient’s probable diagnosis are
TRUE EXCEPT
(A) Hematologic: thrombocytopenia 100,000
platelets/L
(B) Renal: increase in BUN and creatinine two
times normal level; pyuria without evidence
of infection
(C) CNS: disorientation without focal neurologic
signs
(D) Respiratory: respiratory rate 28 breaths per
minute, evidence of bilateral alveolar infiltrates
on chest x-ray
(E) Gastrointestinal: vomiting, profuse diarrhea
276. All of the following statements regarding TSS and
toxic shock–like syndrome (TSLS) are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) the majority of cases of TSS are associated
with menstruation
(B) Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus
pyogenes are the most common organisms
isolated from patients with TSS and TSLS
(C) TSST-1, an exotoxin implicated in the
production of many TSS symptoms, has
been isolated from 20 percent of randomly
tested S. aureus isolates
(D) up to 60 percent of patients relapse if they are
not treated with -lactamase–stable
antimicrobial drugs
(E) residual neurologic deficits, including memory
deficits, decreased concentration, and diffuse
electroencephalographic abnormalities, are seen
in 50 percent of TSS survivors
(A) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP) is
the most common opportunistic infection in
AIDS patients
(B) pentamidine isothionate is an effective alternate therapy to TMP-SMX
(C) a normal chest x-ray rules out acute
PCP infection
(D) 65 percent of patients relapse within
18 months
(E) oral steroid therapy should be started in
patients with a PaO2 70 mm Hg, or an
alveolar–arterial gradient 35
278. CNS disease occurs in 75 to 90 percent of patients
with AIDS. Which of the following is the MOST common cause of opportunistic infection of the CNS in
AIDS patients?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Cryptococcal meningitis
Bacterial meningitis
HSV encephalitis
Toxoplasmosis
AIDS dementia
279. Up to 5 percent of ED visits for AIDS patients are
related to complications of pharmacologic therapy.
Which of the following medications is LEAST likely to
be responsible for a rash in an HIV patient?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Acyclovir
TMP-SMX
Clindamycin
Ibuprofen
Dapsone
280. All of the following statements regarding CMV
retinitis are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) patients may present with photophobia,
scotoma, eye redness, pain, or change in
visual acuity
(B) treatment with ganciclovir (5 mg/kg) should
be initiated
(C) patients may have funduscopic findings of
CMV without ophthalmologic symptoms
(D) CMV retinitis occurs in 10 to 15 percent of
AIDS patients
(E) funduscopic examination shows cottonwool spots
I NFECTIOUS D ISEASE E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
281. A patient who fell down a cliff while backpacking is
brought to the ED after a prolonged rescue 8 h after
falling. The patient sustained multiple lacerations and
abrasions that are covered by dirt and grass. The patient
is a 45-year-old U.S. native who cannot remember the
last time she received tetanus prophylaxis. Which of the
following represents the BEST management?
(A) Adult tetanus toxoid (Td) 0.5 mL
intramuscularly
(B) Human tetanus immune globulin (TIG)
250 U intramuscularly
(C) Td 0.5 mL intramuscularly and TIG
250 U intramuscularly in the opposite extremity
(D) No prophylaxis is necessary because the
patient is a U.S. native who received primary
immunization as a child
(E) Td 0.5 mL intramuscularly and TIG 250 U
intramuscularly, followed by additional doses
of Td at 1 month and 6 months
282. Clostridium tetani is the organism responsible for
causing tetanus. All of the following statements regarding tetanus are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) tetanospasmin, an exotoxin produced by C.
tetani, is responsible for the clinical manifestations of tetanus
(B) tetanospasmin is released into the CNS after
C. tetani crosses the blood–brain barrier
(C) clinical manifestations of tetanus include
generalized muscular rigidity, violent muscular
contractions, and instability of the autonomic
nervous system
(D) the most common presenting complaint of
patients with generalized tetanus is pain and
stiffness in the masseter muscle
(E) tetanospasmin prevents the release of GABA
and glycine from presynaptic nerve terminals
283. Which of the following animals is NOT a potential
carrier of rabies?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Dogs
Bats
Skunks
Squirrels
Cows
97
284. A colleague seeks your advice regarding travel
immunizations. He is leaving in 2 weeks to be part of a
medical missionary team in remote areas of Africa and
Southeast Asia and plans to take malaria prophylaxis.
Which of the following statements is LEAST correct
regarding rabies prophylaxis in this case?
(A) Preexposure prophylaxis is recommended
because the areas being visited are known to
be endemic
(B) Prophylaxis with HDCV 1 mL intramuscularly
should be administered in three doses at days
0, 7, and 21 or 28
(C) Active immunity to rabies persists for at least
2 years in most vaccine recipients
(D) There is no need to check rabies antibody
titers after immunization has been completed
(E) If an exposure occurs, immediate treatment consists of cleaning wounds with soap, debriding
devitalized tissue, copious irrigation with sterile
saline or water, and avoidance of suturing
285. A 40-year-old male who immigrated 6 months previously to the United States from Guatemala presents to
the ED with complaints of fever, chills, malaise, and
abdominal pain. He reports having had similar symptoms just before immigrating and received treatment
with an unknown medicine from a Guatemalan clinic. A
Giemsa-stained blood smear confirms the presence of
malarial parasites. Which of the following regimens is
recommended in adults for the treatment of uncomplicated malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax?
(A) Quinine sulfate 650 mg orally three times a
day for 5 to 7 days
(B) Quinine sulfate 650 mg orally three times a
day for 5 to 7 days, plus doxycycline 100 mg
orally two times a day for 7 days
(C) Chloroquine phosphate 1-g load, followed
by 500 mg in 6 h, and then 500 mg/day
for 2 days
(D) Quinidine gluconate 10 mg/kg intravenous load
and then 0.02 mg/kg/min infusion for 48 h
plus doxycycline 100 mg intravenously every
12 h for 48 h
(E) Chloroquine phosphate 1-g load, followed by
500 mg in 6 h, and then 500 mg/day for
2 days, plus primaquine phosphate 26.3-mg
load per day for 14 days upon completion of
chloroquine therapy
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I NFECTIOUS D ISEASE E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
286. A frequent traveler reports previously taking chloroquine for malaria prophylaxis while visiting India. The
patient is now planning an extended trip to Sub-Saharan
Africa and would like another supply of chloroquine.
All of the following are TRUE regarding this patient’s
upcoming travel EXCEPT
288. Which of the following laboratory studies or pieces
of historical information is LEAST helpful when evaluating a patient for suspected bacterial diarrhea?
(A) 300 mg chloroquine base orally every week is
recommended, with continuation of prophylaxis for 4 weeks after the last exposure
(B) the patient should remain in well-screened
areas between dusk and dawn, use mosquito
nets, and wear long-sleeved clothing
(C) a pyrethrum-containing insect spray should be
used in the evening and insect repellant containing DEET should be applied to exposed skin
(D) malaria can be contracted even if chemoprophylaxis is taken and personal protection recommendations are followed
(E) the patient should receive prophylaxis for
chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum with mefloquine 228 mg base orally every week
287. Many cases of diarrhea are caused by consumption
of contaminated food and water. Which of the following
statements regarding food-borne illness is FALSE?
(A) Food-borne illness affects approximately 6 to
80 million Americans annually and causes
9,000 deaths each year
(B) The relative risk of food-borne infection with
viruses, bacteria, or parasites ranges from 20 to
50 percent for all travelers depending on the
geographic region visited
(C) Gastric pH, intestinal motility, and indigenous
intestinal bacteria are physiologic mechanisms
that can help prevent disease resulting from
food-borne pathogens
(D) The most common pathogens causing foodborne illnesses are Salmonella, Campylobacter,
Shigella, Escherichia coli O157, and the
Norwalk viruses
(E) Viruses are the most common etiology of
travelers’ diarrhea
(A) A 3- to 4-day history of food and water
exposure
(B) Information regarding frequent restaurant
meals, consumption of raw foods and meats,
overseas travel, exposure to day-care centers,
and ingestion of stream or lake water
(C) Stool studies for fecal leukocytes
(D) Information regarding immunocompetence and
recent use of antibiotics, antacids, H2 blockers,
and proton pump inhibitors
(E) A history of other contacts who have developed similar symptoms
289. Which of the following organisms is the major cause
of most travelers’ diarrhea?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
E. coli
Campylobacter
Vibrio
Giardia
Shigella
290. A 37-year-old male arrives at the ED at 9:00 A.M.
complaining of diarrhea that began at 5:00 A.M. The
patient felt fine the night before after eating dinner at
8:00 P.M. at a local seafood restaurant. His dinner companion reportedly also developed copious diarrhea the
same morning and is going to meet the patient at the
ED. Which of the following organisms is MOST likely
responsible for the food-borne illness?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
S. aureus
A Norwalk virus
Enterotoxigenic E. coli
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Campylobacter
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I NFECTIOUS D ISEASE E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
291. Etiologic agents in tick-borne infections include
bacterial, rickettsial, viral, and protozoal organisms. All
of the following infections can be acquired from a tick
bite EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Q fever
relapsing fever
tularemia
babesiosis
292. All of the following statements are TRUE regarding
influenza EXCEPT
(A) influenza types A, B, and C may cause human
infection
(B) migrating aquatic fowl are thought to be the
natural animal reservoir for influenza type A
(C) antiviral therapy with amantidine and rimantidine is effective against influenza types A, B,
and C
(D) annual influenza vaccination is recommended
for healthcare workers
(E) influenza pneumonia carries a high mortality
rate, and more than 90 percent of deaths occur
in patients older than 70 years
293. Gas-forming soft tissue infections are life threatening
and must be diagnosed early and treated aggressively.
Which one of the following symptoms or findings is
LEAST likely to be seen with these infections?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Increasing symptoms over 7 to 10 days
Pain out of proportion to physical findings
Brawny edema with crepitance on palpation
Bullae or malodorous serosanguinous discharge
Low-grade fever, with tachycardia out of
proportion to the fever
294. Which of the following patients is MOST likely to
benefit from antibiotic therapy in addition to abscess
incision and drainage?
(A) A previously healthy female with a Bartholin’s
gland abscess and no history suggesting a high
risk for STD
(B) A healthy 25-year-old male with recurrence of
a pilonidal abscess that first occurred 2 years
previously
(C) A febrile 50-year-old female with NIDDM and
recurrence of axillary hydradenitis suppurativa
(D) A 35-year-old male with a sebaceous gland
cyst that has been present for 2 years and has
now become infected
(E) An intravenous drug user without fever
or tachycardia presenting with a 2-cm2
deltoid abscess that developed 7 days after
“skin popping”
295. The CDC publishes a list of reportable communicable diseases that is updated and revised routinely. A 20year-old patient is found to have a sexually transmitted
disease. Which of the following is NOT included on the
CDC list of reportable diseases?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Chancroid
Gonorrhea
HIV
Syphilis
Chlamydia
296. A patient presents to the ED with symptoms of
Bell’s palsy. Which of the following signs or symptoms
are atypical and suggest a more worrisome diagnosis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Facial hemiparesis
Taste disturbance
Decreased blinking
Sparing of the forehead muscles on the
affected side
(E) Hearing increased on the affected side
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297. All of the following statements are TRUE regarding
CMV retinitis EXCEPT
299. The risk of tuberculosis (TB) among healthcare
workers has increased, as has a resurgence of the disease. All of the following factors increase risk of TB
transmission EXCEPT
(A) decreased vision or floaters in the visual field
are typical complaints
(B) prompt treatment with gancyclovir or foscarnet
can reverse visual deficits
(C) without treatment, CMV retinitis will progress
to permanent blindness
(D) CMV retinitis occurs in more than 10 percent
of AIDS patients
(E) in addition to retinitis, CMV can cause
esophagitis, colitis, or adrenalitis
298. Universal precautions were recommended in 1987
by the CDC to protect healthcare workers from the
potential hazards of exposure to blood and other body
fluids. All of the following practices are part of the recommended universal precautions EXCEPT
(A) wear puncture-proof gloves when handling
needles or sharp instruments with the potential
for puncturing skin
(B) mask and eye protection are indicated if
mucous membranes of the mouth, nose, and
eyes may be exposed to drops of blood or
other body fluids
(C) do not recap or bend needles
(D) use a bag-valve mask to prevent the need for
mouth-to-mouth resuscitation
(E) healthcare workers with weeping dermatitis
should avoid direct patient care until the
condition resolves
(A) exposure to a highly contagious source case
(B) increased ventilatory rate of the healthcare
worker
(C) increased air-exchange rate in the work
environment
(D) working in an inner city environment
(E) increased duration of exposure to infected
patients
INFECTIOUS DISEASE
EMERGENCIES
ANSWERS
270. The answer is E. (Chapter 137) Although this patient’s gram stain suggests gonococcal infection, there is a high incidence of concomitant chlamydial infection. Therefore, he should be treated for both gonorrhea and chlamydia. In addition, a serum test for
syphilis and counseling regarding testing for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are
warranted. This patient should also be educated about condom use and advised to have
his sexual partners checked for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). Metronidazole is
not routinely administered unless trichomonas is seen on microscopic urinalysis.
271. The answer is B. (Chapter 137) All of the antibiotic regimens listed are recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines as effective
therapies for gonococcal infection except the single dose of azithromycin 2 g orally. The
CDC guidelines suggest 2 g spectinomycin intramuscularly as an acceptable alternative
therapy. Azithromycin 1 g orally as a single dose is effective against localized chlamydial infection such as cervicitis or urethritis or for postexposure prophylaxis but is insufficient to treat pelvic inflammatory disease.
272. The answer is B. (Chapter 137) There are three stages of syphilis. The primary stage
usually occurs about 21 days after initial infection and is characterized by a painless
chancre on the penis, vulva, or other area of sexual contact. These typical lesions usually
resolve within 3 to 6 weeks. The second stage of syphilis occurs 3 to 6 weeks after the
end of the primary stage. Stage II includes nonspecific symptoms (headache, sore throat,
fever, malaise), diffuse lymphadenopathy, and rash. The rash is usually dull red and
papular, first occurring on the trunk and flexor surfaces and then spreading to the palms
and soles. The tertiary stage of syphilis may occur years after inital infection and is characterized by cardiovascular and nervous system involvement. Findings can include tabes
dorsalis, acute meningitis, dementia, and thoracic aneurysm. HIV-positive patients may
have an accelerated course.
273. The answer is C. (Chapter 137) This patient has acute herpes simplex infection,
spread by direct contact with mucosal skin or with nonintact skin. Smears of the lesions
may stain for intranuclear bodies, but direct culture of the lesions has a greater sensitivity.
Most patients (60 to 90 percent) have at least one recurrent outbreak because the virus
remains latent after initial infection. Appropriate therapy includes different regimens of
acyclovir, famciclovir, or valacyclovir. Dysuria and systemic symptoms such as fever,
headache, and myalgias are common, and some patients develop aseptic meningitis.
274. The answer is E. (Chapter 137) The patient’s symptoms and examination findings
would determine the treatment. All of the antibiotics listed, plus penicillin and ceftriaxone,
are considered safe during pregnancy. If the safety of any treatment is in doubt, an obstetrician should be consulted.
275. The answer is D. (Chapter 138) The CDC formulated a case definition of toxic
shock syndrome (TSS) in 1980. In addition to the findings of a fever, hypotension, and
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I NFECTIOUS D ISEASE E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
rash, at least three of the following organ systems must be involved—gastrointestinal:
vomiting, profuse diarrhea; musculoskeletal: severe myalgias or twofold increase in
CPK; renal: increase in blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine two times normal
level, pyuria without evidence of infection; mucosal inflammation: vaginal, conjunctival,
or pharyngeal hyperemia; hepatic involvement: hepatitis (twofold elevation of bilirubin,
AST, ALT); hematologic: thrombocytopenia 100,000 platelets/L; central nervous
system (CNS): disorientation without focal neurologic signs. Although not included in
the case definition, involvement of the respiratory system, and development of adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and refractory hypotension are late manifestations of
TSS that represent end-organ damage.
276. The answer is A. (Chapter 138) TSS was initially a disease of young, healthy, menstruating women (50 percent of cases in 1986 and 1987). Changes in tampon composition and a heightened public and professional awareness of the risks of tampon use are
credited for a change in epidemiology. At present, men comprise one-third of patients
with TSS, and another 25 percent of cases have been associated with postpartum and S.
aureus vaginal infections in nonmenstruating women. In addition, TSS has been associated with nasal packing (nasal tampons) and has been reported after influenza and
influenza-like illnesses. Staphylococcus aureus and S. pyogenes are associated with TSS
and TSLS, respectively. The TSST-1 exotoxin is a significant factor in the development
of many TSS symptoms. Sequelae of TSS are numerous and include a high rate of neurologic deficits. Up to 60 percent of patients who do not receive -lactamase–stable
antibiotics have recurrence of the disease, usually within 2 months of the initial episode,
but sometimes up to 1 year later. This second episode is usually less severe than the first,
but deaths have resulted from recurrences of mild cases.
277. The answer is C. (Chapter 139) PCP is the most common opportunistic infection in
AIDS patients, and more than 80 percent of patients acquire PCP at some time during
their illness. Common symptoms include nonproductive cough, shortness of breath, and
exertional dyspnea. Chest x-ray findings often demonstrate bilateral alveolar infiltrates,
but 5 to 10 percent of patients have a negative chest film. PCP is often the presumptive
diagnosis in HIV-positive patients with unexplained hypoxia. Initial therapy for PCP is
trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) orally or intravenously; pentamidine isothionate is an acceptable alternative. An ABG should be obtained and results used to
determine the need for initiation of steroid therapy. Reinfection is common, and prophylactic therapy with TMP-SMX, inhaled pentamidine, or dapsone is recommended.
278. The answer is D. (Chapter 139) Common etiologies of neurologic symptoms in
AIDS patients include AIDS dementia, Toxoplasma gondii, and Cryptococcus neoformans. Of these, toxoplasmosis is most likely to cause focal encephalopathy. It may present with headache, fever, focal neurologic deficits, altered mental status, or seizures.
Computed tomographic (CT) findings of ring-enhancing lesions are suggestive of toxoplasmosis; however, lymphoma, fungal infections, and cerebral tuberculosis may present
with similar findings. Other infections such as HSV encephalitis, bacterial meningitis,
brain abscess, cytomegalovirus (CMV) encephalitis, and neurosyphilis should be considered in the differential diagnosis of neurological symptoms in AIDS patients.
279. The answer is A. (Chapter 139) Drug reactions are common among HIV patients,
and all of the medications listed except acyclovir have been associated with rash. In
addition to TMP-SMX, clindamycin, ibuprofen, and dapsone, isoniazid, and pentamidine
have been shown to cause rash in HIV patients. Acyclovir has been associated with
headache and gastrointestinal symptoms including nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
280. The answer is E. (Chapter 139) All of the statements regarding CMV retinitis are
true except E. Characteristic funduscopic findings of CMV retinitis are fluffy white retinal lesions, often perivascular. Cotton-wool spots are the most common eye finding in
I NFECTIOUS D ISEASE E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
103
AIDS patients and are thought to be secondary to microvascular lesions unrelated to
CMV. These lesions often resolve spontaneously, and no specific therapy is indicated.
281. The answer is C. (Chapter 140) This patient should receive Td because she cannot
remember the last time she received tetanus prophylaxis. In addition, she should receive
TIG becayse the wounds are more than 6 h old and are contaminated with dirt. Tetanus
prophylaxis in the ED is especially important in elderly Americans (70 years of age),
the majority of whom lack adequate immunity to tetanus. Intravenous drug users and
immigrants are also at disproportionate risk of contracting tetanus.
282. The answer is B. (Chapter 140) Tetanospasmin, an exotoxin produced by C. tetani,
is responsible for the clinical manifestations of tetanus. These manifestations include
muscular rigidity, violent muscular contractions, and autonomic nervous system instability. The most common presenting complaint for patients with generalized tetanus is pain
and stiffness in the masseter muscle. Tetanospasmin produces these effects by preventing release of -aminobutyric acid (GABA) and glycine from presynaptic terminals thus
preventing the normal inhibitory control in the CNS. Clostridium tetani remains localized to the site of the injury. The exotoxin tetanospasmin reaches the CNS by retrograde
intraneuronal transport from the peripheral nervous system.
283. The answer is D. (Chapter 141) In developing countries, the most common reservoir
of rabies virus is the dog. However, in the United States, new human rabies cases are
most commonly associated with exposure to wild carnivores. Rabid wildlife species
recorded by the CDC in 1988 include skunks, racoons, bats, and foxes. Domestic species
found to be rabid include cats, cows, dogs, and other livestock. Rodents (e.g., squirrels,
chipmunks, hamsters, rats, and mice) and lagomorphs (e.g., rabbits and hares) are not
rabies carriers.
284. The answer is D. (Chapter 141) Rabies prophylaxis should be considered for travelers to areas where rabies is endemic and for people who engage in wildlife trapping, animal handlers, and veterinarians. The regimen for prophylaxis consists of three doses of
human diploid cell vaccine (HDCV) 1 mL intramuscularly at days 0, 7, and 21 or 28. In
most vaccinated persons, immunity lasts for 2 years. Rabies antibody titers are usually not
required after immunization has been completed but should be considered in anyone who
is immunocompromised or is taking immunosuppressive drugs. In this case, the patient
may be taking chloroquine simultaneously for malaria prophylaxis, and antibody titers
may be warranted. Postvaccination titers should be checked 2 to 4 weeks after immunization has been completed. For any exposure that occurs, immediate treatment consists of
thoroughly cleaning the wounds with soap, removing devitalized tissue, copious irrigation
with sterile saline or water, and avoidance of suturing. Following these postexposure recommendations reduces the subsequent incidence of rabies by about 90 percent.
285. The answer is E. (Chapter 142) In this case, the infecting organism is probably P.
vivax because of the geographic location of the patient’s exposure. It is more likely that
the patient is suffering a relapse than a reexposure. Relapses may occur in patients with
P. vivax or P. ovale because chloroquine therapy does not reach exoerythrocytic parasites that remain dormant in the liver. The recommended therapy for uncomplicated,
non–chloroquine-resistant P. vivax is chloroquine phosphate 1-g load, 500 mg in 6 h, and
then 500 mg/day for 2 days, plus primaquine phosphate 26.3-mg load (15-mg base) per
day for 14 days upon completion of chloroquine therapy. Unless primaquine therapy follows chloroquine therapy, relapses of malaria are common. Relapses of malaria also
occur in patients who have previously received “successful” therapy.
286. The answer is A. (Chapter 142) The CDC reports that between 1990 and 1994 more
than half of all cases of malaria among U.S. citizens were due to P. falciparum and were
acquired from travels in Sub-Saharan Africa. There have also been reports of widespread
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I NFECTIOUS D ISEASE E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum throughout this area. The appropriate chemoprophylaxis in this case would be mefloquine rather than chloroquine. In addition, travelers
should use mosquito netting, wear long-sleeved clothing, stay in well-screened areas
between dusk and dawn, and use pyrethrum-containing insect sprays. Spray can be
applied to clothes for additional protection, and an insect repellant containing N,Ndiethylmetatoluamide (DEET) should be applied to exposed skin. Even with appropriate
chemoprophylaxis and personal protection, it is possible to contract malaria.
287. The answer is E. (Chapter 144) The incidence of food-borne illness is staggering,
and the increasing availability of imported fruits and vegetables and an increase in international travel has facilitated the transmission of these diseases across continents. Exact
prevalence is difficult to determine because most infections are undiagnosed and unreported. The use of antacids, H2 blockers, antibiotics affecting indigenous intestinal bacteria, and antiperistaltic agents can all increase susceptibility to developing a food-borne
illness. Viral infections are the most common overall cause of diarrheal disease, but travelers’ diarrhea is most likely of bacterial etiology.
288. The answer is C. (Chapter 144) Information regarding ill contacts, recent food and
water exposure, and host susceptibility are important factors in making a diagnosis of
food-borne illness. Most infectious diarrhea is self-limiting, and routine studies for ova
and parasites and stool cultures are not cost effective. If symptoms persist for more than
3 or 4 days, especially when accompanied by dehydration or fever, laboratory studies
may be indicated. Fecal leukocytes in stool samples suggest a bacterial pathogen, but the
absence of fecal leukocytes does not exclude a bacterial etiology; therefore, the test has
limited diagnostic efficacy.
289. The answer is A. (Chapter 144) Enterotoxigenic E. coli is the major cause of travelers’ diarrhea. Other strains associated with travel include enterohemorrhagic and
enteroinvasive E. coli. All of the organisms listed are also travel-related pathogens,
mostly seen after international travel by U.S. citizens. Additional etiologies of travelers’
diarrhea include Salmonella, Brucella, Cryptosporidium, and hepatitis A.
290. The answer is D. (Chapter 144) The patient’s symptoms developed 9 h after the
ingestion of the suspected contaminated food. Of the organisms listed, only V. parahaemolyticus has an incubation period of 6 to 24 h. Staphylococcus aureus and Norwalk
viruses usually produce symptoms 1 to 6 h after exposure. Enterotoxigenic E. coli produces symptoms 24 to 48 h after exposure, and Campylobacter produces symptoms 2 to
6 days after ingestion of contaminated food. Vibrio poisoning is commonly associated
with ingestion of seafood.
291. The answer is B. (Chapter 145) All of the diseases listed except Q fever may be
contracted by a tick bite. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by a rickettsial organism, Rickettsia rickettsia. Relapsing fever is caused by a spirochete, Borrelia burgdorferi. Tularemia is caused by a gram-negative nonmotile coccobacillus, Francisella
tularemia. The protozoan parasites, Babesia microti and B. equi, cause babesiosis. Q
fever is unique in that it is the only rickettsial infection acquired by aerosol inhalation
rather than by an arthropod vector. Q fever is common among domesticated farm animals in the United States and is shed in urine, feces, and afterbirth. The rickettsial organism responsible for causing Q fever is Coxiella burnetti.
292. The answer is C. (Chapter 145) Most viral zoonotic pneumonias are caused by
influenza. Influenza types A, B, and C infect humans, but only influenza type A is transmitted between vertebrate animals and humans. In addition to migrating waterfowl, horses
and marine mammals can serve as reservoirs. There is also evidence for transmission of
influenza virus between specific species, such as humans and pigs. Pandemics of human
influenza are believed to occur as a combination of antigenic drift of viral surface proteins
I NFECTIOUS D ISEASE E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
105
(hemagglutinin and neuraminidase) and a zoonotic reservoir for the virus. Influenza pneumonia carries a high mortality rate, especially in patients older than 70 years. Antiviral
therapy with amantadine and rimantadine is effective against influenza A but not against
types B or C. Annual influenza vaccination is recommended for healthcare workers.
293. The answer is A. (Chapter 146) Gas-forming soft tissue infections are rapidly progressive. The incubation period is short, with symptoms occurring fewer than 3 days
after inoculation. Patients frequently describe pain out of proportion to physical findings
and a sensation of “heaviness” of the affected part. On examination, the skin is often
bronze-colored with brawny edema and crepitance. Bullae and a malodorous serosanguinous discharge may be seen. Patients are often irritable or confused and have lowgrade fevers with tachycardia out of proportion to the fever. Common laboratory findings
include leukocytosis, anemia, metabolic acidosis, thrombocytopenia, coagulopathy, myoglobinemia, and myoglobinuria and abnormalities of kidney or liver function tests. Radiologic studies may demonstrate gas within soft tissue planes and within the peritoneal or
retroperitoneal spaces.
294. The answer is C. (Chapter 146) Cutaneous abscesses represent 1 to 2 percent of all
presenting complaints to EDs. Most patients can be treated with incision and drainage of
the abscess and discharged from the ED with follow-up in 2 to 3 days. Antibiotic use is
controversial. The risk of systemic infection after local incision and drainage appears to
be low. In patients with diabetes, alcoholism, or other underlying immunocompromised
states, the threshold for antibiotic use should be lower. In addition, patients with signs of
systemic disease such as fever, chills, or cellulitis extending beyond the abscess borders
should be strongly considered for antibiotic therapy.
295. The answer is C. (Chapter 147) All of the STDs listed except HIV are reportable communicable diseases according to the CDC guidelines. HIV is reportable in the pediatric
population ( 13 years old). In patients older than 13 years, HIV disease is not reportable
until the disease has progressed to AIDS. The current CDC definition of AIDS requires an
HIV-infected adult to have: (1) a CD4 T lymphocyte count of less than 200, (2) a CD4 T
lymphocyte count less than 14 percent of total lymphocytes, or (3) any of the following:
pulmonary tuberculosis, recurrent pneumonia, invasive cervical cancer, or 23 other clinical
conditions that are listed on the World Wide Web at www.cdc.gov/epo/mmwr/mmwr.html.
296. The answer is D. (Chapter 150) Herpes simplex virus 1 is a frequent cause of cranial
nerve (CN) VII (Bell’s) palsy. All of the signs or symptoms described can be found with
a simple peripheral CN VII palsy, except sparing of the forehead musculature on the
affected side. Central CN VII lesions spare the forehead musculature because of crossinervation from the opposite side. However, a peripheral lesion should cause the patient to
be unable to wrinkle the brow on the ipsilateral side. If the forehead is spared, additional
investigations such as head CT or magnetic resonance imaging are warranted. The differential diagnosis of Bell’s palsy includes tumor, stroke, Guillain-Barré syndrome, Lyme
disease, and Ramsay Hunt syndrome. In addition, if a Bell’s palsy is found with an otitis
media, mastoiditis, or parotitis, an ENT specialist should be consulted.
297. The answer is B. (Chapter 150) CMV is a common herpes virus that is present in 40
to 100 percent of adults, depending on geographic location, socioeconomic status, attendance at day care, and sexual behavior. Symptomatic CMV infections usually occur in
the advanced stages of HIV disease and can cause significant morbidity. CMV retinitis
occurs in more than 10 percent of AIDS patients and may be treated acutely with gancyclovir for 2 to 3 weeks, followed by lifetime suppressive therapy. The natural course
of CMV retinitis involves progression to blindness, but the disease process may be
slowed with the use of gancyclovir. Gancyclovir cannot cure patients of their CMV, and
it does not reverse loss of sight that has already occurred. In addition to retinitis, CMV
can cause esophagitis, colitis, or adrenalitis in HIV patients.
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I NFECTIOUS D ISEASE E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
298. The answer is A. (Chapter 148) The CDC instituted six basic universal precautions,
including all of the listed recommendations, except the recommendation regarding puncture-proof gloves. Gloves should be worn routinely when contact with blood or other
body fluids is anticipated. However, to date, no acceptable puncture-proof glove is available. Needles should never be recapped, and they should be disposed of in special
“sharps” containers. Pregnant healthcare workers should be aware of the risk of perinatal HIV transmission.
299. The answer is C. (Chapter 148) Certain groups of healthcare workers are at greater
risk for contracting TB. Factors to consider include contact with a large number of
infected patients, exposure to highly infectious patients, increased ventilation rate of the
worker, the duration of exposure, and air-exchange rates in the environment. An
increased air-exchange rate in the environment allows for greater filtration of air and a
reduction in the number of potentially infective particles in the environment. Healthcare
workers in the inner city are at greatest risk for contracting TB. OSHA regulations
require healthcare workers and visitors who enter rooms of known or suspected TB
patients to wear high-efficiency particulate air masks. All healthcare workers are advised
to participate in TB screening and prophylaxis programs.
METABOLIC, ENDOCRINOLOGIC,
AND RHEUMATOLOGIC EMERGENCIES
QUESTIONS
DIRECTIONS:
Each question below contains five suggested responses. Choose the one best response to each question.
Questions 300–301
300. A patient presents to the ED and has the following
laboratory values: sodium 139 mEq/L, potassium 4.1
mEq/L, chloride 112 mEq/L, bicarbonate 15 mEq/L,
blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 22, creatinine 1.5, and glucose 180. All of the following could be the etiology of
these laboratory findings EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
salicylates
renal tubular acidosis, type II
acute diarrhea
ureterosigmoidostomy
pancreatic fistula
301. What is the calculated osmolarity for the patient in
question 300?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
157
274
296
310
347
mOsm/L
mOsm/L
mOsm/L
mOsm/L
mOsm/L
302. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
(SIADH) secretion can be caused by each of the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
meningitis
pneumonia
hyperthryoidism
thiazide diuretics
monoamine oxidase inhibitors
303. A patient is sent to the ED from his doctor’s office
because of hypocalcemia. One would expect all of the
following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
304. A patient presents to the ED complaining of sudden
onset of shortness of breath 1 day after a 5-h plane ride.
Arterial blood gas on room air at sea level is: pH 7.32, PaO2 74 mm Hg, PCO2 30 mm Hg. What is
the alveolar-arterial (A-a) gradient for this patient?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
20
30
40
50
60
mm
mm
mm
mm
mm
Hg
Hg
Hg
Hg
Hg
305. A young male presents to the ED unable to give a
history. As part of the work-up, you find an anion gap
(AG) of 38. All of the following are possible etiologies
of this patient’s problem EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
lactic acidosis
ethylene glycol
hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state
renal failure
isopropanol
306. All of the following statements are true of hyperkalemia EXCEPT
(A) leukocytosis may cause a pseudohyperkalemia
(B) calcium chloride should be given for severe
cases of hyperkalemia
(C) kayexalate will not work for patients who have
had a colon resection
(D) inhaled albuterol can be used to treat
hyperkalemia
(E) the effects of hyperkalemia are decreased in
patients with hyperglycemia
Chvostek’s sign
muscle spasms
prolonged QT interval
Tinel’s sign
weakness
107
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108
M ETABOLIC , E NDOCRINOLOGIC ,
AND
R HEUMATOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
307. Which of the following statements regarding hypoglycemia is FALSE?
312. All of the following statements about hypothyroidism are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) Counterregulatory hormones are released in a
hypoglycemic state
(B) Hypoglycemia causes both autonomic and neuroglycopenic symptoms
(C) Hypoglycemic patients commonly present with
altered levels of consciousness, lethargy, confusion, or agitation
(D) Hypoglycemia is diagnosed when the blood
glucose is less than 60 mg/dL
(E) Glucagon is ineffective in the treatment of
alcohol-induced hypoglycemia
(A) prevalence is greater in women than in men
(B) amiodarone and lithium may mask the
presentation secondary to elevation of
thyroid hormone levels
(C) in secondary hypothyroidism, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are usually low
(D) although hypothyroidism is common in those
older than 60 years, a paucity of symptoms
may make the diagnosis difficult
(E) postablation hypothyroidism is a cause of
primary hypothyroidism
308. All of the following are important in quickly mediating and correcting states of hypoglycemia EXCEPT
313. All the following abnormalities are common in a
patient with myxedema EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
glucagon
epinephrine
glucocorticoid
decrease in insulin secretion
glycogenolysis
309. What is the MOST common cause of hypoglycemia
in patients presenting to the ED?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
First time presentation of diabetes
Alcohol related
Oral hypoglycemics
Insulinoma
Liver failure
310. Which scenario is MOST typical of alcoholic
ketoacidosis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Glucose Alcohol
Ketones
AG
Normal
High
High
Low
High
High
Mild
Low
elevation
Mild
High
elevation
Large
Large
Small
Large
Present
Present
Absent
Present
Small
Absent
311. Which of the following statements about alcoholic
ketoacidosis (AKA) is FALSE?
(A) Therapy includes intravenous administration of
glucose and saline solutions
(B) As AKA is treated, the nipride test becomes
more positive
(C) The development of Wernicke’s encephalopathy
can be prevented by administration of thiamine
before glucose infusion
(D) Most patients fully recover
(E) AKA occurs only in chronic alcoholics
(A) respiratory: hypoventilation, hypoxia
(B) central nervous system: confusion,
lethargy, coma
(C) electrolyte: hypernatremia, water retention
(D) cardiovascular: bradycardia
(E) thermoregulatory: hypothermia
314. All of the following pathways occur as diabetic
ketoacidosis develops EXCEPT
(A) hyperglycemia → glycosuria → dehydration
and loss of electrolytes
(B) hyperglycemia → cell dehydration → altered
level of consciousness
(C) insulin and glucagon deficiency → increased
hepatic gluconeogenesis
(D) lipolysis → ketosis → acidosis
(E) muscle breakdown → azotemia →
loss of sodium
315. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding administration of sodium bicarbonate solution during
the management of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
(A) It prevents paradoxical spinal fluid acidosis
and cerebral edema
(B) It shifts potassium ions extracellularly and
corrects the hypokalemia
(C) It shifts the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve
to the right, facilitating off-loading of oxygen
at the tissue level
(D) Complications include rebound alkalosis and
sodium overload
(E) It is recommended in all DKA patients with
severely altered levels of consciousness
M ETABOLIC , E NDOCRINOLOGIC ,
AND
R HEUMATOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
316. All of the following are appropriate treatments for
DKA EXCEPT
(A) administering 3 to 5 L normal saline in the
first 4 to 6 h
(B) replacing the 3 to 5 mEq KCl/kg deficit
gradually over the first 2 to 3 days
(C) infusing insulin at 0.1 U/kg/h after the initial
bolus is given
(D) stopping insulin administration when glucose
levels fall to 250 mg/dL
(E) administering phosphate if levels fall below
1.0 mg/dL
317. Which of the following statements concerning hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is
TRUE?
(A) The mortality rate of HHNS is less than that
of DKA
(B) HHNS and DKA are easily distinguishable
(C) A majority of HHNS patients present
with coma
(D) Metabolic acidosis excludes the diagnosis
(E) Seizures occur in up to 15 percent of patients
with HHNS
318. Precipitating factors for HHNS include all of the
following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
infections
extensive burns
thiazide diuretics
ingestion of large quantities of sugarcontaining fluids
(E) salicylic acid
319. Which of the following statements regarding lactic
acidosis is FALSE?
(A) It is an uncommon cause of metabolic acidosis
(B) The source of elevated lactic acid comes from
the conversion of pyruvate to lactate
(C) In anoxic states, the cellular lack of NAD
prevents mitochondrial reduction of lactate
to pyruvate
(D) Lactic acidosis caused by tissue hypoxia is
classified as type A lactic acidosis
(E) Liver and kidney gluconeogenesis contribute
significantly to lactate utilization
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320. An ill-appearing 48-year-old European female presents to the ED with nonspecific complaints. Laboratory
tests show an elevated AG, lactate level of 5.0, pH 7.34,
and a normal glucose level. Detailed history reveals
that she is taking oral phenformin. All of the following
apply to this patient’s lactic acidosis EXCEPT
(A) the patient most likely has type B lactic
acidosis
(B) sodium bicarbonate should be administered
(C) myocardial contractility and hypotension may
occur at pH levels below 7.1
(D) phenformin has been withdrawn from the
U.S. market
(E) ethanol use can cause a similar presentation
321. Which of the following statements regarding hyperthyroidism is FALSE?
(A) Free T3 is more biologically active than T4 but
has a shorter half-life
(B) Hyperthyroidism during pregnancy is almost
always due to Graves’ disease
(C) Lithium, iodine, and amiodarone have all been
associated with hyperthyroidism
(D) Normal T4 levels eliminate the possibility of
hyperthyroidism
(E) Mortality rates from thyroid storm range from
20 to 50 percent
322. Assuming no allergies, which of the following is
TRUE for all patients with thyroid storm?
(A) Give aspirin to control fever
(B) Administer propranolol to block the
adrenergic drive
(C) Give propylthiouracil (PTU) 1 h before iodide
therapy
(D) Draw free T4 /TSH levels before and 1 h after
administering antithyroxine
(E) Avoid steroids because these increase conversion of T4 to T3
323. Which of the following is TRUE regarding hormones produced in the adrenal glands?
(A) Corticotropin-releasing factor emanates from
the pituitary and stimulates cortisol release
(B) Cortisol is a potent hormone that increases glucose uptake into cells
(C) Aldosterone is an important mineralocorticoid
that increases sodium resorption and potassium
excretion
(D) Adrenally produced androgens are an important source of androgens in men
(E) Adrenal insufficiency occurs primarily because
of decreased epinephrine and norepinephrine
production in the medulla
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324. An 18-year-old, ill-appearing female presents to the
ED with low blood pressure. She has a 1 day history
of headache and fever. Examination is significant for
petechial skin lesions. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
is suspected. All of the following statements are TRUE
EXCEPT
(A) bilateral adrenal gland hemorrhage frequently
occurs with this disorder
(B) the bacterial organism implicated in this severe
infection is Neisseria meningitidis
(C) although controversial, administration of
glucocorticoids is indicated in most cases
(D) abdominal CT is not sensitive in determining
adrenal hemorrhages
(E) pregnancy is a risk factor for developing
adrenal hemorrhage
325. A 48-year-old female with a history of sarcoidosis
comes to the ED with a chief complaint of syncope. She
admits to anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal
pain. She stopped going to work because she is too
tired. Physical examination is significant for hyperpigmented lesions and alopecia. Initial laboratory findings
show a glucose level of 50 mg/dL and a potassium level
of 5.4 mEq/L. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Conn’s syndrome
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Hyperthyroidism
Adrenal insufficiency
Depression
326. A 24-year-old male comes to the ED in adrenal crisis.
His wife reports that he has been feeling poorly for about
48 h. He is mumbling incoherently, blood pressure is
80/60, and temperature is 103°F. Which of the following
actions is LEAST likely to benefit this patient initially?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Starting mineralocorticoid therapy
Infusing isotonic saline
Administering dextrose
Administering 100 to 200 mg hydrocortisone
Administering appropriate intravenous
antibiotics
327. Each of the following cardiac conditions is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
pericarditis
aortic stenosis
angina
costochondritis
myocarditis
AND
R HEUMATOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
328. A 10-year-old female comes to the ED with bilateral
knee and ankle joint pain and subcutaneous nodules
over the extensor surfaces. Which of the following additional criteria is needed to confirm the diagnosis of
acute rheumatic fever (ARF)?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Fever
Arthralgia
Petechial rash
Evidence of preceding streptococcal infection
Chorea
329. A 58-year-old female presents to the ED with
headache, tender temples, and flashes of blindness consistent with temporal arteritis. Which of the following
actions is MOST appropriate?
(A) Consulting surgery for an immediate temporal
artery biopsy
(B) Confirming the diagnosis with an elevated
erythrocyte sedimentation rate and then consulting surgery
(C) Referring the patient back to her primary medical doctor (PMD) in the morning for extensive
rheumatologic evaluation
(D) Initiating high doses of indomethacin
(E) Initiating prednisone therapy
330. A 56-year-old male with no medical history presents
to the ED with a 1 to 2 day history of a painful elbow. He
denies trauma. Examination demonstrates a warm, tender,
erythematous joint. Range of motion is limited secondary to pain. All of the following are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) a diagnostic arthrocentesis should be
performed
(B) uric acid crystals may be seen upon examination of joint fluid with a polarizing microscope
(C) serum urate levels are often normal in
gout patients
(D) administration of intravenous colchicine is the
first line of treatment for this patient
(E) during an acute flare, other medications used
to prevent recurrences of gouty arthritis should
not be adjusted
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331. A 21-year-old male complains of new-onset left
knee pain without antecedent trauma. He last had sex 1
week before and does not use condoms. Which of the
following statements is TRUE?
(A) Cultures for gonorrhea should be obtained
from the oropharynx, urethra, and rectum
(B) Synovial fluid from joints infected with
gonoccocus often does not show the organism
(C) Intravenous antibiotics should be considered
when gonorrhea infection is present in weightbearing joints
(D) In some patients with gonorrhea,
vesiculopustular lesions are found on
the fingers
(E) All of the above
332. A 33-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the
ED with complaints of fever and arthralgias. On visual
inspection, there is no obvious swelling of the extremities. Which of the following joints are at greatest risk
for infection in this patient?
(A) Atlanto-axial-occipital joint
(B) Metacarpal and interphalangeal joints
(C) Sternoclavicular, sacroiliac, and
intervertebral joints
(D) Elbow and shoulder joints
(E) None of the above; all joints are
equally affected
333. All of the following support the diagnosis of a ruptured Baker’s cyst rather than a deep venous thrombosis
(DVT) EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
swelling that spares the foot
a “crescent sign”
rapid diminution of popliteal fullness
sudden onset calf pain and swelling
arthrogram showing no thrombus
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334. Which one of the following is the causative agent in
Lyme disease?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Borrelia burgdorferi
Ehrlichia chaffeensis
Isolated neurotoxin from a tick
Rickettsia rickettsii
Babesia species
335. All of the following are consistent with a diagnosis
of Kawasaki’s syndrome EXCEPT
(A) 80 percent of cases occur in patients younger
than 4 years
(B) conjunctivitis is common
(C) cervical lymphadenopathy is present in the
majority of children
(D) sterile pyuria is an associated feature
(E) only 15 percent of patients treated with
intravenous immunoglobulin within the
first 10 days of illness develop coronary
artery aneurysms
336. All of the following are criteria for admitting patients
with Henöch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
age younger than 2 years
renal function monitoring
rehydration for recurrent emesis
lack of PMD
control of abdominal pain
METABOLIC, ENDOCRINOLOGIC,
AND RHEUMATOLOGIC EMERGENCIES
ANSWERS
300–301. The answers are A and C, respectively. (Chapters 21, 23) The anion gap (AG)
is the difference between the measured sodium level and the sum of the measured chloride and CO2 levels. Normal AG 12 4. The etiologies of this patient’s normal AG
(hyperchloremic) metabolic acidosis can be remembered by a helpful mnemonic,
HARDUP: H for hypoaldosteronism (Addison’s disease), A for acetazolamide, R for renal
tubular acidosis, D for diarrhea, U for ureterosigmoidostomy, and P for pancreatic fistula.
Salicylate toxicity causes an elevated AG with a normal osmolar gap. Serum osmolarity
is measured directly by determining the freezing point of the serum. It is calculated from
the sodium, glucose, and BUN values with the following equation:
osmolarity 2(Na) glucose/18 BUN/2.8.
The normal serum osmolarity is 275 to 296 mOsm/L. In this case, the calculated
serum osmolarity is 296 mOsm/L. A difference between the measured and calculated
osmolarity (osmolol gap) of more than 10 mOsm/L indicates the presence of osmotically
active substances (such as alcohols) in the blood.
302. The answer is C. (Chapter 23) The diagnosis of SIADH is primarily one of exclusion
that should be made in the absence of hypovolemia, hypervolemia, renal failure, and drugs
that impair water excretion. The causes of this syndrome are diverse, ranging from central
nervous system disorders and tumors (lung cancer, lymphoma, thymoma) to pulmonary
and endocrine disorders, including glucocorticoid insufficiency and hypothyroidism. There
are miscellaneous causes such as porphyria, pain, and nausea. Opiates, chlorpropamide,
nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medications, cyclophosphamide, phenothiazines, monoamine oxidase inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, and thiazide diuretics are among the
drugs that have been implicated in this syndrome.
303. The answer is D. (Chapter 23) The severity of signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia
depends greatly on the rapidity of the fall of the calcium. Hypocalcemia is uncommon in
the ambulatory setting unless the patient recently had surgery and is hypoparathyroid or has
chronic renal disease. Symptoms of hypocalcemia include weakness, fatigue, perioral
paresthesias, muscle spasms, and impaired memory. Hypocalcemia should be considered in
refractory heart failure. Chvostek’s and Trousseau’s signs are evidence of hypocalcemia. A
positive Tinel’s sign signals carpal tunnel syndrome.
304. The answer is C. (Chapter 22) The A-a oxygen gradient measures the extent to which
lung function is impaired. The A-a gradient in a healthy individual is less than 15 mm Hg.
The formula to calculate the alveolar oxygen level at room air is: 150 (arterial CO2 1.2). The gradient is the difference between this number and the PaO2. In this case, 114
mm Hg 74 mm Hg 40 mm Hg.
305. The answer is E. (Chapter 21) Isopropanol, also known as isopropyl alcohol, is
commonly found in rubbing alcohol. The clinical features of isopropanol intoxication are
similar to those of ethanol intoxication. Laboratory studies of patients who have ingested
this alcohol show a normal or minimal AG, with an elevated osmolar gap. Patients with
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an AG greater than 35 usually have ethylene glycol or methanol intoxication, hyperglycemic hyperosmolar coma, or lactic acidosis. MUDPILES is the mnemonic for the etiologies of an AG acidosis: M for methanol, U for uremia, D for diabetic ketoacidosis, P
for paraldehyde, I for iron/isoniazid, L for lactic acidosis, E for ethanol and ethylene glycol, and S for salycilates.
306. The answer is E. (Chapter 23) Hemolysis, leukocytosis, and thrombocytosis all can
produce a pseudohyperkalemia. Effects of hyperkalemia are more pronounced in patients
with concomitant hyponatremia and hypocalcemia. There are many different ways to treat
hyperkalemia. Kayexalate (sodium polystyrene sulfonate) is an ion-exchange resin that
works in the distal colon to extract potassium. High-dose inhaled albuterol is a useful temporizing measure to move potassium into the intracelluar space. Glucose with insulin can
also cause a temporary shift of potassium into the intracellular space. Sodium bicarbonate
causes an alkalosis that tends to reduce serum potassium levels. Calcium (preferably CaCl
because of the higher concentration of calcium) stabilizes the cell membrane. Dialysis
should be used to rapidly remove potassium when the hyperkalemia is severe.
307. The answer is D. (Chapters 23, 202) The serum glucose level that causes hypoglycemic symptoms is variable. Levels of 35 mg/dL and lower are present in asymptomatic
individuals, and levels in the “normal” range can cause symptoms of hypoglycemia that
resolve with glucose administration. Patients with hypoglycemia experience both neuroglycopenic and autonomic symptoms. Neuroglycopenic symptoms result from a direct
effect on the brain and manifest as dizziness, confusion, tiredness, difficulty speaking,
and headache. Autonomic or sympathomimetic symptoms are due to release of the counterregulatory hormone epinephrine and include diaphoresis, anxiety, trembling, and nausea. Glucagon is ineffective in alcoholics and the elderly because they have low
glycogen stores.
308. The answer is C. (Chapters 23, 202) The counterregulatory hormones glucagon and
epinephrine are released in response to hypoglycemia. Within minutes, glycogenolysis is
activated and glucose is released into the bloodstream. Simultaneous to this process,
there is a notable decrease in insulin secretion. Glucocorticoid and growth hormone are
slower-acting mediators.
309. The answer is B. (Chapters 23, 202) Both alcohol use and diabetes are common
causes of hypoglycemia. The established diabetic patient who eats inadequately, has
inappropriate medication dosing, is on a multiple-drug regimen, or has a complicating
medical problem may present with hypoglycemia. New-onset diabetes presents with
hyperglycemia. Insulinomas, overdose of oral hypoglycemics, and liver failure are less
frequent causes of low blood sugar.
310. The answer is D. (Chapter 204) The laboratory presentation of alcoholic ketoacidosis is variable but tends to follow the pattern described in answer D. Glucose levels are
mildly elevated. The alcohol level is uncharacteristically low given the patient’s history
of regular alcohol consumption. Ketones are present in large numbers and cause an elevated AG. The three ketones produced are -hydroxybutyrate, acetoacetate, and acetone.
Acetone is nonacidotic and rapidly excreted in the urine.
311. The answer is E. (Chapter 204) Although AKA classically presents in chronic alcoholics, it can also occur in first-time drinkers who consume insufficient food. Standard
therapy of AKA consists of administration of glucose, thiamine, and saline solutions.
This regimen restores volume, replenishes glucose, and prevents Wernicke’s encephalopathy from developing. As acetoacetate increases and -hydroxybutyrate decreases, the
nipride test becomes more positive. Thus, as the patient’s clinical condition improves,
laboratory values may transiently worsen. Most patients without co-morbid conditions
recover fully from AKA.
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312. The answer is B. (Chapter 207) Hypothyroidism has a higher prevalence in women
and is especially common in individuals older than 60 years. A high suspicion must be
maintained in elderly patients because there is often a paucity of classic signs and symptoms. Autoimmune disorders, idiopathic causes, and postablation of thyroid tissue are
common etiologies. In primary hypothyroidism, the TSH levels are high; in secondary
hypothyroidism, the TSH levels are low. Amiodarone and lithium may induce hypothyroidism by increasing iodine levels, thereby inhibiting thyroxine production.
313. The answer is C. (Chapter 207) The rare patient who develops myxedema because
of prolonged and severe hypothyroidism exhibits all of the listed abnormalities except
hypernatremia. The hypothyroid patient typically becomes overloaded with water,
leading to dilutional hyponatremia. The etiology of this hyponatremia is not clearly
understood. The patient in a myxedematous state is usually hypothermic, lethargic, hypoventilating, and bradycardic.
314. The answer is C. (Chapter 203) Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when inadequate
insulin is secreted from pancreatic cells. In response, glucagon levels soar. The elevated
glucagon levels result in gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis. This hyperglycemic state
produces an osmotic diuresis, leading to cell dehydration, electrolyte abnormalities, and
an altered level of consciousness. The catabolic processes of lipolysis and muscle breakdown are also activated.
315. The answer is D. (Chapter 203) Administration of sodium bicarbonate is controversial. It may cause paradoxical spinal fluid acidosis, adversely affecting brain function. In
addition, it shifts potassium ions intracellularly and worsens hypokalemia. The acidosis
in diabetic states is protective and shifts the oxyhemoglobin curve to the right. Administering bicarbonate solutions may shift the curve back to the left.
316. The answer is D. (Chapter 203) Patients with DKA have an average water deficit of
5 to 10 L secondary to the osmotic diuresis that occurs with high serum glucose levels.
Normal saline administration prevents a rapid fall in osmolality that could lead to excessive transfer of water into the central nervous system. Although the initial serum potassium level is elevated, repletion of potassium is necessary to restore low intracellular
levels. To prevent hypoglycemia, dextrose should be added to intravenous fluids when
the serum glucose falls to a level between 250 and 300 mg/dL. Even with this level of
glucose, continued insulin is needed to resolve the acidosis and ketonemia. Phosphate
levels only become critical when below 1.0 mg/dL.
317. The answer is E. (Chapter 205) HHNS occurs primarily in diabetics, although most
cases are undiagnosed at the time of presentation. The mortality of HHNS is three to
seven times greater than that for DKA. HHNS is characterized by severe dehydration
(8–12 L deficit), hyperglycemia (greater than in DKA), and hyperosmolality. In patients
with HHNS, high levels of glucose occur without the ketone body formation seen in
DKA. However, metabolic acidosis may occur in HHNS from other causes (e.g., excessive lactic acid levels or uremia). Neurologic signs can be prominent in HHNS, with
about 15 percent of patients manifesting seizures. Although HHNS is frequently referred
to as hyperosmolar nonketotic coma, coma occurs in fewer than 10 percent of such
patients. HHNS and DKA can be difficult to distinguish clinically.
318. The answer is E. (Chapter 205) Any comorbid disease process can precipitate
HHNS in a diabetic patient. In the nondiabetic population, HHNS can occur after dehydration from heat strokes, burns, or dialysis. Drugs, especially diuretics or those that
mediate insulin, are common precipitating factors. Ingestion of enormous amounts of
sugar-containing fluids is an unusual cause. Aspirin has not been implicated.
319. The answer is A. (Chapter 21) Lactic acidosis is the most common cause of metabolic acidosis. Lactate is produced in the anaerobic glycolysis pathway. Normally, phys-
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iologic levels of lactate are cleared through gluconeogenesis in the kidney and liver.
When this system is overwhelmed and NAD is lacking, lactate levels rise. This commonly occurs in hypoxic or hypovolemic states and is referred to as type A lactic acidosis.
320. The answer is B. (Chapter 184) This patient suffers from phenformin-induced lactic
acidosis. Phenformin is an oral hypoglycemic agent used in Europe that is no longer used
in the United States. Other drugs such as alcohol, methanol, and antiretrovirals are also
associated with type B lactic acidosis. The clinical findings of lactic acidosis are nonspecific. At a pH of 7.1 or lower, depressed cardiac function and hypotension may
develop. Administration of sodium bicarbonate solution is controversial. Current recommendations suggest withholding alkali therapy if the pH is above 7.1.
321. The answer is D. (Chapter 206) Although most cases of hyperthyroidism are characterized by low levels of free thyroxine (T4), levels are normal in some thyrotoxic
patients. T4 is the predominant circulating thyroid hormone. By cleaving an iodine molecule, triiodothyronine (T3) is produced. T3 is more biologically active than T4, but its
half-life is only 1 day. Graves’ disease is by far the most common cause of hyperthyroidism, even in pregnancy. In addition to lithium, iodine, and amiodarone, a patient’s
own thyroid medication can induce a hyperthyroid state. Despite treatment, mortality
rates of thyroid storm are high, ranging from 20 to 50 percent.
322. The answer is C. (Chapter 206) Aspirin use is contraindicated in the setting of thyroid storm because salicylates increase free T3 and T4 levels by displacing the molecules
from their carrier thyronine-binding globulin hormone. Free T4 and TSH levels should be
drawn before, not after, therapy. Blockers such as propranolol are contraindicated in
patients with bronchospastic disease or heart block. A selective 1 blocker (e.g.,
esmolol) can be used in this setting. Administration of PTU before iodide prevents the
incorporation of iodide into the new thyroxine hormone. Steroid use is associated with
increased survival, especially in cases with the potential for adrenal insufficiency.
323. The answer is C. (Chapter 208) Adrenal insufficiency is a deficiency produced by
inadequate hormone production from the adrenal cortex, not the medulla. Adrenal
medulla deficiency does not result in clinical disease. The following hormones are
released from the adrenal gland: (a) aldosterone: increases sodium resorption and potassium excretion; (b) cortisol: maintains adequate glucose levels by decreasing glucose
uptake and facilitating gluconeogenesis; and (c) androgens: important for certain sexual
characteristics. Cortisol is released in response to pituitary release of adrenocorticotropic
hormone (ACTH). ACTH is stimulated by corticotropin-releasing factor from the hypothalamus. The male gonads are the most important source of androgens; adrenal production is trivial by comparison.
324. The answer is D. (Chapter 208) The Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is a lifethreatening disorder resulting from overwhelming septicemia due to infection with N.
meningitidis. Only about 10 percent of meningococcemia cases result in this syndrome.
Bilateral adrenal hemorrhage is common. Computed tomography (CT) and ultrasound
are both helpful in making the diagnosis. Although steroids are controversial, they are
usually administered before antibiotic therapy. Risk factors for adrenal hemorrhage
include stress, trauma, anticoagulants, pregnancy, surgery, and burns.
325. The answer is D. (Chapter 208) Adrenal insufficiency manifests insidiously. The
findings in this patient are explained by deficiencies in androgens, corticosteroids, and
mineralocorticoids. Hyperpigmented lesions represent lack of suppression of ACTH and
melanocyte-stimulating hormone. Conn’s syndrome results from overproduction of
adrenal hormones. Isolated nephrogenic diabetes insipidus would not produce low glucose and elevated potassium. Hyperthyroidism has a vastly different clinical presentation, and glucose levels are often elevated. Depression alone would not account for the
hyperpigmented skin or the electrolyte changes.
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326. The answer is A. (Chapter 208) This patient’s initial stabilization should include all
of these measures except beginning mineralocorticoid therapy. Hydrocortisone replenishes the patient’s inadequate steroid levels and provides some mineralocorticoid effect.
Therefore, early administration of mineralocorticoids is not necessary. Correction of
hypoglycemia and hypotension are essential. Early antibiotic administration is important
to prevent potentially fatal infections leading to adrenal crisis.
327. The answer is B. (Chapter 276) Both pericarditis and myocarditis are common clinical manifestations in SLE patients. Although pericarditis may be accompanied by effusion, it rarely progresses to pericardial tamponade. Chronic steroid therapy may lead to
premature atherosclerotic disease. Therefore, angina and myocardial infarctions should
be considered. Costochondritis is a component of lupus arthritis. Aortic stenosis may be
seen in association with ankylosing spondylitis, but not with SLE.
328. The answer is D. (Chapter 132) This patient has two major Jones’ criteria for ARF.
To make the diagnosis, evidence of streptococcal antibodies is needed. Major Jones’ criteria include carditis, polyarthritis, erythema marginatum, chorea, and subcutaneous nodules. Fever, arthralgia, and previous rheumatic fever are minor criteria. Evidence of
antecedent streptococcal infection plus either two major or one major and two minor criteria are necessary to diagnose ARF.
329. The answer is E. (Chapter 219) Temporal arteritis can cause sudden and permanent
loss of vision. This sudden loss of vision is due to narrowing of the ophthalmic or posterior ciliary arteries. Permanent visual loss occurs in approximately 10 percent of these
patients. Although a surgical biopsy of the artery is recommended, antiinflammatory
treatment with steroids can save sight and should be initiated in the ED based on clinical suspicion alone.
330. The answer is D. (Chapter 278) A first-time painful, swollen joint must be tapped to
rule out septic arthritis. The synovial fluid of a gouty joint appears like egg-drop soup,
with urate crystals and white blood cells visualized under the microscope. Serum urate
may be normal during an acute gouty attack. If a patient is taking chronic suppressive
therapy, it should be continued to avoid exacerbating crystal precipitation. Initial therapy
for the acute attack consists of indomethacin or oral colchicine. Intravenous colchicine
should be used with caution if at all because of serious side effects that include bone
marrow suppression, neuropathy, myopathy, and death.
331. The answer is E. (Chapter 278) A high index of suspicion must be maintained to
diagnose gonococcal arthritis. Urethral or vaginal discharge is not uniformly present. A
thorough history and examination should be performed in any sexually active patient
complaining of joint pain without antecedent trauma. Because synovial fluid rarely
shows the organism, in suspected gonococcal arthritis, cultures obtained from the urethra, cervix, rectum, mouth, and blood may be needed to confirm the diagnosis.
332. The answer is C. (Chapter 278) A thorough examination of all joints should be performed in intravenous drug users with fever and arthralgias. Joints that have a predisposition for infection and are often overlooked include the sternoclavicular, sacroiliac, and
intervertebral. If these joints are tender to palpation, additional work-up with bone scan
or joint aspiration is indicated.
333. The answer is D. (Chapter 55) Baker’s cysts occur when fluid from a chronic inflammatory arthritis dissects into potential space in the popliteal region. When this collection
of fluid ruptures, it can produce pain very similar to that of a DVT. Classically, swelling
that spares the foot, a bluish discoloration around the ankle (“crescent sign”), and a sudden decrease in popliteal fullness all support the diagnosis of a ruptured Baker’s cyst.
The gold standard test is the arthrogram or duplex Doppler scan. The rapidity of pain
onset when a Baker’s cyst ruptures does not help differentiate it from DVT.
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334. The answer is A. (Chapter 145) All of the agents are transmitted through ticks.
Ticks should be carefully removed from patients by grasping the head with forceps and
applying gentle pressure. Ehrlichia chaffeensis causes ehrlichiosis, isolated neurotoxin
causes tick paralysis, R. rickettsii causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever, and Babesia
species causes babesiosis. Lyme disease is the most frequently transmitted vector-borne
infection in the United States. The three stages of this disease culminate in a prolonged
and chronic arthritis.
335. The answer is E. (Chapters 131, 132) Kawasaki’s syndrome is a generalized vasculitis of small and medium-sized arteries. The classic presentation includes fever, conjunctivitis, lip and oral mucosal changes, strawberry tongue, extremity edema or
erythema, polymorphous rash, and cervical lymphadenopathy. Associated features affect
the cardiovascular, central nervous, hematologic, genitourinary, pulmonary, and gastrointestinal systems. Urethritis with a sterile pyuria can be seen. Coronary artery
aneurysms develop in about 20 percent of patients who receive no intravenous
immunoglobulin therapy but in only 3 to 4 percent of those who are treated within the
first 10 days of illness.
336. The answer is A. (Chapter 132) Patients with suspected HSP should be admitted to
the hospital for monitoring of renal function, rehydration, severe abdominal pain, lack of
a PMD who is available for close follow-up, or when the diagnosis is in doubt. There is
no specific age requirement for admission.
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NEUROLOGIC AND
PSYCHIATRIC EMERGENCIES
QUESTIONS
DIRECTIONS:
Each question below contains five suggested responses. Choose the one best response to each question.
337. A 20-year-old female undergraduate student presents complaining of a gradual onset of right-sided
headache. The headache is accompanied by nausea and
photophobia and prevents her from studying for exams.
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be associated with her headache?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Aura
Birth control pills
Family history of similar headaches
Menstruation
Unilateral tearing with conjunctival injection
338. A 60-year-old male presents complaining of a typical
spring headache, 2 months after a femoral-popliteal
bypass. He states that the pain is excruciating, began over
the left eye, and is causing the eye to tear and throb.
Which abortive therapy is the LEAST appropriate?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Ergotamine
Ketorolac
Prochlorperazine
Oxygen inhalation
Intranasal lidocaine
339. Temporal arteritis is a vasculitis that affects women
more frequently than men. Which one of the following
is NOT usually associated with temporal arteritis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Age 50 years
ESR 50
Ischemic papillitis
Tender, pulsatile temporal artery
Polymyalgia
340. Amaurosis fugax is caused by occlusion of which
one of the following arteries?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Anterior cerebral artery
Basilar artery
Carotid artery
Posterior cerebral artery
Vertebral artery
341. A 58-year-old female is brought to the ED by her
family. They state that her words do not make sense, the
right side of her face is drooping, and she is weak on the
right side. On examination you note that the patient is
awake and alert, has an expressive aphasia, right-sided
facial droop, three-fifths right arm strength, four-fifths
right leg strength, and decreased sensation to pin-prick on
the right side. Which stroke syndrome is MOST likely?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Anterior cerebral artery infarct
Basilar artery occlusion
Middle cerebral artery infarct
Lacunar infarct
Intracerebral hemorrhage
342. A 62-year-old female with a history of TIA affecting
the right side complains of 8 h of a dense right-sided
paralysis and dysarthria. No previous studies have been
completed. What is the MOST appropriate disposition?
(A) Admit to the medical ward
(B) Admit to the rehabilitation ward
(C) Discharge to home and arrange follow-up with
the primary care physician
(D) Transfer the patient to a skilled nursing facility
(E) Conduct a stroke work-up in the ED and then
discharge to home
343. A 25-year-old male is brought to the ED by his sister who states that he started vomiting that morning
after complaining of a severe headache. On examination, he is drowsy but arousable with mild nuchal rigidity and no focal neurologic deficit. Which of the
following is LEAST likely to be needed for his work-up
and treatment?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
CT of the head
Blood glucose determination
Antiemetic
Lumbar puncture
Nimodipine
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344. Which of the following MOST likely represents
vertigo of peripheral origin?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Ataxia
Diplopia
Dysphagia
Facial numbness
Unilateral hearing loss
345. A 26-year-old female is brought to the ED after
three successive witnessed grand mal seizures without
recovery of consciousness. Upon arrival, she is obtunded
with no spontaneous eye opening and withdraws to pain
only. Initial ED management could include all of the
following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
endotracheal intubation
barbiturate coma
phenytoin infusion
determination of blood glucose
gastric lavage
346. A 37-year-old male intravenous drug user (IVDU)
presents with the complaint of several days of general
malaise, difficulty swallowing, occasional double
vision, and subjective fever. On examination, the patient
is noted to have grossly intact cranial nerves II to XII, a
distended bladder, and a temperature of 99.1°F. What is
the MOST appropriate next step?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Admit to the ED observation unit
Admit to the floor for observation
Admit to the ICU
Discharge to home with reassurance
Discharge to home with follow-up in
several days
347. Which of the following is LEAST consistent with
Guillain-Barré syndrome?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Ascending paralysis
Preceded by exposure to toxins
Sensory involvement
Intact reflexes
Resolution of symptoms in months
348. Parkinson’s disease is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
akinesia or bradykinesia
cogwheel rigidity
intention tremor
Lewy bodies
impairment in posture and equilibrium
AND
P SYCHIATRIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
349. A 35-year-old female with a history of newly diagnosed myasthenia gravis presents to the ED with profound generalized muscle weakness for 2 days without
a known precipitant. A test dose of 2 mg intravenous
edrophonium results in visible muscle fasciculations
and slowing of the patient’s respiratory rate and depth.
Which of the following actions is INAPPROPRIATE?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Administering neostigmine
Preparing for intubation
Consulting a neurologist
Establishing aspiration precautions
Admission to the ICU
350. All of the following are consistent with multiple
sclerosis (MS) EXCEPT
(A) multiple discrete lesions of the white matter
(B) increase of immunoglobulin in the CSF
(C) worsening spasticity with urinary
tract infection
(D) diminution of symptoms with fever
(E) optic neuritis as first symptom
351. Which of the following seizure patients requires
electroencephalographic (EEG) monitoring for optimal
treatment?
(A) 35-year-old status post a witnessed
tonic–clonic seizure with resolution of the
postictal period in 10 min
(B) 40-year-old alcoholic status post two
witnessed seizures in the ED, with lucid
periods after each seizure
(C) 20-year-old status post first seizure
(D) 28-year-old with status epilepticus controlled
with fosphenytoin
(E) 30-year-old with refractory status epilepticus
requiring vecuronium
352. Which of the following is FALSE regarding myasthenia gravis?
(A) The clinical hallmark is nonfatigable
muscle weakness
(B) Myasthenia gravis is often associated with
other autoimmune diseases
(C) Confirmation of myasthenia is possible with
the edrophonium test
(D) Overmedication can produce a clinical picture
that mimicks myasthenic crisis
(E) Thymectomy is advocated for most
myasthenic patients
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353. A 7-year-old male presents to the ED 6 months status
post revision of a CSF shunt. He complains of a persistent headache for 1 week, occasional nausea, and vomiting three to four times that day. Evaluation for shunt
infection should include all of the following EXCEPT
(A) CT of the head
(B) shunt survey (plain films of the skull, chest,
and abdomen)
(C) compression of the reservoir
(D) neurosurgical consult
(E) lumbar tap
354. Which of the following statements regarding bacterial meningitis is FALSE?
(A) Some bacteria are able to spread directly into
the CNS, whereas others depend on
hematogenous seeding
(B) Brudzinski’s sign is not pathognomonic
for meningitis
(C) Dexamethasone can be given to adult patients
suspected of having meningitis
(D) Oral antibiotics change the clinical course
(E) Patients should receive prophylactic phenytoin
to prevent seizures
355. Which of the following reflex findings would be
pathologic in an adult?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Bilateral patellar hyperreflexia
Bilateral patellar hyporeflexia
Bilateral snout reflexes
Bilateral plantar reflexes
Superficial anal reflex
356. Which of the following distinguishes delirium from
dementia?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Global cognitive impairment
Periods of acute worsening of symptoms
Clouded sensorium
Reversibility
Gradual onset of symptoms
357. Which of the following personality disorders is seen
in a disproportionate number of ED patients?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
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Antisocial
Borderline
Obsessive-compulsive
Dependent
Paranoid
358. Which of the following must be monitored in a
schizophrenic patient controlled with clozapine?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Liver function tests
Amylase
Glucose
CBC
Urinalysis
359. A 28-year-old female overdosed on her father’s
lithium. She presents with complaints of nausea, vomiting, and blurred vision. Initial lithium level is 2 mEq/L.
Which of the following would NOT be appropriate ED
management?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Intravenous hydration
Correction of electrolyte imbalance
Urine pregnancy test
Discharge to an inpatient psychiatric facility if
asymptomatic after a 4-h observation period
(E) Alkalinization of the urine
360. A 25-year-old male is brought to the ED by ambulance on a psychiatric hold after wandering in a residential area looking for the source of the evil voices that
he states are controlling his thoughts. Upon arrival, he
is screaming and wildly agitated. Which of the following represents an appropriate initial dose of intramuscular haloperidol for this patient?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
0.05 mg
0.5 mg
5.0 mg
50 mg
500 mg
361. Which of the following is more consistent with
bulimia than with anorexia nervosa?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Hypoglycemia
Tachydysrhythmia
Stress fracture
Dysphagia
Cathartic colon
362. Which of the following is LEAST consistent with a
panic attack?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Hallucinations
Palpitations
Chest tightness
Dizziness
Dyspnea
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363. A 13-year-old female presents with the complaint
that she cannot move her right leg. There are no other
associated symptoms and no history of trauma, headache, or prior medical problems. The symptom began
on the day she was to meet her father for the first time.
Which of the following would be LEAST helpful in the
management of this patient?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Perform a Hoover test
Tell her that nothing is wrong
Hypnosis
Tell her that she can talk with her father on the
telephone rather than in person
(E) Reassure the patient that she will walk again
364. All of the following are symptoms of physician
burnout EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
illicit drug use
chronic fatigue
excessive irritability
feelings of helplessness
negative attitudes toward work
365. Which of the following is MOST impaired by REM
sleep deprivation?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Physical recuperation
Intellectual tasks
Psychological well being
Social life
Manual tasks
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366. All of the following characteristics are associated
with an increased suicide risk EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
psychosis
unemployment
chronic illness
first attempt
readily available lethal weapon
367. Which of the following relations is LEAST likely to
exist?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Crime and substance abuse
Trauma and alcohol abuse
Mental illness and suicide gestures
Cocaine and sexually transmitted diseases
Intravenous drug use and long life expectancy
NEUROLOGIC AND
PSYCHIATRIC EMERGENCIES
ANSWERS
337. The answer is E. (Chapter 219) The headache described is typical of a migraine.
Migraine headaches can occur with or without an aura or prodrome. They can be provoked by changes in the body’s internal milieu, environmental factors, certain foods, medications, and alcohols. There is usually a positive family history. Occasionally, patients
have neurologic symptoms. Unilateral nasal congestion, tearing, and conjunctival injection are signs and symptoms seen with cluster headaches that predominantly affect men.
338. The answer is A. (Chapter 219) In general, abortive therapy for cluster headaches is
similar to treatment for migraines. Treatment includes ergotamines, phenothiazines, serotonin agonists, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs, and opiates. In addition, oxygen
inhalation of 5 to 8 L/min for 10 min at symptom onset and instillation of 4 percent
intranasal lidocaine into the ipsilateral nostril are useful modalities. Ergotamine is contraindicated in patients such as this one who have peripheral vascular disease. It should
also be avoided in patients with focal neurologic signs, hypertension, coronary artery disease, and in those who are pregnant.
339. The answer is D. (Chapter 219) Temporal arteritis affects people older than age 50
years and is usually unilateral. Systemic signs and symptoms are generally present. They
include fever, malaise, weight loss, anorexia, visual deficits, and polymyalgia. On examination, the temporal artery is tender and pulseless. The most common sequela is blindness, secondary to ischemic papillitis. If the diagnosis is strongly suspected, prednisone
should be initiated in the ED to prevent the progression of blindness.
340. The answer is C. (Chapter 220) Amaurosis fugax is an ocular transient ischemic
attack (TIA) involving the anterior circulation of the brain that is characterized by sudden onset of painless monocular blindness. The basilar, posterior cerebral, and vertebral
arteries belong to the posterior circulation. The anterior cerebral artery is distal to the
ophthalmic artery. The ophthalmic artery supplies the optic nerve and the retina and is
the first branch off the internal carotid artery. Therefore, of the listed choices, the symptom can only be attributed to the carotid artery.
341. The answer is C. (Chapter 220) Patients with hemorrhagic stroke syndromes generally
have decreased mentation. Anterior cerebral artery infarcts cause leg weakness more than
arm weakness. Basilar artery occlusion causes the “locked-in” syndrome. Lacunar infarcts
lead to pure motor or sensory deficits. Middle cerebral artery infarcts cause contralateral
sensory deficit and motor weakness, with the arm and face weaker than the leg. When the
dominant hemisphere is involved, patients often have a receptive or expressive aphasia.
342. The answer is A. (Chapter 220) All patients with new strokes should be admitted to
the hospital for evaluation, education, and early rehabilitation. No newly diagnosed
patient should go directly to rehabilitation or a nursing home. Only those patients with a
previous history of an anterior circulation stroke who have been previously studied and
present with a minor, completed, recurrent stroke or TIA and have a reliable support system may be discharged home. In this situation, primary care follow-up must be arranged
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after the appropriate ED work-up. If this patient had presented earlier, she could have
been a candidate for thrombolytic therapy.
343. The answer is D. (Chapter 219) Because of the patient’s altered mental status, hypoglycemia should be ruled out. Otherwise his presentation is typical for a subarachnoid
hemorrhage (SAH), with sudden onset of a severe, constant headache accompanied by
nausea and vomiting. An emergent noncontrast computed tomography (CT) of the head
is needed to confirm and localize the bleed. Up to 95 percent of all SAHs are identified
by CT. A lumbar puncture is performed only if the CT does not locate the bleed. Nausea and vomiting should be treated with antiemetics to prevent elevation of intracranial
pressure. Nimodipine treatment should be considered to reduce the incidence and severity of vasospasm that can lead to cerebral ischemia.
344. The answer is E. (Chapter 223) Peripheral vertigo is caused by disease processes
affecting structures peripheral to the brain stem. The eighth cranial nerve and vestibular
apparatus are both peripheral. Central lesions produce cerebellar signs and symptoms
such as ataxia, diplopia, dysphagia, and facial numbness.
345. The answer is B. (Chapter 224) Initial management of status epilepticus includes
stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation; search for correctable precipitants
such as hypoglycemia and toxic ingestion; and administration of appropriate anticonvulsant drugs. A barbiturate coma should be initiated only when status epilepticus is refractory to the standard regimen of benzodiazepines, phenytoin, and phenobarbital.
346. The answer is C. (Chapter 225) This clinical scenario is classic for botulism. An
IVDU is at risk for wound botulism because of the possibility of injecting botulinum
spores as a contaminant of the drugs. The botulism toxin is preformed and exerts its
effect at the myoneural junction by preventing the release of acetylcholine. In addition to
wound botulism, food-borne and infantile forms exist. Diagnosis depends on epidemiologic, clinical, and electrophysiologic findings and may be confirmed by finding the
toxin or organism in food, stool, or the wound. Precipitous respiratory failure is possible;
therefore, the patient should be admitted to the ICU and intubated as necessary.
347. The answer is D. (Chapter 225) Guillain-Barré syndrome may occur after contracting an infectious disease, a collagen vascular disease exacerbation, or an exposure to toxins. In general, the lower extremities are involved first and are affected more severely
than the upper extremities. The bulbar musculature may also be involved. Reflexes are
affected early, and lack of deep tendon reflexes is a hallmark finding. Recovery may take
months to years but is usually complete.
348. The answer is C. (Chapter 226) Parkinson’s disease is the most common of the
chronic neurodegenerative diseases. The four hallmark neurologic signs include cogwheel rigidity, akinesia or bradykinesia, impairment in posture and equilibrium, and a
resting tremor that becomes less prominent with purposeful movement. Other possible
signs and symptoms include facial and postural changes, voice and speech abnormalities,
depression, and muscle fatigue. Lewy bodies are cytoplasmic inclusions that represent
the characteristic cellular changes seen with Parkinson’s disease.
349. The answer is A. (Chapter 226) Patients with myasthenia gravis are treated with
cholinesterase inhibitors that can produce signs and symptoms of cholinergic excess.
Cholinergic crisis can be differentiated from myasthenic crisis by the Tensilon test. A
test dose of edrophonium is administered to determine whether muscle weakness
improves (indicating myasthenic crisis) or worsens (indicating cholinergic crisis). Once
cholinergic crisis is diagnosed, administration of additional cholinesterase inhibitors such
as neostigmine is contraindicated. The physician should be prepared to manage the airway, excessive secretions, bronchospasm, and impaired swallowing.
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350. The answer is D. (Chapter 229) MS is a demyelinating disease characterized by
focal, patchy destruction of myelin sheaths in the central nervous system (CNS). It manifests as recurrent attacks of a focal neurologic disease. Ten to 30 percent of patients in
the United States initially present with optic neuritis. Diagnosis is established clinically
and is supported by discrete white matter lesions on magnetic resonance imaging, conduction defects with evoked potentials, and increased immunoglobin in the cerebrospinal
fluid (CSF). Urologic dysfunction causes significant morbidity and mortality. Urinary
tract infections may aggravate symptoms such as lower extremity weakness or spasticity.
Small increases in the body temperature of MS patients can worsen existing signs and
symptoms and produce additional neurologic manifestations. Therefore, it is important to
lower the temperature in a febrile MS patient.
351. The answer is E. (Chapter 224) It would be interesting to obtain an EEG after each
clinically apparent seizure to demonstrate postictal slowing, indicating a true seizure.
However, it is not necessary for immediate clinical management. When patients require
paralytic agents, however, clinical assessment of seizure activity becomes impossible,
and EEG monitoring is necessary to assess the effectiveness of anticonvulsant therapy.
352. The answer is A. (Chapter 226) All of the listed items are true except for nonfatigable
weakness. In myasthenia gravis, neuromuscular transmission at the myoneural junction is
dysfunctional secondary to antibody-mediated depletion of acetylcholine receptors. With
repetitive activation of the motor nerve terminal, the affected muscle fiber becomes refractory to additional nerve impulses. This is manifested clinically as fatigable weakness.
353. The answer is E. (Chapter 228) All of the listed items are appropriate for evaluation
of shunt infection except lumbar puncture because it often misses CSF shunt infections.
A shunt tap rather than a lumbar tap should be performed by a neurosurgeon. All CSF
fluid obtained from the shunt tap should be cultured, even if the analysis is normal. Onefifth of all taps will ultimately be positive for infection.
354. The answer is E. (Chapter 227) Hematogenous spread usually occurs with encapsulated organisms that can survive dissemination through the bloodstream and trigger
inflammatory cascades in the host. Organisms reaching the CNS from direct spread are
less virulent and are associated with selected patient groups such as those with immunodeficiency, trauma, neurosurgery, CSF shunts, or infected parameningeal structures.
Brudzinski’s sign indicates meningeal irritation but can be secondary to many processes.
Dexamethasone has been shown to reduce morbidity in children with bacterial meningitis when given before or at the time of the first antibiotic. It is recommended in all
children and considered in adults who have a heavy burden of organisms and a reduced
level of consciousness. Antibiotics administered by any route can influence the clinical
course of meningitis. Seizure is a potential complication of meningitis, occurring in
about 25 percent of adults. Phenytoin may be used to treat seizures but is not recommended for prophylaxis.
355. The answer is C. (Chapter 218) Regressive pathologic reflexes include Babinski’s
reflex and snout, root, and grasp reflexes. They all indicate lack of inhibition from higher
cortical centers. Asymmetry of deep tendon reflexes is a significant finding, but the finding of a symmetrical increase or decrease in patellar reflexes without other neurologic
findings is usually normal. The superficial anal reflex is a normal contraction of the
external anal sphincter when the skin or mucosa of the perianal region is stroked. A normal plantar reflex involves plantar flexion of the toes or entire foot after the sole is
scratched near its lateral aspect, from the heel toward the toes.
356. The answer is C. (Chapters 221, 280) The two features that distinguish delirium from
dementia are (1) acute onset with rapid deterioration of function and (2) clouding of consciousness. Delirium and dementia share cognitive impairment, periods of acute worsening,
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and reversibility. Medical illnesses such as urinary tract infection and hepatic encephalopathy are common precipitants of worsening dementia and new-onset delirium, especially in
elderly patients.
357. The answer is A. (Chapter 280) Patients with antisocial personality disorder show a
pattern of maladaptive behavior. This can manifest as criminal behavior, fighting, lying,
abuse and neglect of dependents, and recklessness. ED management is challenging. It is
important to minimize anger toward such patients and to set firm limits on their behavior.
358. The answer is D. (Chapter 282) Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug used for
patients with schizophrenia unresponsive to standard agents or for patients with severe
extrapyramidal symptoms. Although clozapine induces less bradykinesia than most other
neuroleptics, it tends to cause more sedation. Because it can cause agranulocytosis, a
complete blood count (CBC) should be monitored weekly for the first 6 months of use
and then every 2 weeks thereafter.
359. The answer is D. (Chapter 282) Symptoms of acute lithium overdose may not be
fully apparent for up to 48 h, so it would not be appropriate to discharge this patient to a
psychiatric facility. She should be admitted to a medical facility and monitored for progression of symptoms. These include ataxia, hyperreflexia, incoordination, confusion, and
seizures. All of the other listed measures are appropriate components of ED management.
360. The answer is C. (Chapter 282) This patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of
acute psychosis and should be given an antipsychotic agent for his safety and the safety
of the staff. Low-potency neuroleptics such as chlorpromazine (Thorazine) should be
avoided because of the risk of hypotension. An appropriate dose of haloperidol is 5 to 10
mg intramuscularly, and this can be co-administered with lorazepam 1 to 2 mg intramuscularly for increased sedation.
361. The answer is D. (Chapter 283) Eating disorders produce a number of physiologic
and clinical changes. Bulimic patients often have dental problems secondary to recurrent
gastric acid regurgitation and vigorous brushing. They can also induce dysphagia,
hematemesis, and esophageal rupture with their excessive purging. Cathartic colon is
seen in laxative abusers and occurs when the colon is no longer capable of propelling a
fecal stream without large doses of laxatives. The other clinical manifestations—tachydysrhythmias, hypoglycemia, and stress fractures—are more consistent with anorexia
nervosa than with bulimia.
362. The answer is A. (Chapter 284) Panic attacks usually manifest with autonomic
symptoms such as palpitations, chest tightness, dizziness, dyspnea, and diaphoresis.
Attacks are associated with extreme anxiety and can mimic life-threatening medical conditions such as myocardial infarction. Psychotic features are not typical, and their presence requires screening for organic causes of the symptoms, in particular illicit drug use.
363. The answer is B. (Chapter 285) Management of conversion reactions includes ruling
out organic pathology, reassurance, removing precipitating factors, and psychiatric referral. In refractory cases, hypnosis or amobarbital (Amytal) interview may be required.
Patients should not be confronted because they are unaware that the symptoms have no
organic cause. The Hoover test is useful to distinguish pseudoparalysis from paralysis.
The examiner holds the heels of the patient and asks the patient to lift the unaffected leg.
With pseudoparalysis, the affected leg will push downward.
364. The answer is A. (Chapter 288) Burnout is a state of physical, emotional, and mental exhaustion. It is manifested by negative attitudes toward self, work, life, and others;
irritability toward others; anger and frustration; feelings of helplessness, isolation, and
hopelessness; and chronic fatigue. It is thought to be a precursor to more severe forms of
impairment that are manifested by alcohol use, drug use, and suicidal ideation.
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365. The answer is C. (Chapter 288) Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is the period of
time when the brain is on, but the body is off. It occurs toward the end of a normal 7- to
8-h nocturnal sleep period. It is thought to be vital for psychological well-being because
patients deprived of REM sleep complain of irritability and moodiness. Physical recuperation occurs during delta sleep. Intellectual tasks, social life, and manual tasks are
deleteriously affected by sleep deprivation but are not influenced by any specific phase
of the sleep cycle.
366. The answer is D. (Chapter 281) Multiple attempts, rather than the first attempt, are
associated with a high risk for successful suicide. Psychosis, unemployment, chronic illness, and easy access to a lethal weapon are all risk factors for suicide. Other characteristics that make a patient a high suicide risk include male sex, planned event, and
performance of the attempt in an area of unlikely rescue.
367. The answer is E. (Chapter 287) Illicit substance users are 18 times more likely to be
involved in criminal activities. Elevated serum alcohol levels are found in at least 35 percent of trauma patients. Mental health patients have an increased frequency of suicidal
ideation and gestures. Women commonly turn to prostitution to support their drug habits.
Intravenous drug users have an increased risk of intentional and accidental overdose,
infection, and blood-borne diseases, thereby decreasing their normal life expectancy.
Crime, substance abuse, trauma, and medical problems are all interrelated and underscore
the need for physicians to be proactive in health education and legislative activities.
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OBSTETRIC AND
GYNECOLOGIC EMERGENCIES
QUESTIONS
DIRECTIONS:
Each question below contains five suggested responses. Choose the one best response to each question.
368. All of the following are TRUE of spontaneous abortion (SAB) EXCEPT
(A) more than 50 percent of the abortuses have
chromosomal abnormalities
(B) most SABs occur before 8 or 9 weeks
of gestation
(C) maternal factors such as uterine adhesions
and pelvic structural abnormalities may lead
to SABs
(D) the incidence of SAB climbs with increasing
maternal age
(E) the pain associated with SAB usually occurs
after the bleeding has commenced
Questions 369–370.
369. A 25-year-old female presents to the ED with right
lower quadrant pain. Her last normal menstrual period
was 26 days ago. She is expecting her menses to begin
any day. What is the first study you should order on this
patient?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Urinalysis
Complete blood count (CBC)
Quantitative hCG
Qualitative hCG
Ultrasound
370. With respect to the patient in question 369, which of
the following is the LEAST likely etiology of the pain?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Ectopic pregnancy
Mittelschmerz
Ovarian torsion
Endometriosis
Appendicitis
371. A 30-year-old pregnant female presents to the ED
complaining of vaginal bleeding. All of the following
statements are true concerning this patient EXCEPT
(A) most patients with bleeding in early pregnancy
have normal pregnancy outcomes
(B) urinary tract infection can precipitate
spontaneous abortion
(C) lack of adnexal mass on bedside ultrasound
makes ectopic unlikely
(D) she should have her Rh status checked
(E) the quantitative hCG level should
be monitored
372. All of the following are true of intraperitoneal blood
and culdocentesis EXCEPT
(A) the test is positive when clotting blood
is aspirated
(B) cervical motion tenderness may be present in a
patient with intraperitoneal blood
(C) a ruptured corpus luteum cyst can produce a
positive test
(D) culdocentesis is positive in the majority of
ectopic pregnancies, ruptured and unruptured
(E) aspiration of clear fluid denotes a negative test
373. All of the following are risk factors for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
multiple sexual partners
adolescence
history of gonococcal salpingitis
use of intrauterine (IUD) contraceptive device
low socioeconomic status
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O BSTETRIC
374. All of the following regimens are recommended for
the treatment of acute PID EXCEPT
(A) ceftriaxone 125 mg intramuscularly plus
doxycycline 100 mg orally twice a day for
10 to 14 days
(B) cefoxitin 2 g intravenously every 6 h plus
doxycycline 100 mg intravenously twice a
day or orally for 10 to 14 days
(C) cefoxitin 2 g intramuscularly plus probenecid
1 g orally and ofloxacin 400 mg orally twice
a day for 14 days
(D) clindamycin 900 mg intravenously every 8 h
plus gentamycin loading dose of 2 mg/kg
intravenously followed by a maintenance
dose of 1.5 mg/kg every 8 h
(E) cefotetan 2 g intravenously every 12 h plus
doxycycline 100 mg intravenously twice a
day or orally for 10 to 14 days
375. All of the following are TRUE concerning vulvovaginitis EXCEPT
(A) bacterial vaginosis is the most common etiology
(B) alkaline cervical secretions predispose a
woman to infection
(C) older women usually do not have symptoms
until the vulvovaginitis is advanced
(D) pinworms (Enterobius vermicularis) can cause
vaginal irritation
(E) the classic “strawberry cervix” is commonly
seen in patients with Trichomonas vaginalis
376. All of the following physiologic changes take place
during normal pregnancy EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
respiratory rate is increased
blood volume increases
systolic blood pressure decreases
serum blood urea nitrogen (BUN) decreases
leukocyte count increases
377. All of the following statements concerning drugs in
pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) with the exception of large molecules, virtually
all drugs cross the placenta
(B) category A drugs are safe during the first
trimester of pregnancy
(C) diuretics are not generally recommended
in pregnancy
(D) erythromycin estolate can be safely prescribed
in pregnancy
(E) cephalosporins can be used at any time during
pregnancy
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G YNECOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
378. The MOST important factor in determining fetal risk
from diagnostic imaging is the amount of ionizing radiation produced by the test. Rank the following radiation
exposures from lowest to highest dose of radiation.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Head computed tomography (CT)
Posteroanterior and lateral chest x-ray
Lumbrosacral spine series (three films)
Abdominal CT
Intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
2,
2,
3,
1,
2,
3,
1,
2,
4,
1,
1,
3,
1,
2,
5,
4,
5,
5,
3,
3,
5
4
4
5
4
379. A woman in the third trimester of pregnancy presents
to the ED complaining of abdominal pain without vaginal
bleeding. Vital signs are remarkable for a systolic blood
pressure of 160, heart rate of 105, and a respiratory rate
of 18. Which one of the following statements is TRUE
concerning this patient?
(A) A normal ultrasound excludes the diagnosis of
placental abruption
(B) Lack of vaginal bleeding excludes the
diagnosis of placental abruption
(C) A pelvic examination should be avoided
(D) A CBC, electrolytes, and renal and liver
function tests (LFTs) should be obtained
(E) Immediate delivery is indicated
380. All of the following are TRUE of HELLP syndrome
EXCEPT
(A) the majority of women complain of right
upper quadrant or epigastric pain with nausea
and vomiting
(B) platelet count is 100,000/mL
(C) urinalysis is positive for protein
(D) 10 percent calcium gluconate should be
administered
(E) hypertension is key to the diagnosis
381. All of the following are TRUE of premature rupture
of membranes (PROM) EXCEPT
(A) the finding of a “ferning” pattern is diagnostic
of amniotic fluid
(B) nitrazine paper changes to dark blue
(C) the pH of amniotic fluid is 4.5 to 6.0
(D) 90 percent of term patients with PROM will
go into labor within 24 h
(E) infections can precipitate PROM
O BSTETRIC
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G YNECOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
382. All of the following are TRUE of infections during
pregnancy EXCEPT
(A) 40 percent of Cytomegalovirus infections are
transmitted to the fetus
(B) to be effective, Varicella zoster immune globulin should be given to seronegative women
within 24 h of chicken pox exposure
(C) erythema infectiosum exposure can cause SAB
(D) infection with rubella in the first trimester is
associated with congenital rubella syndrome
(E) fetuses exposed to maternal toxoplasmosis
have a 10 percent chance of contracting congenital toxoplasmosis
383. All of following are TRUE of asthma in pregnancy
EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
asthma worsens in about one-third of cases
oral steroids should not be prescribed
-agonists are the mainstay of therapy
chest radiographs should be ordered for the
same indications as for nonpregnant patients
(E) pulmonary function tests are not significantly
changed during pregnancy
384. All of the following statements are TRUE of
endometritis EXCEPT
(A) the incidence is greater in patients who have
had a cesarean section than in those who have
had a spontaneous vaginal delivery
(B) many infections are polymicrobial
(C) when patients present with endometritis 48 h
to 6 weeks after delivery, chlamydia and
mycoplasma should be considered as
primary etiologies
(D) the speculum examination always reveals a
purulent discharge
(E) the clinical diagnosis is based on the
symptoms of fever, malaise, lower abdominal
pain, and foul-smelling lochia
385. All of the following are TRUE of trauma in pregnancy EXCEPT
(A) rapid deceleration may cause uterine rupture
(B) pelvic fractures preclude a woman from having
a vaginal delivery
(C) life-threatening hemorrhage is most often
localized to the retroperitoneum
(D) splenic rupture, kidney injury, and liver
laceration are the most common
intraabdominal injuries
(E) the Kleihauer-Betke assay is recommended
131
386. To make the diagnosis of toxic shock syndrome, all
of the following must be present EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
hypotension
temperature greater than 38.9°F
rash with subsequent desquamation
negative serologic test for streptococcal
infection
(E) involvement of three of the following organ
systems: gastrointestinal, musculoskeletal,
renal, mucosal, hepatic, hematologic, or
central nervous system
387. All of the following are indications for maternal
transport to a tertiary perinatal center EXCEPT
(A) placental bleeding
(B) premature labor with cervical dilation to 6 cm
(C) blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg and
proteinuria
(D) premature rupture of membranes
(E) term labor in a insulin-dependent diabetic
388. When a gravid female presents in cardiac arrest, all
of the following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) the “human wedge” is useful in bystander CPR
(B) ideally, a Cardiff wedge should be placed
under the patient’s left hip and flank
(C) manual displacement of the uterus off the inferior vena cava helps increase venous return
(D) pregnant women are in an edematous state that
can make intubation difficult
(E) the use of a femoral line to deliver medications
should be discouraged
389. Any pregnant woman beyond 20 weeks of gestation
who presents to the ED and appears to be actively contracting may need an emergent delivery. All of the following are TRUE of emergency delivery EXCEPT
(A) inability to detect fetal heart tones does not
rule out a viable pregnancy
(B) amniotomy may result in prolapse of the
umbilical cord
(C) once the mother feels an urge to push, she
should be encouraged to proceed
(D) if the physician delivering the baby notices a
“turtle sign,” an assistant should apply suprapubic pressure
(E) once the head is delivered, it is imperative to
check for a nuchal cord (present in 25 percent
of deliveries)
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O BSTETRIC
390. Laparoscopy is being used more frequently to aid in
the diagnosis of pelvic disease and to perform gynecologic surgeries. When a patient presents to the ED after
one of these procedures, all of the following are TRUE
EXCEPT
(A) free air under the diaphragm is a normal finding 1 week after surgery
(B) pelvic infections are uncommon after this
procedure
(C) a traumatic bowel injury is less problematic
than a thermal injury
(D) infection is an infrequent complication
(E) patients with increasing abdominal pain after
the procedure have perforated bowel until
proven otherwise
AND
G YNECOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
391. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning genital herpes?
(A) HSV-1 accounts for up to 50 percent of the
cases of genital herpes
(B) Systemic acyclovir decreases the frequency
of recurrences
(C) Systemic symptoms are common with the initial presentation of genital herpes
(D) Tzanck smears are positive in the majority
of cases
(E) Cultures of fluid obtained from herpes vesicles
are positive only a third of the time
OBSTETRIC AND
GYNECOLOGIC EMERGENCIES
ANSWERS
368. The answer is C. (Chapter 101) The etiologies of SAB can be divided into two categories: fetal and maternal. Fetal chromosomal abnormalities are the major cause of SAB.
Maternal factors include uterine anomalies, incompetent cervix, progestin deficiency, and
chronic medical problems such as diabetes mellitus and thyroid disease. Although the
majority of spontaneous abortions occur before the 8th or 9th week of gestation, they can
occur up to the 20th week. The incidence of SAB rises with increased maternal and paternal age and with parity. Pain associated with abortion usually follows the commencement
of vaginal bleeding and is typically midline and crampy. This is in contrast to ectopic pregnancy or ruptured cyst in which pain is typically acute, severe, and unilateral.
369–370. The answers are D and B, respectively. (Chapters 98, 100) Because of the
life-threatening potential of ectopic pregnancy, it is critical to determine whether a
woman with pelvic pain is pregnant. A qualitative test for the subunit of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) can be performed immediately at the bedside and thus is the
first test indicated for any female patient of child-bearing age who is complaining of
abdominal pain.
Ectopic pregnancy must be considered in every woman of child-bearing age who
comes to the ED complaining of pain, even if she denies pregnancy. Ovarian torsion is
uncommon, but when it occurs it causes unilateral pelvic pain. Endometriosis should be
considered in any woman of reproductive age complaining of one or a combination of
the following signs and symptoms: acute adnexal pain, premenstrual pelvic pain, worsening dysmenorrhea, and dyspareunia. Appendicitis is always in the differential of right
lower quadrant pain. The key to the diagnosis of Mittelschmerz or “middle pain” is the
fact that it occurs in mid-cycle, thus making it unlikely in this patient. A history of similar pain with each menstrual cycle may be elicited.
371. The answer is C. (Chapter 101) The possibility of ectopic pregnancy must be considered in every patient who presents with abnormal uterine bleeding or pelvic pain. A
focused bedside ultrasound is consistent with ectopic pregnancy if there is no identifiable
gestational sac or intrauterine pregnancy visualized. Less commonly, an adnexal mass
may be present, but the mass does not always represent an ectopic pregnancy. Rhesus
(Rh) status should be assessed. Rh-negative women with antepartum bleeding must
receive RhoGAM to prevent antibody formation that would endanger future pregnancies.
Serial hCG levels may be indicated in hemodynamically stable patients and should
double in 48 h in a normal pregnancy. Urinalysis should be performed on patients with
threatened abortion to rule out infection as a precipitant.
372. The answer is A. (Chapter 100) With the advent of bedside ultrasound, the use of culdocentesis has decreased. However, this simple test still has a role in the pregnant patient
with signs and symptoms of ectopic pregnancy when ultrasound is not available. A needle
is inserted into the cul de sac just inferior to the cervix. A culdocentesis is positive if nonclotting blood is obtained and negative if clear fluid is aspirated. Failure to aspirate blood
is nondiagnostic and may represent technical problems. Culdocentesis is positive in the
majority of patients with ectopic pregnancies, ruptured and unruptured (85 and 65 percent,
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respectively). A positive test is not specific for ectopic pregnancy but occurs with any
process that produces blood in the pelvis.
373. The answer is E. (Chapter 105) PID occurs in women from all socioeconomic backgrounds. Risk factors for the development of PID include a history of gonococcal infection, sexual promiscuity, adolescence, and IUD use. Instrumentation of the uterus and
tubes may predispose patients to the development of endometritis and salpingitis.
374. The answer is A. (Chapter 105) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
publishes guidelines delineating several appropriate treatments for PID. The presence of
penicillinase-producing gonorrhea dictates a careful choice of antibiotics. If ceftriaxone
is used to treat outpatient PID, the dose is 250 mg intramuscularly as opposed to the dose
of 125 mg intramuscularly for simple cervicitis.
375. The answer is E. (Chapter 104) The most common causes of vulvovaginitis include
(1) infections with Gardnerella, Candida albicans, Trichomonas, and herpes simplex; (2)
contact vulvovaginitis; (3) foreign bodies; and (4) atrophic vaginitis. Bacterial vaginosis is
the most common form, followed by candidiasis. Whereas 80 percent of patients with Trichomonas vaginalis have diffuse erythema of the vaginal vault, only 2 percent present with
a “strawberry cervix” (secondary to diffuse punctate hemorrhages). Normal acidic vaginal
secretions help to limit infection. In older women, because of scant nerve endings in the
vagina, symptoms of vulvovaginitis do not present until advanced disease is present.
Young children may present with vaginal itching and irritation secondary to pinworms.
376. The answer is A. (Chapter 99) All organ systems are affected by the physiologic
changes of pregnancy. Although tidal volume is increased and functional residual capacity is decreased, respiratory rate and vital capacity remain unchanged. The other changes
listed are all seen with normal pregnancy.
377. The answer is D. (Chapters 99, 102) Erythromycin base is safe to use in pregnancy,
but erythromycin estolate should not be used because of drug-related hepatotoxicity.
Other antibiotics considered safe in pregnancy include cephalosporins, nitrofurantoin,
penicillin, and azithromycin. Heparin and insulin are large molecules that do not cross
the placenta and are therefore safe in pregnancy.
378. The answer is B. (Chapters 99, 102) The most recent evidence suggests that 10 rad
is the threshold for human teratogenesis and that the fetus is most vulnerable at 8 to 15
weeks of gestation. The position of the American College of Radiology is that there is no
single test that results in radiation doses that threaten the well-being of the developing
embryo or fetus. Radiation exposure is as follows: two-view chest radiograph with
abdominal shielding, 0.00005 rad; head CT, 0.1 rad; lumbrosacral spine series, 0.168
to 0.359 rad; IVP, 0.686 to 1.398 rad; and abdominal CT, 5.0 rad.
379. The answer is D. (Chapter 101) Etiologies of third-trimester abdominal pain include
placental abruption, labor contractions, hypertension with hemolysis, elevated liver
enzyme and low platelet (HELLP) syndrome, appendicitis, and rarely placenta previa
from uterine irritation. Classically, placental abruption presents with vaginal bleeding;
however, when the separation is central, bleeding is concealed. Ultrasound does not
detect all abruptions. A speculum examination is safe and appropriate in the management
of this patient. Digital examinations are contraindicated when the diagnosis of placenta
previa is being considered. Immediate delivery is indicated if the patient is eclamptic or
the fetus is in danger for another reason. CBC, electrolytes, BUN, creatinine, LFTs, and
a urinalysis may help detect an infection, HELLP syndrome, or hemorrhage.
380. The answer is D. (Chapter 101) Preeclampsia (pregnancy-induced hypertension)
occurs in about 7 percent of all pregnancies. It can present with a wide variety of symptoms. The classic triad is hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. The HELLP (hemolysis,
O BSTETRIC
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G YNECOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
135
elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets) syndrome represents an unusual presentation
of this disease. Magnesium sulfate is indicated for seizure prophylaxis in patients with
severe preeclampsia. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium toxicity. Obstetrical management is based on the degree of preeclampsia and the gestational age of the
fetus; if term or near term, delivery is indicated.
381. The answer is C. (Chapter 103) Premature rupture of membranes is defined as the
rupture of membranes before the onset of labor. The cause of PROM is not well understood, but there is strong evidence that inflammation from infections affecting the membranes is a precipitant. The diagnosis of PROM is made by a combination of history and
physical examination. Speculum examination should be performed to look for vaginal
fluid pooling in the posterior fornix. Normal vaginal fluid pH is 4.5 to 6.0; amniotic fluid
has a pH of 7.1 to 7.3. Nitrazine paper turns dark blue in the presence of amniotic fluid.
If vaginal fluid is placed on a slide and allowed to dry, a “ferning” pattern is diagnostic
for amniotic fluid.
382. The answer is B. (Chapter 150) The TORCH infections can cause perinatal morbidity and mortality: T, toxoplasmosis; O, “other” such as human parvovirus (B19), hepatitis B infection, and syphilis; R, rubella; C, chicken pox or varicella infection; and H,
herpes simplex. All have serious effects on fetuses. Patients exposed to varicella or
hepatitis B who do not have adequate protective titers need immune globulin. For varicella, the immune globulin should be administered within 96 h of exposure.
383. The answer is B. (Chapter 102) Inhaled agonists are the cornerstone of therapy.
Steroids should be added in moderate and severe exacerbations, either inhaled or orally.
Concomitant respiratory infections should always be considered and a chest radiograph
ordered if management would be changed based on the results. Adequate oxygenation of
the mother is the key to a healthy fetus.
384. The answer is D. (Chapter 101) Patients with postpartum endometritis complain of
lower abdominal pain, fever, and foul-smelling discharge. The speculum examination often
shows a purulent discharge but only scant discharge may be present, especially in patients
with group A ␤-hemolytic streptococci. Cervical cultures should be obtained in all patients.
Although many infections are polymicrobial, within the first 48 h postpartum, group A
and B Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, and Clostridium should be considered as primary
etiologies. Infections that present later are more commonly caused by chylamdia and
mycoplasma.
385. The answer is B. (Chapter 246) Pelvic deformity may interfere with the normal passage of the fetus through the pelvic inlet during labor and delivery, but cesarean section
is only necessary 5 to 10 percent of the time after pelvic fracture. The Kleihauer–Betke
test of maternal blood is used to detect fetal cells in the maternal circulation. Although it
is difficult to perform and often unavailable in emergency situations, it should be ordered
to detect the rare large fetal transfusions that require specific fetal blood therapy.
386. The answer is D. (Chapter 138) Fever, hypotension, multiorgan involvement, and rash
must be present to make the diagnosis of toxic shock syndrome. In addition, negative
serologies for measles, leptospirosis, mononucleosis, and Rocky Mountain spotted fever
are required. Negative serologic studies for streptococcal infection play no part in the diagnosis. In fact, streptococcal infections have been implicated as an etiology of the syndrome.
387. The answer is B. (Chapter 101) The transferring physician must abide by federal
regulations outlined in the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act when
arranging a transfer. The most common indications for maternal transport to a tertiary
perinatal facility (higher level of care) are premature rupture of membranes and preterm
labor. Other reasons to initiate transport include preeclampsia, placental bleeding, and
diabetes mellitus. If the patient is in active labor (having contractions and dilated to 6 cm
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O BSTETRIC
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or more), any transport is contraindicated and the physician attending the patient should
prepare for immediate delivery.
388. The answer is B. (Chapter 12) Several physiologic changes of pregnancy must be
considered during cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Mucosal engorgement and
increased friability make the pregnant patient’s airway more likely to bleed and swell
during intubation. The enlarged uterus compresses the inferior vena cava when the
woman is supine during CPR. The gravid uterus should be displaced off the inferior vena
cava to the right by using the “human wedge,” Cardiff wedge, a roll, or manual displacement. Infradiaphragmatic vessels are suboptimal for medication administration secondary to poor venous return.
389. The answer is C. (Chapter 103) In the setting of emergency delivery, bimanual
pelvic examination should be performed unless placenta previa is suspected. The cervix
should be checked for dilation, effacement, and presenting part. If the mother pushes
before the cervix is 100 percent effaced, a serious laceration may occur. Amniotomy is
not appropriate in the ED because it may result in prolapse of the cord if the baby’s head
is not engaged. Nuchal cords and shoulder dystocia are problems that may arise during
delivery. The “turtle sign” (fetal head pulled tight into the perineum) indicates shoulder
dystocia. After a generous episiotomy is performed and the bladder is emptied, suprapubic pressure should be applied by an assistant to aid delivery of the shoulders.
390. The answer is A. (Chapter 108) Major complications associated with laparoscopy are
(1) thermal injuries to the bowel; (2) bleeding; (3) rarely, ureteral, bladder, and large
bowel injury; and (4) infections or abscess formation. Traumatic injury to the bowel is
generally less worrisome than thermal injury from the instruments used during the procedure. Typically when bowel trauma occurs, it is the result of a small-diameter needle and
is recognized when the needle is withdrawn. Peritonitis rarely develops after this complication. Perforated viscus must be ruled out in patients with persistent or increasing
abdominal pain. Air insufflated during the procedure should be absorbed within 3 days.
391. The answer is C. (Chapter 104) Genital herpes is a sexually transmitted disease
caused by a DNA virus specific to humans. There are two antigenic types of herpes simplex virus (HSV), denoted HSV-1 and HSV-2. The overwhelming majority of genital
infections are caused by HSV-2. In the past HSV-1 was thought to cause only oral infections, but it is now known to be responsible for up to 30 percent of the genital infections.
The initial presentation of herpes occurs 1 to 45 days after exposure and is usually
accompanied by constitutional symptoms such as fever, malaise, and headache. Some
people have asymptomatic infections, defined as culture-positive viral shedding in the
absence of symptoms or lesions. Tzanck smears identify multinucleated giant cells in up
to 50 percent of cases. Cultures are positive 85 to 95 percent of the time. Acyclovir provides partial control of the signs and symptoms and accelerates healing of the lesions.
This antiviral medication does not affect the frequency or severity of recurrences.
ORTHOPEDIC
EMERGENCIES
QUESTIONS
DIRECTIONS:
Each question below contains five suggested responses. Choose the one best response to each question.
392. All of the following statements regarding bone
remodeling are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) young children have a greater capacity for
remodeling than adults
(B) remodeling is related to the degree of
angulation
(C) angulation near the end of a long bone will
remodel more satisfactorily than angulation
near the midshaft
(D) angulation in the natural plane of the joint
motion will remodel more successfully than
angulation outside the plane of joint motion
(E) injuries involving the epiphyseal plate are
more likely to remodel successfully
393. Which of the following statements about lunate
fractures is FALSE?
(A) The most common mechanism is a fall on an
outstretched hand
(B) Lunate fractures are the third most common
type of carpal fracture
(C) The lunate occupies two thirds of the radial
articular surface
(D) X-rays reliably demonstrate the fracture
(E) This fracture may be associated with avascular
necrosis of the lunate
394. A 25-year-old female presents with right elbow
pain after a fall while doing gymnastics. The elbow is
deformed and flexed at 45 degrees. Plain radiographs
show an elbow dislocation, with both radius and ulna
displaced posteriorly. Which of the following neurovascular structures is most likely to be injured?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
395. A 2-year-old male is brought to the ED by his parents for refusing to use his right arm. He was well until
30 min before, when his cousin tried to lift him up a
curb by that arm. He now holds the elbow slightly flexed
and pronated and will not use the injured arm. Which is
the MOST appropriate initial approach?
(A) Obtain emergent orthopedic consultation
(B) Order plain radiographs of the elbow
(C) Attempt to reduce the elbow by pronation
and extension
(D) Attempt to reduce the elbow by supination
and flexion
(E) Prepare to reduce the elbow under conscious
sedation
396. All of the following statements about Volkmann’s
ischemic contracture are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) Volkmann’s ischemic contracture is a
complication of supracondylar fracture
(B) signs include refusal to open the hand in
children, pain with passive extension of
fingers, and forearm tenderness
(C) local edema causes decreased venous outflow
and arterial inflow, resulting in local tissue
ischemia
(D) muscle and nerve necrosis may occur, leading
to permanent disability
(E) absence of radial pulse is diagnostic
Axillary nerve
Radial nerve
Ulnar nerve
Radial artery
Brachial plexus
137
Copyright 2000 The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. Click Here for Terms of Use.
O RTHOPEDIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
138
397. A 27-year-old male presents with left wrist pain
after falling on an outstretched hand. He has an obvious
deformity of the wrist but is neurovascularly intact.
X-ray shows a transverse distal radius fracture with dorsal angulation. On the lateral view, the ulna is displaced
dorsally. Which of the following terms describes this
fracture?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Galeazzi’s fracture
Monteggia’s fracture
Colles’ fracture
Smith’s fracture
Barton’s fracture
398. Which of the following statements about sternoclavicular dislocations is FALSE?
(A) The medial clavicular epiphysis is the last
epiphysis of the body to close (at age
22–25 years)
(B) CT is the imaging modality of choice
(C) Anterior dislocations are more common than
posterior dislocations
(D) Closed reduction is frequently successful
(E) Posterior dislocations are associated with
injuries to thoracic structures
399. Which of the following is TRUE regarding scapular
fractures?
(A) Most are treated with open reduction and
internal fixation
(B) Approximately 50 percent are associated with
intrathoracic injuries
(C) They frequently result in long-term disability
(D) They account for approximately 8 percent of
all fractures
(E) The mechanism of injury is from direct blow,
trauma to the shoulder, or fall on an outstretched arm
400. A 26-year-old soccer player presents after a direct
blow to the shoulder. On examination, she has tenderness over the acromioclavicular joint, but no step-off or
deformity. X-rays show no fracture, subluxation, or dislocation. Which of the following is the most appropriate
management?
(A) Arrange immediate orthopedic follow-up for
possible operative repair
(B) Place the shoulder in a figure-of-eight brace,
with orthopedic follow-up in 1 to 2 weeks
(C) Place the shoulder in a simple sling, with
instructions for early range of motion
(D) Place the shoulder in a shoulder immobilizer
for 2 to 3 weeks
(E) Tell the patient that immobilization is not
necessary but that she should apply ice and use
analgesics as needed for pain control
401. Which of the following statements about anterior
shoulder dislocations is FALSE?
(A) Nerve injury occurs in 10 to 25 percent of
acute dislocations
(B) Most neural injuries involve the axillary nerve
(C) Successful reduction occurs in 70 to 90 percent
of cases, regardless of technique
(D) Associated rotator cuff injuries occur in
80 percent of patients older than 60 years
(E) Vascular injuries are rare but, when they
occur, tend to involve the brachial artery
402. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely
to result in an anterior glenohumeral dislocation?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Abduction, extension, and external rotation
Forceful internal rotation and adduction
Electric shock
Seizure
Direct force to the anterior shoulder
403. All of the following statements about fractures of
the proximal humerus are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) any fracture involving the surgical neck may
result in compromised blood supply to the
articular segment
(B) fracture of the lesser tuberosity suggests a
potential posterior shoulder dislocation
(C) significant displacement of a greater tuberosity
fragment implies a possible rotator cuff tear
(D) markedly angulated surgical neck fractures are
at risk for neurovascular damage
(E) emergent orthopedic consultation is
recommended for multipart fractures
139
O RTHOPEDIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
404. Which type of pelvic fracture is MOST often associated with severe hemorrhage?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Anterioposterior compression
Vertical shear
Lateral compression
Crush injuries
Combination injuries
405. Which of the following statements about management of hemorrhage in pelvic fractures is FALSE?
(A) Patients with double breaks in the ring require
blood products more often than those with
single breaks
(B) Aggressive fluid and blood replacement is a
mainstay of therapy
(C) An external fixator may be useful to reduce
bleeding in some pelvic fractures
(D) Angiography and embolization can be done to
control small bleeding sites
(E) Laparotomy provides definitive therapy
406. Which of the following hip fractures is MOST likely
to disrupt perfusion of the femoral head?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Subcapital fracture
Intertrochanteric fracture
Subtrochanteric fracture
Pubic ramus fracture
Avulsion of the greater trochanter
407. Which of the following statements regarding hip dislocations is FALSE?
(A) The risk of avascular necrosis increases if
reduction is delayed
(B) Traumatic hip dislocations in children are rare
(C) Reduction should be done as soon as possible
and always within 6 h
(D) In patients with anterior dislocations, the
extremity is shortened and internally rotated
(E) Posterior dislocations are more common than
anterior dislocations
408. A 13-year-old male is brought in by his parents for
right hip stiffness and groin discomfort after activity.
He feels well otherwise and denies fevers or chills. On
examination he is ambulatory with a slight limp and
mild discomfort with internal rotation. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Congenital hip dislocation
Septic arthritis
Transient synovitis
Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
409. Which of the following injuries is MOST likely to
be associated with disruption of the cruciate ligaments?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Patellar fracture
Femoral condyle fracture
Avulsion of the tibial tuberosity
Tibial plateau fracture
Tibial spine fracture
410. The anterior drawer sign, Lachman’s test, and the
pivot shift are used to measure stability of which knee
structure?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Medial collateral ligament
Lateral collateral ligament
Anterior cruciate ligament
Posterior cruciate ligament
Medial meniscus
411. A 35-year-old male presents after a significant
hyperextension injury to the right knee while playing
soccer. On examination the knee is severely unstable in
both anteroposterior and lateral directions. A palpable
hematoma is present in the popliteal fossa. Plain films
demonstrate no bony abnormality. Which of the following tests must be performed emergently?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Magnetic resonance imaging of the knee
Arteriography
Bone scan
CT of the knee
Electromyography
412. What is the MOST common site for a compartment
syndrome?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Anterior compartment of the lower leg
Peroneal compartment of the lower leg
Deep posterior compartment of the lower leg
Volar compartment of the forearm
Dorsal compartment of the forearm
413. Which of the following is the most common ligament injured during ankle sprain?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Anterior talofibular ligament
Posterior talofibular ligament
Calcaneofibular ligament
Deltoid ligament
Anterior tibiofibular ligament
O RTHOPEDIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
140
414. A 35-year-old female presents with posterior ankle
pain, which occurred suddenly while playing volleyball.
Thompson’s test is positive. What is the MOST likely
diagnosis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Posterior talofibular ligament injury
Achilles tenosynovitis
Achilles tendon rupture
Posterior talotibial dislocation
Calcaneal fracture
415. A 45-year-old male presents with foot pain after an
automobile accident. The examination shows tenderness, swelling, and ecchymosis over the midfoot. X-ray
shows fracture of the base of the second metatarsal and
lateral displacement of the second, third, fourth, and fifth
metatarsals. What is the optimal management of this
patient?
(A) Posterior splint, with orthopedic follow-up
as needed
(B) Urgent orthopedic consultation for possible
open reduction and internal fixation
(C) Splint the patient in equinus and follow up
with orthopedics in 2 to 3 days
(D) Cast the foot and follow up with orthopedics
in 2 to 3 days
(E) Hard-sole shoe, weight bearing as tolerated,
follow-up in orthopedics as needed
ORTHOPEDIC
EMERGENCIES
ANSWERS
392. The answer is E. (Chapter 259) Injury to the epiphyseal plate is a poor prognostic
indicator. Specific predictors of satisfactory remodeling include youth, proximity of the
fracture to the end of the bone, and angulation in the plane of natural joint motion.
393. The answer is D. (Chapter 262) Diagnosis of lunate fractures can be difficult because
wrist x-rays may or may not show the abnormality. Missed diagnosis or improper management may result in avascular necrosis of the lunate (Kienbock’s disease). The most
common mechanism is a fall on an outstretched hand.
394. The answer is C. (Chapter 261) Neurovascular complications occur in 8 to 21 percent of patients with elbow dislocations, the most frequent injury being the ulnar nerve.
Vascular complications occur in 5 to 13 percent, with the brachial artery being most
commonly injured. The axillary nerve is at risk after anterior shoulder dislocation. Supracondylar humeral fractures are associated with radial nerve and artery injuries.
395. The answer is D. (Chapter 261) Subluxation of the radial head (nursemaid’s elbow)
is common among children 1 to 4 years old. It occurs with sudden traction on the hand,
with the elbow extended and the forearm pronated. During forceful traction, fibers of the
annular ligament become trapped between the radial head and the capitellum. To reduce
the subluxation, the examiner’s thumb should be placed over the patient’s radial head,
with the other hand on the patient’s wrist. The forearm is then supinated, and the elbow
is flexed. Reduction is successful when a palpable “click” is felt. Orthopedic consultation
is not necessary if the history and physical are consistent with the diagnosis and reduction is successful. Plain radiographs are not diagnostic. Systemic sedation is not typically
required to reduce nursemaid’s elbow.
396. The answer is E. (Chapter 261) Volkmann’s ischemic contracture is the most serious complication of supracondylar fracture. Local edema compromises tissue perfusion,
which, if unrelieved, leads to tissue necrosis and permanent disability. Diagnosis is based
on signs and symptoms such as refusal to open the hand, pain with passive extension of
the fingers, and forearm tenderness. Lack of a radial pulse without these signs does not
necessarily indicate ischemia but may represent disruption of vascular structures.
397. The answer is A. (Chapter 262) Galeazzi’s fracture, sometimes called reverse Monteggia’s fracture, describes a fracture of the distal third of the radial shaft with associated
distal radioulnar joint dislocation. The distal radioulnar joint injury can be subtle, with the
anteroposterior radiograph showing only slightly increased distal radioulnar joint space.
On the lateral view, the ulna is displaced dorsally. Monteggia’s fracture–dislocation is a
fracture of the proximal third of the ulna associated with radial head dislocation. Colles’
fracture refers to a distal radius fracture with dorsal angulation. Fractures of the distal
radius with volar angulation are Smith’s fractures (or reverse Colles’). Barton’s fracture is
a fracture of the dorsal or volar rim of the distal radius, in which the carpal bones are displaced in the direction of the fracture.
141
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O RTHOPEDIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
398. The answer is D. (Chapter 263) In reducing sternoclavicular dislocations, closed
reduction is usually attempted first, but operative intervention is often required. The
medial clavicular epiphysis is the last to appear (age 18 years) and the last to close (age
22–25 years). As a result, physeal injuries may be misdiagnosed as a dislocation. Routine radiographs may not be diagnostic, and computed tomography (CT) is the imaging
procedure of choice. Anterior dislocations are more common than posterior dislocations.
Posterior dislocations may impinge on thoracic structures, causing pneumothorax, and
compression or laceration of the great vessels, trachea, or esophagus.
399. The answer is E. (Chapter 263) Most scapular fractures are treated nonsurgically,
with a sling for immobilization. Such fractures require high energy, and more than 80
percent are associated with thoracic and shoulder girdle injuries. Long-term disability is
typically the result of associated injuries, not of the fracture itself. Scapular injuries are
rare, accounting for fewer than 1 percent of fractures. The mechanism is most commonly
a direct blow to the scapula, trauma to the shoulder, or fall on an outstretched arm.
400. The answer is C. (Chapter 263) The patient has a type I acromioclavicular joint
injury. Although various straps and braces have been used to reduce the dislocation,
none have proved successful. A simple sling is most convenient and effective. Patients
should be instructed to rest, apply ice, use analgesics, and begin early range-of-motion
exercises to prevent a frozen shoulder. Mild acromioclavicular joint injuries do not
require operative repair.
401. The answer is E. (Chapter 263) Although vascular injuries are rare, they tend to
occur in elderly patients and involve the axillary artery. Signs of axillary artery injury
include absent radial pulse, axillary hematoma, ecchymosis of the lateral chest wall, and
an axillary bruit. Neural injuries occur in 10 to 25 percent of acute dislocations, most
often secondary to traction neuropraxia. Axillary nerve sensation must be assessed before
and after reduction because it is the most commonly injured nerve. The injury is typically transient and tends to resolve spontaneously. Successful reduction occurs in 70 to
90 percent of cases, regardless of reduction technique. Rotator cuff injury is a frequent
complication in patients older than 60 years.
402. The answer is A. (Chapter 263) Shoulder dislocation is the most common major
joint dislocation. Approximately 98 percent of glenohumeral dislocations are anterior.
Abduction, extension, and external rotation comprise the classic mechanism. The other
listed possibilities are likely to cause a posterior dislocation.
403. The answer is A. (Chapter 263) Any fracture involving the anatomic neck or the
articular surface may result in compromise of the blood supply to the articular segment.
Ischemic necrosis of the articular segment may ultimately require insertion of a humeral
head prosthesis for these relatively rare fractures.
404. The answer is B. (Chapter 265) Hemorrhage is a major cause of death in patients
with pelvic fractures. Of those with vertical shear injuries, approximately 75 percent suffer severe hemorrhage. Retroperitoneal bleeding is an inevitable complication, and up to
4 L of blood can accumulate in this space. Other complications of vertical shear injuries
include bladder rupture (15 percent) and urethral injuries (25 percent).
405. The answer is E. (Chapter 265) Patients with double breaks in the ring require blood
products more often than those with single breaks. Patients with significant injuries
require aggressive volume resuscitation with fluid and blood replacement. An external
fixator device can help control hemorrhage. In patients who are exsanguinating, angiography permits embolization of smaller vessels. Laparotomy can release a tamponade
and precipitate uncontrolled hemorrhage.
O RTHOPEDIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
143
406. The answer is A. (Chapter 265) Displaced subcapital fractures of the femoral head
and neck can compromise the femoral neck vessels through shearing or compression
from intracapsular hemarthrosis. The blood supply through the ligamentum teres may not
be adequate to supply the entire femoral head. Avascular necrosis occurs in 15 percent
of nondisplaced fractures and in 90 percent of completely displaced fractures. Fractures
below the capsule (intertrochanteric and subtrochanteric) rarely disrupt important vessels.
Pubic ramus fractures do not involve the femoral head.
407. The answer is D. (Chapter 265) Patients with posterior dislocations present with the
extremity shortened and internally rotated. Those with anterior dislocations present with
the extremity shortened and externally rotated. Posterior dislocations account for 80 to
90 percent of hip dislocations. Prompt reduction is important to avoid avascular necrosis.
General anesthesia may be required.
408. The answer is E. (Chapter 132) Slipped capital femoral epiphysis occurs primarily
in obese male children aged 10 to 16 years. Symptom onset is insidious. Patients often
complain of hip stiffness, mild limp, and groin discomfort after activity. Initial radiographs may be normal initially but subsequently may show a posterior slip of the epiphyseal plate. The patient should be made non–weight bearing, and orthopedic
consultation should be obtained.
409. The answer is E. (Chapter 266) Isolated injuries of the tibial spine are uncommon
and usually result in damage to the cruciate ligaments. The injury is caused by an anterior–posterior force directed against the flexed proximal tibia. This may cause incomplete or complete avulsion of the tibial spine, with or without displacement. If the
fracture is nondisplaced, it is treated by immobilization in full extension. Displaced fractures may require open reduction and internal fixation.
410. The answer is C. (Chapter 266) All three tests measure stability of the anterior
cruciate ligament. The anterior drawer sign has been used for a long time, but it is not
very sensitive. The test is performed with the hip flexed at 45 degrees and the knee
flexed at 90 degrees. The examiner forwardly displaces the tibia from the femur. A
displacement of greater than 6 mm relative to the opposite knee is considered positive.
The Lachman’s test is similar but is more sensitive. The test is done with 20 degrees
of flexion at the knee, with the knee on a pillow. The femur is stabilized, and an anterior force is applied against the tibia. A displacement of more than 5 mm or a soft,
mushy endpoint suggests an injury to the anterior cruciate ligament. In the pivot shift
test, valgus stress and internal rotation is applied, and then the examiner slowly begins
to flex the knee. A visible, audible, or palpable reduction may occur when the anterior
subluxation is reduced.
411. The answer is B. (Chapter 266) The patient’s history is suggestive of a knee dislocation, which may have spontaneously reduced in the field. Knee dislocations should be
suspected in patients with gross instability in multiple directions. Frequently they reduce
spontaneously. A high index of suspicion is important because these injuries are often
associated with popliteal artery injuries (50 percent incidence) and peroneal nerve
injuries. If knee dislocation is suspected, an arteriogram must be performed emergently.
412. The answer is A. (Chapter 267) The anterior compartment of the leg is the most
common site of compartment syndrome. A tibial fracture is the usual etiology. Other
causes include trauma without associated fracture, electrical injury, infectious disease
(e.g., myositis), hyperthermia, hypothermia, toxins, snake bite, polymyositis, arterial
embolism, seizures, and prolonged immobility that may occur after stroke or drug overdose. A high index of suspicion is important because irreversible muscle damage can
occur in 4 to 6 h. Symptoms include pain with passive range of motion, paresthesias, and
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O RTHOPEDIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
tense or rock-hard compartments. Poor capillary refill and pulselessness are late findings.
The treatment of compartment syndrome is emergency fasciotomy.
413. The answer is A. (Chapter 268) More than 90 percent of all ankle sprains involve the
lateral ligaments. Of lateral ligament injuries, 90 percent involve the anterior talofibular
ligament, with 65 percent of these sprains being isolated and 25 percent with concomitant
injury to the calcaneofibular ligament. If both the anterior talofibular ligament and the calcaneofibular ligament are disrupted, the anterior drawer sign will be positive.
414. The answer is C. (Chapter 268) Achilles tendon rupture is often missed by the physician on initial examination, and it may be misdiagnosed as an ankle sprain. Tendon rupture
tends to occur with forceful dorsiflexion of the ankle. There is edema of the distal calf and
a palpable defect in the tendon 2 to 6 cm proximal to the calcaneus. Thompson’s test is positive when the foot fails to plantar flex with calf compression or squeezing. It is diagnostic
of Achilles tendon rupture.
415. The answer is B. (Chapter 269) The patient has a fracture–dislocation of the
tarsal–metatarsal joint, known as Lisfranc’s joint. A fracture at the base of the second
metatarsal is almost pathognomonic of a disrupted joint. Treatment is difficult and may
require open reduction and internal fixation. It is important to obtain orthopedic consultation as early as possible.
PEDIATRIC
EMERGENCIES
QUESTIONS
DIRECTIONS:
Each question below contains five suggested responses. Choose the one best response to each question.
416. All of the following suggest that a child with asthma
needs to be admitted EXCEPT
(A) persistent respiratory distress after albuterol
and glucocorticoid treatments
(B) a peak flow of 60 percent predicted in a
cooperative child
(C) persistent vomiting of medications
(D) underlying bronchopulmonary dysplasia,
congenital heart disease, or cystic fibrosis
(E) SaO2 95 percent on room air upon arrival
417. A 4-month-old infant presents with a rectal temperature of 38.7°C, a respiration rate (RR) of 60, a heart rate
(HR) of 160, and an SpO2 on room air of 92 percent. He
is smiling, drooling, and taking his bottle well, despite
prominent intercostal retractions. On auscultation, he has
diffuse coarse breath sounds with sibilant wheezes at
both bases. All other household members have colds.
There is no family history of atopy or asthma; no one
smokes. ED therapy for this child could include all the
following EXCEPT
(A) supplemental O2 (by blow-by or nasal cannula
as tolerated by the child)
(B) a trial of nebulized albuterol
(C) a trial of nebulized racemic epinephrine
(D) a dose of glucocorticoids
(E) admission
418. An 18-month-old male is brought to the ED for evaluation of a brief episode of tonic–clonic extremity movements immediately after a spanking in the grocery store.
The child reportedly screamed, became limp and pale,
fell to the ground, and exhibited the unusual movements.
The episode lasted about 1 min and occurred about 30
min before. The toddler is now interactive, appears
healthy, and has normal vital signs. What is the MOST
likely diagnosis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Breath-holding spell
Head trauma
Toxic ingestion
Prolonged QT syndrome
Idiopathic (afebrile) seizure of childhood
419. One day after discharge from the normal newborn
nursery, a jaundiced infant exhibits fleeting bicycling
movements of the limbs, sucking of the lips, and occasional apneic episodes with color change. You interpret
these as possible neonatal seizures. Work-up and treatment should include all of the following EXCEPT
(A) evaluation for inborn errors of metabolism
(including urine for reducing substances,
organic amino acids, serum for lactate,
pyruvate, and ammonia)
(B) correction of electrolyte, calcium, magnesium,
glucose, and acid–base imbalances
(C) sepsis work-up
(D) administration of diazepam as a first-line drug
to control seizures
(E) loading with phenobarbital
145
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146
420. Which one of the following is the LEAST consistent
with a diagnosis of intussusception?
(A) Intermittent colicky abdominal pain, interspersed with symptom-free periods
(B) Grossly normal appearing stool
(C) Normal plain films of the abdomen
(D) Previously healthy 9-year-old child
(E) Altered, lethargic appearance
421. A previously healthy 9-month-old child presents with
a soft, nontender abdomen and a history of vomiting at
home. Which of the following strongly suggests a nonsurgical etiology for the emesis?
(A) No bile present in the emesis
(B) Negative blood in stool by guaiac
(C) Normal KUB and left lateral
decubitus film
(D) Soft, nontender belly without masses
(E) None of the above
422. Which of the following is the LEAST consistent with
a clinical diagnosis of acute appendicitis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Normal temperature
Normal white blood cell (WBC) count
Presence of hunger
Vomiting preceding the onset of
abdominal pain
(E) Recent gastroenteritis
423. Which of the following groups of pediatric patients
are at increased risk for hypoglycemia?
(A) Patients with glycogen storage disease type I
(B) Children younger than 18 months, after a
period of fasting
(C) Children who have ingested alcohol but have
no clinical signs of intoxication
(D) Children with an abdominal mass
(E) All of the above
424. All of the following are typical of a failure-to-thrive
(FTT) baby EXCEPT
(A) alopecia over a flattened occiput
(B) inappropriate wide-eyed, affectionate reaction
to strangers
(C) increased muscle tone and scissoring
(D) a relatively larger deviation from the weight
curve than predicted by length or head
circumference
(E) poor hygiene
P EDIATRIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
425. An 8-year-old female is brought to the ED because
of longstanding vague abdominal complaints, with new
onset of dysuria. An extensive medical and social history and physical examination (including inspection of
the genitourinary area) are unremarkable. The maternal
grandmother, who is the patient’s guardian, suspects
that the child may have been a victim of sexual abuse.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) Because the genitourinary examination is normal, sexual abuse is unlikely
(B) A pelvic examination is necessary to rule out
abuse and sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)
(C) Vaginal secretions should be sent for rapid
antigens to detect STDs
(D) Syphilis and HIV serologies should be sent
(E) Social service should be called and child
protective services (CPS) involved even if the
general physical and genitourinary
examinations are normal
426. A 3-year-old preschool male presents with a 3-day
history of high fever accompanied by sore throat, mild
abdominal pain, headache, and vague pain “all over.”
Examination shows a diffuse erythematous rash, especially in the perianal area. He complains of itching in
areas where the rash is peeling. You also note red oral
mucosa, prominent papillae consistent with strawberry
tongue, and cervical adenopathy. Appropriate actions at
this point could include all the following EXCEPT
(A) performing a culture of the throat to rule out
group A -hemolytic strep (GABHS)
(B) treating for presumptive GABHS with oral or
intramuscular penicillin
(C) giving intravenous gamma globulin
(D) delaying treatment until you have the results
of a complete blood count (CBC) with
differential, ESR, and LFTs
(E) administering oral diphenhydramine
147
P EDIATRIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
427. A 16-month-old child presents with seven watery,
nonmucoid, nonbloody stools beginning that day. The
mother is not sure when he had his last void because the
diaper is always wet with stool. The mother inserted
a trimethobenzamide (Tigan) rectal suppository 1 h
before. The child seems thirsty but has occasional clear
emesis when he takes fluids. Vital signs are remarkable
for a rectal temperature of 38.0°C, RR of 30, and pulse
of 160, all taken while the child is screaming in triage.
He appears vigorous but has a dry mouth and no tears.
Appropriate ED management for this child would
include all of the following EXCEPT
(A) oral rehydration solution, 5 cc by mouth at a
time, every 5 min
(B) intravenous rehydration with 20 to 40 cc/kg
LR or NS
(C) oral rehydration at home with clear liquids,
followed by the BRATT diet in 24 h
(D) regular milk within the first 24 h
(E) discontinue and discourage use of
antiemetic/antimotility agents
428. Which one of the following children with diarrhea
requires antibiotics?
(A) A 3-month-old infant whose rectal swab from
three nights before grew Salmonella
(B) A 10-year-old patient with stool culture positive for Salmonella whose bowel movements
have decreased in frequency and volume
(C) A 4-year-old patient with sickle cell trait
whose stool grew Salmonella
(D) A 12-month-old with mild dehydration whose
rectal swab from a previous ED evaluation
grew Salmonella
(E) A 5-year-old patient with moderate bloody
diarrhea that began after completing a course
of amoxicillin for otitis media
429. An 8-month-old nontoxic infant is brought to the ED
with a new rash. Physical examination shows numerous
0.5- to 1.0-cm bullae and red, round, denuded lesions of
similar size scattered all over but primarily in the diaper
area. Because the child has spent the weekend at the
father’s house, where many people smoke, the mother is
concerned that these may represent cigarette burns. What
is the MOST appropriate action?
(A) Apply neomycin ointment to the lesions and
call social services
(B) Administer topical mupirocin and local
wound care
(C) Give oral cephalexin and local wound cleaning
(D) Admit for intravenous cephalosporin therapy
(E) Perform a Tzanck smear, invoke isolation
precautions, and begin acyclovir
430. A 14-month-old irritable but nontoxic toddler presents with several days of upper respiratory infection
(URI) symptoms and a rectal temperature of 40.0°C. On
examination you do not find a specific source for the
fever but note a few urticarial and nonblanching tiny
petechiae on the baby’s lower abdomen. Which of the
following is the MOST appropriate action?
(A) CBC, blood and urine cultures, oral antibiotics,
and close outpatient follow-up
(B) CBC, blood and urine cultures, home without
medications, and follow-up every 24 h pending
culture results
(C) Immediate respiratory isolation; CBC; blood,
urine, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) cultures;
intravenous antibiotics; admission
(D) Diphenhydramine for the urticaria, home with
follow-up in 24 h or sooner if worse
(E) immediate respiratory isolation; CBC,
blood and urine cultures; intravenous
antibiotics; admission
431. An 11-month-old patient with no primary care
physician is called back to the ED for reevaluation
because blood that was drawn the day before as part of
a work-up of fever is positive for N. meningitidis. The
clinical impression at discharge was otitis media, and
the patient was treated with amoxicillin and acetaminophen. The patient is now afebrile and playful.
What is the MOST appropriate action?
(A) Repeat blood culture, intravenous
ceftriaxone, admit
(B) Repeat blood culture, perform lumbar
puncture and CSF culture, start intravenous
ceftriaxone, admit
(C) Repeat blood culture, intramuscular
ceftriaxone, home with follow-up in 24 h
(D) Repeat blood culture, continue oral amoxicillin, follow up in 24 h or sooner if worse
(E) Home after thorough history and physical
examination, with reassurance to the parents
148
432. A 2-week-old vaginally delivered infant with an
unremarkable perinatal course presents with a rectal
temperature of 38.0°C and reluctance to feed for 1 day.
There is no history of URI symptoms, vomiting, diarrhea, or rash. The baby’s siblings (aged 13 months and
3 years) have colds, but no one else at home is ill. The
infant’s only medication is acetaminophen, administered
by the mother 3 h before arrival at the ED. What is the
MOST appropriate course of action?
(A) Home after blood culture
(B) Home after blood culture, CBC with differential, catheterized urine and urine culture
(C) Admit after blood, catheterized urine, CSF
cultures, CBC, urinalysis, and intravenous
ampicillin and gentamicin
(D) Admit after blood, urine, and CSF cultures for
intravenous ampicillin and ceftriaxone
(E) Home with close follow-up on no medications
433. A 3-week-old infant with a 2-day duration of
whitish eye drainage presents to the ED. The child had
a normal spontaneous vaginal delivery. The mother
reports mild URI symptoms for the past 3 days, but the
older siblings (13 months and 3 years) also have colds.
The child is eating and acting normally. Which of the
following is MOST appropriate?
(A) Fluorescein staining of the cornea; if no dendritic changes, Gram stain and culture of the
eye drainage for gonorrhea; if the Gram stain
is negative for gram-negative diplococci,
obtain a culture of nasopharyngeal aspirate
for chlamydia; prescribe oral antibiotics
(B) Fluorescein staining of the cornea; if no
dendritic changes, Gram stain for gonorrhea,
culture eye drainage for chlamydia and
gonorrhea; prescribe topical eye drops
(C) Topical antibiotic eye drops
(D) Treat with hot packs and lacrimal duct
massage for presumptive lacrimal duct stenosis
(E) Fluorescein staining of the cornea; if no
dendritic changes, topical antibiotic eye drops
P EDIATRIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
434. An unimmunized 5-month-old infant presents with
an indurated, red-violet quarter-sized area on the cheek
and a fever of 39.5°C of 1 day’s duration. He is irritable
but consolable and has a supple neck. What is the
MOST appropriate action?
(A) Admit after blood cultures, catheterized urine,
wound aspirate, lumbar puncture, CBC, and
intravenous ceftriaxone
(B) Admit after blood cultures, catheterized urine,
wound aspirate, and intravenous ceftriaxone
(C) Home with close follow-up after wound-edge
aspirate cultures, intramuscular ceftriaxone
(D) Home with close follow-up after blood cultures
and oral amoxicillin
(E) Home with close follow-up after blood cultures
and oral amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
435. Risk factors for SIDS include all of the following
EXCEPT
(A) sleeping in the supine position
(B) being born to a mother with a substance-abuse
problem during pregnancy
(C) prematurity or low birth weight
(D) having a sibling with SIDS
(E) history of a previous apneic episode of
life-threatening proportions (ALTE)
436. A 2-week-old infant presents with congestion, mild
wheezing, and a history of a “feeling warm.” Except for
wheezing and mildly increased respiratory effort, the
baby has normal vital signs and a normal examination.
All the following historical elements would place this
child at increased risk for apnea EXCEPT
(A) sluggish feeding and progressive increase
in constipation
(B) frequent paroxysms of cough, often followed
by emesis, but no color change
(C) 1-week duration of symptoms
(D) 2-day duration of symptoms
(E) premature birth
437. Which of the following is TRUE regarding treatment of a child with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
(A) Volume replacement is the mainstay of therapy
and should be generous and rapid
(B) An initial bolus of 0.1 U/kg insulin must be
given before beginning an insulin infusion
(C) The insulin infusion should be discontinued
once the patient’s glucose has fallen below 200
to 250 mg/dL
(D) Cerebral edema may occur 6 to 8 h into therapy, after apparent clinical improvement
(E) Potassium supplementation is not needed in the
child with DKA who is still acidotic, provided
the serum potassium is normal
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P EDIATRIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
438. A 3-year-old female with hemoglobin sickle cell
(HbSS) disease presents with a fever of 38.5°C after
several days of URI symptoms, lower leg pain, and
abdominal pain in the usual locations of her pain crises.
She has scleral icterus and a spleen tip palpable on
abdominal examination. The mother is concerned that
the patient looks pale. RR is 18, HR is 110, blood pressure is 100/62, and O2 saturation is at 90 percent. She
takes penicillin and folic acid daily. Work-up and treatment should include all of the following EXCEPT
(A) normal saline infusion at twice
maintenance levels
(B) CBC with differential, reticulocyte count,
blood and urine cultures, CXR, blood for
type and screen
(C) presumptive treatment with parenteral antibiotics, active against encapsulated organisms
(D) opioids in adequate doses, at frequent intervals
to control the pain
(E) O2 for hypoxia
439. When evaluating for possible otitis media, which of
the following is of the LEAST diagnostic value?
(A) History of a new onset of ear pulling starting
several days after URI
(B) Presence of the light reflex
(C) Translucency of the tympanic membrane (TM)
(D) Mobility in response to pneumatoscopy
(E) Fluid level behind the TM
440. During initial evaluation of a 1-month-old distressed
infant with URI symptoms, a heart murmur is detected.
Which of the following would be LEAST helpful in
providing evidence for congenital heart disease?
(A) CXR
(B) Baseline CBC, blood gas, and
blood chemistries
(C) Finding of a rounded liver edge 2 cm below
the right costal margin
(D) Detecting a holosystolic murmur with radiation
to the back
(E) EKG
441. A 1-week-old cyanotic infant presents in shock.
History is significant for feeding difficulties and worsening URI symptoms over the past 2 days. The baby is
limp, minimally responsive to noxious stimuli, and has
an O2 saturation of 72 percent on room air (with little
change after oxygen administration). RR is 60, HR is
200, blood pressure is undetectable, and rectal temperature is 38.0°C. Chest auscultation shows rales but no
murmur. What is the BEST course of action?
(A) Oxygen, prostaglandin E1 titrated to effect, and
consultation with a tertiary pediatric institution
for possible transfer
(B) Morphine, oxygen, and phenylephrine; place
the infant in the knee-to-chest position
(C) A septic work-up and antibiotics; defer lumbar
puncture until the baby is stabilized
(D) A and C
(E) B and C
442. What is the MOST common cause of preload disorders in children?
(A) Distributive shock
(B) Hypovolemic shock from vomiting
and diarrhea
(C) Congestive heart failure
(D) Severe anemia
(E) Hypoxemia
443. An otherwise healthy 7-week-old baby presents with
a rectal temperature of 40.0°C. Thorough physical examination does not show a source for the fever. Which
of the following tests is MOST likely to show a source of
infection?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Culture of a catheterized urine specimen
Peripheral blood culture
CBC and differential
Culture of the CSF
CXR
444. A nontoxic, playful, 18-month-old toddler is febrile
to 40.5°C but has no focus for fever on examination. A
24-h follow-up visit is arranged. Which of the following
would be INAPPROPRIATE management?
(A) Blood and urine cultures; intramuscular
ceftriaxone
(B) Blood and urine cultures, intramuscular
ceftriaxone only if WBC 15,000
(C) Intramuscular ceftriaxone, no cultures
(D) Blood and urine cultures, no antibiotics
(E) B, C, and D are all inappropriate
P EDIATRIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
150
445. Which of the following represents INAPPROPRIATE management of fever in children?
(A) Unwrapping the bundled child and retaking the
temperature after 15 min
(B) Documenting the temperature accurately
by using a tympanic thermometer, especially
in infants
(C) Ibuprofen orally in a maximum dose of 40
mg/kg/day divided between 6 and 8 h
(D) Slow cooling by sponging with tepid water
(E) Administration of ibuprofen and
acetaminophen simultaneously
446. A 3-month-old male presents with a fever of 39.5°C
for several days, occasional vomiting with a few loose
watery stools, mild URI symptoms, and a decreased
appetite. He is irritable but consolable and appears nontoxic. Which of the following tests would be MOST
likely to show the source of this child’s fever?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
CBC with differential
Blood culture
Urine culture
CSF culture
Chest x-ray
447. Which of the following methods is MOST appropriate for collecting a urine specimen for culture?
(A) Bag specimen in a circumcised infant boy
(B) Suprapubic tap in an infant girl with
labial fusion
(C) Catheterization in a circumcised, toilet-trained
3-year-old boy
(D) Catheterization in an uncircumcised,
toilet-trained 5-year-old boy
(E) Clean catch in an uncircumcised, toilet-trained
5-year-old boy
448. All of the following statements regarding hyponatremic dehydration in children are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) serum sodium is less than 130 mEq/L
(B) sodium deficit exceeds water deficit
(C) osmolar load is less in the intracellular
fluid (ICF) than in the extracellular fluid
(ECF) compartment
(D) water shifts from the ECF compartment into
the ICF compartment during equilibration
(E) possible sequelae include decreased circulatory
volume, cerebral edema, seizures, and coma
449. All of the following statements regarding a child
with hypernatremic dehydration are TRUE EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
there is at least a 10 percent fluid deficit
the skin may appear dry or doughy
muscle tone is increased
the sensorium fluctuates between lethargy
and hyperirritability
(E) rapid rehydration is indicated
450. All of the following statements regarding isotonic
dehydration in children are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) it is the most common type of dehydration
(B) serum sodium remains within the normal range
of 130 to 150 mEq/L
(C) sodium and water deficits are proportionate
(D) calculated fluid deficit should be replaced at a
uniform rate over 24 h
(E) initial fluid boluses should be subtracted from
the calculated fluid deficit
451. A 1-year-old baby presents with signs of severe
dehydration and shock during a severe bout of gastroenteritis. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate
fluid therapy?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Isotonic crystalloid bolus of 20 mL/kg
Isotonic crystalloid infusion at 20 mL/kg/h
D5W 0.45 NS bolus of 20 mL/kg
D5W 0.45 NS infusion at 20 mL/kg/h
D5W 0.25 NS infusion at 20 mL/kg/h
452. You are writing admitting orders for a 25-kg toddler
who requires observation after a motor vehicle accident.
The trauma team requests that you keep her NPO for
the first day. What are the 24-h intravenous maintenance
fluid requirements for this child?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
1200
1300
1400
1500
1600
mL
mL
mL
mL
mL
453. A 1-year-old boy presents to the ED with gastroenteritis that is unresponsive to oral rehydration attempts.
After physical examination, your assessment is that this
10-kg child has 5 percent dehydration. Which of the following represents the total 24-h fluid requirement?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
1100
1200
1300
1400
1500
mL
mL
mL
mL
mL
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P EDIATRIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
454. All of the following statements are TRUE about
moderate dehydration in an infant EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
the skin has decreased turgor
mucous membranes are dry
tears are diminished
the child is irritable
oliguria, tachycardia, and profound shock
are present
455. All of the following statements about hemorrhagic
shock and encephalopathy syndrome are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) the etiology is unknown
(B) the prodrome is usually a mild,
nonspecific illness
(C) profuse, watery diarrhea progresses to
bloody diarrhea
(D) hypoperfusion, seizures, metabolic acidosis,
and DIC occur
(E) laboratory abnormalities are limited to
acid–base and hematologic dysfunction
456. A 10-year-old female presents to the ED with left
upper extremity pain and swelling after a fall onto an
outstretched arm 2 h before. She has a tense forearm,
moderate swelling at the elbow, and tenderness to
palpation of the distal humerus. Passive extension of
the fingers elicits pain, and she complains of tingling in
the hand. Radial and ulnar pulses are present. What are the
MOST appropriate immediate actions?
(A) Splint the arm in flexion and send the patient
to x-ray
(B) Splint the arm in flexion, consult orthopedics,
and send the patient for x-ray
(C) Splint the arm in flexion, start an intravenous
line, obtain immediate x-ray, consult orthopedics, and prepare to reduce the fracture
(D) Splint the arm in extension and send the
patient for x-ray
(E) Splint the arm in extension, start an intravenous line, obtain immediate x-ray, consult
orthopedics, and prepare to reduce the fracture
457. Regarding supracondylar fractures, which of the following radiographic finding is LEAST likely?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Subtle or nonvisible fracture line
Posterior fat pad sign
Loss of angulation of the anterior capitellum
Imaginary anterior humeral line bisects the
anterior capitellum
(E) Imaginary anterior humeral line bisects the
posterior two-thirds of the capitellum
458. A 14-year-old male presents with acute onset of
inability to walk and severe pain in the left groin, thigh,
and knee. He is afebrile and appears nontoxic but is
obviously distressed. Examination shows an externally
rotated thigh and apparent limb shortening. What is the
MOST likely diagnosis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease (coxa plana)
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)
Septic arthritis of the hip
Toxic tenosynovitis of the hip
Osgood-Schlatter’s disease
459. Aspirin therapy is used in all of the following conditions EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Kawasaki syndrome
polyarticular juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
acute rheumatic fever
Henoch-Schönlein purpura
Kohler disease
460. A 2-year-old male presents to the ED with a 5-day
history of a high fever, malaise, and irritability. Vital
signs are a HR of 130, blood pressure of 84/44, RR of
24, and temperature of 40°C. Examination shows an
alert, uncomfortable-appearing boy, with bilateral nonpurulent conjunctivitis, no nuchal rigidity, a strawberry
tongue, bilateral enlarged cervical nodes, palmar and
plantar erythema, and a polymorphous rash over the
trunk. Chest x-ray is normal, as are a lumbar puncture
and urinalysis. Blood cultures are sent, and empiric
antibiotics are started. Which of the following is the
MOST appropriate treatment?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Admit and start aspirin
Admit and start glucocorticoids
Admit and start IVIG
Start aspirin and discharge with next-day
follow-up
(E) Start glucocorticoids and aspirin and discharge
with next-day follow-up
PEDIATRIC
EMERGENCIES
ANSWERS
416. The answer is E. (Chapter 120) Misdiagnosis and undertreatment of pediatric
asthma occur frequently. The prevalence, severity of disease, and death rate from asthma
in pediatric patients has increased significantly during the past 20 years. History of intubation, two or more hospitalizations or three or more ED visits for asthma in the past
year, and glucocorticoid dependence or increased use of agonists are all associated
with a higher risk of death. A peak flow of 60 percent predicted in a patient old
enough to cooperate and demonstrate good effort is an objective measure that indicates
the child will probably relapse at home if not admitted. Underlying chronic pulmonary or
cardiac conditions portend a more complicated course for asthma exacerbations, particularly when associated with some viruses (e.g., respiratory syncytial virus, or RSV). Initial room air oxygen saturation by itself is not a reliable indicator of need for admission.
417. The answer is D. (Chapter 120) Despite extensive study, glucocorticoids have not
been shown to improve the course of illness in bronchiolitis. However, both nebulized
racemic epinephrine and nebulized 2 agonists are beneficial treatments. Oxygen supplementation is often helpful in decreasing respiratory rate, accessory muscle use, and the
general degree of respiratory distress, even when the SpO2 is within acceptable range on
presentation. Fever in bronchiolitic children is a common finding and is frequently associated with otitis media.
418. The answer is A. (Chapter 121) A “breath-holding spell” typically occurs after an
abrupt trauma (fall, spanking) or a verbal reprimand. It is typified by a sudden cry,
followed by prolonged inhalation or exhalation (resulting in no air exchange), and a
Valsalva maneuver with vagotonic effects (bradycardia). A brief tonic seizure, not
considered to be epileptic, occurs. Head trauma in this child would be an unlikely cause
of seizure because the child is neurologically normal. Toxic ingestion is always a consideration in this age of greater mobility, curiosity, and dexterity. However, some aberration in mental status or vital signs would be expected with ingestion severe enough to
cause a seizure. Congenital heart disease can produce paroxysmal events at all ages.
Pulmonary hypertension, tetralogy of Fallot, acquired cardiomyopathies, and prolonged
QT syndrome should be considered. Idiopathic seizures account for up to 47 percent of
afebrile seizures in children.
419. The answer is D. (Chapter 121) Multifocal, fragmentary seizures are common in
newborns. Autonomic seizures can also occur and manifest as variable changes in respiration, temperature, and color. Hypoxia, sepsis, hypoglycemia, and hereditary or
acquired metabolic disorders are the most common causes. In the absence of an obvious
etiology, newborns should be treated with vitamin B6 , glucose, calcium, and magnesium
as indicated. In infants younger than 7 days, phenobarbital is the antiseizure drug of first
choice. Phenytoin (or fosphenytoin) is the drug of second choice. Diazepam should be
used with caution because of its propensity for respiratory depression and potential to
worsen hyperbilirubinemia.
420. The answer is D. (Chapter 123) Intermittent colicky pain, occurring about every 20
min, is the typical history for intussusception. Because the child looks and acts completely
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P EDIATRIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
153
normal between pain episodes, the diagnosis is often overlooked. The stool commonly
appears grossly normal until ischemia progresses and “currant jelly” stools develop.
Although a mass effect in the right upper quadrant on x-ray or palpation is suggestive of
the diagnosis, up to one-third of plain films are normal. The usual age range for presentation is between 3 months and 6 years. Intussuception should be considered in the differential diagnosis of any child with unexplained altered level of consciousness because up
to 10 percent of children present with apathy and lethargy alone.
421. The answer is E. (Chapter 123) Vomiting is a common problem in childhood, with
variable etiology. It can occur with both obstructive and nonobstructive conditions.
Although a surgical condition may eventually lead to bilious emesis, at onset vomitus
may be simple regurgitation of frothy, nonbilious stomach contents. Bleeding from the
gastrointestinal tract may be caused by minor (fissure, milk allergy) or major (intestinal
obstruction, gangrenous bowel) problems. Plain films have a low sensitivity for intussusception (normal in up to 30 percent of cases). Masses are infrequently detected during the abdominal examination in children who are later found to have intussusception,
malrotation, or even pyloric stenosis. Thus, physical examination alone is not reliable to
rule out a surgical condition. Observation may be the best course of action for stable
children with an unclear etiology for emesis.
422. The answer is D. (Chapter 123) The classic progression of symptoms of appendicitis occurs more commonly in older children and adults. Children younger than 2 years
often present when the appendix is already perforated because the preceding symptoms
are too nonspecific to call attention to the pathology. Lack of anorexia or fever and normal WBC counts are common findings in pediatric patients. Gastroenteritis is often associated with appendicitis, possibly on the basis of an acutely, but secondarily, inflamed
appendix. Vomiting more commonly presents after the onset of abdominal pain.
423. The answer is E. (Chapter 125) Nonketotic hypoglycemia is more of a physiologic
alteration than true pathology; it usually presents in children younger than 18 months
who have had a long fast and do not have adequate gluconeogenic precursors available
to keep the blood sugar elevated and the stress hormones in check. It is most often seen
on holidays and weekends, when parents sleep late and unintentionally extend the time
the child has gone without eating. A child with an abdominal mass may have an enlarged
liver, the result of the accumulation of abnormal products of metabolism, such as those
seen in glycogen storage disease, fatty acid oxidation, or other metabolic abnormalities.
Ethanol ingestion is far more likely to cause hypoglycemia in children than in adults, not
only because of the higher glucose utilization in children but also because of the relatively greater effect of ethanol on gluconeogenesis. This is true even when the ethanol
levels are too low to cause clinical intoxication.
424. The answer is B. (Chapter 289) Although FTT babies are usually brought to the ED
for evaluation of other conditions, there are many clues that these babies are victims of
nonnurturing environments. Poor physical hygiene may be obvious, but other signs may be
subtle. These may include occipital flattening and alopecia, a result of the baby remaining
unattended in a supine position all day. However, because the American Academy of Pediatrics officially recommends supine positioning in infancy to prevent sudden infant death
syndrome (SIDS), more normally nurtured babies have been manifesting this sign.
Although these infants may appear to act as if starved for affection, more commonly such
babies are apathetic to, and withdrawn from, their environment, appearing to prefer selfstimulatory activities (sucking, self-regurgitation). The lower extremities of FTT infants
often exhibit markedly increased tone and scissoring. The weight curve of the neglected
but physically normal baby markedly deviates from the curve of the normal baby.
425. The answer is E. (Chapter 289) The absence of physical signs does not rule out
sexual abuse. A speculum pelvic examination is not generally indicated in prepubertal
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P EDIATRIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
children, except under anesthesia in the case of severe unexplained vaginal bleeding or
for vaginal foreign-body removal. Inspection of the introital area and cultures obtained
from the vagina are usually sufficient. Syphilis and HIV serologies are more indicative
of baseline status and should only be collected if there is an associated STD, a suspicion of these in the assailant, and counseling for the patient to explain the ramifications
of positive results of such tests. Currently rapid antigen tests for STDs are not considered reliable in children. All suspected abuse must be reported to CPS.
426. The answer is C. (Chapter 131) This child’s picture suggests a streptococcal scarlet
fever variant. Perianal rash is a prominent feature. If the family is reliable, treatment can
be based on results of culture and laboratory tests. If follow-up is a concern, presumptive
treatment for GABHS without culture is the more prudent course of action. Treatment is
thought to prevent the rare, nonsuppurative sequelae of rheumatic fever and possibly
glomerulonephritis. If the patient’s presentation were more consistent with Kawasaki’s
disease (e.g., a more prolonged course of fever), intravenous gamma globulin would be
indicated to prevent future development of coronary artery aneurysms. Diphenhydramine
provides symptomatic relief from the itchy rashes of both strep and Kawasaki’s disease,
especially in the peeling phase.
427. The answer is C. (Chapter 122) The presence of two of the four physical signs predictive of dehydration (ill appearance, capillary refill 3 s, dry mucous membranes, and
absent tears) suggest this baby to be moderately ( 5 percent) dry. Mild dehydration is
also shown by tachycardia and relative tachypnea. A trial of oral rehydration solutions
consisting of the appropriate osmolality ( 300 mOsm/L) and a 2:1 ratio of glucose to
Na (millimoles), given in small volumes as frequently as every 5 min is appropriate but
very labor intensive. This would be impractical in most ED settings. Intravenous rehydration with normal saline (NS) or LR in volumes of 20 to 40 cc/kg in the ED can be
followed by discharge to home with a combination of oral rehydration solution (maximum of 150 cc/kg/day) and regular diet. Commonly recommended soft drinks and the
BRATT diet are high in carbohydrates and osmolality and low in nutritive value and
should not be used. Antiemetics and antimotility agents should be avoided in children.
428. The answer is A. (Chapter 122) Because infants younger than 6 months are at risk
for bacteremia, they need antibiotic therapy when stool cultures are positive for Salmonella. Lumbar puncture and parenteral antibiotics are advocated by some sources.
Patients with hemoglobinopathies are also at risk for the suppurative complications of
Salmonella infections. Sickle cell trait, however, does not portend increased vulnerability. Neither the 10-year-old nor the 12-month-old child with culture-proven Salmonella
gastroenteritis needs antibiotic treatment if the symptoms are mild and the child appears
nontoxic. The child who develops bloody diarrhea while on antibiotics likely has colitis
caused by Clostridium difficile; this usually resolves with discontinuation of the antibiotics and possibly the addition of cholestyramine anion-exchange resin to absorb the
C. difficile toxin.
429. The answer is C. (Chapter 131) This child most likely has staphylococcal impetigo.
The pathogen produces an epidermolytic toxin that gives rise to different-sized bullous
lesions. These are flaccid and thin walled and rupture easily, leaving a moist denuded
base that can be mistaken for a cigarette burn. The lesions of bullous impetigo are most
often found on the extremities but can be found anywhere. Except in extreme cases, routine hygiene, wound cleaning, and oral antistaphylococcal antibiotics are all that is necessary for treatment. Neomycin ointment is not effective topically. Although mupirocin
is effective topically, it is expensive and its use should be restricted to infections covering a limited area.
430. The answer is C. (Chapter 110) The presence of petechiae in a febrile child, particularly if the petechiae cannot be attributed as secondary to pressure (e.g., in an extremity,
P EDIATRIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
155
distal to where a tourniquet has been placed), suggests Neisseria meningitidis or
Haemophilus influenzae bacteremia and meningitis. In N. meningitidis, the rash may start
out urticarial and maculopapular but usually progresses to petechiae or purpura. Children
should be placed in respiratory isolation. They need a complete sepsis work-up (to include
blood and CSF cultures) followed by prompt administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
and admission. Because of the potential for rapid deterioration in patients with N. meningitidis or H. influenzae bacteremia, all the other less aggressive choices are inappropriate.
Cultures eventually positive for either of these organisms usually require prophylaxis for
family members and health-care workers who have had close contact with the child.
431. The answer is B. (Chapter 118) Even well-appearing children require admission if
their blood cultures grow either H. influenzae or N. meningitidis. Such children are at risk
for bacterial sepsis and should receive a complete work-up to include CBC, repeat blood
culture, catheterized urinalysis, CSF cultures, and broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics.
432. The answer is C. (Chapter 118) Most authorities agree that a rectal temperature of
38.0°C (100.4°F) constitutes a fever during the first few months of life. Such infants may
exhibit nonspecific signs and symptoms of sepsis and thus require extensive work-up
(CBC with differential, blood cultures, catheterized urine, and CSF) when they present
with fever. Otherwise healthy babies older than 4 weeks who present with fever and have
a reliable social situation may be discharged home with close follow-up after a negative
sepsis work-up. Ceftriaxone should be reserved for infants older than 1 month because it
may displace bilirubin from protein-binding sites.
433. The answer is A. (Chapter 117) In the first month of life, conjunctival infection with
Herpes simplex and Neisseria gonorrhoeae can cause permanent eye damage. A neonate
with eye drainage must undergo fluorescein staining of the cornea to assess for dendritic
changes and ulcerations, and Gram stain to rule out gram-negative diplococci. The
patient in the scenario is exhibiting respiratory symptoms of onset at approximately the
same time as the eye drainage. He is in the appropriate age and risk category (vaginal
delivery) for chlamydial infection. Nasopharyngeal cultures or scrapings of the palpebral
conjunctivae are much more sensitive than culture of the eye drainage itself for chlamydia. Oral (erythromycin), but not topical, antibiotics for 2 to 3 weeks are the most important therapy. Close follow-up is essential.
434. The answer is A. (Chapter 117) Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes,
and H. influenzae, in decreasing order of importance, are the pathogens most often associated with cellulitis in children. Fever is unusual unless H. influenzae is the causative
organism. Haemophilus influenzae is an important cause for buccal cellulitis in unimmunized children. Because of the organism’s invasiveness and the frequent association of
unexpected meningitis, these patients need a full sepsis work-up (to include blood, urine,
wound, and CSF cultures) and admission for parenteral antibiotics. Afebrile, fully immunized children can usually be treated with antibiotics and followed on an outpatient basis
because they are not likely to have H. influenzae.
435. The answer is A. (Chapter 114) The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends
that babies sleep in the supine position as protection against an apneic episode. Prematurity, previous ALTE, low birth weight, and a family history of SIDS are all risk factors.
436. The answer is C. (Chapters 112, 114) Neonates with RSV infection are at risk for
central apnea during the first 3 or 4 days of illness. When RSV testing is available in the
ED, it can help identify patients who may require admission. Children who have been
symptomatic for longer than 4 days tend to do well (unless the work of breathing is such
that they tire to the point of apnea). Pertussis in this as yet unimmunized child is a real
risk. Although paroxysmal hacking cough is characteristic, infants may have apnea and no
“whoop.” Botulism may first manifest as constipation and then diminished gag, feeding
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P EDIATRIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
problems, weak cry, and decreased muscle tone before ultimately resulting in respiratory
arrest. Premature infants are at higher risk for complications from RSV infection.
437. The answer is D. (Chapter 124) Although volume replacement is crucial in treatment of pediatric DKA, deficit correction must proceed cautiously. Cerebral edema is
unpredictable and appears late, after the patient is seemingly improved. Rapid fluid
replacement and possibly speedy normalization of blood glucose may predispose to
cerebral edema. The initial 0.1 U/kg bolus of insulin is no longer recommended before
the insulin drip because it may exacerbate preexisting hypokalemia. Insulin infusion
may be gradually decreased but should be continued until acidosis has resolved. Glucose should be added to intravenous fluids once levels have fallen to between 200 and
250 mg/dL. Correction of acidosis results in intracellular potassium shifts; osmotic
diuresis further promotes potassium loss. Hence, potassium replacement is usually
required early in therapy.
438. The answer is A. (Chapter 133) In children with HbSS disease, infection is the most
common cause of death; acute splenic sequestration is the second most common cause.
Despite penicillin prophylaxis, this febrile child is at risk for infectious complications
from encapsulated organisms. Furthermore, a palpable spleen tip is suggestive of sequestration crisis, extremity pain suggests vasoocclusive crisis, and a viral cause of the URI
symptoms may have precipitated an aplastic crisis. Prompt administration of antibiotics
and a moderate fluid bolus of one-half NS at 1.5 times maintenance are indicated. A
chest x-ray to look for pneumonia or early acute chest syndrome should be obtained. The
child requires supplemental oxygen to correct hypoxia (up to an O2 saturation of 95 percent). Oximetry probes should be placed on the ear lobes or nasal bridge because the
extremities in vasoocclusive crisis may not provide accurate readings.
439. The answer is B. (Chapter 116) The light reflex can often be visualized in an abnormal ear. Gauging decreased translucency of the TM and evaluating for the presence of a
fluid level behind the TM requires experience, but these are good indicators of infection
when detected. Mobility in response to pneumatoscopy is also quite sensitive in practiced
hands. New-onset ear pulling after URI is frequently associated with otitis media.
440. The answer is B. (Chapter 115) Although blood work is rarely helpful in the acute
management of such an infant, improved saturation in response to oxygen may suggest a
pulmonary rather than a cardiac problem. Chest x-ray is helpful to assess the size and
shape of the heart. Hepatomegaly usually develops late and may be manifested solely by
the subtle rounding of the previously sharp liver edge. Although murmurs may occur in
up to 30 percent of normal children, these are generally brief, systolic, and without radiation. “Physiologic” murmurs can be loud, but they are not holosystolic. An electrocardiogram (EKG) is useful for the evaluation of cardiac conduction and, indirectly, the
heart’s chamber size and electrical axis.
441. The answer is D. (Chapter 115) The diagnosis of decompensated congenital heart
disease is often difficult in very young infants. Borderline cardiac reserves are suggested
by exercise intolerance, which, in this age group, most reproducibly manifest as difficulty in feeding, diaphoresis, increased time to take a bottle, and staccato coughinterrupted feeds. Babies often have been evaluated several times for “URI” symptoms
before decompensation occurs. Shunt-dependent lesions start to decompensate when the
ductus arteriosus begins to close, at around the second week of life. Prostaglandin E1
infusions are successful in reopening the ductus arteriosus in a majority of such hemodynamically unstable patients. Although oxygen should always be administered,
phenylephrine and the knee-to-chest position (for a presumptive “tet spell”) would not be
appropriate. Sepsis should always be considered in a baby with unexplained shock, but
lumbar puncture should be deferred until the child is stabilized.
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442. The answer is B. (Chapter 115) Preload is the amount of blood that the heart
receives to distribute to the body. In addition to heart rate, afterload, and cardiac contractility, preload determines cardiac output. In children, the most common cause of
decreased preload is hypovolemia, usually from vomiting and diarrhea. Distributive
shock secondary to sepsis, neurogenic spinal shock, or anaphylaxis is a less common
cause of preload reduction. Acute anemia may also be associated with decreased preload.
Congestive heart failure is a frequent complication in children with congenital heart disease. Increased preload results in elevation of left atrial pressure leading to pulmonary
edema and decreased oxygenation. Hypoxemia is a result of preload disturbance rather
than a primary cause.
443. The answer is A. (Chapter 110) Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are the most common bacterial infection in this age group. UTIs may not produce any symptoms other
than fever, and the urinalysis may be misleadingly normal. A culture of an appropriately
collected urine sample (catheterized specimen or suprapubic tap) should be sent. Serious
bacterial infections, including bacteremia and meningitis, have an incidence of up to 4
percent in these young infants. Aseptic meningitis may have a slightly higher incidence.
Although a CBC may be suggestive of bacteremia (WBC count outside the range of
5000 to 15,000, with more than 7500 bands), it is neither sensitive nor specific. If respiratory signs or symptoms were present, a chest x-ray would be of higher yield.
444. The answer is E. (Chapter 110) Expectant antibiotic use in febrile children is controversial. Early antibiotic administration diminishes the incidence of bacteremia, and
parenteral antibiotics may reduce the incidence of meningitis in bacteremic children.
Current recommendations suggest that well-appearing children between 3 and 36
months of age, with no focus of infection and fever higher than 40.0°C, should probably receive antibiotics after cultures are drawn, irrespective of WBC count. A broadspectrum, third-generation, long-acting cephalosporin is administered parenterally once
daily for 48 h until the cultures are negative. In this age group, blood and urine cultures
should always be performed, but clinical appearance can guide the need for laryngopharyngeal (LP) and CSF cultures. Children who appear ill on presentation or for
whom close follow-up cannot be definitively arranged should be admitted to the hospital for parenteral antibiotics.
445. The answer is B. (Chapter 110) The aim of reducing fever is to make the child more
comfortable and reduce the risk of febrile seizures. Simple unbundling of a warmly
dressed baby often results in a decrease in temperature of several degrees after a short
period of equilibration. The child should be dressed with similar level of warmth-giving
apparel as others in the same ambient temperature. TM thermometers are notoriously
unreliable, often underestimating the true degree of fever. Because the extent of a workup is sometimes determined solely by the degree of fever in a young, otherwise wellappearing infant, the temperature must be accurately documented, preferably with a
rectal thermometer. Ibuprofen is given in the lower dose range of 5 mg/kg for fever temperatures below 39°C (102.2°F) and in the higher dose range of 10 mg/kg for temperatures above 39°C. The combination of antiinflammatory medications (aspirin or
ibuprofen) with acetaminophen results in a more sustained antipyretic effect than either
is capable of producing alone.
446. The answer is C. (Chapter 136) In young febrile infants, the rate of UTI is between 7
and 17 percent. Uncircumcised boys have an approximately three times greater incidence
of UTI than girls. The rate of positive blood cultures in febrile infants is about 3 to 5 percent; CSF cultures and chest x-ray are positive much less frequently. The CBC with
differential is only a qualitative screening test and is not helpful in determining the cause
of fever.
158
P EDIATRIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
447. The answer is E. (Chapter 136) In general, any child who is toilet trained and has
the appropriate supervision can provide a suitable clean catch urine sample for culture.
By 4 years of age, the foreskin can be completely retracted in more than 90 percent of
uncircumcised boys. Labial fusion is common in infant girls, especially after a bout of
diaper dermatitis. The labia can usually be easily separated by water-soluble surgical
lubricant, at which point catheterization can be performed without difficulty. Suprapubic
aspiration would only be necessary if labial separation were unsuccessful. Bagged specimens are never appropriate, even in circumcised boys.
448. The answer is C. (Chapter 128) Hyponatremic dehydration creates a state in which
the osmolar load in the ECF compartment is lower than that in the ICF compartment.
This occurs when fluid losses have been replaced with hypotonic, low-sodium solutions.
The subsequent movement of water from the ECF into the ICF decreases the circulatory
volume and causes cerebral edema and central nervous system dysfunction. Seizures and
coma can occur when the serum sodium is less than 120 mEq/L or when the sodium
level falls rapidly.
449. The answer is E. (Chapter 128) Signs of hypernatremic dehydration include dry rubbery skin, increased muscle tone, and altered level of consciousness. A hypernatremic
child should be rehydrated slowly to avoid a rapid reexpansion of intracellular volume
that could lead to cerebral edema. A good guide is to replace the fluid deficit over 48 to
72 h. Serum sodium should not be lowered more than 10 to 15 mEq/L over 24 h.
450. The answer is D. (Chapter 128) Calculated fluid deficit is replaced over 24 h, but
half of the fluid should be administered over the first 8 h and the other half over the next
16 h. A child with mild (5 percent) dehydration has lost 5 percent of body weight in kilograms. This converts to a fluid deficit of 50 mL/kg. With moderate dehydration, the
deficit increases to 100 mL/kg. Initial boluses are subtracted from the calculated fluid
deficit. After calculating the proportionate rates to replace the deficit, the patient’s maintenance fluid schedule must be added. Appropriate rehydration fluids include D5 0.2 NS
or D5 0.45 NS. Once urine output is established, 40 mEq/L of potassium should be added
to the intravenous solution to correct the deficit.
451. The answer is A. (Chapter 128) Regardless of the type of dehydration, if shock is
present, immediate volume replacement is needed. Initially, a 20 mL/kg bolus of isotonic
crystalloid (0.9 percent normal saline or lactated Ringer’s solution) over 5 to 20 min is
indicated. If shock persists on reassessment of the patient’s heart rate, skin color, pulses,
mental status, and urine output, another 20 mL/kg bolus should be administered. Any
baby with change in mental status needs a bedside glucose check.
452. The answer is E. (Chapter 128) Maintenance fluid requirements are 100 mL/kg for
10 kg, 1000 mL 50 mL/kg for 11 to 20 kg, and 1500 20 mL/kg for each kilogram over 20. This 25-kg patient requires 1500 mL 20 mL/kg 5 kg, or 1600 mL.
453. The answer is E. (Chapter 128) Maintenance requirements can be calculated by
using the formula in answer 452, for a total of 1000 mL for 24 h. A state of 5 percent
dehydration represents a fluid deficit of 50 mL/kg or 500 mL in this 10-kg child. Therefore, the total requirement is 1000 mL 500 mL, or 1500 mL.
454. The answer is E. (Chapter 128) Children with moderate dehydration manifest compensated shock. Oliguria is present, but the blood pressure is normal. The sensorium
ranges from restlessness to irritability. Children with severe dehydration may be hyperirritable or lethargic.
455. The answer is E. (Chapter 126) Hemorrhagic shock and encephalopathy syndrome
occurs from unknown etiology in previously healthy infants after a prodrome of nonspe-
P EDIATRIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
159
cific illness. Profuse, watery diarrhea becomes bloody and then seizures occur. Laboratory
examinations show evidence of multiorgan dysfunction. Renal, hepatic, pancreatic, and
myocardial abnormalities are present.
456. The answer is E. (Chapter 132) This child has clinical evidence of a supracondylar
fracture with neurovascular compromise. While preparations are made for immediate
reduction, the arm should be splinted in extension to help decrease further movement and
soft tissue injury. Intravenous access is needed for titration of analgesic and sedative
agents. Radiographs and orthopedic consultation should be obtained expeditiously. The
emergency physician should proceed with the reduction if the consultant is not immediately available. If neurovascular integrity is not restored by the reduction or if compartment syndrome is suspected, emergent forearm decompression may be necessary to
prevent permanent disability.
457. The answer is E. (Chapter 132) Supracondylar fractures are the most common type of
pediatric elbow fractures. In an intact upper arm, the capitellum angulates anteriorly, and
an imaginary anterior humeral line would bisect the posterior two-thirds. If a supracondylar fracture were present, an anterior humeral line would bisect the anterior part of the
capitellum. A posterior fat pad, if present, is always abnormal and indicates an elbow effusion. Although the fracture line itself may be subtle, the combination of bisection of the
anterior capitellum and a posterior fat pad is highly suggestive of supracondylar fracture.
458. The answer is B. (Chapter 132) With SCFE, the femoral head subluxes on the
femoral neck, with different degrees of displacement. If untreated, avascular necrosis
ensues. SCFE risks are multifactorial and include puberty, obesity, trauma, a male-tofemale predominance of 8:3, a genetic predisposition, and endocrinologic conditions.
The peak incidence is between 12 and 15 years in males and between 10 and 13 years in
females. SCFE is more common in blacks than in whites. Patients with SCFE are generally admitted and made non–weight bearing. Definitive orthopedic treatment consists of
open reduction and fixation. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is characterized by avascular
necrosis of the femoral head and a subsequent subchondral stress fracture. A patient with
tenosynovitis of the hip may not appear toxic, but a patient with septic arthritis often
will. A widened joint space is seen in radiographs of patients with Legg-Calvé-Perthes
disease, tenosynovitis, and septic arthritis of the hip. Osgood-Schlatter disease is an
inflammatory reaction to trauma to the tibial tuberosity.
459. The answer is E. (Chapter 132) Kohler disease, an avascular necrosis of the tarsal
navicular bone that affects boys four times more frequently than girls, is not treated with
aspirin. The etiology is repetitive compressive stress of the tarsal navicular, the last bone
to ossify in childhood. Treatment consists of crutches for the first 3 weeks with a shortleg walking cast. Kawasaki syndrome is a systemic vasculitis affecting small and
medium-sized arteries. Primary therapy consists of intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG),
with aspirin as an important adjunctive treatment. Polyarticular juvenile rheumatoid
arthritis results from an inflammatory response to unknown antigens. Acute rheumatic
fever is a systemic, multiorgan inflammatory disease triggered by an antecedent
-hemolytic streptococcal infection. Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a common, smallvessel vasculitis mediated by immune complexes and alternate complement pathways. A
polymigratory periarticulitis occurs in most affected children and is treated with aspirin.
460. The answer is C. (Chapter 132) This patient meets all the major and minor criteria for
Kawasaki syndrome. The most ominous complication is coronary aneurysm. In the United
States, Kawasaki syndrome affects 3000 to 5000 children per year and is 15 times more
common in boys. Treatment with IVIG is key. Adjunctive aspirin therapy is used in antiinflammatory doses for the first 14 days and then at lower doses for its antiplatelet adhesion effect during the time that children are at risk of coronary thrombosis.
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PULMONARY
EMERGENCIES
QUESTIONS
DIRECTIONS:
Each question below contains five suggested responses. Choose the one best response to each question.
461. Which of the following is the MOST common effect
of pregnancy on an asthma patient?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
An improvement in respiratory function
An exacerbation of asthma symptoms
A decrease in asthma symptoms
A worsening in overall respiratory function
An increase in maternal complications and
perinatal mortality
462. Which one of the following pulmonary function
tests is the MOST useful at the bedside?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)
Forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1)
Forced vital capacity (FVC)
Total lung capacity
Arterial blood gas
463. Which one of the following indicates severe asthma?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Pulsus
Pulsus
Pulsus
Pulsus
Pulsus
paradoxus
paradoxus
paradoxus
paradoxus
paradoxus
20
10
20
10
30
mm
mm
mm
mm
mm
Hg
Hg
Hg
Hg
Hg
464. All of the following increase the likelihood of the
need for hospital admission in an asthma patient
EXCEPT
(A) multiple previous admissions
(B) a second ED visit within the preceding 3 days
(C) medication regimen includes systemic steroids
at the time of ED presentation
(D) third-trimester pregnancy
(E) history of previous intubation due to asthma
465. All of the following may have a role in the acute
management of severe asthma EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
magnesium
salmeterol
halothane
helium
ketamine
466. 2-adrenergic medications include all of the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
isoproterenol
metaproterenol sulfate
salmeterol
terbutaline
carbuterol
467. All of the following statements are TRUE regarding
aerosolized anticholinergic medications for asthma management EXCEPT
(A) the effect is additive when they are used in
combination with -adrenergic agonists
(B) they affect large central airways
(C) they can cause clinically significant adverse
mucous plugging and systemic toxicity
(D) results of studies comparing them with
-adrenergic agonists are conflicting
(E) they may reduce symptoms in patients with
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
468. Symptoms heralding respiratory arrest during an
asthma exacerbation include all of the following EXCEPT
(A) lethargy
(B) severe respiratory alkalosis and the use of
accessory muscles of respiration
(C) a normal pCO2 on arterial blood gas
(D) a silent chest on auscultation
(E) agitation
161
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P ULMONARY E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
162
469. Strategies for the management of uncomplicated
COPD include all of the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
broad-spectrum antibiotics
cromolyn sodium
glucocorticoid therapy
anticholinergics
-adrenergic agonists
470. Which one of the following is considered the hallmark of COPD?
(A) Exertional dyspnea
(B) Chronic dry cough
(C) Chronic cough productive of yellow
sputum accompanied by global diminution
of breath sounds
(D) Increased anteroposterior diameter
(E) Pursed-lip exhalation
471. On chest x-ray, an increased anteroposterior diameter, flattened diaphragms, increased parenchymal
lucency, and an attenuation of pulmonary vasculature
are MOST consistent with which one of the following?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Chronic bronchitic disease
Bronchiectasis
Dominant bronchitic disease in COPD
Emphysema
Pneumonia
472. Which statement about antibiotic therapy is TRUE
for COPD patients?
(A) Broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy is
indicated to treat tracheobronchitis only when
it is mucopurulent
(B) In mild to moderate cases of bronchitis,
antibiotic therapy should be started selectively
only after sputum culture and sensitivities
are available
(C) In mild to moderate cases of bronchitis,
broad-spectrum antibiotics can be started
before the availability of results of sputum
culture and sensitivities
(D) Antibiotic therapy is reserved for the treatment
of coexistent pneumonia
(E) Antibiotics are reserved to treat pneumonia and
severe cases of bronchitis
473. Which of the following treatments is safe for a
patient who is a lung transplant candidate?
(A) Withhold broad-spectrum multiple-drug
antibiotic regimens unless fever is higher
than 40°C
(B) Intubation
(C) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory therapy
(D) Glucocorticoids
(E) Blood transfusion
474. A 24-year-old unhelmeted motorcycle rider is
declared brain dead 2 days after hitting a truck at freeway speeds. Per his prior expressed wishes, his family
wants him to be considered for organ donation. During
your night shift, the ICU nurse calls you because he is
concerned that the patient’s blood pressure is falling.
For this patient to be considered an organ donor, all of
the following are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) he should receive CMV-negative blood transfusions to maintain a hematocrit of at least 30
percent
(B) central venous pressure must be sustained at
10 cm H2O
(C) pO2 must be 80 mm Hg, pCO2 must be
35 to 45 mm Hg, and pH must remain between
7.30 and 7.45
(D) the patient must have a negative chest x-ray
(E) HLA matching must be performed
475. All the following are major side effects of immunosuppressant drugs used in lung transplant patients
EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
hypokalemia
hypertension
bilirubinemia
gastric dysmotility
neurotoxicity
476. Initial ED tests for a patient status post lung transplant could include all of the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
477.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
chest x-ray
arterial blood gas
cyclosporine level
azathioprine level
complete blood count (CBC) with differential
Which one of the following can cause pancreatitis?
Azathioprine
Prednisone
Cyclosporine
Tacrolimus
All of the above
163
P ULMONARY E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
478. Clinical features consistent with acute rejection in
a lung transplant patient include all of the following
EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
bilateral interstitial infiltrates
cough, chest tightness, and fatigue
a rise in temperature of 0.5°C over baseline
a normal chest x-ray
FEV1 drop of at least 25 percent below
baseline over 48 h
479. Cyclosporine levels are affected by all the following
EXCEPT
(A) type of laboratory assay
(B) use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs
(C) length of time since the transplant
was performed
(D) use of macrolides and antiepileptics
(E) use of calcium channel blockers
480. Which one of the following has the highest sensitivity for pulmonary embolism?
(A) A high-probability ventilation-perfusion
radionuclear scan
(B) A medium-probability ventilation-perfusion
radionuclear scan
(C) A low-probability ventilation-perfusion
radionuclear scan
(D) Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE)
(E) Dynamic (spiral) computed tomography (CT)
. .
481. Which one of the following V/Q findings (coupled
with the clinical description) is LEAST suggestive of
pulmonary embolism?
(A) Multiple matched defects between ventilation
and perfusion scans with a low clinical index
of suspicion
(B) One moderately sized mismatched defect
between ventilation and perfusion scans with
a low clinical index of suspicion
(C) Bilateral mismatched defects between
ventilation and perfusion scans with a
moderate clinical index of suspicion
(D) A low-probability scan with a high clinical
index of suspicion
(E) An intermediate-probability scan with a low
clinical index of suspicion
482. All of the following statements are TRUE regarding
dynamic CT of the chest EXCEPT
(A) a negative study does not rule out pulmonary
embolism (PE)
(B) it can detect pneumonia and acute aortic dissection
(C) its specificity is lower
. . than that of a
high-probability V/Q scan
(D) it is most reliable for pulmonary emboli that
extend up to the subsegmental level of the
pulmonary vessels
(E) it requires the injection of contrast material
483. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of pneumococcal pneumonia?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Acute onset, tachycardia, and tachypnea
Recurrent rigors
Pleuritic chest pain
Thick, rusty sputum
Malaise, flank or back pain, and vomiting
484. Which of the following chest x-ray findings is LEAST
consistent with pneumococcal pneumonia?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Single, lobar consolidation
Pleural effusion
Patchy, multilobar involvement
Pneumothorax
Bulging fissure
485. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of
Klebsiella pneumonia?
(A) Most frequently occurs in alcoholics and
patients with diabetes and COPD
(B) Empyema and abscess formation are common
complications
(C) Pleuritic chest pain is a common symptom
(D) Sputum is often brown and proteinaceous
(E) Patients usually respond to outpatient
antibiotics
486. Which of the following is TRUE regarding Legionella
pneumonia?
(A) Accounts for less than 2 percent of bacterial
pneumonias
(B) Has a higher incidence in the winter
and spring
(C) Mode of transmission is through person-toperson contact
(D) Usually resolves without sequelae, even if not
treated with antimicrobials
(E) The organism is a gram-negative rod
P ULMONARY E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
164
487. Which of the following is NOT a clinical characteristic of Legionella pneumonia?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Toxic appearance
Lack of GI symptoms
Pleuritic chest pain and hemoptysis
Relative bradycardia
Mental status changes
488. Which of the following organisms is associated with
multilobar involvement, large pleural effusions, a rapidly
progressive course, and a high mortality?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Group A streptococcal pneumonia
Staphylococcal pneumonia
Haemophilus influenza pneumonia
Mycoplasma pneumonia
Pneumococcal pneumonia
489. Which of the following patient groups is LEAST likely
to require admission for pneumonia?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Pregnant patients
Immunocompromised or debilitated patients
Patients toxic in appearance
Patients unable to care for themselves at home
Patients with mild hypoxia on blood gas
analysis
490. Which of the following regarding viral pneumonia
is FALSE?
(A) Hantavirus has a high associated mortality
(B) Influenza vaccine is generally ineffective in
preventing influenza pneumonia
(C) Viral pneumonias often occur as epidemics,
but sporadic cases may be seen
(D) Complications include bacterial superinfection,
respiratory failure, and bronchiolitis obliteransorganizing pneumonia (BOOP)
(E) Supportive care is the mainstay of treatment
491. Complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia infection
include all of the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Guillain-Barré syndrome
aseptic meningitis and encephalitis
hemolytic anemia
pericarditis and myocarditis
septic arthritis
493. Treatment for atypical pneumonia includes all of the
following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
494. Which of the following is NOT a chlamydial organism that can cause pneumonia?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Acute interstitial, patchy infiltrates
Lung abscess
Large pleural effusions
Mediastinal lymphadenopathy
Cavitary lesions
C. trachomatis
C. psittaci
The TWAR agent
Mycoides
All of the above are chlamydial agents that
cause pnuemonia
495. Which of the following immunocompromised
patients are NOT at increased risk for contracting fungal
pneumonia?
(A) Patients with acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome (AIDS)
(B) Organ transplant patients
(C) Patients on chronic steroids
(D) Cancer patients
(E) Patients with sickle cell disease or splenectomy
496. Which of the following laboratory values is LEAST
consistent with Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP)
infection?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Elevated WBC count
Low CD4 count
Elevated LDH and ESR
Marked hypoxia on arterial blood gas
Increased A-a gradient on arterial blood gas
497. Which of the following BEST characterizes the typical chest x-ray findings seen in PCP infection?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
498.
492. What is the MOST common chest x-ray finding
seen in patients with Mycoplasma pneumonia?
erythromycin
azithromycin
tetracycline
penicillin and/or cephalosporins
bronchodilators, expectorants, and
cough suppressants
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Normal chest x-ray
Diffuse bilateral interstitial infiltrates
Hilar lymphadenopathy
Pneumothorax
Pleural effusions
What is the method of choice for diagnosing PCP?
Gallium scan
Cytologic sputum analysis
Fiberoptic bronchoscopy
Direct fluorescence of sputum with
monoclonal antibodies
(E) Fungal culture
165
P ULMONARY E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
499. What is the drug of choice for the endemic fungal
pneumonias (histoplasmosis, Blastomycosis, and coccidioidomycosis)?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Amikacin
Amphotericin B
Rifampin
Pentamidine
Fluoroquinolones
500. The severity of pulmonary injury from aspiration is
based on all of the following factors EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
the presence of bacterial contamination
the pH of the aspirate
the volume of the aspirate
the presence of particulate matter
the position of the patient at the time
of aspiration
501. Which of the following are complications of aspiration pneumonia?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Lung abscess
Pulmonary fibrosis
Hemoptysis
Empyema
All of the above
502. Which of the following chest x-ray findings favors
lung abscess over empyema?
(A) An air–fluid level at the site of a previous
pleural effusion
(B) A cavity with an air–fluid level that tapers at
the pleural border
(C) An air–fluid level that crosses a fissure
(D) An air–fluid level that extends to the lateral
chest wall
(E) None of the above
503. Which of the following is beneficial if pulmonary
aspiration has occurred?
(A) Irrigation of the tracheobronchial tree with
neutral or alkaline saline
(B) Steroids
(C) Prophylactic antibiotics
(D) Bronchoscopy
(E) All of the above
504. What is the drug of choice for treatment of uncomplicated lung abscess?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Clindamycin
Ceftriaxone
Gentamicin
Erythromycin
Tetracycline
505. Which of the following groups has a high prevalence of tuberculosis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Elderly and nursing home patients
Immigrants
HIV-infected patients
Alcoholics and illicit drug users
All of the above
506. Which of the following BEST describes the classic
chest x-ray findings in primary tuberculosis?
(A) Parenchymal infiltrates in any area of the lung
with unilateral lymphadenopathy
(B) Infiltrate or nodule with calcification
(C) Infiltrates of the upper lobe or superior
segment of the lower lobes
(D) Cavitary lesions
(E) Pleural effusion
507. Which of the following is an appropriate initial treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
INH
INH plus rifampin
INH, rifampin, and ethambutol
INH, rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide
INH, rifampin, ethambutol, and streptomycin
508. Risk factors for spontaneous pneumothorax include
all of the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
smoking
Marfan’s syndrome
female sex
sarcoidosis
COPD
509. Which of the following is the BEST view to request
when assessing for the presence of pneumothorax on
chest x-ray?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Supine anteroposterior
Upright posteroanterior (PA)
Inspiratory PA
Lateral decubitus with the patient lying on the
unaffected side
(E) Expiratory PA
510. What is the BEST position in which to place a patient
with massive hemoptysis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Affected side up
Affected side down
Trendelenburg
Reverse Trendelenburg
None of the above
P ULMONARY E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
166
511. Hypercapnia can result from all of the following
EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
rapid, shallow breathing
increased CO2 production
small tidal volume
underventilation of the lung
reduced respiratory drive
512. Which of the following is NOT a cause of peripheral cyanosis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Congestive heart failure
Peripheral vascular disease
Cold exposure
Intracardiac shunting
Arterial or venous obstruction
PULMONARY
EMERGENCIES
ANSWERS
461. The answer is E. (Chapter 64) The effect of pregnancy on asthma is unpredictable.
Respiratory status and asthmatic symptoms can worsen, improve, or remain unchanged.
However, maternal complications are slightly increased, and perinatal mortality nearly
doubles. Premature births are also more common in asthma patients.
462. The answer is A. (Chapter 64) Of the listed tests, PEFR is the most helpful at the
bedside in an ED. Both PEFR and FEV1 are useful in assessing the severity of an asthma
attack and the adequacy of the response to treatment. However, FEV1 is difficult to perform at the bedside in an acutely ill patient, and FVC is poorly tolerated because of the
need to forcefully exhale the entire vital capacity. Arterial blood gas measurement has
limited use, particularly with the advent of pulse oximetry and the emergence of noninvasive ETCO2 monitors. The decision to intubate an asthma patient should be based on
clinical grounds, not on blood gas results.
463. The answer is C. (Chapter 64) A pulsus paradoxus is an accentuation of the
decrease in systolic blood pressure that normally occurs during inspiration. A drop in
blood pressure of greater than 20 mm Hg (i.e., pulsus paradoxus 20 mm Hg) indicates
excessive negative intrathoracic pressure and correlates with severe asthma. In this situation, left ventricular afterload and venous return to the right heart are increased, thereby
causing a transient reduction in cardiac output and systolic blood pressure.
464. The answer is D. (Chapter 64) All of the listed factors except third-trimester pregnancy increase the likelihood that a patient will require hospitalization. Although oral
steroid therapy on ED discharge is common, it is unclear whether it results in a reduction in relapse rate and subsequent need for admission. Systemic steroid dependence at
the time of ED presentation increases the likelihood of admission and of death from
asthma. Pregnancy increases the risk of maternal complications and perinatal mortality
but is not considered a risk factor for hospital admission.
465. The answer is B. (Chapter 64) Magnesium, halothane, helium (heliox), and ketamine have been advocated for the acute management of severe asthma. They have no
role in mild to moderate cases. Salmeterol xinafoate is a 2-adrenoreceptor agonist with
a greater affinity than albuterol. It is used for maintenance therapy in a twice-a-day dosing and should not be used more frequently. Therefore, it has no role in the acute management of asthma.
466. The answer is A. (Chapter 64) -adrenergic agonists are the treatment of choice for
acute asthma. Isoproterenol is a nonselective -adrenergic agonist with a short duration
of action. The other listed agents have 2 selectivity. They are the preferred drugs
because they have less 1-specific side effects such as tachycardia.
467. The answer is C. (Chapter 64) Anticholinergic medications affect large central airways by blocking vasoconstriction induced by vagal innervation (cholinergic mediated).
167
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P ULMONARY E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
They can cause adverse reactions such as dry mouth, thirst, irritability, confusion, tachycardia, ileus, blurry vision, and increased intraocular pressure. Fortunately, the advent of
an aerosolized form (ipratropium) has minimized these systemic effects and the associated concerns about mucous plugging. Although results of studies comparing anticholinergic medications with -adrenergic agonists are conflicting, the combination of the two
agents has an additive benefit.
468. The answer is B. (Chapter 64) Lethargy, exhaustion, agitation, confusion, and the
appearance of paradoxical respiration herald respiratory arrest. A silent chest with little
wheezing on auscultation, acidosis, and a “normal” or elevated pCO2 are all worrisome
signs and may indicate imminent respiratory failure. Respiratory alkalosis and the use of
accessory muscles of respiration are consistent with a severe attack but do not necessarily indicate fatigue and impending ventilatory arrest.
469. The answer is B. (Chapter 65) All the listed items except cromolyn sodium are
appropriate treatments for COPD. Other therapies include oxygen, mobilization of secretions, adequate respiratory vaccinations, and the treatment of complications. Cromolyn
sodium is used prophylactically in asthma patients to prevent mast cell degranulation. It
has no role in the treatment of acute asthma attacks.
470. The answer is A. (Chapter 65) All the listed clinical features can manifest in COPD.
However, exertional dyspnea is considered the hallmark of the disease. COPD should be
considered in the differential diagnosis of every patient who presents with a new complaint of dyspnea on exertion.
471. The answer is D. (Chapter 65) Disease that is predominantly emphysematous is
associated with the described radiographic changes. Chest x-ray findings in COPD differ
depending on the predominant clinical features. Dominant chronic bronchitic disease is
often associated with subtle findings or a normal chest x-ray.
472. The answer is C. (Chapter 65) In mild to moderate cases of bronchitis, broad-spectrum antibiotics can be started before the availability of results of sputum culture and sensitivities. Antibiotics are indicated for mucopurulent or severe tracheobronchitis and cases
of coexisting pneumonia. Smokers with bronchitis may also benefit from antibiotics. The
trend for treatment of bronchitis in nonsmokers is toward the use of bronchodilators and
away from the use of antibiotics. With the emerging threat of antibiotic-resistant bacteria,
antibiotic treatment should be reserved for those patients in whom it would be expected to
improve clinical outcome.
473. The answer is C. (Chapter 66) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents interfere with
immunosuppressant drug levels and must be avoided in lung transplant recipients but
not in transplant candidates. Pretransplant blood transfusions can lead to antibody formation and increase the risk of acute rejection. Before transfusion, blood must be
screened for Cytomegalovirus (CMV) to avoid infecting the transplant candidate. Intubation can lead to respiratory muscle deconditioning and nosocomial infections. Noninvasive positive-pressure mask ventilation can help avoid intubation until a suitable
organ is available. Broad-spectrum multiple-drug antibiotic regimens are used to prevent the development of pan-resistant chronic infections and should not be withheld
based on the degree of fever. Glucocorticoids in large doses can worsen airway healing
after a transplant and are contraindicated.
474. The answer is E. (Chapter 66) Current time constraints preclude HLA matching
between donor and recipient before transplant. Fluids, vasopressors, and CMV-negative
blood transfusions should be administered to maintain a blood pressure that is adequate to
perfuse the potentially transplantable organs. Accepting transplant centers usually require a
negative chest radiograph.
P ULMONARY E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
169
475. The answer is A. (Chapter 66) Cyclosporine can cause hyperkalemia and gastric
dysmotility. Hyperbilirubinemia, jaundice, and cholestasis have been reported with
cyclosporine and azathioprine. However, none of the immunosuppressants used in lung
transplant recipients cause hypokalemia. Hypertension is a side effect of cyclosporine
and prednisone. Both cyclosporine and tacrolimus can cause neurotoxicity.
476. The answer is D. (Chapter 66) Initial ED tests typically include all those listed
except for an azathioprine level. Unlike cyclosporine, such a level is not typically measured. Chest x-ray and arterial blood gases are useful in assessing the patient for the most
frequent complications: rejection and infection. A CBC can rule out deleterious effects of
immnosuppressant drugs on cell counts.
477. The answer is A. (Chapter 66) Immunosuppressant drugs have multiple gastrointestinal (GI) side effects. Azathioprine (Immuran) can cause pancreatitis. Cyclosporine
and azathioprine can result in gastric atony and cholestasis. Prednisone can cause gastritis and is also implicated in peptic ulcer disease.
478. The answer is E. (Chapter 66) Acute rejection is common in lung transplant
patients. It should be suspected when the temperature rises 0.5°C over baseline and when
FEV1 decreases by 10 percent or more from baseline over 48 h. Bilateral interstitial infiltrates and a normal chest x-ray are possible (a “radiologically silent” rejection). Cough,
chest tightness, and fatigue are frequent presenting symptoms.
479. The answer is B. (Chapter 66) Antiinflammatory nonsteroidal drugs should be
avoided in lung transplant patients because they react synergistically with cyclosporine
and can exacerbate renal insufficiency. They do not, however, affect cyclosporine blood
levels. Cyclosporine levels are dependent on the method used by the laboratory and the
length of time since the transplant was performed. Toxic levels can result from drugs that
inhibit hepatic P450 enzymes such as macrolides, calcium channel blockers, ketoconazole, and cimetidine. Drugs that induce hepatic enzymes such as phenytoin, barbiturates,
and rifampin could precipitate rejection.
480. The answer is E. (Chapter 67) The sensitivity of spiral. CT
. for pulmonary embolism
has been reported at 86 to 91 percent. It exceeds that. of
V
/Q
scans and TEE. Its speci.
ficity is .nearly
as
good
as
that
of
a
high-probability
V
/Q
scan.
High- and medium-prob.
ability V/Q scans have a higher specificity than low-probability scans. Their sensitivity
however, is significantly lower than that of dynamic CT.
. .
481. The answer is A. (Chapter 67) Results of V/Q scanning must be used in conjunction
with pretest probability (clinical suspicion) to assess the likelihood of pulmonary
embolism. A mismatched defect between ventilation and perfusion scans is most consistent with a pulmonary embolism, and the scan would be read as moderate or high probability. Bilateral mismatched defects between ventilation and perfusion scans suggest a
high probability of recurrent pulmonary emboli. Many pulmonary diseases can cause
ventilation and. .perfusion abnormalities. These include COPD, pneumonia, and chronic
fibrosis. The V/Q scan is “low probability” when matched, but no unmatched, defects are
present..There
is only about a 4 percent incidence of pulmonary embolism if a low-prob.
ability V/Q scan is coupled with a low clinical suspicion.
482. The answer is C. (Chapter 67) The specificity of dynamic
CT for PE is high (78–95
. .
. .
percent) and comparable to that of a high-probability V/Q scan (88 percent). Because V/Q
scans are read as “high probability” less than 20 percent
. . of the time, the overall specificity of dynamic CT for PE is higher than that for V/Q . The sensitivity of dynamic CT
for PE is greater than or equal to 90 percent and is most reliable for emboli that extend
to
. .the segmental divisions of the pulmonary vessels. Spiral CT has an advantage over
V/Q scan in that it can also detect pneumonia, aortic dissection, tumors, and effusions.
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P ULMONARY E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
However, a negative spiral CT does not rule out PE. Magnetic resonance imaging can
detect pulmonary emboli with a sensitivity of about 70 percent and a specificity similar
to that of spiral CT.
483. The answer is B. (Chapter 59) Pneumococcal pneumonia is the most common community-acquired pneumonia, with peak incidence in the winter and spring. It is characterized by acute onset, with associated symptoms that include fever, tachycardia,
tachypnea, pleuritic chest pain, malaise, back or flank pain, and vomiting. Cough is a
common symptom and usually productive of rusty, thick sputum. A single rigor lasting
minutes is common, but recurrent rigors suggest another diagnosis.
484. The answer is D. (Chapter 59) Pneumococcal pneumonia typically presents with single lobe involvement, most often the right middle, right lower, and the left lower lobes.
Occasionally, patchy involvement can occur, particularly in the elderly and in infants.
Pleural effusions occur in about 10 percent of cases, and the effusion is generally small.
As in Klebsiella pneumonia, a bulging fissure can be seen. A pneumothorax is uncommon
and suggests another diagnosis, such as Staphylococcus aureus or Pneumocystis carinii
pneumonia. However, chest x-ray findings must be considered in the context of clinical
presentation. Blood cultures are now thought to be more useful in identifying the
causative organism of pneumonia than either chest x-ray or sputum Gram stain.
485. The answer is E. (Chapter 59) Klebsiella pneumonia is most commonly found in
alcoholics and patients with diabetes and COPD. It is usually a lobar (right upper lobe),
necrotizing pneumonia, often with empyema and abscess formation. Patients are generally
toxic on presentation, with rigors, shortness of breath, cyanosis, and pleuritic chest pain.
Sputum is often thick and currant-jelly like and can result in airway compromise. Admission is recommended for treatment with intravenous aminoglycosides and cephalosporins.
486. The answer is E. (Chapter 59) Legionella is a gram-negative rod accounting for up
to 6 percent of all bacterial pneumonias. It occurs sporadically, with peak incidence in
the summer and fall. Transmission is usually airborne through heat-exchange units, air
conditioners, respiratory therapy devices, whirlpools, and cooling devices. Individuals at
risk are males with a history of alcoholism, diabetics, patients with COPD, smokers,
postsurgical patients, immunocompromised hosts, and people who work near construction or excavation sites. Mortality approaches 75 percent without early treatment.
487. The answer is B. (Chapter 59) Patients with Legionella pneumonia appear toxic.
Fever, chills, malaise, and headache are common clinical features. More than half of
patients exhibit GI symptoms, including nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Pleuritic chest
pain is common, and a relative bradycardia may also be seen. Patients often present with
mental status changes ranging from confusion to coma.
488. The answer is A. (Chapter 59) Group A streptococcal pneumonia is rapidly progressive and has a high mortality rate. Clinically, patients appear toxic with sudden
onset of fevers and chills, a productive cough, and pleuritic chest pain. Pulmonary
examination ranges from fine crackles to focal consolidation. Chest x-ray often shows
multilobar involvement, with large pleural effusions. Sputum is usually bloody and
purulent. Treatment includes intravenous fluids and antibiotics. Penicillin is the antimicrobial treatment of choice. A high index of suspicion must be maintained to diagnose
this rare cause of pneumonitis.
489. The answer is E. (Chapter 59) Patients requiring admission include those at the
extremes of age, immunocompromised or debilitated patients, and those who are unable
to care for themselves. Anyone toxic on presentation, with a significantly elevated respiratory rate, moderate to severe hypoxemia (pO2 60–70 mm Hg), or evidence of cardiovascular instability should also be admitted. Pneumonia and pregnancy carries an
P ULMONARY E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
171
increased risk of mortality to both the mother and the fetus, especially if the woman is
infected with varicella pnuemonia.
490. The answer is B. (Chapter 59) Viral pneumonia is common and clinically manifests
as anything from self-limited disease to a life-threatening condition. Epidemics are common, but sporadic cases may occur. Complications include superinfection with bacteria,
respiratory failure, and BOOP. Hantavirus, which is primarily seen in the southwestern
United States, can be associated with hemorrhagic fever and confers a mortality of up to
70 percent. Management of viral pneumonia consists of supportive care, with bed rest,
fluids, analgesics, and expectorants. The influenza vaccine is usually effective against
influenza A and B viruses. It is recommended for patients with cystic fibrosis, COPD,
the elderly, and health-care workers.
491. The answer is E. (Chapter 59) Most patients with mycoplasma pneumonia have a
self-limited course. However, pulmonary complications include hypoxemia, respiratory
distress syndrome, pneumothorax, pleural effusion, and lung abscess. Extrapulmonary
manifestations include aseptic meningitis and encephalitis, Guillain-Barré syndrome,
hemolytic anemia complicated by renal failure, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Cardiac manifestations include pericarditis and myocarditis, congestive heart failure,
and dysrhythmias. Septic arthritis is not a common complication of mycoplasma infection.
492. The answer is A. (Chapter 59) Mycoplasma pneumonia is characterized by patchy
densities to dense consolidation involving an entire lobe of the lung. An acute interstitial
pattern (similar in appearance to adult respiratory distress syndrome) can also be seen
and lead to significant functional impairment. Cavitary lesions, lung abscesses, large
pleural effusions, mediastinal lymphadenopathy, and atelectasis are also seen but less
commonly. Their presence suggests bacterial infection or another diagnosis.
493. The answer is D. (Chapter 59) Erythromycin is the drug of choice for atypical pneumonias, including Mycoplasma and chlamydial infection. Newer-generation macrolides,
doxycycline, and tetracycline are also effective. Because these organisms lack a cell
wall, penicillin and cephalosporins are ineffective. Treatment with bronchodilators,
expectorants, and cough suppressants provides symptomatic relief.
494. The answer is D. (Chapter 59) The three groups of chlamydial organisms that cause
pneumonia are C. trachomatis, C. psittaci, and the TWAR agent. Infected patients experience a prodrome of upper respiratory infection, followed by chest pain and cough with
mucoid sputum production. Pulmonary examination can range from fine crackles to focal
consolidation. Treatment consists of either a macrolide or tetracycline. Mycoides is not a
chlamydial organism.
495. The answer is E. (Chapter 59) Patients with T-cell defects (lymphoma, AIDS,
steroid-dependent patients, cancer and chemotherapy patients, and organ transplant
patients on immunosuppressive drugs) and granulocyte defects (neutropenia, leukemia,
steroid dependence, and cancer patients undergoing chemotherapy) are prone to bacterial and fungal infections. Patients with sickle cell anemia or status post splenectomy are
also prone to bacterial illness (particularly with encapsulated organisms) but not to fungal pneumonias.
496. The answer is A. (Chapter 59) Although leukopenia, anemia, or thrombocytopenia
secondary to drug therapy may be present, the total WBC count is typically normal in
patients with PCP. CD4 counts are almost invariably reduced; most PCP infections occur
in patients with CD4 counts less than 200. Elevated LDH and ESR are common but are
relatively nonspecific findings. Severe hypoxemia is a frequent complication. A pO2 of
less than 70 portends a worse prognosis. The A-a gradient is also increased, and this
increase can be accentuated through mild exercise.
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P ULMONARY E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
497. The answer is B. (Chapter 59) The chest radiograph is abnormal in up to 90 percent
of patients with significant PCP infection. The classic chest x-ray pattern is diffuse bilateral interstitial infiltrates in the “bat wing” distribution. PCP can also present as asymmetrical infiltrates, with a cavitary or cystic appearance. Unilateral or bilateral
pneumothoraces, bronchopleural fistulas, hilar lymphadenopathy, and pleural effusions
can also be seen but are less common. A normal chest x-ray, as seen in 10 to 20 percent
of cases, does not rule out PCP.
498. The answer is C. (Chapter 139) Fiberoptic bronchoscopy is the method of choice for
diagnosing PCP. The combination of transbronchial biopsy, bronchial washings, and
bronchoalveolar lavage has a diagnostic yield of nearly 100 percent. Gallium scans have
a sensitivity of 90 to 98 percent but a low specificity. Cytologic sputum yields are inconsistent, with a negative predictive value of only about 50 percent. Direct flourescent antibodies have a sensitivity of nearly 90 percent.
499. The answer is B. (Chapter 66) Amphotericin B is the drug of choice for the endemic
fungal pneumonias. Ketoconazole is also effective. Amikacin is used for the treatment of
Mycobacterium avium complex, rifampin for tuberculosis, and pentamidine for PCP
pneumonia. Fluoroquinolones are not effective in this setting.
500. The answer is E. (Chapter 60) Clinical outcome after pulmonary aspiration depends
on the pH and volume of the aspirate. A pH of less than 2.5 and a large volume cause
more severe injury. The presence of particulate matter can result in persistent inflammatory changes and hemorrhagic pneumonitis and form a chronic granulomatous reaction.
Bacterial contamination is another complicating factor, particularly if Pseudomonas,
Proteus, Escherichia coli, or anaerobes are involved. The position of the patient at the
time of aspiration does not affect the severity of injury.
501. The answer is E. (Chapter 60) Acutely, respiratory failure is the most serious complication of aspiration pneumonia. Chronic sequelae include lung abscess, pulmonary
fibrosis, and empyema. Mortality is high, ranging from 40 to 70 percent when the aspirate pH is low. Grossly contaminated aspirate, as seen with aspiration in the setting of
bowel obstruction, carries a mortality approaching 100 percent.
502. The answer is E. (Chapter 60) All of the listed findings favor empyema over lung
abscess. The chest x-ray of a patient with lung abscess demonstrates a cavity, usually
with an air–fluid level. The most common sites for aspiration-induced abscesses are the
posterior segment of the right upper lobe and the superior segments of the right and left
lower lobes. Lung abscess secondary to parenchymal disease, carcinoma, opportunistic
infection, or septicemia can occur anywhere in the lung.
503. The answer is D. (Chapter 60) Bronchoscopy is indicated for removing large particles
and clearing the airway after aspiration. The tracheobronchial tree should not be irrigated
because this can push the aspirate deeper into the lungs and result in increased mortality.
Steroids and prophylactic antibiotics have no value and should not be administered.
504. The answer is A. (Chapter 60) The drug of choice for an uncomplicated lung
abscess is clindamycin, 600 mg IVPB, every 6 h until the patient has been afebrile for 5
days. Patients should be continued on oral clindamycin for 6 to 8 weeks thereafter. Penicillin, metronidazole, and cefoxitin are reasonable alternatives. Bronchoscopy evaluates
for tumor or foreign body and is useful to obtain material for culture.
505. The answer is E. (Chapter 61) All of the listed patient groups have a high prevalence
of tuberculosis. Other high-risk groups include residents and staff of homeless shelters
and prisons. Tuberculosis is the leading cause of death from a single infectious agent.
Rates of infection are increasing, mostly from multi–drug-resistant strains.
P ULMONARY E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
173
506. The answer is A. (Chapter 61) The chest x-ray for patients with primary tuberculosis classically shows parenchymal infiltrates with unilateral lymphadenopathy. Calcification, when present, is a late finding. Reactivation tuberculosis infections usually involve
the upper lobes or the superior segment of the lower lobes. Other findings can include a
miliary pattern, pleural effusion (usually unilateral), atelectasis, and pulmonary fibrosis.
Because tuberculosis can present as any abnormality on chest x-ray, comparison should
be made with previous films, if available.
507. The answer is D. (Chapter 61) With the increased incidence of multi–drug-resistant
tuberculosis, the CDC currently recommends four-drug therapy until susceptibility tests
are available. Beginning therapy should include isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide and
either ethambutol or streptomycin for 2 months. Patients should be treated for at least 6
months (9 months if HIV infection coexists).
508. The answer is C. (Chapter 62) Patients who are smokers, male, between the ages of
20 and 40 years, and have a higher height-to-weight ratio are at increased risk for developing spontaneous pneumothoraces. In addition, Valsalva maneuvers (such as can occur
with smoking marijuana or cocaine), underlying pulmonary disease (such as COPD and
sarcoidosis), and Marfan’s and Ehler-Danlos syndromes are risk factors.
509. The answer is E. (Chapter 62) The size of the hemithorax decreases with expiration,
which makes a pneumothorax more likely to be visible on an expiratory film or a lateral
decubitus film with the patient lying on the affected side. Comparing inspiratory and expiratory views can help to distinguish a pneumothorax from skin folds and other artifacts.
510. The answer is B. (Chapter 63) The optimal positioning for patients with massive
hemoptysis is with the bleeding lung down. This minimizes contamination of blood from
the affected to the unaffected lung and helps prevent compromise of oxygenation and
ventilation. Tracheal intubation is indicated if there is respiratory failure or the patient is
unable to clear blood from the airway.
511. The answer is B. (Chapter 58) Hypercapnia results from alveolar hypoventilation
and is arbitrarily defined as a pCO2 of greater than 45 mm Hg. It can result from a variety of causes, including rapid shallow breathing, underventilation, small tidal volumes,
and a blunted respiratory drive. An increase in the anatomical dead space can also lead
to a decrease in alveolar ventilation. With severe hypercapnia, seizures, coma, and cardiovascular collapse can occur. In contrast to acute hypercapnia, chronic hypercapnia can
be well tolerated, even with a pCO2 greater than 80 mm Hg.
512. The answer is D. (Chapter 58) Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, results
from an increased amount of reduced hemoglobin, usually 5 g in 100 mL capillary
blood. Central cyanosis can be seen in conditions that are characterized by unsaturated
arterial blood or abnormal hemoglobin. Peripheral cyanosis is secondary to the slowing
of blood to an area or an abnormally great extraction of oxygen from normally saturated
arterial blood. All of the listed conditions except intracardiac shunting may lead to
peripheral cyanosis.
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RENAL AND UROLOGIC
EMERGENCIES
QUESTIONS
DIRECTIONS:
Each question below contains five suggested responses. Choose the one best response to each question.
513. A 60-year-old male with history of benign prostatic
hypertrophy presents complaining of nausea and vomiting. Laboratory values include serum Na of 145 mmol/L,
blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL, creatinine of
2.0 mg/dL, urine Na of 10, and urine creatinine of 80.
Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Prerenal failure
Acute tubular necrosis (ATN)
Glomerulonephritis
Postrenal failure
Pyelonephritis
514. All of the following can cause acute renal failure
(ARF) EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
rhabdomyolysis
nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)
ethylene glycol
penicillin
iron
515. Which of the following patients with pyelonephritis
can be safely treated as an outpatient?
(A) A 75-year-old diabetic female
(B) A 20-year-old 20-week pregnant female with
mild abdominal cramping
(C) A 30-year-old female with persistent vomiting
and fever
(D) A 33-year-old male with renal calculi
(E) None of the above can be safely treated
as outpatients
516. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate treatment for priapism?
(A) Terbutaline 0.25 mg administered
subcutaneously in the deltoid
(B) Aspiration of corporeal blood
(C) Ice-water enema
(D) Neo-Synephrine instillation into the
corpora cavernosa
(E) Exchange transfusion
517. A 19-year-old male complains of acute onset of scrotal pain. Which of the following procedures is LEAST
indicated?
(A) Treat with cefixime and azithromycin and
discharge home
(B) Radionulide scan of the testes
(C) Attempt manual detorsion
(D) Urinalysis
(E) Doppler ultrasound
518. Renal transplant patients should receive all of the
following measures to prevent infection EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine
nystatin
pneumococcal vaccine
hepatitis B vaccine
prophylaxis for dental procedures
519. A chronic renal dialysis patient is brought to the ED
in cardiac arrest. The MOST likely cause is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
pericardial effusion
hyperkalemia
hypocalcemia
malignant hypertension
postdialysis hypotension
175
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R ENAL
176
520. Patients with renal stones should be admitted in all
of the following cases EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
associated urinary tract infection
single kidney with obstruction
uncontrolled pain
stone 6 mm
all of the above
521. A 22-year-old previously healthy male complains of
dysuria. Genital examination is normal. Urinalysis shows
5 to 10 white blood cells per high power field. Which of
the following antibiotic regimens is MOST appropriate?
(A) Ciprofloxacin, 500 mg orally twice a day
for 2 weeks
(B) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, two tablets
orally twice a day for 3 days
(C) Azithromycin, 1 g orally once, and ofloxacin,
400 mg orally once
(D) Cephfalexin, 500 mg orally for 7 days
(E) Ciprofloxacin, 500 mg orally once
522. Which of the following is NOT a common cause of
hematuria?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Urinary tract infection (UTI)
Rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis
Renal stone
Cancer
HIV nephropathy
523. Which of the following structures needs to be
repaired in a fractured penis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Tunica albuginea
Corpus spongiosum
Corpora cavernosum
Buck’s fascia
Urethra
524. All of the following substances cause urinary retention EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
methamphetamines
ephedrine
cogentin
-blockers
tricyclic antidepressants
525. All of the following are causes of postrenal failure
EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
bladder tumor
phimosis
neurogenic bladder
urethral prolapse
retroperitoneal fibrosis
AND
U ROLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
526. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate
treatment for a patient with chronic renal failure and a
clotted hemodialysis shunt?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Irrigate with heparinized saline
Angiogram to delineate the lesion
Consult a vascular surgeon
Give systemic urokinase 100,000 U
Initiate broad spectrum antibiotics
527. What percentage of urological stones are radiopaque?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
15
30
50
75
90
528. What is the MOST common causative organism for
uncomplicated UTI?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Chlamydia trachomatis
Klebsiella
Proteus species
Escherichia coli
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
529. All of the following are risk factors for UTI EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
sexual intercourse
uterine prolapse
use of diaphragm and spermacide
irregular menses
lack of estrogen in postmenopausal women
530. Which of the following statements regarding infection in patients with continuous ambulatory peritoneal
dialysis (CAPD) is TRUE?
(A) Gram-negative bacteria are responsible for
most cases of CAPD peritonitis
(B) Confirmed peritonitis in a CAPD patient
requires admission for parenteral antibiotics
(C) Cell count in cases of peritonitis is at least
250 leukocytes
(D) Infection is the most frequent complication
of CAPD
(E) The peritoneal catheter should be changed at
the first sign of peritonitis
RENAL AND UROLOGIC
EMERGENCIES
ANSWERS
513. The answer is A. (Chapter 88) Fractional excretion of sodium [FENa(%)] is used in
determining the cause of renal failure. FENa(%) (urine sodium/serum sodium)/(urine
creatinine/serum creatinine) 100. The following table illustrates the laboratory findings
in the different types of renal failure. Pyelonephritis should not cause renal failure.
Prerenal
FENa(%)
Urine Na
Serum BUN:Cr
Urine:serum Cr ratio
1
20
20:1
40:1
Intrinsic renal
2
40
10:1
20:1
Postrenal
2
40
10:1
20:1
514. The answer is E. (Chapter 88) Myoglobinuria from rhabdomyolysis can cause acute
tubular necrosis. NSAIDs cause preferential reduction in renal blood flow, leading to
renal failure from hypoperfusion. Ethylene glycol can cause intraparenchymal obstruction in the kidneys, leading to ARF. Penicillin is a cause of allergic interstitial nephritis.
Iron does not usually have renal toxicity.
515. The answer is E. (Chapter 90) Young, otherwise healthy, women with uncomplicated acute pyelonephritis may be treated as outpatients. Patients with comorbid diseases, immunosupression, most pregnant women, and patients with unremitting fever or
inability to tolerate oral fluids or medications should be admitted. Other risk factors for
worse prognosis include old age, diabetes, renal calculi, urinary obstruction, recent hospitalization or instrumentation, and sickle cell anemia. These groups of patients should
also be treated as inpatients with parenteral antibiotics.
516. The answer is C. (Chapter 91) Priapism is a painful, pathologic erection secondary
to engorgement of the corpora cavernosa but not the glans or corpus spongiosum. There
are multiple etiologies for priapism including sickle cell anemia, medications, spinal cord
injury, leukemic infiltration, and idiopathic. Neither sedation nor ice-water enema is
effective in reducing the erection. Shunt surgery is necessary in some cases.
517. The answer is A. (Chapter 91) Testicular torsion is a urologic emergency. It can be
difficult to distinguish clinically from torsion of the appendix testis or epididymitis. Urologic consultation for operative exploration should be obtained immediately when testicular torsion is suspected. Radionuclide scans and Doppler ultrasound studies can help
confirm the diagnosis, but these are time consuming in a condition for which even a
short delay could mean loss of the testicle. Manual detorsion can be attempted in the ED
while awaiting surgical consultation.
518. The answer is A. (Chapter 96) Renal transplant patients are treated with immunosuppressive agents to prevent graft rejection. Important measures to prevent infection in
these patients include pneumococcal vaccine, hepatitis B vaccine, trimethoprim-sulfa
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U ROLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
prophylaxis for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, and nystatin to prevent oral candida.
MMR vaccine is an attenuated live vaccine and is potentially virulent in immunosuppressed patients. Cytomegalovirus is the most common infectious agent in transplant
patients and may be suppressed with gancylcovir.
519. The answer is B. (Chapter 89) Although all of these choices can lead to cardiac
arrest in chronic dialysis patients, hyperkalemia is the most common cause. Treatment
should start with intravenous calcium gluconate and then continue with dextrose and
insulin and with sodium bicarbonate. Other electrolyte disturbances seen in uremic
patients include hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, and hypermagnesemia.
520. The answer is E. (Chapter 92) Renal colic patients with any of these features should
be hospitalized for management and urologic consultation. Patients with renal insufficiency, severe underlying disease, or evidence of complete obstruction should be considered for admission and discussed with a urologist. Uncomplicated patients whose pain
can be controlled with oral medications may be discharged home with a urine strainer
and close follow-up with a urologist.
521. The answer is C. (Chapter 90) Men younger than 35 to 40 years with urinary tract
signs and symptoms should be evaluated and treated presumptively for sexually transmitted urethritis. Cultures for Chlamydia and gonorrhea should be sent and empiric treatment for both administered. Appropriate treatment includes coverage of Chlamydia with
doxycycline, 100 mg orally for 1 week, or a single dose of 1 g azithromycin. Gonorrhea
can be treated with a single dose of ceftriaxone 250 mg intramuscularly, a single dose of
cefixime 400 mg orally, ofloxacin 400 mg orally, or ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally. Ciprofloxacin, 500 mg twice a day for 2 weeks, is appropriate treatment for pyelonephritis,
and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole will treat uncomplicated urinary tract infection in
young women. The patient should be advised to have his sexual partners checked and to
use condoms.
522. The answer is E. (Chapter 93) HIV nephropathy causes protein wasting in the urine.
All the other choices are included in the broad differential diagnosis for hematuria.
Trauma, instrumentation, bladder stones, and sickle cell anemia may also result in hematuria. The patient’s age, history, and urinalysis results help to determine etiology. For
example, bacteria and white blood cells are seen with infection. Red cell casts are found
in rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (usually associated with acute renal failure).
Cancer is more likely in older smokers presenting with painless hematuria.
523. The answer is A. (Chapter 91) Tear of the penile tunica albuginea, the thick fascial
layer around the corpora cavernosa, can occur during sexual intercourse or other sexual
activity. The urethra is rarely injured, but a retrograde urethrogram may be necessary for
full evaluation. The tunica albuginea should be surgically repaired. Buck’s fascia is a
thin layer of fascia encasing both the corpora cavernosa and the corpus spongiosum.
524. The answer is D. (Chapter 91) Urinary retention is frequently caused or exacerbated
by pharmaceutical agents. Some of the most commonly implicated medications include
antihistamines, anticholinergics, and antispasmodic agents. Sympathomimetics may
cause urinary retention through their -adrenergic stimulation. -blockers can cause
erectile dysfunction but do not contribute to urinary retention.
525. The answer is D. (Chapter 88) Postrenal failure can be caused by obstruction anywhere along the urinary tract, from the kidney and the ureters (usually bilateral involvement) to the bladder and the urethra. Bladder neck obstruction may result from
neurogenic bladder or medications. Prostatic hypertrophy and functional bladder neck
obstruction are the most common causes of postrenal failure. Urethral prolapse should
not cause urinary obstruction.
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179
526. The answer is C. (Chapter 89) Clotting and infection are the most frequent complications of vascular access shunts. A vascular surgeon should be consulted for thrombectomy in the case of a clotted shunt. Success on shunt reopening depends on the length of
time it has been clotted. Rarely, some clotted shunts may be treated with local instillation of urokinase, into the arterial and venous sides. Manipulation or irrigation of anything into the shunt may lead to embolization of the clot.
527. The answer is E. (Chapter 92) Most renal stones are visualized on plain x-rays or
noncontrast CT scan. The majority (75 percent) of renal calculi contain calcium with
either oxalate or phosphate. Struvite or magnesium–ammonium–phosphate stones
account for another 10 percent and are associated with urea-splitting bacteria and
staghorn calculi. Another 10 percent of stones are composed of uric acid; the remainder
are caused by cystine and other uncommon minerals.
528. The answer is D. (Chapter 90) All of these organisms may cause uncomplicated
UTIs. However, E. coli is by far the most common bacterium. Anaerobic bacteria do not
grow in urine. Unusual organisms, such as yeast or enterococcus, are often found in
complicated UTI, especially in patients with underlying renal disease, recent hospitalization, or instrumentation of the urinary tract.
529. The answer is D. (Chapter 90) Sexual intercourse increases the concentration of bacteria in the bladder. Women susceptible to UTI should be advised to urinate after intercourse. Some spermicides enhance vaginal colonization with E. coli. Uterine and bladder
prolapse and neurogenic bladder cause incomplete bladder emptying and thus reduce the
ability of the bladder to clear bacteria. Some patients who are nonsecretors of blood
group antigens may have a genetic susceptibility to UTI. There is no relation between
irregular menses and UTI.
530. The answer is D. (Chapter 89) Infection is the most common complication of CAPD,
and the majority of cases of peritonitis are caused by Staphylococcus species. Peritonitis
is usually defined as more than 100 leukocytes with more than 50 percent neutrophils.
Therapy consists of infusion of antibiotics with the dialysate into the peritoneal cavity.
Parenteral antibiotics are only indicated if the patient is bacteremic. The peritoneal
catheter needs to be changed when there have been multiple episodes of peritonitis or
evidence of tunnel infection or intraabdominal abscess.
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TOXICOLOGIC
EMERGENCIES
QUESTIONS
DIRECTIONS:
Each question below contains five suggested responses. Choose the one best response to each question.
531. All of the following statements concerning decontamination of the poisoned patient are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) ipecac syrup continues to be a front-line tool
in home management of poisoning
(B) gastric lavage is of limited utility except in
selected overdoses when the airway has been
adequately protected
(C) current superactivated charcoal has 1.5 times
the absorptive area of older preparations
(D) cathartics may cause electrolyte derangements
and dehydration
(E) whole bowel irrigation is a highly effective
method for dealing with body “packers” or
“stuffers” and overdoses with enteric-coated or
sustained release medications
532. Which of the following toxin–antidote pairs is correct?
(A) Arsenic and British antilewisite (BAL)
(B) Lead and calcium disodium edetate or
dimercaptosuccinic acid
(C) Mercury and BAL
(D) Nitrites and methylene blue
(E) All of the above
533. Which of the following is TRUE regarding tricyclic
antidepressants (TCA)?
(A) TCA overdoses are the leading cause of death
in intentional ingestions, with a mortality rate
of 10 to 15 percent
(B) All TCAs share a general structure composed
of six aromatic rings
(C) TCAs have no activity against central nervous
system histamine receptors
(D) TCAs are competitive antagonists of
acetylcholine at peripheral and central
nicotinic receptors
(E) None of the above
534. Which of the following TCAs is capable of causing
status epilepticus without QRS widening?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Nortriptyline
Amoxapine
Maprotiline
Desipramine
Amitriptyline
535. A 22-year-old female presents to the ED comatose
after a seizure, with a blood pressure of 80/40 and a pulse
of 148. QRS duration is 280 ms. She has been depressed
and began taking nortriptyline 2 weeks ago. What is the
MOST appropriate initial therapeutic intervention?
(A) Intravenous access and sodium bicarbonate at a
dose of 1 to 2 mEq/kg
(B) Intravenous access, gastric lavage, and
diazepam to control seizures
(C) Airway control, intravenous access, and activated charcoal per nasogastric tube
(D) Airway control and mechanical ventilation,
intravenous access, and sodium bicarbonate at
a dose of 1 to 2 mEq/kg
(E) Physostigmine, 0.5 to 2.0 mg intravenously,
diluted in 10 mL saline and given over 5 min
536. If sodium bicarbonate therapy is ineffective, which
of the following antidysrhythmics may be used to treat
ventricular dysrhythmias associated with TCA overdose?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
-blockers
Calcium channel blockers
Phenytoin
Lidocaine
Class IA or IC antidysrhythmics
181
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T OXICOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
182
537. Which of the following statements about fluoxetine
(Prozac) is FALSE?
540. Which of the following statements regarding adverse
effects of neuroleptic medications is INCORRECT?
(A) It is the most frequently prescribed antidepressant in the United States
(B) It is the most potent of the selective serotonin
reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
(C) Seizures occur in approximately 0.2 percent of
patients taking fluoxetine
(D) Fluoxetine is the most potent inhibitor of
P-450 hepatic drug metabolism and may
elevate TCA levels 2- to 10-fold
(E) The most common symptoms seen in
fluoxetine overdose are sinus tachycardia,
drowsiness, tremor, and nausea/vomiting
(A) Lower potency drugs such as chlorpromazine
have greater anticholinergic, antiadrenergic,
and antihistaminic side effects, whereas the
higher potency agents such as haloperidol have
mainly antidopaminergic side effects
(B) Dopamine antagonism accounts for adverse
reactions, resulting in movement disorders
(C) Dystonic reactions are idiosyncratic, present
early, and are seen more frequently in females
(D) Akathisia and drug-induced parkinsonism are
seen early and may be treated with benztropine
or amantadine
(E) Tardive dyskinesia is a late adverse effect and
has no proven treatment
538. All of the following statements concerning serotonin syndrome are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) it is characterized by alterations in cognitivebehavioral ability, autonomic nervous function,
and neuromuscular activity
(B) it is usually seen when monoamine oxidase
inhibitors or selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitors are combined with other
serotonergic drugs
(C) morphine and fentanyl are contraindicated for
treatment
(D) neuromuscular symptoms are greatest in the
lower extremities
(E) mandatory treatment includes discontinuation
of all serotonergic medications
539. Which of the following drugs can be safely used in
patients taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Codeine
Dextromethorphan
Ketamine
Meperidine
Morphine
541. After initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and
circulation in a patient with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which of the following is the BEST initial drug
therapy?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Bromocriptine
Dantrolene
Molindone
Diazepam
Pancuronium
542. Which of the following statements regarding overdose of antipsychotic medications is FALSE?
(A) Seizures and dysfunction of temperature regulation may be significant findings
(B) Hypotension is due to 1-adrenergic blockade
and direct myocardial depression
(C) Tachycardia is due to anticholinergic effects,
and to a reflex response to vasodilation
(D) Conduction abnormalities due to a quinidinelike action and ventricular dysrhythmias
including torsades de pointes have been
reported
(E) Class IA antidysrhythmics are indicated to
treat neuroleptic-induced dysrhythmias
543. Which of the following factors increases the risk of
lithium toxicity at standard doses?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Diabetes mellitus
Renal failure
Advanced age
Concurrent use of nonsteroidal
antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
(E) All of the above
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T OXICOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
544. Which of the following statements regarding barbiturates is FALSE?
(A) Barbituric acid has no central nervous
system activity
(B) In a pure barbiturate overdose, the patient’s
pupils will be small
(C) Barbiturates may be used to treat seizures,
induce anesthesia, or manage elevated
intracranial pressure
(D) A severe overdose may result in a flatline EEG
(E) Charcoal administration and alkalinization of
the urine are beneficial treatments for
barbiturate overdose
545. Flumazenil is a selective antagonist of benzodiazepines. Which of the following is TRUE regarding its
use in a patient with an altered level of consciousness?
(A) Flumazenil can be safely used if there is a reliable history of pure benzodiazepine overdose
(B) Benzodiazepine overdoses are usually isolated
overdoses and flumazenil can be freely used
with diagnostic and therapeutic benefit
(C) Administration of a trial of flumazenil has very
low risk of adverse effect
(D) Few patients who overdose on benzodiazepines
are physically dependent on these drugs
(E) In the ED, flumazenil is most useful for
reversing effects of benzodiazepines given for
diagnostic and therapeutic procedures
546. After an overdose, which of the following findings
does NOT match with the listed sedative-hypnotic agent?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Ethchlorvynol–prolonged coma
Meprobamate–gastrointestinal concretions
Methaqualone–hyperacusis and hypertonicity
Chloral hydrate–vinyl-like odor on the breath
Glutethimide–anticholinergic symptoms
547. Which of the following statements regarding alcohol
toxicity is TRUE?
(A) Cocaethylene has 40 times higher affinity for
cocaine receptors than cocaine
(B) Methanol causes a severe anion gap acidosis
and is directly toxic to the optic nerve
(C) Isopropanol is strongly associated with hemorrhagic gastritis and produces a profound anion
gap acidosis
(D) Ethylene glycol is commonly found in
antifreeze and causes a severe nonanion
gap acidosis
(E) Isopropanol is less intoxicating than ethanol
548. Which of the following drugs is the MOST efficacious for the treatment of opiate withdrawal in an intravenous drug user?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Methadone
Compazine
Clonidine
Ativan
Naloxone
549. Which of the following statements regarding cocaine
is TRUE?
(A) Cocaine is both a local anesthetic and a central
nervous system stimulant
(B) Cocaine has a quinidine-like effect on
myocardial conduction causing QRS widening
and QT prolongation
(C) Cocaine inhibits presynaptic reuptake of
norepinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin
(D) Overdose on cocaine predisposes to
dysrhythmias, seizures, hyperthermia, and
rhabdomyolysis
(E) All of the above
550. Which of the following is NOT associated with toxic
doses of amphetamines?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Cerebral vasculitis and choreoathetosis
Cardiomyopathy and polyarteritis nodosa
Urinary incontinence and dysuria
Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
Elevated thyroxine level and leukocytosis
551. Which of the following statements regarding hallucinogens is TRUE?
(A) Phencyclidine (PCP) is strongly associated
with synesthesias
(B) Flashbacks are common with PCP use
(C) Patients who have ingested lysergic acid
diethylamide (LSD) are prone to anxietyinduced paranoia and auditory hallucinations
(D) Complications are common with nutmeg,
marijuana, mescaline, and peyote
(E) Hallucinogenic amphetamines are associated
with vasculitis
T OXICOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
184
552. Which of the following statements about acetaminophen poisoning is FALSE?
557. Which of the following is FALSE regarding toxic
iron ingestions?
(A) Hepatotoxicity has traditionally been defined
as an ALT or AST level 500 IU/L
(B) The Rumack-Matthew nomogram predicts the
risk of hepatotoxicity after a single overdose of
acetaminophen based on blood levels obtained
4 to 24 h after ingestion
(C) The risk of death in an untreated patient whose
blood level is in the “probable toxicity” zone
of the nomogram is 5 to 24 percent
(D) The toxic metabolite of acetaminophen is
N-acetyl-para-benzo-quinoneimine (NAPQI)
(E) There are four stages of acetaminophen
toxicity
(A) Iron poisoning can be divided into four stages
based on clinical signs and symptoms
(B) A child with nausea and vomiting, WBC
15,000/L, and serum glucose 150 mg/dL is likely to have a serum iron
level 300 g/dL
(C) A negative deferoxamine challenge test
is unreliable in ruling out significant
iron ingestion
(D) Deferoxamine is best administered
intravenously at a rate of at least 15 mg/kg/h
(E) Total iron binding capacity (TIBC) assays
are unaffected by the presence of acute
iron overdose
553.
Which of the following are side effects of NSAIDs?
(A) Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain
(B) Headache, behavioral and cognitive problems,
and aseptic meningitis
(C) Seizures
(D) Metabolic acidosis and acute renal
insufficiency
(E) All of the above
554. Which of the following drugs does NOT increase
the serum half-life of theophylline?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Cimetidine
Erythromycin
Phenytoin
Quinolones
Allopurinol
555. Which of the following statements regarding chronic
digitalis toxicity is FALSE?
(A) It is most often seen in elderly patients taking
digoxin and diuretics
(B) Chronic digitalis toxicity may mimic common
diseases such as influenza or gastroenteritis
(C) This toxicity may manifest as mental status
changes or psychiatric symptoms
(D) Serum potassium is usually decreased
or normal
(E) The serum digoxin level is markedly elevated
556. Phenytoin administration decreases the serum level
of all of the following drugs EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
oral anticoagulants
carbamazepine
methadone
furosemide
valproic acid
558. Which statement about hydrocarbon toxicity is
TRUE?
(A) Hydrocarbon ingestion accounts for up to 10
percent of childhood accidental ingestions in
the United States and 20 percent in less developed nations
(B) Persons ingesting hydrocarbons with viscosities
of 30 Saybolt Seconds Universal (SSU) are
at much lower risk of aspiration than those
ingesting agents with SSU ratings of 60
(C) Highly volatile hydrocarbons such as diesel oil
have a high toxic potential when inhaled
(D) Volatile hydrocarbon inhalational solvent abuse
may cause chronic encephalopathy and
cerebellar ataxia
(E) All of the above
559. Which of the following statements about hydrofluoric
acid exposure is FALSE?
(A) Hydrofluoric acid is a widely used industrial
chemical and is formulated in solution ranging
from 20 to 70 percent in strength
(B) Exposure may result in extensive burns despite
minimal initial findings
(C) Subcutaneous or intramuscular calcium
injection is a recommended therapy
(D) Exposure may cause life-threatening
hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia
(E) Intraarterial administration of calcium gluconate is a highly recommended therapy for
extremity exposures to hydrofluoric acid
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T OXICOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — Q UESTIONS
560. All of the following are signs of acetylcholinesterase
inhibitor toxicity EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
miosis
salivation
diarrhea
muscle fasciculations
anhydrosis
561. Which of the following plants may cause anticholinergic toxicity?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Datura stramonium
Deadly nightshade
Henbane
Mandrake
All of the above
562. Which of the following is NOT a central nervous
system finding in cyanide toxicity?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Arterialization of retinal veins
Headache
Agitated delirium
Coma
Seizures
TOXICOLOGIC
EMERGENCIES
ANSWERS
531. The answer is C. (Chapter 151) Current superactivated charcoal has three times
the absorptive area of older preparations, or 3000 m2/kg. The dose is 1 mg/kg, and it may
reduce absorption of ingested toxins by 50 percent. Cathartics may be dangerous, especially in pediatric patients and when given in multiple doses to poorly hydrated patients.
532. The answer is E. (Chapter 151) Arsenic, mercury, and gold poisoning are treated
with BAL. Each milliliter of BAL in oil has 100 mg of dimercaprol in 210 mg of 21 percent benzyl benzoate and 680 mg of peanut oil. Dimercaptosuccinic acid is an oral, watersoluble preparation of BAL that can be used to treat lead poisoning.
533. The answer is E. (Chapter 152) TCA overdoses are the leading cause of death in
intentional ingestions, with a mortality rate of 2 to 5 percent. All TCAs share a general
structure composed of three aromatic rings (a central seven-member ring with two outer
benzene rings) with an aminopropyl side chain connected to the central ring. TCAs are
active against central nervous system histamine receptors. This results in sedation. TCAs
are competitive antagonists of acetylcholine at peripheral and central muscarinic receptors.
534. The answer is B. (Chapter 152) TCA-induced seizures are usually single, generalized, self-limited, and brief. However, amoxapine and maprotiline can cause status
epilepticus. Amoxapine seizures commonly occur without QRS widening. Seven percent
of the population in the United States are “slow metabolizers” of TCAs and are prone to
developing higher serum levels for a given dosage.
535. The answer is D. (Chapter 152) This patient is severely intoxicated due to TCA overdose. She is at high risk of further cardiopulmonary decompensation and aspiration unless
immediate airway control and ventilation are initiated. After ensuring an adequate airway,
intravenous access and bicarbonate therapy are the treatment priorities. Gastric lavage (if
soon after the ingestion) and activated charcoal are then indicated to prevent continuing
absorption of the drug. Use of physostigmine in this case may show transient improvement in level of consciousness but is contraindicated because of the risk of death.
536. The answer is D. (Chapter 152) Lidocaine is the second-line agent of choice in TCA
overdose after sodium bicarbonate for treatment of ventricular dysrhythmias. Class IA
and IC antidysrhythmics, -blockers, calcium channel blockers, and phenytoin are contraindicated and may exacerbate TCA-related dysrhythmias. Bretylium is the third-line
drug for TCA rhythm disturbances unresponsive to bicarbonate or lidocaine.
537. The answer is B. (Chapter 153) Paroxetine is the most potent of the SSRIs. The
most serious side effect of this class of antidepressants is serotonin syndrome. Extrapyramidal symptoms, hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, and sexual dysfunction are also associated with SSRI medications.
538. The answer is C. (Chapter 153) Morphine and fentanyl are considered safe treatments for serotonin syndrome. The syndrome is usually seen after increasing the dose of
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T OXICOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
187
a potent serotonin agonist or adding a second serotonergic agent (such as lithium) to a
patient’s regimen. Electroconvulsive therapy, cocaine, meperidine, levodopa, L-tryptophan, and other drugs may predispose patients to serotonin syndrome.
539. The answer is E. (Chapter 154) Drugs that are safe to use with MAOIs include
aspirin, acetaminophen, ibuprofen, morphine, albuterol, epinephrine, norepinephrine, and
isoproterenol. Drugs that are contraindicated if the patient is taking MAOIs include
bretylium, pseudoephedrine, caffeine, levodopa, theophylline, and TCAs. MAOIs result
in three basic types of drug interactions: pharmacodynamic, pharmacokinetic, and idiosyncratic. Indirect-acting sympathomimetics are the most common cause of pharmacodynamic drug interactions for the MAOI patient. The indirect-acting sympathomimetics
can result in a tyramine-like hyperadrenergic state when consumed in conjunction with
MAOIs. Pharmacokinetic drug interactions from MAOIs are due to inhibition of usual
drug metabolism by cytochrome oxidase. Opiates and sedative-hypnotics are especially
susceptible to this phenomenon.
540. The answer is C. (Chapter 155) Dystonic reactions are more likely to occur in males
and are seen in 12 percent of patients treated with a single dose of neuroleptic. Akathisia
(subjective restlessness) and acute parkinsonism are also early movement disorders associated with neuroleptic administration. Both are more likely to present in females and
occur in 20 percent and 13 percent of patients, respectively. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome occurs in fewer than 3 percent of patients and is more common in males. Tardive
dyskinesia is a late-appearing neurologic syndrome that occurs more commonly in
females and affects 30 percent of long-term neuroleptic patients. At present, there is no
effective treatment.
541. The answer is D. (Chapter 155) Diazepam, in large doses if necessary, is the firstline drug treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS). If this fails, paralytic
drugs are indicated. Other drugs that may be used in the treatment of NMS include
dantrolene, bromocriptine, carbidopa/levodopa, or amantadine. Presenting symptoms for
NMS include hyperthermia, muscular rigidity, altered level of consciousness, and autonomic instability. Haloperidol is the most common inciting agent. Patients taking neuroleptics simultaneously with lithium, TCAs, MAOIs, or antiparkinsonian drugs are at
greatest risk.
542. The answer is E. (Chapter 155) Seizures, tachycardia, hypotension, and atrioventricular/
intraventricular dysrhythmias have all been reported in neuroleptic overdose. Hypothermia
and hyperthermia can also be seen. Coma and respiratory depression are rare with isolated
neuroleptic ingestion. Anticholinergic symptoms are common with overdoses of lowpotency neuroleptics such as chlorpromazine and thioridazine, and extrapyramidal disorders are more likely with high-potency antipsychotics. Class IB (lidocaine or phenytoin)
antidysrhythmics are indicated to treat neuroleptic-induced dysrhythmias.
543. The answer is E. (Chapter 156) Any factor that decreases the efficiency of the kidney to deal with chronic lithium exposure increases the risk of lithium toxicity. Pathophysiologic factors that deplete the body of water or total body sodium increase lithium
toxicity. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include diabetes mellitus, hypertension, renal
failure, old age, a low sodium diet, and coingestion of diuretics or NSAIDs.
544. The answer is B. (Chapter 157) A general rule of thumb is that 10 times the therapeutic dose of barbiturates causes severe toxicity. Overdose results in progressive central nervous system depression similar to that seen with ethanol ingestion. Hypothermia is
common, skin bullae occur in 6 percent of patients, and pupils may be either constricted or
dilated. Flat-line electroencephalogram (EEG) is not uncommon in severe overdose.
Hence, brain death cannot be declared until the effects of the acute ingestion have resolved.
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T OXICOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
545. The answer is E. (Chapter 158) Benzodiazepine overdose is usually a mixed overdose. If the patient is prone to seizures (e.g., when TCAs are coingested), flumazenil is
contraindicated. Even if the history is reliable for a pure benzodiazepine overdose, the
patient may be benzodiazepine-dependent and thus at risk for intractable seizures if
flumazenil is administered. Because supportive care and charcoal lead to good outcomes
after most benzodiazepine overdoses, blind use of flumazenil in the ED patient with an
altered level of consciousness is unwarranted.
546. The answer is D. (Chapter 159) Chloral hydrate overdose is associated with a pearlike odor of the breath. Ethchlorvynol overdose is associated with a vinyl-like odor of the
breath. Glutethimide overdose may show waxing and waning sedation and can be associated with a flat-line EEG.
547. The answer is A. (Chapter 160) The combination of ethanol with cocaine produces
a dangerous metabolite, cocaethylene. Risk of sudden death in coingesters is about 20
times that with cocaine alone. Toxicity from methanol and ethylene glycol results from
their metabolites, formaldehyde and formic acid, not direct toxicity. Isopropanol causes
hemorrhagic gastritis, and it produces an osmolal gap but not an anion gap. Both
methanol and ethylene glycol cause a severe anion gap metabolic acidosis. Isospropanol
is commonly used as rubbing alcohol and is approximately twice as potent as ethanol.
548. The answer is A. (Chapter 161) Methadone is an oral opiate that relieves all symptoms of opiate withdrawal except the desire to use a needle or “shoot up.” Compazine,
clonidine, and benzodiazepines provide partial relief of symptoms and are useful for
treatment of opiate withdrawal in outpatients. Naloxone induces opiate withdrawal.
549. The answer is E. (Chapter 162) The parent compound of cocaine exists naturally
in the plant Erythroxylon coca and is indigenous to South America. In large doses,
cocaine may exert a direct negative effect on the myocardium because of its quinidinelike activity. Plasma cholinesterase converts cocaine to ecgonine methyl ester. Benzoylecgonine, the other major metabolite, is excreted in urine and assayed in most
toxicology screens. It is present in the urine for 24 to 72 h after an isolated use but may
persist for up to 2 weeks in chronic users.
550. The answer is C. (Chapter 162) Amphetamine intoxication causes urinary retention
but not incontinence. Patients may complain of dysuria and urinary hesitancy. The other
listed effects have all been reported. In addition, flushing, tachycardia, hypertension,
dysrhythmias, and myocardial infarction can be caused by amphetamine ingestion. Aggressive cooling measures and even paralysis are sometimes needed to control severe
hyperthermia and prevent rhabdomyolysis.
551. The answer is E. (Chapter 163) Synesthesias are common with LSD and are manifested by the “hearing of colors” and “seeing of sounds.” This phenomenon is not
described with PCP. Flashbacks are common with LSD but not with PCP. Patients who
have ingested LSD are prone to anxiety-induced paranoia and visual, not auditory, hallucinations. Complications are rare with nutmeg, marijuana, mescaline, and peyote.
Chronic use of hallucinogenic amphetamines can lead to vasculitis.
552. The answer is A. (Chapter 165) Hepatotoxicity has traditionally been defined as an
alanine aminotransferase (ALT) or aspartate aminotransferase (AST) level of greater
than or equal to 1000 IU/L. The Rumack-Matthew nomogram predicts the risk of hepatotoxicity after a single ingestion of acetaminophen based on a blood level obtained 4 to
24 h later. The nomogram is inaccurate if additional acetaminophen was taken in the
preceding 12 to 24 h. For a patient whose level is in the “probable toxicity” zone of the
nomogram who is not treated with N-acetylcysteine, the risk of death is 5 to 24 percent
and the probability of significant hepatotoxicity is 14 to 89 percent. Significant toxicity
T OXICOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
189
is possible in children who consume more than 140 mg/kg or adults who take more than
7.5 g of acetaminophen acutely. When it occurs, acute liver failure typically presents 72
to 96 h after the acute ingestion, during stage III of the poisoning.
553. The answer is E. (Chapter 166) NSAIDs include salicylates and nonsalicylates.
There are five chemical classes of nonsalicylate NSAIDs: acetic acids, propionic acids,
fenamic acids, oxicams, and pyrazolones. Mefenamic acid ingestion can lead to seizures.
Aseptic meningitis has been reported with NSAID use and is most often found in
patients suffering from autoimmune disorders. NSAID-induced aseptic meningitis is
thought to be due to drug hypersensitivity.
554. The answer is C. (Chapter 167) Phenytoin, rifampin, phenobarbital, and carbamazepine all decrease the half-life of theophylline. The half-life of theophylline is also
reduced in children, smokers, patients with hyperthyroidism, and in those who eat
charcoal-broiled foods. Drugs that increase the half-life of theophylline include erythromycin, clarithromycin, mexilitine, tocainide, and propafenone. The half-life of theophylline is also increased in patients with cirrhosis, severe obstructive airway disease,
pneumonia, and congestive heart failure.
555. The answer is E. (Chapter 168) A high index of clinical suspicion is necessary to
make the diagnosis of chronic digoxin toxicity. Chronic toxicity is usually associated with
a normal or mildly elevated digoxin level. Acute, but not chronic, digoxin overdose is associated with hyperkalemia. Hypomagnesemia is a common feature of chronic overdose.
556. The answer is A. (Chapter 172) Phenytoin increases the serum level of oral anticoagulants, acetaminophen, and primadone. Drugs whose levels are decreased include
amiodarone, disopyramide, mexilitene, and quinidine. Phenylbutazone, sulfonamides,
valproic acid, high-dose salicylates, and tolbutamide increase levels of phenytoin. The
mechanism for this increase in serum phenytoin level is displacement of the drug from
protein binding. This increases the free fraction of phenytoin, although total drug concentration may decrease.
557. The answer is E. (Chapter 173) Iron poisoning can be divided into four stages based
on clinical signs and symptoms. Nausea and vomiting, white blood cell (WBC) count 15,000/L, and serum glucose 150 mg/dL are all highly predictive of a serum iron
level 300 g/dL in acute iron overdose. A single negative deferoxamine challenge test
should not be used to rule out significant iron ingestion in the presence of a strong history or significant signs or symptoms. TIBC assays may be falsely elevated in the setting
of acute iron overdose. If the patient survives an acute ingestion, the fourth stage of toxicity may develop days to weeks later; this stage is characterized by gastric outlet or
small bowel obstruction.
558. The answer is D. (Chapter 174) Hydrocarbon ingestion accounts for up to 10 percent of childhood accidental ingestions in the United States and between 33 and 59 percent in less developed nations. Persons ingesting hydrocarbons with viscosities of 60
SSU are at much higher risk of aspiration than those ingesting agents with SSU ratings
of 100. Highly volatile hydrocarbons have a high toxic potential when inhaled, but
diesel oil is not highly volatile.
559. The answer is C. (Chapter 175) Subcutaneous or intramuscular injection of calcium
is useless in hydrofluoric acid exposure. The recommended methods of delivery of calcium gluconate are as a 2.5 percent gel by intradermal injection of 10 percent solution
with a 30-gauge needle, or by intraarterial injection of 10 mL of 10 percent calcium gluconate diluted in 50 mL of D5W over 4 h. Therapy is successful when the patient
achieves and maintains a pain-free state. Calcium chloride should not be used because of
the risk of tissue necrosis if inadvertent extravasation occurs.
190
T OXICOLOGIC E MERGENCIES — A NSWERS
560. The answer is E. (Chapter 176) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor toxicity due to
organophosphate or carbamate poisoning is characterized by diaphoresis, not by
anhydrosis. Signs and symptoms of these poisonings may be classified as muscarinic,
nicotinic, and central. Miosis is the most specific muscarinic finding and muscular
fasciculations is the most specific finding for nicotinic receptors. The acronym SLUDGE
(salivation, lacrimation, urination, diarrhea, gastrointestinal, emesis) describes the clinical presentation. Organophosphate binding to acetylcholinesterase becomes covalent and
irreversible if not treated with pralidoxime within 24 to 36 h. Carbamate binding to
acetylcholinesterase is reversible.
561. The answer is E. (Chapter 177) Datura stramonium is the scientific name for the
plant commonly known as jimsonweed. It is a weed that is widely distributed throughout
the United States, grows 3 to 6 feet high, and has large, jagged, white or purple trumpetshaped flowers. All parts of the plant are toxic and contain atropine, hyoscyamine, and
scopolamine. Mydriasis from jimsonweed may persist for up to 1 week and can result
from systemic or ocular exposure (“cornpicker’s” eye). The classic description of a patient
with anticholinergic syndrome is: “hot as a hare, blind as a bat, dry as a bone, red as a
beet, and mad as a hatter.”
562. The answer is C. (Chapter 182) Agitated delirium is not a feature of acute cyanide
toxicity. Cyanide results in progressive central nervous system dysfunction, with coma
and death being the end result. Local effects of cyanide include oropharyngeal burns and
the odor of almonds. Cardiopulmonary effects are divided into early and late stages. The
early stage includes dyspnea, hypertension, tachycardia, and dysrhythmias. The late cardiopulmonary effects are bradycardia, hypotension, and cardiopulmonary arrest.
TRAUMA
QUESTIONS
DIRECTIONS:
Each question below contains five suggested responses. Choose the one best response to each question.
563. Which one of the following statements regarding
trauma epidemiology is INCORRECT?
(A) Alcohol is associated with 40 percent of motor
vehicle accidents (MVAs)
(B) In the elderly, fractured hips are the most common injury sustained during a fall
(C) If involved in a motorcycle accident, you are
35 times more likely to die than if you are
involved in an automobile accident
(D) Most trauma victims in the United States are
transported to trauma centers for resuscitation
(E) Within the United States, trauma is the leading
cause of death up to the age of 45 years
564. A 45-year-old male unrestrained driver is brought to
the ED with cervical spine precautions by an EMT unit
after a high-speed MVA. He has a Glasgow Coma Scale
(GCS) score of 6 and no obvious signs of trauma. His
shallow respirations are being inadequately assisted
with a bag-valve mask. Radial pulse is thready, and the
extremities are cool. Which of the following should be
performed before rapid sequence intubation (RSI)?
(A) A brief neurologic examination including a
check of rectal tone
(B) An immediate chin lift to clear the airway
from any obstruction
(C) A full set of vital signs
(D) A lateral cervical spine x-ray
(E) Four quick tidal volume breaths with
100 percent oxygen using a bag-valve
mask device
565. A 28-year-old male sustains a gunshot wound to the
back, just medial to the left scapula. Field blood pressure is 98/p, pulse is 101, and respiratory rate is 38. En
route to the ED, he received high-flow oxygen and 1 L
normal saline. He is agitated and diaphoretic on arrival.
You are unable to hear heart sounds because of ambient
noise, but the neck veins appear normal. Blood pressure
starts to decrease and respiratory status worsens over
the next few minutes, but he is still conscious and oriented. Given that all of the following interventions are
available, what is the MOST appropriate next step?
(A) Emergent bedside cardiac ultrasound
(B) Emergent thoracotomy
(C) Immediate needle decompression of the
left chest
(D) Immediate blood transfusion
(E) Immediate chest x-ray
566. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding pediatric trauma?
(A) Trauma is the leading cause of death in
children younger than 1 year
(B) Because of their smaller body surface area,
hypothermia is less common in children than
in adults
(C) Head injury is the most frequent cause
of death
(D) Initial assessment and management of an
injured child differs from that of an adult
(E) Alcohol use is a factor in most trauma cases
associated with MVAs
191
Copyright 2000 The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. Click Here for Terms of Use.
T RAUMA — Q UESTIONS
192
567. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT
regarding the child’s airway?
(A) Children are dependent on diaphragmatic
excursion for breathing in order to generate
adequate tidal volume
(B) In children older than 4 years, the narrowest
portion of the trachea is no longer subglottic
(C) The location of the infant’s larynx is more
cephalad than the location of the adult’s larynx
(D) Cricothyrotomy is contraindicated in
small children
(E) The correct endotracheal tube size for a
4-year-old child is 5.0
568. A 6-month-old child falls and hits his head. Which
of the following signs would be the MOST indicative of
serious neurological injury?
(A) The parent states the child was pale and
sweaty for a few minutes after the fall
(B) A single post-fall episode of emesis
(C) Lethargy immediately after the head injury
(D) Hypotension
(E) A single grand mal seizure immediately after
the fall
569. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT
regarding pediatric spinal cord injury?
(A) Because of a child’s large head, the fulcrum of
cervical motion lies at C4–5
(B) Widening of the prevertebral soft tissue of
8 mm or more anterior to C2 is abnormal
(C) In most cases, pseudosubluxation resolves if
x-rays are repeated with the child in the
sniffing position
(D) More than 50 percent of children with
SCIWORA (spinal cord injury without
radiographic abnormality) have a delayed
onset of paralysis
(E) A normal spine series can be found in up to
two-thirds of children with spinal cord injury
570. Which of the following is TRUE regarding geriatric
patients?
(A) They fall less frequently than younger people
because they are more cautious about their
balance
(B) They are likely to sustain multiple orthopedic
fractures after a fall
(C) They are more likely to die from an MVA than
from any other traumatic injury
(D) The increased incidence in violent crimes in
the United States has spared the elderly
(E) Alcohol is less likely to be associated with a
fatal assault than it is for a younger person
571. Which of the following statements would be MOST
CORRECT regarding evaluation of a head and neck CT
of a 75-year-old male after a fall?
(A) Epidural hematomas occur more frequently in
the elderly than in young adults
(B) There should be 25 to 30 percent more brain
atrophy in the normal 75-year-old male than in
a 30-year-old male
(C) Subdural hematomas occur less frequently in
the elderly than in young adults
(D) Increased “dead space” within the skull may
delay symptoms of intracranial bleeds
(E) Compared with young adults, elderly patients
have an increased incidence of cervical
spine injuries
572. An 83-year-old female fell while walking to the
bathroom. She complains of severe pain and will not
tolerate any movement of the left leg. The leg is externally rotated and shortened. Which of the following is
the MOST likely location for the fracture?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Intertrochanteric
Transcervical
Subcapital
Subtrochanteric
Acetabular
573. A 15-year-old male is brought to the ED after being
assaulted to the head with a lead pipe. He opens his
eyes briefly to deep painful stimuli, mumbles incomprehensible sounds, and withdraws to painful stimuli. What
is his initial GCS?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
10
9
8
7
6
574. While in the CT scanner, the patient described in
question 573 develops anisocoria. Which of the following
statements is INCORRECT regarding uncal herniation?
(A) Compression of cranial nerve III along the edge
of the tentorium incisura causes pupillary dilation
(B) Constriction of parasympathetic fibers on the
surface of cranial nerve III causes unopposed
sympathetic dilation of the pupil
(C) With further compression of cranial nerve III,
full oculomotor paralysis develops, causing the
eye to deviate inferiorly and medially
(D) Uncal herniation can compress the
corticospinal tract, leading to
contralateral hemiplegia
(E) An emergency burr hole should be placed on
the same side as the dilated pupil in the
majority of cases
193
T RAUMA — Q UESTIONS
575. A 42-year-old female has a GCS of 6 after an MVA.
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding
her care?
(A) If hypotension is allowed to occur, the
mortality risk is more than doubled
(B) The most critical determinant of outcome in
severely head-injured patients is ICP
(C) The patient should be hyperventilated to a
pCO2 of less than 25 mm Hg
(D) Hypotension in the severely brain-injured
patient is usually due to the primary brain
injury
(E) CT of the abdomen and head should be performed immediately in a hypotensive, severely
head-injured patient
576. A 13-year-old male is involved in a water ski boat
accident. Which of the following would NOT be indicative of a basilar skull fracture?
(A) Generalized bruising on the face, most notably
around the eyes
(B) Bluish, dull tympanic membrane on the
left side
(C) A small retroauricular ecchymosis on the
left side
(D) Left-sided facial droop
(E) Medial deviation of the left eye
577. Which of the following patients does NOT require
immediate neurosurgical evaluation?
(A) A 24-year-old male with a GCS score of 13
and a linear fracture of the temporal bone
diagnosed by skull x-ray at an outside hospital
(B) A comatose 38-year-old female with a
depressed linear skull fracture
(C) A 42-year-old male with a basilar skull fracture diagnosed by bony windows on head CT
(D) A 19-year-old female with a scalp laceration
and clear discharge from the right ear after an
unhelmeted fall while rollerblading
(E) A 58-year-old female with a GCS score of
4 and a negative head CT
578. A homeless, alcoholic male is brought to the ED
with a mildly altered level of consciousness. Although
there is no history or external signs of trauma, a head CT
is obtained and it shows a large collection of blood, with
slight midline shift. Which of the following statements is
TRUE regarding this patient’s most likely diagnosis?
(A) It is usually caused by tearing of the middle
meningeal artery
(B) The patient should show signs of elevated
intracranial pressure immediately after
the injury
(C) Brain atrophy associated with alcoholism
makes him less susceptible to this type
of bleed
(D) Immediate surgery may not be necessary
(E) Morbidity and mortality are much lower than
for other intracerebral bleeds
579. A 36-year-old female comes to the ED complaining
of headache and nausea. She had a negative head CT 5
days earlier after a brief lapse of consciousness after an
MVA. She is amnestic to the event. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
(A) The mortality rate for patients with head injury
and a negative head CT approaches zero
(B) Retrograde and antegrade amnesia is common
with this type of injury
(C) The patient is not at risk for significant injuries
because she is 5 days out from the initial
trauma and relatively asymptomatic
(D) The patient may have alterations in thinking,
sleeping, or concentration abilities
(E) A new sensitivity to alcohol is normal and will
probably resolve within a few weeks
580. A young female presents to the ED with a GCS
score of 6 after being “t-boned” by a large pickup truck
on her side of the vehicle. Initial head CT is negative
for bleed. Pupils were initially normal and reactive to
light but are now bilaterally dilated and sluggish. Which
one of the following therapies would be LEAST beneficial for this patient?
(A) 1 L normal saline bolus
(B) Intubation and hyperventilation to keep the
pCO2 less than 25 mm Hg
(C) Mannitol 1 g/kg intravenous bolus
(D) Elevation of the head of the bed to 30 degrees
(E) Furosemide 0.3 to 0.5 mg/kg intravenously
194
T RAUMA — Q UESTIONS
581. Which of the following statements regarding spinal
injury is TRUE?
584. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT
regarding cervical spine injuries?
(A) Twenty percent of patients deteriorate neurologically in the ED
(B) In a neurologically normal patient, the absence
of pain or tenderness along the spine excludes
spine injury
(C) Approximately 75 percent of spinal injuries
occur in the cervical region
(D) Approximately 25 percent of all head-injured
patients have associated spinal injuries
(E) If appropriate precautions are maintained,
evaluation of the spine may be safely deferred
until after intubation is performed
(A) The Jefferson fracture is due to a vertical
compression injury
(B) Hangman’s fracture is a bilateral fracture
through the pedicles of C2
(C) A flexion teardrop fracture leaves the posterior
ligaments intact
(D) A unilateral facet dislocation is diagnosed
when there is anterior dislocation of 25 to
33 percent of one vertebral body on the
next vertebra
(E) Bilateral interfacetal dislocation is an
unstable cervical injury with total
ligamentous disruption
582. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT
regarding spinal shock?
(A) Distal areflexia can persist for hours to weeks
(B) After reflexes return, the patient develops
spastic paralysis
(C) Fluid resuscitation alone is generally insufficient to treat hypotension
(D) Vasomotor instability leads to hypotension and
cool, moist skin
(E) Paradoxical bradycardia can coexist with
hypotension
583. A 76-year-old male with severe osteoarthritis falls
head first onto the cement. On ED arrival, he is confused and answers “yes” to all questions. You notice
that he is not moving the upper extremities or legs. All
of the following are characteristic for this type of cord
syndrome EXCEPT
(A) the legs are typically weaker than the arms
(B) the hands are weaker than the proximal
arm muscles
(C) prognosis is better for this syndrome than for
other cord syndromes
(D) vascular compromise in the pattern of the
anterior spinal artery is the cause
(E) the bladder is occasionally affected
585. A 26-year-old intoxicated male driver is involved in
a high-speed MVA. Which of the following findings on
cervical spine x-ray would NOT be suggestive of serious injury?
(A) An 8-mm prevertebral soft tissue swelling
at C4
(B) A 4-mm anterior subluxation of C5 on C6
(C) Fanning of the cervical spinous processes
(D) A predental space of 3 mm
(E) An 18-degree change in angulation of the
cervical column
586. Which of the following patients with penetrating
neck trauma is MOST likely to require immediate surgical exploration?
(A) An 18-year-old asymptomatic male with a stab
wound to zone II of the neck that penetrates
the platysma
(B) A 12-year-old female with a BB gunshot
wound to zone II of the neck who complains
of a minor voice change and occasional nonproductive cough
(C) A 43-year-old female with a glass shard
laceration to zone III of the neck with
minimal associated bleeding
(D) A 21-year-old male with a zone I, II, and III
neck laceration from a pocket knife associated
with significant hemorrhage that is well controlled with a pressure dressing
(E) A 33-year-old female with a gunshot wound to
zone I of the neck and anisocoria
195
T RAUMA — Q UESTIONS
587. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate
management of a patient with a spinal cord injury?
(A) Immobilization with a long spine board, semirigid cervical collar and bolstering devices
(B) Low-dose vasopressors to treat
neurogenic shock
(C) Atropine to treat bradycardia
(D) Methylprednisolone 30 mg intravenous bolus
and then 5.4 mg/kg/h for 23 h if administered
within the first 12 h of injury
(E) Transfer to a definitive-care facility once
cardiovascular stability has been achieved
588. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding chest trauma?
(A) Thoracic injury is the cause of death in
25 percent of all trauma patients
(B) Most deaths from chest trauma occur before
ED arrival
(C) Mortality is greater than 50 percent for patients
who present with a blood pressure less than
80 systolic or who require intubation on arrival
(D) Twenty-five percent of blunt chest
trauma patients are candidates for
emergent thoracotomy
(E) Forty-five percent of penetrating chest
trauma patients are candidates for
emergent thoracotomy
589. A 24-year-old unrestrained male driver is involved
in a high-speed MVA. GCS score is 10, and he has
severe chest wall contusions and mild hemoptysis. He is
intubated for respiratory distress. Within a few minutes
of intubation, he suffers a cardiac arrest. Which of the
following therapeutic measures would be LEAST likely
to have an immediate life-saving effect?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Decrease the ventilatory rate
Needle decompression of the chest
Pull back the endotracheal tube
One liter crystalloid fluid bolus
Immediate Trendelenburg position, left lateral
side down
590. Which of the following patients is NOT a candidate
for emergent ED thoracotomy?
(A) A 12-year-old male with a stab wound to the
left axilla who loses pulses on ED arrival
(B) A 29-year-old male with a gunshot wound to
the left upper quadrant, with a distending
abdomen and a precipitous decrease in GCS
score to 3
(C) A 42-year-old male involved in an MVA,
initially alert, who arrives to the ED with
pulseless electrical activity after a 6-min
transport time
(D) A 36-year-old female with a stab wound to
zone I of the neck who becomes altered and
loses radial pulses 4 min before ED arrival
(E) An 18-year-old male who fell 12 feet from
a tree, was alert in the field, but is now
altered, bradycardic, hypotensive, and has
a distended abdomen
591. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT
regarding flail chest?
(A) The main cause of morbidity and mortality
is hypoxia secondary to the patient’s
inability to generate adequate negative
intrathoracic pressure
(B) Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical
movement of the involved portion of the
chest wall during respiration
(C) It may not be apparent immediately after
the injury
(D) Initial therapy is aimed at immediate pain
relief, generous pulmonary toilet, and fluid
restriction to prevent fluid overload
(E) Prophylactic intubation decreases mortality in
minimally symptomatic patients with large
pulmonary contusions
592. After a moderate-speed MVA, a 32-year-old male
restrained driver has a normal upright anteroposterior
chest x-ray but a 2-mm pneumothorax on CT. Which of
the following is the BEST indication for placement of a
thoracostomy tube?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
One or more rib fractures
Need for intubation and mechanical ventilation
Pulmonary contusion
Cardiac contusion
PaO2 100
T RAUMA — Q UESTIONS
196
593. Hamman’s sign MOST likely suggests which of the
following conditions?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Pneumothorax
Pneumomediastinum
Pericarditis
Pleurisy
Pericardial tamponade
594. Which of the following is the LEAST reliable sign
of Beck’s triad in a patient with pericardial tamponade?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Distended neck veins
Tracheal deviation
Tachycardia
Hypotension
Muffled heart tones
595. Which of the following statements is CORRECT
regarding needle pericardiocentesis for diagnosis and
treatment of penetrating cardiac injury?
(A) The false negative rate is high
(B) Most of the pericardial blood can usually
be removed
(C) If successful, surgery is rarely needed
(D) Rapid aspiration of 20 mL of blood without
moving the needle usually indicates successful
needle placement
(E) ECG monitoring is more accurate if attached
to a plastic catheter
596. Which area of the heart is MOST commonly injured
in a myocardial contusion?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Right ventricle
Right atrium
Left ventricle
Left atrium
Interventricular septum
597. Which of the following is the MOST common valvular injury in a patient who survives transport to the ED
after blunt cardiac trauma?
(A) Papillary muscle or chordae tendineae of
mitral valve
(B) Mitral valve leaflets
(C) Aortic valve
(D) Pulmonic valve
(E) Tricuspid valve
598. What is the MOST likely abnormality that would be
seen on chest x-ray in a patient with traumatic rupture of
the aorta after blunt injury?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Superior mediastinal widening
Obscuration of the aortic knob
Deviation of esophagus to the left
Fracture of the first or second rib
Apical cap
599. Physical findings suggestive of traumatic rupture of
the aorta include all of the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
flail chest
systolic murmur over the back
lower extremity hypertension
difference in pulse amplitudes between the
upper and lower extremities
(E) hoarseness without laryngeal injury
600. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding blunt tracheobronchial injuries?
(A) Blunt cervical tracheal injuries usually occur
proximal to the tracheal cartilage
(B) Most lower tracheobronchial injuries occur 5
cm or more from the carina
(C) Common signs and symptoms include dyspnea,
hemoptysis, subcutaneous emphysema,
Hamman’s sign, and sternal tenderness
(D) Injuries to the major bronchi are usually
caused by elevated intraabdominal pressure
(E) Concurrent esophageal injuries occur in fewer
than 5 percent of cases
601. Approximately how much blood is contained in an
acute pericardial tamponade after penetrating cardiac
injury?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
10 mL
50 mL
200 mL
500 mL
1000 mL
602. In which of the following cases would a diagnostic
peritoneal lavage (DPL) be the MOST useful?
(A) Blunt abdominal trauma with hypotension and
free intraperitoneal fluid on ultrasound
(B) Multiple trauma with spinal cord injury and
normal abdominal examination
(C) An alert patient involved in a high-speed
vehicle collision with no abdominal findings
(D) Gunshot wound (GSW) to the mid-abdomen
with intraabdominal bullet fragments
(E) Penetrating abdominal injury with diffuse
abdominal tenderness and rebound tenderness
197
T RAUMA — Q UESTIONS
603. Which of the following is an indication for surgery
in a patient with blunt kidney injury?
(A) Hematuria with more than 100 red blood cells
(RBC)/high-power field (HPF) on an unspun
urinalysis
(B) Severe flank pain unrelieved by analgesics
(C) Unexplained hypertension
(D) Flank hematoma
(E) Laceration through Gerota’s fascia
604. Which of the following would NOT be considered a
positive DPL in a patient with blunt abdominal trauma?
(A) 20 mL gross blood aspirated upon catheter
entry
(B) RBC count in lavage fluid 200,000 cells/L
(C) WBC count in lavage fluid 100 cells/L
(D) Amylase level in lavage fluid 500 U/100 mL
(E) Vegetable matter seen in lavage fluid
605. Which of the following statements regarding diaphragmatic injury after blunt abdominal trauma is
MOST correct?
(A) Diaphragmatic herniation is usually apparent
on initial upright chest x-ray
(B) The right side of the diaphragm is more
commonly injured than the left
(C) CT and DPL are almost never helpful
in diagnosis
(D) The diagnosis is usually made immediately
(E) Difficulty in passing a nasogastric tube suggests herniation of abdominal viscera into
the chest
606. A 25-year-old male driver is brought to the ED by
ambulance after a high-speed head-on collision. Physical
examination is remarkable for a blood pressure of 70/P,
heart rate of 140, abdominal tenderness, and a prominent
hematoma across the mid-abdomen. Which of the following organs is MOST likely to be injured?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Liver
Spleen
Kidney
Lung
Bladder
607. Which one of the following is NOT associated with
penile rupture?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Blood at the urethral meatus
Penile pain
Penile swelling
Penile discoloration
Priapism
608. What is the MOST commonly injured structure in
the genitourinary (GU) tract?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Bladder
Kidney
Ureter
Urethra
Penis
609. A young female presents to the ED with flank pain
and abdominal tenderness after a high-speed MVA.
Abdominal CT shows a non-enhancing kidney. Which
of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Renal artery thrombosis
Ureteral disruption
Renal laceration
Renal pelvis rupture
Renal contusion with large
subcapsular hematoma
610. All of the following statements regarding bladder
injuries are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) the bony pelvis protects the bladder in adults
(B) penetrating injuries are more common than
blunt injuries
(C) surgical repair is usually indicated after
intraperitoneal ruptures
(D) extraperitoneal ruptures are usually treated
with catheter drainage alone
(E) contusions rarely require surgical treatment
611. Which of the following is LEAST appropriate in the
initial management of a patient with a pelvic fracture
and ongoing hemorrhage?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Placement of an external fixator device
Crystalloid infusion
Blood transfusion
Angiography and vessel embolization
Laparotomy
612. Which of the following blunt traumatic injuries
would be MOST likely to result in a positive DPL?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Renal pedicle injury
Small bowel mesenteric tear
Subcapsular splenic rupture
Ureteral transection
Duodenal hematoma
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613. In examining a patient with blunt pelvic injury after
a 20-foot fall, you find blood at the urethral meatus
and a normal prostate examination. What is the MOST
appropriate next step to evaluate for the cause of the
urethral blood?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Cystogram
Intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
CT with intravenous and oral contrast
Foley catheter
Retrograde urethrogram
614. Which of the following statements regarding wound
ballistics is CORRECT?
(A) Tissue surrounding a bullet track should be
excised to prevent wound necrosis
(B) Military bullets are more damaging than
civilian bullets of the same size
(C) Bullets frequently tumble in flight
(D) Bullets frequently tumble in tissue
(E) Bullets of the same caliber have the same
wounding potential
615. All of the following are considered passive injury
countermeasures EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
motorcycle helmets
automobile airbags
building sprinkler systems
spring-loaded lawnmower shutoff switches
spring-loaded circular saw blade covers
616. Which of the following statements regarding injury
control is CORRECT?
(A) Educational programs are almost always valuable in changing behavior
(B) Enactment of mandatory use laws rarely
affects behavior
(C) States that have repealed mandatory
motorcyclist helmet laws have seen little
or no increase in fatality rates
(D) Driver education has been more successful
than motor vehicle engineering in reducing
death rates from vehicle crashes
(E) Mandatory-use laws are difficult to enact
617. Which of the following neurological findings would
MOST likely result from a nerve injury caused by a
mid-shaft humerus fracture?
(A) Weakness in wrist extension
(B) Decreased sensation over the dorsum of the
little finger
(C) Decreased sensation to the palmar index finger
(D) Weakness in wrist flexion
(E) Weakness in index finger abduction
618. Which of the following statements regarding scapular fractures is CORRECT?
(A) They are most common in elderly women
(B) The most common mechanism of injury is a
rotational torso movement
(C) Associated injuries rarely occur
(D) Common associated injuries involve the
ribs and lungs
(E) Open reduction and internal fixation is
usually required
619. Which is the MOST frequently injured solid organ
after penetrating trauma?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Liver
Spleen
Pancreas
Kidney
Diaphragm
620. Which of the following statements regarding pancreatic injuries is CORRECT?
(A) Penetrating injuries are more common than
blunt injuries
(B) The serum amylase is almost always elevated
(C) DPL is highly sensitive
(D) Complications are infrequent and of
little consequence
(E) Concomitant injuries are rare
621. Which of the following urinalysis results would be
an indication for IVP or abdominal CT in an adult after
blunt abdominal or flank trauma?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
0–5 RBC/HPF
5–10 RBC/HPF
10–20 RBC/HPF
Gross hematuria
Dipstick positive for blood
622. An adult patient has abdominal pain, tenderness,
and a lap-belt hematoma after a vehicle crash. Which of
the following is the LEAST likely to be injured?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Spleen
Liver
Small intestine
Ureter
Colon
623. Which of the following knee injuries is MOST likely
to be associated with vascular trauma?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Tibial plateau fracture
Femoral condyle fracture
Anterior dislocation
Posterior dislocation
Lateral dislocation
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624. A fracture at which of the following sites is MOST
likely to be associated with a disruption of the midfoot?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Base of the second metatarsal
Calcaneus
Base of the fifth metatarsal
Navicular
Cuboid
625. Regarding Achilles tendon rupture, all of the following are TRUE EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Thompson’s test is usually positive
a palpable tendon defect is usually present
active plantar flexion excludes the diagnosis
patients frequently report hearing a snap at the
time of injury
(E) this injury usually occurs in middle-aged men
626. What compartment pressure indicates the need for
fasciotomy in a patient with suspected compartment
syndrome?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
3 mm Hg
10 mm Hg
15 mm Hg
30 mm Hg
60 mm Hg
TRAUMA
ANSWERS
563. The answer is D. (Chapter 243) Despite the overwhelming advent of sophisticated
trauma systems, the majority of trauma victims are first seen in community hospitals.
This underscores the need for all emergency physicians to be well versed in trauma management. In 1988, 48,000 people were killed in MVAs. Trauma is the leading cause of
death in young adults.
564. The answer is E. (Chapter 243) This patient clearly requires immediate intubation
and ventilation. Gaining control of the airway must not be delayed to obtain x-rays, perform a neurologic examination, or even measure a full set of vital signs. A “normal” lateral cervical spine x-ray does not rule out an unstable cervical spine injury. Irrespective
of x-ray findings, the same precautions (inline stabilization) must be taken during RSI. A
jaw-thrust maneuver could help clear an airway obstruction, but a chin lift would be contraindicated because of a possible cervical spine injury.
565. The answer is A. (Chapter 251) It is unclear whether this patient has cardiac tamponade, a tension pneumothorax, or hemorrhagic shock. Cardiac tamponade is diagnosed
clinically by Beck’s triad (hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and elevated neck veins).
However, in a hypovolemic patient, clinical assessment may be difficult. Pericardial fluid
detected by bedside ultrasound confirms the diagnosis of pericardial tamponade. If present, immediate pericardiocentesis is indicated and can be lifesaving.
566. The answer is C. (Chapter 244) Trauma is the most common cause of death in children older than 1 year, with head trauma as the primary lethal injury. Infection is the first
and trauma is the second leading reason for ED visits in the pediatric age group. In children younger than 1 year, suffocation is the most common cause of death due to injury.
Car accidents, drowning, burns, and bicycle accidents are the most frequent reasons for
accidental injury. In 25 percent of all pediatric trauma cases secondary to MVAs, alcohol
is involved. Although physiologic differences must be considered; initial management of
injured children is the same as that for adults. Hypothermia occurs more rapidly in children
because their ratio of body surface area to mass is greater.
567. The answer is B. (Chapter 244) In addition to the smaller size, the pediatric airway
differs from the adult airway in anatomic proportions. The subglottic area is the narrowest
portion of the trachea in a child up to age 8. For this reason, uncuffed endotracheal tubes
are recommended. Because children are more dependent on diaphragmatic excursion for
breathing, abdominal or chest wall impedance can impede adequate oxygenation and ventilation. The infant’s larynx is more cephalad than the adult’s, the tongue is relatively
larger, and the vocal cords are shorter and more concave. The cricoid cartilage is easily
damaged, and cricothyrotomy is not recommended. A formula to approximate the endotracheal tube size required for a child up to the age of 12 years old is:
internal diameter in millimeters (16 patient’s age in years)/4.
Another way to approximate the endotracheal tube size is to use a tube the same size
as the child’s nares or little finger.
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201
568. The answer is D. (Chapter 244) Infrequently, infants become hypotensive from
blood loss into either the subgaleal or epidural space after head trauma. Hypovolemia
can occur because of open cranial sutures and fontanelles. Transient paleness, lethargy,
diaphoresis, and emesis are common after minor head trauma and do not necessarily signify significant neurological injury. Persistence of any of these signs or symptoms, or
change in mental status is concerning. Seizures may occur shortly after head injury and
are usually self-limited. However, about 50 percent of patients with posttraumatic
seizures have positive findings on head computed tomography (CT). Children with two
or more seizures or a GCS 8 should be strongly considered for anticonvulsant therapy.
569. The answer is A. (Chapter 244) There are a number of anatomic differences
between children and adults with respect to the cervical spine. Because of the large head
in children, the fulcrum of the neck becomes C2–3; as a consequence, the majority of
cervical injuries occur in this area. About 40 percent of children younger than 7 years
and 20 percent of children up to 16 years show anterior displacement of C2 on C3 (pseudosubluxation). In normal children without injury, 3 mm of motion of C2 on C3 is often
seen with flexion and extension. Most pseudosubluxation is corrected radiographically
by placing the child’s head in the neutral, sniffing position. In up to two-thirds of children suffering from spinal cord injuries, a normal radiograph is found (SCIWORA).
About 50 percent of children with SCIWORA have a delayed onset of symptoms. Paralysis can present up to 4 days after the initial injury.
570. The answer is C. (Chapter 245) Falls are the most common accidental injury in
patients older than 75 years. Most elderly patients fall on a level surface and suffer an
isolated orthopedic injury. Even though a low-height fall may result in death, MVAs are
the most common mechanism of traumatic death in the elderly. In particular, elderly
patients are victims of auto/pedestrian accidents more commonly than their younger
counterparts. Decreased vision, hearing, and reflexes are all contributing factors. As in
younger populations, alcohol is involved in the majority of fatal assaults.
571. The answer is D. (Chapter 245) As the brain ages, it undergoes atrophy and
decreases in size by about 10 percent between the ages of 30 and 70 years. Atrophy
causes stretching of the bridging veins, which in turn leads to an increased incidence of
subdural hematomas. As the dura becomes more fibrous, it adheres to the cranium and
obliterates the potential space for epidurals. Therefore, although subdural hematomas are
more common in the elderly, epidural bleeds are rare. Because of the increased “dead
space” in the brains of elderly patients, they often have delayed presentations of significant intracranial hemorrhages. The elderly have a decreased incidence of cervical spine
injury and a different pattern of injury. There is a rise in C1–2 fractures, mostly because
of the increased incidence of odontoid fractures.
572. The answer is A. (Chapter 245) Falls in the elderly are associated with high morbidity and mortality. They are the most common cause of accidental injury in patients
older than 75 years and the second most common cause between the ages of 65 and 74
years. The most likely area of hip fracture is the intertrochanteric region. Pain coupled
with external rotation of the leg is a classic presentation. The second most likely place
for a fracture of the hip is the transcervical region.
573. The answer is C. (Chapter 247) The GCS is a standardized scoring system used to
predict prognosis after head injury. The scale evaluates three aspects of the patient’s
responsiveness and can be used to follow changes in these parameters over time. Eye
opening, best verbal response, and best motor response are each assigned a numerical
value. The maximum score obtainable is 15 and the minimum score is 3. This patient
opened his eyes to pain (2), withdrew to pain (4), and mumbled incoherently (2), for a
total score of 8. Intubation for airway protection and to facilitate diagnostic studies
should be strongly considered when the GCS score is 8 or less. A score of 8 or less
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persisting for 6 h or longer indicates severe neurologic injury. Children have a better
prognosis than do adults at low GCS levels. The presence of drugs or alcohol may limit
the usefulness of the GCS scoring system.
574. The answer is C. (Chapter 247) Uncal herniation occurs when the uncal portion of
the temporal lobe is pushed through the tentorium. Because cranial nerve III lies on the
edge of the tentorium, compression causes injury to the superficial parasympathetic
nerves. This results in unopposed sympathetic activity and manifests as pupillary dilation
on the side of the herniation. In addition, corticospinal tract fibers in the midbrain
become compressed. This squeezing through the tentorium causes contralateral hemiplegia. Ipsilateral mydriasis and contralateral hemiplegia is known as tentorial herniation
syndrome. An intracranial hematoma is most often present on the side of the pupillary
dilation, and an emergent burr hole would be placed on that side. In 20 percent of cases,
pupillary changes are contralateral, and motor changes are ipsilateral. This occurs when
a mass or hematoma pushes the opposite side of the midbrain against the tentorial edge,
resulting in a dilated pupil on the opposite side of the lesion. Hence, bilateral emergency
burr holes should be placed if trephination on the first side does not improve the
patient’s clinical condition.
575. The answer is A. (Chapter 247) Severe head injury is defined by a GCS score lower
than 8 in an adult. The most critical determinant of outcome in the head-injured patient is
the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP). The formula for CPP is [MAP (mean arterial pressure) ICP (intracranial pressure)]. To maintain adequate brain perfusion, hypotension
must be avoided. Adequate oxygenation is the other key factor. Hyperventilation to a
pCO2 of less than 25 mm Hg should be avoided because profound vasoconstriction and
ischemia can result. Mortality risk is more than doubled if hypotension occurs and increases by 75 percent in severely head-injured patients who experience both hypotension
and hypoxemia. Hypotension in adults is not due to the brain injury itself, except in the
terminal stages when medullary failure supervenes. This patient requires assessment for
internal hemorrhage, but blood pressure must be stable before considering a CT. Although
they may provide less specific information, diagnostic peritoneal lavage and abdominal
ultrasound have the advantage that they can be performed at the bedside.
576. The answer is E. (Chapter 247) Basilar skull fractures can occur at any point in the
base of the skull, but the typical location is along the petrous portion of the temporal
bone. Clinical signs of a basilar skull fracture include Battle’s sign (retroauricular
hematoma), raccoon eyes (retroorbital hematoma), cerebrospinal fluid leak, hemotympanum, and cranial nerve VII palsy. The cranial nerve VII palsy may appear immediately
or present a few days after injury. Prognosis for recovery is better in the delayed-onset
variety. Because of the force needed to cause a basilar skull fracture, a head CT is indicated to look for coexisting intracranial injuries. Palsy of cranial nerve VI has not been
described with basilar skull fractures. The use of prophylactic antibiotics in the setting of
basilar skull fracture is controversial and should only be initiated after consultation with
the consulting neurosurgeon.
577. The answer is C. (Chapter 247) Although basilar skull fractures are indicators of significant force during the injury, they do not need immediate neurosurgical evaluation if a
head CT is otherwise negative. Given the fracture over the temporal bone, under which the
middle meningeal artery lies, patient A has a high likelihood of epidural hematoma. With
a slightly depressed GCS, a neurosurgeon should be notified immediately. A comatose
patient with a depressed linear skull fracture has a 20 times increased risk of intracranial
hematoma. The patient with the rollerblade injury has a communicating, open scalp laceration and a dural tear, as shown by the otorrhea. Dural tears require early surgical repair to
decrease the incidence of infection. Patient E is likely to have diffuse axonal injury requiring meticulous control of cardiovascular and neurosurgical parameters.
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203
578. The answer is D. (Chapter 247) This patient likely has a subdural hematoma, a collection of blood beneath the dura and overlying the arachnoid and brain. It results from
tears of bridging veins that extend from the subarachnoid space to the dural venous sinus.
Patients with brain atrophy due to either aging or alcoholism are particularly susceptible
to developing subdural hematomas. Acute subdurals are usually symptomatic within 24 h.
Subacute subdural hematomas are symptomatic between 24 h and 2 weeks after injury,
and chronic subdurals become symptomatic 2 weeks or more after the injury, when the
blood clot liquefies. On CT, most acute subdurals appear hyperdense, subacute bleeds are
isodense or mixed density, and chronic subdurals are hypodense. Immediate surgery may
not be appropriate for chronic subdural bleeds. The morbidity and mortality of subdurals
exceeds that of epidurals because of the greater severity of underlying brain injury.
Epidural bleeds are associated with a tear of the middle meningeal artery.
579. The answer is C. (Chapter 247) This patient is suffering from postconcussive syndrome after minor head injury. Patients with minor head injury represent 80 percent of
the population of patients presenting to the ED with head trauma but suffer neurological
deterioration less than 2 percent of the time. Symptoms are subtle and may only be
brought out by formal neuropsychological testing. Insomnia, amnesia to the event, sensitivity to alcohol, difficulty concentrating, depression, and visual changes are common.
Most symptoms resolve within the first few weeks, but patients should be warned that
they can persist for up to 6 months postinjury. No focal motor weakness or sensory loss
has been described with this syndrome, and anyone with these signs after an accident
should be further evaluated. Intracranial bleeds and posttraumatic seizures can present as
late as 1 to 2 weeks after minor head trauma.
580. The answer is B. (Chapter 247) This multitrauma patient has a major head injury.
Early intubation and maintenance of cerebral perfusion pressure are paramount. Hyperventilation to a pCO2 of less than 25 mm Hg could cause ischemia, thereby worsening
the brain injury. The ideal level of pCO2 is between 30 and 35 mm Hg. Mannitol, and
possibly furosemide, can reduce intracranial pressure but should be avoided in a
hypotensive patient. Intravenous fluids should be administered as required to volume
resuscitate the patient. Glucose-containing fluids can result in hyperglycemia, which has
been shown to be harmful to the brain. Therefore, lactated Ringer’s or normal saline
solutions are recommended. Management of this critical patient should be coordinated
with a neurosurgeon and a trauma surgeon.
581. The answer is E. (Chapter 248) Five percent of patients with spinal trauma experience onset or worsening of neurological symptoms after reaching the ED. This is usually
due to either spinal cord ischemia or inadequate immobilization. As long as the spine is
protected, evaluation may be deferred until the patient has been stabilized. Spinal boards
are excellent transportation devices but should be removed as quickly as feasible to prevent complications such as decubitus ulcers or patient discomfort. Fifty-five percent of
all spinal injuries occur in the cervical region, and only 5 percent of head-injured patients
have an associated spinal injury. Lack of pain or tenderness does not preclude unstable
spinal injury, particularly if the patient has a distracting injury or is under the influence
of drugs or alcohol.
582. The answer is D. (Chapter 248) Neurogenic shock results from impairment of
descending sympathetic pathways. Patients lose their vasomotor tone and sympathetic
stimulation to the heart. This leads to pooling of blood and hypotension. Other potential
manifestations of this autonomic nerve dysfunction include priapism, urinary retention,
paralytic ileus, and loss of temperature control. The unique findings of neurogenic shock
are that the skin remains warm, dry, and pink, and adequate urine output is maintained.
Atropine is used to treat the paradoxical bradycardia. Hypotension is usually unresponsive to fluids alone and often requires the judicious use of vasopressors. Distal areflexia
can last hours to weeks and is followed by spastic paralysis.
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583. The answer is A. (Chapter 248) Central cord syndrome typically occurs after a
hyperextension injury in an elderly patient with congenital stenosis or osteoarthritis. It is
characterized by a disproportionately greater loss of motor strength in the proximal
extremities than in the lower extremities. Within the upper extremities, the distal aspect
is more affected than the proximal aspect. This characteristic pattern is due to disruption
of the cord’s vascular supply from the anterior spinal artery. Motor tracts on the innermost portion are affected first, and the distal extremities on the outer portion are affected
last. The bladder is occasionally involved. Recovery progresses distally to proximally,
and the prognosis is better for this syndrome than for other cord syndromes.
584. The answer is C. (Chapter 264) A flexion teardrop injury involves displacement of
a large triangular fragment from the anterior aspect of the involved vertebral body. This
results in extensive anterior and posterior ligamentous disruption. The extension teardrop
fracture leaves the posterior ligaments intact. A Jefferson fracture is a burst of the ring
of C1, and the hangman’s fracture is a bilateral fracture through the pedicles of C2.
Bilateral interfacetal dislocation shows 50 percent anterior displacement of one vertebral
body on another, and unilateral facet dislocation is diagnosed when there is a 25 to 33
percent anterior dislocation. Cervical spine fractures are considered unstable when two or
more columns of the spine are affected.
585. The answer is D. (Chapter 264) The combination of the lateral, odontoid, and
anteroposterior views of the cervical spine is about 92 percent sensitive for identifying a
cervical fracture. If the predental space is greater than 3 mm, there is a high likelihood
of cruciform ligament disruption. Prevertebral soft tissue swelling of greater than 5 mm
at C3–4 indicates a possible hematoma with associated fracture. Abrupt changes in angulation of vertebral interspaces greater than 11 degrees or anterior subluxation of greater
than 3 mm is suspicious for cervical injury. Fanning of the spinous processes suggests
possible posterior ligamentous injury. If three views of the cervical spine are unremarkable but clinical suspicion remains high, further studies such as flexion–extension films,
CT, or magnetic resonance imaging are warranted.
586. The answer is E. (Chapter 250) Zone I of the neck lies below the cricoid cartilage,
zone II is between the cricoid cartilage and the angle of the mandible, and zone III is
above the angle of the mandible. Although the consulting surgeon might elect to take any
of these patients to the operating room, the types of absolute indications for surgery are
decreasing. Clear indications for operative repair include the presence of an expanding or
pulsatile hematoma, hemoptysis, blood-tinged saliva, or absent pulses. Horner’s syndrome
(pupillary constriction, eyelid lag, and anhydrosis) indicates sympathetic ganglion injury.
Because of the potential for associated carotid injury, these patients require surgical
exploration. Indications for imaging (angiography, bronchoscopy, esophagoscopy, or CT)
are controversial. Patients with zone I and III penetrating injuries generally undergo
angiography, but CT has become a popular alternative, especially in stable patients.
587. The answer is D. (Chapter 248) In a patient with spinal cord injury, the primary goal
is to prevent further neurologic deterioration. In North America, high-dose steroids are
given to patients within 8 h of injury to reduce swelling around the cord. Hypotension
and bradycardia must be reversed to prevent further cord ischemia.
588. The answer is A. (Chapter 251) Chest trauma carries a significant morbidity and
mortality. On ED arrival, one-fifth of patients with chest trauma are hypotensive or
require intubation. The majority of deaths from chest trauma occur after arrival to the
ED. Mortality for unstable patients is about 20 percent as opposed to 1 percent for
patients with stable vital signs on ED arrival. Fewer than 10 percent of blunt trauma
patients and 15 to 30 percent of penetrating trauma patients are candidates for emergent thoracotomy.
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589. The answer is D. (Chapter 251) Cardiac arrest frequently occurs in the peri-intubation period. Aggressive bagging of the intubated patient increases intrathoracic pressure,
leading to a decrease in venous return. Therefore, decreasing the ventilatory rate and volume can augment cardiac output, especially in the hypovolemic patient. Tension pneumothorax is commonly precipitated by positive pressure ventilation in a patient with a
visceral pleural injury. In this setting, needle decompression of the chest can reverse the
cardiac arrest. Repositioning the endotracheal tube after a right mainstem intubation can
also be life-saving. A patient with hemoptysis is at risk for air embolism. Trendelenburg
and the left lateral decubitus position may temporarily keep the air bubbles in the venous
circulation. If the arrest is secondary to hypovolemia, it is unlikely that a single liter of
crystalloid will lead to return of spontaneous circulation.
590. The answer is C. (Chapter 251) The role for resuscitative thoracotomy in the ED is
limited. Thoracotomy may have a role in selected patients with penetrating injury to the
neck, chest, and extremities and signs of life within 5 min of arrival to the ED. A resuscitative thoracotomy is seldom of benefit for patients with cardiac arrest secondary to
blunt trauma or head injury, or for those without vital signs on the scene. Blunt trauma
patients with pulseless electrical activity on ED arrival have a prognosis of virtually
zero and are poor candidates for resuscitative thoracotomy. It is difficult to assess the
path of the weapon after blunt abdominal trauma, and emergent thoracotomy may be
life-saving. Several therapeutic measures can be accomplished with ED thoracotomy:
(1) evacuation of a pericardial tamponade, (2) direct control of thoracic exsanguination,
(3) open cardiac massage, and (4) cross clamping of the aorta to increase blood flow to
the brain and heart.
591. The answer is A. (Chapter 251) Flail chest occurs when a segment of chest wall does
not have bony continuity with the rest of the rib cage, usually in the setting of multiple rib
fractures. Morbidity is due to hypoxemia associated with the underlying lung injury. If
there is a suspicion for a large lung contusion, prophylactic intubation (before signs of
respiratory distress) can decrease mortality from 69 percent to 7 percent. The initial presentation of flail chest may be subtle due to rib splinting. The injured lung in flail chest is
sensitive to under-resuscitation of shock and to fluid overload. Judicious use of fluids
is required to adequately hydrate the patient without worsening the pulmonary contusion.
592. The answer is B. (Chapter 251) An “occult pneumothorax” is a small pneumothorax
that is seen on CT but not on chest x-ray. Patients with occult pneumothoraces can be
observed without a chest tube unless they need to be intubated. Positive pressure ventilation postintubation carries the risk of converting an occult pneumothorax into a tension
pneumothorax if a thoracostomy is not performed.
593. The answer is B. (Chapter 251) With pneumomediastinum, a crunching sound
known as Hamman’s sign can be heard during systole secondary to mediastinal air surrounding the heart. The diagnosis of pneumomediastinum is most easily confirmed on
CT but can sometimes be made with plain films. Subcutaneous emphysema in the neck
is another suggestive physical finding.
594. The answer is E. (Chapter 251) Beck’s triad consists of distended neck veins,
hypotension, and muffled heart tones. However, even with a large tamponade (200 mL),
heart sounds are usually clear. Tachycardia and tracheal deviation are not components of
the triad. Beck’s triad can be seen with tension pneumothorax, myocardial contusion,
acute mycardial infarction, and systemic air embolism.
595. The answer is A. (Chapter 251) Pericardiocentesis is a temporizing measure until cardiac
surgery is available. The false negative rate in trauma has been reported to be as high as 80
percent. Pericardial blood is difficult to remove because it has clotted. Rapid aspiration of
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high volumes of blood usually indicates that the needle is in the right ventricle. If it is used,
the electrocardiographic (ECG) monitor is always connected to a metal needle.
596. The answer is A. (Chapter 251) In both myocardial rupture and contusion, the most
commonly injured part of the heart is the anterior right ventricle because of its location
immediately below the sternum. Myocardial contusion can be difficult to diagnose, especially in the setting of multisystem trauma. It should be considered in any patient
involved in an MVA with speeds greater than 35 miles per hour, especially if the
patient’s chest strikes the steering wheel.
597. The answer is C. (Chapter 251) The aortic valve is the most commonly injured, followed by laceration of the papillary muscle or chordae tendineae of the mitral valve.
Patients with bioprosthetic valves are more susceptible. The tricuspid valve is rarely
injured. Diagnostic clues for cardiac injury include chest pain, tachycardia, dysrhythmias, heart failure, fractured sternum, widened pericardial silhouette on chest x-ray, and
elevated ST segments.
598. The answer is A. (Chapter 251) A high index of suspicion must be maintained to
diagnose aortic rupture because at least one-third of patients have no external evidence
of thoracic injury on initial examination. All the listed findings can be seen on chest x-ray
after traumatic rupture of the aorta, but widening of the superior mediastinum is the most
frequent abnormality. Mediastinal width is usually greater than 8.0 cm after an aortic
rupture. Subadventitial and periadventitial hematomas, secondary to bleeding from small
mediastinal vessels, are the primary causes of this radiologic finding.
599. The answer is C. (Chapter 251) Upper, not lower, extremity hypertension has been
reported in 31 to 43 percent of cases of traumatic aortic rupture. This finding was initially attributed to compression of the aorta by a periaortic hematoma. Recent evidence
suggests that it may be due to aortic wall stretching and subsequent receptor stimulation.
The systolic murmur is thought to occur as a result of turbulent flow across the injured
area. Hoarseness and voice change are less frequent physical findings.
600. The answer is C. (Chapter 251) Cervical tracheal injuries occur most frequently at
the junction of the cricoid cartilage and the trachea, usually after striking the anterior
neck against the dash of a car. Most lower tracheobronchial injuries occur within 2 cm
of the carina. Lower tracheobronchial injuries are caused by rapid deceleration and
shearing of mobile bronchi from fixed structures. Concurrent esophageal injuries occur
in 25 percent of patients.
601. The answer is C. (Chapter 251) In a previously normal pericardium, 200 mL of blood
will create sufficient intrapericardial pressure to restrict venous filling of the heart and
cause tamponade. Although it may be detected by bedside ultrasound, this amount is too
small to be reliably visible on chest x-ray. Removal of as little as 5 to 10 mL of blood can
be life saving by augmenting venous filling and dramatically improving stroke volume.
602. The answer is B. (Chapter 252) DPL is a diagnostic option for a patient with equivocal physical findings after significant trauma. Both GSW to the mid-abdomen and fluid
on ultrasound with hypotension necessitate urgent laparotomy, and DPL is not necessary
Similarly, stab wounds with peritoneal irritation require laparotomy. Spinal cord injuries
may make physical examination unreliable, and DPL would be one option for evaluation.
Hepatic dysfunction with portal hypertension and severe coagulopathies are considered
relative contraindications to DPL. With increasing availability of bedside ultrasound and
rapid CT scanning, DPL is being used less frequently.
603. The answer is E. (Chapter 254) Most renal injuries can be managed nonoperatively.
Indications for surgery after blunt kidney injury include evidence of continued blood
T RAUMA — A NSWERS
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loss, loss of renal function, and laceration through Gerota’s fascia. Hematuria is common
and usually self-limited. Pain is unrelated to the necessity for surgery.
604. The answer is C. (Chapter 252) Aspiration of more than 5 mL of gross blood upon
catheter entry is considered positive. In the lavage fluid, commonly accepted threshold
values are RBC 100,000/L, white blood cell (WBC) count 500, or amylase 200. In addition, bile, vegetable matter, or bacteria seen on microscopic examination is
considered positive. In many centers, ultrasound is replacing DPL as a less invasive,
faster bedside study.
605. The answer is E. (Chapter 251) Most cases of diaphragmatic injury do not involve
herniation and are difficult to diagnose. The only finding on chest x-ray may be a blurred
diaphragm or an effusion, sometimes difficult to detect on a portable, supine film. Diagnosis is frequently delayed; most injuries occur on the left side. CT and DPL frequently
provide evidence to suggest or confirm the presence of a ruptured diaphragm.
606. The answer is B. (Chapter 252) The spleen is the most commonly injured solid
organ after blunt trauma. Clinical findings include Kehr’s sign (left shoulder pain), left
upper quadrant abdominal tenderness, hypotension, and tachycardia. Solid abdominal
organ injury causes morbidity and mortality primarily as a result of hemorrhage. Lung
injury with tension pneumothorax is another possibility in this patient, but is less likely
than splenic injury.
607. The answer is E. (Chapter 254) Penile rupture is the traumatic rupture of the corpus
cavernosum. It occurs during an erection but is associated with immediate detumescence.
The urethra may also be torn. Management includes immediate surgical evacuation of
the blood clot and repair of the torn tunica albuginea.
608. The answer is B. (Chapter 254) In one case series, 67 percent of all GU injuries were
to the kidney. The bladder is the second most commonly injured structure. Kidney injuries
include contusions, lacerations, ruptures, pedicle injuries, and renal pelvis ruptures.
609. The answer is A. (Chapter 254) Renal pedicle injuries include lacerations and
thrombosis of the renal artery and vein. They commonly occur as a result of high-velocity deceleration forces and are frequently associated with multiple injuries. If the renal
artery is occluded or divided, CT demonstrates a non-enhanced kidney with a faint capsular enhancement, known as the rim sign. Surgical repair should occur within 12 h to
maximize the likelihood of kidney viability.
610. The answer is B. (Chapter 254) The bladder is more intraabdominal in children and is
better protected within the bony pelvis in adults. Blunt injuries to the bladder are more frequent than penetrating injuries and are commonly associated with pelvic fractures. Bladder
ruptures are repaired surgically if intraperitoneal and managed conservatively with bladder
drainage if extraperitoneal. Contusions can usually be managed by simple observation.
611. The answer is E. (Chapter 265) Retroperitoneal bleeding can be massive and lifethreatening after a pelvic fracture. Up to 4 L of blood can be held in the retroperitoneal
space. Resuscitation begins with crystalloid fluid boluses, followed by blood products.
The external fixator device is useful, and angiography with embolization can be life-saving
in the setting of ongoing bleeding. Laparotomy is used only as a last resort because
opening the abdominal cavity can relieve a tamponade and cause fatal hemorrhage.
612. The answer is B. (Chapters 252, 254) A mesenteric tear would cause sufficient
bleeding to result in a positive DPL. Subcapsular splenic injuries do not bleed into the
peritoneal cavity. The duodenum and kidney are in the retroperitoneum, and injuries to
these structures usually do not cause the DPL to be positive.
208
T RAUMA — A NSWERS
613. The answer is E. (Chapter 254) Before administering intravenous contrast, a Foley
catheter should be inserted. However, blood at the meatus indicates a urethral injury, and
placement of a urinary catheter can convert a partial urethral tear into a complete disruption. A retrograde urethrogram should be performed first, and, if positive, a suprapubic catheter should be inserted for bladder drainage.
614. The answer is D. (Chapter 256) Clinical experience has shown that missile track
excision is not necessary because wound necrosis is not a problem. Hollow and softpoint bullets used in civilian firearms often damage more tissue than military bullets.
Bullets almost never tumble in the air because they spiral out of the firearm barrel, but
they commonly tumble in tissue. Caliber measures the bullet’s diameter. When considering wounding potential, other important characteristics are length, jacket, cartridge case,
shape, construction, and composition.
615. The answer is A. (Chapter 258) Active countermeasures require the conscious cooperation of the individual to be protected. Passive countermeasures exert their protective
effects automatically. The motorcyclist must wear a helmet, whereas all the other measures are permanent parts of the building, automobile, or device. Passive countermeasures
are usually more effective in reducing injury because they are more likely to be used.
616. The answer is E. (Chapter 258) Education can be valuable but is often shown to be
ineffective when evaluated critically. Mandatory-use laws (e.g., seat belt, motorcyclist
helmet) are extremely effective in decreasing morbidity and mortality. States that have
repealed helmet laws have seen up to a 40 percent increase in fatality rates. Vehicle engineering has resulted in a substantial decrease in death rates, whereas driver education has
been largely ineffective. Mandatory-use laws are very difficult to enact (and subject to
repeal), usually with the argument that they would compromise “personal freedom.”
617. The answer is A. (Chapter 259) The radial nerve is the one most commonly injured
after a mid-shaft humerus fracture. These fractures are most often seen in active adults
rather than in the elderly, in whom proximal humerus fractures are more likely. Radial
nerve injuries are manifested by wrist drop (weakness on wrist extension) and decreased
sensation to the dorsum of the first web space. Other complications include injuries to
the brachial artery or vein and to the median or ulnar nerves.
618. The answer is D. (Chapter 259) Scapular fractures occur most commonly in men
age 25 to 40 years. Because the scapula is mobile, the most common mechanism of
injury is a direct blow. Considerable force is required to fracture the scapula. As a result,
80 percent of such fractures are associated with injuries to the chest wall and lungs.
Treatment is usually conservative, and open repair is rarely indicated.
619. The answer is A. (Chapters 251, 252) The spleen is the most commonly injured
organ after blunt trauma, and the liver in penetrating trauma. Small and large intestines
are also frequently injured. Subcapsular hematomas, commonly seen with stab wounds,
may be associated with a negative DPL.
620. The answer is A. (Chapter 252) Pancreatic injury is more common with penetrating
trauma. It may also occur as a result of a crushing injury that divides the pancreas over
the vertebral column. Examples include steering-wheel or bicycle-handlebar injuries.
Unrecognized, this injury has considerable morbidity and mortality. DPL is usually negative, and the serum amylase is usually normal.
621. The answer is D. (Chapters 252, 253) Indications for radiologic evaluation have
changed over the last 10 years. Whereas formerly any degree of hematuria necessitated
evaluation, it is now recognized that the yield for significant urologic injury is extremely
low unless the patient has gross hematuria, microscopic hematuria with shock, or a pene-
T RAUMA — A NSWERS
209
trating renal injury. Abdominal CT may need to be performed to assess for other injuries
but is not indicated strictly on the basis of microscopic hematuria. Indications for the
imaging of pediatric patients are more liberal.
622. The answer is D. (Chapters 252, 254) All of the listed structures except the ureters are
commonly injured during blunt abdominal trauma. Although the ureter is occasionally
injured during penetrating trauma, ureteral injuries are the rarest of all genitourinary injuries from external trauma. During blunt trauma, injury can occur at the ureteropelvic
junction as a result of hyperextension of the spine, with the distal ureter fixed at the bladder.
623. The answer is D. (Chapter 266) Posterior dislocation (tibia posterior to the femur)
has an approximately 50 percent likelihood of associated popliteal artery injury. In addition, the patient must be evaluated for peroneal nerve, ligamentous, and meniscal
injuries. Spontaneous reduction of a posterior knee dislocation before evaluation is common. Therefore, a high index of suspicion must be maintained in any patient with a suggestive mechanism of injury and a grossly unstable joint. If not already reduced, early
reduction of the dislocation is essential. Orthopedic and sometimes vascular surgery consultation are indicated.
624. The answer is A. (Chapter 269) The tarsal–metatarsal joint is referred to as Lisfranc
joint. Injuries to this joint are uncommon and result from relatively severe trauma, such
as motor vehicle crashes. The keystone of this joint is the second metatarsal, and a fracture at the base of the second metatarsal is almost diagnostic of a disrupted joint. A
Lisfranc fracture requires prompt orthopedic consultation.
625. The answer is C. (Chapter 268) Achilles tendon rupture most commonly occurs in
middle-aged men, more often on the left side, and usually during forceful dorsiflexion of
the ankle. Rupture can also occur from a direct blow or secondary to a laceration. The
calf squeeze test (Thompson’s test) is almost always positive. Active plantar flexion may
be maintained, although it is weaker than on the contralateral ankle. Definitive treatment
may be conservative (with casting) or operative. Tendon rupture is commonly misdiagnosed as ankle sprain.
626. The answer is D. (Chapter 270) Compartment syndrome occurs when injured muscle
within a fascial sheath swells and compresses blood vessels and nerves within the compartment. The most common sites are the four compartments in the leg: peroneal, anterior,
deep and superficial posterior. Of these, the anterior compartment is the most often
affected, usually secondary to a tibial fracture. Compartment syndromes can also occur in
the volar and dorsal compartments of the forearm and the interosseous muscles of the
hand. Compartment pressures must be measured if the diagnosis is suspected. Pressures
over 30 mm Hg can cause ischemia and are an indication for emergency fasciotomy.
Notes
Copyright 2000 The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. Click Here for Terms of Use.
‫‪1‬‬
‫ﻛﺪ‪٠٠٧ :‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
‫ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪﻛﻨﻨﺪﻩ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ‬
‫ﻫﻤﮕﺎﻡ ﺑﺎ ﺗﻮﺳﻌﻪ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﻭ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺟﻬﺎﻥ ﻣﻌﺎﺻﺮ ﻭ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺭﻭﺯﺍﻓﺰﻭﻥ ﻛﺎﻣﭙﻴﻮﺗﺮ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻴﻦ ﺟﻮﺍﻣﻊ ﺑﺸﺮﻱ ﺧﺼﻮﺻ ًﹰﺎ ﺭﺷﺘﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻋﻠﻮﻡ ﻭ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺑﻬﻴﻨﻪ ﺍﺯ ﺁﺧﺮﻳﻦ ﻳﺎﻓﺘﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺩﻧﻴﺎ ﻭ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻳﺎﻓﺘﻪﻫـﺎ ﺩﺭ ﻗﺎﻟـﺐ ﻧـﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭﻫـﺎﻱ‬
‫ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ )‪ VHS ، DVD ، VCD ، ebook‬ﻭ ‪ (...‬ﻣﺎ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺮ ﺁﻥ ﺩﺍﺷﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺎ ﮔﺮﺩﺁﻭﺭﻱ ﻭ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﺔ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻳﺎﻓﺘﻪﻫﺎ ﮔﺎﻣﻲ ﻛﻮﭼﻚ ﺩﺭ ﺭﺍﻩ ﺍﺭﺗﻘﺎﺀ ﺳﻄﺢ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﺭﺷﺘﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻛﺸﻮﺭ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺳﻤﻌﻲ ﻭ ﺑﺼﺮﻱ ﺑﺮﺩﺍﺭﻳﻢ‪ .‬ﺍﻣﻴﺪ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻣﺸﻮﻕ ﻣﺎ‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺭﺍﻩ ﺑﺎﺷﻴﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﻟﺬﺍ ﻋﻼﻗﻤﻨﺪﺍﻥ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻧﻨﺪ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺩﺭﻳﺎﻓﺖ ﻫﺮ ﻳﻚ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺤﺼﻮﻻﺕ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪﺷﺪﻩ ﺑﻪ ﺍﺯﺍﺀ ﻫﺮ ‪ CD‬ﻣﺒﻠﻎ ‪ ٥٠٠٠‬ﺗﻮﻣﺎﻥ ﺑﻪ ﺣﺴﺎﺏ ﺟﺎﺭﻱ ‪ ١٣٢٤٣٦‬ﺑﺎﻧﻚ ﺭﻓﺎﻩ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮﺍﻥ ﺷﻌﺒﻪ ﻣﻴﺪﺍﻥ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ ﻛﺪ ﺷﻌﺒﻪ ‪ ١١٢‬ﺑﻪ ﻧﺎﻡ ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ﻭﺍﺭﻳﺰ ﻭ ﭘـﺲ‬
‫ﺍﺯ ﻓﺎﻛﺲ ﻓﻴﺶ ﻓﻮﻕ ﺑﻪ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ ﺩﻗﻴﻖ ﻧﺴﺒﺖ ﺑﻪ ﺧﺮﻳﺪ ﺍﻗﻼﻡ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻳﺎﻓﺖ ﻛﺎﻻﻱ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻧﻈﺮ ﺧﻮﺩ ﺍﻗﺪﺍﻡ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﻨﺪ‪ .‬ﻻﺯﻡ ﺑﻪ ﺫﻛﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻓﻘﻂ ﺑﻪ ﺳﻔﺎﺭﺷﺎﺗﻲ ﻛﻪ ﻭﺟﻪ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺳﻔﺎﺭﺵ ﺑﻪ ﺣﺴﺎﺏ ﻓﻮﻕ ﺫﻛﺮ ﻭﺍﺭﻳﺰ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺗﺮﺗﻴﺐ ﺍﺛﺮ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺧﻮﺍﻫﺪ ﺷﺪ‪ ،‬ﻟـﺬﺍ‬
‫ﺧﻮﺍﻫﺸﻤﻨﺪ ﺍﺳﺖ ﺍﺯ ﻭﺍﺭﻳﺰ ﻭﺟﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻫﺮ ﮔﻮﻧﻪ ﺣﺴﺎﺏ ﺩﻳﮕﺮﻱ ﺍﻛﻴﺪﺍ ﺧﻮﺩﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﻓﺮﻣﺎﺋﻴﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﻻﺯﻡ ﺑﻪ ﺫﻛﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ ﺩﺭ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻧﻴﺎﺯ ﺑﻪ ﻫﺮﮔﻮﻧﻪ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺗﻜﻤﻴﻠﻲ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻧﻴﺪ ﺑﻪ ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﻣﺮﺍﺟﻌﻪ ﻭ ﻳﺎ ﺑﺎ ﺗﻠﻔﻦ ‪ ٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦‬ﺗﻤﺎﺱ ﺣﺎﺻﻞ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﻴﺪ‪.‬‬
‫‪ -١‬ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬
‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ‪CD‬‬
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
‫)‪3D Conformal Radiation Therapy A multimedia introduction to methods and techniques (Springer‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪1.1‬‬
‫)‪2.1 Abdominal and pelvic Ultrasound with CT and MR correlation (R. Brooke Jeffrey, Jr., M.D.‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻳﻚ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻗﻮﻱ ﺑﻤﻨﻈﻮﺭ ‪ Self teaching‬ﻭ ‪ Self evaluation‬ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺﻫﺎﻱ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺷﻜﻢ ﻭ ﻟﮕﻦ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻛﻨﺎﺭ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻴﻚ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﻫﺮ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ‪ ،‬ﺍﺯ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻫﻤﺰﻣﺎﻥ ‪ CT Scan‬ﻭ ‪ MRI‬ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻓﻬﻢ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻙ ﺑﻬﺘـﺮ ﻣﻄﺎﻟـﺐ ﺍﺳـﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ‬
‫ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ ، CD‬ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ‪ Case‬ﻣﻄﺮﺡ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺿﻤﻦ ﺑﻴﺎﻥ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺣﺎﻝ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ‪ ،‬ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ )ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻟﺰﻭﻡ ‪ MRI‬ﻭ ‪ (CT Scan‬ﺑﻪ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﮔﺬﺍﺷﺘﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺑﺎ ‪ Click‬ﺁﺭﺍﻳﺔ ‪ ،Text‬ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ ﺗﺌﻮﺭﻱ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﻫﺮ ‪ Case‬ﺑﺎ ﺑﻴﺎﻧﻲ ﺳـﺎﺩﻩ ﻭ‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﻋﻴﻦ ﺣﺎﻝ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ‪ ،‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﺧﺘﻴﺎﺭ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﻣﻲﮔﻴﺮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ‪Case‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺑﺮ ﺣﺴﺐ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ ﺑﻪ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﺟﺪﻭﻝ ﺫﻳﻞ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪:‬‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ‪Case‬‬
‫‪٧٨‬‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﮔﻮﺍﺭﺷﻲ‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ‪Case‬‬
‫‪٣٥‬‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﻭ ﻏﺪﻩ ﺁﺩﺭﻧﺎﻝ‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ‪Case‬‬
‫‪٣٧‬‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﭘﺎﻧﻜﺮﺍﺱ‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ‪Case‬‬
‫‪١٢‬‬
‫‪٧‬‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﻃﺤﺎﻝ‬
‫ﺭﺗﺮﻭﭘﺮﻳﺘﻮﺋﻦ‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ‪Case‬‬
‫‪٤٠‬‬
‫‪٤٦‬‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﻛﻴﺴﺔ ﺻﻔﺮﺍ ﻭﻣﺠﺎﺭﻱ ﺻﻔﺮﺍﻭﻱ‬
‫ﻟﮕﻦ‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ‪Case‬‬
‫‪٦٧‬‬
‫‪١٠‬‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﻛﺒﺪ‬
‫ﺣﺎﻣﻠﮕﻲ‬
‫)‪ACR - Chest (Learning file) (American college of Radiology‬‬
‫‪2001‬‬
‫‪3.1‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪:‬‬
‫‪4- Airway Disease‬‬
‫‪8-Pediatric Chest‬‬
‫‪12- Immunocompromised Host‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫‪3- Vascular Disease‬‬
‫‪7- Chest Wall and Diaphragm‬‬
‫‪11- Pulmonary Infection‬‬
‫‪2- Cardiac Disease‬‬
‫‪6- Pleural Disease‬‬
‫‪10- Neoplasma and Tumors‬‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫‪1- chest Trauma‬‬
‫‪5- Mediastinal Masses‬‬
‫‪9- Normal Disease‬‬
‫‪13- Diffuse Disease‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
2
ACR - Gastrointestinal (Learning file) (American college of Radiology) (Igor Laufer, M.D., James M. Messmer, M.D.)
(Learning file) (American college of Radiology)
5.1 ACR - Genitourinary
‫( ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺩﺭﺻﻮﺭﺕ‬... ‫ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﻭ‬، CT Scan ،‫ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌﺎﺕ ﺑﺎ ﻣﻮﺍﺩ ﺣﺎﺟﺐ‬،‫ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻴﻚ )ﻋﻜﺲﻫﺎﻱ ﺳﺎﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﺗﺎﺭﻳﺨﭽﻪ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ‬Case ‫ ﻫﺮ‬.‫ ﻣﻄﺮﺡ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩﺍﻧﺪ‬Case ‫ ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩﻱ‬،‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ﻣﺘﻌﺪﺩﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺧﺼﻮﺹ ﺍﻭﺭﻭﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮﻓﺼﻞ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
.‫ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻧﻬﺎﻳﻲ ﻭ ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺕ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﺍﺿﺎﻓﻪ ﻣﺮﺗﺒﻂ ﺑﺎ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺑﺎ ﺍﻃﻼﻉ ﺷﺪ‬، ‫ ﺑﺎ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺁﺭﺍﻳﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﺍﺯ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻓﺘﺮﺍﻗﻲ‬،‫ ﺩﺭﻧﻬﺎﻳﺖ‬.‫ ﻣﻄﻠﻊ ﮔﺮﺩﺩ‬Finding ‫ ﻧﻤﻮﺩﻥ ﺑﺮﺭﻭﻱ ﺁﻳﻜﻮﻥ‬Click ‫ ﺑﺎ‬Imaging ‫ ﻓﺮﺩ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻧﺪ ﺍﺯ ﻳﺎﻓﺘﻪﻫﺎﻱ‬،‫ﻧﻴﺎﺯ‬
:‫ ﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻄﺮﺡ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺑﺮ ﺣﺴﺐ ﻫﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺑﻪ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬Case ‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ‬
4.1
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ‬
‫ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﺑﺎﻟﻐﻴﻦ‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ‬
Case
١١٨
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
Case
‫ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ‬
‫ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﺍﻃﻔﺎﻝ‬
٢٦
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ‬
‫ﺣﺎﻟﺐ‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ‬
Case
١٧
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
Case
‫ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ‬
‫ﮊﻧﻴﻜﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻚ‬
‫ﻏﺪﺩ‬
‫ﺁﺩﺭﻧﺎﻝ‬
١٥
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
Case
Case
‫ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ‬
‫ﺍﺩﺭﺍﺭﻱ‬
‫ﺗﺤﺘﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ﺍﻃﻔﺎﻝ‬
١١
١٨
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
Case
‫ﺭﺗﺮﻭﭘﺮﻳﺘﻮﺋﻦ‬
‫ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ‬
‫ﻣﺜﺎﻧﻪ‬
١٠
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ‬
Case
١٧
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ‬
Case
‫ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ‬
‫ﭘﺮﻭﺳﺘﺎﺕ‬
١٠
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ‬
‫ﺗﻨﺎﺳﻠﻲ‬
‫ﺧﺎﺭﺟﻲ ﻣﺬﻛﺮ‬
1998
1998
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ‬
Case
١٦
6.1
ACR - Head & Neck (Learning file) (American college of Radiology)
1998
7.1
ACR - Neuroradiology (Learning file) (American college of Radiology)
1998
‫ــــــ‬
ACR - Nuclear medicine (Learning file) (American college of Radiology) (Paul Shreve, M.D. and James Corbett, M.D.)
9.1 ACR - Pediatric (Learning file) (American college of Radiology) (Beverly P. Wood, M.D., David C. Kushner, M.D.)
:‫ ﻣﺮﺗﺒﻂ ﺑﺎ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺍﻃﻔﺎﻝ ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬Teaching File ‫ ﻓﻮﻕ ﻳﻚ‬CD
8.1
‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ‬
Case ‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ‬
Chest
٢٠٢
٣١
‫ﺳﺮ ﻭ ﮔﺮﺩﻥ‬
‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ‬
‫ﻗﻠﺐ‬
‫ﻧﻮﺭﻭﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬
Case ‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ‬
٧٨
٩٠
‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ‬
‫ﮔﻮﺍﺭﺵ‬
Case ‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ‬
Skeletal
١٦٣
٩٧
‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ‬
‫ ﭘﺎﻧﻜﺮﺍﺱ‬،‫ ﻃﺤﺎﻝ‬،‫ﻛﺒﺪ‬
Case ‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ‬
‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ‬
Case ‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ‬
٧١
Genitourimary
١٠٩
10.1 ACR - Skeletal (B.J Manaster, M.D., Ph.D.) (Learning file)
1. Tumolrs
2. Arthritis
3. Trauma
4. Metabolic Congeaital
11.1 ACR
‫ــــــ‬
- Ultrasound (Learning file) (American college of Radiology)
1998
‫ــــــ‬
12.1 Anatomy and MRI of the JOINTS (A Multiplanar Atlas) (William D. Middleton, Thomas L. Lawson)
(Department of Radiology Medical College of Wisconsin Milwaukee, Wisconsin)
The Tmporomandibular
The Shoulder
The Wrist
The Finger
The Vertebral Column
The Hip
The Knee
The Ankle
TM
Brainiac!
Medical Multimedia Systems Presents (Version 1.52) (An interactive digital atlas designed to assist in learning human neuroanatomy)
Breast
Implant
Imaging (SALEKAN E-BOOK) (MICHAEL S. MIDDLETON, PH,D., M.D, MICHAEL P.MCNAMARA JR., M.D.)
13.1
9.9
(Serial # 316.34427)
:‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ﺗﺒﺪﻳﻞ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬
A History and Overview of Breast Augmentation and Implant Imaging
Basic Principles of Breast Implant Imaging
Classification of Breast Implants
Evaluation of Silicone Fluid Injecitons
1998
Clinical Presentation
Principles of Imaging Breast Implant Rupture and Soft-Tissue Silicone
Practical Consideration in the Evaluaion of Implant Integrity
Breast Cancer Imaging
14.1 Carotid Duplex Ultrasonography Extracranial and Intracranial
2000
2003
Methods of Imaging
Artifacts of MR and Ultrasound Imaging of Breast Implants and Soft-Tissue Silicone
Evaluation of Soft-Tissue Silicone from Ruptured Implants
Surgical and Other Considerations
(Michael Jaff DO, Serge Kownator MD, Alain Voorons Audlovlsuel)
‫ــــــ‬
‫ ﺣﻠﻘﺔ ﻭﻳﻠﻴﺲ ﺗﻨﻪ ﺑﺮﺍﻛﻴﻮﺳﻔﺎﻟﻴﻚ ﻭ ﻗﻮﺱ ﺁﺋﻮﺭﺕ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻭ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﺍﺯ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺛﺎﺑﺖ ﻭ ﻣﺘﺤﺮﻙ ﮔﻮﻳـﺎ )ﺑـﻪ ﺯﺑـﺎﻥ ﺍﻧﮕﻠﻴﺴـﻲ( ﺟﻬـﺖ ﻧﻤـﺎﻳﺶ ﺗﻜﻨﻴـﻚﻫـﺎﻱ‬،‫ ﻭﺭﺗﺒﺮﺍﻝ‬،‫ ﺳﺎﺏ ﻛﻼﻭﻳﻦ‬،‫ ﻛﻠﻴﺎﺕ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ ﺷﺮﻳﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﺎﺭﻭﺗﻴﺪ‬، CD ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
:‫ ﺭﺋﻮﺱ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺑﺪﻳﻦ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬،‫ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﻓﻮﻕ ﻭ ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺗﻔﺴﻴﺮ ﻧﺘﺎﻳﺞ ﺣﺎﺻﻞ ﺍﺯ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ ﺷﺮﻳﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﻓﻮﻕ ﻭ ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺗﻔﺴﻴﺮ ﻧﺘﺎﻳﺞ ﺣﺎﺻﻞ ﺍﺯ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ ﺷﺮﻳﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﻓﻮﻕﺍﻟﺬﻛﺮ‬
‫ﺁﺷﻨﺎﻳﻲ ﺑﺎ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ‬
‫ﺷﺮﻳﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﺳﺎﺏ ﻛﻼﻭﻳﻦ‬
‫ﺷﺮﻳﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻳﻨﺘﺮﺍﻛﺮﺍﻧﻴﺎﻝ ﺳﻮﺑﺮﺍﻝ ﻭ ﺣﻠﻘﺔ ﻭﻳﻠﻴﺲ‬
‫ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ‬Setting ‫ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺍﺳﻜﻦﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﻓﻮﻕﺍﻟﺬﻛﺮ ﻭ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ‬
‫ﺷﺮﻳﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﻭﺭﺗﺒﺮﺍﻝ‬
‫ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﻣﺠﺎﻭﺭ‬
‫ﺷﺮﻳﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﺎﺭﻭﺗﻴﺪ ﺍﻛﺴﺘﺮﺍﻛﺮﺍﻧﻴﺎﻝ‬
‫ﻗﻮﺱ ﺁﺋﻮﺭﺕ ﻭ ﺗﻨﺔ ﺑﺮﺍﻛﻴﻮ ﺳﻔﺎﻟﻴﻚ‬
Revaseularization ‫ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ ﭘﺲ ﺍﺯ‬
.‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬Post-Test ‫ ﻭ‬Pre-Test ‫ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻓﺮﺩ ﺍﺯ ﺧﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ‬CD ‫ﺿﻤﻨﹰﺎ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
‫‪3‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪(Pamela T. Johnson, Alfred B. Kurtz‬‬
‫‪WITH CROSS-REFERENCES TO THE REQUISITES SERIES‬‬
‫‪15.1 CASE REVIEW Obstetric and Gynecologic Ultrasound‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﻣﺤﺘﻮﻱ ‪ Case ١٢٧‬ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺯﻧﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺯﺍﻳﻤﺎﻥ )ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﭘﺮﺳﺶ ﻭ ﭘﺎﺳﺦ( ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺕ ﻭ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﻓﻬﻢ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺﻫﺎﻱ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻴﻚ ‪ Gynecology‬ﻭ ‪ Obstetric‬ﺑﺴﻴﺎﺭ ﻣﻔﻴﺪ ﺧﻮﺍﻫﺪ ﺑﻮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪16.1 CD Roentgen (Michael McDermott, M.D., Thorsten Krebs, M.D.) (Williams & Wilkins‬‬
‫‪2000‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪17.1 Cerebral and Spinal Computerized Tomography‬‬
‫)‪18.1 Cerebral MR Perfusion Imaging CD-ROM to complement the book (A. Gregory Sorensen, Peter Reimer) (Thieme‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﺔ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﺑﺮﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﭘﺮﻓﻮﺯﻳﻮﻥ ﻣﻐﺰﻱ ﺑﻮﺳﻴﻠﺔ ‪ MRI‬ﺑﻪ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﻭ ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﭘﺮﺩﺍﺧﺘﻪ ﻭ ﺑﺎ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺛﺎﺑﺖ ﻭ ﻣﺘﺤﺮﺕ ﺑﻪ ﺷﺮﺡ ﻣﻔﺎﻫﻴﻢ ﻣﺮﺗﺒﻂ ﺑﺎ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺭﻭﺵ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ ﻣﻲﭘﺮﺩﺍﺯﺩ‪.‬‬
‫‪19.1 CHEST X-RAY INTERPRETATION‬‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫‪ CD‬ﺣﺎﺿﺮ ﻳﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻬﺘﺮﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪﻫﺎ )ﭼﻪ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﭼﻪ ‪ (CD‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺗﻔﺴﻴﺮ ‪ CXR‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪ ٣‬ﺑﺨﺶ ‪ Clinic -٣ seminar -٢ Library -١‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﺑﺨﺶ ﻋﻜﺲ ﺳﺎﻟﻢ ﺭﻳﻪ ﻫﻤـﺮﺍﻩ ﺑـﺎ ﺗﻮﺿـﻴﺤﺎﺕ ﻭ‬
‫ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺍﻓﺘﺮﺍﻗﻲ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ ﻭ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻓﻬﻢ ﻣﻄﻠﺐ ﻓﻴﻠﻢﻫﺎﻱ ‪ ٣‬ﺑﻌﺪﻱ ‪ animatory‬ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺍﻭﻝ‪ Library :‬ﻳﺎ ﻛﺘﺎﺑﺨﺎﻧﻪ ‪:‬‬
‫ﺍﻟﻒ( ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎ ﺑﻪ ﺗﺮﺗﻴﺐ ﺣﺮﻭﻑ ﺍﻟﻔﺒﺎ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ‪ CXR‬ﻭ ﻣﺘﻦ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﺁﻥ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﻭ ﺗﻔﺴﻴﺮ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﺏ‪ :‬ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﻳﻚ ﻋﻜﺲ ﺭﻳﻪ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺍﻓﺘﺮﺍﻗﻲ ﺁﻥ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
‫ﺝ‪ : Sings, clue :‬ﻋﻼﺋﻢ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻚ ﺗﻌﺮﻳﻒ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ‪ CXR‬ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻣﺎﻧﻨﺪ‪(…,westermark Sing, Sign) :‬‬
‫ﺩ‪ : Anatomy World :‬ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻗﻔﺴﻪ ﺳﻴﻨﻪ ﺑﺎ ﻣﻘﺎﻃﻊ ﻃﻮﻟﻲ ﻭ ﻋﺮﺿﻲ ﻭ ﻫﻮﺭﻳﺰﻧﺘﺎﻝ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ‪ 3D‬ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﻫ‪ :‬ﺩﻳﻜﺸﻨﺮﻱ‪ :‬ﺗﻌﺎﺭﻳﻒ ﻋﻼﺋﻢ ﻭ ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﻭ‪ :CME Quiz :‬ﻋﻜﺲ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﻭ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺣﺎﻝ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺳﭙﺲ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﻳﺎﻓﺘﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺭﺍ ﻣﺸﺨﺺ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺑﺨﺶ ﺩﻭﻡ ﻳﺎ ‪ :Seminar‬ﺑﻪ ‪ ٥‬ﺑﺨﺶ‪:‬‬
‫‪ -٢ Soft tissue -١‬ﺍﺳﺘﺨﻮﺍﻧﻬﺎ ‪ -٣‬ﭘﻠﻮﺭﻭﺩﻳﺎﻓﺮﺍﮔﻢ ‪ -٤‬ﺭﻳﻪ ﻭ ‪ -٥‬ﻣﺪﻳﺸﺎﻥ ﺗﻘﺴﻴﻢ ﺷﺪﻩ‪.‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﻋﻜﺴﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺭﻳﻪ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺷﺨﺺ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﻣﺤﻞ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﻪ ﻭ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺭﺍ ﻣﺸﺨﺺ ﺳﺎﺯﺩ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺭﻳﻪ ﺧﻮﺩ ﺑﻪ ‪ ٤‬ﺑﺨﺶ ‪ Search‬ﻭ ‪ Localize‬ﻭ ‪ describe‬ﻭ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺍﻓﺘﺮﺍﻗﻲ ﺗﻘﺴﻴﻢ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪ : Search‬ﻋﻜﺲ ﺭﻳﻪ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﻣﺤﻞ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﻪ ﺭﺍ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﻫﺪ ) ﺑﺎ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻮﺱ(‬
‫‪ :Localize‬ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﻋﻼﻣﺖ ﻳﺎ ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻪ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺩﺭ ‪ CXR‬ﺷﺮﺡ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﻭ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﻣﺤﻞ ﺁﻧﺮﺍ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﻫﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﻼ ﺗﻮﺩﻩﺍﻱ ﺩﺭ ‪ CXR‬ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﺑﺘﻮﺍﻧﺪ ﺗﻌﻴﻴﻦ ﻛﻨﺪ ﺧﻮﺵ ﺧﻴﻢ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻳﺎ ﺑﺪ ﺧﻴﻢ‪.‬‬
‫‪ :Describe‬ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ‪ CXR‬ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻴﻦ ‪ ٢‬ﮔﺰﻳﻨﻪ ﻳﻜﻲ ﺭﺍ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺪ ﻣﺜ ﹰ‬
‫‪ CXR :Differential diagnosis‬ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﻭﺳﭙﺲ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎ‪pattern ،‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺗﺴﺖ ﭼﻨﺪ ﺟﻮﺍﺑﻲ ﺁﻭﺭﺩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﺑﺨﺶ ﺳﻮﻡ ‪ :Clinic‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻛﻤﻚ ﺑﻪ ﺗﻘﺴﻴﻢ ﻗﺪﻡ ﺑﻪ ﻗﺪﻡ ﻭ ﻳﺎ ﻧﻮﺷﺘﻦ ﻳﻚ ﺗﻔﺴﻴﺮ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺑﻪ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺣﺎﻝ‪ ،‬ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﻪ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻜﻲ ﻭ ‪ CXR‬ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻟﺰﻭﻡ ‪ CT/MRI‬ﺑﺮﻭﻧﻜﻮﺳﻜﻮﻳﻲ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻮﭘﺴﻲ ﻭ ﻧﻮﻛﺌﺎﺭﺩﺍﺳﻜﻦ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﻓﻮﺭﻳﺖ ﺗﻌﻴﻴﻦ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ‪ ← Softtissue‬ﺍﺳﺘﺨﻮﺍﻥ ← ﭘﻠﻮﺭﻭﺩﻳﺎﻓﺮﺍﮔﻢ ← ﺭﻳﻪ ← ﻣﺪﻳﺴﺘﺎﻥ ← ﻧﺎﻑ ﺭﻳﻪ ﻋﻜﺲ ﺭﺍ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌﻪ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺪ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻛﻤﻚ ﺑﻪ ﺗﻔﺴﻴﺮ‪ ،‬ﺧﻮﺩ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺗﻌﻴﻴﻦ ﺧﺼﻮﺻﻴﺎﺕ ﻣﻨﻄﻘﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻛـﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﺩﺭ ﺗﻔﺴـﻴﺮ‬
‫ﻛﻤﻚ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﺪ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻣﺜﺎﻝ‪ :‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ‪ ...... Softtissue‬ﺑﺎﻓﺖ ﻧﺮﻡ ﺟﺪﺍﺭ ﻗﻔﺴﻪ ﺳﻴﻨﻪ ﺍﻓﺰﺍﻳﺶ‪ ،‬ﻛﺎﻫﺶ‪ ،‬ﻧﺮﻣﺎﻝ ﻭ ﻛﻠﻴﺴﻔﻴﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﻭ ﺍﺑﻨﺮﻣﺎﻝ ‪ air‬ﻭ ‪ ....‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫)‪(Mosby‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪20.1 Comprehensive Reviw of Radiography‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺑﻤﻨﻈﻮﺭ ﺧﻮﺩﺁﺯﻣﺎﻳﻲ )‪ (Self evaluation‬ﺍﻓﺮﺍﺩ ﻣﺮﺗﺒﻂ ﺑﺎ ﺣﺮﻓﺔ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪:‬‬
‫ﺗﻬﻴﻪ ﻭ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻛﺎﺭﻛﺮﺩ ﻭ ﻧﮕﻬﺪﺍﺭﻱ ﺍﺯ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺣﻔﺎﻇﺖ ﺍﺯ ﺍﺷﻌﻪ ﻧﮕﻬﺪﺍﺭﻱ ﻭ ﻣﺪﻳﺮﻳﺖ ﺑﺮﺧﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺎ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻴﻚ‬
‫ﭘﺲ ﺍﺯ ﻧﺼﺐ ‪ CD‬ﻓﻮﻕ‪ ،‬ﺩﺭ ﺷﺮﻭﻉ‪ ،‬ﺷﺨﺺ ﺑﺎﻳﺴﺘﻲ ﻳﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﭘﻨﺞﮔﺎﻧﻪ ﻓﻮﻕ ﺭﺍ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺧﻮﺩﺁﺯﻣﺎﻳﻲ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺪ ﻭ ﺑﻪ ﺩﻧﺒﺎﻝ ﺁﻥ‪ ،‬ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺕ ﻫﺮ ﻣﺒﺤﺚ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﭼﻨﺪﮔﺰﻳﻨﻪﺍﻱ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺁﺯﻣﻮﻥ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﺧﻮﺍﻫﻨﺪ ﮔﺮﻓﺖ ﻭ ﺑﻪ ﺩﻧﺒﺎﻝ ﻫﺮ ﭘﺎﺳﺦ‪ ،‬ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺕ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺟﻬـﺖ‬
‫ﺍﺭﺗﻘﺎﺀ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﻓﺮﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻪ ﻭﻱ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺧﻮﺍﻫﺪ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
‫‪4‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪21.1 Computed Body Tomography with MRI Correlation (Joseph K. T. Lee, Stuart S. Sagel, Robert J. Stanley, Jay P. Heiken) (3rd Edition) (LIPPINCOTT WILLIAMS & WILKINS‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪2000‬‬
‫)‪(Salekan E-Book‬‬
‫)‪(Matthias Hofer) (Thieme‬‬
‫‪22.1 CT Teaching Manual‬‬
‫)‪23.1 Diagnostic Imaging Expert (A CD-ROM Reference & Review) (Ralph Weissleder, Jack Witterberg, Mark J. Rieumont, Genevieve Bennett‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻳﻚ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻭ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﺑﺮﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﻣﺤﺴﻮﺏ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ‪ ،‬ﺑﻪ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻭ ‪ Imaging‬ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﻣﻲﭘﺮﺩﺍﺯﺩ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﺁﺭﺍﻳﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﺫﻳﻞ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪:‬‬
‫‪1- Chest‬‬
‫‪2- Breast‬‬
‫‪5- Gastrointestinal‬‬
‫‪6- Pediatric‬‬
‫‪3- Cardiac‬‬
‫‪4- Obstetric‬‬
‫‪7- Genitourinary‬‬
‫‪8- Nuclear Imaging‬‬
‫‪9- Musculoskeletal‬‬
‫‪10- Contrast agent‬‬
‫‪11- Neurologic‬‬
‫‪14- Vascular 13- Head and Neck‬‬
‫‪12- Imaging Physics‬‬
‫)‪24.1 DIAGNOSTIC ULTRASOUND A LOGICAL APPROACH (JOHN P. McGAHAN, BARRY B. GOLDBERG‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ‪ ٣‬ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺍﺳﺖ‪:‬‬
‫‪ -١‬ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ‪ Diagnostic Ultrasound‬ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺩﻭ ﺟﺰﺀ ﻣﻨﺤﺼﺮ ﺑﻪ ﻓﺮﺩ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺩﻭ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﻭ ﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ ﻫﺮ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺯﻧﺪﻩ ﺑﺎ ﻛﻴﻔﻴﺖ ﺑﺎﻻ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ Selp-assessment -٢ .‬ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ‪ CMP‬ﻭ ﺗﺴﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﭼﻨﺪﮔﺰﻳﻨﻪﺍﻱ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﺣﺎﺿﺮ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪ ٤١‬ﻓﺼﻞ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‪:‬‬
‫‪ -١‬ﻓﻴﺰﻳــــﻚ ‪ -٢ bioeffects‬ﺁﺭﺗﻔﻜــــﺖ ‪ ٣‬ﻭ ‪ -٤‬ﺭﻭﺵﻫــــﺎﻱ ﺗﻬــــﺎﺟﻤﻲ ﺑــــﺎ ﺳــــﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺩﺭ )ﺑﻴﻮﭘﺴــــﻲ‪ ،‬ﺁﺳﭙﻴﺮﺍﺳــــﻴﻮﻥ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻧــــﺎﮊ( ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻴﻤــــﺎﺭﻱﻫــــﺎﻱ ﺯﻧــــﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺯﺍﻳﻤــــﺎﻥ ‪ -٥‬ﺭﻭﺵﻫــــﺎﻱ ﺍﻭﻟﺘﺮﺍﺳــــﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺣــــﻴﻦ ﻋﻤــــﻞ ﺟﺮﺍﺣــــﻲ‬
‫‪ :٦-١٨‬ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺗﺮﻳﻤﺴﺘﺮ ﺍﻭﻝ ﺣﺎﻣﻠﮕﻲ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﺳﻨﺘﺎ ﻭ ‪ Cervix‬ﻭ ﺑﻨﺪ ﻧﺎﻑ ﻭ ﭘﺮﺩﻩ ﺁﻣﻨﻴﻮﺗﻴﻚ‪ ،‬ﺳﺮ ﻭ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻭ ﮔﺮﺩﻥ ﻭ ﻗﻔﺴﻪ ﺳﻴﻨﻪ ﺷﻜﻢ ﻭ ﻟﮕﻦ ﻭ ﺿﺮﺑﺎﻥ ﻗﻠﺐ ﻭ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﺯﻩﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﻨﻴﻦ ﻭ ﺣﺎﻣﻠﮕﻲ ﺩﻭﻗﻠﻮﺋﻲ ﻭ ‪ Small-for-date , large-for-data‬ﻭ ‪....‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺑﺨﺶﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﻫﺮ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﺑﺪﻥ ﺍﺯ ﻟﺤﺎﺽ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻧﺮﻣﺎﻝ‪ ،‬ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻓﺘﺮﺍﻗﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ‪ ،‬ﺗﻘﺴﻴﻢﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﻳﺎﻓﺘﻪﻫﺎ ﺑﻪ ﻧﺮﻣﺎﻝ ﻭ ﻏﻴﺮﻧﺮﻣﺎﻝ ﺩﺭ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ‪ ،‬ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻳﺎﻓﺘﻪ ﻭ ﺭﺳﻴﺪﻥ ﺑﻪ ﻳﻚ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ‪ -١٩‬ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ ﮔﻮﺍﺭﺵ )ﺣﻔـﺮﻩ‬
‫ﭘﺮﻳﺘﻮﺍﻥ( ‪ -٢٠‬ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺍﻋﻀﺎﺀ ﭘﻴﻮﻧﺪ ﺯﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ )ﻛﺒﺪ – ﻛﻠﻴﻪ‪ -‬ﭘﺎﻧﻜﺮﺍﺱ( ‪ -٢١‬ﻛﺒﺪ ‪ -٢٢‬ﻛﻴﺴﻪ ﺻﻔﺮﺍ ﻭ ﻣﺠـﺎﺭﻱ ﺻـﻔﺮﺍﻭﻱ ‪ -٢٣‬ﺭﺗﺮﻭﭘﺮﺗﻴـﻮﺍﻥ ﻭ ﭘـﺎﻧﻜﺮﺍﺱ‪ ،‬ﻃﺤـﺎﻝ‪ ،‬ﻟﻤـﻒ ﻧـﻮﺩ ‪ -٢٤‬ﺩﺳـﺘﮕﺎﻩ ﺍﺩﺭﺍﺭﻱ ‪ -٢٥‬ﭘﺮﻭﺳـﺘﺎﺕ ‪ -٢٧ Penis -٢٦‬ﺍﺳـﻜﺮﻭﺗﻮﻡ ﻭ ‪testes‬‬
‫‪ -٣٠ Post meno Pausal Pelvis -٢٩ Female Pelvis -٢٨‬ﺳﻴﺴــﺘﻢ ﻋــﺮﻭﻕ ﻣﺤﻴﻄــﻲ ‪ -٣١‬ﻛﺎﺭﻭﺗﻴــﺪ ‪ -٣٥ Chest -٣٤ Brest -٣٣ trans cranial -٣٢‬ﺗﻴﺮﻭﺋﻴــﺪ‪ ،‬ﭘﺎﺭﺍﺗﻴﺮﻭﺋﻴــﺪ ﻭ ﻏــﺪﺩ ﺩﻳﮕــﺮ ‪ -٣٦‬ﺳﻴﺴــﺘﻢ ‪ Skeletal‬ﻭ ‪Pediactric Head -٣٧ Softtissue‬‬
‫‪ -٤١ ultrasound-Guided Percutaneous tissue Ablation -٤٠ Three dimensional ultrasound -٣٩ Ultrasoud Contrast agent -٣٨‬ﺍﻭﻟﺘﺮﺍﺳﻮﻧﺪﺍﻧﺪﻭﺳﻜﻮﭘﻴﻚ‬
‫ﻻﺯﻡ ﺑﻪ ﺫﻛﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻫﻨﮕﺎﻡ ﻧﺼﺐ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺑﺎﻳﺴﺘﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻛﺪ ﻋﺒﻮﺭ ‪ RUSR 2335‬ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺷﻮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫)‪25.1 Diagnostic Ultrasound of Fetal Anomalies: Principles and Techniques (CD I,II‬‬
‫ـــــ‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ‪ ٢‬ﻋﺪﺩ ‪ CD‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ‪ CD‬ﺷﻤﺎﺭﻩ ‪ ١‬ﺑﺎ ﺑﻬﺮﻩﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺍﺯ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺛﺎﺑﺖ ﻭ ﻣﺘﺤﺮﻙ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺟﻨﻴﻦ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﻛﻴﻔﻴﺖ ﻓﻮﻕﺍﻟﻌﺎﺩﻩ ﻋﺎﻟﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﻨﺪ‪ ،‬ﺁﻧﻮﻣﺎﻟﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻣﺎﺩﺭﺯﺍﺩﻱ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﺗﻴﭙﻴﻚ ﺑﻪ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺩﺭﺁﻣﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻫﺮ ﻳﻚ‪ ،‬ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺕ‬
‫ﻛﺎﻓﻲ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ‪ CD‬ﺷﻤﺎﺭﻩ ‪ ، ٢‬ﺍﻣﻜﺎﻥ ﺧﻮﺩﺁﺯﻣﺎﻳﻲ ﺷﺨﺺ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ‪Case‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻭ ﺑﻪ ﻃﺮﻳﻘﺔ ‪ Multiple Choice question‬ﻓﺮﺍﻫﻢ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻫﺮ ‪ ، Case‬ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺕ ﻻﺯﻡ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩﺍﻧﺪ‪ .‬ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻭ ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ‪ Case‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻄﺮﺡﺷﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ ٢‬ﻋﺪﺩ‬
‫‪ CD‬ﺑﻪ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺫﻳﻞ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﻨﺪ‪:‬‬
‫ﻣﺒﺤﺚ‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ‬
‫ﻣﺒﺤﺚ‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ‬
‫ﺒﺤﺚ‬
‫ﻣ‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ‬
‫ﻣﺒﺤﺚ‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ‬
‫ﻣﺒﺤﺚ‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ‬
‫‪Case‬‬
‫‪Case‬‬
‫‪Case‬‬
‫‪Case‬‬
‫‪Case‬‬
‫‪ Head‬ﺟﻨﻴﻦ‬
‫‪٣٦‬‬
‫‪١٩‬‬
‫‪٢‬‬
‫ﺟﻨﺴﻴﺖ‬
‫‪٤‬‬
‫ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﺍﺳﻜﺘﺎﻝ ﺟﻨﻴﻦ‬
‫‪١٦‬‬
‫‪Neural tube‬‬
‫‪Amniotic Fluid‬‬
‫‪٢٠‬‬
‫‪٣‬‬
‫ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﻣﺘﻔﺮﻗﻪ‬
‫‪٢‬‬
‫ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ ﺍﺩﺭﺍﺭﻱ ﺟﻨﻴﻦ‬
‫‪١٢‬‬
‫‪Body wall‬‬
‫‪Umblical Cord‬‬
‫ﻗﻠﺐ ﺟﻨﻴﻦ‬
‫‪١٤‬‬
‫ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺟﻨﻴﻦ‬
‫‪٦‬‬
‫‪ Chest‬ﺟﻨﻴﻦ‬
‫‪١٢‬‬
‫ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﮔﻮﺍﺭﺷﻲ ﺟﻨﻴﻦ‬
‫‪٤‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪(Salekan E-Book‬‬
‫)‪(MANOOP S. BHUTANI, MD, JOHN C. DEUTSCH, MD‬‬
‫‪26.1 Digital Human Anatomy and Endoscopic Ultrasonography‬‬
‫)‪27.1 EBUS (Endo Bronchial Ultrasound‬‬
‫)‪(Gregory G. Ginsberg, Michael L. Kochman‬‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫‪Endoscopiy‬‬
‫‪28.1 Endoscopy and Gastrointestinal Radiology‬‬
‫‪Colonoscopy‬‬
‫‪Upper endoscopy‬‬
‫‪Percutaneous Management of Biliary Obstruction‬‬
‫‪Clinical Application of Magnetic Resonance Imaging in the Abdomen‬‬
‫‪Contrast Radiology‬‬
‫‪Endoscopic Ultrasound‬‬
‫‪Computed Tomography and Ultrasound of the Abdomen and Gastrointestinal Tract‬‬
‫‪Endoscopic Retrograte Cholagiopancreatography‬‬
‫‪29.1 Essentials of Radiology‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ﺩﺭ ‪ CD‬ﻓﻮﻕ‪ ،‬ﺿﺮﻭﺭﻳﺎﺕ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ‪ Case‬ﻣﻄﺮﺡ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩﺍﻧﺪ ﻭ ﺍﺯ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻴﻚ ﺗﻴﭙﻴﻚ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺕ ﻛﺎﻓﻲ ﻭ ﺗﻮﺻﻴﻒ ﺩﻗﻴﻖ ﻧﻤﺎﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻚ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ‪Case‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻄﺮﺡﺷﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺑﺮ ﺣﺴﺐ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ ﺑﻪ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪:‬‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ‪Case‬‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ‪Case‬‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ‪Case‬‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ‪Case‬‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
5
‫ﭘﻨﻮﻣﻮﻧﻲ‬
‫ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮ ﺭﻳﻪ‬
‫ﻣﺮﻱ‬
‫ﭘﻨﻮﻣﻮﻛﻮﻧﻴﻮﺯ‬
‫ﺍﻃﻔﺎﻝ‬
obstetrics
‫ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻫﺴﺘﻪﺍﻱ‬
٣٠
١٢
٦
٩
١٨
١٦
١٣
‫ﺍﻧﺴﺪﺍﺩ ﻭ ﭘﺮﻓﻮﺭﺍﺳﻴﻮﻥ‬
‫ ﺷﻜﻢ‬RUQ ‫ﻧﺎﺣﻴﻪ‬
‫ﻣﻌﺪﻩ‬
AIDS
‫ﺗﺮﻭﻣﺎ‬
Breast ‫ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ‬
٨
١٢
٦
١٢
١٧
١٨
TB
١٥
٧
٧
٧
٥
٣
‫ ﺷﻜﻢ‬RLQ ‫ﻧﺎﺣﻴﻪ‬
‫ﺭﻭﺓ ﺑﺎﺭﻳﻚ‬
‫ﻗﻠﺐ‬
‫ﮊﻧﻴﻜﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬
‫ﻧﻮﺭﻭﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺳﺘﻮﻥ ﻓﻘﺮﺍﺕ‬
‫ﻣﺮﺍﻗﺒﺖ ﺑﺤﺮﺍﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺷﻜﻢ‬LLQ ‫ﻛﻮﻟﻮﻥ ﻭ ﻧﺎﺣﻴﻪ‬
‫ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌﺎﺕ ﻓﻠﻮﺭﻭﺳﻜﻮﭘﻴﻚ ﺷﻜﻢ‬
‫ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﺍﺩﺭﺍﺭﻱ ﺗﻨﺎﺳﻠﻲ‬
‫ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﺍﺳﻜﻠﺘﺎﻝ‬
‫ﻧﻮﺭﻭﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻣﻐﺰ‬
٢٠
١٦
١
١٣
٢٨
١٢
30.1 Exam Preparation for Diagnostic Ultrasound Abdomen and OB/GYN (RogerC. Sanders, Jann D. Dolk, Nancy Smith Miner)
31.1 Fundamentals of Body CT
‫ــــــ‬
(Second Edition) (W. Richard Webb, M.D. , William E. Brant, M.D. , Clyde A. Helms, M.D.) (Salekan E-Book)
‫ــــــ‬
32.1 Image Data Bank RADIOGRAPHIC ANATOMY & POSITIONING (APPLETON & LANGE)
‫ــــــ‬
33.1 Imaging Atlas of Human Anatomy
1998
(version 2.0)
(Mosby)
‫ ﺭﻭﺵ ﻳـﺎﺩﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺁﻧـﺎﺗﻨﻮﻣﻲ‬.‫ ﻭ ﺳـﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ( ﺁﺷـﻨﺎ ﺷـﻮﻳﺪ‬MRI ، CT Scan ،‫ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺑﺎ ﻛﻨﺘﺮﺍﺳـﺖ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻴـﻚ‬،‫ﺑﺎ ﻛﻤﻚ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﻗﺎﺩﺭ ﺧﻮﺍﻫﻴﺪ ﺑﻮﺩ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺪﺕ ﺑﺴﻴﺎﺭ ﻛﻮﺗﺎﻫﻲ ﺑﺎ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﺑﺪﻥ ﺩﺭ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ )ﻓﻴﻠﻢﻫﺎﻱ ﺳﺎﺩﻩ‬
‫ ﺿﻤﻨﹰﺎ ﺑﺎ ﺍﺳـﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺁﺭﺍﻳـﺔ‬.‫ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺍﻳﺠﺎﺩ ﻋﻼﻗﻤﻨﺪﺍﻥ ﺑﻴﺸﺘﺮ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻣﺮ ﻳﺎﺩﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺩﺭ ﻧﻈﺮ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬... ‫ ﺧﻮﺩﺁﺯﻣﺎﻳﻲ ﻭ‬،‫ ﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ‬negative ،‫ ﺑﺴﻴﺎﺭ ﺁﺳﺎﻥ ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺍﻣﻜﺎﻧﺎﺕ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻔﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻗﺒﻴﻞ ﺑﺰﺭﮒﻧﻤﺎﻳﻲ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ‬CD ‫ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻚ ﺑﺎ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
.‫ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﺑﻪ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﺍﺿﺎﻓﻲ ﻣﺮﺗﺒﻂ ﺑﺎ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌﻪ ﺩﺳﺘﻴﺎﺑﻲ ﭘﻴﺪﺍ ﻧﻤﻮﺩ‬، note
1998
34.1 Imaging of Diffuse Lung Disease (David A. Lynch, MB, John D. Newell Jr, MD, FCCP, Jin Seong Lee, MD)
‫( ﺩﺭ ﺍﻃﻔﺎﻝ ﻭ ﺑﺎﻟﻐﻴﻦ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫـﺎﻱ ﻣﻨﺘﺸـﺮ‬.... ‫ ﻭ‬MRI,CT-Xray) ‫ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻭ ﺗﻔﺴﻴﺮ ﻋﻜﺲﺑﺮﺩﺍﺭﻱ‬، ‫ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺣﺎﻝ‬،‫ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﮔﻔﺘﻪ ﻣﺆﻟﻔﻴﻦ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺗﻠﻔﻴﻘﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﻪ‬.‫( ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬DLN) ‫ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻨﺘﺸﺮ ﺭﻳﻪ‬١١ ‫ ﺣﺎﺿﺮ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬CD
.‫ ﻗﻠﺐ ﻭ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‬، ‫ ﺭﻳﻪ‬،‫ ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺑﻪ ﮔﻔﺘﻪ ﻣﺆﻟﻔﻴﻦ ﻧﮕﺎﻫﻲ ﺟﺪﻳﺪ ﺑﻪ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﻭ ﺭﺯﻳﺪﻧﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺍﺧﻠﻲ‬Acrobat Reader ‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺩﺭ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ‬.‫ﺭﻳﻪ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬
: ‫ﺑﻌﻀﻲ ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬
‫ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﻳﻪ‬
‫ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺑﻪ ﻃﻮﺭ ﻣﺠﺰﺍ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬X-Ray,CT ‫ ﻭ ﻣﻘﺎﻳﺴﻪ‬DLD ‫ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺍﻓﺘﺮﺍﻗﻲ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬
DLD‫ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺷﻐﻠﻲ ﻭ ﻣﺤﻴﻄﻲ ﻭ‬
‫ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﺑﺮﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﺭﺍﻫﻬﺎﻱ ﻫﻮﺍﺋﻲ‬
‫ﭘﻴﻮﻧﺪ ﺭﻳﻪ‬
‫ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﺑﺮﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﺁﻣﻔﻴﺰﻡ‬
‫ ﻛﻮﺩﻛﺎﻥ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﺑﺮﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﺭﻳﻮﻱ‬DLD ‫ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﺑﺮﺩﺍﺭﻱ‬
‫ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﺑﺮﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻧﻔﻴﻠﺘﺮﺍﺗﻴﻮ ﺭﻳﻪ‬
___
35.1 Imaging of Spinal Trauma in Children (Lawrence R. Kuhns, M.D.) (University of Michigan Medical Center)
Principles AND TECHNIQUES
Normal Spine Variants and Anatomy
Mechanisms and Patterns of Injury
Thoracic Spine Injuries
Epidemiology
Measurements
Occipitocervical Injuries
ATLAS OF SPINAL INJURIES IN CHILDREN
Cervcal Spine
Lumbar Spine
Thoracic Spine
Sacrococcygeal Spine
Lumbar
Special Views and Techniques
Experimental and Necropsy Data
Sacral Injuries
36.1 MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING (Third Edition) (Dauld Stark, William Bradley)
.‫ ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩ ﻣﻴﺒﺎﺷﺪ‬CD ‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬David Stark ‫ﺳﻪ ﺟﻠﺪ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ‬
1. Generation and Manipulation of Magnetic Resonance Images
2. Magnetic Resonance: Bioeffects and Safety
3. Three-Dimensional Magnetic Resonance Rendering Technique
4. Principles of Echo Planar Imaging: Implications for Musculoskeletal System
5. MR Imaging of Articular Cartilage and of Cartilage Degneration
6. The Hip
9. The Shoulder
12. The Temporomandibular Joint
10. The Elbow
11. The Wrist and hand
7. The Knee
‫ــــــ‬
8. The Ankle and Foot
13. Kinematic Magnetic Resonance Imaging 14. The Spine
15. Marrow Imaging 16. Bone and Soft-Tissue Tumors 17. Magnetic Resonance Imaging of Muscle Injuries
37.1
Magnetic Resonance Imaging computed Tomography of the Head and Spine (C. Barrie Grossman)
38.1 Magnetic Resonance Imaging in Orthopedics and Sport Medicine (David W. Stoller)
MRI ‫ ﺗﻬﻴﺔ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ‬-١
MRI ‫ ﺍﺛﺮﺍﺕ ﺑﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻚ ﻭ ﺍﻳﻤﻨﻲ ﺩﺭ‬-٦
‫ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﻣﻮﺳﻜﻮﻟﻮﺍﺳﻜﻠﺘﺎﻝ‬Echo-Planar ‫ ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﺳﺎﺯﻱ‬-٢
‫ ﻋﻀﺮﻭﻑ ﻣﻔﺼﻠﻲ ﻭ ﺩﮊﻧﺮﺍﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﻋﻀﺮﻭﻓﻲ‬MRI -٧
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
:‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺭﺗﻮﭘﺪﻱ ﻭ ﻃﺐ ﻭﺭﺯﺵ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻭ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‬MRI ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺭﺗﺒﺎﻁ ﺑﺎ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩ‬
‫ ﺳﻪﺑﻌﺪﻱ‬MRI ‫ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﺑﺎﺯﺳﺎﺯﻱ ﺟﻬﺖ‬-١١
(Hip) ‫ ﻣﻔﺼﻞ ﺭﺍﻥ‬-١٢
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ ﺗﻮﻣﻮﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺳﺘﺨﻮﺍﻥ ﻭ ﺑﺎﻓﺖ ﻧﺮﻡ‬-١٦
‫ ﺁﺳﻴﺒﻬﺎﻱ ﻋﻀﻼﻧﻲ‬MRI -١٧
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
‫‪6‬‬
‫‪ -١٣‬ﺷﺎﻧﻪ‬
‫‪ -١٤‬ﻣﻔﺼﻞ ﻛﻤﭙﻮﺭﻭﻣﺎﻧﺪﻳﺒﻮﻻﺭ )‪(TMJ‬‬
‫‪ -١٥‬ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﺑﺮﺩﺍﺭﻱ ‪ MRI‬ﺍﺯ ﻣﻐﺰ ﺍﺳﺘﺨﻮﺍﻥ‬
‫‪ -٨‬ﻣﭻ ﭘﺎ ﻭ ﭘﺎ‬
‫‪ -٩‬ﻣﭻ ﺩﺳﺖ ﻭ ﺩﺳﺖ‬
‫‪ -١٠‬ﺳﺘﻮﻥ ﻓﻘﺮﺍﺕ‬
‫‪2000‬‬
‫‪ -٣‬ﺯﺍﻧﻮ‬
‫‪ -٤‬ﺁﺭﻧﺞ‬
‫‪Kinematic MRI -٥‬‬
‫)‪(Ralphl. Smathers, M.D.‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺒﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺭﺍﺑﻄﻪ ﺑﺎ ﻣﺎﻣﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺑﺎ ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﺫﻳﻞ ﻣﻄﺮﺡ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪:‬‬
‫ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻧﺮﻣﺎﻝ ﭘﺴﺘﺎﻥ‬‫ ﺗﻐﻴﻴﺮﺍﺕ ﺯﻣﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺁﺭﺗﻔﻜﺖﻫﺎ‬‫‪ -‬ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﻣﺎﻣﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ )ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻟﻮﻛﺎﻟﻴﺰﻩ ﺑﺎ ‪ Needle‬ﻭ ﻳﺎ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ(‬
‫‪39.1 Mammography Diagnosis and Intervention‬‬
‫‪ -‬ﺗﻮﺩﻩﻫﺎﻳﻲ ﺑﺎ ﺣﺪﻭﺩ ﻧﺎﻣﺸﺨﺺ ﻭ ﺗﻮﻣﻮﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺪﺧﻴﻢ ﻭ ‪Aggressive‬‬
‫ ﺗﻐﻴﻴﺮﺍﺕ ﻓﻴﺒﺮﻭﻛﻴﺴﺘﻴﻚ ﻭ ﺗﻮﺩﻩﻫﺎﻳﻲ ﺑﺎ ﺣﺪﻭﺩ ﻣﺸﺨﺺ ﻭ ﺧﻮﺵﺧﻴﻢ‬‫‪ -‬ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻴﺸﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﻭ ﻣﺘﺎﺳﺘﺎﺯ ﻭ ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ‬
‫)‪(O. Ratib & D. Didier‬‬
‫‪2001‬‬
‫‪Aortic Coarcation‬‬
‫‪Miscellaneous‬‬
‫‪Aortic Arch Anomalies‬‬
‫‪Congenital venous anomalies‬‬
‫‪Aortic Arch Anomalies‬‬
‫‪Aequised venous diseases‬‬
‫‪Aortic Aneurysms‬‬
‫‪Pulmonary astesies diseases‬‬
‫‪4th Edition‬‬
‫‪2001‬‬
‫‪40.1 MR Angiography Thoracic Vessels‬‬
‫‪Methods & Techniques‬‬
‫‪Aortitis‬‬
‫)‪41.1 MR Imagin Expert (Geir Torhim, Peter A. Rinck‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫"‪This version is a special adaptation for "Magnetic Resonance in Medicine The Basic Textbook of the European Magnetic Redonance Forum‬‬
‫‪42.1 MRI der Extremitaten‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪43.1 MRI of the BRAIN & SPINE (SCOT W. ATLAS) (LIPPINCOTT-ROVEN‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﻳﻚ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﭼﻨﺪﻣﻨﻈﻮﺭﻩ ﺑﻪ ﺣﺴﺎﺏ ﻣﻲﺁﻳﺪ ﺯﻳﺮﺍ ﺩﺭ ﺁﻥ‪ ،‬ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺕ ﻻﺯﻡ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﻋﻴﻦ ﺣﺎﻝ ﻣﺨﺘﺼﺮ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻚ ﻭ ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ‪ MRI‬ﻭ ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻜﻬﺎﻱ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ‪ ،‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻫﺮ ﻣﺒﺤﺚ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺩﺭ ﻃﻲ ‪ ٣٢‬ﻓﺼﻞ ﺑﻪ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻭ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻳﺎﻓﺘﻪﻫﺎﻱ ‪ Imaging‬ﭘﺮﺩﺍﺧﺘﻪ‬
‫ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺑﻴﺶ ﺍﺯ ‪ ٤٠٠٠‬ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ‪ MRI‬ﺑﺎ ﻛﻴﻔﻴﺖ ﺑﺎﻻ ﺑﺮﺣﺴﺐ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﻪ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺩﺭﺁﻣﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺿﻤﻨﹰﺎ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻓﻬﻢ ﺑﻬﺘﺮ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ‪ ،‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﺭﺗﺒﺎﻁ ﺑﺎ ﻫﺮ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻭ ﻳﺎ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﺑﺮﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﺍﺯ ﺟﺪﺍﻭﻝ ﻣﻔﻴﺪ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻧﻴﺰ‪ ،‬ﻧﻮﺭﻭﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ‪ Sectional‬ﻭ ﺑﺎ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺳﻪ‬
‫ﺭﻭﺵ )ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺷﻤﺎﺗﻴﻚ ‪ +‬ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻃﺒﻴﻌﻲ‪ +‬ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ‪ (MRI‬ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻧﻜﺘﺔ ﺑﺴﻴﺎﺭ ﺟﺎﻟﺐ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ‪ ،‬ﺧﻮﺩﺁﺯﻣﺎﻳﻲ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺑﻮﺳﻴﻠﻪ ‪ Case‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺘﻌﺪﺩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮﺣﺴﺐ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ ‪ ،‬ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ‪ Case‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻄﺮﺡ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺑﻪ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪:‬‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ‪ Case‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻄﺮﺡ ﺷﺪﻩ‬
‫‪٥‬‬
‫‪٦‬‬
‫‪٦‬‬
‫‪٦‬‬
‫‪٦‬‬
‫‪٥‬‬
‫‪٣‬‬
‫‪٥‬‬
‫‪٤‬‬
‫‪٥‬‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﺧﻮﻧﺮﻳﺰﻱ ﺍﻳﻨﺘﺮﺍﻛﺮﻳﻨﺎﻝ‬
‫ﺗﻮﻣﻮﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻛﺴﺘﺮﺍﺁﮔﺰﻳﺎﻝ ﻣﻐﺰ‬
‫ﺍﻳﺴﻜﻤﻲ ﻭ ﺁﻧﻔﺎﺭﻛﺘﻮﺱ ﻣﻐﺰﻱ‬
‫ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﻣﺎﺩﺓ ﺳﻔﻴﺪ‬
‫ﺗﻈﺎﻫﺮﺍﺕ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﺍﻋﺼﺎﺏ ﻣﺮﻛﺰﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺭﺗﺒﺎﻁ ﺑﺎ ﻓﺎﻛﻮﻣﺎﺗﻮﺭﻫﺎ‬
‫ﺳﻼﺗﻮﺭﺳﻴﻜﺎ ﻭ ﻧﺎﺣﻴﻪ ﭘﺎﺭﺍﺳﻼﺭ‬
‫ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺳﺘﺨﻮﺍﻥ ﻛﻤﭙﻮﺭﺍﻝ‬
‫ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺍﮊﻧﺮﺍﻳﺘﻮ ﺳﺘﻮﻥ ﻓﻘﺮﺍﺕ‬
‫ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﻋﻔﻮﻧﻲ ﻭ ﺍﻟﺘﻬﺎﺑﻲ ﺳﺘﻮﻥ ﻓﻘﺮﺍﺕ‬
‫ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﻧﺌﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻴﻚ ﺳﺘﻮﻥ ﻓﻘﺮﺍﺕ ﻭ ﻧﺨﺎﻉ‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ‪ Case‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻄﺮﺡ ﺷﺪﻩ‬
‫‪٧‬‬
‫‪٦‬‬
‫‪٦‬‬
‫‪٥‬‬
‫‪٥‬‬
‫‪٤‬‬
‫‪٥‬‬
‫‪٦‬‬
‫‪٣‬‬
‫‪٣‬‬
‫‪٢‬‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺗﻜﺎﻣﻠﻲ ﻣﻐﺰ‬
‫ﺗﻮﻣﻮﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻳﻨﺘﺮﺍﺁﮔﺰﻳﺎﻝ ﻣﻐﺰ‬
‫ﻣﺎﻟﻔﻮﺭﻣﺎﺳﻴﻮﻧﻬﺎﻱ ﻋﺮﻭﻗﻲ ﻭ ﺁﻧﻮﺭﻳﺴﻢﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻳﻨﺘﺮﺍﻛﺮﺍﻳﻨﺎﻝ‬
‫ﺗﺮﻭﻣﺎﻱ ﺳﺮ‬
‫ﻋﻔﻮﻧﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻳﻨﺘﺮﺍﻛﺮﺍﻳﻨﺎﻝ‬
‫‪ Aging‬ﻣﻐﺰ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﻧﻮﺭﻭﺩﮊﻧﺮﺍﻳﺘﻮ‬
‫ﻗﺎﻋﺪﺓ ﺟﻤﺠﻤﻪ‬
‫ﺍﻭﺭﺑﻴﺖ ﻭ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﺑﻴﻨﺎﻳﻲ‬
‫ﺗﺮﻭﻣﺎﻱ ﺳﺘﻮﻥ ﻓﻘﺮﺍﺕ‬
‫ﺁﻧﺎﻣﺎﻟﻴﻬﺎﻱ ﻣﺎﺩﺭﺯﺍﺩﻱ ﺳﺘﻮﻥ ﻓﻘﺮﺍﺕ ﻭ ﻧﺨﺎﻉ‬
‫ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﻧﺨﺎﻋﻲ‬
‫)‪44.1 Normal Findings in CT and MRI (Torsten B Moeller, Emil Reif) (Thieme‬‬
‫‪2000‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪20.3 Obstetric Ultrasound Principles and Techniques‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ ﺟﺎﻣﻊ ﻭ ﺍﺭﺯﻧﺪﻩﺍﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺭﺍﺑﻄﻪ ﺑﺎ ﻣﻬﺎﺭﺕﻫﺎﻱ ﻻﺯﻣﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﻣﺎﻣﺎﺋﻲ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﻛﻪ ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﺁﻥ ﺑﻪ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪:‬‬
‫ ﺗﻌﻴﻴﻦ ﺳﻦ ﺣﺎﻣﻠﮕﻲ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﻣﻌﻴﺎﺭﻫﺎﻱ ‪ FL . BPD‬ﻭ ‪ AC‬ﻭ ‪ HC‬ﻭ ﺟﺪﺍﻭﻝ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ‬‫ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﺭﺣﻢ ﻭ ﺁﺩﻧﻜﺲﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺍﻣﺒﺮﻳﻮ ﻭ ﻛﻴﺴﻪ ﺯﺭﺩﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺗﺮﻳﻤﺴﺘﺮ ﺍﻭﻝ‬‫ ﺗﻌﻴﻴﻦ ﺳﻦ ﺑﺎﺭﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺗﺮﻳﻤﺴﺘﺮ ﺍﻭﻝ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ‪ Gs‬ﻭ ‪ CRL‬ﻭ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﺯﻩﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ‬‫ ﺗﻌﻴﻴﻦ ﺳﻦ ﺑﺎﺭﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺗﺮﻳﻤﺴﺘﺮ ﺩﻭﻡ ﻭ ﺳﻮﻡ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﺩﻭﺭ ﺳﺮ ﻭ ﻧﺤﻮﻩ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﺯﻩﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺁﻥ‬‫ ﺗﻌﻴﻴﻦ ﺳﻦ ﺑﺎﺭﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺗﺮﻳﻤﺴﺘﺮ ﺩﻭﻡ ﻭ ﺳﻮﻡ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ‪ FL‬ﻭ ‪ AC‬ﻭ ﻧﺤﻮﻩ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﺯﻩﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ‬‫ ﺗﻌﻴﻴﻦ ﻣﺤﻞ ﺟﻔﺖ ﻭ ﺣﺠﻢ ﻣﺎﻳﻊ ﺁﻣﻨﻴﻮﺗﻴﻚ‬‫ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ ﺟﺎﻟﺒﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺭﺍﺑﻄﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﺟﻨﻴﻦ ﺩﺭ ﺗﺮﻳﻤﺴﺘﺮ ﺩﻭﻡ ﻭ ﺳﻮﻡ )ﻣﻌﺪﻩ‪ -‬ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ‪(........‬‬‫ ﺗﻌﻴﻴﻦ ﻣﺤﻞ ﻻﻧﻪﮔﺰﻳﻨﻲ ﺟﻔﺖ ﻭ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺭﻛﻮﻟﻤﺎﻥ ﻭ ﭘﻼﻧﺘﺎﭘﺮﻭﻳﺎ‬‫ ﺍﻧﻔﺎﺭﻛﺘﻮﺱ ﻭ ﻭﺍﺭﻳﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﻣﺤﻞ ﺧﺮﻭﺝ ﺑﻨﺪ ﻧﺎﻑ )‪(Cord Insertion‬‬‫ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻟﻜﻴﻨﻴﻜﺎﻝ ﻭ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ‪ Case Study‬ﻭ ﻣﻄﺮﺡﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺕ ﺩﺭ ﺭﺍﺑﻄﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﻭ ﭘﺎﺳﺦ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ‬‫ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺗﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺭﺍﺑﻄﻪ ﺑﺎ ‪) BPP‬ﺑﻴﻮﻓﻴﺰﻳﻜﺎﻝ ﭘﺮﻭﻓﺎﻳﻞ(‬‫‪ -‬ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﺟﻨﻴﻦ ﻭ ﺁﻧﻮﻣﺎﻟﻲﻫﺎﻱ ‪ CNS‬ﻭ ‪Body‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
‫‪7‬‬
‫)‪(DAVID A. STRINGER, PAUL S. BABYN, MDCM‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪(Second Edition‬‬
‫‪45.1 PEDIATRIC GASTROINTESTINAL IMAGING AND INTERVENTION‬‬
‫)‪46.1 Peripheral Musculoskeletal Ultrasound Interactive Atlas A CD-ROM (J. E. Cabay, B. Daenen) (R. F. Dondelinger‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ‪ MusculoSkeletal‬ﻣﺤﺴﻮﺏ ﻧﻤﻮﺩ ﭼﺮﺍ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺎ ﻛﻤﻚ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺛﺎﺑﺖ ﻭ ﻣﺘﺤﺮﻙ ﻣﺘﻌﺪﺩ ﻭ ﺗﻴﭙﻴﻚ‪ ،‬ﺷﻤﺎ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻪ ﺧﻮﺑﻲ ﺑﺎ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﻻﺯﻡ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﻧﺴﻮﺝ ﻧﺮﻡ ﺳﻄﺤﻲ ﻭ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻧﺮﻣﺎﻝ ﻭ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﺁﺷﻨﺎ ﻣﻲﺳﺎﺯﺩ ﻭ ﺿـﻤﻨﹰﺎ ﺍﻣﻜـﺎﻥ‬
‫ﺧﻮﺩﺁﺯﻣﺎﻳﻲ )‪ (Quiz‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﻓﺮﺍﻫﻢ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻨﻮﻱ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺷﻤﺎ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻴﻚ ﻧﺮﻣﺎﻝ ﻭ ﻳﺎ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻚ ﺩﺭ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﻣﻮﺳﻜﻮﻟﻮ ﺍﺳﻜﻠﺘﺎﻝ ﺍﺯ ﺩﻭ ﺷﻴﻮﺓ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻧﻴﺪ ﺑﻬﺮﻩﻣﻨﺪ ﺷﻮﻳﺪ‪:‬‬
‫ﺍﻟﻒ‪ -‬ﺑﺎ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻨﻮﻱ ‪ :General‬ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺷﻤﺎ ﻳﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ ‪item‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺭﺍ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻧﻴﺪ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﻧﻤﺎﺋﻴﺪ‪:‬‬
‫‪ -١٠‬ﭘﻮﺳﺖ‬
‫‪ -٩‬ﻋﺼﺐ‬
‫‪ -٨‬ﻋﺮﻭﻕ‬
‫‪ -٧‬ﻏﻀﺮﻭﻑ ﻓﻴﺒﺮﻭ‬
‫‪ -٦‬ﻏﻀﺮﻭﻑ ﻫﻴﺎﻟﻴﻦ‬
‫‪ -٥‬ﻛﭙﺴﻮﻝ ﻣﻔﺼﻠﻲ ﻭ ﺑﻮﺭﺱ‬
‫‪ -٤‬ﺍﺳﺘﺨﻮﺍﻥ ﻭ ﭘﺮﻳﻮﺳﺖ‬
‫‪ -٣‬ﻟﻴﮕﺎﻣﺎﻥ‬
‫‪ -٢‬ﺗﺎﻧﺪﻭﻥ‬
‫‪ -١‬ﻋﻀﻠﻪ‬
‫ﺏ‪ -‬ﺑﺎ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻨﻮﻱ ‪ :Region‬ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺷﻤﺎ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻧﻴﺪ ﻳﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ ‪item‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺭﺍ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﻧﻤﺎﺋﻴﺪ‪:‬‬
‫‪2- Elbow‬‬
‫‪1- Ankle‬‬
‫‪4- Hand‬‬
‫‪3- Foot‬‬
‫‪5- Hip‬‬
‫‪7- Shoulder‬‬
‫‪6- Knee‬‬
‫‪47.1 Principles of MRI‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪8- Wrist‬‬
‫)‪(Jeery Papp) (Mosby‬‬
‫)‪(UNIVERSITY OF FLORIDA COLLEGE OF MEDICINE DEPARTMENT OF RADIOLOGY‬‬
‫‪48.1 Quality Management in the Imaging sciences‬‬
‫‪Interactive Tutorial on Normal Radiology‬‬
‫‪49.1 RADIOLOGIC ANATOMY‬‬
‫ﻼ ﺍﮔﺮ ﻣﻲﺧﻮﺍﻫﻴﻢ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ‪ (Lower Extremity‬ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻴﻚ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺑﺪﺳﺖ ﺁﻭﺭﻳﻢ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﺍﻧـﺪﺍﻡ ﺗﺤﺘـﺎﻧﻲ ﺷـﻜﻞ ﻣـﺬﻛﻮﺭ‬
‫ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ ، CD‬ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻧﻈﺮ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﺷﻜﻞ ﺍﻧﺴﺎﻥ )ﺩﺭ ﻛﺎﺩﺭ ﺳﻤﺖ ﺭﺍﺳﺖ( ‪ Click‬ﺷﻮﺩ )ﻣﺜ ﹰ‬
‫‪ Click‬ﻣﻲﻛﻨﻴﻢ(‪ ،‬ﺳﭙﺲ ﺩﺭ ﻛﺎﺩﺭ ﺳﻤﺖ ﭼﭗ ﻟﻴﺴﺖ ﻗﺴﻤﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﻠﻲ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﻧﺎﺣﻴﻪ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻴﻚ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌﻪ ﻇﺎﻫﺮ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﻭ ﻣﺎ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻧﻴﻢ ﺑﺎ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﻫﺮ ﻛﺪﺍﻡ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻗﺴﻤﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﻠﻲ‪ ،‬ﻭﺍﺭﺩ ﺟﺰﺋﻴﺎﺕ ﺑﻴﺸﺘﺮ ﺁﻥ ﺷﻮﻳﻢ‪ .‬ﺿﻤﻨﹰﺎ ﺩﺭ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﭘﺎﻳﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺩﺭﻫـﺎﻱ ﻓـﻮﻕ‪ ،‬ﺳـﻪ ﻋـﺪﺩ‬
‫‪ Icon‬ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻱ ﺩﺭ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﻭﺳﻂ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺎ ﻛﻤﻚ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﺑﺘﺮﺗﻴﺐ ﺍﺯ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﺑﺮﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻧﻈﺮ‪ ،‬ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻃﺒﻴﻌﻲ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﻣﺬﻛﻮﺭ ﻭ ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﻣﺴﺎﺋﻞ ﻛﻠﻴﻨﻴﻜﻲ ﻭ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻚ ﻋﻀـﻮ ﻣـﻮﺭﺩ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌـﻪ ﺁﮔـﺎﻫﻲ ﻛﺎﻣـﻞ ﻳﺎﻓـﺖ‪ .‬ﺿـﻤﻨﹰﺎ ﺍﻣﻜـﺎﻥ‬
‫ﺧﻮﺩﺁﺯﻣﺎﻳﻲ )‪ (Self evaluation‬ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻧﻈﺮ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪ .‬ﻧﻜﺘﺔ ﻗﺎﺑﻞ ﺗﻮﺟﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ ، CD‬ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻛﻠﻴﺔ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ‪) Imaging‬ﺍﺯ ﻗﺒﻴﻞ ‪ ، Plain Film‬ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌﺎﺕ ﺑﺎ ﻣﻮﺍﺩ ﺣﺎﺟﺐ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻴـﻚ‪ MRI ، CTScan ،‬ﻭ ‪ (...‬ﺑـﺮﺍﻱ ﻧﺸـﺎﻥﺩﺍﺩﻥ ﺗﻜﻨﻴـﻚﻫـﺎﻱ‬
‫ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ‪ Imaging‬ﻫﺮ ﻋﻀﻮ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫( ﻃﺮﻳﻘﺔ ﻧﺼﺐ ‪ : hCD‬ﺑﻌﺪ ﺍﺯ ﻗﺮﺍﺭﺩﺍﺩﻥ ‪ CD‬ﺩﺭ ‪ CD-ROM‬ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻫﺘﺎﻥ ﺻﻔﺤﺔ ‪ Autoplay menu‬ﺭﺍ ﺑﺒﻨﺪﻳﺪ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺑﻪ ‪ my computer‬ﺭﻓﺘﻪ ﻭ ﺭﻭﻱ ﺩﺭﺍﻳﻮ ‪ CD-ROM‬ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ ﺧﻮﺩ ﺭﺍﺳـﺖﻛﻠﻴـﻚ ﻛﻨﻴـﺪ ﻭ ﮔﺰﻳﻨـﺔ ‪ Open‬ﺭﺍ ﺍﻧﺨـﺎﺏ ﻛﻨﻴـﺪ‬
‫ﺳﭙﺲ ﺭﻭﻱ *‪ ، Setup‬ﺩﺍﺑﻞ ﻛﻠﻴﻚ ﻛﻨﻴﺪ ﺻﻔﺤﻪﺍﻱ ﺑﺎ ﻧﺎﻡ ‪ radiologic Anatomy installation‬ﻇﺎﻫﺮ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﻣﺴﻴﺮ ﻧﺼﺐ ﺭﺍ ﻭﺍﺭﺩ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﻳﺎ ﭘﻴﺶﻓﺮﺽ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺎ ﻛﻠﻴﻚ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ‪ OK‬ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﻛﻨﻴﺪ‪ .‬ﺑﻌﺪ ﺍﺯ ﻧﺼﺐ ﭘﻴﻐـﺎﻣﻲ ﻣﺒﻨـﻲ ﺑـﺮ ﻧﺼـﺐ ﻛﺎﻣـﻞ ‪CD‬‬
‫ﻣﻲﺁﻳﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺁﻥ ﺭﺍ ‪ OK‬ﻛﻨﻴﺪ‪ ،‬ﺳﭙﺲ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻨﻮﻱ ‪ Start‬ﺑﻪ ‪ Program‬ﺭﻓﺘﻪ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ‪ radilogic Anatomy‬ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﺭﺍ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﻛﻨﻴﺪ‪.‬‬
‫* ‪icon‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﻳﮕﺮﻱ ﺑﺎ ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ )‪ (ssetup.apm ، setup.cfg ، ssetup ، Setup.‬ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ ﻛﻪ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﻧﻴﺴﺖ ﻟﻄﻔﹰﺎ ﻓﻘﻂ ‪ setup.exe‬ﺭﺍ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﻛﻨﻴﺪ‪.‬‬
‫)‪(International Medical Multimedia‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪50.1 Radiology Image Bank: Orthopedic Radiology‬‬
‫)‪51.1 Radiology on CD-ROM Diagnosis, Imaging, Intervention (Juan M. Taveras, MD, Joseph T. Ferrucci, MD‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ ، CD‬ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﻪ ﻛﺎﻣﻠﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ‪Tavers‬‬
‫)ﻛﻪ ﻳﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻌﺘﺒﺮﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﻭ ﻛﺎﻣﻞﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﻣﺮﺍﺟﻊ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺟﻬﺎﻥ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ( ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﺁﺧﺮﻳﻦ ﺗﻐﻴﻴﺮﺍﺕ ﺩﺍﺩﻩﺷﺪﻩ ﺗﺎ ﺳﺎﻝ ‪ 2001‬ﻣﻴﻼﺩﻱ ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻋﻤﺪﺓ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪:‬‬
‫‪ -٤‬ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ‪Gastrointestinal‬‬
‫‪ -٣‬ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ‪Vascular‬‬
‫‪ -٨‬ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ‪Cardiac‬‬
‫‪Breast Imaging -٧‬‬
‫‪ -٢‬ﺳﻴﺎﺳﺖ ﺑﻬﺪﺍﺷﺘﻲ ﻭ ﻣﺪﻳﺮﻳﺖ ﺩﺭ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬
‫‪ -٦‬ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻚ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬
‫‪ -١٠‬ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ‪Adbomen‬‬
‫‪ -١١‬ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ‪Skeletal‬‬
‫‪ -١‬ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ‪Pulmonary‬‬
‫‪ -٥‬ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ‪Genitourinary‬‬
‫‪ -٩‬ﻧﻮﺭﻭﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻭ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺳﺮ ﻭ ﮔﺮﺩﻥ‬
‫)‪52.1 REVIEW FOR THE Radiography Examination (A & LERT) (McGrow-Hill's‬‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪(Thieme‬‬
‫)‪53.1 Teaching Atlas of Mammography (Laszlo Tabar, Peter B. Dean‬‬
‫‪54.1 The Basics of MRI of NMR‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪(Joseph P. Hornak, Ph.D.‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪55.1 The Encyclopaedia of Medical Imaging from NICER‬‬
‫‪2001‬‬
‫)‪56.1 THE MRI TEACHING FILE (Robert B. Lufkin, William G. Bradley, Jr., Michael Brant-Zawadzki‬‬
‫‪ CD‬ﻓﻮﻕ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ‪Case‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺘﻌﺪﺩ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﺔ ‪ MRI‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻭ ﻫﺮ ‪ Case‬ﺑﺎ ﺗﻮﺟﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺣﺎﻝ ﻭ ﻳﺎﻓﺘﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻴﻚ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻓﺘﺮﺍﻗﻲ ﻭ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻧﻬﺎﻳﻲ ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻫﺮ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻧﻜﺎﺕ ﻣﻬﻢ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳـﺖ‪ .‬ﺗﻌـﺪﺍﺩ‬
‫‪Case‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻄﺮﺡﺷﺪﻩ ﺑﺮ ﺣﺴﺐ ﻫﺮ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﺟﺪﻭﻝ ﺫﻳﻞ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪:‬‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ‪Case‬‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ‪Case‬‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ‪Case‬‬
‫ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ‪Case‬‬
‫‪١٠٠‬‬
‫‪١٠٤‬‬
‫ﺳﺮ ﻭ ﮔﺮﺩﻥ‬
‫ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﻗﻠﺒﻲﻋﺮﻭﻗﻲ‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫‪١٠‬‬
‫‪١٠٢‬‬
‫‪ MRA‬ﻣﻐﺰ‬
‫ﺗﻨﻪ‬
‫‪١٠٢‬‬
‫‪١٠٠‬‬
‫‪١٠٠‬‬
‫ﻧﺌﻮﭘﻼﺳﻢﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻐﺰﻱ‬
‫ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﻋﻀﻼﻧﻲ ﺍﺳﻜﻠﺘﻲ‬
‫ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﻭ ﺁﺭﺗﻴﻔﻜﺖﻫﺎ‬
‫‪٢٠١‬‬
‫‪١٠٠‬‬
‫‪١٠٠‬‬
‫ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻏﻴﺮﻧﺌﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻴﻚ ﻣﻐﺰ‬
‫ﺳﺘﻮﻥ ﻓﻘﺮﺍﺕ‬
‫ﺍﻃﻔﺎﻝ‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
8
57.1 THE RADIOLOGIC CLINICS OF NORTH AMERICA High-Resolution CT of the Lung II (DAVID A. LYNCH, MD)
(NUMBER 1 VOLUME 40)
‫ــــــ‬
:‫ ﺭﻳﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‬HRCT ‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻭ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻋﻤﺪﺓ ﺫﻳﻞ ﺩﺭﺧﺼﻮﺹ‬The Radiologic clinics of North America ‫ ﺑﺮﮔﺮﺩﺍﻥ ﺷﻤﺎﺭﻩ ﺍﻭﻝ ﺟﻠﺪ ﭼﻬﻠﻢ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﺔ ﻛﺘﺎﺑﻬﺎﻱ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
‫ ﻭ ﺑﺮﻭﻧﺸﻜﺘﺎﺯﻱ‬Air Way ‫ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ‬CT Scan ‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺷﻐﻠﻲ ﻭ ﻣﺤﻴﻄﻲ ﺭﻳﻪ‬HRCT ‫ ﻧﻘﺶ‬‫( ﺭﻳﻪ‬quantitative) ‫ ﻛﻤﻴﺘﻲ‬CT -
Peripheral Airways ‫ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ‬HRCT Drug-Induced ‫ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺭﻳﻮﻱ‬HRCT -
‫ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﺁﻣﻔﻴﺰﻡ‬CT Scan -
Non-TB ‫ ﻭ‬TB ‫ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻔﻮﻧﺘﻬﺎﻱ ﻣﺎﻳﻜﻮﺑﺎﻛﺘﺮﻳﺎﻳﻲ‬CT Scan
‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺭﻳﻮﻱ ﺍﻃﻔﺎﻝ‬HRCT ‫ ﻧﻘﺶ‬‫ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺗﺮﻭﻣﺒﻮﺁﻣﺒﻮﻟﻴﻚ ﺭﻳﻮﻱ‬CT Scan -
‫ ﻧﺪﻭﻝ ﻣﻨﻔﺮﺩ ﺭﻳﻮﻱ‬-
58.1 THE RADIOLOGIC CLINICS OF NORTH AMERICA Imaging of Musculoskeletal and Spinal Infections
• PRINCIPLES AND TECHNIQUES
1. Epidemiology
3. Normal Spine Variants and Anatomy
2. Thoracic Spine Injuries
4. Experimental and Necropsy Data
• ATLAS OF SPINE INJURIES IN CHILDREN
1. Cervcal Spine
2. Thoracic Spine
3. Lumbar Spine
5. Measurements
6. Special Views and Techniwques
1999
7. Sacral Injuries
8. Occipitocervical Injuries
9- Mechanisms and Patterns of Injury
4. Sacrococcygeal Spine
59.1 THE RADIOLOGIC CLINICS OF NORTH AMERICA Pediatric Musuloskeletal Pediatric Radiology
(SALEKAN E-BOOK)
(James S. Meyer, MD)
2001
:‫ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ﺗﺒﺪﻳﻞ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺘﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
y Ultrasound in Padiatric Musculoskeletal Disease: Teachinques and Applications y Nuclear Medicnine Topics in Pediatric Musculoskeletal Disease: Teachinques and Applications
y Imaging of Musculoskeletal Infections y Malignant and Benign Bone Tumors
y Magnetic Rsonance Imaging of Musculoskeletal Soft Tissue Mass y Imaging of Pediatric Hip Disorder
y Imaging of Pediatric Foot Disorder in Children y Imaging of Sports Injuries in Children and Adolescents y A Pragmatic Approach to the Radiologic Diagnosis of Pediatric Syndromes and Skeletal Dysplasias
y The Orthopedists Perspective: Bone Tumors, Scoliosis, and Trauma y Imaging of Crowth Distubance in Children y Imaging of Child Abuse
60.1 THE RADIOLOGIC CLINICS OF NORTH AMERICA Update on Nuclear Medicine
61.1
‫ــــــ‬
THE RADIOLOGIC CLINICS OF NORTH AMERICA Update on Ultrasonography (FAYE C. LAING, MD) (W.B. SAUNDERS COMPABY)
‫ــــــ‬
:‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻭ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻋﻤﺪﺓ ﺫﻳﻞ ﺩﺭ ﺧﺼﻮﺹ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ‬The Radiologic Clinics Of North America ‫ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﻪ ﻛﺘﺎﺏﻫﺎﻱ‬٣٩ ‫ ﺑﺮﮔﺮﺩﺍﻥ ﺷﻤﺎﺭﻩ ﺳﻮﻡ ﺟﻠﺪ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
‫ ﺗﻜﻨﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺭﻭﺯ‬-١
‫ ﻣﻮﺍﺩ ﺣﺎﺟﺐ ﺍﻭﻟﺘﺮﺍﺳﻮﻧﺪ‬-٢ ‫( ﺗﺤﺖ ﺭﺍﻫﻨﻤﺎﻳﻲ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ‬intervention) ‫ ﺍﻗﺪﺍﻣﺎﺕ ﻣﺪﺍﺧﻠﻪﺍﻱ‬-٣
‫ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺣﻴﻦ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ‬-٤ ‫ ﻭﺿﻌﻴﺖ ﻓﻌﻠﻲ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺍﻧﺪﻭﺳﻜﻮﭘﻴﻚ‬-٥
‫ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﻣﻮﺳﻜﻮﻟﻮﺍﺳﻜﻠﺘﺎﻝ‬-٦
Breast ‫ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ‬-٧ Gynecology ‫ ﻭ‬Obstetric ‫ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺳﻪﺑﻌﺪﻱ ﺩﺭ‬-٨
Gynecologic ‫ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ‬-٩
‫ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻴﻚ ﺍﺗﺴﺎﻉ ﺑﻄﻦﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺍﺧﻞ ﻣﻐﺰﻱ ﺑﻪ ﺩﻧﺒﺎﻝ ﺧﻮﻧﺮﻳﺰﻱ‬-١٠
‫ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺷﺮﻳﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺤﻴﻄﻲ‬-١١
‫ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﻛﺎﺭﻭﺗﻴﺪ‬-١٢
Ultrasound Atlas of Vascular Diseases (Carol A. Krebs, RT, RDMS, Vishan L. Giyanani, , Ronald L. Eisenberg) (APPLETON & LANGE Stamford, Connecticut) (SALEKAN E-Book)
63.1 Ultrasound Teaching Manual The basics of Performing and Interpreting Ultrasound Scans (Matthias Hofer) (With the collaboration of Tatjana Reihs) (Thieme)
64.1 Uterosalpingography in Gynecology Hysterospingography (Salekan E-Book)
65.1 VOXEL-MAN 3D-Navigator Brain and Skull (Regional, Functional, and Radiological Anatomy) (IMDM university Hospital Eppendorf, Humburg) (Springer)
62.1
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
:‫ ﺑﻪ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺫﻳﻞ ﺍﺳﺖ‬CD ‫ ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺷﻴﻮﺓ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻭ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺩﺭﻭﺱ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻭ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬،‫ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻜﻲ‬CD ‫ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﻡﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺍﺧﻠﻲ ﺗﻨﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺳﻪ ﻋﺪﺩ‬Interactive ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺩﺭ ﻗﺎﻟﺐ ﻳﻚ ﺍﻃﻠﺲ ﺳﻪﺑﻌﺪﻱ‬
‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺨﺶ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ ﺣﺬﻑ ﻭ ﺍﺿﺎﻓﻪﻧﻤﻮﺩﻥ ﻫﺮ‬.‫ ﻭ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﺷﻜﻢ ﺑﺎ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ ﭼﺮﺧﺶ ﺍﻓﻘﻲ ﻭ ﻋﻤﻮﺩﻱ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬horizontal ‫ ﻭ ﭼﺮﺧﺶ‬Ventricol ‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﺳﻪﺑﻌﺪﻱ ﻗﻔﺴﻪ ﺳﻴﻨﻪ ﺑﺎ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ ﭼﺮﺧﺶ‬:‫ ﺗﺸﺮﻳﺢ ﺳﻪﺑﻌﺪﻱ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﻡﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺍﺧﻞ ﺗﻨﻪ‬:١-١ :‫ﺑﺨﺶ ﺍﻭﻝ( ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ‬
: ٣-١
(‫ ﺷﺒﻴﻪﺳﺎﺯﻱ ﮔﺎﺳﺘﺮﻭﺳﻜﻮﭘﻲ ﺑـﺎ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴـﺖ ﺣﺮﻛـﺖ ﺩﺭ ﻓﻀـﺎﻱ ﻣـﺮﻱ ﻭ ﻣﻌـﺪﻩ‬،‫ ﻛﺒﺪ ﻭ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﻡﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺎﻧﺒﻲ‬، ‫ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﻋﺼﺒﻲ‬،‫ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ ﻋﺮﻭﻗﻲ‬،‫ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ )ﺍﺳﻜﻠﺖ ﺍﺳﺘﺨﻮﺍﻧﻲ‬٩ ‫ ﺗﺸﺮﻳﺢ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩﻫﺎ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ‬: ٢-١
.‫ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‬١٨٠o ‫ﻳﻚ ﺍﺯ ﺑﺨﺶﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻭ ﭼﺮﺧﺶ‬
.‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬Sagittal ‫ ﻭ‬Coronal ‫ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻣﻘﺎﻃﻊ ﻋﺮﺿﻲ ﺳﻄﻮﺡ‬٢ ‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬:‫ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻣﻘﺎﻃﻊ ﻋﺮﺿﻲ‬
‫ ﺗﻮﻣﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ‬:‫ﺑﺨﺶ ﺩﻭﻡ( ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬
(‫ ﻣﻘﺎﻃﻊ ﻋﺮﺿﻲ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻴﻜﻲ )ﺑﺎ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ ﺣﺮﻛﺖﺩﺍﺩﻥ ﺳﻄﺢ ﻣﻘﻄﻊ ﻭ ﻣﺸﺎﻫﺪﻩ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﻫﺮ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ‬-٢-١
CT ‫ ﻣﻘﺎﻃﻊ ﻋﺮﺿﻲ‬-١-١
‫ ﺷﺒﻴﻪﺳﺎﺯﻱ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺍﻭﻟﺘﺮﺍﺳﻮﻧﻴﻚ ﻛﺒﺪ‬-٤-١
‫ ﺑﺎ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺳﻪﺑﻌﺪﻱ ﻭ ﻣﻘﺎﻃﻊ ﻋﺮﺿﻲ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻴﻜﻲ‬CT ‫ ﻣﻘﺎﻳﺴﻪ ﺑﻴﻦ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ‬-٣-١
‫ ﺍﺯ ﻛﻠﻴﺔ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﻡﻫﺎ‬X-ray ‫ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ‬-٤-٢
‫ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﻡﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻨﻔﺮﺩ‬X-ray ‫ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ‬-٣-٢
‫ ﺍﺯ ﺷﻜﻢ‬X-ray ‫ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ‬-٢-٢
‫ ﺍﺯ ﻗﻔﺴﺔ ﺳﻴﻨﻪ‬X-ray ‫ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ‬-١-٢
X-ray ‫ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ‬‫ﻣﺎﺭﻙﺩﺍﺭﻧﻤﻮﺩﻥ ﻫﺮ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺍﺯ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻭ ﻣﻘﺎﻃﻊ ﺗﺸﺮﻳﺤﻲ‬
‫ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ‬Zoom ‫ﻗﺪﺭﺕ ﺍﻓﺰﺍﻳﺶ‬
‫ﻼ ﻭﺍﻗﻌﻲ ﻛﻪ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩ‬
‫ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺑﺎﺯﺳﺎﺯﻱﺷﺪﻩ ﻛﺎﻣ ﹰ‬
.‫ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﺟﺬﺍﺑﻲ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻪ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‬
‫ ﺁﻟﻤﺎﻧﻲ ﻭ ﻻﺗﻴﻦ‬،‫ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻓﻬﺮﺳﺖ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﻨﺪﺭﺟﺎﺕ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺑﻪ ﺳﻪ ﺯﺑﺎﻥ ﺍﻧﮕﻠﻴﺴﻲ‬
Intractive ‫ﻧﺎﻣﮕﺬﺍﺭﻱ ﺑﺨﺶﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺗﺼﺎﺋﻴﺮ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ‬
.‫ ﻧﻴﺎﺯ ﺍﺳﺖ‬١٠٠MB ‫ ﭘﻴﻜﺴﻞ ﻭ ﺣﺎﻓﻈﺔ‬١٠٢٤ * ٧٦٨ ‫ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻴﺰﺍﻥ ﻭﺿﻮﺡ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺸﮕﺮ‬CD ‫ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩْﺓ ﺑﻬﻴﻨﻪ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ‬:‫ﺗﺬﻛﺮ‬
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
9
VOXEL-MAN 3D-Navigator Inner Organs (Regional, Systemic and Radiological Anatomy) (IMDM university Hospital Eppendorf, Hamburg)
67.1 Whole Body Computed Tomography (Second Edition) (Otto H. Wegener) (Blackwell Science)
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
66.1
:‫ ﻓﻬﺮﺳﺖ ﻛﻠﻲ ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ﺑﻪ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬.‫ ﭘﺮﺩﺍﺧﺘﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬CT Scan ‫ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺟﺰﺀ ﺑﻪ ﺟﺰﺀ ﻣﺴﺎﺋﻞ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻚ ﻧﻮﺍﺣﻲ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺑﺪﻥ ﺑﺎ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﮔﻮﻳﺎﻱ‬CT Scan ‫ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﻭ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻚ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ‬،‫ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺑﻪ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ‬٢٨ ‫ ﺩﺭ ﻃﻲ‬CD ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
CT Scan ‫ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻜﻬﺎﻱ‬
‫ﺭﻭﺵ ﻭ ﺍﺳﺘﺮﺍﺗﮋﻱ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ‬
(‫ﺟﻨﺐ )ﭘﻠﻮﺭ‬
‫ﭘﺎﻧﻜﺮﺍﺱ‬
CT Scan ‫ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﺩﺭ‬
‫ﻣﺪﻳﺎﺳﺘﻦ‬
‫ﺩﻳﻮﺍﺭﺓ ﻗﻔﺴﻪ ﺳﻴﻨﻪ‬
‫ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ ﮔﻮﺍﺭﺵ‬
CT Scan ‫ﺗﺤﻠﻴﻞ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﺩﺭ‬
‫ﻗﻠﺐ‬
‫ﻛﺒﺪ‬
‫ﺣﻔﺮﺓ ﭘﺮﻳﺘﻮﺋﻦ‬
‫ﻣﻮﺍﺩ ﺣﺎﺟﺐ‬
‫ﺭﻳﻪﻫﺎ‬
‫ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﺻﻔﺮﺍﻭﻱ‬
‫ﻃﺤﺎﻝ‬
‫ﺗﻮﻣﻮﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺳﺘﺨﻮﺍﻧﻲ‬
‫ﺳﺘﻮﻥ ﻓﻘﺮﺍﺕ‬
‫ﻟﮕﻦ ﺍﺳﺘﺨﻮﺍﻧﻲ‬
CT ‫ﺗﺮﻣﻴﻨﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬
‫ﺍﺭﮔﺎﻧﻬﺎﻱ ﺗﻨﺎﺳﻠﻲ ﺯﻥ‬
‫ﺣﻔﺮﺓ ﺭﺗﺮﻭﭘﺮﻳﺘﻮﺋﻦ‬
‫ﻋﻀﻼﺕ‬
‫ﺗﻮﻣﻮﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﻧﺴﺞ ﻧﺮﻡ‬
‫ﻛﻠﻴﻪ‬
‫ﻏﺪﺩ ﻓﻮﻕ ﻛﻠﻴﻮﻱ‬
‫ﻣﺜﺎﻧﻪ‬
‫ﭘﺮﻭﺳﺘﺎﺕ ﻭ ﺳﻤﻴﻨﺎﻝ ﻭﺯﻳﻜﻮﻝﻫﺎ‬
‫ ﺣﻠﻖ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻨﻲ‬،‫ ﮔﻮﺵ‬-٢
CD ‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ‬
1.2
2.2
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
‫ــــــ‬
A Case Approach to Open Structure Rhinoplasty (Calevln, Johnson)
Advanced Rhinoplasty Techniques Cosmetic Rhinoplasty (Rollin K. Daniel, M.D.)
‫ــــــ‬
Analysis,
Marking & Anesthesia, Closed/Open Approach, Septum Exposure, Exposure & Dorsal Reduction, Caudal Septum Resection, Ideal Profile Line, Open Approach, Tip Analysis, Septoplasty &
Septal Harvest, Grafts, Spreaser Grafts, Grural Strut, Tip Suture Technique, Closure, Nostril Sill Alar Wedge, Composite Graft, Lateral Osteotomy, Final Steps, Acknowledgments
3.2
Advanced Therapy of OTITIS MEDIA
2004
4.2
Aesthetic Facial Plastic Surgery
‫ــــــ‬
5.2
Aesthetic Rhinoplasty (second Edition) (Jacizh-SHEEN, Anitra SHEEN) (Volume 1, 2)
‫ــــــ‬
6.2
An Atlas of Head & Neck Surgery (John M. Lore, Jr., M.D, Jesus E. Medina) (CD I , II)
2005
7.2
8.2
Aphasia & Related Neurogenic Language Disorders (Third Edition) (Leonard L. LaPointe, Ph.D.)
Atlas D'ORL Realise avec la collaboration des (Dr Michel Boucherat, Dr Jean-Robert Blondeau)
-Anatomie de l’oreille normale - Images pathologiques
- Cas cliniques
-Anatomie naso-sinusienne normale
-Images pathologiques
- Cas cliniques
- Rappels des principes de la TDM et de l’IRM
2005
‫ــــــ‬
9.2
Atlas of Head & Neck Surgery Otolaryngology (TEXTBOOK) (Byron J. Bailey, Karen H. Calhoun, Amy R. Coffey, J. Gail Neely)
‫ــــــ‬
A Multidisciplinary Approach( Romo & Millman)
1- Atlas :
:‫ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺩﺭ ﭼﻬﺎﺭ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺍﺻﻠﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ‬٢٥ ‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ‬.‫ ﺭﻭﺵ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺑﻲ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬٢٥ ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ‬
- Head & Neck Surgery :
:‫ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﺍﺻﻠﻲ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‬٦ .‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.... ‫ ﻭﺳﺎﻳﻞ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﻴﻬﻮﺷﻲ ﻭ‬،‫ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﺍﺻﻠﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺍﺳﺎﺳﻲ ﺭﺍﺟﻊ ﺑﻪ ﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﺗﻤﻬﻴﺪﺍﺕ ﻗﺒﻞ ﺍﺯ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ‬٦ ‫ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬
• Salivary Gland • Nose & maxilla • Oral Clarity • Ear
• Neck & Larynx
• Thyroid & Parathyroid
- Otologic procedures
:
• Middle Ear and Ossicular Chain
• Tran temporal Skull Base
- Plastic & Reconstructive Surgery :
• Larygoplasty, Rhytidectomy, Rhinoplasty
- Pediatric and General Otolaryngology
• Frontal Sinus
• Mandibular Surgery, Local & Regional Flaps,
• Excision of skin Lesions
:
• Nasal Polypectomy
2- Bilbo Med Medline :.
• Congenital Aural Base
• Ton Sillectomy
‫ ﺷﻤﺎﺭﺓ ﻣﺠﻠﻪ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻧﻴﺪ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻧﻈﺮﺗﺎﻥ ﺭﺍ ﺟﺴﺘﺠﻮ ﻭ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌﻪ ﻧﻤﺎﺋﻴﺪ‬،‫ ﻧﺎﻡ ﻧﻮﻳﺴﻨﺪﻩ‬،‫ ﻛﻠﻤﺎﺕ ﻭ ﻭﺍﮊﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ‬،‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ‬
3- Head & Neck Surgery:
- Textbook
- Drug Reference
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
‫‪10‬‬
‫‪- Textbook :‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﻳﻚ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﻧﻮﺷﺘﺔ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ ‪ Bailey‬ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﻣﺘﻌﺪﺩ ﮔﻮﻳﺎ ﻭ ﻧﻤﻮﺩﺍﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪ ١٨٠‬ﻓﺼﻞ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫‪ ٤‬ﺑﺨﺶ ﺍﺻﻠﻲ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﻪ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺍﺳﺖ‪:‬‬
‫‪1- Basic Science / General Medicine‬‬
‫)ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﮔﻮﻧﺎﮔﻮﻥ ﻭ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﺭﺍﺟﻊ ﺑﻪ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻭ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﮔﻮﺵ‪ ،‬ﺳﺮ‪ ،‬ﮔﺮﺩﻥ(‬
‫‪2- Head & Neck :‬‬
‫‪3- Otology‬‬
‫‪4- Facial Plastic Reconstructive Surgery‬‬
‫‪- Drug Reference :‬‬
‫ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺻﻠﻲ ﻭ ﮊﻧﻮﺗﻴﻚ ﺑﻪ ﺷﻜﻞ ﺍﻟﻔﺒﺎﻳﻲ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ) ﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ‪ ،‬ﺭﺩﺓ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻳﻲ‪ ،‬ﺍﺳﺎﻣﻲ ﺷﻴﻤﻴﺎﻳﻲ ﻭ ﺗﺠﺎﺭﺗﻲ‪ ،‬ﻣﻘﺪﺍﺭ ﻣﺼﺮﻑ ﺍﺛﺮﺍﺕ ﺟﺎﻧﺒﻲ‪ ،‬ﻓﺎﺭﻣﺎﻛﻮﻛﺴﻴﻚ ﺩﺍﺭﻭ ﻭ‪(.....‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪10.2 Atlas of Rhinoplasty Open and Endonasal Approaches (Gilbert Aiach, M.D‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪11.2 AUDIOLOGY The Fundamentals (Third Edition) (Fred H. Bess, Larry E. Humes‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪12.2 Causes of FAILURE in STAPES SURGERY (VCD I‬‬
‫)‪(Howard P. House, TED N. Steffen‬‬
‫)‪PITFALLS in STAPES SURGERY (VCD II‬‬
‫)‪STAPEDECTOMY (Prefabricated Wire-Loop and Gelfoam Technique) (VCD III‬‬
‫)‪13.2 Chirurgia Endoscopica Dei Seni Paranasali (A Cura di E. Pasquini G. Farneti‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪3. Aspetti radiologici‬‬
‫‪1. Principi di anatomia endoscopica‬‬
‫‪2. Tecnica chirurgica‬‬
‫‪14.2 Clinical Otoscopy‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ﺩﺭ‬
‫‪CD‬‬
‫)‪An Introduction To Ear Diseases (Michael Hawke, Malcolm Keene, Peter w. Alberti‬‬
‫)‪15.2 Cobblation Assisted Tonsillectomy (CAT) __ Cobblation Assisted Procedures (VCD) (CD I , II‬‬
‫ﺷﻤﺎﺭﺓ ‪ ١‬ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺍﻋﻤﺎﻝ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺭﻭﻱ ﺗﻮﻧﺴﻴﻞﻫﺎ ﺑﺎ ﻛﻤﻚ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ ‪ Coblation‬ﺑﻪ ﺷﻤﺎ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ VCD‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪:‬‬
‫‪2- Lop – off "CAT" technique‬‬
‫‪3- Coblation Assisted tonsilectomg‬‬
‫‪1- Subtotal Cololation Assisted tonsillectomy‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ‪ CD‬ﺷﻤﺎﺭﺓ ‪ ٢‬ﺷﻤﺎ ﺑﺎ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ ‪ Coblation‬ﻛﻪ ﺗﺤﻮﻟﻲ ﻋﻈﻴﻢ ﺩﺭ ﺣﻴﻄﻪ ﺍﻋﻤﺎﻝ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ‪ ENT‬ﺍﻳﺠﺎﺩ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﺁﺷﻨﺎ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﻳﺪ‪ .‬ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﻋﻤﻠﻜﺮﺩ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﺍﻣﻮﺍﺝ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻓﺮﻛﻮﺋﻨﺴﻲ ﺑﺎ ﻭﺍﺳﻄﻪ ﭘﻼﺳـﻤﺎ ﻣـﺎﻳﻊ ﻣـﻲﺑﺎﺷـﺪ ﻭ ﻣﺰﺍﻳـﺎﻱ ﻓﺮﺍﻭﺍﻧـﻲ ﺑـﺮ ﺩﺳـﺘﮕﺎﻫﻬﺎﻱ ﻟﻴـﺰﺭ ﻭ‬
‫ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻓﺮﻛﻮﺋﻨﺴﻲ ﻗﺪﻳﻤﻲ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪ .‬ﻋﺪﻡ ﻧﻴﺎﺯ ﺑﻪ ﺑﻲﻫﻮﺷﻲ ﻋﻤﻮﻣﻲ ﻭ ﺍﻣﻜﺎﻥ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺍﻋﻤﺎﻝ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺳﺮﭘﺎﻳﻲ‪ ،‬ﺩﻭﺭﺍﻥ ‪ recovery‬ﻛﻮﺗﺎﻩ‪ ،‬ﺗﺤﻤﻞ ﺑﺎﻻﻱ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺭﺩ ﺑﺴﻴﺎﺭ ﻣﺨﺘﺼﺮ ﻳﺎ ﺣﺘﻲ ﻋﺪﻡ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺭﺩ ﭘﺲ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻋﻤﺎﻝ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ‪ ،‬ﻇﺮﺍﻓﺖ ﻭ ﺗﻤﻴﺰﻱ ﺍﻋﻤﺎﻝ‪ ،‬ﻫﻤﻮﺳـﺘﺎﺯ‬
‫ﻋﺎﻟﻲ‪ ،‬ﺣﺼﻮﻝ ﺳﺮﻳﻊ ﻧﺘﺎﻳﺞ‪ ،‬ﺳﺮﻋﺖ ﺑﺎﻻﻱ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﻋﻤﻞ ﻭ ﺭﺍﺣﺘﻲ ﻓﻮﻕﺍﻟﻌﺎﺩﻩ ﺟﺮﺍﺡ ﺑﺮﺧﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺰﺍﻳﺎﻱ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺣﻴﻄﺔ ‪ ENT‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪:‬‬
‫‪1- Coblation channeling of the inferior turbinate‬‬
‫ﺑﺎ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ ﻭ ﺗﺤﺖ ﺑﻲﺣﺴﻲ ﻟﻮﻛﺎﻝ‪ ،‬ﺍﻧﺴﺪﺍﺩ ﺑﻴﻨﻲ ﻧﺎﺷﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻫﻴﭙﺮﺗﺮﻭﻓﻲ ﺗﻮﺭﺑﻴﻨﻪ ﺗﺤﺘﺎﻧﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻛﻤﻚ ‪ Channeling‬ﺗﻮﺭﺑﻴﻨﻪ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﻧﺘﻴﺠﻪ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺭﻳﺪﺍﻛﺸﻦ ﺳﺮﻳﻊ ﺗﻮﺭﺑﻴﻨﻪ ﺑﻼﻓﺎﺻﻠﻪ ﻗﺎﺑﻞ ﻣﺸﺎﻫﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ :‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺗﻘﺮﻳﺒﹰﺎ ﺑﻲﺩﺭﺩ ﺧﻮﺍﻫﺪ ﺑﻮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫‪2- Coblation channeling of the Soft palate‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻋﻤﻞ‪ ،‬ﺑﺎ ‪ Channeling‬ﻛﺎﻡ ﻧﺮﻡ ﺍﺯ ﺣﺠﻢ ﺁﻥ ﻛﺎﺳﺘﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺑﺎﻋﺚ ﺭﻓﻊ ﺧﺮﺧﺮ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺳﺮﭘﺎﻳﻲ ﻭ ﺗﺤﺖ ﺑﻲﺣﺴﻲ ﻟﻮﻛﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺗﻘﺮﻳﺒﹰﺎ ﻓﺎﻗﺪ ﺩﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻧﺘﻴﺠﺔ ﻋﻤﻞ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺑﻪ ﺳﺮﻋﺖ ﺣﺎﺩﺙ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫‪3- Coblation channeling of the tonsil‬‬
‫ﺑﺎ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺭﻭﺵ‪ ،‬ﻫﻴﭙﺮﺗﺮﻭﻧﻲ ﺗﻮﻧﺴﻴﻠﺮ ﺑﺮﻃﺮﻑ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺍﺯ ‪ bulk‬ﺗﻮﻧﺴﻴﻞ ﻛﺎﺳﺘﻪ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﺑﺴﺘﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺷﺮﺍﻳﻂ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻋﻤﻞ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻧﺪ ﺳﺮﭘﺎﻳﻲ ﻳﺎ ﺗﺤﺖ ﺑﻲﻫﻮﺷﻲ ﻋﻤﻮﻣﻲ ﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻧﺘﻴﺠﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺳﺮﻋﺖ ﺣﺎﺩﺙ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺗﻘﺮﻳﺒﹰﺎ ﻓﺎﻗﺪ ﺩﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﻻ ﺑﺴﻴﺎﺭ ﻣﺨﺘﺼﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻭ ﺩﻭﺭﺍﻥ ﺑﻬﺒﻮﺩﻱ ﺳﺮﻳﻊ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺗﻮﻧﺴﻴﻞﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺰﺭﮒ ﻳﺎ ﺗﻮﻧﺴﻴﻠﻴﺖ ﻓﺮﺽ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺭﻭﺵ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺗﻮﻧﺴﻴﻠﻜﺘﻮﻣﻲ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﺩﺭﺩ ﭘﺲ ﺍﺯ ﻋﻤﻞ ﻣﻌﻤﻮ ﹰ‬
‫)‪(EIJI YANAGISAWA, MD‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫)‪4- Coblation Assisted Tonsillectomy(CAT‬‬
‫‪16.2 Color Atlas of Diagnostic Endoscopy in Otorhinolaryngolgy‬‬
‫)‪(Salekan E-book) (Richard A. Chole, MD, PhL, James W. Forsen‬‬
‫‪17.2 Color Atlas of Ear Disease‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪18.2 Color Atlas of Otoscopy From Diagnosis to Surgery (Mario Snna‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪19.2 Cosmetic Blepharolasty & Facial Rejuvenation‬‬
‫)‪(Stephen L. Bosniak, M.D.,‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫)‪(CD 1-6‬‬
‫)‪20.2 Cosmetic Surgery of the Asian Face (John A. McCurdy, Samuel M. Lan‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫)‪(E-Book & Image Colleciton) (Volume 1-4‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪22.2 Current Diagnosis & Treatment in OTOLARYNGOLOGY HEAD & NECK SURGERY (Anil K. Lalwani, MD‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫)‪(Second Edition‬‬
‫)‪(Kari-Bernd Huettenbrink‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫)‪21.2 Cumming's Otolaryngology Head & Neck Surgery (Fourth Edition‬‬
‫‪23.2 Current Topics in Otolaryngology -Head & Neck Surgery Lasers in Otorhinolaryngology‬‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
24.2 DALLAS RHINOPLASTY
11
Nasal Surgery by the Masters (Reducing Tip Projection and Nostrill Show Via the Open Approach) (CD I , II)
VCD: 1
1) Cadaveric Rhinoplasty Dissection Technique
2) Role of Component Dorsal Reduction: Spreader Grafts in the Deviated Nose
2002
VCD: 2
Reducing Tip Projection and Nostril Show Via the Open Approach
:‫ ﺑﻪ ﺷﻤﺎ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺭﻳﻨﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﻛﺎﺭﺁﻭﺭ ﺍﺯ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﻏﺎﻟﺐ ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺑﻪ ﺗﺮﺗﻴﺐ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬،‫ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺳﭙﻮﺯﻳﻮﻡ ﺭﻳﻨﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ﺩﺍﻻﺱ ﺗﻬﻴﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬١ ‫ ﺷﻤﺎﺭﺓ‬VCD ‫ﺩﺭ‬
1)
Exposure/Nasal incisions
A. Closed endonasal approach
- Intracartilaginous (IC)
incision
B. Cartilage delivery technique
- Infracartilaginous incision
- Intercartilaginous incision
C. Open Rhinoplasty approach
- Transcolumellar incision
2) Tip Alteration
3) Sptal reconstraction
4) Osteotmies
5) Adjuctive techniques/Closure
A. Columellar Stat placement
A. Septal reconstraction
A. Medial Osteotomy
A. Alare base resection
- Intercarural suture stabilization
- Inferior tarbinate resection
B. Lateral Osteotomy
- Correction of alalr flaring
B. Controlling dome angalation
(Submacosal)
C. External Osteotomy
- Diminishing nostril shape
and tip defining points
- Septal reconstruction
B. Closare
- Interdomal sutures
B. Modification of the dorsum
C. Splints
- Transdomal Satares
- Component dorsum
C. Correction of alar
reduction
pinching/notching
- Spreader graft placement
- lateral crural strut grafts
- Alar contour grafts
D. Tip grafts
- Infratip graft
- Onlay tip graft
‫ ﺑـﻪ‬Gunter ‫ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺼﺎﺣﺒﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺁﻏﺎﺯ ﺷـﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺳـﭙﺲ ﺩﻛﺘـﺮ‬VCD ‫ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﻣﻲﮔﻴﺮﺩ‬Open ‫ ﺗﺤﺖ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺭﻳﻨﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ﺑﺎ ﺍﭘﺮﻭﭺ‬Gunter ‫ ﺯﻳﺎﺩ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺁﻗﺎﻱ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‬nostril show , Projected tip ‫ ﺧﺎﻧﻢ ﺟﻮﺍﻧﻲ ﺑﺎ ﺷﻜﻞ‬٢ ‫ ﺷﻤﺎﺭﺓ‬VCD ‫ﺩﺭ‬
.‫ ﺳﭙﺲ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺑﺎ ﻇﺮﺍﻓﺖ ﻋﺎﻟﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻏﺎﻟﺐ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬.‫ﺁﻧﺎﻟﻴﺰ ﻧﺎﺯﻭﻧﺎﺷﻴﺎﻝ ﻭﻱ ﻣﻲﭘﺮﺩﺍﺯﺩ‬
4) Transaction of lat Crura
3) Underminig tip Skin
2) Infracartilaginous and trans columellar incisions
1)Complete transfixion incision
8) Reduction of dorsal septum (DS) and upper lateral cartilage (ULC)
7) reduction of bony darsum (BD)
6) Preparing submucosal tunnels
5) Resection of feet of medial crura
12) Cephalic resection of lateral Crura (LC)
11) Spreader grafts
10) Medial asteomius
9) Harvesting Septal cartilages for grafting
16) Final adjustment of dorsal height
15) Lateral asteotomy Cinternal
14) Aligning the dorsum
13) Preparation for lateral crural grafts (LCSG)
19) Closure
18) Placement of lateral crural strut grafts
17) Columellar strt placemend
!!‫ ﺗﻮﺟﻪ ﺷﻤﺎ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻪ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻭﺳﻴﻠﻪ ﺭﻳﺪﺍﻛﺸﻦ ﺩﻭﺭ ﺳﻮﻡ ﺍﺳﺘﺨﻮﺍﻧﻲ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺟﻠﺐ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﻴﻢ‬VCD ‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ﺩﺭ ﻧﻬﺎﻳﺖ ﺷﻤﺎ ﻧﺘﺎﻳﺞ ﺑﻌﺪ ﺍﺯ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺩﺭ ﻓﻮﺍﺻﻞ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻣﺸﺎﻫﺪﻩ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﻴﺪ‬
25.2 Dallas Rhinoplasty (Nasal Surgery by the Masters) (Salekan E-Book) (Volume 1, 2)
‫ــــــ‬
26.2 Diseases of the Sinuses Diagnosis and Management
‫ــــــ‬
(Darid W. Kennedy, MD, FRCSI, William E. Bolger, MD, FACS, S. James Zinreich, MD)
.‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺗﻘﺮﻳﺒﹰﺎ ﻣﻌﺘﺒﺮﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﺭﻓﺮﺍﻧﺲ ﺳﻴﻨﻮﻧﺎﺯﻭﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺩﻧﻴﺎ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬.‫ﮔﻨﺠﺎﻧﺪﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
2001 ‫ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺳﻴﻨﻮﺱ ﺑﻪ ﺗﺎﻟﻴﻒ ﺁﻗﺎﻱ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ ﺩﻳﻮﻳﺪﻛﻨﺪﻱ ﻣﺤﺼﻮﻝ ﺳﺎﻝ‬text book ، CD ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
27.2 EENT Welch Allyn Institute of Interactive Learning
‫ــــــ‬
28.2 ENDONASAL SINUSECTOMY WITH CORRECTION OF THE NASAL CAVITY (Rikio Ashikawe, Takashi Ohmae, Toshio Ohnisshi, Yutaka Uchida)
‫ــــــ‬
The Endonasal sinusectomy with correction of the nasal cavity (Takahash's methodn) is carried out in seven steps.
29.2 Endoscopic Assisted Procedures used in Astatic Facial Plastic Surgery (VCD) (CD I , II)
‫ــــــ‬
‫ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺻـﻮﺭﺕ ﻗـﺪﻡ‬.‫ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺑﻪ ﺷﻤﺎ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺍﻧﺪﻭﺳﻜﻮﭘﻴﻚ ﻣﺎﻻﺭﻭﻓﺮﻭﻧﺘﺎﻝ ﻛﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ ﻫﻨﺮﻱ ﺩﻟﻤﺎﺭ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬.‫ ﺷﺮﻛﺖ ﻛﺎﺭﻝ ﺍﺷﺘﻮﺭﺗﺰ ﭘﻴﺸﺮﻭ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺗﺠﻬﻴﺰﺍﺕ ﺍﻧﺪﻭﺳﻜﻮﭘﻲ ﻭ ﻣﺤﺼﻮﻻﺕ ﺁﻥ ﺁﺷﻨﺎ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﻳﺪ‬،‫ ﺍﻭﻝ ﺷﻤﺎ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ‬VCD ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
.‫ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻪ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﻣﻲﮔﺬﺍﺭﺩ‬Endoscopic forehead rhytidectomy and brow elevation ‫ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ‬Grlecory S. Keller ‫ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺮﺣﻠﺔ ﺑﻌﺪ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‬.‫( ﺍﺩﺍﻣﻪ ﻣﻲﻳﺎﺑﺪ‬closure) ‫ﺑﻪ ﻗﺪﻡ ﺍﺯ ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻪﮔﺬﺍﺭﻱ ﺭﻭﻱ ﭘﺮﺕ ﻭ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ﻭ ﺑﺮﺵﻫﺎ ﺷﺮﻭﻉ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺗﺎ ﭘﺎﻳﺎﻥ ﻋﻤﻞ‬
Extended Composite face Lift
Endoscopic midface Lift
Endoscopic forehead Lift
:‫ ﺷﻤﺎ ﺑﺎ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ‬Endoscopic assisted forehead and face lifting ‫ ﺩﻭﻡ ﺗﺤﺖ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ‬VCD ‫ﺩﺭ‬
‫ ﺍﺑﺰﺍﺭﺁﻻﺕ ﻻﺯﻡ ﺩﺭ ﻋﻤﻞ‬،‫ ﺩﺭ ﭘﺎﻳﺎﻥ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺛﺒﺖ ﺳﻪﺑﻌﺪﻱ ﺗﻐﻴﻴﺮﺍﺕ‬.‫ ﻣﺎﻩ ﺑﻌﺪ( ﻫﻢ ﺑﻪ ﺷﻤﺎ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬٢) ‫ ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺷﻤﺎ ﻳﻚ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺁﻥ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﻭ ﻧﺘﺎﻳﺞ ﺑﻌﺪ ﺍﺯ ﻋﻤﻞ‬.‫ﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻓﻮﺍﻳﺪ ﻫﺮ ﺭﻭﺵ ﺁﺷﻨﺎ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﻳﺪ‬
.‫ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻫﻢ ﺑﻪ ﺷﻤﺎ ﻣﻌﺮﻓﻲ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬
30.2 Endoscopic Management of Cholesteatoma
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
(Muaaz Tarabichi) (CD I , II)
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
2005
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
12
(SALEKAN-eBook)
‫ ﺁﺷﻨﺎﻳﻲ ﺷﻤﺎ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍﻳﻲﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﻣﺴﺎﺋﻞ ﻣﻦﺟﻤﻠﻪ ﺍﺑﺰﺍﺭﺁﻻﺕ ﺑﻜﺎﺭ ﺭﻓﺘﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻧﺪﻭﺳﻜﻮﭘﻴﻚ ﺳﻴﻨﻮﺱ ﻭ ﺣﺘﻲ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺍﻳﺴﺘﺎﺩﻥ ﻳﺎ‬.‫ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻃﺒﻘﻪﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﺷﻤﺎ ﺑﺎ ﻓﻴﻠﺪ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺁﻧﺪﻭﺳﻜﻮﭘﻴﻚ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺳﻴﻨﻮﺳﻲ ﺁﺷﻨﺎ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﻳﺪ‬CD ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
‫( ﺑـﻪ‬Atlas and textbook) ‫ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺁﻧﺪﻭﺳﻜﻮﭘﻴﻚ ﺳﻴﻨﻮﺱﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﺎﺭﺍﻧﺎﺯﺍﻝ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﻣﺮﺗﺒﻂ ﺑﺎ ﺍﻧﻬﺎ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻣﺘﻦ ﻭ ﮔـﺮﺍﻑ‬.‫ ﻣﺒﺎﻧﻲ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻴﻚ ﻭ ﺩﺍﻳﺴﻜﺸﻦ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺷﻤﺎ ﺗﺸﺮﻳﺢ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬.‫ﻧﺸﺴﺘﻦ ﻫﻨﮕﺎﻡ ﻋﻤﻞ ﻭ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻦ ﺍﺑﺰﺍﺭ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺳﺖ ﻫﻢ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬
:‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‬CD ‫ ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ﺷﻤﺎ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬
31.2 Endoscopic Sinus Surgery
1- Consistent and Relible Anatomical Landmarks in Endoscopic Sinus Surgery
32.2 Endoscopic Sinus Surgery
2- Surgical Instrumentation
3- Setup and patient positioning
4- Basic Dissection
‫ــــــ‬
5- Advanced Dissection
Anatomy Three-Dimensional Reconstruction, & Surgical Technique (Peter-John Wormald)
2005
33.2 Endoscopic Sinus Surgery NEW HORIZONS (Nikhil J. Bhatt, M.D.)
‫ــــــ‬
34.2 Essentials of Septorhinoplasty philosophy-Approaches-Techniques
2004
35.2 EVIDENCE-BASED OTITIS MEDIA (Richard M. Rosenfeld, MD, MPH, Charles D. Bluestone, MD)
‫ــــــ‬
‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻧﺘﻬـﺎ ﻧﺘـﺎﻳﺞ ﺩﺭﻣـﺎﻥ‬.‫ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻳﻲ ﻭ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺁﻥ ﻣﻲﭘﺮﺩﺍﺯﺩ‬،‫ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ‬،‫ ﻋﻼﺋﻢ ﻭ ﻣﺴﻴﺮ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ‬،‫ ﺁﺷﻨﺎﻳﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺴﺎﺋﻞ ﺍﭘﻴﺪﻣﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻚ ﻭ ﺗﺤﻘﻴﻘﺎﺕ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺁﻏﺎﺯ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺩﺍﻣﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻮﺷﻜﺎﻓﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﺍﺗﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬.‫ ﺷﻤﺎ ﺑﺎ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻭﺗﻴﺖ ﻣﺪﻳﺎ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺗﻲ ﺍﺻﻮﻟﻲ ﺁﺷﻨﺎ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﻳﺪ‬CD ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
:‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‬CD ‫ ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﺩﺭ ﺿﻤﻦ ﺍﺛﺮﺍﺕ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺭﻭﻱ ﺗﻜﺎﻣﻞ ﻛﻮﺩﻙ ﻭ ﻛﻴﻔﻴﺖ ﺯﻧﺪﮔﻲ ﺍﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺗﺸﺮﻳﺢ ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﺩ‬.‫ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬
1- Methodology
2- Clinical Management
3- Consequences and Sequelae
36.2 Facial Nerve Surgery (Jack L. Pulec, M.D.)
37.2 Facial Plastic & Reconstructive Surgery
Otologic Medical Group, Inc. Los Angeies
‫ــــــ‬
(Terence M. Davidson, MD) (VCD I , II)
‫ــــــ‬
38.2 Functional & Selective Neck Dissection (Javier Gavihin, Jesus Herranz, Lawrence W. Desanto)
2004
39.2 Functional Reconstructive Nasal Surgery (egbert H. Huizing)
‫ــــــ‬
40.2 Handbook of Clinical Audiology
‫ــــــ‬
(Fifth Edition) (Jack Katz, Ph.D.)
41.2 Head and Neck Surgery (Jatin P Shah, MD, MS (Surg), FACS) (Mosby)
‫ــــــ‬
42.2 HEAD, FACE, AND NECK TRAUMA COMPREHENSIVE MANAGEMENT (Michael G. Stewart, M.D., M.P.H.)
2005
‫ــــــ‬
43.2 Hearing ITS Physiology & Pthophysiology
(Aage R. Moller, ph.d)
44.2 Imaging of the Temporal Bone (Third Edition) (Joel D. Swartz, H. Ric Harnsberger)
‫ــــــ‬
45.2 Introduction to Ear Acupuncture (Martin Franke)
2001
‫ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺍﺯ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻭ ﻧﻮﺍﺣﻲ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻣﻮﺭﺩﻧﻈﺮ ﺩﺭ ﻃﺐ ﺳﻮﺯﻧﻲ ﮔﻮﺵ ﺁﻏﺎﺯ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺑﺎ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﻃـﺐ‬.‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﺷﻤﺎ ﺑﺎ ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﻛﻠﻲ ﻃﺐ ﺳﻮﺯﻧﻲ ﮔﻮﺵ ﺁﺷﻨﺎ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﻳﺪ‬Thieme ‫ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﻣﺎﺭﺗﻴﻦ ﻓﺮﺍﻧﻚ ﺗﻬﻴﻪ ﻭ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭﺍﺕ ﻣﻌﺘﺒﺮ‬CD ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
.‫ ﺍﺩﺍﻣﻪ ﻣﻲﻳﺎﺑﺪ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺷﻤﺎ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻧﻴﺪ ﻧﮕﺎﻫﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻧﺘﺎﻳﺞ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺍﻋﻤﺎﻝ ﻫﻢ ﺩﺍﺷﺘﻪ ﺑﺎﺷﻴﺪ ﻭ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺭﺍ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻧﻤﺎﺋﻴﺪ‬... ‫ ﺍﻋﺘﻴﺎﺩ ﺑﻪ ﺳﻴﮕﺎﺭ ﻭ‬،‫ ﺳﺮﮔﻴﺠﻪ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺧﻮﺍﺏ‬،‫ﺳﻮﺯﻧﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻫﻤﭽﻮﻥ ﻣﻴﮕﺮﻥ‬
1- Localization Assignment
2- Localization Determination
3- Treatment
4- Evaluation
46.2 La Rhinoplastica Ragionata (Valerio Micheli-Pellegrini, Roberto Polselli)
‫ــــــ‬
47.2 Local Flaps in Head and Neck Reconstruction (Lan T. Jackson, M,D.) (SALEKAN E-BOOK)
2002
48.2 Medical Speech-Lanaguage Pathology A Practitioner's Guide
‫ــــــ‬
(Alex F. Johnson, Barbara H. Jacobson)
49.2 Nasal Aesthetics and Anatomy: A Cadaver Study (Rollin K. Daniel, M.D.)
‫ــــــ‬
50.2 Oculoplastic Surgery (William P. Chen)
‫ــــــ‬
51.2 Office-Based Surgery in Otolaryngology (Andrew Blizer, Harold C. Pillsbury, Anthony F. Jahn)
‫ــــــ‬
52.2 OPEN RHINOPLASTY Cadaver Dissection Program (Dean M. Toriumi, MD.) (Vol I , II) (College of Medicine at Chicago)
‫ــــــ‬
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
‫‪13‬‬
‫‪7- Management of Lower third of the nose‬‬
‫‪- Cephalic trimming of lateral Crura‬‬
‫‪- Satured – in – place Collamellar Strut‬‬
‫‪- Transdomal Sutur‬‬
‫‪- Sutured – in – place tip‬‬
‫‪8- Chin augmentation‬‬
‫‪- Preparation of the implant‬‬
‫‪- Incision and dissection‬‬
‫‪- placement of Implant‬‬
‫‪5- Management of Middle Nasal Vault‬‬
‫‪- Division of apper Lateral Cartilages from septum‬‬
‫‪- Application of Spreader grafts‬‬
‫‪3- Open Rhinoplasty approach‬‬
‫‪- Incisions‬‬
‫‪- Flap Elevation‬‬
‫‪1- Access to nasal Septum‬‬
‫‪- Hemitrans Fixatu incision‬‬
‫‪- Havvestiong Septal Cartilage‬‬
‫‪6- Major septal reconstruction‬‬
‫‪- Reconstraction of L-Shaped Septal Strat‬‬
‫‪4- Stractural grafts used in Secondary‬‬
‫‪- loteral Crural grafts‬‬
‫‪- Alar Batten grafts‬‬
‫‪2- Havvestiog of Conchal Cartilage‬‬
‫‪- Anterior approach for harvestiog Cartilage‬‬
‫‪- Flap elevention‬‬
‫‪- Cartilage excision‬‬
‫‪- Closure and dressing‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫)‪53.2 Open Structure Rhinoplasty (A Case Oriented Approach) (CD I , II‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪54.2 Open Tip Graft in Twin Patient (Rollin K. Daniel, M.D.‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪55.2 Ophthalmic & Facial Plastic Surgery‬‬
‫‪Analysis, Operative Planning, Twins Pre and Post, Anesthesia, Transfixion Incision, Septal Harvest, Open Approach, Exposure, Tip Anatomy, Tim Strips, Graft Preparation, Radix Graft, Crural Strut,‬‬
‫‪Domal Excision, Graft, Shaping, Graft, Insertion, Closure, Post Op Result, Credits‬‬
‫)‪(Frank A. Nasi., Geoffrey J. Gladstone, Brian G. Brazzo‬‬
‫‪2003‬‬
‫)‪(SIXTEENTH EDITION) (James B, Snow Jr, MD, John Jacob Ballenger, MD,‬‬
‫‪Head and Neck Surgery‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪Laryngology‬‬
‫‪Bronchoesphagology‬‬
‫‪Rhinology‬‬
‫‪Pediatric Otolaryngology‬‬
‫‪56.2 Otorhinolaryngology Head and Neck Surgery‬‬
‫‪Facial Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery‬‬
‫‪Otology and Neurotology‬‬
‫)‪57.2 Plastic Surgery (Fifth Edition) (Grabb and Smith's) (Salekan E-Book‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﻣﺸﺘﻤﻞ ﺑﺮ ‪ ٩٢‬ﻓﺼﻞ ﺩﺭ ‪ ٧‬ﻗﺴﻤﺖ‪ ،‬ﻛﺘﺎﺑﻲ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﻭ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺗﻤﺎﻡ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﭘﻼﺳﺘﻴﻚ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻨﻈﻮﺭ ﻋﻼﻗﻤﻨﺪﻱ ﺑﻪ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﭘﻼﺳﺘﻴﻚ ﺩﺭ ﺗﻤﺎﻡ ﺳﻄﻮﺡ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺩﺳﺘﻴﺎﺭﺍﻥ‬
‫ﻭ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﭘﻼﺳﺘﻴﻚ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺑﻪ ﮔﻔﺘﺔ ﻣﺆﻟﻔﻴﻦ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﻣﺘﺤﺎﻧﺎﺕ ﻭ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻣﺪﺍﻭﻡ ﺑﻮﺭﺩ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﭘﻼﺳﺘﻴﻚ ﺁﻣﺮﻳﻜﺎ ﺳﻮﺩﻣﻨﺪ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﺑﺨﺶ ﺍﻭﻝ‪ General Reconstruction :‬ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺗﺮﻣﻴﻢ ﺯﺧﻢ‪ ،‬ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻭﻟﻴﺔ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﭘﻼﺳﺘﻴﻚ ﺁﻧﺸﺮﻱ‪ ، implants ،‬ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ‪ flap‬ﻭ ‪ graft‬ﻭ ‪ ...‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺑﺨﺶ ﺩﻭﻡ‪ :‬ﺑﻪ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﭘﻼﺳﺘﻴﻚ ﺩﺭ ﭘﻮﺳﺖ ﻣﻲﭘﺮﺩﺍﺯﺩ ﻛﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﻮﻣﻮﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻮﺳﺖ‪ ،‬ﺧﺎﻝﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺎﺩﺭﺯﺍﺩﻱ‪ ،‬ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺑﺎ ‪ Moths‬ﻭ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﺩﺭ ﭘﻮﺳﺖ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺑﺨﺶ ﺳﻮﻡ‪ :‬ﺑﻪ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﺳﺮ ﻭ ﮔﺮﺩﻥ ﻣﻲﭘﺮﺩﺍﺯﺩ ﻣﺎﻧﻨﺪ )ﺍﺻﻼﺡ ﺩﻓﺮﻳﺘﻤﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﺳﺮ ﻭ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ‪ ،‬ﺍﺗﻮﭘﻼﺳﻤﻲ ‪ Reconstruction ،‬ﺑﻴﻨﻲ‪ ،‬ﮔﻮﺵ ﻭ ﮔﻮﻧﻪ ﻭ ﻟﺐ ﻭ ‪ (...‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺑﺨﺶ ﭼﻬﺎﺭﻡ‪ :‬ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﻳﺒﺎﻳﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‪ ، dermabrasion, peeling) :‬ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ﻛﻼﮊﻥ ﺑﻠﻔﺎﺭﻭﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ‪ ،‬ﻟﻴﭙﻮﺳﺎﻛﺸﻦ‪ (...endoscopic plastic surgery ،‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺑﺨﺶ ﭘﻨﺠﻢ‪ :‬ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﻳﺒﺎﻳﻲ ﻭ ﺗﺮﻣﻴﻤﻲ ‪ breast‬ﺷﺮﺡ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻛﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‪ :‬ﻣﺎﻣﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ‪ ،‬ﻛﻤﭙﻠﻴﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ‪ ،‬ﺗﺼﻴﺤﻴﺤﻲ ﮊﻳﻨﻜﻮﻣﺎﺳﺘﻲ ﻭ ‪ ...‬ﭘﺮﺩﺍﺧﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﺑﺨﺶ ﺷﺸﻢ‪ :‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺑﻪ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺗﺮﻣﻴﻤﻲ ﺩﺳﺖ ﺍﺧﺘﺼﺎﺹ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪.‬‬
‫ﺑﺨﺶ ﻫﻔﺘﻢ‪ :‬ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﻧﺎﺣﻴﺔ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﻡ ﺗﺤﺘﺎﻧﻨﻲ ﻭ ﺗﻨﻪ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‪ :‬ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺯﺧﻢ ﺑﺴﺘﺮ‪ Reconstruction ،‬ﺩﻳﻮﺍﺭﺓ ﺷﻜﻢ ﻭ ‪.....‬‬
‫ﺑﺨﺶ ﻫﺸﺘﻢ‪ :‬ﺑﺤﺚ ﻧﺎﺣﻴﺔ ﮊﻧﻴﺘﺎﻟﻴﺎ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‪ :‬ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻫﻴﭙﻮﺳﭙﺎﺩﻳﺎﺱ ﻭ ‪ Reconstruction of peni‬ﻭ‪....‬‬
‫ﻣﺆﻟﻔﻴﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﺯ ﺑﺮﺟﺴﺘﻪ ﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﭘﻴﺸﮕﺎﻣﺎﻥ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﻨﺪ ‪ Fitzpatrick‬ﻭ ‪ Goldman‬ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ‪ Alster‬ﺳﻪ ﺗﻦ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻄﺮﺡﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﺍﺷﺨﺎﺹ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻟﻴﺰﺭﻱ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﻨﺪ‪ .‬ﺑﻪ ﮔﻔﺘﺔ ﻣﺆﻟﻔﻴﻦ‪ :‬ﻣﺎ ﺳﻌﻲ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﺍﻳﻢ ﻳﻜﺒﺎﺭ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﺍﻛﺜﺮ ﺗﺤﻘﻴﻘـﺎﺕ ﻭ‬
‫ﺩﺍﻧﺶ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﺩﺭ ﭘﻮﺳﺖ ﺭﺍ ﺩ ﺍﺧﻞ ﻳﻚ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﮔﺮﺩﺁﻭﺭﻱ ﻛﻨﻴﻢ‪ .‬ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﻪ ﻃﻮﺭ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﺓ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﺴﺖ ﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﺎﻧﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﺔ ‪ rejuvenation‬ﭘﻮﺳﺖ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻓﻌﺎﻟﻴﺖ ﺩﺍﺭﻧﺪ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪Primary‬‬
‫‪Rhinoplasty‬‬
‫‪(Bahman‬‬
‫)‪Guyuron, MD, FACS, Cleveland, Ohio) (VCD‬‬
‫‪58.2‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ VCD‬ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﻳﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺑﺰﺭﮔﺘﺮﻳﻦ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﺎﻥ ﺻﺎﺣﺐ ﻧﺎﻡ ﺩﻧﻴﺎ‪ ،‬ﺍﺯ ﻛﺸﻮﺭ ﻋﺰﻳﺰﻣﺎﻥ ﺍﻳﺮﺍﻥ ‪ ،‬ﺑﻪ ﻧﺎﻡ ﺁﻗﺎﻱ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ ﺑﻬﻤﻦ ﻏﻴﻮﺭﺍﻥ ﺍﺯ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﮕﺎﻩ ‪ Ohio‬ﺗﻬﻴﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ ،‬ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻳﻚ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺭﻳﻨﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ﺍﻭﻟﻴﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺍﭘﺮﻭﺝ ‪ Open‬ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻋﻤﻞ‬
‫ﺩﺧﺘﺮ ﺟﻮﺍﻧﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ‪ Case‬ﻓﻮﻕﺍﻟﻌﺎﺩﻩ ﻣﺸﻜﻠﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﻪ ﺭﻳﻨﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ﻣﺤﺴﻮﺏ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺁﻗﺎﻱ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ ﻏﻴﻮﺭﺍﻥ ﭘﺲ ﺍﺯ ﺁﻧﺎﻟﻴﺰ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﻧﺎﺯﻭﻓﺎﺷﻴﺎﻝ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺎ ﻇﺮﺍﻓﺖ ﻫﺮ ﭼﻪ ﺗﻤﺎﻣﺘﺮ ﺍﺯ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍﻱ ﺍﻣﺮ )ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ﻭ ﺑﻲﺣﺴﻲ ﺗﻮﭘﻴﻜﺎﻝ( ﺗﺎ ﺍﻧﺘﻬﺎ )ﭘﺎﻧﺴﻤﺎﻥ( ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﻣـﻲﻛﻨﻨـﺪ‪ .‬ﺩﻳـﺪﻥ ﺍﻳـﻦ‬
‫‪ VCD‬ﺭﺍ ﺍﻛﻴﺪﹰﺍ ﺑﻪ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﺗﻮﺻﻴﻪ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﻴﻢ‪.‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪(ROBERT L. SIMONS, MD., NORTH MIAMI BEACH, FLORIDA) (VCD) (CD I , II‬‬
‫‪GOLDMAN TECHNIQUE‬‬
‫‪59.2 RHINOPLASTY‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ VCD‬ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺭﻳﻨﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ ﺳﻴﻤﻮﻥ ﺍﺯ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﮕﺎﻩ ﻣﻴﺎﻣﻲ ﺗﺸﺮﻳﺢ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﻋﻤﺪﻩ ﻫﺪﻑ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺗﺼﺤﻴﺢ ‪ tip‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ )‪ (tip plasty‬ﺑﺎ ﻛﻤﻚ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﮔﻠﺪﻣﻦ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﻓﻮﻕ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺗﺸﺮﻳﺢ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﻳـﻚ‬
‫‪ Case‬ﻛﻪ ﺧﺎﻧﻢ ‪ ٢٧‬ﺳﺎﻟﻪﺍﻱ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﺗﺤﺖ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺑﺎ ﺑﻲﻫﻮﺷﻲ ‪ Stand by‬ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﺑﻴﻨﻲ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺍﺯ ﻧﻮﻉ ‪ projected tip‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﻳﻚ ﺁﻧﺎﻟﻴﺰ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﺍﺳﺘﺎﺗﻴﻚ ﻧﺎﺯﻭﻓﺎﺷﻴﺎﻝ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻤﻞ ﻣﻲﺁﻳﺪ‪.‬‬
‫)‪A Practical Guide to functional and asthetic surgery of the nose (G. J. Nolst‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪60.2 RHINOPLASTY‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ ﻧﻮﻟﺴﺖ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﺭﺍﻫﻨﻤﺎﻳﻲ ﻋﻤﻠﻲ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻓﺎﻧﻜﺸﻨﺎﻝ ﻭ ﺍﺳﺘﺎﺗﻴﻚ ﺑﻴﻨﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﭘﺎﻳﻪ ﺯﻳﺒﺎﻳﻲﺷﻨﺎﺳﻲ ﻭ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ‪ ،‬ﺍﺯ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﭘﺎﻳﻪ )ﺍﺯ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﺗﺎ ﺍﻋﻤﺎﻝ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ( )ﺗﺤﺖ ﺑﻲﻫﻮﺷﻲ ﻋﻤﻮﻣﻲ( ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
14
.‫ ﻛﻤﻚ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬open ‫ ﮔﺮﺍﻓﺖ )ﺷﻴﻠﺪ ﻳﺎ ﺍﺳﺘﺮﺍﺕ ﻛﻠﻮﻣﻼ( ﺗﻬﻴﻪ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﻭ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻗﺮﺍﺭﺩﺍﺩﻥ ﺁﻥ ﺍﺯ ﺍﭘﺮﻭﭺ‬،‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻧﺘﻬﺎ ﺍﺯ ﻏﻀﺮﻭﻑ ﻛﻮﻧﻜﺎﻱ ﮔﻮﺵ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ‬.‫ ﺟﻠﺐ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﻴﻢ‬tip ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﺗﻮﺟﻪ ﺷﻤﺎ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻪ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺍﺳﺘﺌﻮﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺭﺍﻩ ﭘﻮﺳﺖ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺣﻔﻆ ﺳﺎﭘﻮﺭﺕ‬
:‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬CD ‫ ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺗﻲ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﻭ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻥ ﺑﺨﺶ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬text ‫ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ‬
.‫ ﻭ ﻛﻤﭙﻠﻴﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺑﻲﺣﺴﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﭘﺮﺩﺍﺧﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‬Post-op ‫ ﻭ‬Pre-op ‫ ﺯﻳﺒﺎﺋﻲﺷﻨﺎﺧﺘﻲ‬،‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ‬: Basic Knowledge ، external rhinoplasty ، Open ‫ ﺭﻳﻨﻮﭘﻼﺳـﺘﻲ‬osseocartileginous ‫ ﺟﺮﺍﺣـﻲ‬،Spreadergrafs modified zplasty-Nasalvalve surgery ،‫ ﮔﺮﺍﻓـﺖﻫـﺎ‬turbinate surgery ‫ ﺑـﻪ ﺷـﻴﻮﻩﻫـﺎﻱ ﻋﻤـﻞ ﺳـﭙﺘﻮﭘﻼﺳـﺘﻲ ﻭ‬: Operative techniques .‫ ﭘﺮﺩﺍﺧﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‬Wedgeresection in alar base surgery
.‫ ﭘﺮﺩﺍﺧﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‬Pverprojected nasel tip. Saddle nose ‫ ﺗﺼﺤﻴﺢ‬Revision surgery ،‫ ﺩﺭ ﻛﻮﺩﻛﺎﻥ‬rhinosurgery ، augmentation rhinoplasty ،‫ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺁﺧﺮ ﺑﻪ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺳﺎﺧﺘﻤﺎﻧﻲ ﭘﺮﺩﺍﺧﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻣﺎﻧﻨﺪ ﺗﺼﺤﻴﺢ ﺷﻜﺎﻑ ﻟﺐ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻨﻲ‬: Capita selecta .‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬Conchal Cartilage harvesting ‫ ( ﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﺍﺳﺘﺌﻮﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻭ‬... ‫ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻥ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﻳﻨﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ﻛﻮﺩﻛﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺍﭘﺮﻭﭺﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺭﻳﻨﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ )ﺍﻛﺴﺘﺮﻧﺎﻝ ﻭ‬:‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬Video gallery ‫ ﺁﺳﺎﻥ ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ‬CD ‫ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
61.2 Rhinoplasty The American Academy of Facial Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery (CD I, II) (E. Gaylon McCollough, M.D.) (the St. Louis Aging Face Symposium)
‫ــــــ‬
‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳـﻦ ﻋﻤـﻞ ﺍﺯ‬.‫ ﺑﻪ ﺗﻔﻜﻴﻚ ﺑﻴﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﻣﻲﺷـﻮﺩ‬Stand by ‫ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻳﻚ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺭﻳﻨﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﻣﻴﺎﻧﺴﺎﻝ ﺗﺤﺖ ﺑﻲﻫﻮﺷﻲ‬،‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬Aging Face ‫( ﺩﺭ ﺳﻤﭙﻮﺯﻳﻮﻡ‬E. Gaglon McCollough M.D.) ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﺔ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‬
.‫ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬LLC ‫ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺗﺮﻣﻴﻢﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺳﻔﺎﻟﻴﻚ ﻏﻀﺮﻭﻑﻫﺎﻱ‬delivery ‫ ﺍﺯ ﺭﻭﺵ‬.‫ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬rotation ‫ ﺍﻓﺰﺍﻳﺶ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻨﻲ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ‬tip ‫ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ‬.‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬tip plasty ‫ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﻭ ﺑﻴﺸﺘﺮﻳﻦ ﺗﻮﺟﻪ ﺭﻭﻱ‬Closed ‫ﺍﭘﺮﻭﭺ‬
.‫ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﭘﺎﻧﺴﻤﺎﻥ ﻣﺨﺼﻮﺹ ﻭ ﺟﺎﻟﺐ ﻣﻮﻟﻒ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬Alar base resection ‫ﺩﺭ ﻧﻬﺎﻳﺖ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ‬
62.2 RHINOPLASTY DOUBLE DOME UNIT (CD I , II) (E. Gaylon McCollough MD, Birmingham, Albama)
‫ــــــ‬
‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﻧﮕﺮﺷﻲ‬.‫ ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﻫﺪﻑ ﻋﻤﺪﻩ ﺟﻤﻊ ﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﺁﻥ ﺍﺳﺖ‬tip ‫ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺭﻳﻨﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﺧﺎﻧﻤﻲ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﻛﻪ ﻣﺸﻜﻞ ﺁﻥ ﻋﻤﺪﺗﹰﺎ ﺩﺭ ﻧﺎﺣﻴﻪ‬.‫ ﺍﺯ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﮕﺎﻩ ﺑﻴﺮﻣﻨﮕﺎﻡ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬E. Gaglon MC Collouch ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﺔ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‬
.‫ ﺁﻥ ﺍﺳﺖ‬management ‫ ﻭ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ‬Double Dome Unit ‫ﺑﻪ‬
Rhinoplasty
The
Overly
Projected
Nasal
Tip
(Trent
W.
Smith,
M.D.F.A.C.S.)
63.2
‫ــــــ‬
،‫ ﺑﻴﻨـﻲ‬tip ‫ ﺑﺎ ﺗﻮﺟﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺑﻠﻨﺪﺑﻮﺩﻥ ﻃﻮﻝ ﻣﻮﻳﺎﻝ ﻛﺮﻭﺭﺍﻫﺎ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﻋﻠﺖ ﺑﺮﭼﺴﺘﻪ ﺑـﻮﺩﻥ‬.‫ ﺑﺮﺟﺴﺘﻪ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﻭ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﻳﻚ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬tip ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﺔ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻣﺘﺮﻭﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻭ ﻧﺘﺎﻳﺞ ﻛﻠﻴﻨﻴﻜﻲ ﺭﻳﻨﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻴﻨﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺎ‬
.‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺁﻗﺎﻱ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ ﺍﺳﻤﻴﺖ ﺍﺳﺘﺎﺩ ﻭ ﻣﺪﻳﺮ ﮔﺮﻭﻩ ﺑﺨﺶ ﮔﻮﺵ ﻭ ﺣﻠﻖ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻨﻲ ﻭ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﭘﻼﺳﺘﻴﻚ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﮕﺎﻩ ﺍﻭﻫﺎﻳﻮ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﻮﺩ‬.‫ﺗﻼﺵ ﺩﺭ ﺟﻬﺖ ﻛﻮﺗﺎﻩ ﺑﻮﺩﻥ ﻃﻮﻝ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺩﺭ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺍﺻﻼﺡ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﺟﺴﺘﮕﻲ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬
64.2 San Diego Classics in Soft Tissue & Cosmetic Surgery Rhinoplasty (Part 1-6) (Richard C. Webster, MD, Terence M. Davidson, Alan M. Nahum)
‫ــــــ‬
65.2 Secondary Rhinoplasty & Nasal Reconstruction
‫ــــــ‬
(Rod J. Rohrich, Jack H. SHEEN, Gary C. Burget, Dean E. Burget)
66.2 Smile Train Virtual Surgery Videos (Unilateral Cleft Bilateral Cleft Cleft Palate) (Court B.Cutting, Donato LaRossa) (Vol I, II, III)
67.2 SURGERY of the EAR
(Fifth Edition) (Glasscock-Shambaugh) (Michael E. Glasscock III, MD, FACS, Aina Julianna Gulya, MD)
2003
:‫ ﻋﺒﺎﺭﺗﻨﺪ ﺍﺯ‬CD ‫ ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺷﺎﻣﭙﻮ ﻳﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻌﺘﺒﺮﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﺭﻓﺮﺍﻧﺲﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﮔﻮﺵ ﺩﺭ ﺩﻧﻴﺎ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬.‫( ﺑﻪ ﺷﻤﺎ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬2003) ‫ ﺍﻭﻳﺸﻦ ﭘﻨﺠﻢ‬،‫ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﮔﻮﺵ ﺷﺎﻣﭙﻮـ ﮔﻼﺳﻜﻮ‬textbook . CD ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
1- Scientific Foundations
3- Clinical Evaluation
5- Fundametals of Otologic/Neurotologic Surgery
7- Surgery of the External Ear
2- Surgery of the Tympanomastoid Compartment
4- Surgery of the Inner Ear
6- Surgery of the IAC/CPA/Petrous Apex
8- Surgery of the Skull Base
68.2 Surgical Approaches in Otorhinolaryngology
69.2
(W.F. Thumfort, W. Platzer)
‫ــــــ‬
Teaching Atlas of Head & Neck Imaging (Rtbert Lufkin, Alexandra Borges)
70.2 The Audiogram Workbook
‫ــــــ‬
(Sharon T. Hepfner) (Thieme)
‫ــــــ‬
71.2
The MACS – Lift Short-Scar Rhytidectomy (Textbook) (Patrick L. Tonnard, Alexis M. Verpaele) (CD I , II)
2004
72.2
The MEDPOR Lower Eyelid Spacer (James Patrinely, M.D.F.A.C.S., and Charles N.S. Soparkar, M.D., Ph.D.) (VCD)
‫ــــــ‬
.‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺁﺷﻨﺎﻳﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻏﺎﻟﺐ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬.‫ ﺷﻤﺎ ﺑﺎ ﭘﺮﻭﺗﺰﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺪﭘﻮﺭ ﭘﻠﻚ ﺗﺤﺘﺎﻧﻲ ﺁﺷﻨﺎ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﻳﺪ‬،‫ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ ﭘﺎﺗﺮﻳﻨﻠﻲ ﻭ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ ﺳﻮﭘﺎﺭﻛﺎﺭ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬VCD ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
3) Medpore biomaterial
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
2) Addressing and management potential Complications
- managing winging are edge flare
- managing ridging
- managing under correction
- managing overcorrection
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
1) Introduction and Surgical technique
- Cartilage grafts
- Non-rigid spacer grafts (hard Patale/Sclera,dermis)
- Medpore Lower Lid Advantages
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
15
- managing implant exposure
- managing entropion
- managing entropion
- Implant exchange
73.2 The MEDPOR Nasal Shell Implant (Paul O'Keefe, M.B, B.S., (SYD), F.R.C.S., F.R.A.C.S.) (VCD)
74.2 THE VIDEO ATLAS OF COSMETIC BLEPHAROPLASTY (8 CDs)
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
75.2 VCD Journal of ENT APPROACH VESTIBULAR NEURECTOMY-TRANSTEMPORAL SUPRALABYRINTHINE APPROACH
‫ــــــ‬
(S.LBosniak)
‫ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﻭ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺗﻤﺎﻣﻲ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺍﺯ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﭘﻠﻚ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺑﻲﺣﺴﻲ ﺗﺎ ﺟﺪﻳﺪﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺻـﻼﺡ ﻭ ﺗـﺮﻣﻴﻢ ﻛﻠﻴـﺔ‬S.LBosniak ‫ ﻓﻮﻕ ﻳﻚ ﺩﻭﺭﺓ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﭘﻠﻚ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺍﺳﺘﺎﺩ ﺑﺮﺟﺴﺘﻪ‬VCD ٨ ‫ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﺔ‬
.‫ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﻪ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻨﺰﻟﺔ ﮔﺬﺭﺍﻧﺪﻥ ﻳﻚ ﺩﻭﺭﻩ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺎﻩ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﺑﻠﻔﺎﺭﻭﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ﺩﺍﻧﺴﺖ‬.‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬... ‫ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﺷﺎﻻﺯﻳﺲ ﻭ‬،‫ ﭘﺘﻮﺯ‬،‫ ﺍﻛﺘﺮﻭﭘﻴﻮﻥ‬،‫ ﺁﻧﺘﺮﻭﭘﻴﻮﻥ‬،‫ﻣﺴﺎﺋﻞ ﻭ ﻣﺸﻜﻼﺕ ﭘﻠﻜﻲ ﻣﻦﺟﻤﻠﻪ‬
MICROSURGERY OF THE SKULL BASE TRANSOTIC APPROACH ACOUSTIC NEUROMA (Prof. U. Fisch Zurich) (VCD#2)
76.2 VCD Journal of ENT INFRATEMPORAL FOSSA APPROACH TYPE C
(Prof. U. Fisch Zurich) (VCD#4)
‫ــــــ‬
77.2 VCD Journal of ENT INFRATFMPORAL FOSSA APPROACH GLOMUS TEMPORALE TUMOR (Prof. U. Fisch Zurich) (VCD#1)
‫ــــــ‬
78.2 VCD Journal of ENT MICROSURGERY OF THE SKULL BASE TRANSOTIC APPROACH ACOUSTIC NEUROMA-INFRATEMPORAL FOSSA APRROACH TYPE C (Prof. U. Fisch Zurich) (VCD#3)
‫ــــــ‬
79.2 VJGS Invited Presentation: Thyroidectomy (Jon A. van Heerden, ND)
‫ــــــ‬
‫ ﺯﻧﺎﻥ ﻭ ﻣﺎﻣﺎﺋﻲ‬-٣
CD ‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ‬
1.3
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
‫ــــــ‬
Abdominal Colposacropexy and Vaginal Sacropinus Suspension (Harold P. Drutz MD FRCS (C) (VCD)
2.3 Active Management of Labour
2004
(Kieran O'Driscoll, Declan Meagher) (SALEKAN E-BOOK)
3.3
Adapted form Physical Examination and Health Assessment, 2/e (Carolyn Jarvis, RN, C, MSN, FNP) (W.B. Saunders Company) (VCD)
‫ــــــ‬
4.3
Advanced Colposcopy: Understanding Vessel Patterns (Dorothy M. Babo, MD) (VCD)
‫ــــــ‬
:‫ ﺗﻐﻴﻴﺮ ﻛﻮﻟﭙﻮﺳﻜﻮﭘﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺩﻭ ﻓﺎﻛﺘﻮﺭ ﻣﻬﻢ ﻧﻴﺎﺯ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‬:‫ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ‬VJOG ‫ ﺍﺯ ﺳﺮﻱ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮ‬
.‫ ﺩﺍﻧﺶ ﺍﻟﮕﻮﻫﺎﻱ ﻧﺮﻣﺎﻝ ﻳﺎ ﺍﺑﻨﺮﻣﺎﻝ ﺳﺮﻭﻳﻜﺲ‬-٢ ‫ ﻧﮕﺮﺵ ﺩﻗﻴﻖ‬-١
‫( ﻭ ﺍﻓﺘﺮﺍﻕ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺍﺯ ﻳﻜﺪﻳﮕﺮ ﻭ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﻋﻜﺲﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﻭ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷـﺪﻩ ﺍﺳـﺖ ﺩﺭ ﻗﺴـﻤﺖ ﺁﺧـﺮ‬.....‫ ﻛﺮﺍﺗﻴﻦ ﻭ‬،‫ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻚ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﻋﻮﺍﻣﻠﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺸﺎﻫﺪﻩ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﻣﻮﺛﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ )ﻣﺎﻧﻨﺪ ﺑﺎﺯﺗﺎﺏ ﻧﻮﺭ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﻣﻮﻛﻮﺱ‬
.‫ﺭﻭﺵ ﻛﺎﺭﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﺻﺤﻴﺢ ﺑﺎ ﻛﻮﻟﭙﻮﺳﻜﻮﭖ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
Advanced Therapy of BRAST DISEASE (S. Eva Singletry, MD, Geoffrey L. Robb, MD)
6.3 American Cancer Society Atlas of Clinical Oncology (Cancer of the Female Lowe Genital Tract) (Patricia J. Eifel, M.D. Charles Levenback, M.D.)
2000
5.3
(SALEKAN E-BOOK)
2001
Cervix ‫ ﺁﺧﺮﻳﻦ ﺗﻐﻴﻴﺮﺍﺕ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﺬﻳﺮﻓﺘﻪﺷﺪﻩ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮ ﻣﻬﺎﺟﻢ‬.‫ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮﻫﺎ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ ﺗﻨﺎﺳﻠﻲ ﺗﺤﺘﺎﻧﻲ ﺯﻧﺎﻥ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬،‫ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ‬،‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﺑﻪ ﮔﻔﺘﺔ ﻣﺆﻟﻔﻴﻦ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻨﻈﻮﺭ ﻓﺮﺍﻫﻢﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﻣﺮﻭﺭ ﻭ ﺁﻧﺎﻟﻴﺰ ﺑﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬
.‫ﻭ ﻳﻚ ﺑﺎﺯﻧﮕﺮﻱ ﻛﻠﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻫﻤﻪ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
Chemotherapy in Curative
Management
Surgery for Vulvar Cancer
Post-treatment Surveillance
Radiation Therapy for Vulvar Cancer
Palliative Care
Acute Effects of Radiation Therapy
Late Complications of Pelvic Radiation
Therapy
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
Surgical Treatment of Invasive Cervical
Cancer
Radiation Therapy for Invasive Cervical
Cancer
Radical Management of Recurrent Cervical
Cancer
Management of Vaginal Cancer
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
Diagnostic Imaging
Epidemiology
Screening for Neoplasms
Pathology
Treatment of Squamous Intraepithelial
Lesions
Molecular Biology
Invasive Carcinoma of the Cervix
Anatomy and Natural
History
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
7.3
8.3
16
An Atlas of Erectile Dysfunction (Second Edition) (Roger S. Kirby, MD, FRCS) (The Encyclopedia of Visual Medicine Series)
Atlas of Clinical oncology Breast Cancer (American Cancer Society ) (David J Winchester, MD, David P Winchester, MD)
2004
2000
:‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬CD ‫ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
yGenetics, Natural History, and DNA-Based Genetic Counseling in Hereditary Brast Cancer
y Breast Cancer Risk and Management: Chemoprevention, Surgery, and Surveillance
y Screening and Diagnostic Imaging yImaging-Directed y Breast Biopsy yHistophathology of Malignant Breast Disease
yUnusual Breast Pathology y Prognostic and Predictive Markers in Breast Cancer
y Surgical Management of Ductal Carcinoma In Situ
yEvaluation and Surgical Management of Stage I and II Breast Cancer y Locally Advanced Breast Cancer y Breast Reconstruction
9.3
ATLAS OF ENDOSCOPIC TECHNIQUES IN GYNECOLOGY (First Edition) (Jeffrey M. Goldberg, MD, Tommaso Falcone, MD) (©W.B. Saunders, Philadelphia)
2001
:‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﺫﻳﻞ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬
Instrumentation and Pelvic Anatomy
Surgery for Pelvic Support
Patient Preparation
Surgery for Endometriosis and Pelvic Pain
Tubal Surgery
New Procedures
Ovarian Surgery
Uterine Surgery
Complications
Hysteroscopic Surgery
10.3 Atlas of Gynecologic Surgery
(3rd edition) (H.A. Hirsch, M.D., O. Käser, M.D., F.A. Iklé, M.D.) (Thieme)
11.3 Atlas of Transvaginal Surgery (Second Edition) (©W.B. Saunders, Philadelphia) (VCD)
- Prolene sling in the treatment of stress incontinence
- Transvaginal repair of enterocele and vault prolapse
- Excision of urethral diverticula
12.3 Before We Are Born
13.3 COLPOSCOPY
- Fibro-fatty labial flap (Martius Flat) for vaginal reconstruction
- Transvaginal repair of vesico-vaginal fistula using a peritoneal flap
- Transvaginal repair of posterior vaginal wall prolapse
(SALEKAN E-BOOK)
- Transvaginal hysterectomy for severe prolapse
- Transvaginal repair of grade IV cystocele
Essentials of Embryology & Birth Defects (Moore, Oersaud) (6th Edition)
an Interactive
CD-ROM
‫ــــــ‬
2001
‫ــــــ‬
(Thomas V. Sedlacek, MD, Charles J. Dunton, MD)
‫ــــــ‬
14.3 Core Curriculum in Primary Care Patient Evaluation for Non-Cardiac Surgery and Gynecology and Urology (Michael K. Rees, MD, MPH)
‫ــــــ‬
‫ ﻫﺮ ﻛﺪﺍﻡ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳـﻦ‬.‫ ﺯﻧﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺍﻭﺭﻭﮊﻱ ﺭﺍ ﮔﺮﺩﺁﻭﺭﻱ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬،‫ ﺣﺎﺿﺮ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ‬CD .‫ ﺑﻨﺎ ﻧﻬﺎﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬Harvard ‫ﻫﺎﻳﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻣﺪﺍﻭﻡ ﺩﺳﺘﻴﺎﺭﺍﻧﮓ ﻭ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﻫﺮ ﺭﺷﺘﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺍﻋﻀﺎﺀ ﻫﻴﺌﺖ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﮕﺎﻩ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬CD ‫ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﻪﺍﻱ ﺍﺯ‬CCC
‫ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺧﻼﺻﻪ ﻫﺮ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺻـﻮﺭﺕ ﻳـﻚ ﻣﻘﺎﻟـﻪ ﭼـﺎﭘﻲ ﺩﺭ‬.‫ ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺕ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﭼﻬﺎﺭﮔﺰﻳﻨﻪﺍﻱ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬،‫ ﺩﺭ ﺁﺧﺮ ﻫﺮ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲ ﻭ ﻣﺒﺤﺜﻲ‬.‫ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲﻫﺎ ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻣﺘﻦ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺳﺘﺮﺱ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬
:‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬.‫ﻣﺠﻼﺕ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺯﻧﺎﻣﻪﻫﺎ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
‫ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﻪ ﻳﻚ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﻋﻤﺎﻝ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ )ﺑﺠﺰ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻗﻠﺐ( ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻭ ﺁﻣﺎﺩﻩ ﻛﻨﻴﻢ؟‬-١
Male impotence ‫ ﻋﻘﻴﻤﻲ ﻣﺮﺩﺍﻥ‬-٣
.(AUB) ‫ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺧﻮﻧﺮﻳﺰﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺑﻨﺮﻣﺎﻝ ﺭﺣﻢ‬-٢
15.3 Core Curriculum in Primary Care Gynecology
(Michael, Isaac Schiff, Keith, Thomas, Annekathryn)
‫ــــــ‬
(James R. Scott) (9 Edition) (SALEKAN E-BOOK)
17.3 Diagnosis of Benign Breast Disease (Dorothy M. Barbo, MD) (VCD) Submitted Subject The Limits of Laparoscopy: Diapharbmatic Endometriosis (David B. Redwine, MD)
.‫( ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬Video Journal ob/Gyn) VJOG ‫ ﺍﺯ ﺳﺮﻱ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮ‬
‫ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﻃﺮﺯ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﻪ ﻭ ﺍﻓﺘﺮﺍﻕ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﺧﻮﺵﺧﻴﻢ ﺍﺯ ﺑﺪﺧﻴﻢ ﺍﺯ ﻃﺮﻳﻖ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺣﺎﻝ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻭ ﻣﺎﻣﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺷﻜﺎﻳﺎﺕ ﺷﺎﻳﻊ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﺑﻴﺎﻥ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﺍﻟﮕﻮﺭﻳﺘﻢ ﻃﺮﺯ ﺑﺮﺧﻮﺭﺩ ﻭ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺁﺯﻣﺎﻳﺸﺎﺕ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ‬CD ‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮ‬.١
.‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺑﺎ ﺍﻧﺪﻭﻣﺘﺮﻳﻮﺯ ﻧﺎﺣﻴﻪ ﺩﻳﺎﻓﺮﺍﮔﻢ ﺑﺤﺚ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬٢ ‫ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ‬.‫ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻣﺤﺪﻭﺩﻳﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﻻﭘﺎﺭﺍﺳﻜﻮﭘﻲ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬CD ‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮ‬.٢ .‫ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬Solid ‫ ﻭ ﻳﻚ ﺗﻮﺩﻩ‬Cyst ‫ ﻭ‬nipple discharge ، Mastodynia
2003
18.3 Endoscopic Surgery for Gynecologists
‫ــــــ‬
16.3 Danforth's Obstetrics and Gynecology
(Suttond & diamond) (second Edition)
19.3 Handbook of disease of the breast (Second Edition)
(Michael Dixon, Richarc Sainsbury) (Salekan E-book)
20.3 Haines & Taylor OBSTETRICAL & GYNAECOLOGICAL PATHOLOGY
(Fifth Edition) (Harold Fox-Michael Wells) (CD I , II)
21.3 INTERACTIVE COLOR GUIDES Obstetrics Gynecology Neonatology (David James, Mary Pillai, Janice Rymer, Andrew N. J. Fish, Warren Hye)
1. Normal Infant
2. Congennital Abnormalities
3. Birth Trauma
4. Syndromes
5. Deformations
6. Infection
7. Iatrogenic Lesions
8. Surgical Problems
22.3 LAVM: Our First one Hundred Cases; What have We Learned?
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
9. Skin Disorders
10. Low-Birth-Weight Infants
(Dr G. F. Stohs, MD & Dr. L. P. Johonson, MD)
‫ــــــ‬
.‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬١٠٠ ‫ ﻣﻮﺭﺑﻴﺪﻳﺘﻲ ﻭ ﻣﻮﺭﺗﺎﻟﻴﺘﻲ ﻭ ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ ﺍﻳﺠﺎﺩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺑﺎ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺭﻭﺵ ﺣﻴﻦ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺩﺭ‬CD ‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮ‬.‫ﺍﻣﺮﻭﺯﻩ ﻫﻴﺴﺘﺮﻛﺘﻮﻣﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻃﺮﻳﻘﻪ ﻻﭘﺎﺭﺍﺳﻜﻮﭘﻲ ﻓﺮﺍﮔﻴﺮ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
23.3 Male Infertility
A Guide for the Glinician) (Anne M. Jequier)
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
‫‪17‬‬
‫)‪(Mrs Baruna Basu, Dr. Suresh Chandra Basu‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫‪24.3 Male Reproductive Dysfunction‬‬
‫)‪25.3 Menopause Biology & Pathobiology (Rogerio, Jennifer Kelsey, Robert Marcus‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪Nine Month Miracle (A.D.A.M. Software, Inc.‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪3. A Child's View of Pregnancy‬‬
‫‪2. The Family Album‬‬
‫)‪(Thirteenth Edition) (Jonathan S. Berek, MD‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪1. Anatomy‬‬
‫‪26.3‬‬
‫‪27.3 Novak's Gynecology‬‬
‫‪28.3 Obstetric Ultrasound Principles and Techniques‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ ﺗﻌﻴﻴﻦ ﺳﻦ ﺣﺎﻣﻠﮕﻲ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﻣﻌﻴﺎﺭﻫﺎﻱ ‪ FL . BPD‬ﻭ ‪ AC‬ﻭ ‪ HC‬ﻭ ﺟﺪﺍﻭﻝ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ‬‫ ﺗﻌﻴﻴﻦ ﺳﻦ ﺑﺎﺭﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺗﺮﻳﻤﺴﺘﺮ ﺍﻭﻝ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ‪ Gs‬ﻭ ‪ CRL‬ﻭ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﺯﻩﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ‬‫ ﺗﻌﻴﻴﻦ ﺳﻦ ﺑﺎﺭﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺗﺮﻳﻤﺴﺘﺮ ﺩﻭﻡ ﻭ ﺳﻮﻡ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﺩﻭﺭ ﺳﺮ ﻭ ﻧﺤﻮﻩ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﺯﻩﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺁﻥ‬‫ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ ﺟﺎﻟﺒﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺭﺍﺑﻄﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﺟﻨﻴﻦ ﺩﺭ ﺗﺮﻳﻤﺴﺘﺮ ﺩﻭﻡ ﻭ ﺳﻮﻡ )ﻣﻌﺪﻩ‪ -‬ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ‪(........‬‬‫ ﺗﻌﻴﻴﻦ ﻣﺤﻞ ﻻﻧﻪﮔﺰﻳﻨﻲ ﺟﻔﺖ ﻭ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺭﻛﻮﻟﻤﺎﻥ ﻭ ﭘﻼﻧﺘﺎﭘﺮﻭﻳﺎ‬‫‪ -‬ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺗﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺭﺍﺑﻄﻪ ﺑﺎ ‪) BPP‬ﺑﻴﻮﻓﻴﺰﻳﻜﺎﻝ ﭘﺮﻭﻓﺎﻳﻞ(‬
‫ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﺟﻨﻴﻦ ﻭ ﺁﻧﻮﻣﺎﻟﻲﻫﺎﻱ ‪ CNS‬ﻭ ‪Body‬‬‫ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﺭﺣﻢ ﻭ ﺁﺩﻧﻜﺲﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺍﻣﺒﺮﻳﻮ ﻭ ﻛﻴﺴﻪ ﺯﺭﺩﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺗﺮﻳﻤﺴﺘﺮ ﺍﻭﻝ‬‫ ﺗﻌﻴﻴﻦ ﺳﻦ ﺑﺎﺭﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺗﺮﻳﻤﺴﺘﺮ ﺩﻭﻡ ﻭ ﺳﻮﻡ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ‪ FL‬ﻭ ‪ AC‬ﻭ ﻧﺤﻮﻩ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﺯﻩﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ‬‫ ﺗﻌﻴﻴﻦ ﻣﺤﻞ ﺟﻔﺖ ﻭ ﺣﺠﻢ ﻣﺎﻳﻊ ﺁﻣﻨﻴﻮﺗﻴﻚ‬‫ ﺍﻧﻔﺎﺭﻛﺘﻮﺱ ﻭ ﻭﺍﺭﻳﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﻣﺤﻞ ﺧﺮﻭﺝ ﺑﻨﺪ ﻧﺎﻑ )‪(Cord Insertion‬‬‫‪ -‬ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻟﻜﻴﻨﻴﻜﺎﻝ ﻭ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ‪ Case Study‬ﻭ ﻣﻄﺮﺡﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺕ ﺩﺭ ﺭﺍﺑﻄﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﻭ ﭘﺎﺳﺦ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ‬
‫‪29.3 Operative Obstetrics‬‬
‫)‪(Larry C. Gilstrap III) (2nd Edition) (SALEKAN E-BOOK‬‬
‫)‪30.3 Safety principles for surgical techniques in minimally invasive gynecologic surgery (Dr. Samir Sawalhe) (CD I , II‬‬
‫)‪(Equipment, preparation, positioning, approach alternatives, safe entry, nots on application‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪4. Approach alternatives‬‬
‫‪5. Electrical morcellation‬‬
‫‪3. Disinfection/preparation‬‬
‫‪2. Positioning‬‬
‫‪1. Instruments/equipment‬‬
‫)‪31.3 Single Puncture Laparoscopic Technique (Marco Pelosi, MD) (VCD‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮ ‪ CD‬ﺭﻭﺵ ﻻﭘﺎﺭﺍﺳﻜﻮﭘﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ‪ Single puncture‬ﺗﻮﺻﻴﻒ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺷﺮﺍﻳﻂ ﺍﻃﺎﻕ ﻋﻤﻞ‪ ،‬ﻃﺮﻳﻘﻪ ﻭ ﻭﺳﺎﺋﻞ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﻣﺰﺍﻳﺎ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺭﻭﺵ ﺑﻪ ﻧﻮﻉ ‪ multiple puncture‬ﺑﻴﺎﻥ ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﺩ‪.‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪32.3 Submitted Subject: Transvaginal Sonographic Assessment of Pelvic Pathology: Preoperative Evaluation‬‬
‫)‪(Frances R. Batzer, MD‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮ ‪ CD‬ﺍﺯ ‪ ٣‬ﺑﺨﺶ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺗﺸﻜﻴﻞ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪:‬‬
‫)ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﺍﻭﻝ(‪ :‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻫﺎﻱ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺗﺮﺍﻧﺲ ﻭﺍﮊﻳﻨﺎﻝ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺣﺎﻝ ‪ ٦‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺑﻴﺎﻥ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺑﺎ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺗﺮﺍﻧﺲ ﻭﺍﮊﻳﻨﺎﻝ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﻣﺤﻞ ﺩﻗﻴﻖ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﻟﮕﻦ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺑﺎ ﻫﻴﺴﺘﺮﺳﻜﻮﭘﻲ ﻭ ﻻﭘﺎﺭﺍﺳﻜﻮﭘﻲ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ‬
‫ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﺩ‪ Case .‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﺳﻄﺮ ﺑﻪ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‪:‬‬
‫ﺧﺎﻧﻢ ‪ ٤٢‬ﺳﺎﻟﻪﺍﻱ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻨﻮﻣﺘﺮﻭﺭﺍﮊﻱ ﺑﻪ ﻣﺪﺕ ‪ ٢‬ﺳﺎﻝ ← ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺗﺮﺍﻧﺲ ﻭﺍﮊﻳﻨﺎﻝ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ← ﺳﺎﺏ ﻣﻮﻛﻮﺱ ﻓﻴﺒﺮﻭﻥ ←‬
‫‪ -١‬ﺧﺎﻧﻢ ‪ ٢٤‬ﺳﺎﻟﻪﺍﻱ ﺑﺎ ﺗﺎﺭﻳﺨﭽﻪ ﺧﺘﻢ ﺣﺎﻣﻠﮕﻲ ﻣﻜﺮﺭ ﺩﺭ ﺗﺮﻳﻤﺴﺘﺮ ﺩﻭﻡ ← ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺗﺮﺍﻧﺲ ﻭﺍﮊﻳﻨﺎﻝ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ←‬
‫ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ‬
‫←‬
‫ﻫﻴﺴﺘﺮﻭﺳﻜﻮﭘﻴﻚ ‪resection‬‬
‫‪Septate uterus‬‬
‫‪-٢‬‬
‫‪-٣‬‬
‫‪-٤‬‬
‫‪-٥‬‬
‫‪-٦‬‬
‫←‬
‫ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ‪Hysteroscopic Resection :‬‬
‫ﺧﺎﻧﻢ ‪ ٣٦‬ﺳﺎﻟﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺗﺎﺭﻳﺨﭽﻪ ﺍﻧﺪﻭﻣﺘﺮﻳﻮﺯ ﻭ ﺩﺭﺩ ﻧﺎﮔﻬﺎﻧﻲ ﻭ ﺵ‬
‫ﺍﻧﺪﻭﻣﺘﺮﻳﻮﻣﺎ‬
‫ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ‬
‫ﺩﻳﺪ ﻧﺎﺣﻴﻪ ﻟﮕﻦ ← ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺗﺮﺍﻧﺲ ﻭﺍﮊﻳﻨﺎﻝ‬
‫←‬
‫←‬
‫ﺧﺎﻧﻢ ‪ ٤١‬ﺳﺎﻟﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺩﺭﺩ ﻧﺎﺣﻴﻪ ﻟﮕﻦ ← ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺗﺮﺍﻧﺲ ﻭﺍﮊﻳﻨﺎﻝ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ← ﺩﺭﻣﻮﺋﻴﺪ ‪ ← Cyst‬ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ‪ :‬ﺑﺮﺩﺍﺷﺘﻦ ﺩﺭﻣﻮﺋﻴﺪ ﻛﻴﺴﺖ ﺑﺎ ﻻﭘﺎﺭﺍﺳﻜﻮﭘﻲ‬
‫ﺧﺎﻧﻢ ‪ ٤٣‬ﺳﺎﻟﻪ ﺑﻄﻮﺭ ﺍﺗﻔﺎﻗﻲ ﻣﺘﻮﺟﻪ ﺑﺰﺭﮔﻲ ﺗﺨﻤﺪﺍﻥ ﻳﻜﻄﺮﻑ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ← ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺗﺮﺍﻧﺲ ﻭﺍﮊﻳﻨﺎﻝ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ← ﻓﻮﻟﻴﻜﻮﻝ ﺩﺭ ‪ ← Cyst‬ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ‪ :‬ﺑﺮﺩﺍﺷﺘﻦ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﻪ ﺑﺎ ﻻﭘﺎﺭﺍﺳﻜﻮﭖ‬
‫ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ‪ :‬ﺑﺮﺩﺍﺷﺘﻦ ﻛﻴﺴﺖ ﺑﺎ ﻻﭘﺎﺭﺍﺳﻜﻮﭖ ﺑﺎ ﻟﻴﺰﺭﻱ ‪YA‬‬
‫ﺧﺎﻧﻢ ‪ ٢١‬ﺳﺎﻟﻪﺍﻱ ﺑﺎ ﺧﻮﻧﺮﻳﺰﻱ ﻣﺪﺍﻭﻡ ﻭ ‪ ٣ LMP‬ﻫﻔﺘﻪ ﻗﺒﻞ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ←‬
‫ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺗﺮﺍﻧﺲ ﻭﺍﮊﻳﻨﺎﻝ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ‪ectopicpregnancy‬‬
‫← ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ‪:‬‬
‫‪Left Salpingectomy‬‬
‫)ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﺩﻭﻡ(‪:‬‬
‫)‪(R.Viscarello.MD‬‬
‫‪Limiting Physician Exposure to Hepatitis B and HIV : Ob / Gyns‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮ ‪ CD‬ﺭﺍﻩﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻴﺸﮕﻴﺮﻱ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻓﺮﺩﻱ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺎ ‪ HBV‬ﻳﺎ ‪ HIV‬ﺩﺭ ﺗﻤﺎﺱ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﮔﻔﺘﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﺭﺍﻫﻬﺎﻱ ﺻﺤﻴﺢ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﻭ ﻻﭘﺎﺭﺍﺳﻜﻮﭘﻲ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻴﺸﮕﻴﺮﻱ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻄﺐ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﺯﻧﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺯﺍﻳﻤﺎﻥ ﺑﻴﺎﻥ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫)ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﺳﻮﻡ(‪:‬‬
‫‪(Gordon. D. Davis, MD. & R.W.Lobel,MD‬‬
‫‪Laparoscopic Retropubic Colposuspension For Stress urinary incontinence‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮ ‪ CD‬ﻃﺮﻳﻘﻪ ﺍﺻﻼﺡ ‪ Stress incontinence‬ﺑﻄﺮﻳﻘﻪ ﻻﭘﺎﺭﺍﺳﻜﻮﭘﻲ ﺑﻴﺎﻥ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
18
:(‫)ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﭼﻬﺎﺭﻡ‬
Bi-polar Desiccation of Vascular Tissue: Laparoscopic Hysterectomy
(Paul, D. Indman,MD)
.‫ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬bi-polar desiccation ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﻃﺮﻳﻘﻪ ﺑﺮﺩﺍﺷﺘﻦ ﭘﺎﻳﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻋﺮﻭﻗﻲ ﻛﻮﭼﻚ ﻭ ﻣﺘﻮﺳﻂ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻋﻤﺎﻝ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ‬
33.3 TEXT AND ATLAS OF Female in Fertility Surgery (ROBERT B. HUNT) (Third Edition) (Mosby) (SALEKAN E-BOOK)
BASIC SCIENCE
ENERGY SOURCES
RADIOLOGIC PROCEDURES
HYSTEROSCOPY
LAPAROSCOPY
LAPAROTOMY
ENDOMETRIOSIS
‫ــــــ‬
ADDITIONAL CONSIDERATIONS
34.3 Textbook of Assisted Reproductive Techniques Laboratory and Clinical Perspectives (David K Gardner, Ariel Weissman, Colin M Howles, Zeev Shoham)
35.3 The Boston IVF Handbook of Infertility
A Practical guide for practitioners who care for infertile couples (Steven R. Bayer, Michael M. Alper, Alan S. Penzias)
2004
‫ــــــ‬
36.3 The Infertility Manual (2nd Edition) (Kamini A Rao, Peter R Brinsden, A Henry Sathananthan)
2004
37.3 Triplet Pregnancies and their Consequences (Louis G. Keith, MD, Isaac Blickstein, MD) (SALEKAN E-BOOK)
2002
Epidemiology and biology
Antepartum considerations
Delivery/birth considerations
The Matria database
Short-term outcomes
Prenatal diagnosis
Long-term outcomes
Preventive measures
Miscellaneous
Future dicections
Sources of information on multiple births
38.3 TVT Tension-free Vaginal – Tape
Stress Incontinence
Anatomy&Terminology
‫ــــــ‬
Tension-free Vaginal Tape
Indication&Patient Selection
TVT Procedure
Clinical Information
Sales Support
39.3 Urogynecology: Evaluation and Treatment of Urinary Incontinence (Bruce Rosenzweig, MD, Jeffrey S. Levy, MD, Donald R. Ostergard, MD)
‫ــــــ‬
.‫ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‬CD ‫ﻼ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺕ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻧﻮﺷﺘﺎﺭﻱ ﻭ ﻓﺎﻳﻞ ﺻﻮﺗﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﻫﺮ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
‫ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻛﺎﻣ ﹰ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
:‫ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﻣﺠﺰﺍ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬٤ Urogynechology
Consideration for the OB/GYN Generalist
Types of incontinernce y
-
won surgical & surgical Management
- Evaluation - Introduction Definigg Incontinence :‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺧﻮﺩ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ‬:Introduction & Defining Incontince (١
incontinence awareness y
Patient misconceptions y
affected women y
incontince ‫ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ‬y
:incontinency ‫( ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﺑﺎ‬٢
Cystoscopy y uroflowmetry y Postvoid residual y Cystometrogram y Pad test y ‫ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﺎﺕ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ‬y ‫ ﺗﺎﺭﻳﺨﭽﻪ‬y Voiding diary y un , u/s y
Pessary test y Multi-Channel urodynamics y
: Stress urinary incontinence ‫( ﺗﺪﺍﺑﻴﺮ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻭ ﻏﻴﺮ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺩﺭ‬٣
.‫( ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.... ‫ ﻭ‬funetional electrieal Stimalation ‫ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﺋﻲ‬biofeedback, Beharioral modification)) ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺍﻟﮕﻮﺭﻳﺘﻢ ﺗﺼﻤﻴﻢﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺭﻭﺵ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺭﻭﺵ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻏﻴﺮﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ‬
.‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬Complication ‫ ﺩﺭ ﻗﺴﻤﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﻌﺪﻱ ﻣﻘﺎﻳﺴﻪ ﺩﺭﺻﺪ ﻣﻮﻓﻘﻴﺖ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎ ﺫﻛﺮ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﺁﺧﺮ‬.‫ ﺍﻋﻤﺎﻝ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬Procedure ‫ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ‬:‫ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ‬
: Consideration for the OB/Gyn Generalist (٤
:‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻓﺼﻞ‬
incontinrence management to private patients y
Non surgical therapy y
urogynechology as a subdiscipline y
.‫ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
Allied Staff y
equipment cost y
Set-up requirement y
Urodynamics y professional consideration y
eystometry y
2005
40.3 Ultrasound in Obstetrics & Gynecology (Eberhard Merz.M.D)
41.3 UTEROSALPINGOGRAPHY IN GYNECOLOGY (Hysterosalpingography) It's Application in Physiological And Pathological Conditions
(SALEKAN E-BOOK)
2003
:‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬Utero Salpingography ‫ ﺣﺎﻭﻱ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ ﺫﻳﻞ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺭﺗﺒﺎﻁ ﺑﺎ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
‫ ﺗﻐﻴﻴﺮﺍﺕ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻚ ﺭﺣﻢ‬-
‫ ﺁﻧﻮﻣﺎﻟﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺎﺩﺭﺯﺍﺩﻱ ﺭﺣﻢ ﻭ ﻟﻮﻟﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻓﺎﻟﻮﭖ‬‫ ﭘﺮﻳﺘﻮﺋﻦ ﻭ ﺗﺨﻤﺪﺍﻥﻫﺎ‬،‫ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻟﻮﻟﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻓﺎﻟﻮﭖ‬-
‫ ﻋﻤﻠﻜﺮﺩ ﺭﺣﻢ ﻭ ﻟﻮﻟﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻓﺎﻟﻮﭖ‬‫ ﺳﻞ ﺗﻨﺎﺳﻠﻲ ﻭ ﻓﻴﺴﺘﻮﻝ ﮊﻧﻴﺘﺎﻝ‬-
Uterosalpingography ‫ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﻛﻠﻲ ﺩﺭ‬
(‫ ﺳﻘﻂ ﻣﻜﺮﺭ ﻭ ﻗﺎﻋﺪﮔﻲ ﺩﺭﺩﻧﺎﻙ )ﺩﻳﺲ ﻣﻨﻮﺭﻩ‬-
.‫ ﮔﻨﺠﺎﻧﺪﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬USG ‫ ﻓﻮﻕﺍﻟﺬﻛﺮ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻴﻚ ﻣﺘﻌﺪﺩ ﻭﺍﺿﺤﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺭﺗﺒﺎﻁ ﺑﺎ‬CD ‫ﺩﺭ‬
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
‫‪19‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪42.3 Video Journal of Gynecology (Vaginal Hysterectomy Wedge morcellization Technique for the Large Uterus) (The Infertile Couple) (David Olive, MD, George W. Morley MD,‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫‪43.3 William's OBSTETRICS‬‬
‫)‪(F. Gary Cunningham, Kenneth J. Leveno) (CD I , II‬‬
‫)‪(Twenty-second edition‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪44.3 WOMEN'S HEALTH (MOSBY'S PRIMARY CARE‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪ Procedure‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﺳﺮﭘﺎﺋﻲ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺯﻧﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ ﮊﻧﻴﺘﺎﻟﻬﺎﻱ ﺯﻧﺎﻥ )‪ (Female Genitalia‬ﻭ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﺎﺕ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ‪ Female Genitiourinary Tract‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﺵ ‪ ، L‬ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ‪ ،‬ﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﻭ ﻛﻨﺘﺮﺍﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ ‪ L‬ﻭ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﻋﻤﻞ ﻭ ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ ﻭ ﺗﺴﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ ﻭ ﻏﻴﺮﻩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﺧﺼﻮﺻﻴﺖ ﻣﻨﺤﺼﺮ ﺑﻪ ﻓﺮﺩ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪ :‬ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻥ ﺗﻤﺎﻡ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻓﻴﻠﻢﻫﺎﻱ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮﺋﻲ ﺩﺭ ‪ CD‬ﻭ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ‪ CNG‬ﻳﺎ ﺗﺴﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﭼﻨﺪ ﮔﺰﻳﻨﻪﺍﻱ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺁﺧﺮ ﻫﺮ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪:‬‬
‫ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪:‬‬
‫‪ Breast examination -١‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‪ :‬ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ‪ ،‬ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ‪ ،‬ﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﻭ ﻛﻨﺘﺮﺍﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ ‪ ،‬ﺗﺠﻬﻴﺰﺍﺕ ‪ ،‬ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺑﻪ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ‪ ،‬ﻓﺮﻡ ﺭﺿﺎﻳﺖ ﻧﺎﻣﻪ‪ Pojition ،‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﻭ ﺛﺒﺖ ﻳﺎﻓﺘﻪﻫﺎ ﻭ ﭘﺮﻭﻧﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺍﺷﻜﺎﻻﺕ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻜﻲ ‪ ،‬ﺗﺸـﺨﻴﺺ ﺍﻓﺘﺮﺍﻗـﻲ ﻭ ‪ quiz‬ﺍﻧﺘﻬـﺎﻱ ﺑﺨـﺶ‬
‫ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﺗﻤﺎﻡ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺗﻤﺎﺱﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﻭ ﻓﺎﻳﻞﻫﺎﻱ ﻭﻳﺪﻳﻮﺋﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺩﺭﺁﻣﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
‫‪ : Colposcopy -٢‬ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ‪ cervix‬ﺑﺎ ﺷﻜﻠﻬﺎﻱ ﺗﻤﺎﻡ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺕ ﻻﺯﻡ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺘﻦ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﺳﭙﺲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻭ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻧﺎﺣﻴﻪ ﺳﺮﻭﻛﻴﻞ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﻭ ﻛﻨﺘﺮﺍﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﺑﺎ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺑﻪ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺗﺠﻬﻴﺰﺍﺕ ﻻﺯﻡ ‪ ، Positioning ،‬ﺁﻣﺎﺩﻩ ﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﻣﺤﻞ‪ ،‬ﺁﻧﺴﺘﺰﻱ‪ ،‬ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ‪ Procedne‬ﻭ ﻛﻤﭙﻴﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ ‪ ،‬ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻓﺘﺮﺍﻗﻲ‬
‫ﻭ ﺗﻐﻴﻴﺮ ﻧﺘﺎﻳﺞ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺁﺧﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ Quiz‬ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪ ٧ .‬ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺭﻭﺵ ﻛﻮﭘﻴﻮﺳﻜﻮﭘﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻓﺼﻞ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪.‬‬
‫‪ -٣‬ﺍﻧﺪﻭﻣﺘﺮﻳﺎﻝ ﺑﻴﻮﭘﺴﻲ‪ :‬ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﻭ ﻣﻘﺪﻣﻪ ﺗﺎﺭﻳﺨﭽﻪﺍﻱ ﺍﺯ ‪ D&C‬ﻭ ﺑﻴﻮﭘﺴﻲ ﺁﻧﺪﻭﻣﺘﺮﻳﺎﻝ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻗﺪﻳﻤﻲ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺁﻥ ﺑـﻪ ﺗﺼـﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺭﻧﮕـﻲ ﺷـﺮﺡ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷـﺪﻩ ﺍﺳـﺖ‪.‬ﺳـﭙﺲ ﻣﺎﻧﻨـﺪ ﺩﻳﮕـﺮ ‪ Procedure‬ﻫـﺎ ﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳـﻴﻮﻥ ﻭ‬
‫ﻛﻨﺘﺮﺍﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﻭ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ‪ ،‬ﺁﻣﺎﺩﮔﻲ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ‪ Position ،‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ‪ ،‬ﺁﻧﺴﺘﺰﻱ ﻭ ‪ ....‬ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺁﺧﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ﻓﻴﻠﻢﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﺗﺠﻬﻴﺰﺍﺕ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺑﻴﻮﭘﺴﻲ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺁﺧﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ Quiz‬ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪.‬‬
‫‪ : Pelvic Examination -٤‬ﺑﻌﺪ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻘﺪﻣﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻧﺎﺣﻴﻪ ﮊﻧﺘﻴﻜﻲ )‪ (utenes , carivx , vagina , valve‬ﺑﺎ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﻪ ‪ Position،‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ‪ ،‬ﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ ‪ ،‬ﻛﻨﺘﺮﺍﻳﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﻭ ﺗﻐﻴﻴﺮ ﻳﺎﻓﺘﻪﻫﺎ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ‪ ٦‬ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﻪ ﻟﮕﻨﻲ‬
‫ﻛﺎﻣﻞ‪ ،‬ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﻪ ‪ exetrnalgenifalicn‬ﺑﺎ ﭘﺎﭖ ﺁﺳﻤﻴﺮ‪ ،‬ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﻪ‪ rectovaginal , bimanual‬ﻭ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﮔﺬﺍﺷﺘﻦ ﺍﺳﭙﻜﻮﻟﻮﻡ ﻭ ﺗﺠﻬﻴﺰﺍﺕ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺁﺧﺮ ‪ Quiz‬ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪ : Pap Smear -٥‬ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﺑﻌﺪ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻘﺪﻣﻪﺍﻱ ﻛﻮﺗﺎﻩ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻣﻨﻘﻄﻊ ﻭ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﻛﻪ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﺑﺎ ﭘﺎﭖ ﺁﺳﻤﻴﺮ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻛﺮﺩ‪ .‬ﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ ‪ ،‬ﻛﻨﺘﺮﺍﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ ‪ Position ،‬ﺭﻭﺵ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ‪ ،‬ﺍﺷﻜﺎﻻﺕ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻜﻲ ‪ ،‬ﺗﺠﻬﻴﺰﺍﺕ ﻭ ‪ ....‬ﺷﺮﺡ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ ٥ .‬ﻓـﻴﻠﻢ‬
‫ﺍﺯ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﻪ ‪ ،‬ﮔﺬﺍﺷﺘﻦ ﺍﺳﻴﻜﻮﻟﻮﻡ ﻭ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﭘﺎﭖ ﺍﺳﻤﻴﺮ ﻭ ﺗﺠﻬﻴﺰﺍﺕ ﺁﻥ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪) Vaginal Secretion -٦‬ﺗﺮﺷﺢ ﻭﺍﮊﻳﻨﺎﻝ(‪ :‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻣﺒﺤﺚ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﻋﻠﻞ ﺗﺮﺷﺢ ﻭﺍﮊﻳﻨﺎﻝ ﻭ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻓﺘﺮﺍﻗﻲ ﺁﻥ ﭘﺮﺩﺍﺧﺘﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺗﺠﻬﻴﺰﺍﺕ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻧﻴﺎﺯ‪ ،‬ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻦ ﻛﺸﺖ‪ ،‬ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺗﺴﺖ ‪ ، KOH‬ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﺩﺍﺩﻥ ﺗﺮﺷﺤﺎﺕ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ‪ slide‬ﻭ ﻣﺸﺎﻫﺪﻩ ﺁﻥ‬
‫ﺑﺎ ﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﺳﻜﻮﭖ ﺑﺎ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﻭ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ‪ Quiz‬ﻧﻴﺰ ﺩﺭ ﺁﺧﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪.‬‬
‫‪45.3 Your Pregnancy, Your Newborn The Complete Guide for Expectant and New Mothers‬‬
‫‪ -٤‬ﻋﻠﻮﻡ ﺁﺯﻣﺎﻳﺸﮕﺎﻫﻲ‬
‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ‪CD‬‬
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫)‪(Sixth Edition) (SALEKAN E-BOOK‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪A Laboratory Guide to the Mammalian Embryo‬‬
‫‪1.4‬‬
‫‪A Manual of Laboratory & Diagnostic Tests‬‬
‫‪2.4‬‬
‫)‪(Frances Fischbach‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ﺗﺒﺪﻳﻞ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻣﺸﺘﻤﻞ ﺑﺮ ‪ ١٦‬ﻓﺼﻞ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪:‬‬
‫‪Stool Studies‬‬
‫‪Nuclear Medicine Studies‬‬
‫‪Pulmonary Functio and Blood Gas Studies‬‬
‫‪Special Systems, Organ Functions, and Post Mortem Studies‬‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫‪Urine Studies‬‬
‫‪Immunodiagnostic Studies‬‬
‫‪Ultrasound Studies‬‬
‫‪X-ray Studies‬‬
‫‪Blood Studies‬‬
‫‪Microbiologic Studies‬‬
‫‪Endoscopic Studies‬‬
‫‪Cerebrespinal Fluid Studies‬‬
‫‪Diagnostic Testing‬‬
‫‪Cbemistry Studies‬‬
‫‪Cytology, Histology, and Genetic Studies‬‬
‫‪Prenatal Diagnosis and Tests of Fetal Well-Being‬‬
‫)‪A Slide Atlas of ATHEROSCLEROSIS (Progression and Regression) (Herbert C. Stary‬‬
‫‪3.4‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡ ﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺑﺎ ‪ ۹۴‬ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﭘﻴﺸﺮﻓﺖ ﻭ ﭘﺴﺮﻓﺖ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺁﺗﺮﻭﺍﺳﻜﻠﺮﻭﺯﻳﺲ ﺩﺭ ﺳﻨﻴﻦ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻭ ﻗﻠﺐ ﻭ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺑﺪﻥ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺎ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﺳﻜﻮﭘﻲ ﻭ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺯﻳﺒﺎﻳﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﻛﺸﻴﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌﻪ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡ ﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺑﻪ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬
‫ﻭ ﻗﻠﺐ ﻭ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﺗﻮﺻﻴﻪ ﻣﻴﺸﻮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫‪th‬‬
‫)‪American Sodiety of Hematology (CD 1-5) (44 Annual Meeting‬‬
‫‪4.4‬‬
‫‪CD-1: ALL -AML -ASH/ASCO Joint Symposium -Atypical Cellular Disorders‬‬
‫‪CD-2: CLL -CML -CNS Lymphoma -Cutaneous Lymphoma -E. Donnall Thomas Lecture‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
20
CD-3: Enhancing Physician/Patient Communication Regarding Hematologic Disorders -Ham-Wasserman Lecture -Hematology Grants Workshop
-Hypercoagulability: Too Many Tests, Too Much Conflicting Data -Malaria and the Red Cell -Marrow Failure
CD-4: Multi[ple Myeloma -Myelodysplastic Syndromes Non-Myeloablative Transplantation -Platelets: Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic -Purpura Plenary Policy Frum
CD-5: Presidential Symposium -Red Cell Antigens as Functional Molecules and Obstacles to Transfusion -Sickle Cell Disease -Stem Cell Transplantation: Supportive Care and Long-Term
Complications -Stem Cells: Hype and Reality Update on Epidemiology and Therapeutics for Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
5.4
An Electronic Companion to Microbiology for MajorsTM (Mark L. Wheelis)
‫ــــــ‬
Reviw , Test yourself
:‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
What Are Microorganisms?
Classification
Methods of Microbiology
Prokaryotic Cell Struture
Eukaryotic Cell Struture
Growth & Reproduction
Metabolism & Energy
Microbial Genetics
Gene Regulation
Viruses
Microbial Ecology
Defenses Againses Infection
Disease
6.4
Animal Cell Culture (Third Edition) (A Practical Approach) (John R. W. Masters)
7.4
Antibody Engineering (R. Kontermann S. Dubel)
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
8.4
Antibody Phage Display Methods and Protocols (Philippa M. O'Brien, Robert Aitken)
‫ــــــ‬
9.4
APPLIED ANIMAL REPRODUCTION
‫ــــــ‬
10.4
Applied Molecular Genetics
11.4
Atlas of HEMATOLOGY
(h. jOEbEARDEN, John W. Fuquay)
(Roger L. Miesfeld)
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
:‫ ﺣﺎﻭﻱ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
1. Examination of Blood Cells
2. Normal Hematopoiesis and Blood Cells
3.Dynamic Cell Morphology
4. Hematolopathology
5. Cluster of differentiation Archive
6. Self-Assessment
12.4
Atlas of Diagnostic Cytopathology (Barbara F. Atkinson, MD)
2004
13.4
Atlas of Medical Parasitology (Dr. K. Ghazvini)
‫ ﻧﺎﻗﻞ اﻧﮕﻞ و ﺳﯿﮑﻞ زﻧﺪﮔﯽ و ﺗﮑﺜﯿﺮ اﻧﮕﻞ اﺳﺖ ﮐﻪ ﺟﻬﺖ اﺳﺘﻔﺎده ﮔﺮوهﻫﺎی ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ رﺷﺘﻪﻫﺎی ﭘﺰﺷﮑﯽ ﺧﺼﻮﺻﺎً رﺷﺘﻪ ﻋﻠﻮم آزﻣﺎﯾﺸﮕﺎﻫﯽ ﻣﻔﯿـﺪ‬،‫ ﺿﺎﯾﻌﺎت اﯾﺠﺎدﺷﺪه‬،‫ ﺗﺼﻮﯾﺮ رﻧﮕﯽ از اﻧﻮاع اﻧﮕﻞﻫﺎی ﺑﯿﻤﺎرﯾﺰای اﻧﺴﺎﻧﯽ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺗﺼﻮﯾﺮ اﻧﮕﻞ‬2000‫ﻧﺮماﻓﺰار ﻓﻮق ﺣﺎوی ﺣﺪود‬
:‫ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻣﻄﺮحﺷﺪه در اﯾﻦ ﻧﺮماﻓﺰار ﻋﺒﺎرﺗﻨﺪ از‬.‫ ﺑﺴﯿﺎری از ﺗﺼﺎوﯾﺮ ﻣﻮﺟﻮد در اﯾﻦ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﻪ ﻣﻨﺤﺼﺮ ﺑﻪ ﻓﺮد ﻣﯽﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬.‫ ﺗﺼﺎوﯾﺮ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﻪ ﻣﺰﺑﻮر از ﻣﻨﺎﺑﻊ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺟﻤﻊآوری ﮔﺮدﯾﺪه اﺳﺖ ﮐﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ دﮐﺘﺮ ﻗﺰوﯾﻨﯽ ﺑﺎزﻧﮕﺮی و وﯾﺮاﯾﺶ ﮔﺮدﯾﺪه اﺳﺖ‬.‫اﺳﺖ‬
2003
* Heart and Muscles Parasites
* Lung Parasites
* Eye Parasites
* Skin Parasites
* Case reports and updates in parasitology
* Blood, Bone Marrow, Spleen Parasites
* Central Nervous System (CNS) Parasites
* Liver and Biliary Tree Parasites
* Gnito-Urinary Parasites
* Intestinal Parasites (Helminths)
* Intestinal Parasites (Protozoa)
14.4
Atlas of Surgical Pathology (Johns Hopkins) (Jonathan I. Epstein, Neera P. Agarwal-Antal, David B. Danner, Kim M. Ruska)
‫ــــــ‬
15.4
Basic Cell Culture A Practical Approach (I. M. Davis)
‫ــــــ‬
16.4
Basic histology: TEXT & ATLAS IMAGE LIBRARY (Tenth Edition)
(Luiz Carlos, Juhqueira, Jose CARNEIRO) (A Division of The McGraw-Hill Companies)
2000
2 - Jose CARNEIRO
1- Luiz Carlos JUNQUEIRA
17.4
Before We Are Born Essentials of Embryology & Birth Defects (Moore, Oersaud) (6th Edition)
‫ــــــ‬
18.4
Biochemical Interactions An electronic companion to: FUNDAMENTALS OF BIOCHEMISTRY (Donald voet, Judith G. voet, charlotte W. Pratt) (Version 1.02)
:‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
1999
NUCLEOTIDES AND NUCLEIC ACIDS
PROTEINS: PRIMARY STRUCTURE
PROTEIN FUNCTION
LIPIDS
BIOLOGICAL MEMBRANES
MAMMALIAN FUEL METABOLOSM: INTEGRATION AND REGULATION
GLUCOSE CATABOLISM
GLYCOGEN METABOLISM AND GLUCONEOGENESIS
DNA REPLICATION REPAIR, AND RECOMBINATION
PHOTOSYNTHESIS
LIPID METABOLISM
AMINO ACID METABOLISM
NUCLEOTIDE METABOLISM
NUCLEIC ACID STRUCTURE
CITRIC ACID CYCLE
TRANSLATION
REGULATION OF GENE EXPRESSION
ENZYME KINETICS, INHIBITION, AND REGULATION
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
21
INTROCUCTION TO METABOLISM
ELECTRON TRANSPORT AND OXIDATIVE PHOSPORYLATION
PROTEINS: THREE-DIMENSIONAL STRUCTURE
TRANSCRIPTION AND RNA PROCESSING
2004
19.4
Bioconjugation Protocols (Strategies & Methods) (Christof M. Niemeyer)
20.4
Bioinformatics (Genes, Proteins & Computers) (Christine Orengo, Janet Thornton, David Jones)
21.4
Bioinformatics Computing (The Complete, Practical Guide to bioinformatics for life scientists) (Bryan Bergeron, M.D.)
22.4
Bioinformatics for Geneticists
23.4
BIOLOGY CONCEPTS & CONNECTIONS
(Second Edition) (Richard M. Liebaert) (CAMPBELL.MITCHELL.REECE)
1. Introduction: The Sclentific Sindy of Life
3. The Life of the Cell
2. The Evolution of Biological Diversity
4. Animals: Form & Function
___
/Michael R. Barnes, Lan C. Gray)
‫ــــــ‬
5. Cellular Repoduction & Genetics
‫ــــــ‬
7. Concepls of Evolution
6. Plants: Form & Function
8. Ecology
24.4
Biopsy Pathology of the Breast (John P. Sloane) (Second Edition)
‫ــــــ‬
25.4
BLADDER BIOPSY INTERPRETATIONS (Jonathan I. Epstein, M.D., Mahul B. Amin, M.D., Victor E. Reuter, M.D.) (SALEKAN E-BOOK)
2004
Normal Blodder Anatomy and Variants of Normal
histology
Conventional Morphologic, Prognostic, and Predictive Factors and Reporting of
Bladder Cancer
Cystitis
Second ary Tumors of the Bladder
Invasive Urothelial Carcinoma
Squamous Lesions
Miscellaneous Nontumors and Tumors
26.4
Papillary Urothelial Neoplasms with Inverted Growth
Patterns
Flat Urothelial Lesions
BLOOD PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE OF HEMATOLOGY
Part I: Fundamentals of Hmatology: Tools of the trade
Part V: Hemostasis
Part VI: Red Blood Cells
Glandular Lesions
Mesenchymal Tumors and Tumor-Like Lesions
(SECOND EDITION) (ROBERT I. HANDIN SAMUEL E. LUX THOMAS P. STOSSEL)
Part II: The Hematopoietic System
Part VII: Systemic Disease
Part III: Stem Cell Disorders
Part VIII: Hematologic Therapies
2003
Part IV: White Blood Cells
Part VIIII: Appendices
27.4
Bone Marrow Pathology (Barbara J. Bain David M. Clark)
‫ــــــ‬
28.4
‫ــــــ‬
29.4
Bone Tumors (Howard D. Dorfman, Bogdan Czerniak)
th
BRS Cell Biology CELL BIOLOGY AND HISTOLOGY (4 edition) (Leslie P. Gartner, James L. Hiatt, Judy M. Strum) (LIPPINCOTT WILLIAMS & WILKINS)
30.4
Carter, Patchefsky
31.4
Case Studies in Genes and Disease
32.4
Cellular & Molecular Neurobiology (Second Edition)
Plasma Membrane
Connective Tissue
Circulatory System
The Urinary System
Epithelia and Glands
Nucleus
Cartilage and Bone
Lymphoid Tissue
Female Reproductive System
Blood and Hemopoiesis
Cytoplasm
Muscle
Endocrine System
Digestive System: Oral Cavity and Alimentary Tract
Digestive System: Glands
Extracellular Matrix
Nervous Tissue
Skin
Special Senses
Comprehensive Exam
Tumors & Tumor-Like Lesions of the Lung (Darryl Carter, Arthur S. Patchefsky, Clifton F. MOD Tain)
A Primer for Clinicians (Bryan Bergeron)
2003
‫ــــــ‬
2004
‫ــــــ‬
1- Lonotropic and Metabotropic Receptors in Synaptic Transmission and Sensory Transduction
2- Somato-Dendritic Processing and Plasticity of Postsynaptic Potentials
3- Neurons: Excitable and Secretory Cells that Establish Synapses
4- Activity and Developmen of Networks: The Hippocampus as an Example
33.4
Clinical Diagnosis & Management by Laboratory Methods (twentieth Edition) (john bernard henry)
2001
34.4
Clinical Hematology (A Victor Hoffbrand , John E Pettit) (Mosby)
‫ــــــ‬
Normal Hemopoiesis and
Anaemias
Blood Transfusion
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
Blood Cells
Leucocyte Abnormialities
Hemostasis and Bleeding Disorders
Bone Marrow Transplantation
Hematological Malignancies
Further Reading
Coagulation Disorders
Acknowledgements
Bone Marrow in
Non-hemopoietic Disease
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
Parasitic Infections Diagnosed in Blood
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
22
35.4
Clinical Immunology
‫ــــــ‬
36.4
Color Atlas & Text of Pulmonary Pathology (Philip T. Cagle, Timothy C. Allen, Roberto Barrios)
2005
37.4
Color atlas of Cancer Cytology (Third Edition) (Masayoshi Takahashi)
‫ــــــ‬
38.4
Color atlas of differential diagnosis in Exfoliative & Aspiration CYTOPATHOLOGY (Sudha R. Kini, M.D)
‫ــــــ‬
39.4
COMMON PROBLEMS IN CLINICAL LABORATORY MANAGEMENT (Judith A. O'brien, M.S. CLSup (NCA)) (Salekan E-Book)
‫ــــــ‬
COMPLYING WITH CLIA '88
MEETING TUBERCULOSIS CONTROL
REGULATIONS
WRITING MANUALS: THE STANDARD
OPERATING PROCEDURE MANUAL (SOPM)
OVERCOMING OSHA'S OBST ACLES THE
EXPOSURE CONTROL PLAN
PROVIDING AND USING PERSONAL
PROTECTIVE EQUIPMENT
PASSING PROFICEINCY TEST
OVERCOMING OSHA'S OBSTACLES THE
CHEMICAL HYGIENE PLAN
WRITING MANUALS: THE GENERAL
OPERATING PROCEDURE MANUAL ( GOPM)
FULFILING QUALITY CONTROL
GUIDELINES
ESTABLISHING A QUALITY ASSURANCE
PROGRAM
SURVIVING INSPECTIONS AND ATTAINING
ACCREDIANCE
PURSUING PERSONNEL PERSPECTIVES
ENCOURAGING EDUCATION
THE ACQUISTION AND MAINTENANCE OF
LABORATORY INSTRUMENTATION
MASTERING FINANCES: BILLING AND
CODING
TAMING TECHNOLOGY: LABORATORY INFORMATION SYSTEM (LIS)
RE-ENGINEERING FOR THE FUTURE: THE CORE LABORATORY,
AUTOMATION, OUTREACH NETWORKING, AND THE MILLENNIUM BUG
GENERATING LABORATORY NUMBERS: STATISTICS LINEARITY,
CALIBRATION, REFERENCE, AND CRITICAL VALUES: CALCULATIONS
MANAGING THE PHYSICIAN OFFICE LABORATORY (POL)
TAMING TECHNOLOGY: POINT OF CARE TESTING (POCT)
40.4
Comprehensive Cytopathology (Marluce Bibbo)
41.4
Computer-Aided Drug Design (Methods & Applications) (Thomas J. Perun. C. L. Propst)
___
42.4
Concise Histology (A data of multiple choice question in microscopic) (Bloom & Fawcett's) (Second Edition)
‫ــــــ‬
43.4
Diagnostic and Laboratory Test Reference (Seventh Edition) (Mosby) (Salekan E-Book) (Kathleen Deska Pagana, PhD, RN, Timothy J. Pagana, MD, FACS)
2005
44.4
Dianostic Hematology
‫ــــــ‬
(Second Edition)
‫ــــــ‬
This textbook, 'Diagnostic Hematology: A pattern approach', is accompanied by a CD-ROM with three knowledge-based systems applied to 237 case studies. The 3 knowledge-based systems are:
2. Professor Fidelio for flow cytometry immunophenotyping
1. Professor Petrushka for peripheral blood analysis
3. Professor Belmonte for bone marrow interpretation
45.4
Discover Biology
‫ــــــ‬
46.4
DNA Science A First Course (Second Edition) (David A. Micklos, Greg A. Freyer, witli David A. Crotty)
47.4
DNA Topology (Andrew D. Bates, Anthony Maxwell)
‫ــــــ‬
___
48.4
Electronic Atlas of Parasitology (John T. Sullivan)
49.4
2000
university of the Incarnate Word
EMBRYO (CD Color Atlas for Developmental Biology) (Gary C. Schoenwolf)
Chapter 1: Frog Embryos
Chapter 2: Chick Embryos
Chapter 3: Pig Embryos
‫ــــــ‬
Chapter 4: Gametogenesis
50.4
Essential Cell Biology Volume 1: Cell Structure A Practical Approach
51.4
Essential Cell Biology (with the voice of Julie Theriot designed and programmed by Christopher Thorpe)
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
Experiments with Fission Yeast (A Laboratory Course Manual) (Caroline Alfa, Peter Fontes, Jeremy Hyams)
‫ــــــ‬
Fields Virology (Forth Edition) (Volume 1) (Lippincott Williams & Wilkins)
2001
52.4
53.4
Section One: General Virology
Chapter 1-22
(John Davey and Mike Lord)
Section Two: Specific Virus Families Chapter 23-90
54.4
Functional HISTOLOGY WHEATER'S (FOURTH EDITION) (BARBARA YOUNG, JOHN W. HEATH) (ALAN STEVENS JAMES S. LOWE) (PHILIP J. DEAKIN)
‫ــــــ‬
55.4
Fundamentals of Enzymology (The Cell and Molecular Biology of Catalytic Proteins) (Nicholas c. Pricc & Lewis Stevens) (Third Edition)
___
56.4
Genetic Predisposition to Cancer (Second Edition) (R.A. Eeles. D.F. Easton)
Genetics From Genes to Genomes (Ann Reynolds, Ph.D.) (University of Washington)
57.4
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
2004
2000
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
23
3- Molecular Genetice
1- Transmission Genetics
(...‫ ﺳﻴﮕﻨﺎﻝ ﺗﺮﻧﺴﻼﻛﺸﻦ ﻭ‬،‫)ﻛﻨﺘﺮﻝ ﺍﻭﭘﺮﻭﻥ ﻻﻛﺘﻮﺯ‬
2- Gentral Dogma
6- Poplations & Evolvtion (... ‫)ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺟﻤﻌﻴﺖ ﻭ ﺗﻜﺎﻣﻞ ﻭ ﻓﺮﻛﺎﺵ ﺍﻟﻜﻞﻫﺎ ﻭ‬
4- Chromosomes FISH (‫ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﻧﻘﺸﻪ ﮊﻥ‬،‫)ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻛﺎﺭﻳﻮﺗﺎﻳﭗ‬
‫ ﺩﺭ ﭘﺎﻳﺎﻥ ﻫـﺮ‬.‫ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﮔﺮﺩﺩ‬Quick time ‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺗﺤﺖ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﺔ‬... ‫ ﻫﻴﭙﺮﻳﺪﺍﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﻛﻠﺮﻧﻴﻨﮓ ﻭ‬،DVA ‫ ﻣﻮﺗﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﻭ ﺗﺮﻣﻴﻢ‬،‫ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻓﻮﺭﺯ‬،PCR، ‫ﻣﻴﺘﻮﺯﻭ ﻣﻴﻮﺯ‬... ‫ ﺗﻮﺟﻪ‬،‫ ﻣﻜﺎﻧﻴﺴﻢ ﺭﻭﻧﻮﻳﺲ‬: ‫ ﻋﺪﺩ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮ ﻛﻠﻴﭗ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﺍﻧﻴﻤﻴﺸﻦ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺜﻲ ﻫﻤﭽﻮﻥ‬٢٧ ‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
.‫( ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬In teractive) ‫ ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﺗﻤﺮﻳﻨﺎﺕ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﺩﻭ ﺟﺎﻧﺒﻪ ﻭ ﻓﻌﺎﻝ‬.‫ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﻳﻚ ﻓﺼﻞ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﺗﻌﺮﻳﻒ ﻭ ﺗﺮﺷﺢ ﻟﻔﺎﺕ ﻣﺸﻜﻞ ﻭ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ﻓﺼﻞ ﺧﻼﺻﺔ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
.‫ ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﻣﻲﮔﻴﺮﺩ‬CD ‫ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺧﻮﺩ‬Q.t. ‫( ﻭ ﻧﺼﺐ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﺔ‬Setup . exe ‫ ﻻﺯﻡ ﺍﺳﺖ ﺑﻌﺪ ﺍﺯ ﻧﺼﺐ ﺁﻥ )ﺑﺎ ﺩﻭ ﺑﺎﺭ ﻛﻠﻴﻚ ﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ‬CD ‫ ﺑﻜﺎﺭ ﺭﻓﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ‬CD ‫ﺁﺑﺸﻦﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺘﻨﻮﻉ ﻭ ﺯﻳﺒﺎﻳﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
5- Gen RegVlation
58.4
Genomics Applications in Human Biology (Sandy B. Primrose & Richard M. Twyman)
‫ــــــ‬
59.4
Genomics Proteomics & Bioinformatics (A. Malcolm Campbell, Laurie J. Heyer)
___
60.4
Genomics Proteomics & Vaccines (Gude Grandi, Chiron Vaccines., Siena. Ite)
‫ــــــ‬
61.4
GnRH Analogs in Human Reproduction
2005
62.4
Gram Stain TUTOR
(Bruno Lunenfeld)
(ANINTERACTIVE TUTORIAL THAT TEACHES THE MICROSCOPIC EXAMINATION OF URINARY SEDIMENT)
‫ــــــ‬
(Brad Cookson, MD, PHD, Ajit Limaye, MD, Lydia Matheson, BA)
1. Introduction
2. Morphology
3. Specimen Sites
63.4
Histology & Cell Bilogy (An Introduction to Pathology)
64.4
HISTOLOGY EXPLORER
Microscope 3D
The Cell
Epithelium
Connective Tissue Proper
Blood and Bone Marrow
The Sketetal Tissues
4. Case Studies 5. Exam
6. Image Atlas
(Abraham L. Kierzenbaum, MD)
Nervous Tissue
The Circulatory System
The Lymphoid Organs
The Digestive System
The Respiratory System
The Urinary System
‫ــــــ‬
____
The Reproductive System
The Mammary Giands
The Eye
Glands
Muscular Tissue
The Skin
The Endocrine Glands
The Ear
65.4
How the Human Genome Works
2004
66.4
HUMAN HISTOLOGY CD-ROM (Alan Stevens. James Lowe)
‫ــــــ‬
67.4
Human Mulecular Genetics 3 Tom Strachan & Anderw P. Read)
2004
68.4
Images of Disease An image database for the teaching of Pathology (Nick Hawkins, Mark Dziegielewski)
‫ــــــ‬
‫ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻧﻈﺮ ﺑـﻪ ﺗﻮﺻـﻴﻒ ﻣﺎﻛﺮﻭﺳـﻜﻮﭘﻲ ﻭ ﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﺳـﻜﻮﭘﻲ ﺿـﺎﻳﻌﻪ‬case ‫ ﺩﺭ ﺭﺍﺑﻄﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺗﻚ ﺗﻚ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎ ﻧﻤﻮﻧﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺎﻓﺘﻲ ﺍﺭﮔﺎﻥ ﺩﺭﮔﻴﺮ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﻣﺎﻛﺮﻭﺳﻜﻮﭘﻲ ﻭ ﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﺳﻜﻮﭘﻲ ﺑﺎﺏ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﻭﺍﺿﺢ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺿﻤﻦ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺣﺎﻝ‬CD ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
.‫ ﺑﺨﺼﻮﺹ ﺑﻪ ﺩﺳﺘﻴﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻭ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﺴﺖ ﺩﻣﺎ ﺩﺭ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻚ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎ ﻛﻤﻚ ﺷﺎﻳﺎﻥ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﺪ ﻭ ﻧﻤﺎﺩﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﺳﻜﻮﺑﻴﻚ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﺟﺪﺍﮔﺎﻧﻪ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺗﻮﺟﻪ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‬CD ‫ ﺍﻳﻦ‬،‫ﻣﻲﭘﺮﺩﺍﺯﺩ‬
2005
69.4
Immuno Biology the immune system in health & disease
70.4
Immunology (Blackwell Science)
2000
71.4
Interactive Color Atlas of Histology (Version 1.0) (Leslie P. Gartner James L. Hiatt) (LIPPINCOTT WILLIAMS & WILKINS)
2000
72.4
Interactive Embryology The Human Embryo Program (Jay Lash Ph.D.)
73.4
Introduction to Immunocytochemistry (3rd Edition) (J.M. Polak & S. Van Noorden)
74.4
Introduction to PROTEIN SCIENCE (Architecture, Function, and Genomies) (Arthur M. Lesk)
Laboratory Medicine: URINALYSIS (Chemical and microscopic examination of urine Atlas of Microscopic Analysis Procedures for Urinalsis) (Pesce Kaplan Pubishers Inc.)
75.4
76.4
(6th Editiion) (Chales A. Janeway, Paul Travers, Mark Walport, Mark J. Shomchik)
Method write-up for 15 chemical urinalysis procedures
Complete Specimen collection section
Interpretation of urine findings in common renal and
lower urinary tract diseases
Tables reviewing results of chemical urinalyses
2000
Extensive atlas of microscopic analysis: over 50 microphotographs of
urine sediment, including cells, casts, and artifacts
Male Infertility A Guide for the Glinician) (Anne M. Jequier)
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
24
77.4
78.4
‫ــــــ‬
Maternal- Fetal Medicine (4th Edition) (Robert K. Creasey, Robert Resnik)
2000
Media Supplement for Biochemistry (FOURH EDITION) (Roy Tasker Carl Rhodes)
1. Reaction mechanisms
2. Metabolic Pathways
3. Membrane Processes
4. Protein Synthesis
5. Molecular Representations
79.4
Menopause Biology & Pathobiology (Rogerio, Jennifer Kelsey, Robert Marcus)
‫ــــــ‬
80.4
Methods in Enzymology Guide to Yeast Genetics & Molecular & Cell Biology
Microbes in Motion III (Dr. Gloria Delisle and Dr. Lewis Tomalty Queen's University)
‫ﻭﻳﺮﻭﺱﺷﻨﺎﺳﻲ‬
‫ﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﺑﻬﺎﻱ ﺑﻲﻫﻮﺍﺯﻱ ﻣﺤﻴﻄﻲ ﺭﺍﻫﻬﺎ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﻨﺘﺮﻝ ﻭ ﻣﻬﺎﺭ ﺭﺷﺪ ﺑﺎﻛﺘﺮﻳﻬﺎ‬
‫ﺍﭘﻴﺪﻭﻣﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬
‫ﺍﻧﮕﻞﺷﻨﺎﺳﻲ‬
‫ﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﺑﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻣﺤﻴﻄﻲ‬
‫( ﺑﺎﻛﺘﺮﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬... ‫ ﺗﺮﺍﻧﺴﭙﻮﺯﻭﺭﻫﺎ ﻭ‬، DNA ‫ ﺳﺎﺧﺘﺎﺭ‬،‫ﮊﻧﺘﻴﻚ )ﺑﻴﻮﺗﻜﻨﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬
‫ﺑﺎﻛﺘﺮﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﮔﺮﻡ ﻣﻨﻔﻲ‬
‫ﻭﺍﻛﺴﻦﻫﺎ‬
‫ﺑﺎﻛﺘﺮﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﮔﺮﻡ ﻣﺜﺒﺖ‬
Miscellaneous
2004
‫ــــــ‬
81.4
82.4
Microbial Genetics (Second Edition)
83.4
MICROBIOLOGY AND IMMUNOLOGY (KEN S. ROSENTHAL) (Mosby)
1.
84.4
85.4
TUTORIAL: I. Topics
II. Systems
‫ﻋﻤﻠﻜﺮﺩ ﺿﺪ ﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﺑﻬﺎ‬
‫ﺍﻳﻤﻮﻧﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬
‫ﻣﻘﺎﻭﻣﺖ ﺿﺪ ﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﺑﻲ‬
‫ﭘﺎﺗﻮﮊﻧﺰ‬
‫ﻣﺘﺎﺑﻮﻟﻴﺴﻢ ﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﺑﻲ‬
‫ﻗﺎﺭﭺﺷﻨﺎﺳﻲ‬
(Stanley R. Maloy, John E. Cronan, Jr., David Freifelder)
‫ــــــ‬
2002
2. TEST
III. Random
MICROBIOLOGY AND MICROBIAL INFECTIONS (Topley & Wilson's) (Albert Balows, Max sussman) (NINTH EDITION)
Mind Maps in pathology (Michele Harrison, Peter Dervan)
‫ــــــ‬
___
‫ــــــ‬
86.4
MODERN GENETIC ANALYSIS (Anthony J. F. Griffiths, William M. Gelbart, Jffrey H. Miller, Richard C. Lewontin)
Introduction
System Requirements
Getting Started
Reference
Freeman Genetics Web Site
87.4
88.4
89.4
90.4
Molecular Analysis & Genome Discovery (John Wiley & Sons, LTD)
MOLECULAR BIOLOGY in Reproducteve Medicine (B.C.J.M. Fauser, Rutherford)
Molecular Cell Biology (The immune system in health & disease) (6th Edition) (Charles A. Janeway, Paul Traversm, Mark Walport)
MOLECULAR CELL BIOLOGY 4.0 (Paul Matusdaru, Amold Berk, S. lawence Zipufsky, David Baltimore, James Damell, Harey lodish)
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
2005
2000
91.4
Molecular Cloning A Laboratory Manual (Joseph Sambrook, David W. Russell) (Third Edition) (Volume 1-3)
92.4
Molecular Cloning (A Laboratory Manual) (Volume 2) (Joseph Sambrook, David W. Russell) (Third Edition)
‫ــــــ‬
___
93.4
Molecular Cloning (A Laboratory Manual) (Volume 3) (Joseph Sambrook, David W. Russell) (Third Edition)
___
94.4
Molecular Genetics of Bacteria
95.4
Molecular Markers, Natural History & Evolution (John C. Avise)
‫ــــــ‬
___
96.4
Molecuralar Genetics of Bacteria (Jeremy W. Dale, Simon F. Park) (Fourth Edition)
97.4
Mouse Phenotypes (A Handbook of Mutation Analysis)
98.4
MPP (Whitehead) (Mucosal Biopsy of the Gastrointestinal Tract) (Fifth Edition)
(Larry Snyder & Wendy Champness) (Second Edition)
2004
2006
(Virginia e. Papaioannou, Richard R. Behringer)
‫ــــــ‬
Nanomedicine Volume 11A: Biocompatibility (Robert A. Freitas Jr., Research Scientist, Zyvex Corporation)
NCCL INFOBASE Serving the World's Medical Science Community Through Voluntary Consensus
101.4 Obstetrical & Gynaecological Pathology (Fifth Edition) (Haines & Tailor)
‫ــــــ‬
2002
___
99.4
100.4
2005
102.4
PATHOLOGIC BASIS OF DISEASE (Robbins & Cotran) (7th Edition)
103.4
PATHOLOGIC BASIS OF DISESE Interactive Case Study Companion to ROBBIMS
Inflammation and Repair
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
Fluid and Hemodynamic Disorders
Genetic Disorders
(W. B. Saunders Company) (Sixth Edition)
Diseases of Immunity
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
Neoplasia
‫ــــــ‬
Systemic Pathology
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
25
Infectious Disease
Genitouinary, Breast, and Pregnancy Disorders
Cardiovascular Diseases
Endocrine Diseases
Hematopatholory Disorders
Skeletal Disorders
Gastrointestinal Diseases
Neuropathology
Diseases of Liver, Galbladder, and Pancreas
Diseases of Kidney
104.4
PATHOLOGY (Alan Stevens. James Lowe)
‫ــــــ‬
105.4
Pathology of Skin Atlas of Clinical-Pathologcical Corration (Robert M. Hurwitz, Antoinette F. Hood)
‫ــــــ‬
106.4
Pathology of the Lungs (Bryan Corrin)
2000
Pathology of the Skin Atlas of Clinical-Pathological Correlation Robert M. Hurwitz, MD, Antoinette F. Hood, MD)
108.4 Peripheral Blood TUTOR (ANINTERACTIVE TUTORIAL THAT TEACHES THE MICROSCOPIC EXAMINATION OF URINARY SEDIMENT)
107.4
Introduction
Cell Morphologies
Disease Associations
Atlas
Overview, Smear Preparation
Stain Procedure, Smear
Evaluation
Cell Structure, Read Blood
Cells, White Blood Cells,
Platelets, Artifacts, Quiz
Red Blood Cells, White
Blood Cells, Neoplastic
Disorder
Cell Morphology
Disease Association
Final Exam
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
109.4
Phage display A laboratory Manual (Carlos F. Barbas, Dennis R. Burton, Jamie K. Scott, Gergg)
‫ــــــ‬
110.4
Phage Display (A Practical Approach) (Tim Clackson, Henry B. Lowman)
‫ــــــ‬
111.4
Pharmaceutical Biotechnology (An Introduction for Pharmacists & Pharmaceutical Scientists) (2nd Edition) (Daan J.A. Crommelin, Robert D. Sindelar)
‫ــــــ‬
112.4
Phylogenetic Trees Made Easy (A How-To Manual) (Second Edition)
‫ــــــ‬
113.4
Practical Breast Pathology (Tibor Tot, Peter B. Dean) (Thieme)
___
114.4
Primers in Biology Protein Structure and Function
115.4
Principles of Biochemistry (Molecular, Genetics) (Volume Three)
‫ــــــ‬
___
(Gregory A Petsko Dagmar Ringe)
Principles of Genome Analysis & Genomics (Sandy B. Primrose, Richard M. Twyman)
117.4 PRINCIPLES OF Molecular Virology (THIRD EDITION)
‫ــــــ‬
116.4
• Contents
Introduciton
Particles
Genomes
Replication
Expression
Infection
2000
Pathogenesis
Novel Infectious Agents
• Appendices
Glossary, Abbreviations and Pronounciations
Classification of Sub-Cellular Infections Agents
The History of Virology
118.4
Principles of VIROLOGY Molecular Bilogy, Pathogenesis, and Control (S.J. Flint, L.W. Enquist, R.M. Krug)
119.4
Protein Bioinformatics
120.4
Protein-Protein Interactions (Methods & Applications)
121.4
PROTEINS (Structure & function)
(An Algorithmic Approach to Sequence & Struture Analysis)
‫ــــــ‬
(Ingvar eldhammer, Inge Jonassen, William R. Taylor)
2004
(John Wiley & sons, Ltd)
Proteins and proteomics (A Laboratory Manual) (Richard J. Simpson)
RAPID REVIEW HISTOLOGY AND CELL BIOLOGY (E. ROBERT BURNS, M. DONALD CAVE) (MOSBY)
Rheumatology & Orthopaedics (Coote, Haslam)
125.4 Samter's Immunologic Diseases (SIXTH EDITION) (K. Frank Austen, M.D, Michael M. Frank, M.D., John P. Atkinson, M.D., Harvey Cantor, M.D.)
122.4
123.4
124.4
(‫ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﺷﻨﺎﺳﺎﻳﻲ )ﺍﻳﻤﻨﻲ ﺫﺍﺗﻲ ﻭ ﺍﻛﺘﺴﺎﺑﻲ‬‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺍﺧﺘﺼﺎﺻﻲ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﻡ‬-
‫ ﻣﻜﺎﻧﻴﺰﻡﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺆﺛﺮ ﺍﻳﻤﻨﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻤﻨﻲ ﺫﺍﺗﻲ ﻭ ﺍﻛﺘﺴﺎﺑﻲ‬‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺁﻟﺮﮊﻳﻜﻲ‬-
‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﻧﻘﺺ ﺍﻳﻤﻨﻲ ﺍﻭﻟﻴﻪ‬‫ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﺍﻳﻤﻨﻲ ﻓﻌﺎﻝ ﻭ ﻏﻴﺮ ﻣﺆﺛﺮ‬-
‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺍﺯﺩﻳﺎﺩ ﻭ ﺗﻜﺜﻴﺮ ﺳﻠﻮﻟﻬﺎﻱ ﺍﻳﻤﻨﻲ‬‫ ﭘﻴﻮﻧﺪ ﺍﻋﻀﺎﺀ‬-
‫ــــــ‬
2002
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻤﻴﻚ‬‫ ﺍﻳﻤﻨﻲ ﺷﻨﺎﺳﻲ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ‬-
‫ ﻗﺪﺭﺕ ﺑﺰﺭﮔﻨﻤﺎﻳﻲ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻭ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﻣﻨـﺎﺑﻊ‬.‫ ﺗﻮﺍﻧﺎﻳﻲ ﺟﺴﺘﺠﻮ ﻭﺍﮊﻩﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻟﻐﺎﺕ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﻭ ﭼﺎﭖ ﻣﺘﻮﻥ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‬.‫ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﻳﻚ ﻛﺘﺎﺑﺨﺎﻧﻪ ﺍﺯ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﻫﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ﻭ ﻫﺮ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺟﺪﺍﻭﻝ ﻭ ﻃﺮﺡﻭﺍﺭﻩﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻪ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﻣﻲﮔﺬﺍﺭﺩ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
26
.‫ﻫﺮ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺍﺯ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﺯ ﻭﻳﮋﮔﻴﻬﺎﻱ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬
126.4
Saunders Manual of Clinical Laboratory Science
‫ـــــ‬
127.4
Short Protocols in CELL BIOLOGY (A Compendiuim of Methods from Current Protocols in Cell Biology) (Juan S. Bonifacino, Mary Dasso)
___
128.4
Short Protocols in Molecular Bilogy (A compendium of Methods from Current Protocols in Molecular Biology) (Fifth Edition) (Frederick M. Ausubel, Reger Brent…)(Vol 1 & 2)
‫ــــــ‬
129.4
SHORT PROTOCOLS IN MOLECULAR BIOLOGY FIFTH Edition
130.4
Short Protocols in PROTEIN SCIENCE (A Compendium of Methods from Current protocols in protein science) (John E. Coligan, Ben M. Dunn)
2002
___
131.4
Silvergerg's Principles & Practice of SURGICAL PATHOLOGY & CYTOPATHOLOGY
2006
132.4
Statistical Methods in Genetic Epidemiology (Duncan c. Thomas)
2004
133.4
Sternberg's Diagnostic Surgical Pathology (Fourth Edition) (CD I, II, III) (Stacey e. Mills, Darryl Carter, Joel K, Greenson)
134.4
Surgical Pathology
2004
‫ــــــ‬
135.4
Surgical Pathology of Non-Neoplastic Lung Disease (Third Edition)
136.4
The American Society of Hematology (41 Annual Meeting and Exposition)
137.4
The Cell 1.0 A Molecular Approach (Many Animations, Movies, Photos, and drawn images) (Geoffrey M. Cooper)
(Rosai & Ackerman) (Ninth Edition) (Juan Rosai)
A Compendium of Methods from Current Protocols in Molecular Biology
(Fourth Edition) (Steven G. Silverberg, Ronald A. Delellis)
(CD 1-4)
(Anna-Luise A. Katzenstein, M.D) (W.B. Saunders Company)
st
Cell Overview
Organelles & Energy Metabolism
Humman Genetic Diseases
The Cytoskeleto
Floww of Information
The Plasma Membrane
The Nucleus
The Extracellular Machine
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
The Cell Cycle
Cancer-A Family od Diseases
Protein Sorting and Transport
The Meiotic Divisions
138.4
The Genetics of the Growth Hormone Axis (Albert Beckers)
139.4
THE HUMAN GENOME PROJECT
2003
140.4
The Infertility Manual (2nd Edition) (Kamini A Rao, Peter R Brinsden, A Henry Sathananthan)
2004
141.4
The Metabolic and Molecular Bases of Inherited Disease
____
142.4
The Microbial Models of Molecular Biology from Genes to Genomes
143.4
UNDERSTAND! Biochemistry (3/e Version) (Lehninger Principles of Biochemistry)
1. THE BACKGROUND
2. THE MOLECULES OF LIFE
3. PROTEINS IN ACTION
(Rowland H. Davis)
4. BIOENERGETICS
5. BIOSYNTHESIS
6. NUCLEIC ACIDS AND THEIR EXPRESSION
‫ــــــ‬
2000
7. CELLULAR ARCHITECTURE AND TRAFFIC
8. THE DIVIDING CELL
9. SOME IMPORTANT TECHNIQUES
‫ــــــ‬
144.4
UNDERSTAND! Biochemistry (VERSION 1.0)
145.4
UNDERSTAND! Biology: Biochemistry (Molecules, Cell & Genes)
‫ــــــ‬
:‫ ﻣﺸﺘﻤﻞ ﺑﺮ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬،‫ ﻓﻮﻕ‬CD
Basic Chemistry
146.4
Macromolecular assembly and modification
Urinalysis TUTOR
Bioenegetics
Signal transduction
Enzymology
The flow of genetic information
(ANINTERACTIVE TUTORIAL THAT TEACHES THE MICROSCOPIC EXAMINATION OF URINARY SEDIMENT) (Caria M. Phillips, MLM, MT(ASCP),
Metabolism
Molecular biology techniques
Paul J. Henderson, MS, MT(ASCP), Claudia Bein, BS, MT(ASCP))
‫ــــــ‬
.‫ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺭﻭﺵ ﺁﺯﻣﺎﻳﺸﺎﺕ ﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﺳﻜﻮﭘﻲ ﻧﻤﻮﻧﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺩﺭﺍﺭﻱ ﺭﺍ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‬٥ ‫ ﺩﺭ‬interactive ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ‬
(‫ ﻋﻔﻮﻧﺖ ﻟﻮﻟﺔ ﺍﺩﺭﺍﺭﻱ‬،‫ ﻓﻴﻠﻮﻧﻔﺮﻳﺖ‬،‫ ﺳﻨﺪﺭﻡ ﻧﻔﺮﻭﺗﻴﻚ‬.‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎ )ﺳﻨﺪﺭﻡ ﮔﻠﻮﻣﺮﻭﻟﻮﻧﻔﺮﻳﺖ‬.٥ (‫ ﺁﺭﺗﻴﻔﻜﺖﻫﺎ‬،‫ ﺍﺭﮔﺎﻧﻴﺰﻣﻬﺎ‬،‫ ﻛﺮﻳﺴﺘﺎﻟﻬﺎ‬،‫ ﺳﺎﺧﺘﺎﺭ ﻭ ﻣﺎﻫﻴﺖ ﺭﺳﻮﺑﺎﺕ ﺍﺩﺭﺍﺭ )ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺳﻠﻮﻟﻬﺎﻱ ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺩﺭﺍﺭ‬.٣
.(‫ ﻫﺮ ﺳﺆﺍﻝ ﺑﻪ ﺷﻜﻞ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﻳﻚ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺳﺆﺍﻝ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﻣﻲﮔﻴﺮﺩ‬.‫ ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺗﻲ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﭼﻨﺪ ﮔﺰﻳﻨﻪﺍﻱ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬،‫ ﺍﺯ ﻫﺮ ﺑﺨﺶ‬.‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬B ‫ ﻭ‬A ‫ ﺍﻣﺘﺤﺎﻥ ﭘﺎﻳﺎﻧﻲ )ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺩﻭﺳﺮﻱ ﺍﻣﺘﺤﺎﻥ‬.٤
147.4
Using Antibodies (A Laboratory Manual)
(‫ ﻣﻜﺎﻧﻴﺴﻢ ﻋﻤﻠﻜﺮﺩ ﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﺳﻜﻮﭘﻲ ﻭ ﻧﻤﻮﻧﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﺳﻜﻮﭘﻲ‬،‫ ﺗﻔﺴﻴﺮ ﻭ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻧﺘﺎﻳﺞ‬،‫ ﻣﻘﺪﻣﻪ )ﻋﻤﻠﻜﺮﺩ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ‬.١
(‫ ﻓﻬﺮﺳﺖ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ )ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺩﻭﻡ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﻣﺠﺰﺍ ﺑﻪ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺩﺭﻣﻲﺁﻳﺪ‬.٢
(Ed Harlo, David Lanp)
148.4 Ute Schepers RNA Interference in Practice (Principles, Basics, & methode for Gene Silencing in c. elegans, Drosophila and Mammals)
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ــــــ‬
2005
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
27
149.4
Viral Hepatitis (Third Edition)
150.4
Virus Life in diagrams
151.4
Volume I: Basic Technologies Bioinformatics from Genomes to Drugs (Methods & Principles in Medicinal Chemistry) (R. Mannhold H. Kubinyi)
2002
152.4
Volume II: Applications Bioinformatics from Genomes to Drugs (Methods & Principles in Medicinal Chemistry) (R. Mannhold H. Kubinyi)
2002
153.4
WHO Laboratory Manual for the examination of Human Semen and sperm-cervical mucus interaction (Fourth Edition)
154.4
WHO Manual for the standardized investigation & diagnosis of the infertile couple (Patrick J, Rowe, Frank H. Conhaire, Timothy B. Hargreave)
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
155.4
WHO Manul for the standardized investigation, diagnosis and management of the infertile male (Patrick J. Rowe, Frank H. Comhaire)
___
(Professor Howard Thomas, Professor Stanley Lemon, Professor Arie Zuckerman)
(Hans-W. Ackermann, Laurent Berthiaume, Michel Tremblay)
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ ﻗﻠﺐ‬-٥
CD ‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ‬
2.4
A Slide Atlas of ATHEROSCLEROSIS Progression and Regression (Herbert C. Stary, MD)
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
2002
‫ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌﻪ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺑﻪ‬.‫ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﭘﻴﺸﺮﻓﺖ ﻭ ﭘﺴﺮﻓﺖ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺁﺗﺮﻭﺍﺳﻜﻠﺮﻭﺯﻳﺲ ﺩﺭ ﺳﻨﻴﻦ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻭ ﻗﻠﺐ ﻭ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺑﺪﻥ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺎ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﺳﻜﻮﭘﻲ ﻭ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺯﻳﺒﺎﻳﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﻛﺸﻴﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬٩٤ ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺑﺎ‬
.‫ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻭ ﻗﻠﺐ ﻭ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﺗﻮﺻﻴﻪ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬
1.5
A visible improvement in angina treatment (VCD)
Post-EECP stress perfusion image, Markedly improved anterior, septal, and inferior wall perfusion.
‫ــــــ‬
2.5
Advanced Echocardiography: Quantitaive 2-D & Doppler Ultrasoun (Miguel A. Quinones, William A. Zoghbl)
‫ــــــ‬
3.5
4.5
5.5
6.5
Advanced Therapy in CARDIAC SURGERY (Kenneth L. Franco, Edward D. Verrier)
ACCSAP (Adult Clinical Cardiology Self-Assessment Program) (C. Richard Donti, MD, Richard P. Lewis, MD) (AMERICAN COLLEGE of CARDIOLOGY)
Acute Heart Failure (THE CLEVELAND CLINIC FOUNDATION) (W. Frank Peacock, MD) (The Emergency Department and the Economics of Care)
American Heart Associations fighting Heart Disease and Stroke Abstracts from Scientific Sessions (Augustus O. Grant, Raymond J. Gibbons)
-Basic Science
-Clinical Science
-Population Science
Atlas of Transesophageal Echocardiography (Navin C. Nanda, MD, Michael J. Domanski) (Williams & Wilkins)
2003
2000
2004
2002
7.5
1. Normal Anatomy
2. Prosthetic Valves and Rings
3. Mitral Valve
4. Ischemic Heart Disease
5. Aortic Valve and Aorta
6. Cardiomyopathy
8.5
All in One (Diabetes and the Heart) (MERCK)
9.5
BEYOND HEART SOUNDS The Interactive Cardic Exam (John Michael Criley, MD) (VOL 1)
Introduction to anscultation
Frontal Chest Anatomy
The Cardinal areas of anscultation
Using the stethoscope
10.5
BRAUNWALD'S HEART DISESE
Hemodynamics tutorial The cardiac cycle
Mitral and aortic valve flow
Hemodynamic changes in disease
Mitral Stenosis
Aortic stenosis
2004
‫ــــــ‬
Pulse Tutorial
Introduction
Carotid Pulses
Jugular Venous Pulses
A Textbook of Cardiovascular Medicine (7th Edition) (Douglas P. Zipes, Peter Libby) (Volume I , II)
11.5 Cardiac Catheterization, Angiography, and Intervention
‫ــــــ‬
7. Tricuspid and Pulmonary Valves
8. Congenital Heart Disease
(SIXTH EDITION) (LIPPINCOTT WILLIAMS & WILKINS)
‫ــــــ‬
2000
.‫ ﺩﻗﻴﻘﻪ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬٣٥ ‫ ﻭ‬Grossmam's Cadiac Cathetrization ....... ‫ ﺷﺸﻢ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ‬edition ‫ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
.‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬Procerdue- related Findinig ‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ ﻭ ﻧﺮﻣﺎﻝ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ‬Case50 ‫ﻭﺟﻪ ﻣﺸﺨﺼﻪ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮﻳﻲ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
‫‪28‬‬
‫‪ -١‬ﻣﻼﺣﻈﺎﺕ ﻛﻠﻲ ﻛﺎﺗﺘﺮﻳﺰﺍﺳﻴﻮﻥ ‪ -٢‬ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ‪ -Brachiel Cutdown – Percutaneous approuch) Basic‬ﻛﺎﺗﺘﺮﺍﺯﻳﺴﻮﻥ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻛﻮﺩﻛﺎﻥ ﻭ ﻧﻮﺯﺍﺩﺍﻥ( ‪ -٣‬ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﻫﻤﻮﺩﻳﻨﺎﻣﻴﻚ )ﺍﻧﺪﺍﺯﻩﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﻓﺸﺎﺭ‪ -‬ﺍﻧﺪﺍﺯﻩﮔﻴﺮﻱ ‪ blood flow‬ﻭ ‪ output‬ﻗﻠﺐ ﻭ ﻣﻘﺎﻭﻣﺖ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﻭ ‪(....‬‬
‫‪ -٤‬ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻧﮋﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ) ﺁﻧﮋﻳﻮﻛﺮﻭﻧﺮﻱ – ﻭﻧﺘﺮﻳﻜﻮﻟﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ – ﺁﻧﮋﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﻭﭘﻮﻟﻤﻮﻧﺮﻱ‪ -‬ﺁﻧﮋﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺁﺋﻮﺭﺕ ﻭ ﺷﺮﻳﺎﻧﻬﺎﻱ ﻣﺤﻴﻄﻲ( ‪ -٥‬ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻓﺎﻧﻜﺸﻨﺎﻝ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ )ﺍﺳﺘﺮﺱ ‪ Test‬ﻃﻲ ﻛﺎﺗﺘﺮﺍﺯﻳﺴﻴﻮﻥ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﺯﻩﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺣﺠﻢ ﺑﻄﻦﻫﺎ ‪ ،Ejection Fraction‬ﻭﻇﻴﻔﻪ ﺩﻳﺎﺳﺘﻮﻟﻲ ﻭ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻮﻟﻲ ﺑﻄﻨﻲﻫﺎ ﻭ ‪(...‬‬
‫‪) : Special Catheter Techniquse -٦‬ﺍﻛﻮﻛﺎﺭﺩﻳﺎﻝ ﺑﻴﻮﭘﺴﻲ‪ -‬ﺍﻭﻟﺘﺮﺍﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺩﺍﺧﻞ ﻋﺮﻭﻗﻲ‪ -‬ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﺩﺍﺩﻥ ‪ deivce‬ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺩﺭﻣـﺎﻥ ﺁﺭﻳﺘﻴﻤـﻲﻫـﺎ ‪ intrathoracic balloon Counter Pulsation -‬ﻭ ‪ -٧ (...‬ﺗﻜﻨﻴـﻚﻫـﺎﻱ ﻣﺪﺍﺧﻠـﻪﺍﻱ )ﺁﻧﺘﮋﻳﻮﭘﻼﺳـﺘﻲ ﻋـﺮﻭﻕ‬
‫ﻛﺮﻭﻧﺮﻱ‪ -‬ﺁﺗﺮﻭﻛﺘﻮﻣﻲ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﻛﺮﻭﻧﺮﻱ ﻭ ﺗﺮﻭﻣﺒﻜﺘﻮﻣﻲ ‪Stent-‬ﮔﺬﺍﺭﻱ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﻛﺮﻭﻧﺮ – ﻣﺪﺍﺧﻠﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﻣﺤﻴﻄﻲ ﻭ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﻛﻮﺩﻛﺎﻥ( ‪ Profile -٨‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﺧـﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺍﺧﺘﺼﺎﺻـﻲ‪) :‬ﻃـﺮﺯ ﺷﻨﺎﺳـﺎﻳﻲ ﻭ ﻛﺎﺗﺘﺮﻳﺰﺍﺳـﻴﻮﻥ ﻭ ﺁﻧﮋﻳـﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺑﻴﻤـﺎﺭﻱﻫـﺎﻱ ﺩﺭﻳﭽـﻪﺍﻱ ﻗﻠـﺐ –‬
‫ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺷﺮﺍﺋﻴﻦ ﻛﺮﻭﻧﺮﻱ‪ -‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺍﻣﺒﻮﻟﻲ ﺭﻳﻪ ﻭ ‪ (...‬ﻓﻴﻠﻢﻫﺎﻱ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮﻳﻲ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺁﻧﮋﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﻛﺎﺗﺘﺮﻳﺰﺍﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﻭ ﺍﻗﺪﺍﻣﺎﺕ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ‪:‬‬
‫ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﻭﻧﺘﺮﻳﻜﻮﻟﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺑﻄﻦ ﭼﭗ‬‫ ﺁﻧﻮﻣﺎﻟﻴﻬﺎ ﻭ ‪ CAD‬ﻏﻴﺮ ﺁﺗﺮﻭﺳﻜﺮﻭﺗﻴﻚ‬‫ ﻛﺎﺗﺘﺮﻳﺰﺍﺳﻴﻮﻥ ‪Basic‬‬‫ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺁﺋﻮﺭﺕ ﻭ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﻣﺤﻴﻄﻲ‬‫ ﻣﺪﺍﺧﻼﺕ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ )‪ Stent‬ﮔﺬﺍﺭﻱ‪ -‬ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ‪ -‬ﺑﺎﻟﻮﻥﮔﺬﺍﺭﻱ ﻭ ﻭﺍﻟﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ‪ Rotabalator‬ﻭ ‪ (....‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬‫‪2004‬‬
‫‪12.5 Cardiovascular Surgery‬‬
‫)‪(VCD) (CD I, II, III‬‬
‫"‪Excerpted from "Medical & Surgical Controversies in CV disease: The Aorta and Peripheral Vessels‬‬
‫‪Course Directors: Thoralf M. Sundt III, MD and Peter C. Spittell, MD‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪2003‬‬
‫‪2003‬‬
‫)‪(Richard E. Klabunde‬‬
‫)‪(Nadim Al-Mubarak, Gary S. Roubin, Sriram S. Layer, Jiri J. Vitek‬‬
‫)‪14.5 Carotid Artery Stenting (Current Practice and Techniques‬‬
‫)‪15.5 CathSAP Cardiac Catheterization and Interventional Cardiology Self-Assessment Program (Carl J. Pepine, MD, Steven E. Nissen, MD‬‬
‫‪A Satellite Symposium held during the ESC Heart Failure meeting‬‬
‫)‪(Steven N. Konstadt‬‬
‫‪16.5 Challenging established treatment patterns in chronic heart failure‬‬
‫)‪17.5 Clinical TRANSESOPHAGEAL ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY (A PROBLEM- ORIENTED APPROACH) (Second Edition‬‬
‫‪2001‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪13.5 Cardiovascular Physiology Concepts‬‬
‫‪18.5 Clinical Utility of Contrast Echocardiography‬‬
‫)‪Sonovue: An ideal contrast agent for Low MI myocardial Perfusion (Dr. Daniela Bokor, Bracco sa, Milano‬‬
‫"‪What's new in cardic echography (Dr. Luciano Agati, University "La Sapienza Roma‬‬
‫)‪Ischemic coronary artery disease (Dr. Harld Becher, John Radcliffe Hospital, Oxford‬‬
‫)‪19.5 Congestive Heart Failure (NOVARTIS) (CD I , II‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺩﻭ ‪ CD‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ‪ Ciba‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻗﻠﺐ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻣﺆﻟﻒ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ‪ Frank .H.Netter‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻋﻜﺲﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ‪ ،Case report ،‬ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮﻳﻲ ﻭ ﻓﺎﻳﻞ ﺻﻮﺗﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ‪ Case report‬ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﭘﺰﺷﻚ ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺗﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﺪ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ‬
‫ﺑﻪ ﺳﻮﺍﻻﺕ ﺟﻮﺍﺏ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‪ .‬ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺑﻴﺸﺘﺮ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﺑﺎ ﻛﻠﻴﻚ ﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﺩﻛﻤﻪﻫﺎ ﺭﺍ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﺑﻪ ﺩﺳﺖ ﺁﻭﺭﺩ‪ .‬ﺳﭙﺲ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﻪ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻜﻲ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪ multiple choice test‬ﻭ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺍﻓﺘﺮﺍﻗﻲ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ‪ CHF‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪ .١ :‬ﻋﻤﻠﻜﺮﺩ ﻧﺮﻣﺎﻝ ﻗﻠﺐ ﻭ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﻋﺮﻭﻗﻲ‬
‫‪ .٢‬ﺍﺗﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻭ ﺗﻌﺮﻳﻒ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ‪CHF‬‬
‫‪ .٣‬ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ‪CHF‬‬
‫‪ .٤‬ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ‪ management ،‬ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ‪ CHF‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪20.5 Coronary Heart Disease (J. Hurley Myers, Ph.D., Frank H. Netter, M.D.‬‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫)‪21.5 Current Diagnosis & Treatment in CARDIOLOGY (7th Edition) (Michael H. Crawford. MD‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫)‪22.5 Drugs for the Heart (Sixth Edition‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺩﻭ ﺑﺨﺶ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ -١ :‬ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ‪ -٢‬ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ‬
‫‪ -٤‬ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﻣﺪﻳﺮﻳﺖ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ‬
‫ﺑﺨﺶ ﺍﻭﻝ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‪ -١ :‬ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﻛﺮﻭﻧﺮﻱ ‪ -٢‬ﺁﺗﺮﻭﺍﺳﻜﻠﺮﻭﺯﻳﺲ ‪ -٣‬ﺍﻧﻔﺎﺭﻛﺘﻮﺱ ﻣﻴﻮﻛﺎﺭﺩ‬
‫ﻫﺮ ﻳﻚ ﺍﺯ ﭼﻬﺎﺭﻓﺼﻞ ﻓﻮﻕ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﭼﻨﺪﻳﻦ ﺯﻳﺮﻓﺼﻞ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺕ ﻣﺘﻨﻲ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﻳﻚ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻋﺎﺕ‪ ،‬ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻧﺪ ﻳﺎﺩﺩﺍﺷﺖ ﺷﺨﺼﻲ ﺧﻮﺩ ﺭﺍ ﺍﺿﺎﻓﻪ ﻭ ﺫﺧﻴﺮﻩ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺩﻭﻡ‪ :‬ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪ -١‬ﻣﻘﺪﻣﻪ ‪ -٢‬ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﺧﻮﻧﻲ ﻗﻠﺐ ‪ -٣‬ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺍﻧﺴﺪﺍﺩ ﺳﺮﺧﺮﮔﻬﺎﻱ ﺍﻛﻠﻴﻠﻲ ‪ -٤‬ﭘﻴﮕﻴﺮﻱ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺍﻧﺴﺪﺍﺩ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﻛﺮﻭﻧﺮ ‪ -٥‬ﺁﻧﮋﻳﻦ ﺻﺪﺭﻱ ‪ -٦‬ﺍﻧﻔﺎﺭﻛﺘﻮﺱ ﻣﻴﻮﻛﺎﺭﺩ ‪ -٧‬ﺭﻭﺷﻬﺎﻱ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ ‪ -٨‬ﺩﺍﺭﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ‪ -٩‬ﺁﻧﮋﻳﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ﻭ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ )ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺨﺶ‬
‫ﻫﺮ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺍﺯ ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﻓﻮﻕ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﮔﻮﻳﻨﺪﻩ )ﺑﺎ ﭘﺨﺶ ﺻﺪﺍ( ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﻓﻴﻠﻤﻬﺎﻱ ﻛﻮﺗﺎﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺁﻧﮋﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﻗﻠﺐ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ(‬
‫)‪(Salekan E-Book) (Lionel H. Opie, Bernard J. Gersh‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪23.5 Dynamic Practical Electrodiography (Lippincott Williams & Wilkins‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪24.5 ECG (Jay W. Mason, MD‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪25.5 ECG DIAGNOSIS MADE EASY ROMEO VEGHT‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﻳﻚ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﻣﺸﺘﻤﻞ ﺑﺮ ‪ ٩‬ﻓﺼﻞ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﺗﺤﺖ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﺔ ‪ Internet explorer‬ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ‪ ٣٥٠‬ﻋﺪﺩ ﻧﻤﻮﺩﺍﺭ ‪ ECG‬ﮔﻮﻧﺎﮔﻮﻥ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺗﻮﺍﻧﺎﻳﻲ ﺟﺴﺘﺠﻮﻱ ﻧﻤﻮﺩﺍﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﻭ ﭼﺎﭖ ﻭ ﺫﺧﻴﺮﺓ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﻧﻴﺰ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪ ٩ .‬ﻓﺼﻞ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣـﻮﺍﺭﺩ‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
29
:‫ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
1. Basic Priciples (‫ ﻫﺪﺍﻳﺖ ﺟﺮﻳﺎﻥ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻳﻜﻲ‬، ‫ ﺩﭘﻮﻻﺭﻳﺰﺍﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﻋﻀﻠﻪ‬،‫ ﻣﻮﻗﻌﻴﺖ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﺩﻫﺎ‬،‫ﻧﺮﻣﺎﻝ‬
2. Hypertrophy
6. Chardiomyopathies and autoimmune disorders
3. ECG ‫ ﻭ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺿﺒﻂ‬....) Ischaemic (Coronary) heart disease
4. Pericarditis, myocarditis and metabolic disorders
5. Conductin impairment
7. Rhythm disturbances
6. Pacemakers, ICDs and cardioversion Mixed ECG quizzes
‫ ﺭﺍ ﻣﻲﺯﻧﻴﻢ ﻣﺴﻴﺮ ﻧﺼﺐ ﭘﺮﺳﻴﺪﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﺩﺭ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺗﻮﺍﻓـﻖ‬Next ‫ ﺳﭙﺲ‬.‫ ﺭﺍ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﻴﻢ‬Setup ‫ ﻓﺎﻳﻞ‬.‫ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﻳﻢ‬Setup ‫ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺍﺯ ﺁﻧﺠﺎ ﻭﺍﺭﺩ ﺷﺎﺧﻪ‬CD ‫ ﺑﻌﺪ ﻭﺍﺭﺩ ﺩﺭﺍﻳﻮ‬.‫ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﻳﻢ‬my
26.5 ECG-SAP III (Jay W. Mason, MD, FACC)
-Using ECG-SAP III -Standard Tracings -Syndromes
27.5
computer ‫ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺭﻭﻥ ﺩﺭﺍﻳﻮ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﻭﺍﺭﺩ‬CD ‫ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ‬:‫( ﻃﺮﻳﻘﺔ ﻧﺼﺐ‬
.‫ ﺭﺍ ﻓﺸﺎﺭ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﻴﻢ‬Finish ‫ ﺭﺍ ﻣﻲﺯﻧﻴﻢ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﻧﺼﺐ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﺩﺭ ﭘﺎﻳﺎﻥ‬Next
‫ــــــ‬
-Computer Overreads
-Serial Tracings
Echo Lecture (VIDEO SERIES) (7CD) (Mayo)
-Stress Testing
-ECG of the Month
-Guidelines
-Utilities
:‫ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﺷﺮﺡ ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﺁﻥ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‬CD ‫ ﺳﺮﻱ‬٧ ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﻪ ﻛﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬
1. TEE in the Operating Room (Bijoy K. Khandheria, MD)
‫ــــــ‬
Intraoperative echocardiography has become an essential component to the surgical approach to valvular disease. Dr. Bijoy Khandheria discusses the utility of intraoperative echocardiography and its
impact on the surgical management of cardiovascular disease.
2. TEE in Adult Congenital Heart Disease (James B. Seward, M.D.)
Dr. James Seward Presents Adult Congenital Heart Disease. A generation of Children Have Grown into adulthood and Present with postoperative congenital heart disease. Transesophageal
echocardiography is extremely helpful but may not always be necessary in the assessment of adult congenital heart disease. Learn from the expert regarding appropriate use of transesophageal
echocardiography and assessment of residua and sequela of adult congenital heart disease.
3. Understanding Operative Procedures for Patients with Univentricular Heart from Palliation to Fontan (James B. Seward, M.D.)
Dr. Seward gives a detailed overview of complex anomalies and their applicable corrections. Topics included are Blalock, Mustard, Glen and Fontan corrections. Graphic depictions of each corrective
procedure, possible complications and echocardiographic example are included.
4. Mitral Valve Regurgitation: Essential Measurements. Pitfalls and Limitations. (Fletcher A. Miller, Jr., MD)
Dr. Fletcher Miller discusses and presents the current approach to the quantitative evaluation of mitral valve regurgitation. This is an excellent review of current quantitative assessment of mitral valve
regurgitation including pitfalls and limitations.
5. Mitral Vale Regurgitation: Evidence-Based Practice (A. Jamil Tajik, MD)
A Classic presentation by Dr. A. Jamil Tajik on a change in clinical practice with regard to the quantitation of regurgitation and then a change in medical management with early surgery and repair of the mitral valve.
6. Evaluating the Patient with Prothetic Valve (Fletcher A. Miller, Jr., MD)
Dr. Fletcher Miller, an expert on the echocardiographic assessment of prosthetic valves, presents a detailed in-depth review of the quantitative echo Doppler approach to the prosthetic valve. It is
important to understand the hemodynamic pitfalls and limitations of the echocardiographic assessment of cardiac prosthetic valves.
7. Stress Echocardiography and Contrast (Patricia A. Pellikka, M.D.)
Stress Echocardiography and Contrast Using illustrative cases, Dr. Pellikka gives an expert presentation and discussion on the role of contrast in stress echocardiography. Pitfalls and limitations of contrast stress
echocardiography are also discussed. New Horizons in Stress Echocardiography Dr. Pellikka, an expert in Stress echocardiography, discusses Dobutamine stress echocardiography and its role in preoperative risk
stratification. Also discussed are new advances in stress echocardiography such as color kinesis and acoustic quantification, color Doppler imaging, and strain and strain rate imaging.
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY
38.5 ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY
39.5 ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY
40.5 ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY
28.5
29.5
30.5
31.5
32.5
33.5
34.5
35.5
36.5
37.5
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
2-D/DOPPLER WITH COLOR FLOW IMAGING
(UPDATE NO. 1)
2-D/DOPPLER WITH COLOR FLOW IMAGING (VOLUME 1) (VCD)
(TRANSESOPHAGEAL- ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY)
(ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY Normal 2-D And M-MODE EXAM))
2-D/DOPPLER WITH COLOR FLOW IMAGING (VOLUME 10) (VCD) (CARDIAC MASSES)
2-D/DOPPLER WITH COLOR FLOW IMAGING (VOLUME 11-A,B) (VCD CD I, ii) (ECHOCARDIOGRAPHIC ASSESSMENT OF PROSTHETIC HEART VALVES)
2-D/DOPPLER WITH COLOR FLOW IMAGING (VOLUME 12) (VCD) (INTERVENTIONAL ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY)
2-D/DOPPLER WITH COLOR FLOW IMAGING (VOLUME 2) (VCD)
(DOPPLER AND COLOR FLOW IMAGING: PHYSICS, INSTRUMENTATIONS AND THE NORMAL EXAM)
2-D/DOPPLER WITH COLOR FLOW IMAGING (VOLUME 4) (VCD)
(ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY IN AORTIC VAL VE DISEASE)
2-D/DOPPLER WITH COLOR FLOW IMAGING (VOLUME 5) (VCD)
(ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY IN CORONARY HEART DISEASE)
2-D/DOPPLER WITH COLOR FLOW IMAGING (VOLUME 6) (VCD)
(ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY IN CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE IN THE ADULT)
2-D/DOPPLER WITH COLOR FLOW IMAGING (VOLUME 7) (VCD) (ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY IN CARDIOMYOPATHIES: DILATED, RESTRICTIVE AND HYPERTROPHIC)
2-D/DOPPLER WITH COLOR FLOW IMAGING (VOLUME 8) (VCD) (ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY IN PERICARDIAL DISEASE)
(VOLUME 9) (VCD) (ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY IN TRICUSPID AND PULMONIC VALVE DISEASE AND DESEASES OF THE AORTA)
2-D/DOPPLER WITH COLOR FLOW IMAGING (VOLUME3) (VCD) (ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY IN MITRAL VALVE DISEASE)
2-D/DOPPLER WITH COLOR FLOW IMAGING
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
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‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
30
41.5 EchoSAP III (Echocardiography Self-Assessment Program)(Echocardiography Overview: Technique and Applications)
(Volume 1)
2000
(Jemes D. Thomas, MD, Ellen Mayer-Sabik, MD)
-Introduction and Overview
-Examinations
-Applications
-Self-Assessment Questions
-Evidence-Based Medicine
-Conclusions
42.5 EECP: Current Experience and Future Directions
‫ــــــ‬
43.5 Electronic Image Collection of Comprehensive Vascular and Endovascular Surgery (John W. Hallet, Joseph L. Mills, Jonothan J. Eamsbaw, Jim A Reekers)
2004
1. Background
3. claudication
2. Mesenteric Syndromes 4. Renovascular disease
5. Chronic Lower Extremity Ischemia
6. Aneurysmal Disease
7. Acute Limb Ischemia
8. Cerebrovascular Disease
9. Upper Extremity Problems
10. Venous Disease
44.5 ENDOVASCULAR TECHNIQUES (Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms) (Workshop) (l. Flessenkämper) (15th Endovascular Symposium Berlin)
‫ــــــ‬
45.5 ESC Congress
2004
46.5 EVOLVING ISSUES IN THE MANAGEMENT CHD
SECTION 1
(National Lipid Education Council
SECTION II
TM
2002
)
SECTION III
SECTION IV
SECTION V
Emerging Evidence-Based Data From Clinical Trials PAD Lipids and Risk
Inflammatory Markers: Anovel Approach Use of Genomics to discover new targets for therapy Case study: Diabetes
NON-HDL-Case Secondary Targert of Therapy
Lipid Management Though combination Therapy Case Study: Novel Risk Markers
Examining the nonlipid effects of statins
What is it's Role in clinical practice?
Case Study:Combination Therapy
Case Study: NON-HDL-C
47.5 Feigenbun's Echocardiography
Textbook & Video Library (Sixth Edition) (Harvey Feigenbaum, William F. Armstrong, Thomas Ryan)
2005
48.5 Grossman's Cardiac Catheterization, Angiography and intervention (Sixth Edition) (Donald S. Baim, William Grossman)
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49.5 HEART DISEASE (FIFTH EDITION)
‫ــــــ‬
A Textbook of Cardiovascular Medicine (W.B. SAUNDERS COMPANY)
.‫ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻣﺠﺰﺍ ﺗﺸﻜﻴﻞ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬٤ ‫( ﺍﺯ‬e-book) ‫ﺩﺭ ﻭﺍﻗﻊ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ‬
(Mendelsohn) Reviwe and Assessment Book -٤
(Hennekens) Clinical Trials in Cardiovascular Disease -٣
(chien) Molecular Basis of Heart Disase -٢
(Braunwald) Heart Disease -١
‫ )ﺟﺴﺘﺠﻮ( ﺑﺨﺼﻮﺹ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﻭ ﺭﺯﻳﺪﻧﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﺷﺘﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻗﻠﺐ ﻭ ﺩﺍﺧﻠﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﭘﻴﺪﺍ‬Search ‫ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ‬CD ‫ ﺧﺼﻮﺻﻴﺖ ﻣﻨﺤﺼﺮ ﺑﻪ ﻓﺮﺩ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﺳﻮﺍﻝ ﻭ ﺟﻮﺍﺏ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬٧٠٦ ‫ﺩﺭ ﺁﺧﺮ ﻫﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺳﻮﺍﻻﺕ ﭼﻨﺪ ﮔﺰﻳﻨﻪﺍﻱ ﺑﺎ ﺟﻮﺍﺏ ﺗﺸﺮﻳﺤﻲ ﻭ ﺭﻓﺮﺍﻧﺲ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻛﻪ ﻣﺸﺘﻤﻞ ﺑﺮ‬
‫( ﻫﻤﮕﻲ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻧﺪ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺗﺪﺭﻳﺲ ﻭ ﻳﺎ ﻛﻨﻔﺮﺍﻧﺲ ﻭ‬e-book) ‫ ﺷﻜﻞ ﻭ ﻧﻤﻮﺩﺍﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻧﺪ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻣﺘﺤﺎﻧﺎﺕ ﺍﺭﺗﻘﺎﺀ ﻭ ﺑﻮﺭﺩ ﻭ ﺍﻣﺘﺤﺎﻧﺎﺕ ﺩﺭﻭﻥ ﺑﺨﺸﻲ ﻛﻤﻚ ﻗﺎﺑﻞ ﺗﻮﺟﻬﻲ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺪ‬CD ‫ ﺳﺮﻳﻊ ﻭ ﻭﺳﻴﻊ ﺍﻳﻦ‬Search ‫ ﻫﻢﭼﻨﻴﻦ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ‬.‫ﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻋﻲ ﻳﺎ ﺣﺘﻲ ﻛﻠﻤﺎﺕ ﻛﻤﻚ ﺷﺎﻳﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﻲﻧﻤﺎﻳﺪ‬
.‫ ﺷﻮﺩ‬CCU ‫ﻫﺎ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺎﺗﻴﺪ ﻭ ﺭﺯﻳﺪﻧﺖﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻛﺎﺭﻛﻨﺎ ﻥ ﺑﺨﺶﻫﺎﻱ ﻗﻠﺐ ﻭ‬club
50.5 HEART SOUNDS
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51.5 HEART SOUNDS Basic Cardiac Auscultation Version 3.0 (Leonard Werner, M.D., Brian Pitts, David Gilsdorf)
2003
52.5 Heart Sounds Basic Cardiac Auscultation CD-ROM to Accompany (M.D., F.A/C.P., Brian Pitts, M.D., David Gilsdorf) (Lippincott Williams & Wilkins)
2003
53.5 Highlights
2004
ESC Congress
54.5 HURST'S THE HEART (R. Wayne Alexander, Robert C. Schlant, Valentin Fuster
.‫ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‬CD‫ ﻓﺼﻠﻲ ﺟﺪﺍﮔﺎﻧﻪ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺷﻜﻞﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻧﻤﻮﺩﺍﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﻫﻢ ﭼﻨﻴﻦ ﻓﺼﻠﻲ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺻﺪﺍﻫﺎﻱ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻓﺎﻳﻞ ﺻﻮﺗﻲ‬،‫ ﻓﺼﻞ‬١٦ ‫ ﻣﺸﺘﻤﻞ ﺑﺮ‬Hurst ‫ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ‬Text ‫ ﻧﻬﻢ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ‬Edition ‫ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﺣﺎﺿﺮ‬
.‫ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﻛﺮﺩ‬،(‫ ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺷﺨﺼﻲ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺗﺪﺭﻳﺲ )ﺑﺨﺼﻮﺹ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺷﻜﻞﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﻤﺎﻡ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﺁﻥ‬CD ‫ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﺗﺴﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﭼﻨﺪ ﮔﺰﻳﻨﻪﺍﻱ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﻫﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ﻫﻤﺮﺍ ﺑﺎ ﺟﻮﺍﺏ ﮔﻨﺠﺎﻧﺪﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬CD‫ﺩﺭ ﺁﺧﺮﺍﻳﻦ‬
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55.5 Hypertension & Olmetec
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56.5 Interactive Atlas of Transesophageal Color Doppler Echocardiography (Raffaele De Simone)
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57.5 Interactive Atlas of Transesophageal Color Doppler Echocardiography
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58.5 Interactive Echocardiography: A Clinical Atlas
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
(Raffaele De Simone)
(Th. Binder, M.D., G. Rehak,G. Porenta. M.D., Ph.D., M. Zengeneh, M.D., G. Maurer, M.D., H. Baumgartner, M.D.)
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
University of Vienna, Austria
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‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
31
59.5 Interactive Echocardiography: Interactive ECG
(J.H. Myers, A.F. Moukaddem, N. Tongsak)
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60.5 Interactive Electrocardiography on Cd-Rom (Curtis M. Rimmerman, Anil K. Jain)
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61.5 Interventional Cardiology Clinical Resource (Disc 1 & 2) (Evidence . Analysis . Recommendations . Consensus Reports)
2003
62.5 Intra-Aortic Balloon Catheter Insertion and Removal Technique
1. INTRODUCTION
2. LAB SELECTION
3. LAB PREPARATION
4. LAB INSERTION
63.5 Manual of Cardiovascular Medicine (Second Edition)
(ARROW)
5. LAB CATHETER
PREPARATION
6. LAB CATHETER INSERTION
7. LAB REMOVAL :‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬CD ‫ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
2002
2004
(Brian P. Griffin, Eric J. Topol)
64.5 Mastering Auscultation An Audio Tour to Cardiac Diagnosis Clinical Findings Diagnosis Treatment Tutorial Text Reference (Dr. Anthony Don Michael's)
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65.5 Mechanical Support for Cardiac & Respiratory Failure in Pediatric Patients
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66.5 MVP Video Journal of Cardilogy
(Brain W. Duncan)
(Maria-Teresa Olivari, M.D., Antonio M. Gotto, M.D., D. Phill.)
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‫ ﻳﻚ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ ﺑﻪ ﺷﻜﻞ ﻣﺼﺎﺣﺒﺔ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﺑﺎ ﻳﻚ ﻣﺘﺨﺼـﺺ ﺑـﻪ ﻫﻤـﺮﺍﻩ ﻧﻤـﺎﻳﺶ ﺍﺳـﻼﻳﺪ ﻭ‬،‫ ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ‬.‫ ﺩﻗﻴﻘﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺳﻪ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﻣﺠﺰﺍ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬٤٥ ‫( ﺑﻪﻣﺪﺕ‬VCD ‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻳﻚ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ )ﺩﺭ ﻗﺎﻟﺐ‬MVP ‫ﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺍﺯ ﺳﺮﻱ‬
:‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻋﺎﺕ ﺑﻪ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ﻧﻤﻮﺩﺍﺭ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
1-Determination of Rejection in the Cardiac transplant Recipient
Maria-Teresa Olivari ‫ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‬: ‫ﻣﺼﺎﺣﺒﻪ ﺷﻮﻧﺪﻩ‬
.‫ ﺭﻭﺷﻬﺎﻱ ﺍﻳﻤﻮﻧﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻜﻲ )ﺁﻧﺘﻲ ﻣﻴﻮﺯﻳﻦ( ﻭ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﺭﻭﺷﻬﺎﻱ ﻏﻴﺮﺗﻬﺎﺟﻤﻲ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬،MRI ،‫ ﺍﻛﻮﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ‬،‫ﭘﻴﮕﻴﺮﻱ ﻭ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺭﺩ ﭘﻴﻮﻧﺪ ﻗﻠﺐ ﺑﻪ ﻛﻤﻚ ﺍﻛﻮﻛﺎﺭﺩﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ‬
Antonio Gotto ‫ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‬:‫ﻣﺼﺎﺣﺒﻪ ﺷﻮﻧﺪﻩ‬
2- Triglycerides, HDL and coronary Heat Disease
.‫ ﻭ ﺭﻋﺎﻳﺖ ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﺑﻬﺪﺍﺷﺘﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﺔ ﻋﺎﺭﺿﺔ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﻛﺮﻭﻧﺮﻱ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺩﻳﺎﺑﺖ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺷﻬﺎﻱ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ‬.‫ﻛﻠﻴﺔ ﺭﻳﺴﻚ ﻓﺎﻛﺘﻮﺭﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻋﻮﺍﻣﻞ ﻣﺆﺛﺮ ﺑﺮ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺩﺭ ﻋﺎﺭﺿﺔ ﺭﮔﻬﺎﻱ ﻛﺮﻭﻧﺮﻱ ﻗﻠﺐ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
Carl E. Orringer ‫ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‬:‫ﻣﺼﺎﺣﺒﻪ ﺷﻮﻧﺪﻩ‬
3- Management of Cardiac Disease in Pregnancy
،‫ ﺩﺭﻣـﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻳـﻲ ﺑﻴﻤـﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻗﻠﺒـﻲ ﺑـﺎﺭﺩﺍﺭ‬،... ‫ ﻭ‬MRI ،‫ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺑﻪ ﻛﻤﻚ ﺍﻛﻮﻛﺎﺭﺩﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺩﺍﭘﻠـﺮ‬،‫ ﺳﻤﻊ ﻗﻠﺐ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ ﺑﺎﺭﺩﺍﺭ‬،‫ ﺗﻨﻔﺴﻲ‬- ‫ ﻋﻼﺋﻢ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ‬،(... ‫ ﺍﻳﺴﺖ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ ﻭ‬،‫ ﺣﺠﻢ ﺿﺮﺑﻪﺍﻱ‬، ‫ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻗﻠﺐ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﺎﻥ ﺑﺎﺭﺩﺍﺭﻱ )ﺑﺮﻭﻥﺩﻩ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ‬،‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺨﺶ‬
.‫ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪ ﻭ ﻧﻤﻮﺩﺍﺭ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻭ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬... ‫ ﺍﻓﺰﺍﻳﺶ ﻓﺸﺎﺭ ﺧﻮﻥ ﺩﺭ ﺑﺎﺭﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﻭ‬،‫ﻛﺎﺭﺩﻳﻮﻣﻴﻮﭘﺎﺗﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺑﺎﺭﺩﺍﺭﻱ‬
67.5 MVP Video Journal of Cardiology (Anthony C. Pearson, M.D., Charles B. Higgins, M.D., William W. O'Neill, M.D.) (VCD)
‫ــــــ‬
:‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻋﺎﺕ ﺑﻪ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﻳﻚ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ ﺑﻪ ﺷﻜﻞ ﻣﺼﺎﺣﺒﺔ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﺑﺎ ﻳﻚ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺺ ﺑﻪ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﻪ ﻭ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﻭ ﻧﻤﻮﺩﺍﺭ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻭ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ ﺩﻗﻴﻘﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺳﻪ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩﺍﻧﺪ‬40 ‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻣﺪﺕ‬MVP ‫ﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺍﺯ ﺳﺮﻱ‬
1- The stately Art of MR in Cardiovascuvlar Disease
Charles P. Higgins ‫ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‬:‫ﻣﺼﺎﺣﺒﻪ ﺷﻮﻧﺪﻩ‬
.‫ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.... ‫ ﻭ‬MRI ‫ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ ﻋﺮﻭﻗﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪ ﻭ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ‬MRI ‫ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩ‬،‫ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺘﻌﺪﺩ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﺑﺮﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﺩﺭ ﻛﺎﺭﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬، MRI ‫ ﺗﺎﺭﻳﺨﭽﺔ‬،‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺨﺶ‬
2. Arguing for Angioplasy in Acute Myocardial infction
William w. ONeill ‫ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‬:‫ﻣﺼﺎﺣﺒﻪ ﺷﻮﻧﺪﻩ‬
‫ ﺑﺮﺁﻭﺭﺩ ﺩﻳﺴﻚ ﺁﻧﮋﻳﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ﻭ ﺑﻪ ﻛﻤﻚ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪ ﻭ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ‬، ‫ ﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﺍﻧﮋﻳﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ‬، Lone PTCA ‫ ﺭﻭﺵ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ‬،‫ﺗﺎﺭﻳﺨﭽﻪ ﺍﻧﮋﻳﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ‬
Anthony C. Pearson :‫ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‬:‫ﻣﺼﺎﺣﺒﻪ ﺷﻮﻧﺪﻩ‬
3- Improved understanding of cardioembolic Stroke prorided by Transesophageal Echoecardiography
.‫ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻭ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬Case ‫ ﺍﺯ ﭼﻨﺪﻳﻦ‬TEE ‫ ﺑﻪ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﻭ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺍﻛﻮﻛﺎﺭﺩﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻡ‬،TEE ‫ ﻭ‬TEE ‫ ﻣﻘﺎﻳﺴﻪ ﺭﻭﺵ‬،TEE ‫ ﺗﺎﺭﻳﺨﭽﻪ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ‬،‫ﺗﺎﺭﻳﺨﭽﺔ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺁﻣﭙﻮﻟﻲﻫﺎ‬
68.5 MVP VIDEO JOURNAL OF CARDIOTHORACIC SURGERY (VIDEO SEGMENT I & II) Thromboexclusion for Treatment of Descending Aortic Dissection (John A. Elefteriades, MD)
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69.5 Nicorandil in Angina Pectoris from symptom Management to Cardioprotection (Professor Derek, Professor James M Downey, PD Dr. Med, Christian Schneider)
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70.5 Perioperative Transesophageal Echocardiography
2003
1. Basics of Echocardiography
(Patricia M. Applegate, Richard L. Applegate, I)
2. Clinical TEE Examination
71.5 Perioperative Transesophageal Echocardiography
3. Clinical Uses of Perioperative TEE
4. Unknowns
5. Perioperative
(Patricia M. Applegate, M.D., Richard L. Applegate, II)
2003
72.5 PLUMER'S PRINCIPLES & PRACTICE OF INTERAVENOUS THERAPY (SEVEN EDITION) (Sharon M. Weinstein)
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73.5 Practical Perioperative Transoesophageal Echocardiography Introduction, instructions and acknowledgements (David Sidebotham, John Faris, Alan Merry, Andrew Kerr)
2003
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
‫‪32‬‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫)‪74.5 TEE An Intractive Exam Review on CD-ROM (CD I , II) (Lippincott Williams & Wilkins‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪75.5 TEXTBOOK OF CARDIOVASCULAR MEDICINE (2 Edition) (ERIC J. TOPOL‬‬
‫‪nd‬‬
‫‪ CD‬ﺣﺎﺿﺮ ﻳﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻬﺘﺮﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ ‪ Text‬ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ‪ ،‬ﻋﻜﺲ ﻭ ﻓﺎﻳﻞﻫﺎﻱ ﺻﻮﺗﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻗﻠﺐ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺩﻭ ﺟﻠـﺪﻱ ‪ Text book of Cardiovascular Medicine‬ﺍﺳـﺖ ﻛـﻪ‬
‫ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺻﺪﻫﺎ ﻋﻜﺲ ﻭ ﻛﻠﻴﭗ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮﺋﻲ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻳﻚ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﺔ ﺯﻧﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪) .‬ﺑﻪ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﻣﺜﺎﻝ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺗﻨﮕﻲ ﺩﺭﻳﭽﻪ ﻣﻴﺘﺮﺍﻝ ﺩﺭ ﺑﺨﺶ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ ﻣﺘﻦ ﻋﻜﺲﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﻪ‪ ،‬ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﺑﺮﺩﺍﺭﻱﻫﺎ )ﺍﻛﻮ‪ (...‬ﻭ ﻓﺎﻳﻞﻫﺎﻱ ﺻﻮﺗﻲ‪ ،‬ﺻﺪﺍﻱ ‪ ECG,M.S‬ﻭ‬
‫ﻛﺎﺗﺘﺮﻳﺰﺍﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﺁﻥ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮﻛﻠﻴﭗ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪:‬‬
‫‪ -١‬ﺗﺎﺭﻳﺨﭽﻪ ﻋﻠﻢ ﻛﺎﺭﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ‪ -٢‬ﻛﺎﺭﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﭘﻴﺸﮕﻴﺮﻱ )ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‪ :‬ﺑﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺍﺗﺮﻭﺳﻜﻠﺮﻭﺯ‪ ،‬ﺭﮊﻳﻢ ﻏﺬﺍﻳﻲ ﻭ ﭼﺎﻗﻲ ﻭ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﭼﺮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﻭﺭﺯﺵ‪ ،‬ﻓﺸﺎﺭ ﺧﻮﻥ ﻭ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺁﻥ‪ ،‬ﺳﻴﮕﺎﺭ ﻛﺸﻴﺪﻥ‪ ،‬ﺩﻳﺎﺑﺖ ‪ ،‬ﺍﺳﺘﺮﻭﮊﻥ‪ ،‬ﺟﻨﺲ ﺯﻥ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ ‪ ،‬ﺍﺗﺎﻧﻮﻝ ﻭ ﻗﻠﺐ‪ ،‬ﺭﻓﺘﺎﺭ‬
‫ﻭ ﺷﺨﺼﻴﺖ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ‪ ،‬ﻧﻮﺗﻮﺍﻧﻲ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ( ‪ -٣‬ﻛﺎﺭﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ‪) :‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺗﺎﺭﻳﺨﭽﻪ‪ ،‬ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﺎﺕ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ‪ ،‬ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻳﺴﻜﻤﻲ‪ ،‬ﺩﺭﻳﭽﻪﺍﻱ ‪ ،‬ﻋﻔﻮﻧﻲ ‪ ،‬ﻣﺎﺩﺭﺯﺍﺩﻱ ‪ ،‬ﺗﻮﻣﻮﺭﺍﻝ ﻗﻠﺐ ﻭ ﭘﺮﺩﻩﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻥ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻫﻢ ﭼﻨﻴﻦ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻗﻠﺐ ﻭ ﺣﺎﻣﻠﮕﻲ‪ ،‬ﭘﻴﺮﻱ ‪ ،‬ﻛﻠﻴﻪ‪ ،‬ﻭﺭﺯﺵ ﻭ ﺗﺮﻭﻣـﺎ ﻣـﻲﺑﺎﺷـﺪ‪-(.‬‬
‫ﻣﺸﺎﻭﺭﻩ ﻧﻮﻳﺴﻲ ‪ -‬ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻫﺎﻱ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ ‪ -‬ﺍﺷﺘﺒﺎﻫﺎﺕ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ‪ -٤‬ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﺑﺮﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ‪ :‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻋﻜﺲ ﻭ ﻓﺎﻳﻞ ﺻﻮﺗﻲ ﻭ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮ ﻛﻠﻴﭗ‪) :‬ﺗﻔﺴـﻴﺮ ﻋﻜـﺲ ﺳـﺎﺩﻩ ﺭﻳـﻪ – ‪ ECG‬ﺩﺭ ﺣـﻴﻦ ﻭﺭﺯﺵ – ﺍﻛﻮﻛـﺎﺭﺩﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ‪ – transthoracic‬ﺍﺳـﺘﺮﺱ ﺍﻛﻮﻛـﺎﺭﺩﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ – ﺍﺭﺯﻳـﺎﺑﻲ ﺑـﺎ ﺩﺍﭘﻠـﺮ ‪-‬‬
‫ﺍﻛﻮﻛﺎﺭﺩﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ‪ -transesophageal‬ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﺑﺮﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﻫﺴﺘﻪﺍﻱ – ‪ CT, PET , MRI‬ﻗﻠﺐ – ﺍﻛﻮﻛﺎﺭﺩﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ‪ -٥ .( intraoperative‬ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻭ ‪ Pacing‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪) :‬ﻣﻜﺎﻧﻴﺴﻢ ﻭ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺁﺭﻳﺘﻤـﻲﻫـﺎ‪ ،‬ﺗﺴـﺖﻫـﺎﻱ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻓﻴﺰﻭﻟـﻮﮊﻱ‪ECG‬‬
‫ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ ﺍﻳﺴﻜﻤﻴﻚ ﻭ ﻏﻴﺮﺍﻳﺴﻜﻤﻴﻚ‪ ،‬ﻃﺮﺯ ﮔﺬﺍﺷﺘﻦ ‪ Pacemaker‬ﻭ ﻓﻴﺒﺮﻳﻠﻴﺘﻮﺭﻫﺎ( ‪ -٦‬ﻛﺎﺭﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ‪ invasive‬ﻭ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ‪ :‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻋﻜـﺲ ﻭ ﻓـﻴﻠﻢ )ﺁﻧﮋﻳـﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﻛﺮﻭﻧـﺮﻱ‪ -‬ﻛﺎﺗﺘﺮﻳﺰﺍﺳـﻴﻮﻥ ﻗﻠﺒـﻲ ‪ Procedures ،Percutaneos ،‬ﺑـﺎﻱﭘـﺲ ﻗﻠـﺐ–‬
‫‪ -٨‬ﻛـﺎﺭﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻣﻠﻜـﻮﻟﻲ‬
‫ﻼ ﺑﺎﻱﭘﺲ ﺷﺪﻩﺍﻧﺪ – ﺍﻭﻟﺘﺮﺍﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺩﺍﺧﻞ ﻋﺮﻭﻗﻲ ﻭ ﺁﻧﮋﻳﻮﺳﻜﻮﭘﻲ ﻭ ﺍﻟﻮﻟﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ‪ ،‬ﻃﺮﺯ ﻛﺎﺗﺘﺮﻳﺰﺍﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺎﺩﺭﺯﺍﺩﻱ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ( ‪ -٧‬ﻧﺎﺭﺳﺎﻳﻲ ﻗﻠﺐ ﻭ ﭘﻴﻮﻧﺪ ﻗﻠﺐ‬
‫‪ Restenosis‬ﺍﭘﻴﺪﻣﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ– ‪ approach‬ﺑﻪ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻛﻪ ﻗﺒ ﹰ‬
‫‪ -٩‬ﻭﺍﺳﻜﻮﻟﺮ ﺑﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ‪ :Multimedia -١٠‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻋﻜﺲ ﻭ ﺻﺪﺍﻫﺎﻱ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ )ﻧﺮﻣﺎﻝ ﻭ ﺍﺑﻨﺮﻣﺎﻝ( ﻭ ﻛﻠﻴﭗﻫﺎﻱ ﻭﻳﺪﻳﻮﺋﻲ‪.‬‬
‫ﻋﻜﺲ‪ :‬ﻛﺎﺗﺘﺮﻳﺰﺍﺳﻴﻮﻥ – ‪ - CT/MRI‬ﺍﻛﻮﻛﺎﺭﺩﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ – ‪ - ECG‬ﺍﻭﻟﺘﺮﺍﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ‪ – intravascular‬ﻧﻮﻛﻠﺌﺎﺭ – ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ – ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﺎﺕ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ – ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ‪ -‬ﭼﺸﻢ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ ﻋﺮﻭﻗﻲ‪.‬‬
‫ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮﻛﻠﻴﭗ‪ :‬ﻛﺎﺗﺘﺮﻳﺰﺍﺳﻴﻮﻥ – ‪ – CT/MRI‬ﺍﻛﻮﻛﺎﺭﺩﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ – ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻭ ‪ Pacing‬ﻭ ﺍﻭﻟﺘﺮﺍﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺩﺍﺧﻞ ﻋﺮﻭﻗﻲ – ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻫﺴﺘﻪﺍﻱ – ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ‪.‬‬
‫•‬
‫‪ ،Endof-Life Care‬ﻗﻠﺐ ﻭﺭﺯﺷﻜﺎﺭﺍﻥ ‪ ،‬ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ‪ ،‬ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﻋﺼﺒﻲ ﺍﺗﻮﻧﻮﻡ‪،‬‬
‫‪.‬‬
‫ﺻﺪﺍﻫﺎﻱ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ‪ :‬ﻧﺮﻣﺎﻝ ﻭ ﺍﺑﻨﺮﻣﺎﻝ‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺪﻳﺪ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻧﺴﺒﺖ ﺑﻪ ﻭﻳﺮﺍﻳﺶ ﻗﺒﻠﻲ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ‪CD‬‬
‫ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‪:‬‬
‫‪ ، Percutaneous Coronaryintervantion‬ﻣﻼﺣﻈﺎﺕ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻧﺎﺭﺳﺎﺋﻲ ﻗﻠﺐ‪ ،‬ﮊﻥﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ ﻭ ﭘﻴﺸﺮﻓﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻠﻜﻮﻟﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻗﻠﺐ‬
‫( ﻃﺮﻳﻘﻪ ﻧﺼﺐ ‪ : TEXTBOOK OF CARDIOVASCULAR MEDICINE‬ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻧﺼﺐ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﺔ ‪ Cardiovascular Medicine‬ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ‪ CD‬ﺭﺍ ﺩﺭﻭﻥ ﺩﺭﺍﻳﻮ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﭘﻨﺠﺮﻩ ﺍﻱ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺎ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ‪ Flash‬ﺑﺎﺯ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﻛـﺎﺩﺭ ﺳـﻤﺖ ﭼـﭗ ﺗﺼـﻮﻳﺮ‪،‬‬
‫ﮔﺰﻳﻨﺔ ‪ Install TOPOL‬ﺭﺍ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﺳﭙﺲ ﭘﻨﺠﺮﺓ ﻣﺤﺎﻭﺭﻩﺍﻱ ﺩﻳﮕﺮﻱ ﺑﺎﺯ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ )ﺣﺪﻭﺩﹰﺍ ‪ ٣٠-٤٠‬ﺛﺎﻧﻴﻪ ﺑﻌﺪ( ﻭ ﻣﺴﻴﺮ ﻧﺼﺐ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺭﺍ ﻣﺸﺨﺺ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﺪ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻣﺴﻴﺮ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﭘﻴﺶ ﻓﺮﺽ ‪ C:\Program files\CardioVascularMedicine‬ﺍﺳﺖ ﺩﺭ ﻗﺴـﻤﺖ ﭘـﺎﻳﻴﻦ‬
‫ﺑﺮﺭﻭﻱ ﺩﻛﻤﺔ ‪ Install‬ﻛﻠﻴﻚ ﻛﻨﻴﺪ )ﺍﮔﺮ ﺧﻮﺍﺳﺘﻴﺪ ﻣﺴﻴﺮ ﻓﻮﻕ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻪ ﺩﻟﺨﻮﺍﻩ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻧﻴﺪ ﺗﻐﻴﻴﺮ ﺩﻫﻴﺪ( ﭘﺲ ﺍﺯ ﻛﻠﻴﻚ ﺑﺮﺭﻭﻱ ‪ Install‬ﭘﻨﺠﺮﺓ ﺩﻳﮕﺮﻱ ﺑﺎﺯ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﻭ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺧﻮﺩﺑﺨﻮﺩ ﻧﺼﺐ ﻣﻲ ﺷﻮﺩ ﭘﺲ ﺍﺯ ﺣﺪﻭﺩ ‪ ٢٠‬ﺛﺎﻧﻴﻪ ﭘﻨﺠﺮﺓ ﺁﺧﺮ ﺑﻨـﺎﻡ ‪ Install complete‬ﻣـﻲ ﺁﻳـﺪ ﺑـﺮﺭﻭﻱ‬
‫ﺩﻛﻤﺔ ‪ Done‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻧﺘﻬﺎ ﻛﻠﻴﻚ ﻛﻨﻴﺪ‪ .‬ﭘﺲ ﺍﺯ ﺁﻧﻜﻪ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﻓﻮﻕ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﭘﺬﻳﺮﻓﺖ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﻧﺼﺐ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭﻟﻲ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﺟﺮﺍﻱ ﺁﻥ ﻧﻴﺎﺯ ﺍﺳﺖ ﺩﻭ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﺔ ﻛﻤﻜﻲ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﻋﺎﻣﻞ ﻧﺼﺐ ﺷﻮﺩ ﻛﻪ ﻋﺒﺎﺭﺗﻨﺪ ﺍﺯ‪ .Quick Time, Internet Explorer :‬ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻧﺼـﺐ ﺍﻳـﻦ‬
‫ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻨﺘﺮﻧﺖ ﺍﻛﺴﭙﻠﻮﺭﺭ ﺑﺎﻭﺭﮊﻥ ‪ 5.5‬ﺑﻪ ﺑﺎﻻ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﻛﺮﺩ‪ .‬ﺿﻤﻨﹰﺎ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﻋﺎﻣﻠﻬﺎﻱ ﭘﻴﺸﻨﻬﺎﺩﻱ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﻭﻳﻨﺪﻭﺯﻫﺎﻱ ‪ 2000, NT, ME, 98, 95‬ﺍﺳﺖ ﻳﺎ ‪ 200 MHZ‬ﭘﺮﺩﺍﺯﺷﮕﺮ ﻭ ﺣﺪﺍﻗﻞ ‪ 32‬ﻣﮕﺎﺑﺎﻳﺖ ﺣﺎﻓﻈﻪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﭘﻨﺠﺮﻩ ﺍﻱ ﻛﻪ ﭘﻴﺶ ﺭﻭﺩﺍﺭﻳﺪ )ﺍﻭﻟﻴﻦ ﭘﻨﺠﺮﻩ ﻫﻨﮕﺎﻡ ﻗﺮﺍﺭﺩﺍﺩﻥ ‪ (CD‬ﮔﺰﻳﻨﺔ ‪ Internet Explore 5.5‬ﺭﺍ ﻛﻠﻴﻚ ﻛﻨﻴﺪ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﭘﻨﺠﺮﻩ ﺍﻱ ﻛﻪ ﭘﻴﺶ ﺭﻭﻱ ﺷﻤﺎ ﺑﺎﺯ ﻣﻲ ﺷﻮﺩ ﺩﺭ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ‪ I accept the agreement‬ﻛﻠﻴﻚ ﻛﻨﻴﺪ ﻭ ﺩﻛﻤﺔ ‪ Next‬ﺍﺯ ﭘﺎﺋﻴﻦ ﺭﺍ ﻓﺸﺎﺭ ﺩﻫﻴﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﻣﺸﻐﻮﻝ ﭼﻚ ﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﻭ ﻣﺤﺘﻮﺍﻱ ﻓﺎﻳﻞﻫﺎ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﺳﭙﺲ ﭘﻨﺠﺮﺓ ﺟﺪﻳﺪﻱ ﺑﺎﺯ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﭘﻴﺶ ﻓﺮﺽ ﺩﻛﻤﺔ ﺑﺎﻻﻳﻲ ﻓﻌﺎﻝ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﺷﻤﺎ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﺩﻛﻤﺔ ‪ Next‬ﺭﺍ ﻓﺸﺎﺭ ﺩﻫﻴﺪ‪ .‬ﺣﺎﻝ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﻣﻨﺘﻈﺮ ﺑﻤﺎﻧﻴﺪ ﺗﺎ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺑﺼـﻮﺭﺕ ﻛﺎﻣـﻞ ﻧﺼـﺐ ﮔـﺮﺩﺩ ﺳـﭙﺲ ﭘﻨﺠـﺮﺓ‬
‫ﺩﻳﮕﺮﻱ ﺑﺎﺯ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺩﻭﺑﺎﺭﻩ ‪ Next‬ﺭﺍ ﻓﺸﺎﺭ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺩﻛﻤﺔ ‪ finish‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻧﺘﻬﺎ ﺯﺩﻩ ﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻣﻮﻗﻊ ﻭﻳﻨﺪﻭﺯ ﺧﻮﺩﺑﺨﻮﺩ ‪ restart‬ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﺩﻭﺑﺎﺭﻩ ‪ CD‬ﺭﺍ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﻛﻨﻴﺪ )ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺎﺭ ﺭﺍ ﻣﻲ ﺗﻮﺍﻧﻴﺪ ﺑﺎ ﺯﺩﻥ ﺩﻛﻤﺔ ‪ Eject‬ﺩﺭﺍﻳﻮ ‪ CD‬ﻭ ﻓﺸﺮﺩﻥ ﻣﺠﺪﺩ ‪ CD‬ﺑﻪ ﺩﺭﻭﻥ ﺩﺭﺍﻳﻮ ﻭ ﻳﺎ ﺑـﺎﺯ ﻛـﺮﺩﻥ ‪ CD‬ﻭ‬
‫ﺍﺟﺮﺍﻱ ﺁﻥ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺩﻫﻴﺪ( ﺣﺎﻝ ﺑﻪ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺳﻮﻡ ﻧﺼﺐ ﻣﻲﺭﺳﻴﻢ‪ .‬ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﺍﺯ ﭘﻨﺠﺮﺓ ﺑﺎﺯﺷﺪﻩ )ﭘﻨﺠﺮﺓ ﺍﻭﻝ ﻫﻨﮕﺎﻡ ﻗﺮﺍﺭﺩﺍﺩﻥ ‪ ( CD‬ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﮔﺰﻳﻨﺔ ‪ Quick time 5‬ﻛﻠﻴﻚ ﻛﻨﻴﻢ‪ .‬ﭘﻨﺠﺮﺓ ﺟﺪﻳﺪﻱ ﻣﻲﺁﻳﺪ ﺩﻛﻤﺔ ‪ Next‬ﺭﺍ ﻓﺸﺎﺭ ﻣﻲ ﺩﻫﻴﻢ‪ .‬ﭘﻨﺠﺮﺓ ﺑﻌﺪﻱ ﻫﻢ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ‪ Next‬ﺭﺍ ﺑﺰﻧﻴﺪ ﺗﺎ ﭘﻨﺠﺮﺓ‬
‫ﺩﻳﮕﺮﻱ ﺑﺎﺯ ﺷﻮﺩ ﺣﺎﻝ ﺩﻛﻤﺔ ‪ Agree‬ﺭﺍ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﻛﻨﻴﺪ ﻣﺴﻴﺮﻱ ﺭﺍ ﻣﻲ ﺑﻴﻨﻴﻢ ﺍﮔﺮ ﻣﻮﺍﻓﻖ ﺑﻮﺩﻳﺪ ‪ Next‬ﺭﺍ ﺑﺰﻧﻴﺪ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﭘﻨﺠﺮﺓ ﺟﺪﻳﺪ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﭘﻴﺶ ﻓﺮﺽ ﺩﻛﻤﺔ ﺩﻭﻡ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻴﻦ ﺳﻪ ﺩﻛﻤﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺑﺎﻻﻱ ﻛﺎﺩﺭ ﻓﻌﺎﻝ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻣﺠﺪﺩﹰﺍ ‪ Next‬ﺭﺍ ﺑﺰﻧﻴﺪ ﻭ ﺑﺎﺯ ﻧﻴﺰ ‪ Next‬ﺭﺍ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﻛﻨﻴﺪ ﺩﺭ ﭘﻨﺠﺮﺓ‬
‫ﺟﺪﻳﺪ ﻧﻴﺰ ‪ Next‬ﺭﺍ ﻓﺸﺎﺭ ﺩﻫﻴﺪ ﭘﻨﺠﺮﺓ ﺑﻌﺪﻱ ﺳﺮﻳﺎﻝ ﻭ ﻧﺎﻡ ﺷﺮﻛﺖ ﺭﺍ ﻣﻲﭘﺮﺳﺪ ﻧﻴﺎﺯﻱ ﺑﻪ ﭘﺮﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﺁﻥ ﻧﻴﺴﺖ ‪ Next‬ﺭﺍ ﺯﺩﻩ ﺗﺎ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﻧﺼﺐ ﺷﻮﺩ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﭘﻨﺠﺮﺓ ﻓﻌﺎﻝ ﻣﺎ ﭘﻨﺠﺮﺓ ﺟﺪﻳﺪﻱ ﺑﺎﺯ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﺁﻥ ﺭﺍ ﻧﻴﺰ ‪ Next‬ﺑﺰﻧﻴﺪ ﺩﻭ ﺑﺎﺭﻛﻪ ‪ Next‬ﻛﺮﺩﻳﺪ ﺍﻳﻦ ﭘﻨﺠﺮﻩ ﺭﺍ ‪ finish‬ﻛﻨﻴﺪ ﺗﺎ‬
‫ﺑﻪ ﭘﺎﻳﺎﻥ ﻛﺎﺭ ﺑﺮﺳﻴﻢ ﺁﺧﺮﻳﻦ ﭘﻨﺠﺮﻩ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺎ ﺑﺮﺩﺍﺷﺘﻦ ﺗﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﻭ ﻛﺎﺩﺭ ﺑﺎﻻ ‪ Close‬ﻛﻨﻴﺪ‪ .‬ﺗﻤﺎﻡ ﭘﻨﺠﺮﻩ ﻫﺎ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺮﺭﻭﻱ ﺻـﻔﺤﺔ ‪ Desktop‬ﺑﺒﻨﺪﻳـﺪ ﺑـﺮﺭﻭﻱ ﺩﻛﻤـﺔ ‪ Start‬ﻛﻠﻴـﻚ ﻛـﺮﺩﻩ ﻭﺍﺭﺩ ‪ Programs‬ﺷـﻮﻳﺪ ﻭ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻨـﻮﻱ ‪ Cardio Vascular Medicine‬ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣـﺔ ‪Cardio‬‬
‫‪ Vascular CD‬ﺭﺍ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﻛﻨﻴﺪ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﺔ ‪ internet explorer‬ﺭﺍ ﺑﺎﺯ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ‪ Address‬ﺧﻂ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺭﺍ ﺗﺎﻳﭗ ﻛﻨﻴﺪ‪ .‬ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺤﻴﻂ ‪ internet explorer‬ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫‪http://127.0.0.1:83/PCIndex.htm.‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪The Echo Manual (Second Edition) (Jae K. Oh, MD, James B. Seward, MD, A. Jamil Tajik MD‬‬
‫‪76.5‬‬
‫‪2003‬‬
‫‪The Netter Presenter Cardiovascular and Renal Edition‬‬
‫‪77.5‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪Images from the Netter Collection (NOVARTIS‬‬
‫)‪(John Michael Criley, M.D., Conrad Zalace, David Creley‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫‪78.5 The Physiological Orgins of HEART SOUNDS and MURMUS‬‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
‫‪33‬‬
‫‪Catalog of Lesions‬‬
‫‪yNormal‬‬
‫‪yValvar Lesions‬‬
‫‪yPericardial Disease‬‬
‫‪yCongenital Heart Disease‬‬
‫‪yCardiomyopathies‬‬
‫‪yMyxoma‬‬
‫‪Timing of Murmurs‬‬
‫‪ySystolic Murmurs‬‬
‫‪yDiastolic Murmurs‬‬
‫‪yContinuous Murmurs vs. “To and Fro” Murmurs‬‬
‫‪yFriction Rubs‬‬
‫‪Timing of Heart Sounds‬‬
‫‪yValve Closure Sounds and Splitting of Sounds‬‬
‫‪yOpening Sounds‬‬
‫‪yThird Sounds‬‬
‫‪yFourth sounds‬‬
‫‪yEjection Sounds‬‬
‫‪yMid-Systolic Clicks‬‬
‫‪General Tutorials:‬‬
‫‪yInspection and Palpation‬‬
‫‪yIntriduction to Auscultation‬‬
‫‪yEffect of Maneuvers and Perturbations‬‬
‫‪yHemoduction to Cardiac Imaging Modalities‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪79.5 Valvular Heart Disease (Third Edition) (Joseph S. Alpert, James E. Dalen, Shahbudin H. Rahimtoola‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)…‪80.5 Vascular Vision (A Liberating Approach to Vascular health Expert Opinions in Dyslipidaemia) (Professor Philip Barter, Dr. John Kastelein,‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪81.5 VJC Video Journal of Cardiology‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪(LAWRENCE S. COHEN, M.D, JOHN ELEFTERIADES, M.D.) (VCD‬‬
‫‪1. From a new perspective: mitral valve prolapse aortic dissections and aneurysms‬‬
‫‪2. Surgical and medical management of ascending and descending aortic dissections liporoten (A): a cardiovascular risk factor‬‬
‫)‪82.5 VJC Video Journal of Cardiology (Christopher White, M.D, Michael E. Cain, M.D., Bruce D. Lindsay, M.D., Herbert Geschwind, M.D.) (VCD‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺍﺯ ﺳﺮﻱ ‪CD‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ‪ VJC‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻗﺎﻟﺐ ‪ VCD‬ﺑﻪ ﻣﺪﺕ ‪ 50‬ﺩﻗﻴﻘﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺳﻪ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﺑﺨﺶ ﻳﻚ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ ﺑﻪ ﺷﻜﻞ ﻣﺼﺎﺣﺒﺔ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﺑﺎ ﻳﻚ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺺ ﺑﻪ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪ ﻭ ﻓـﻴﻠﻢ ﻭ ﻧﻤﻮﺩﺍﺭﻫـﺎﻱ‬
‫ﻣﺘﻌﺪﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻭ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻋﺎﺕ ﻫﺮ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺑﻪ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‪:‬‬
‫ﻣﺼﺎﺣﺒﻪ ﺷﻮﻧﺪﻩ‪ :‬ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‪christoher white :‬‬
‫‪1-Cold lege : The Approach to Acvte and progressive Peripheral Vascular Disease‬‬
‫ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﻣﺤﻴﻄﻲ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺷﻬﺎﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ‪ .‬ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺁﻧﮋﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺁﻧﮋﻳﻮﺳﻜﻮﭘﻴﻚ ﻭ ﺁﻧﮋﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻡ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻫﺎﻱ‬
‫ﻣﺼﺎﺣﻴﻪ ﺷﻮﻧﺪﻩ ‪ :‬ﺩﻛﺘﺮ ‪Michael E. Cain :‬‬
‫‪Urokinase‬‬
‫‪ ،‬ﺍﺳﺘﺮﭘﺘﻮﻛﻴﻨﺎﺯ ‪ ،‬ﺁﻧﮋﻳﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ﻟﻴﺰﺭﻱ ﻭ‪ ....‬ﻧﻴﺰ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪2- RADiofrgvency ablation : Ablation of AVNode reentry tachycardias‬‬
‫ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻛﺎﺭﺩﻭﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻡ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﺪﮔﺬﺍﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ‪ECG ،‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺭ ﻓﻴﺒﺮﻳﻼﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﻭ ﺑﻠﻮﻙ ‪ AV‬ﻭ ‪ ...‬ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻡﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺘﻌﺪﺩ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻭ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﻣﺼﺎﺣﺒﻪ ﺷﻮﻧﺪﻩ‪ :‬ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‪Herbert Geschwind :‬‬
‫‪3- Laser Angioplasty for coronary Atherosclerotic Disease‬‬
‫ﻣﻜﺎﻧﻴﺰﻡ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﺩﺭ ﺁﻧﮋﻳﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ‪ ،‬ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩ ‪ Pulser‬ﻃﻮﻝ ﺑﺮﺝ ﺑﻬﻤﻴﻨﻪ ) ﻣﺎﻭﺭﺍﺀ ﻣﺎﺩﻭﻥ ﻗﺮﻣﺰ( ﺍﻫﺪﺍﻑ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺁﻧﮋﻳﻮﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ﻟﻴﺰﺭﻱ ﻭ ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ ﺁﻥ ﻣﺰﻳﺖ ﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻣﺤﺪﻭﺩﻳﺖﻫﺎ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺭﻭﺵ ﻭ ﻣﻘﺎﻳﺴﻪ ﺁﻥ ﺑﺎ ‪ PTCA‬ﻭ ‪ ....‬ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻭ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫‪A guide to acronyms for cardiovascular trials‬‬
‫‪83.5 What's What‬‬
‫‪ -٦‬ﭘﻮﺳﺖ ﻭ ﻣﻮ‬
‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ‪CD‬‬
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪2001‬‬
‫)‪20 Common Problems Dermatology (Alan B. Fleischer, Steven R. Feldman‬‬
‫‪1.6‬‬
‫)‪American Cancer Society Atlas of Clinical Oncology Skin Cancer (Arthur J. Sober, MD, Frank G. Haluka, MD, phD) (Bc Decker Inc‬‬
‫‪2.6‬‬
‫ﻫﻤﭽﻨﺎﻧﻜﻪ ﻭﺍﺭﺩ ﻗﺮﻥ ‪ ٢١‬ﻣﻲﺷﻮﻳﻢ ﺷﺎﻳﻊﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﺷﻜﻞ ﺳﺮﻃﺎﻥﻫﺎ‪ ،‬ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻭ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻠﺖ ﺍﻳﻨﻜﻪ ﺑﺮ ﺧﻼﻑ ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ‪ ،‬ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻮﺳﺖ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻌﺮﺽ ﺩﻳﺪ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﺳﺮﻳﻌﺘﺮ ﻭ ﺭﺍﺣﺖﺗﺮ ﻗﺎﺑـﻞ ﺗﺸـﺨﻴﺺ ﺍﺳـﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻧﺘﻴﺠـﻪ ﺩﺍﻧـﺶ ﺗﺸـﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣـﺎﻥ ﻭ‬
‫ﺟﻠﻮﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺍﺯ ﺳﺮﻃﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﻣﻮﺟﺐ ﻧﮕﺎﺭﺵ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻣﺸﺨﺼﺔ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺗﺄﻛﻴﺪ ﺑﺮ ﻧﻤﺎﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ‪ Skin cancer‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﭼﻮﻥ ﻋﻠﻢ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺑﺮ ﭘﺎﻳﺔ ﻣﺸﺎﻫﺪﻩ ﺑﻨﺎ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ ،‬ﺑﻨﺎﺑﺮﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺯﻳﺎﺩ ﺑﺎ ﻛﻴﻔﻴﺖ ﺑﺴﻴﺎﺭ ﺑﺎﻻﺳﺖ ﻭ ﻫﺮ ﺟﺎ ﻛﻪ ﻋﻜﺲﻫﺎ‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻄﻠﺐ ﻛﻤﻚﻛﻨﻨﺪﻩ ﻧﺒﻮﺩﻩ ‪ text‬ﺍﺿﺎﻓﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻭ ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﻜﺎﺕ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ‪ ،‬ﺍﭘﻴﺪﻣﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ‪ ،‬ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻭ ﭘﻴﺸﮕﻴﺮﻱ ﺩﺭ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﮔﻨﺠﺎﻧﺪﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﻪ ‪ ٤‬ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺗﻘﺴﻴﻢ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪:‬‬
‫ﺑﺨﺶ ‪ Basic Concept :١‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺍﭘﻴﺪﻣﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‪ ،‬ﮊﻧﺘﻴﻚ ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﻭ ﻋﻮﺍﻣﻞ ﺧﻄﺮﺯﺍ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺑﺨﺶ ‪ :٢‬ﺗﻈﺎﻫﺮﺍﺕ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ‪ :‬ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺟﺪﺍﮔﺎﻧﻪ ﻧﻤﺎﻱ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻣﻼﻧﻮﻡ )ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ (٤‬ﻭ ‪) BCE‬ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ (٥‬ﻭ ‪) Scc‬ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ (٦‬ﻟﻤﻔﻮﻡﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ )ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ (٧‬ﻭ ﻣﺎﻟﻴﻨﮕﻨﺎﻧﺴﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﻧﺎﺷﺎﻳﻊ )ﻓﺼﻞ ‪) Merckle cell Carcinoma (٨:١‬ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ( ٨:٢‬ﻭ ﻛﺎﭘﻮﺳﻲ ﺳﺎﺭﻛﻮﻡ )ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ (٨:٣‬ﺍﺷﺎﺭﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﺑﺨﺶ ‪ Management : ٣‬ﻛﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‪ :‬ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﺑﻴﻮﭘﺴﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻼﻧﻮﻡ )ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ، (٩‬ﺗﺪﺍﺑﻴﺮ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻣﻼﻧﻮﻡ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ )ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ،(١١‬ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻟﻤﻒﻧﻮﺩﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻮﭘﺴﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻟﻤﻒﻧﻮﺩ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻼﻧﻮﻡ )ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ adjuvant therapy ،(١١‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻼﻧﻮﻡ )ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ،(١٢‬ﺍﻳﻤﻮﻧـﻮﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻼﻧـﻮﻡ )ﻓﺼـﻞ ‪ (١٣‬ﻭ ﻛﻤـﻮﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ ‪ ،‬ﺳـﻴﺘﻮﻛﻴﻦ‬
‫ﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻮﻛﻤﻮﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻼﻧﻮﻡ )ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ (١٤‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻟﻤﻔﻮﻡ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﺍﻭﻟﻴﻪ ]‪) [MF‬ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ (١٧‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
‫‪34‬‬
‫ﺑﺨﺶ ‪ : ٤‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﭘﻴﺸﮕﻴﺮﻱ ﺍﺯ ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫)‪AQUAMIDE; Poly Acryl Amide Ged (an injectable gel for correction of soft Tissue Deficiencies‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪3.6‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮ ‪ CD‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻳﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻮﺍﺩ ‪ filler‬ﺑﻪ ﻛﺎﺭ ﺭﻓﺘﻪ ﺩﺭ ‪ Cosmetic Surgery‬ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺗﻲ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﺧﻮﺍﺹ ﮊﻝ ‪ Aquamide‬ﻭ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻥ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﻃﺮﻳﻘﻪ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ﺍﻳﻦ ﮊﻝ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺻﻼﺡ ﭼﻴﻦ ﻧﺎﺯﻭﺑﻴﺎﻝ‪ ،‬ﺗﻐﻴﻴﺮ ﺷﻜﻞ‬
‫ﻧﺎﻫﻨﺠﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﻴﻨﻲ‪ ،‬ﺍﺯ ﺑﻴﻦﺑﺮﺩﻥ ﭼﻴﻦﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻴﺸﺎﻧﻲ ﻭ ﺍﻃﺮﺍﻑ ﻟﺐ‪ ،‬ﭘﺮﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﻭ ﺍﺻﻼﺡ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﺁﺗﺮﻭﻓﻴﻚ ﻧﺎﺷﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺍﺳﻜﺎﺭ ﺁﺑﻠﻪﻣﺮﻏﺎﻥ ﻳﺎ ﺗﺮﻭﻣﺎﻫﺎ‪ ،‬ﮔﻮﻧﻪﮔﺬﺍﺭﻱ ﻭ ﺧﻂ ﻟﺐ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻧﻮﺍﺭ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮﺋﻲ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫)‪Atlas of Clinical Dermatology (Third Edition) (Anthony du Vivier‬‬
‫‪4.6‬‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫)‪ATLAS OF COSMETIC SURGERY (MICHAEL S. KAMINER, MD, JEFFREY S. DOVER, MD, FRCPC, KENNETH A. ARNDT, MD) (W.B. SAUNDERS COMPANY) (Salekan E-Book‬‬
‫ﺍﻃﻠﺲ ﺣﺎﺿﺮ ﺗﺄﻟﻴﻒ ﺩﻳﮕﺮﻱ ﺍﺯ ‪ Dr. Kenneth. Arndt‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻘﺪﻣﻪ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ‪) Dr. Leffell‬ﺍﺳﺘﺎﺩ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻭ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﭘﻼﺳﺘﻴﻚ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﮕﺎﻩ ‪ (Yale‬ﻣﻲﻧﻮﻳﺴﺪ‪"' :‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﻓﻮﻕﺍﻟﻌﺎﺩﻩ ﺟﻤﻊﺁﻭﺭﻱ ﺗﺠﺎﺭﺏ ﻣﺆﻟﻔﻴﻦ ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺑﻴﺸﺘﺮ ﺑﻪ ﻣـﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﻛـﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻱ ﺍﺷـﺎﺭﻩ‬
‫ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﺑﻪ ﻃﻮﺭﻳﻜﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺷﻤﺎ ﻛﻤﻚ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﺪ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﻪ ﺑﺎ ﻣﻮﻓﻘﻴﺖ ﻳﻚ ﻋﻤﻞ ‪ Cosmetic‬ﺭﺍ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺧﻮﺩ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺩﻫﻴﺪ‪ Dr. Arndt .‬ﺳﺮﺩﺑﻴﺮ ﻣﺠﻠﻪ ‪ Archives of Dermatology‬ﺗﻘﺮﻳﺒﹰﺎ ﺑﻪ ﻣﺪﺕ ‪ ٢٠‬ﺳـﺎﻝ ﺍﺣﺎﻃـﺔ ﻭﺳـﻴﻌﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺟﺮﺍﺣـﻲﻫـﺎﻱ ‪ Cosmetic‬ﺩﺍﺷـﺘﻪ ﻭ ﺩﺭ‬
‫ﺷﻜﻴﻞﺑﻮﺩﻥ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺳﻬﻢ ﺑﺴﺰﺍﻳﻲ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ" ﻭﻳﮋﮔﻲ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻧﺴﺒﺖ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﻣﺸﺎﺑﻪ‪ ،‬ﺗﺠﺮﺑﻴﺎﺕ ﻣﺆﻟﻔﻴﻦ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﻫﻤﮕﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﺭﻓﺮﺍﻧﺲ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﻛﺘﺐ ﻭ ﻣﺠﻼﺕ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺎﺭ ﻣﻲﺭﻭﺩ )ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻣﺜﺎﻝ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ‪ Botox‬ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺍﺳـﻜﺎﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻛﻨـﻪ ﻛـﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺠـﻼﺕ‬
‫ﻼ ﻣﺠﻬﺰ( ﺑﻴﺎﻥ ﻧﻤﻮﺩﻩﺍﻧﺪ‪ .‬ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻣﺜﺎﻝ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ‪ ، Botox‬ﻟﻴﺰﺭﺩﺭﻣـﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫‪ Archive‬ﻭ ‪ 2001 AAD‬ﻭ ‪ 2002‬ﭼﺎﭖ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ( ﻣﺆﻟﻔﻴﻦ ﻫﺪﻑ ﺍﺯ ﺗﺄﻟﻴﻒ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻴﺎﻥ ﺗﺠﺮﺑﻴﺎﺕ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻱ ﺧﻮﺩ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺳﺘﺎﻥ ‪) Harvard‬ﺑﺎ ‪ ١٣‬ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﭘﻮﺳﺖ ﻭ‪ ١٢‬ﺍﻃﺎﻕ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻛﺎﻣ ﹰ‬
‫ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﻭ ‪ Scar management‬ﻭ ﺑﻠﻔﺎﺭﻭﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻱﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﻭ ﺑﻪ ﺍﺫﻋﺎﻥ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﻭ ﺩﺳﺘﻴﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﭘﻮﺳﺖ ﺑﻬﺘﺮﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﭼﺎﭖ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺷﻜﻞﻫﺎﻱ ﺳﺎﺩﻩ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻭ ﺑﻌﻀﹰﺎ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻛﻴﻔﻴﺖ ﻭ ﺭﺍﺣﺘﻲ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎ‬
‫ﻛﻤﻚ ﺷﺎﻳﺎﻧﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ‪ Laser in Dermatology‬ﻣﺆﻟﻒ "‪ "Kenneth, Arndt‬ﺑﺰﻭﺩﻱ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻣﻨﺤﺼﺮﺑﻪ ﻓﺮﺩ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪:‬‬
‫‪5.6‬‬
‫‪PART III‬‬
‫‪COSMETIC SURGERY PROCEDURES AND TECHNIQUES‬‬
‫‪10 Topical Skin Care‬‬
‫‪11 Lasers in the Treatment of Vascular Lesions‬‬
‫‪12 Lasers in the Treatment of Pigmented Lesions‬‬
‫‪13 Laser Hair Removal‬‬
‫‪14 Liposuction‬‬
‫‪15 Hair Transplantation‬‬
‫‪16 Soft Tissue Augmentation‬‬
‫‪17 Botulinum A Exotoxin Injections for Photoaging and Hyperhidrosis,‬‬
‫‪18 Chemical Peels‬‬
‫‪19 Lasers in Skin Resurfacing‬‬
‫‪20 Blepharoplasty‬‬
‫‪21 Surgical Rhytidectomy: Face Lifts and the Endoscopic Forehead Lift‬‬
‫‪22 Leg Vein Management: Sclerotherapy, Ambulatory Phlebectomy, and Laser Surgery‬‬
‫‪23 Scar Management: Keloid, Hypertrophic, Atrophic, and Acne Scars‬‬
‫‪PART I‬‬
‫‪EVALUATION OF THE COSMETIC SURGERY PATIENT‬‬
‫‪1 The History of Cosmetic Surgery‬‬
‫‪2 The History of Cosmetic Dermatologic Surgery‬‬
‫‪3 Evaluation of the Aging Face,‬‬
‫‪4 Photoaging: Mechanisms, Consequences, and Prevention‬‬
‫‪5 Beauty and Society‬‬
‫‪6 Psychosocial Issues and Their Relevance to the Cosmetic Surgery Patient‬‬
‫‪PART II‬‬
‫‪ANESTHESIA‬‬
‫‪7 Regional Anesthesia for Aesthetic Surgery‬‬
‫‪8 Office-Based Sedation and Monitoring‬‬
‫‪9 Postoperative Pain and Nausea Management‬‬
‫)‪(CD I , II‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪(SALEKAN E-BOOK‬‬
‫)‪Atlas of Dermatology (Jhon's Hopkins‬‬
‫‪6.6‬‬
‫ﻼ ﺟﺎﻟﺐ ﺑﺎ ﺭﺯﻭﻟﻮﺷﻦ ﺑﺎﻻ ﺩﺭ ﺧﺼﻮﺹ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮ ﻃﺒﻖ ﺣﺮﻭﻑ ﺍﻟﻔﺒﺎ ‪ Sort‬ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﻭ ﻣﺤﺼﻮﻝ ﺳﺎﻝ ‪ ٢٠٠٣‬ﺩﺍﻧﺸﮕﺎﻩ ‪ Jhon's Hopkins‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺍﻃﻠﺲ ﻓﻮﻕ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺑﻴﺶ ﺍﺯ ‪ ٢٥٠٠‬ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﻛﺎﻣ ﹰ‬
‫‪1999‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪2003‬‬
‫)‪Atlas of Dermatology (T.L.Diepgen, M. Simon, A. Bittorf, M. Fartasch, G. Schuler) (with the DOIA team G. Eysenbach, J. Bauer, A. Sager) (springer‬‬
‫ﺗﺎﺭﻳﺨﭽﺔ ﺍﻃﻠﺲ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺑﺮﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﺩ ﺑﻪ ﺳﺎﻝ ‪ ، ١٩٩٤‬ﻛﻪ ﺷﺒﻜﺔ ﺳﺮﺍﺳﺮﻱ ﺟﻬﺎﻧﻲ ﺍﻧﻴﺘﺮﻧﺖ )‪ (www‬ﺍﻳﺠﺎﺩ ﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺍﺯ ﺁﻥ ﺳﺎﻝ ﺑﻪ ﺑﻌﺪ ﺍﺯ ﺳﺮﺍﺳﺮ ﺟﻬﺎﻥ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺷﺒﻜﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺤﻞ ‪ (DOIA) Dermatology online Atlas‬ﮔﻨﺠﺎﻧﺪﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ‬
‫ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺳﺎﻳﺖ ﺍﻳﻨﺘﺮﻧﺘﻲ ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ ‪ ٣٠٠٠‬ﺗﺼﺮﻳﺮ ﺑﺎ ﻛﻴﻔﻴﺖ ﺑﺴﻴﺎﺭ ﺑﺎﻻﻱ ﺑﻴﺶ ﺍﺯ ‪ 600 DPI‬ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‪ ،‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲﻫﺎ‪ Case report ،‬ﺻﻮﺗﻲ ﻭ ‪ ...‬ﮔﻨﺠﺎﻧﺪﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺑﻨﺎﺑﺮﺍﻳﻦ ﺍﻃﻠﺲ ﻓﻮﻕ ﺑﻪ ﺻـﻮﺭﺕ ‪ Offline‬ﺍﺯ ‪ DOIA‬ﺗﻬﻴـﻪ ﺷـﺪﻩ ﻛـﻪ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴـﺖ‬
‫ﺍﺗﺼﺎﻝ ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﺯﻣﺎﻥ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ‪ online‬ﺭﺍ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪.‬‬
‫)‪Atlas of Differential Diagnosis in DERMATOLOGY (Klaus F. Helm, M.D., James G. Marks, Jr., M.D.‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺑﺮ ﺧﻼﻑ ﺍﻃﻠﺲﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﺣﺮﻭﻑ ﺍﻟﻔﺒﺎﻳﻲ ﻳﺎ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺗﻘﺴﻴﻢﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﺗﺄﻛﻴﺪ ﺑﻴﺸﺘﺮ ﺑﻪ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻭ ﺍﻓﺘﺮﺍﻕ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺯ ﻳﻜﺪﻳﮕﺮ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻓﺘﺮﺍﻗﻲ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪ .‬ﺑﻪ ﻃﺮﻳﻜﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻳـﻚ‬
‫ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺁﻥ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻴﻲ ﺍﺷﺘﺒﺎﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﮔﺮﺩﺁﻭﺭﻱ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻳﻚ ﺍﻃﻠﺲ ‪ Problem-oriented‬ﺗﻨﻈﻴﻢ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺭﺍﺵﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻧﺌﻮﭘﻼﺳﻢﻫﺎ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﺷﻜﻞ ﻭ ﻣﺤﻞ ﺑﻪ ‪ ١٦‬ﻓﺼﻞ ﺗﻘﺴﻴﻢﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻭﻝ ﻫﺮ ﻓﺼـﻞ ﺍﺑﺘـﺮﺍ‬
‫ﺍﻟﮕﻮﺭﻳﺘﻢ ﺭﺳﻴﺪﻥ ﺑﻪ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺩﺭ ﺟﺪﺍﻭﻝ ﻣﻘﺎﻳﺴﻪﺍﺱ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺍﻓﺘﺮﺍﻗﻴﻬﺎﻱ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺑﺎ ﻛﻴﻔﻴﺖ ﺑﺎﻻ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻣﻘﺎﻳﺴﻪﺍﻱ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺁﺧﺮ ﻫﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺍﺗﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‪ ،‬ﻧﻜﺎﺕ ﻣﻬﻢ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣـﺎﻥ‬
‫ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻫﺮ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭ ﺟﺪﺍﮔﺎﻧﻪ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺩﺭ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ‪ Acrobat reader‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﻳﻚ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﻣﺎﻟﺘﻲ ﻣﺪﻳﺎ ) ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ‪ (animation‬ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺁﺷﻨﺎﻳﻲ ﺑﺎ ﻣﺤﺘﻮﻳﺎﺕ ‪ CD‬ﻭ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﻛﺎﺭ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷـﺪﻩ ﺍﺳـﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳـﻦ ‪image gallery .CD‬‬
‫ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ ﻛﻪ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺑﺪﻭﻥ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺍﺯ ﺁﻥ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ‪ quiz‬ﻭ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺷﺨﺼﻲ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﻛﺮﺩ‪ .‬ﺍﺯ ‪ index incon‬ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﺣﺮﻭﻑ ﺍﻟﻔﺒﺎﻱ ﺍﻧﮕﻠﻴﺴﻲ ﺑﻨﺎ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﺑﻪ ﺭﺍﺣﺘﻲ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺟﺴﺘﺠﻮﻱ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﻛﻤﻚ ﮔﺮﻓﺖ‪.‬‬
‫)‪Botulinum Toxin Aesthetic Indications (Mauricio de Maio, Segio Talarico, Benjamin Ascher, Nam Ho Kim South‬‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫‪7.6‬‬
‫‪8.6‬‬
‫‪9.6‬‬
‫)‪10.6 Clinical Dermatology ( A Color Guide To Diagnosis And Therapy) (Fourth Edition) (Thomas P. Habif‬‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
‫‪35‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪(Fitzpatrick, M.D. Richard Allen Johnson, M.D. Dick Suurmond, M.D‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪Common and Serious Diseases Thomas B.‬‬
‫‪11.6 Color Atlas and synopsis of Clinical Dermatology‬‬
‫)‪12.6 COLOR ATLAS OF CLINICAL DERMATOLOGY COMMON AND SERIOUS DISEASES (Salekan E-Book‬‬
‫)‪(Thomas B. Fitzpatrick, MD, Richard Allen Johnson, MD, Klaus Wolff, MD, Dick Suurmond, MD‬‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪13.6 Color Atlas of Cosmetic Oculofacial Surgery (William PD Chen, Jemshed A Khan, Clinton D McCord‬‬
‫‪nd‬‬
‫)‪14.6 Color Atlas of Dermatoscopy (2 , enlarged and completely revised edition) (Wilhelm stolz, Otto Braun-Falco‬‬
‫‪2001‬‬
‫)‪15.6 Color Atlas of Dermatoxcopy 2nd, enlarged and completely revised edition (Wilhelm Stolz. Otto Braun-Falco) (Salekan E-Book‬‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫)‪16.6 Comprehensive Facial Rejuvenation (A Practical & Systematic Guide to Surgical Managemet of the Aging Face) (Edwin F. Williams III, Samuel M, Lam‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪17.6 Consult a Physician Before Beginning any new Exercise Program Rejenuve FACIAL MAGIC‬‬
‫)‪(Gynthia Rowland‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪18.6 Correction of Wrinkles & Augmentation of lip and cheek with Restylane & Perlane‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪19.6 Cosmetic Dermatology (Leslie Baumann, MD‬‬
‫‪2000‬‬
‫‪20.6 COSMETIC LASER SURGERY‬‬
‫)‪(Natural beauty for as long as you like‬‬
‫ﻳﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻬﺘﺮﻳﻦ ‪ Skin filler‬ﻫﺎ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺭﻓﻊ ﭼﻴﻦ ﻭ ﭼﺮﻭﻙﻫﺎﻱ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻛﻪ ﺳﺎﺯﮔﺎﺭﻱ ﺁﻥ ﺑﺎ ﺑﺎﻓﺖ ﺍﻧﺴﺎﻥ ‪ %١٠٠‬ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻫﻴﺎﻧﻮﺭﻭﺗﻴﻚ ﺍﺳﻴﺪ ﺗﻮﻟﻴﺪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ‪ recombinant‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻣﺎﺩﻩ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﻛﺸﻮﺭ ﺳﻮﺋﺪ ﺩﺭ ﺳﻪ ﻏﻠﻈﺖ ﺑﻪ ﻧﺎﻡﻫﺎﻱ ‪ Restyalne , Restyane fine‬ﻭ‬
‫ﻼ ﻭﺍﺿﺢ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ‬
‫‪ perlane‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮ ﺣﺴﺐ ﻧﻮﻉ ﺧﻄﻮﻁ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ )ﻇﺮﻳﻒ ﻳﺎ ﻋﻤﻴﻖ( ﺩﺭ ﺳﻄﻮﺡ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺩﺭﻡ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ : VCD‬ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﻣﺮﻭﺭﻱ ﺑﺮ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﺧﺖ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺳﻪ ﻣﺎﺩﻩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﻭ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ﻭ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ﺭﺍ ﺟﺪﺍﮔﺎﻧﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻛﺎﻣ ﹰ‬
‫ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .٢ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺑﻌﺪﻱ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ‪ animation‬ﻋﻤﻖ ﻭ ﻣﺤﻞ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ﻫﺮ ﻳﻚ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺳﻪ ﻣﺤﺼﻮﻝ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺭﻡ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‪ .٣ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﻃﺮﻳﻘﺔ ﺑﻲﺣﺴﻲ ﻣﻮﺿﻌﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﮔﺬﺍﺷﺘﻪ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .٣ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ‪ Reslane fine‬ﻭ ﻣﺤﻞ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ‬
‫ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .٤ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ‪ Restylana‬ﻭ ﻣﺤﻞ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .٥ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ‪ Perlane‬ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺭﻓﻊ ﭼﻴﻦﻫـﺎﻱ ﻋﻤﻘـﻲ )ﻣﺎﻧﻨـﺪ ﻧﺎﺯﻭﺷـﻴﺎﻝ( ﻭ ‪ fonciel contouring‬ﻣﺎﻧﻨـﺪ )‪ Lip enhan cemenl‬ﻭ ‪ (cheek enhancmeat‬ﻭ‬
‫ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ‪ oral Commisure‬ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .٦ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺗﺮﻛﻴﺒﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻘﺎﺕ ﺑﺎﻻ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺭ ﻳﻚ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‪ .٧ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺍﻧﺘﻬﺎ ‪ followup‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .٨ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻧﺘﻬﺎﻱ ﻫﺮ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻗﺒﻞ ﻭ ﺑﻌﺪ ﺍﺯ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫)‪PERFECT THE TECHIQUES, REDUCE THE RISKS, AND ENJOY THE RESULTS WHEN PERFORMING COSMETIC LASER SURGERY (Richard E. Fitzpatrick Mitchel P. Goldman‬‬
‫‪21.6 COSMETIC LASER SURGERY For Face and Body‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪2001‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪(ALAN R. SHALITA, M.D., DAVID A. NORRIS, M.D‬‬
‫‪BASIC AND CLINICAL DERMATOLOGY‬‬
‫‪An Interdisciplinory Approach‬‬
‫‪22.6 Cosmetic Surgery‬‬
‫ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻓﻮﻕ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ﺗﺒﺪﻳﻞ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺑﻪ ﮔﻔﺘﻪ ﻣﺆﻟﻒ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻛﻤﺘﺮ ﻛﺘﺎﺑﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺗﻠﻔﻴﻘﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺩﺍﻧﺶ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‪ ،‬ﻣﺎﮔﺰﻳﻠﻮﻓﺎﺷﻴﺎﻝ ﻭ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﭘﻼﺳﺘﻴﻚ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺭ ﺧﻮﺩ ﮔﻨﺠﺎﻧﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺣﺪﻭﺩ ‪ ١٠٠٠‬ﺻﻔﺤﻪﺍﻱ‪ ،‬ﺁﺧـﺮﻳﻦ ﺗﻜﻨﻴـﻚﻫـﺎﻱ ﺩﺭ‬
‫ﺩﺳﺘﺮﺱ ﺩﺭ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﻳﺒﺎﻳﻲ ﺭﺍ ﮔﺮﺩﺁﻭﺭﻱ ﻧﻤﻮﺩﻩ ﺗﺎ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻫﺮ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺍﻧﻔﺮﺍﺩﻱ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﻣﻨﺎﺳﺐ ﺗﺼﻤﻴﻢﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﻭ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺎﺭ ﺭﻭﺩ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﻓﺼﻮﻟﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﺴﺖﻫﺎ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﺎﻥ ﭘﻼﺳﺘﻴﻚ ﻭ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﺎﻥ ﻓﻚ ﻭ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻧﻮﺷﺘﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ‪ Procedure‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺭﺍ ﻗﺪﻡ ﺑﻪ ﻗﺪﻡ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺗﻤﺎﻡ ﺟﻨﺒﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫـﺎﻱ ﺟﺮﺍﺣـﻲ ﺭﺍ ﺗﻮﺿـﻴﺢ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺍﺳـﺖ‪ .‬ﺍﻃﻼﻋـﺎﺕ ‪ Pre-op‬ﻭ ‪ Post-op‬ﻭ ﻓـﺮﻡ ﺭﺿـﺎﻳﺖﻧﺎﻣـﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻫـﺮ ﻓﺼـﻞ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷـﺪﻩ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻫـﺮ ﻓﺼـﻞ ﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳـﻴﻮﻥ ﻭ‬
‫ﻛﻨﺘﺮﺍﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﻫﺮ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻭ ﻣﺤﺪﻭﺩﻳﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻭ ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺑﻪ ﮔﻔﺘﻪ ﻣﺆﻟﻒ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﭼﻮﻥ ﻫﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﻣﺠﺮﺏﺗﺮﻥ ﺍﻓﺮﺍﺩ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﻪ ﻛﺎﺭﻱ ﺧﻮﺩ ﻧﮕﺎﺭﺵ ﻳﺎﻓﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻧﻜﺎﺕ ﻛﻠﻴﺪﻱ‬
‫ﻭ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺧﺘﺼﺎﺻﻲ ﻭ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﻛﻮﭼﻚ ﻭﻟﻲ ﺑﺎﺍﺭﺯﺵ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺵ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ -١‬ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻣﻨﺎﺳﺐ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻳﻚ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ‪ .‬ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ -٢‬ﺁﻧﺎﻟﻴﺰ ﺯﻳﺒﺎﻳﻲ ﺷﻨﺎﺧﺘﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺻﻮﺭﺕﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻴﺮ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ‪ .‬ﻓﺼﻞ‬
‫‪ ٣‬ﺗﺎ ‪ Peel ٦‬ﺳﻄﺤﻲ ﻭ ﻋﻤﻘﻲ ﻭ ﺗﺮﻛﻴﺐ ‪ Peel‬ﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ ﺁﻥ ‪) total body peel‬ﮔﺮﺩﻥ‪ Chest .‬ﻭ ﺩﺳﺖﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻣﻨﺎﻃﻖ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ( ﻧﻴﺰ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ٦‬ﻛﻤﭙﻠﻴﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺑﻪ ﻃﻮﺭ ﺟﺪﺍﮔﺎﻧﻪ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳـﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼـﻮﻝ ‪ ٧‬ﻭ ‪ ٨‬ﻭ ‪ ٩‬ﻭ‬
‫‪ ٢٢‬ﻭ ‪ ٢٤‬ﻭ ‪ ٣٧‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ )‪ Er: YAG, Co2‬ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﻋﺮﻭﻗﻲ ‪ tattoo‬ﻭ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﭘﻴﮕﻤﺎﻧﺘﻪ ‪ ( hair removal‬ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ٩‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻣﺆﺛﺮ ﺑﻮﺩﻥ ﻟﻴﺰﺭﻫﺎﻱ ‪ Resurfacing‬ﺻـﺤﺒﺖ ﻧﻤـﻮﺩﻩ ﺍﺳـﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ١٠‬ﺑﻪ ‪ Dermabrasion‬ﺍﺧﺘﺼﺎﺹ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ١١‬ﺍﻟﻲ ‪ ١٦‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺩﻓﻊ ﭼﻴﻦ ﻭ ﭼﺮﻭﻙﻫﺎ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ‪ Skin filler‬ﻫﺎ )‪ Restiylans‬ﻭ‪ ، inerrall , Perlane‬ﻛـﻼﮊﻥ ﻭ ‪ (....‬ﻭ ﺗﺰﺭﻳـﻖ ﭼﺮﺑـﻲ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼـﻞ ‪ ١٥‬ﺍﺧﺘﺼﺎﺻـﹰﺎ ﺑـﻪ ﭼﮕـﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺍﺳـﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ‬
‫‪ Gortex‬ﺍﺷﺎﺭﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ١٧‬ﺑﻪ ‪ BotulinumsToxin‬ﺍﺷﺎﺭﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ١٨‬ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺧﺎﻝﻫﺎ‪ Cyst ،‬ﺍﺳﻜﺎﺭ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ١٩‬ﺍﺧﺘﺼﺎﺹ ﺑﻪ ﺍﻧـﻮﺍﻉ ‪ flap‬ﻭ ‪ Graft‬ﻫـﺎ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪ .‬ﻓﺼـﻮﻝ ‪ ١٢‬ﻭ ‪ ١٣‬ﻭ ‪ ٢٥‬ﺑـﻪ ﻟﻴﭙﻮﺳﺎﻛﺸـﻦ ﻭ‬
‫ﻟﻴﭙﻮﺍﻧﻔﻮﺯﻳﻮﻥ ﻭ ‪ tumescent‬ﺍﺧﺘﺼﺎﺹ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ‪ ٣٣‬ﺗﺮﻛﻴﺐ ‪ procedure‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﻳﺒﺎﻳﻲ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ‪ fac, Neck ٢٩-٣٢‬ﻭ ‪ lifling‬ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻠﻔﺎﺭﻭﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ‪ Brow Reyirvenation‬ﺁﺭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳـﺖ‬
‫ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ٣١‬ﺑﻠﻔﺎﺭﻭﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ﭘﻠﻚ ﺑﺎﻻ ﻭ ﭘﺎﻳﻴﻦ ﺍﺯ ﺩﻳﺪ ﺍﻓﺘﺎﻟﻤﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﺴﺖﻫﺎ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ٢٧‬ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺭﻭﺵ ﺍﺧﺘﺼﺎﺻﻲ ‪ D. Cook‬ﺑﻪ ﻧﺎﻡ ‪ The cook weekend Altrnative to face lift‬ﺍﺷﺎﺭﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ٣٤‬ﺑﻪ ﻛﺎﺷﺖ ﻣـﻮ‬
‫ﻭ ‪ Alopecia Redechion‬ﺍﺧﺘﺼﺎﺹ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪ .‬ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ٣٨‬ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﻪ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﻋﻜﺎﺳﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻄﺐ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻛﺎﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﻳﺒﺎﻳﻲ ﺍﺷﺎﺭﻩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪ .‬ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ٣٩‬ﺑﻪ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺑﺮﺧﻮﺭﺩ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻣﺸﻜﻞﺁﻓﺮﻳﻦ ﻭ ﻧﺎﺭﺍﺿـﻲ ﺍﺧﺘﺼـﺎﺹ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪ .‬ﻓﺼـﻞ ‪ ٤٠‬ﻭ ‪ ٤١‬ﺍﺧﺘﺼـﺎﺹ ﺑـﻪ‬
‫ﺍﻳﻤﭙﻼﻧﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻭ ﻛﺎﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﻳﺒﺎﻳﻲ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺎﮔﺰﻳﻠﻮﻓﺎﺳﻴﺎﻝ ﻭ ﺩﻫﺎﻥ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪23.6 Cosmetic Surgery for FACE and BODY‬‬
‫)‪24.6 Cutaneous Laser Surgery (Second edition) The Art and Science of Selective Photothermolysis (Goldman, Fitzpartick‬‬
‫ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻓﻮﻕ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ﺗﺒﺪﻳﻞ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﻣﻜﻤﻞ ﺑﺮ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ‪ Cutaneous Laser Surgery‬ﭼﺎﭖ ﻫﻤﻴﻦ ﻣﺆﻟﻔﻴﻦ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ‪ Cutaneus Laser‬ﻳﻚ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ‪ text‬ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﺔ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻭ ﻫﺮ ﻧﻮﻉ ﺍﺯ ﺗﻜﻨﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻟﻴـﺰﺭ ﺑـﺮﺍﻱ‬
‫ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﺭﺍ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭﻟﻲ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ‪ Cosmetic Laser Surgery‬ﻛﻤﻜﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ ﺑﺎ ﺗﺄﻛﻴﺪ ﺑﻴﺸﺘﺮ ﺑﺮ ﺑﺮﺧﻮﺭﺩ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺑﺎ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ‪.‬‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ﺍﻭﻝ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻣﺮﻭﺭﻱ ﺑﺮ ‪ Laser tissue interaction‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﻣﻲ ﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﻳﻚ ‪ mini text book‬ﺍﺯ ﺁﻥ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﻛﺮﺩ‪ .‬ﻓﺼﻞ ﺩﺭﺧﺸﺎﻥ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ Wuond healing‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﺑﻪ ﮔﻔﺘﻪ ﻣﺆﻟﻔﻴﻦ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻬﺘﺮﻳﻦ ﻟﻴﺰﺭﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺑﻬﺘﺮﻳﻦ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﻫﺎ ﺑﺪﻭﻥ ﺗﻮﺟﻪ ﺑـﻪ‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
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‫‪ Post procedural wound healing‬ﻣﻨﺠﺮ ﺑﻪ ﻛﻤﺘﺮﻳﻦ ﻧﺘﻴﺠﻪ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ٣‬ﻭ ‪ ٤‬ﻭ ‪ ٥‬ﻭ ‪ ٦‬ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﻛﻤﭙﻠﻴﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﺍﺯ ﻟﻴﺰﺭﻫﺎﻱ ‪ co2‬ﻭ ‪ Erbium:Yag‬ﺩﺭ ‪ resurfacing‬ﻭ ‪ Er:yag‬ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻭ ﮔﺮﺩﻥ ﻭ ‪ chest‬ﻣـﻲﺑﺎﺷـﺪ ﻭ ﻫﻤﭽﻨـﻴﻦ ﺩﺭ ﻣـﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺳـﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻟﻴـﺰﺭ‬
‫‪ carbon Dioxide ultrapulse‬ﻭ ‪ Er:yag‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻃﺮﺍﻑ ﭼﺸﻢ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻳﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ﺗﺎﺯﻩ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ‪ Nonablative Laser‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﭼﻴﻦ ﻭ ﭼﺮﻭﻙ ﻫﺎﻱ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﻣﻘﺒﻮﻟﻴﺖ ﺭﻭﺯﺍﻓﺮﻭﻥ ﭘﻴﺪﺍ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ incisional laser Surgery ٩‬ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ‬
‫ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﭘﻼﺳﺘﻴﻚ ﻭ ﺑﻠﻔﺎﺭﻭﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ١٠‬ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ‪ Tinas.Alster‬ﻣﺆﻟﻒ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ‪ manual of cutaneous laser techniques‬ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﺩﺭ ‪ Scar revision‬ﺭﺍ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ١١‬ﺟﺪﻳﺪﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻜﻬﺎﻱ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺩﺭ ‪hair‬‬
‫‪] removal‬ﻣﻘﺎﻳﺴﻪ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﻭ ﻃﺮﺯ ﻛﺎﺭ ﻭ ﻣﻌﺮﻓﻲ ﻟﻴﺰﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻌﺘﺒﺮ ﺍﺯ ﻛﺎﺭﺧﺎﻧﻪ ﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻌﺘﺒﺮ[ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ‪ mtense light source‬ﺩﺭ ‪ hair transplant‬ﺻﺤﺒﺖ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻞ‪ ١٢‬ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺟﺪﻳﺪ ﺍﺯ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ‪ Co2‬ﻭ ‪ Er:yag‬ﺩﺭ ‪) hair transplant‬ﻛﺎﺷﺖ ﻣـﻮ(‬
‫ﺑﺤﺚ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ١٣‬ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ‪ Leg vein‬ﺑﺎ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺁﺧﺮ‪ ،‬ﻣﺆﻟﻔﻴﻦ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻫﺎﻱ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﻳﻚ ﺭﺍﻫﻨﻤﺎ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﻣﻨﺎﺳﺒﺘﺮﻳﻦ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎ ﺗﻮﺻﻴﻪ ﻣﻲﻧﻤﺎﻳﻨﺪ‪.‬‬
‫‪2001‬‬
‫)‪25.6 Cutaneous Medicine Cutaneous Manifestations of Systemic Disease (THOMAS T. PROVOST, MD, JOHN A.FLYNN, MD) (Johns Hopkins Medical Institutions Baltimore, Maryland‬‬
‫ﺑﻪ ﮔﻔﺘﺔ ﻣﺆﻟﻔﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ‪ ،‬ﺁﺭﻡ ﻭ ﻣﺸﺨﺼﻪ ﺩﭘﺎﺭﺗﻤﺎﻥ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﮕﺎﻩ ﺟﺎﻥ ﻫﺎﭘﻜﻴﻨﺰ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻠﻢ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻳﻚ ﻧﻈﺮ ﻛﻠﻲ ﻧﻪ ﻓﻘﻂ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﭘﻮﺳﺖ ﻭ ﺿﻤﺎﺋﻢ ﺑﻠﻜﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺗﻮﺟﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺗﻈﺎﻫﺮﺍﺕ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺑﺪﻥ ﺍﺷﺎﺭﻩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ ٧٨٢‬ﺻﻔﺤﻪﺍﻱ ﺑﺎ ‪٧٣‬‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ﺑﺎ ﻋﻜﺲﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺎ ﻛﻴﻔﻴﺖ ﻋﺎﻟﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺭﺍﻫﻨﻤﺎﻳﻲ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﺴﺖﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﺩﺍﺧﻠﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻧﻜﺘﺔ ﺑﺎﺭﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻥ ﻧﻜﺎﺕ ﻣﻬﻢ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺩﺭ ﺣﺎﺷﻴﻪ ﺻﻔﺤﺎﺕ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺍﺧﻠﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺗﻈﺎﻫﺮﺍﺕ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﺩﺍﺭﻧﺪ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫـﺎﻱ ﭘﻮﺳـﺘﻲ ﻛـﻪ‬
‫ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻧﺪ ﻋﻼﺋﻢ ﻋﻤﻮﻣﻲ ﭘﻴﺪﺍ ﻛﻨﺪ ﺭﺍ ﺗﻮﺻﻴﻒ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺗﻜﻴﻪ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﻛﻠﻴﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻛﻤﻚ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﺪ‪ ،‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻭ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻏﻴﺮﺿﺮﻭﺭﻱ ﺍﺟﺘﻨﺎﺏ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪ Dr. Richard Dobson‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﺠﻠﺔ ‪ (AAD) American etcademy of Dermatology‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﮔﻔﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ :‬ﺩﺭ ﮔﺬﺷﺘﺔ ﺍﻛﺜﺮ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﺴﺖﻫﺎ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻠﺖ ﺷﻴﻮﻉ ﺳﻴﻔﻴﻤﻴﺲ ﺑﺎ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺍﺧﻠﻲ ﺁﺷﻨﺎ ﺑﻮﺗﺪﻩﺍﻧـﺪ ﺯﻳـﺮ ﺑـﻪ ﻗـﻮﻝ ‪Sir Willamosler‬‬
‫ﺩﺍﻧﺴﺘﻦ ﺳﻴﻔﻴﻤﻴﺲ ﺩﺍﻧﺴﺘﻦ ﻋﻠﻢ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺑﺎ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺍﻳﻨﺘﺮﻧﺖ ‪Procedure‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻋﻠﻢ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺑﻪ ﻧﻈﺮ ﻣﻦ ‪ medical Dermatologist‬ﺩﺭ ﺁﻳﻨﺪﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺟﺎﻳﮕﺎﻩ ﻭﻳﮋﻩﺍﻱ ﺑﺮﺧﻮﺭﺩﺍﺭ ﺧﻮﺍﻫﻨﺪ ﺑﻮﺩ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺑﺎ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺗﻈـﺎﻫﺮﺍﺕ ﭘﻮﺳـﺘﻲ ﺑﻴﻤـﺎﺭﻱ ‪ AIDS‬ﻭ ﭘﻴﺸـﺮﻓﺖ‬
‫ﺩﺍﻧﺶ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩ ﺳﻴﺘﻮﻛﺴﻴﻦﻫﺎ‪ ،‬ﺁﻧﺘﻲﺑﻴﻮﺗﻴﻚ‪ ،‬ﻛﻤﻮﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ ﻭ ﺍﻳﻤﻮﻧﻮﺳﺎﭘﺮﺳﻴﻮﻫﺎ ﻋﻠﻢ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺍﻓﺮﺍﺩﻱ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﭘﺮ ﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﺧﺎﻟﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺮﺍﻛﺰ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺍﺣﺘﻴﺎﺝ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪.‬‬
‫)‪26.6 Dermatology: A Multi-Media Teaching File (Disc 1,2) (Gross & Microscopic Symposium) (Mosby‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪27.6 Diagnosis & Management Anevidence-Based Approach‬‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫)‪(Robert T Brodell, Sandra Marchese Johnson‬‬
‫‪(Howard‬‬
‫‪I.‬‬
‫‪Maibach,‬‬
‫)‪MD, Sagib J. Bashir, BSc (Hons), MB, ChB, Ann McKibbon, BSc, MLS‬‬
‫‪EVIDENCE-BASED‬‬
‫‪DERMATOLOGY‬‬
‫‪28.6‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﻋﻠﻢ ‪ (Evidence- Based Heatlth Care) EBMC‬ﺑﻨﺎ ﻧﻬﺎﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ EBHC .‬ﭼﻬﺎﺭﭼﻮﺑﻲ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺗﺼﻤﻴﻢﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻭ ﺗﺤﻘﻴﻘﻲ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‪ .‬ﻭ ‪ ٥‬ﻣﺮﺣﻠﻪ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪:‬‬
‫‪ -١‬ﺍﻳﺠﺎﺩ ﺳﺆﺍﻝ ‪ -٢‬ﭘﻴﺪﺍ ﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﻣﺪﺍﺭﻙ ﻣﻌﺘﺒﺮ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺟﻮﺍﺏ ﺑﻪ ﺁﻥ ﺳﺆﺍﻝ ‪ -٣‬ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺍﻳﻨﻜﻪ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻣﻨﺎﺑﻊ ﻭ ﻣﺪﺍﺭﻙ ﺁﻳﺎ ﻣﻌﺘﺒﺮﻧﺪ ﻳﺎ ﺧﻴﺮ ‪ -٤‬ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻣﺪﺍﺭﻙ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺗﺼﻤﻴﻢﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ‪.‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺭﻭﺷﻲ ﻣﻨﻄﻘﻲ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﭘﻴﺪﺍﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺕ ﺑﻪ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺁﻣﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺣﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺍﻭﻝ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻫﺮ ﻳﻚ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻣﺮﺣﻠﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺗﻔﻀﻴﻞ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﭼﻄﻮﺭ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﻣﺘﻮﺟﻪ ﻣﻌﺘﺒﺮ ﺑﻮﺩﻥ ﻳﻚ ﻓﺮﺿﻴﻪ ﻳﺎ ﻣﻘﺎﻟﻪ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪ ﻭ‪...‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺩﻭﻡ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻋﻠﻢ ‪ EBME‬ﺩﺭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺑﻴﺎﻥ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻠﻲ ﺟﺪﺍ ﻣﻨﺎﺑﻊ ﻣﻌﺘﺒﺮ ﻭ ﻗﺎﺑﻞ ﺗﻮﺟﻬﻲ ﺁﺩﺭﺱ ﺍﻳﻨﺘﺮﻧﺘﻲ ﺑﺎ ﻣﺸﺨﺼﺎﺕ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺑﻪ ﺭﻭﺯﺑﻮﺩﻥ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﺴﺖﻫﺎ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻧﺸﺮ ﻛﺘﺎﺑﻲ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻣﻨﺎﺑﻊ ﺑﺎﺍﺭﺯﺵ ﻣﺸﺎﻫﺪﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪29.6 Facial Lifting by "APTOS" threads Clinic of Plastic and Aesthetic Surgery‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪30.6 Hair Removal with Intense Pulsed Laser (IPL‬‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫)ﻃﺮﻳﻘﺔ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ‪ -‬ﻣﺤﻞﻫﺎﻳﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻣﻮﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﺍﺋﺪ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺎﺭ ﻣﻲﺭﻭﺩ‪ -‬ﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥﻫﺎ( ‪ +‬ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ‬
‫ﺍﻣﺮﻭﺯﻩ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﻭﻗﺖﮔﻴﺮ ﻭ ﺑﻌﻀﹰﺎ ﺑﺎ ﻋﺎﺭﺿﻪ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻴﻦﺑﺮﺩﻥ ﻣﻮﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﺍﺋﺪ ﻣﺎﻧﻨﺪ ‪ ،sharing‬ﻣﻮﺑﺮﻫﺎ‪ ،‬ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻟﻴﺰ ﻭ ‪ ...‬ﻛﻤﺘﺮ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﻣﻲﮔﻴﺮﺩ‪ .‬ﻟﻴﺰﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻴﻦﺑﺮﻧﺪﻩ ﻣﻮﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﺍﺋﺪ ﺑﺎ ﻭﻗﺖ ﻛﻤﺘﺮ‪ ،‬ﻛﺎﺭﺍﺋﻲ ﺑﻴﺸﺘﺮ ﻭ ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ ﻣﺨﺘﺼﺮ ﻛﻤﻚ ﺷـﺎﻳﺎﻧﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻳـﻚ‬
‫ﺯﻧﺪﮔﻲ ﺑﺎ ﻛﻴﻔﻴﺖ ﻣﻄﻠﻮﺏ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻣﺮﺍﺟﻌﻴﻦ ﺑﻪ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ ﺑﺨﺼﻮﺹ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﺴﺖﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻛﻠﻴﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﻳﺒﺎﺋﻲ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪ .‬ﺍﺯ ﺟﻤﻠﻪ ﺟﺪﻳﺪﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﻟﻴﺰﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﻜﺎﺭﺭﻓﺘﻪ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ‪ IPL‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻓﻮﺍﺋﺪ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻟﻴﺰﺩ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﺑﺎ ‪ Skin type‬ﺑﺎﻻ‪ Spot size ،‬ﺑﺰﺭﮔﺘﺮ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﻧﺘﻴﺠﻪ ﻃـﻮﻝ‬
‫ﻣﺪﺕ ﻛﻤﺘﺮ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ‪ Therapeatic window ،‬ﺑﺰﺭﮔﺘﺮ ﻛﻪ ﻣﻮﺟﺐ ﻋﺎﺭﺿﻪ ﻛﻤﺘﺮ ﻭ ﻛﺎﺭﻣﺪﻱ ﺑﻴﺸﺘﺮ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺳﻔﺎﺭﺵ ﻛﻤﭙﺎﻧﻲ ‪ Ellipse‬ﺗﻮﻟﻴﺪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻣﻌﺮﻓﻲ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ‪ ،IPL‬ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ‪ ،‬ﻓﻮﺍﺋﺪ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ‪ ،IPL‬ﻣﻨﺎﻃﻘﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺁﻥ ﺍﺯ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ‪ IPL‬ﺑـﺮﺍﻱ‬
‫ﺭﻓﻊ ﻣﻮﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﺍﺋﺪ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﺑﺨﺶ ﻛﻠﻴﭗ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮﺋﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﺎﻥ ﻭ ﻧﺤﻮﻩ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻭ ﻧﺘﺎﻳﺞ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺑﺎ ﻋﻜﺲ ﻭ ‪ clip‬ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫)‪31.6 HAIR TRANSPLANTATION (The Art of Micrografting and Minigrafting) (Salekan E-Book‬‬
‫‪TECHNIQUE‬‬
‫‪PLANING AND PATIENT INSTRUCTUIONS‬‬
‫‪SPECIAL APPLICATIONS‬‬
‫‪PATIENT EVALUATION‬‬
‫‪REOPERATIVE SURGERY‬‬
‫‪ANATOMY AND PHYSILOGY OF HAIR‬‬
‫‪COMBINED FACE LIFT AND HAIR TRANSPLAYTATION‬‬
‫‪1999‬‬
‫)‪32.6 HANDBOOK OF ORAL DISEASE DIAGNOSIS AND MANAGEMENT Cripian Scully (MARTIN DUNITZ‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫)‪33.6 Laser & Lights (Volume 1 & 2) (CD I, II) (Rejuvenation, Resurfacing, Hair Removal, Treatment of Ethnic Skin‬‬
‫‪2000‬‬
‫‪34.6 Laser Hair Removal‬‬
‫ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻓﻮﻕ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ﺗﺒﺪﻳﻞ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪ ٤٢٠‬ﺻﻔﺤﻪ ﻣﺘﻦ ﺑﻪ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﻴﺶ ﺍﺯ ‪ ٤٠٠‬ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﺩﻫﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻟﻮﮊﻳﺴﺖﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺩﻧﺪﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻳﻪ ﺗﻨﻬﺎ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻨـﻮﺍﻥ ﺍﻃﻠـﺲ ﺑﻠﻜـﻪ ﺍﺯ‬
‫ﺟﻨﺒﺔ ﺍﺗﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‪ ،‬ﻛﻠﻴﺪﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺍﻣﻜﺎﻥ ﭘﻴﺸﮕﻴﺮﻱ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺑﻪ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﺩﻫﺎﻧﻲ ﭘﺮﺩﺍﺧﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺷﺎﻳﻊ ﻭ ﻣﻬﻢ ﺑﺎﻓﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﻧﺮﻡ ﺩﻫﺎﻧﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩﻱ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﻧﺎﺩﺭ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺳﻄﺢ ﺟﻬﺎﻥ ﺭﻭ ﺑﻪ ﺍﻓﺰﺍﻳﺶ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ‬
‫ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻓﺼﻞ ﺍﻭﻝ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ‪ symptom, sign‬ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﺩﻫﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ﺑﻌﺪﻱ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺩﺭﺩﻫﺎﻱ ﻧﺎﺣﻴﺔ ﺩﻫﺎﻥ ﺑﺎ ﻣﻨﺸﺎﺀ ﻋﺮﻭﻗﻲ ﻳﺎ ﻋﺼﺒﻲ‪ ،‬ﺷﻜﺎﻳﺎﺕ ﺩﻫﺎﻧﻲ ﺑﺎ ﻣﻨﺸﺎﺀ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﻲ‪ ،‬ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﻣﺨﺎﻃﻲ‪ ،‬ﺑﺰﺍﻗﻲ‪ ،‬ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﻟﺜﻪﻫﺎ‪ ،‬ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﻟﺐ ﻭ ﻛـﺎﻡ ﻭ ﺿـﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ‬
‫ﺩﻫﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﺍﻟﻔﺒﺎﻱ ﺍﻧﮕﻠﻴﺴﻲ ﺗﻨﻈﻴﻢ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ‪ management ،Diagnosis ،Clinical feature ،Aetiology ،Sexmainly affected ،Agemainly affected ،incidence ،Defintion‬ﺗﻘﺴﻴﻢﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻓﻮﻕ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ﺗﺒﺪﻳﻞ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﻣﺮﻭﺭﻱ ﺑﺮ ﻟﻴﺰﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺑﺮﺩﺍﺷﺖ ﻣﻮﻫﺎ )‪removal‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫)‪(David J. Goldman) (Martin Dunits‬‬
‫‪ (hair‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻧﺨﺴﺘﻴﻦ ﻓﺼﻞ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﺧﺘﺼﺎﺹ ﺑﻪ ﺑﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻣﻮ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪ .‬ﻓﺼﻞ ﺑﻌﺪﻱ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻣﺮﻭﺭﻱ ﮔﺬﺭﺍ ﺑﻪ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻚ‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
‫‪37‬‬
‫ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﻭ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩ ﺁﻥ ﺩﺭ ‪ hair removal‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻓﺼﻞ ﺑﻌﺪﻱ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ‪ ،‬ﺑﻪ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺁﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻟﻴﺰ ﺩﺭ ﺭﻓﻊ ﻣﻮﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﺍﺋﺪ ﻭ ﻣﻘﺎﻳﺴﺔ ﺁﻥ ﺑﺎ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﻣﻲﭘﺮﺩﺍﺯﺩ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻟﻴﺰﺭﻫﺎ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺭﻓﻊ ﻣﻮﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﺍﺋﺪ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺎﺭ ﻣﻲﺭﻭﻧﺪ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﺩ‪:‬‬
‫‪5- Intense pulsed light‬‬
‫‪ND: YAG laser‬‬
‫‪3- Diode laser‬‬
‫‪4-‬‬
‫‪2- Normal mode alexandrite laser‬‬
‫‪1- Normal mode Ruby laser‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﺑﺨﺶ ﻣﻘﺎﻻﺕ ﺗﺤﻘﻴﻘﻲ ﻭ ﻃﺮﻕ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻫﺮ ﻳﻚ ﺍﺯ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻫﻬﺎﻱ ﺍﻳﺰﺭ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﺁﺧﺮ ﻫﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ﻧﻈﺮ ﻣﺆﻟﻒ ﺩﺭ ﺧﺼﻮﺹ ﻫﺮ ﻳﻚ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢﻫﺎ ﻣﻄﺮﺡ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﻳﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻧﻜﺎﺕ ﻣﻨﺤﺼﺮ ﺑﻪﻓﺮﺩ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻣﻌﺮﻓﻲ ﻟﻴﺰﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻌﺘﺒﺮ ﺍﺯ ﺷﺮﻛﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻌﺘﺒﺮ ﻭ ﻣﻘﺎﻳﺴﺔ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺑﺎ ﻳﻜﺪﻳﮕﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﭘﺰﺷﻚ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﻣﻨﺎﺳﺐ ﻳﺎﺭﻱ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻧﻬﺎﻳﺖ ﺑﺎ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﺻﺤﻴﺢ ﺑﻪ ﺣﺼﻮﻝ ﻧﺘﻴﺠﺔ ﺧﻮﺏ ﻛﻤﻚ ﺷﺎﻳﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﻲﻧﻤﺎﻳﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪35.6 MANUAL OF CHEMICAL PEELS Superficial and Medium Depth (Mark G. Rubin, MD‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪36.6 MANAGEMENT OF FACIAL LINES AND WRINKLES (ANDREW BLITZER, WILLIAM J. BINDER, J. BRIAN BOYD ALASTAIR CARRUTHERS) (SALEKAN E-BOOK‬‬
‫‪2000‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻓﻮﻕ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ﺗﺒﺪﻳﻞ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪ ٢٢‬ﻓﺼﻞ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺟﺎﻟﺒﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻭ ﻧﻮﻉ ﺑﺮﺧﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺎ ﭼﻴﻦ ﻭ ﭼﺮﻭﻙﻫﺎ )‪ (Line 8 Wrinkle‬ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺑﺎ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ﻣﺠﺰﺍ ‪ exfoliants‬ﻳﺎ‬
‫‪ Superfical peel‬ﻣﺮﻃﻮﺏﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﺁﻧﺎﻟﻮﮒﻫﺎﻱ ‪ Chemical ، Vitamins‬ﺑﺎﻓﻨﻮﻝ ﻭ ‪ ، TCA‬ﻣﻘﺎﻳﺴﻪ ‪ Peel‬ﺷﻴﻤﻴﺎﻳﻲ ﻭ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ‪ Dermabrasion ،‬ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ‪ implant‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ‪ ،‬ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ‪ Dermal Allograft‬ﻃﺮﻳﻘـﺔ ﮔﺬﺍﺷـﺘﻦ ‪ GORTEX‬ﺗـﺰﺭﻱ ﻛـﻼﮊﻥ ﻭ‬
‫ﭼﺮﺑﻲ‪ Directexcision ،‬ﭼﻴﻦ ﻭ ﭼﺮﻭﻙﻫﺎ ﺗﺼﺤﻴﺢ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ‪ facelifting, endoscopic Browloft Skeletal frame‬ﺑﻠﻔﺎﺭﻭﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ‪ .‬ﻳﻚ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﺧﺘﺼﺎﺹ ﺑﻪ ﻣﺮﻭﺭ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻭ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺗﻮﻛﺴﻴﻦ ﺑﻮﺗﻮﻟﻴﻨﻴﻮﻡ ﺩﺭ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻭ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺩﻳﮕـﺮ ﺑـﻪ ﻃﺮﻳﻘـﺔ‬
‫ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ‪ Botulinium Toxin‬ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﭼﻴﻦ ﻭ ﭼﺮﻭﻙﻫﺎ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻣﻲﻧﻤﺎﻳﺪ‪ .‬ﺳﭙﺲ ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ٢٠‬ﻃﺮﻳﻘﺔ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﻭ ‪ Botulinumtoxin‬ﺩﺭ ﺭﻓﻊ ﺧﻄﻮﻁ ﺩﺭ ﭼﺸﻢ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ٢١‬ﻃﺮﻳﻘﺔ ﻋﻜﺲ ﮔـﺮﻓﺘﻦ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻴﻤـﺎﺭ ﺑـﻪ ﻋﻨـﻮﺍﻥ ﻳـﻚ ﺳـﻨﺪ‬
‫ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻭ ‪ Computer imaging‬ﺑﺎ ﺩﻭﺭﺑﻴﻦﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﻳﺠﻴﺘﺎﻟﻲ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪(Tinal‬‬
‫‪S.‬‬
‫‪Alster,‬‬
‫)‪M.D.‬‬
‫‪(SALEKAN‬‬
‫)‪E-BOOK‬‬
‫‪MANUAL‬‬
‫‪OF‬‬
‫‪CUTANEOUS‬‬
‫‪LASER‬‬
‫‪TECHNIQUES‬‬
‫‪(Second‬‬
‫)‪Edition‬‬
‫‪37.6‬‬
‫ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻓﻮﻕ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ﺗﺒﺪﻳﻞ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪ ١٢‬ﻓﺼﻞ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﻳﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻱﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏﻫﺎ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﺔ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﺑﺎ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻧﮕﺎﻩ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﻴﺸﺘﺮ ﺑﺮ ﻧﻜﺎﺕ ﻋﻤﻠﻲ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﻭ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻣﺸﻜﻼﺗﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ‬
‫ﺣﻴﻦ ﻭ ﺑﻌﺪ ﺍﺯ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺍﻳﺠﺎﺩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ ،‬ﻣﺘﻤﺮﻛﺰ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺗﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﻗﺒﻞ ﺍﺯ ﻋﻤﻞ ﻭ ﺑﻌﺪ ﺍﺯ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﻮﺩ ﻭ ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﻣﻨﺎﺳﺐ )‪ (Patient selection‬ﺑﻪ ﻃﻮﺭ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺑﻌﻀﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻓﺼﻮﻝ‪ ،‬ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻌﺮﻓﻲ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﻟﻴﺰﺭﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻣﻌﺮﻓﻲ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩﻫﺎﻱ ﻟﻴﺰﺭﻱ ﻣﻌﺘﺒﺮ ﻭ ﻣﻘﺎﻳﺴﺔ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻫﻬﺎﻱ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺵ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﻛﺎﺭ ﺑﻪ ﻃﻮﺭ ﺟﺪﺍﮔﺎﻧﻪ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻟﻴﺰﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺧﺘﺼﺎﺻﻲ ﭘﺮﺩﺍﺧﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ﺟﺪﻳﺪ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻧﺴﺒﺖ ﺑﻪ ‪ edition‬ﻗﺒﻞ ﺷـﺎﻣﻞ‬
‫‪ erbium :YAG laser‬ﻭ ‪ Resurfacing‬ﺑﻠﻔﺎﺭﻭﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ﺑﺎ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﻭ ﻟﻴﻔﺘﮓ ﭘﻴﺸﺎﻧﻲ ﻫﻤﺰﻣﺎﻥ ﺑﺎ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﻭ ﻟﻴﺰﺭﻫﺎﻱ‪ hair removal‬ﺍﺿﺎﻓﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ﺁﺧﺮ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﻭ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻫﺮ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﺑﻪ ﻃﻮﺭ ﺟﺪﺍﮔﺎﻧﻪ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫)‪38.6 Minor Surgery a text and atlas Fourth edition (John Stuart Brown‬‬
‫)‪Clifford M Lawrence Neil H Cox (Joseph L Jorizzo) (SALEKAN E-BOOK‬‬
‫)‪39.6 PHYSICAL SIGNS IN DERMATOLOGY (SECOND EDITION‬‬
‫ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻓﻮﻕ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ﺗﺒﺪﻳﻞ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺑﻴﺶ ﺍﺯ ‪ ٧٠٠‬ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﺗﻤﺎﻡ ﺭﻧﮕﺲ ﺍﺯ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﺷﻜﻞ ﻭ ﺭﻧﮓ ﻭ ﻣﺤﻞ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﺗﻘﺴﻴﻢﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻓﺘﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑـﻪ ﺧﻮﺍﻧﻨـﺪﻩ‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺍﻣﻜﺎﻥ ﺭﺍ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺁﻧﺎﻟﻴﺰ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺸﺎﻫﺪﺓ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻭ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻌﻠﻮﻣﺎﺕ ﺑﻪ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺻﺤﻴﺢ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﺑﺮﺳﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﭘﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ )ﻋﻔﻮﻧﻲ‪ ،‬ﺍﺗﻮﺍﻳﻤﻮﻥ ﻭ ‪ ( ...‬ﺗﻘﺴﻴﻢ ﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﻧﻜﺮﺩﻩ ﺑﻠﻜﻪ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﺷﻜﻞ ﻭ ﻣﺤﻞ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﺠﻮﻳﺎﻥ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻳﻚ ‪ approach‬ﻋﻤﻠﻲ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺭﺳﻴﺪﻥ ﺑﻪ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﺭﺍ ﻓﺮﺍﻫﻢ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻫﺮ ﭼﻨﺪ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﻳﻚ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ‪ test‬ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻧﻤﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻭﻟﻲ ﺗﻤﺎﻡ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻣﻬﻢ ﻭ ﺑﺴﻴﺎﺭﻱ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﻧﺎﺩﺭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺁﻥ ﮔﻨﺠﺎﻧﺪﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻳﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻧﻜﺎﺕ ﻣﻤﺘﺎﺯ ﺩﺭ ﻭﻳﺮﺍﻳﺶ ﺟﺪﻳﺪ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻥ ﺟﺪﺍﻭﻟﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﻧﻜﺎﺕ ﻛﻠﻴﺪﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ‪pitfalls‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ‬
‫ﺑﻴﺎﻥ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺣﻘﻴﻘﺖ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺍﻃﻠﺲ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﻭ ﺷﺮﺡ ﻭ ﺁﻧﺎﻟﻴﺰ ﺭﺳﻴﺪﻥ ﺑﻪ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﻭ ﺟﺪﺍﻭﻝ ﻛﻤﻚ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﻣﻮﺟﺐ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻳﻚ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﺎﺍﺭﺯﺵ ﻧﻪ ﺗﻨﻬﺎ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﺴﺖﻫﺎ ﺑﻠﻜﻪ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺳﺎﻳﺮ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﻛﻤﺘﺮ‬
‫ﺁﺷﻨﺎﻳﻲ ﺩﺍﺭﻧﺪ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺎﺭ ﺭﻭﺩ‪ .‬ﺑﻪ ﮔﻔﺘﺔ ‪ Dr. Joav Merick‬ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺁﻥ ﭼﻨﺎﻥ ﻛﻴﻔﻴﺘﻲ ﺩﺍﺭﻧﺪﻛﻪ ﮔﻮﻳﺎ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻘﺎﺑﻞ ﺷﻤﺎ ﺍﻳﺴﺘﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺑﻪ ﻋﻠﺖ ﺍﻫﻤﻴﺖ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﻫﺮ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﺴﺘﻲ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺭﺍ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺩﺍﺷﺘﻪ ﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻭ ﺳﺎﻳﺮ ﺧﺎﻧﻮﺍﺩﻩﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﺮﺷﻜﻲ‪ ،‬ﻣﺘﺨﺼﻴﺼﻴﻦ ﺍﻃﻔﺎﻝ ﻭ ﺩﺍﺧﻠﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻓﻌﺎﻟﻴﺖ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
‫ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﺣﺘﻴﺎﺝ ﭘﻴﺪﺍ ﺧﻮﺍﻫﻨﺪ ﻛﺮﺩ‪ .‬ﻫﺮ ﻛﺘﺎﺑﺨﺎﻧﺔ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺭ ﻗﻔﺴﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﺧﻮﺩ ﺟﺎﻱ ﺩﻫﺪ‪...‬‬
‫‪40.6 Practical MINOR SURGERY‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫)‪(Third Edition) (Antoinette F. Hood, Thedore H. Kwan, Martin C. Mihm, Jr., Thomas D. Horn, Bruce R. Smoller‬‬
‫‪7. Bonus Quizzes‬‬
‫‪6. Panniculus‬‬
‫‪4. Reticular Dermis‬‬
‫‪5. Appendages‬‬
‫‪41.6 Primer of Dermatopathology‬‬
‫‪3. Basement Membrane Zone, Oaoillary Dermis, and Superficial Vascular Plexus‬‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫)‪(Darrell S. Rigel, Robert A. Weiss‬‬
‫‪1. Introduction‬‬
‫‪2. Epidermis‬‬
‫‪42.6 Photoaging‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪Radiosurgical Treatment of Superficial Skin Lesions (S. Randolph Waldman, M.D.‬‬
‫‪43.6‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪Radiosurgical Vaporization of Dermatologic Lesions (Dr. Stephen Chiarello‬‬
‫‪44.6‬‬
‫)‪6. Basal Cell Carcinoma (Nasal Bridge‬‬
‫)‪5. Scar Revision (Nose‬‬
‫)‪4. Basel Cell Carcinoma (Nasal Tip‬‬
‫)‪3. Scar Revision (Back‬‬
‫‪11. Tonsillectomy‬‬
‫‪10. Rhinoplasty‬‬
‫‪9. Turbinate Shrinkage‬‬
‫‪8. Radiosurgery in ENT‬‬
‫‪12. Tympanoplasty‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪(SALEKAN E-BOOK‬‬
‫‪2- Keratosis Removal‬‬
‫‪1- Rhinophyma‬‬
‫)‪7. Scar Revision (Lower Forehead‬‬
‫‪Reconstructive Facial Plastic Surgery‬‬
‫‪45.6‬‬
‫)ﻃﺮﻳﻘﺔ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ‪ -‬ﻣﺤﻞﻫﺎﻳﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻣﻮﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﺍﺋﺪ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺎﺭ ﻣﻲﺭﻭﺩ‪ -‬ﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥﻫﺎ( ‪ +‬ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ‬
‫ﺍﻣﺮﻭﺯﻩ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﻭﻗﺖﮔﻴﺮ ﻭ ﺑﻌﻀﹰﺎ ﺑﺎ ﻋﺎﺭﺿﻪ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻴﻦﺑﺮﺩﻥ ﻣﻮﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﺍﺋﺪ ﻣﺎﻧﻨﺪ ‪ ،sharing‬ﻣﻮﺑﺮﻫﺎ‪ ،‬ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻟﻴﺰ ﻭ ‪ ...‬ﻛﻤﺘﺮ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﻣﻲﮔﻴﺮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫ﻟﻴﺰﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻴﻦﺑﺮﻧﺪﻩ ﻣﻮﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﺍﺋﺪ ﺑﺎ ﻭﻗﺖ ﻛﻤﺘﺮ‪ ،‬ﻛﺎﺭﺍﺋﻲ ﺑﻴﺸﺘﺮ ﻭ ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ ﻣﺨﺘﺼﺮ ﻛﻤﻚ ﺷﺎﻳﺎﻧﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻳﻚ ﺯﻧﺪﮔﻲ ﺑﺎ ﻛﻴﻔﻴﺖ ﻣﻄﻠﻮﺏ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻣﺮﺍﺟﻌﻴﻦ ﺑﻪ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ ﺑﺨﺼﻮﺹ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﺴﺖﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻛﻠﻴﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﻳﺒﺎﺋﻲ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪.‬‬
‫ﺍﺯ ﺟﻤﻠﻪ ﺟﺪﻳﺪﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﻟﻴﺰﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﻜﺎﺭﺭﻓﺘﻪ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ‪ IPL‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻓﻮﺍﺋﺪ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻟﻴﺰﺩ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﺑﺎ ‪ Skin type‬ﺑﺎﻻ‪ Spot size ،‬ﺑﺰﺭﮔﺘﺮ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﻧﺘﻴﺠﻪ ﻃﻮﻝ ﻣﺪﺕ ﻛﻤﺘﺮ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ‪ Therapeatic window ،‬ﺑﺰﺭﮔﺘﺮ ﻛﻪ ﻣﻮﺟﺐ ﻋﺎﺭﺿﻪ ﻛﻤﺘﺮ ﻭ ﻛﺎﺭﻣﺪﻱ ﺑﻴﺸﺘﺮ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫‪38‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺳﻔﺎﺭﺵ ﻛﻤﭙﺎﻧﻲ ‪ Ellipse‬ﺗﻮﻟﻴﺪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻣﻌﺮﻓﻲ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ‪ ،IPL‬ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ‪ ،‬ﻓﻮﺍﺋﺪ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ‪ ،IPL‬ﻣﻨﺎﻃﻘﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺁﻥ ﺍﺯ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ‪ IPL‬ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺭﻓﻊ ﻣﻮﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﺍﺋﺪ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﺑﺨﺶ ﻛﻠﻴﭗ ﻭﻳـﺪﺋﻮﺋﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳـﺎﻥ ﻭ ﻧﺤـﻮﻩ ﺩﺭﻣـﺎﻥ ﻭ‬
‫ﻧﺘﺎﻳﺞ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺑﺎ ﻋﻜﺲ ﻭ ‪ clip‬ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪(Alfonso‬‬
‫‪Barrera,‬‬
‫)‪M.D.‬‬
‫‪REFINEMENT‬‬
‫‪IN‬‬
‫‪HAIR‬‬
‫‪TRANSPLANTATION:‬‬
‫‪Micro‬‬
‫‪and‬‬
‫‪minigraft‬‬
‫‪Megasession‬‬
‫‪46.6‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﭘﻴﻮﻧﺪ ﻣﻮ ﺑﻪ ﺭﻭﺵ ﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﮔﺮﺍﻓﺖ )ﮔﺮﺍﻓﺖ ‪ ١-٢‬ﻣﻮ( ﻭ ﻣﻴﻨﻲﮔﺮﺍﻓﺖ )ﮔﺮﺍﻓﺖ ‪ ٣-٤‬ﻣﻮ( ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻃﺎﺳﻲ ﻣﺮﺩﺍﻧﻪ ﻭ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺭﻳﺰﺵ ﻣﻮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ‪ ،‬ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﮔﺮﺍﻓﻴﻜﻲ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻓﻬﻢ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺎﺭ ﺭﻓﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ -١‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻭ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻣﻮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﺗﺎ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﭘﺎﻳﻪﺍﻱ ﻗﺒﻞ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺍﻋﻤﺎﻝ ﭘﻴﻮﻧﺪ ﺑﻪ ﻧﻮﺁﻣﻮﺯﺍﻥ ﺑﺪﻫﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ -٢‬ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺳﻮﺩﻣﻨﺪﻱ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﻟﮕﻮﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺭﻳﺰﺵ ﻣﻮ ﻭ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻭ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻣﺸﻜﻼﺕ ﻓﺮﺩﻱ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﻭ ﺑﻬﺘﺮﻳﻦ ﺭﻭﺵ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺑﺮﻃﺮﻑﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﺭﻳﺰ ﻣﻮ ﻛﻤﻚ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ -٣‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺗﺠﻬﻴﺰﺍﺕ ﻻﺯﻡ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﭘﻴﻮﻧﺪ ﻣﻮ ﻭ ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺗﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﺑﻪ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﻗﺒﻞ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﻮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ -٤‬ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﻗﺪﻡ ﺑﻪ ﻗﺪﻡ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻭﺍﻗﻌﻲ ﻭ ﮔﺮﺍﻓﻴﻜﻲ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺍﻋﻤﺎﻝ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﭘﻴﻮﻧﺪ ﻣﻮ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ‪Case‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﺗﺎ ﺍﻧﺘﻬﺎﻱ ﻋﻤﻞ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻧﺘﺎﻳﺞ ﻫﺮ ﻳﻚ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫ﻼ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻃﺎﺳﻲ ﺳﺮ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺷﺪﻩﺍﻧﺪ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺗﺮﻣﻴﻢ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺑﻪ ﺭﻭﺵ ﻣﻴﻨﻲ ﻭ ﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﮔﺮﺍﻓﺖ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ -٥‬ﺗﺮﻛﻴﺐ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﭘﻴﻮﻧﺪ ﻣﻮ ﺑﺎ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﻣﺎﻧﻨﺪ ‪ face lifting‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻓﺼﻞ ‪Case‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻛﻪ ﻗﺒ ﹰ‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ -٦‬ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﮔﺮﺍﻓﺖ ﻭ ﻣﻴﻨﻲﮔﺮﺍﻓﺖ ﺩﺭ ﻛﺎﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﻳﺒﺎﻳﻲ ﻭ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﭘﻼﺳﺘﻴﻚ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ -٧‬ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩ ﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﮔﺮﺍﻓﺖ ﻭ ﻣﻴﻨﻲﮔﺮﺍﻓﺖ ﺩﺭ ﭘﻨﻬﺎﻥﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﺍﺳﻜﺎﺭﻫﺎﻱ ‪ ،Scafp‬ﺍﺻﻼﺡ ﺧﻂ ﺭﻳﺶ ﺑﺨﺼﻮﺹ ﺑﻌﺪ ﺍﺯ ‪ ،face lift‬ﻛﺎﺷﺖ ﺍﺑﺮﻭ‪ ،‬ﺳﺒﻴﻞ‪ ،‬ﺭﻳﺶ‪ ،‬ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺁﻟﭙﻮﺳﭙﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻠﺖ ﺳﻮﺧﺘﮕﻲ ﻭ ﻛﺎﺷﺖ ﻣﮋﻩ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ٧‬ﺑﺮﺟﺴﺘﻪﺗـﺮﻳﻦ ﻓﺼـﻞ ﻛﺘـﺎﺏ‬
‫ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺭﺍﺯ ﻛﺘﺐ ﻣﺸﺎﺑﻪ ﭘﻴﻮﻧﺪ ﻣﻮ ﺭﺍ ﻣﺘﻤﺎﻳﺰ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﺪ‪.‬‬
‫‪(June‬‬
‫‪K.‬‬
‫‪Robinson,‬‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫‪William‬‬
‫‪Hande,‬‬
‫‪Roberta‬‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫‪Sengelmann,‬‬
‫‪Daniel‬‬
‫)‪M. Siegel) (CD I- VI‬‬
‫‪Surgery‬‬
‫‪of‬‬
‫‪the‬‬
‫‪Skin‬‬
‫‪Procedural‬‬
‫‪Dermatology‬‬
‫‪47.6‬‬
‫‪Clip 6‬‬
‫‪• Rejuvenation of the neck‬‬
‫‪using liposuciton and othe‬‬
‫‪technuques‬‬
‫‪• Nail surgery‬‬
‫‪• Legucer management‬‬
‫‪• Benign subcutaneous lesions:‬‬
‫‪cysts & lipomas‬‬
‫‪Clip 5‬‬
‫‪• Laser & light treatment of acquired‬‬
‫‪& congenital vascualr lesions‬‬
‫‪• Endovenous ablation techniques‬‬
‫‪with ambulatory phlebectomy for‬‬
‫‪varicose veins‬‬
‫‪• Minimum incision face lift‬‬
‫‪• Blepharoplasty & brow lift‬‬
‫‪Clip 4‬‬
‫‪• Chemical peels‬‬
‫‪• Cyhin Implants‬‬
‫‪• Use of Botulinum Toxin Type‬‬
‫‪A in facial rejuvenation‬‬
‫‪• Liposuction‬‬
‫‪• Autologous fat transfer:‬‬
‫‪evolving concepts & techniques‬‬
‫‪• Follicular unit hair‬‬
‫‪transplantation‬‬
‫& ‪• Microdermabrasion‬‬
‫‪dermabrasion‬‬
‫& ‪• Laser treatment of tattoos‬‬
‫‪pigmented lesions‬‬
‫‪• Laser Skin resurfacing: ablative‬‬
‫‪and non-ablative‬‬
‫‪Clip 3‬‬
‫•‬
‫•‬
‫•‬
‫‪Axial pattern flaps‬‬
‫‪Skin grafting‬‬
‫‪Regional reconstruction: trunk, extremities,‬‬
‫‪hands, feet, face (perioral, periorbital, cheek,‬‬
‫)‪nose, forehead, ear, neck & scalp‬‬
‫‪• Scal revision‬‬
‫‪• Soft tissu augmentation‬‬
‫‪Clip 2‬‬
‫‪• Layered closures, complex‬‬
‫‪closures with suspension sutures‬‬
‫‪& plication of SMAS‬‬
‫‪• Repair of the split earlobe, ear‬‬
‫‪piercing & earlobe reduction‬‬
‫‪• Random pattern cutaneous flaps‬‬
‫‪Clip 1‬‬
‫‪• Skin Structure and Surgical anatomy‬‬
‫‪• Anesthesia and analgesia‬‬
‫‪• Dressings & Postoperative Care‬‬
‫‪• Electrosurgery, electrocoagulation,‬‬
‫‪electrofulguration, electrosetion,‬‬
‫‪electrocautery‬‬
‫‪• Cryosurgery‬‬
‫‪• Skin Biopsy Techniques‬‬
‫‪• Suturing technique & other closure‬‬
‫‪materials‬‬
‫‪• Hemostasis‬‬
‫‪• Ellipse, ellipse variations & dos-ear‬‬
‫‪repairs‬‬
‫‪48.6 Skin Resurfacing‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪(William P. ColemanIII, Naomi Lawrence‬‬
‫)‪Skin Rejuvenation with skin filler (E.E.A. Derm‬‬
‫‪49.6‬‬
‫‪2003‬‬
‫)‪50.6 Techniques in Dematologic Surgery (Keyvan Nouri MD, Susana leal-Khouri MD‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪51.6 Textbook of Dermatology (Sixth Editions) (R.H. CHAMPION, J.L. BURTON, D.A.BURNS, S.M.BREATHNACH) (ROOK) (Software c Gention I.T. Consuliants Ltd.,) Version 1.2.0‬‬
‫ﻭﻳﺮﺍﻳﺶ ﺷﺸﻢ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ‪ Rook‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪ ٤‬ﺟﻠﺪ ﻭ ‪ ٣٦٨٣‬ﺻﻔﺤﻪ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻭﻳﺮﺍﻳﺶ ﺗﻤﺎﻡ ﻓﺼﻞﻫﺎ ﻣﺮﻭﺭ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺁﺧﺮﻳﻦ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺍﺿﺎﻓﻪ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺑﺴﻴﺎﺭﻱ ﺍﺯ ﻓﺼﻞﻫﺎ ﺑﺎﺯﻧﻮﻳﺴﻲ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﺣﺪﻭﺩ ‪ % ٢٥ -٣٠‬ﺭﻓﺮﺍﻧﺲﻫﺎ ﺟﺪﻳﺪ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﻨﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪ CD‬ﺣﺎﺿﺮ‪ ،‬ﺭﻭﺵ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ‪ ،‬ﺁﻧﺴﺘﺰﻱ ﻭ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ‪ Juvederm‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮ ‪ ،CD‬ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺁﻧﺴﺘﺰﻱ ﺑﺪﻭﻥ ﺍﻳﻨﻜﻪ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻣﺤﻴﻂ ﻧﺎﺣﻴﻪ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻴﻦ ﺑﺮﻭﺩ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺳﭙﺲ ﭘﺮﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﭼﻴﻦ ﻧﺎﺯﻭﺑﻴـﺎﻝ ﺑـﺎ ‪ Juvederm30‬ﻭ ﺳـﭙﺲ ﺍﻓـﺰﺍﻳﺶ ﺣﺠـﻢ ﻟـﺐ ﺑـﺎ ‪ Juvederm24‬ﻭ ﺍﺯ‬
‫ﺑﻴﻦﺑﺮﺩﻥ ﭼﺮﻭﻙﻫﺎﻱ ﻇﺮﻳﻒ ﺑﺎ ‪ Juvederm18‬ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺑﺎ ﻛﻴﻔﻴﺖ ﺑﺎﻻ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩﻛﻨﻨﺪﮔﺎﻥ ﺍﺯ ‪ CD‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻧﻨﺪ ﺍﺯ ﻋﻜﺲﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ‪ Slide Conference‬ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﻨﺪ‪ .‬ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺣﺎﺿﺮ ﺭﻓﺮﺍﻧﺲ ﺩﺳﺘﻴﺎﺭﻳﺎﻥ ﭘﻮﺳﺖ ﻭ ‪ Board certification‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫‪2000‬‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫)‪52.6 Textbook of Dermatology (Rook's‬‬
‫)‪(Seven Edition) (Volume 1-4) (E-Book‬‬
‫)‪53.6 Textbook of Pediatric Dermatology (JOHN HARPER ARNOLD ORANJE NEIL PROSE) (VOLUME 1 , 2‬‬
‫ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻓﻮﻕ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ﺗﺒﺪﻳﻞ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺧﺼﻮﺹ ‪ Pediatric dermatology‬ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻛﺜﺮ ﻛﺸﻮﺭﻫﺎ ﻳﻚ ‪ Subspeciality‬ﺟﺪﺍﮔﺎﻧﻪ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻣﺆﻟﻔﻴﻦ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻳﻚ ‪ encyclopedic text‬ﺩﺭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬
‫ﻼ ﻣﺸﺎﺑﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺭﻭﺵ ﻧﮕﺎﺭﺵ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ‪ (RooK) text book of general dermatology‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺍﻃﻔﺎﻝ ﺑﻪ ﻛﻤﻚ ‪ 185‬ﻣﺤﻘﻖ ﺍﺯ ﺳﺮﺍﺳﺮ ﺟﻬﺎﻥ ﮔﺮﺩﺁﻭﺭﻱ ﻛﺮﺩﻩﺍﻧﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ‪ board cerificaition‬ﺩﺭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺍﻃﻔﺎﻝ ﭘﺬﻳﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺭﻭﺵ ﻧﮕﺎﺭﺵ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻛﺎﻣ ﹰ‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺩﺭ ﺑﺮ ﮔﻴﺮﻧﺪﺓ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺍﺯ ﺩﻭﺭﺓ ﭘﺮﻩﻧﺎﺗﺎﻝ ﺗﺎ ‪ adolescent‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻣﺸﺘﻤﻞ ﺑﺮ ‪ ٢٩‬ﻓﺼﻞ ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻛﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺷﺎﻳﻊ ﻣﺎﻧﻨﺪ ‪ Psoriasis‬ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻧﺎﺩﺭ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﺁﺧﺮﻳﻦ ﭘﻴﺸﺮﻓﺖ ﺩﺭ ﮊﻧﺘﻴﻚ ﻣﻠﻜﻮﻟﻲ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺵﻫـﺎﻱ ﺩﺭﻣـﺎﻧﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳـﻦ‬
‫ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﮔﻨﭽﺎﻧﺪﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺑﺨﺶ ﻋﻔﻮﻧﻲ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺍﻧﺪﻣﻴﻚ ﻣﺎﻧﻨﺪ ﻟﭙﺮﻭﺯﻱ ﻭ ﻟﻴﺸﻤﺎﻧﻴﻮﺯ ﻭ ﺍﻧﺪﻣﻴﻚ ﺗﺮﭘﻮﻧﻮﻣﺎﺗﻮﺯ ﻭ ‪ ...‬ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻛﺘﺎﺏﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﺑﻪ ﺍﺧﺘﺼﺎﺭ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺍﻓﺮﺍﺩ ‪ ftrsthand knowledge‬ﺗﺤﺮﻳﺮ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺑﺨـﺶ ﻟﻴـﺰﺭ‬
‫ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﭘﻴﮕﻤﺎﻧﺘﻪ ﻭ ﻋﺮﻭﻗﻲ ﮔﻨﺠﺎﻧﺪﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ‪ Sedation‬ﻭ ﺑﻴﻬﻮﺷﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻃﻔﺎﻝ ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ Surgery‬ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ Surgery‬ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺳﺎﺩﻩ ﻭ ﭘﻴﭽﻴﺪﺓ ﺟﺮﺍﺣـﻲ ﻣﺸـﺘﻤﻞ ﺑـﺮ ‪ tissue expansion‬ﻭ‬
‫ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ‪ ،graft‬ﻛﺸﺖ ﻛﺮﺍﺗﻴﻨﻮﺳﻴﺖﻫﺎ‪ ،‬ﺗﺪﺍﺑﻴﺮ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻛﻠﻮﺋﻴﺪ‪ ،‬ﺍﺳﻜﺎﺭ ﻭ ﺳﻮﺧﺘﮕﻲ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻣﺸﺨﺼﺔ ﻣﻨﺤﺼﺮ ﺑﻪ ﻓﺮﺩ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻋﻜﺲﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺘﻨﺎﺑﻪ ﺑﺎ ﻛﻴﻔﻴﺖ ﺑﺎﻻ ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﻳﻚ ﺍﻃﻠﺲ ﭘﻮﺳﺖ ﺩﺭ ‪ Pediatric dermatology‬ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪ .‬ﻭ ﺑﻪ ﮔﻔﺘـﺔ‬
‫ﻣﺆﻟﻔﻴﻦ ﺗﻼﺵ ﺯﻳﺎﺩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻛﻪ ﺗﻈﺎﻫﺮﺍﺕ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻧﮋﺍﺩﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺣﺪﺍﻗﻞ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺷﺎﻳﻊ ﺟﻤﻊﺁﻭﺭﻱ ﮔﺮﺩﺩ‪.‬‬
‫‪The‬‬
‫‪Aging‬‬
‫‪Face‬‬
‫‪A‬‬
‫‪Systematic‬‬
‫‪Approach‬‬
‫‪(Calvin‬‬
‫‪M.‬‬
‫‪Johnson,‬‬
‫‪Jr.,‬‬
‫‪Ramsey‬‬
‫)‪Alsarraf‬‬
‫)‪(CD I , II‬‬
‫‪54.6‬‬
‫‪5. Closure‬‬
‫‪9. Closure‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫‪4. The Procerus and frontalis‬‬
‫‪7. Fat Removal‬‬
‫‪3. The Corrugator Muscles‬‬
‫‪5. Skin and Muscle‬‬
‫‪2. The Incision‬‬
‫‪3. Marking and Incision‬‬
‫‪y The Coronal Browlift: 1. Introduction‬‬
‫‪y Blepharoplasty:‬‬
‫‪1. Uooer Lids‬‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
39
2. Lower Lids
4. The Incision
6. Fant Removal
-The Deep Plane Facelift
-Marking and Incision
-Skin Elevation
-The Deep Plane
8. The Skin Pinch
-The Submental Region
-Resuspension
-Closure
55.6 Treatment of Skin Disease Comprehensive therapeutic Strategies (Mark G Lebwohl Warren R Heymann, John Berth-Jones, Ian Coulson) (SALEKAN E-BOOK) (MOSBY)
‫ ﻫﺮ ﻓﺼـﻞ ﺍﺯ‬.‫ ﭼﻪ ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺗﻲ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﭘﺮﺳﻴﺪﻩ ﺷﻮﺩ ﻭ ﭼﻪ ﺁﺯﻣﺎﻳﺸﺎﺗﻲ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﺩﺭﺧﻮﺍﺳﺖ ﮔﺮﺩﺩ‬.‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬management ‫ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﭘﻮﺳﺖ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ( ﻣﺸﻜﻞ ﺍﺻﻠﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺍﺟﻬﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻳﻚ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺑﻌﺪ ﺍﺯ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ‬+ ‫ ﺍﺳﺘﺮﺍﺗﮋﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ‬+ ‫ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﺣﺎﺿﺮ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺍﻃﻠﺲ‬
:‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻳﻚ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ )ﺑﻪ ﺗﺮﺗﻴﺐ ﺣﺮﻭﻑ ﺍﻟﻔﺒﺎ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺩﺳﺘﻴﺎﺑﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺁﺳﺎﻥ ﺑﻪ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ( ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﻫﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ﻭ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬
(specific investigations) ‫ ﺟﺪﻭﻝ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﻳﻨﻜﻪ ﭘﺰﺷﻚ ﭼﻪ ﺁﺯﻣﺎﻳﺸﺎﺕ ﭘﺎﺭﺍﻛﻠﻴﻨﻴﻜﻲ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺭﺧﻮﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻨﺪ‬-٣ (‫ )ﺩﺭ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻦ ﻭ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﻪ ﻭ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺣﺎﻝ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﭼﻪ ﻧﻜﺎﺗﻲ ﺟﺴﺘﺠﻮ ﺷﻮﺩ‬management strategy‫ ﺍﺳﺘﺮﺍﮊﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ‬-٢
‫ ﺧﻼﺻﻪﺍﻱ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ‬-١
‫ ﻧﺎﻡﮔﺬﺍﺭﻱ ﺷﺪﻩ‬A-E ‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻭ ﺍﻟﻮﻳﺖ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﻧﻮﻉ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌﺎﺕ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡﺷﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻘﺎﻻﺕ ﺍﺯ‬evidence-Based ‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺍﻟﻮﻳﺖﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ‬.‫ ﺧﻂ ﺳﻮﻡ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ( ﻧﻜﺘﺔ ﻣﺘﻤﺎﻳﺰﻛﻨﻨﺪﻩ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻧﺴﺒﺖ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺘﺎﺏﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﭘﻮﺳﺖ ﺍﻟﻮﻳﺖﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬،‫ ﺧﻂ ﺩﻭﻡ‬،‫ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ )ﺑﻪ ﺗﺮﺗﻴﺐ ﺧﻂ ﺍﻭﻝ‬-٤
‫ ﺳـﭙﺲ‬.‫( ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﭘﺰﺷﻚ ﻛﻤﻚ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﺪ ﺗﺎ ﺑﺘﻮﺍﻧﺪ ﺍﺭﺯﺵ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﻧﻮﻉ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌﻪ ﺑﻴﺎﻥ ﻛﻨـﺪ‬Clinical trial) ‫( ﻣﺸﺨﺼﻪ‬B) ‫( ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ‬double blind study) ‫( ﻣﺸﺨﺼﻪ‬A) ‫( ﻧﺎﻡﮔﺬﺍﺭﻱ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻛﻪ‬B) ‫( ﻭ ﺍﺳﭙﻴﺮﻭﻧﻮﺍﺭﻛﺘﻮﻥ‬A) ‫ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﻣﺜﺎﻝ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺁﻛﻨﻪ ﺍﺗﺮﻭﮊﺳﻦﻫﺎﻱ ﺧﻮﺭﺍﻛﻲ‬.‫ﺍﺳﺖ‬
.‫ﻼ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬
‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﻋﻜﺲﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﺎﻣ ﹰ‬٢١٣ ‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬.‫ﺧﻼﺻﻪ ﻣﻘﺎﻻﺕ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺩﺍﻣﻪ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺫﻛﺮ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
56.6 USING BOTULINUM TOXINS COSMETICALLY
(Jean Carruthers, Alastair Carruthers)
2002
2003
Introduction
Horizontal Forehead Lines
Periorbitalarea Infraorbital Orbicularis Oculi
MID and Lower Face Perioal Rhytides
Brow Injections Brow Lift
Periorbitalarea Lateral Orbital Wrinkles
MID and Lower Face Perioral Rhytides
MID and Lower Face Nasalis
Cervical Injections Vertical Platysmal Bands
Acknowledgemetns
MID and Lower Face Mouthe Frown and Mentalis
Cervical Injections Horizontal Necklace Lines
‫ ﺍﺭﺗﻮﭘﺪﻱ‬-٧
CD ‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ‬
1.7
A New Generation in Cemented Hip Design (VCD) (Part I , II) (David S. Hungerford, Clayton R. Perry)
Segment I: Core Decomtpression
2.7
3.7
Segment II: Trauma Case Studies: Retrograde Femoral Nailing
2001
AO Image Collection AO Principles of fracture Management (T.P. Ruedi, W.M. Murphy)
AO International AO Teaching Series-LCP (Thomas P. Ruedi, Prof. Michael Wagner)
Foreword-Basics
Methods of osteosynthesis
AO Principles
Biomechanical Principles
Surgical techniques
4.7
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
‫ــــــ‬
LCP system
Description
Implants and instruments
Application
Indications
Operating techniques
LCP cases
Humerus
Forearm
Pelvis and acetabulum
Femur
Tibia
Periprosthetic
2002
Literature and studies
Related Literature
Study results
2001
AO Principles of Fracture Management (Thomas P. Ruedi, William M. Murphy) (CD I , II)
1- AO philosophy and Its basis
2- Decision making and planning
3- Reduction and fixation techniques
4- Specific fractures
5- General topics
6- Complications
5.7
Arthroscopic Surgery (Michael J. Strobel)
‫ــــــ‬
6.7
Artthrex Techniques Transfix ACL Reconstruction (Eugene M. Wolf, San Francisco.CA)
‫ــــــ‬
7.7
Atlas of ORTHOPAEDIC Surgery A multimedia Refefence (Kenneth J. Koval, Joseph D. Zuckerman) (Textbook & Videos)
2004
8.7
Atlas of Orthopaedics Surgery (Disk 1-6)
‫ــــــ‬
Disk 1: Condylar Plate Fixation in the Distal Femur, Malleolar Fracture Fixation, Malleolar Fracture Type B, Malleolar Fracture Type C, Tension Band Wiring on the Elbow
Femoral Neck Rfacture Large Cannulated System, Fracture of the Radius Shaft 3.5 LC-DCP, Screw Fixation and Plating
Disk 2: Techniques of Absolute Stability, Proximal Humerus Fracture, Reduction with Clamps, Posterior Wall Fracture, Posteror + Transverse Wall Fracture,
Undeamed Tibial Nail (UTN), Intraaticular Fracture of the Distal Humerus
Disk 3: Fracture of the Tibiaplateau, Tibia Fracture in Foarm LEG UTN, Reduction Techniq, The Undeamed Femoral Nail System, Dynamic Condylar Screw (DCS),
Dynamic Hip Screw (DHS), Pilon Tibial Fractures (Foamed Foot)
Disk 4: Application of Large Distractor, AO Asif External Fixator, PC-FIX Point Contact Fixator an Internal Biologicl, The Proximal Femoral Nail (PFN),
Bicondylar Fracture of Tibia Plateau, Minimal Invasive Plating of the Tibia
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
40
Disk 5: Direct and Indirect Reduction Techniques, Short Oblique Radius Fracture, Small External Fixator, Intraarticular Fracture Distal Radius, Distal Radius,
Open Reduction & Fractures of the Calcaneus, Postoperative Treatment, Internal Fixation of a Humeral Shaft Fracture
Disk 6: High Cinematography of a Butterfly Fracture, Posterior, Pelvic Fixations Symphysis Pubis & Pubic Rami, Pelvic Fixations, Anterior Plate Fixation 53028,
The Pelvic C-Clamp, Liss Less Invasive Stabilization System, LCP Locking Compression Plate
Body in Motion (Susan K. Hillman)
-Anatomy -Content -Everything -Anatomy Text -Surface Anatomy Videos -Muscle Aciton Videos
10.7 Bone Tumors (Howard D. Dorfman, Bogdan Czerniak)
9.7
2003
‫ــــــ‬
11.7 CCC (Core Curriculum in Primary Care) Orthopedics/Sport Medicine Section
1- Introduction
2- Orthopedic Procedures: A Rheumatology's Perspective
12.7 Click'X VenttoFix SynCage
13.7 Diel's Knee Injuries
3- Xercise and Aging A Prescripton for life
4- Foot and Ankle Problems Part Two
(J. Webb, O. Schwarzenbach J. Thalgott) (VCD) (AO ASIF OFFICIAL TAPE)
(Ligament & Cartilage, Structure, Function, Injury, and Repair)
‫ــــــ‬
(Second Edition)
‫ــــــ‬
14.7 Double Socket Technique ACL/PCL Reconstruction Using Bio-Interference Screw Fixation & Anterior Tibialis Allograft
(David Caborn)
15.7 FRACTURES IN ADULTS (ROCKWOOD AND GREEN'S)
1- General Principles
2- Upper Extremity
3- Spine
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
4- Lower Extremity
16.7 FRACTURES IN CHILDREN General Principlse Upper Extremity Spine Lower Extremity (ROCKWOOD AND WILKINS) (James H. Beaty, James R. Kasser)
‫ــــــ‬
17.7 FRACTURES OF THE PELVIS AND ACETABULUM (G.F. Zinghi, A. Briccoli, P.Bungaro)
‫ــــــ‬
(Salekan E-Book)
18.7 Gait Analysis an introduction (Third Edition) An interactive multi-media presentation produced using polygon software (Micheal W. Whittle)
‫ــــــ‬
19.7 Green's OperativeHand Surgery (Fifth Edition) (David P. Green, Robert N. Hotchkiss) (CD I , II)
2005
33.1 Imaging of Spinal Trauma in Children (Lawrence R. Kuhns, M.D.) (University of Michigan Medical Center)
Epidemiology
Measurements
Occipitocervical Injuries
Principles AND TECHNIQUES
Normal Spine Variants and Anatomy
Mechanisms and Patterns of Injury
Thoracic Spine Injuries
Special Views and Techniques
Experimental and Necropsy Data
Sacral Injuries
20.7 Semi-Tendinous & Gracilis ACL Reconstruction with Gio-Interference Screws
21.7 Surgical Exposures in ORTHOPAEDICS
ATLAS OF SPINAL INJURIES IN CHILDREN
Cervcal Spine
Lumbar Spine
Thoracic Spine
Sacrococcygeal Spine
Lumbar
(Champ L. Baker, M.D)
Interactive
orthopaedics and Sport
Medicine
‫ــــــ‬
The Anatomic Approach (Stanley Hoppenfeld, Piet Deboer)
22.7 Techniques for Performing Hip Arthroscopy (Joseph McCarthy, Boston, Massachusetts)
23.7
___
1. Interactive Spine
2. Interactive Hand
3. Interactive hand therapy
4. Interactive Hip
5. Interactive Shoulder
6. Interactive Knee
7. Sports Injuries The Knee
8. Interactive Food and Ankle
9. Interactve Skeleton
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
10. Interactive HAND Therapy Edition (Version 1.1) (J C Colditz, D A McG Routher, J M Harris)
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
41
24.7 Internal Fixation of a Humeral Shaft Fracture with the UHN
-Technical Information
-Operation
-Postoperative Concept
-Poat-op –X-ray control
- Poat-op treatment
35.1 Magnetic Resonance Imaging in Orthopedics and Sport Medicine (David W. Stoller)
MRI ‫ ﺗﻬﻴﺔ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ‬-١
‫ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﻣﻮﺳﻜﻮﻟﻮﺍﺳﻜﻠﺘﺎﻝ‬Echo-Planar ‫ ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﺳﺎﺯﻱ‬-٢
‫ ﺯﺍﻧﻮ‬-٣
‫ ﺁﺭﻧﺞ‬-٤
Kinematic MRI -٥
‫ــــــ‬
(P.M.Rommens, J. Blum)
MRI ‫ ﺍﺛﺮﺍﺕ ﺑﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻚ ﻭ ﺍﻳﻤﻨﻲ ﺩﺭ‬-٦
‫ ﻋﻀﺮﻭﻑ ﻣﻔﺼﻠﻲ ﻭ ﺩﮊﻧﺮﺍﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﻋﻀﺮﻭﻓﻲ‬MRI -٧
‫ ﻣﭻ ﭘﺎ ﻭ ﭘﺎ‬-٨
‫ ﻣﭻ ﺩﺳﺖ ﻭ ﺩﺳﺖ‬-٩
‫ ﺳﺘﻮﻥ ﻓﻘﺮﺍﺕ‬-١٠
:‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺭﺗﻮﭘﺪﻱ ﻭ ﻃﺐ ﻭﺭﺯﺵ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻭ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‬MRI ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺭﺗﺒﺎﻁ ﺑﺎ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩ‬
‫ ﺳﻪﺑﻌﺪﻱ‬MRI ‫ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﺑﺎﺯﺳﺎﺯﻱ ﺟﻬﺖ‬-١١
(Hip) ‫ ﻣﻔﺼﻞ ﺭﺍﻥ‬-١٢
‫ ﺷﺎﻧﻪ‬-١٣
(TMJ) ‫ ﻣﻔﺼﻞ ﻛﻤﭙﻮﺭﻭﻣﺎﻧﺪﻳﺒﻮﻻﺭ‬-١٤
‫ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻐﺰ ﺍﺳﺘﺨﻮﺍﻥ‬MRI ‫ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﺑﺮﺩﺍﺭﻱ‬-١٥
‫ــــــ‬
‫ ﺗﻮﻣﻮﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺳﺘﺨﻮﺍﻥ ﻭ ﺑﺎﻓﺖ ﻧﺮﻡ‬-١٦
‫ ﺁﺳﻴﺒﻬﺎﻱ ﻋﻀﻼﻧﻲ‬MRI -١٧
25.7 MASTER TECHNIQUES IN ORTHOPAEDIC SURGERY RECONSTRUCTIVE KNEE SURGERY Southern California Center for Sports Medicine Long Beach, California (DOUGLAS W. JACKSON, M.D.)
‫ــــــ‬
:‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬CD ‫ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ ﺩﺭ ﺁﻥ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬serch ‫ ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ‬TEXT ‫ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺗﻤﺎﻣﻲ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ‬ebook ‫ ﻛﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻛﻞ ﻣﺘﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻓﻮﻕﺍﻟﺬﻛﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ﺗﺒﺪﻳﻞ ﺑﻪ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
PART IV INTRAARTICULAR FRACTURES OF THE TIBIA AND PATELLA
Operating Room Environment
Arthroscopic Management of Intraarticular Tibial Fractures
Arthroscopically-Assisted Fixation of Patella Fractures
Open Reduction Internal Fixation of Intraarticular Fractures of the Tibia
PART I EXTENSOR MECHANISM PATELLOFEMORAL PROBLEMS
Arthroscopic Lateral Release of the Patella with Electrocautery Anteromedial Tibial Tubercle
Transfer Patellectomy
PART II MENISCUS SURGERY
PART V ARTICULAR CARTILAGE AND SYNOVIUM
Meniscus Repair: The Outside-In Technique
Meniscus Repair: The Inside-Out Technique
Meniscus Repair: The All-Inside Arthroscopic Technique
Arthroscopic Chondroplasty
Osteochondritis Dissecans
Arthroscopic Synovectomy
PART III LIGAMENT INJURIES AND INSTABILITY
Anterior Cruciate Ligament Reconstruction
Arthroscope-Assisted Posterior Cruciate Ligament Repair/Reconstruction
Posterolateral Corner Collateral Ligament Reconstruction
Surgical Technique for Knee Dislocations
High Tibial Osteotomy in Knees with Associated Chronic Ligament Deficiencies
26.7 MATHYS ORTHOPAEDICS
(VCD) (Video-Atelier Othmar Keel AG)
-CCA - Straight Shaft -CCE -Vault Pan -CCB -Socket -CBC Stem -RM Cup
‫ــــــ‬
27.7 MATHYS-ORTHOPAEDICS HIP PROSTHESES (VCD)
‫ــــــ‬
1. Cemented Stem-CCA
2. Cemented Cup-CCB
3. Cementless Steam-CBC
4. Cementless Cup-RM Cup
28.7 OPERATIVE ORTHOPAEDICS
(CAMPBELL'S) (Tenth Edition) (Volume 1-4) (E-Book) (S. Terry Canale, MD)
Operative
Arthroscopy
(Third
Edition)
(John B. McGinty) (Lippincot, Williams & Wilkins)
29.7
Shoulder:
Arthroscopic Cuff Repair: -Mssive U-Shaped Tear: Subscapulais, Infraspinatus and Biceps (Stephen S. Burkhar, MD San Antonio, Texas)
-Partial: Repair of Oartial Articular Sufrace Rotator Cuff Tear (Stephen S. Burkhar, MD San Antonio, Texas), San Antonio, Texas
Slap Lesions:
-Arthroscopic Repair of the Slap Lesion (Stephen S. Burkhar, MD San Antonio, Texas)
Operative
Arthroscopy
(Third
Edition) (John B. McGinty) (Lippincot, Williams & Wilkins)
30.7
Hip: Southern Sport Medicine & Orthopaedic Center
Operative Hip Arthroscopy: -Dense Soft Tissue Envelope -Constrained Ball and Socket Anatomy
31.7 Operative Arthroscopy (Third Edition) (John B. McGinty) (Lippincot, Williams & Wilkins)
2003
2003
2003
-Thick Capsule, Limited Compliance
2003
Ankle: Ankle Arthroscopy (James Tasto M.D.)
- Ankle & Subtalar Arthroscopy
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
42
(Third Edition) (John B. McGinty) (Lippincot, Williams & Wilkins)
2003
Wrist: Wrist Arthroscopy (Robert Richards MD FRCSC)
-Portal Markings -Establishing the 3/4 Portal -Radiocarpal Arthroscopy
Carpal Tunnel Release
33.7 Operative Arthroscopy (Third Edition) (John B. McGinty) (Lippincot, Williams & Wilkins)
2003
32.7 Operative Arthroscopy
Knee (CD-1): Arthroscopic meniscal repair: -suture repair -implantable fixation
Knee (CD-2): -ACL -Complex articular surface injuries -Fractures -Patellofemoral
34.7 Operative Arthroscopy (SECOND EDITION) (John B. McGinty)
1- Basic Principles
2- The Knee
35.7 Operative Orthopaedics
3- The Shoulder
4- The Elbow
5- The Wrist
‫ــــــ‬
6- The Foot and Ankle
7- The Temporomandibular Joint
8- The Spine
9- The Hip
1999
(Ninth Edition) (CAMPBELL'S) (S. TERRY CANALE)
.‫ ﭼﺎﭖ ﺑﺎ ﺗﻤﺎﻣﻲ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻣﺮﺗﺒﻂ ﺑﺎ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬Serch ‫ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻛﻤﭙﻞ ﺍﺭﺗﻮﭘﺪﻱ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻭ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ‬TEXT ‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
2003
36.7 OPERATIVE ORTHOPAEDICS (CAMPBELL'S)
:‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬CD ‫ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻛﻤﭙﻞ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﻓﻴﻠﻢﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻳﻦ‬TEXT ‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻋﻤﻞﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻣﺮﺗﺒﻂ ﺑﺎ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
Trochanteric osteotomy-hip revision
Reconstruction nailing femoral fracture
Anterior Cervical discectomy & fusion
Arthroscopic assisted ACL reconstruction
Chevron osteotomy hallux valgus
Screw fixation SCFE
Ligament balancing Knee arthroplasty
Intramedullary nailing forearm fracture
ORIF calconeal fracture
2002
37.7 ORTHOPAEDIC SURGERY (Third Edition) (CHAPMAN)
- Surgical Principles and Techniques
- Sport Medicine
- Skeletal Disorders
- Fractures, Dislocations, Nonunions and Malunions
- Neoplastic, Infectious
- The Spine
38.7 PEDIATRIC ORTHOPAEDICS (Lovell and Winter's)
- The Hand
- Neurologic and Other
- Pediatric Disorders
(Fifth edition) (Salekan E-Book)
KYPHOSIS
THE UPPER LIMB
SPONDYLOLYSIS AND SPONDYLOLISTHESIS
DEVELOPMENTAL HIP DYSPLASIA AND DISLOCATION
THE CERVICAL SPINE
LEG LENGTH DISCREPANCY
SPORTS MEDICINE IN CHILDREN AND ADOLESCENTS
LEGG-CALVE-PERTHES SYNDROME
THE FOOT
MANAGEMENT OF FRACTURES
39.7 PEDIATRIC Fractures & Dislocations
- The Foot
- Joint Reconstruction, Arthritis, and Arthroplasty
(Volume II)
SLIPPED CAPITAL FEMORAL EPIPHYSIS
DEVELOPMENTAL COXA VARA, TRANSIENT SYNOVITIS,
AND IDIOPATHIC CHONDROLYSIS OF THE HIP
THE LOWER EXTREMITY
THE LIMB-DEFICIENT CHILD
THE ROLE OF THE ORTHOPAEDICS IN CHILD ABUSE
(Lutz von laer, Former Director of trauma division basel pediatric hospital)
40.7 Photographic manual of Regional Orthopaedic and Neurological Tests
45.1 Radiology imaging Bank:
1. Section
2. History
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
(Ron Seymour)
Orthopeadic
3. Findings
4. Diagnosis
5. Images
2004
‫ــــ‬
.‫ ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﻣﺤﻞ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﻪ ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻭ ﻗﺴﻤﺖﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﺷﺪﻩﺍﻧـﺪ‬.‫ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺍﻗﻊ ﻟﺰﻭﻡ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻴﻚ ﺿﺮﻭﺭﻱ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺍﺿﺎﻓﻪ ﺷﺪﻩﺍﻧﺪ‬.‫ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺗﻤﺎﻡ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﺎﺕ ﻧﻮﺭﻭﻟﻮﮊﻳﻚ ﻭ ﺍﺭﺗﻮﭘﺪﻳﻚ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺎ ﺟﺰﺋﻴﺎﺕ ﺗﻤﺎﻡ ﺭﻭﺷﻦ ﻣﻲﺳﺎﺯﺩ‬٨٥٠ ‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺑﻴﺶ ﺍﺯ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
‫ ﺩﺭ ﺿـﻤﻦ ﻳـﻚ‬.‫ ﺩﺭ ﻳﻚ ﺻﻔﺤﻪ ﻳﺎ ﺩﻭ ﺻﻔﺤﻪ ﻣﻘﺎﺑﻞ ﻫﻢ ﺑﺎ ﻋﻜﺲﻫﺎﻳﻲ ﻛﻪ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨـﻪ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻮﺿـﻮﺡ ﻧﺸـﺎﻥ ﻣـﻲﺩﻫﻨـﺪ ﺗﻮﺿـﻴﺢ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷـﺪﻩ ﺍﺳـﺖ‬Test ‫ ﻫﺮ‬.‫ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﺎﺕ ﺍﺯ ﻓﻘﺮﺍﺕ ﮔﺮﺩﻧﻲ ﻭ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﻡ ﻓﻮﻗﺎﻧﻲ ﺷﺮﻭﻉ ﻭ ﺑﻪ ﻓﻘﺮﺍﺕ ﻛﻤﺮﻱ ﻭ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﻡﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺤﺘﺎﻧﻲ ﺧﺘﻢ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﻧﺪ‬
.‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻜﺎﺭﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺗﺴﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺣﺴﺎﺳﺘﺮ ﻭ ﺍﺧﺘﺼﺎﺹﺗﺮ ﻛﻤﻚ ﻓﺮﺍﻭﺍﻥ ﺑﻪ ﭘﺰﺷﻚ ﻣﻲﻧﻤﺎﻳﺪ‬.‫ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻫﺮ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﻪ ﺗﻌﺮﻳﻒ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﻣﻴﺰﺍﻥ ﺣﺴﺎﺳﻴﺖ ﻭ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ ﺍﻋﺘﻤﺎﺩ ﺑﻪ ﺁﻥ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﻪ ﺭﺍ ﻣﺸﺨﺺ ﻣﻲﺳﺎﺯﺩ‬Sensitivity/Relialility Scale
41.7 Podiatric Medicine and Surgery (Stephen Kriss, Alan Sherman, Harold W. Vogler, Trevor Prior)
42.7 Practical Otrhopaedic Medicene (Brain Corrigan, G.D,. Maitland)
43.7 Prosthetics & Orthotics Lower Limb & spinal
2001
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
6. Classification
7. Imagenumber
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
43
44.7
Range of Motion-AO Neutral-O Method
45.7 Shoulder Arthroscopy
46.7
‫ــــــ‬
(DR. L. Lafosse Annecy)
SPINE (VCD 1-A) (J. o' Dowd, P. Moulin, E. Morscher P. Moutin, J. Webb, M. Aebi)
‫ــــــ‬
Pedicie Identification (Conultant: J. O'Dowd)
Cervical Spine Locking Plate: Corporectomy C6 (P. Moulin)
CS-Titanium Locking Plate (E. Morscher P.Moutin)
Cervical Spine Locking Plate (P. Moulin)
Cervical Spine Locking Plate
Vertebrectomy C6 (J. Webb, M. Aebi)
Posterior Cervical Plate Fixation ( C2-T1) ( j.wEBB, M.Aebi)
Posterior Plating Technique
C6 to T1 (J. Webb, M.Aebi)
47.7 SPINE (VCD 1-B) (M. Aebi, J. Webb, Ghr. Ulrich, J. Nothwang, B. Jeanneret, M. Aebi J. Webb, J. Webb, M. Aebi P. Bryne)
AnteriorFixation of the Dens with Cannulated Screws ( M. Aebi, J. Webb Ghr. Ulrich, J. Nothwang)
Cervix: Fixation C3-C7 in Presenceb of a Laminectomy ( B. Jeanneret)
U.S.S: Lumbar Degenrrative Scotiosis Side-Opening Pedicte Screws (M.Aebi J.Webb)
U.S.S: Lumbosacral Stabilisation: Back-Opening Pedicte Screws (M. Aebi J. Webb)
USS: Lumbosacral Fusion Sacral Implants (J. Webb M.Aebi P.Bryne)
48.7 SPINE (VCD 1-C) (J. Webb, M. Aebi, G.Wisner, J. Webb M. Aebi, J. Webb M. Aebi, J. O'Dowd)
USS: Lumbosacral Stabilisation Side Opening Pedicle Screws
(J.Webb, M.Aebi, G. Winsner)
Universal Spine System Thoraco - Lumbar
Fractures (J. Webb M. Aebi)
‫ــــــ‬
Universal Spine
System:
Right Thoracic Scoliosis: Side Opening hooks & Screws
(J.Webb, M.Aebi, J.O'Dowd)
49.7 SPINE (VCD 1-D) (J. Webb, O. Schwarzenbach, J. Thalgott & J. Webb, J. Webb)
Click'X (J.Webb)
‫ــــــ‬
The Snterior Rod System (J.Thalgott & J.Webb)
50.7 SPINE implants
‫ــــــ‬
Contact Fusion Cage (J.Webb)
(CD I , II)
‫ــــ‬
.‫ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻭ ﺑﻪﻛﺎﺭﮔﺬﺍﺷﺘﻦ ﭘﺮﻭﺗﺰﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻬﺮﻩ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﻭ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﻛﺎﻣﻠﻲ ﺭﺍﺟﻊ ﺑﻪ ﭘﺮﻭﺗﺰﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺎﻧﺸﻴﻦ ﺟﺴﻢ ﻣﻬﺮﻩ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬CD ‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬: CD I
.‫ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﻣﻬﺮﻩﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﻤﺮﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﺗﺮﻭﻣﺎﺗﻴﻚ ﻭ ﺍﺳﻜﻮﺍﻧﻴﻮﺭ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬Diapasone-hook ‫ ﻧﺤﻮﻩ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻭ ﺑﻜﺎﺭﮔﺬﺍﺷﺘﻦ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ‬CD ‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬: CD II
1999
51.7 Surgery of the Foot and Ankle (Michael J. Coughlin, Roger A. Mann)
Volume One:
1. General Considerations
2. The forefoot
Volume Two:
1. Miscellaneous Disorders
52.7 Surgery of the Knee
3. Postural Disorders
2. Sports Medicine
3. Pediatrics
4. Neurologic Disorders
5. Arthritic Conditions
4. Trauma
2001
(Third Edition) (John N. Insall, W. Norman Scott)
1- VIDEO
2- PHOTOS
3- ILLUSTRATIONS
- Anatomy
-Anatomical Aberrations
4- 3D KNEE
-Biomechanics
-Imaging
5-IMAGING
-Surgical Approaches
53.7 The Adult Hip On CD
‫ــــــ‬
54.7 The Shoulder (2
‫ــــــ‬
nd
Edition) (Rockwood and Matsen)
1- Disorders of the Acromiocavicular Joint
2- Disorders of the Sternoclavicular Joint
55.7 The Unreamed Femoral Nail System
( R Texhammar,
‫ــــــ‬
AO/ASIF VCD (CD 1-10)
‫ــــــ‬
P Holzach)
AO/ASIF Instrumentation Care and Maintenance
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
4- Glenohumeral Arthritis and Its Management
(N. Sudkamp P. Duwelius)
56.7 Video Collection Labor for Experimental Orthopaedics Surgery
VCD 1-A
3- Glenohumeral Instability
PreOperative Preparation of the Patient
Approaches to the Femur, Pelvis Knee and Elbow
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
44
VCD 1-B
(P Matter M.D., S.M. Perren, B Noesberger)
Approach to the Proximal Femur and Elbow
After-Care Following Lower Leg Surgery
Dynamic Compression Unit
Approaches to the Upper Limb
Reduction Techniques
DCP 4.5 Compression Tibial Shaft
VCD 1-C (B Noesberger, J.Stadler, P. Holzach, Th. Ruedi)
DCP 4.5 Butterss Tibial Plateau
LC-DCP 4.5 for the Distal Tbia
DCP 3.5 Radius Shaft 3.5 LC-DCP
DCP 4.5 Neutralization Plate of a Spiral Fracture
Fracture of the Radius Shaft 3.5 LC-DCP with Shaft screws
VCD 2-A (S.M. Perren, K.M. Pfeiffer M.D.)
. Correctional Osteotomy (dist. Radius)
. Basic Lag Screw Techniques . Internal Fixation of a Closed Butterfly Fracture of Right Tibia (Operation Video)
VCD 2-B (Th. Ruedi, J. Mast M.D., P.E Ochsner)
Fracture of the Lateral Tibiaplateau
Pilon Fracture
Indirect Reduction and Plate Fixation of a Pilon Fracture
Malleolar fracture Type A
Malleolar Fracture Type B
Malleolar Fracture Type C
VCD 2-C (T.Ruedi, P.Holzach, Th. Ruedi M. Schuler, P. Hozach, P Regazzoni, Th. Ruedi M.D.)
Proximal Humerus Fracture
Distal Humerus Fracture Type C 1.3
VCD 3-A
Tension Band Wiring of the Elbow
Dynamic Hip Screw
Intaarticular Type C Fracture of the Distal Humerus
Dynamic Condylar Screw (DCS) Proximal Femur
Condylar Plate Fixation in the Distal Femur
(R. Ganz R.P. Jakob P.Koch, Th Ruedi M.D., P.Regazzoni)
Condylar Plate Proximal Femur
Large Cannulated Screw System
AO/ASIF External Fixator
VCD 3-B
Small External Fixator
Distractor Handling
Consultant Seija Pearson
VCD 3-C
Using the Small Air Drill
Compact Air Drive Basic Operating Procedure & Working with attachments
Intramedullary Nailing with the AO/ASIF Universal Femoral Nail
(R. Frigg, D. Hontzsch, Th. Ruedi)
The Interlocking of the Universal Femoral Intramedullary Nail
Opening Procedure of the Tibial Cavity for Intramedullary Nailing
The Universal Tibial Nail
VCD4
AO Universal Femoral Nail With Distractor
Intramedullary Nailing of the Tibia
Intramedullary Nailing of the Tibia with a Pseudarthrosis
Mid-Shaft Tibial Fracture Locked Universal Nail
(R. Frigg, Ch. Krettek)
UTN Unreamed Tibial Nail
Distal Aiming Device for UTN
‫ ﭼﺸﻢﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬-٨
CD ‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ‬
3.8
4.8
5.8
6.8
7.8
BASIC AND CLINICAL
SCIENCE COURSE
2.8
AMERICAN ACADEMY OF
OPHTHALMOLOGY
1.8
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
Section 1:
Update on General Medicine
2004-2005
Section 2:
Fundamentals and Principles of Ophthalmology
2004-2005
Section 3:
Optics, Refraction, and Contact Lenses
2004-2005
Section 4:
Ophthalmic Pathology and Intraocular Tumors
2004-2005
Section 5:
Neuro-Ophthalmolog
2004-2005
Section 6:
Pediatric Ophthalmology and Strabismus
2004-2005
Section 7:
Orbit, Eyelids, and Lacrimal System
2004-2005
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
‫‪45‬‬
‫‪2004-2005‬‬
‫‪External Disease and Cornea‬‬
‫‪Section 8:‬‬
‫‪8.8‬‬
‫‪2004-2005‬‬
‫‪Intraocular Inflammation and Uveitis‬‬
‫‪Section 9:‬‬
‫‪9.8‬‬
‫‪2004-2005‬‬
‫‪Glaucoma‬‬
‫‪Section 10:‬‬
‫‪10.8‬‬
‫‪2004-2005‬‬
‫‪Lens and Cataract‬‬
‫‪Section 11:‬‬
‫‪11.8‬‬
‫‪2004-2005‬‬
‫‪Retina and Vitreous‬‬
‫‪Section 12:‬‬
‫‪12.8‬‬
‫‪2004-2005‬‬
‫‪International Ophthalmology‬‬
‫‪Section 13:‬‬
‫‪13.8‬‬
‫‪2004-2005‬‬
‫‪Refractive Surgery‬‬
‫‪Section 14:‬‬
‫‪14.8‬‬
‫‪2004-2005‬‬
‫‪Master INDEX‬‬
‫‪INDEX‬‬
‫‪15.8‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪(T.A. Casey, K.W. Sharif‬‬
‫‪16.8 A Color Atlas of CORNEAL DYSTROPHIES & DEGENERATIONS‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪17.8 A Color Atlas of UVEITIS (J. Michelson) (Second Edition‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪18.8 A Practical Guide to Minimal Surgery for Retinal Detachment (Ingrid Kreissig‬‬
‫‪2001‬‬
‫)‪19.8 Atlas of Clinical Oncology Tumors of the Eye and Ocular Adnexa (American Cancer Society) (Devron H. Char, MD‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪:‬‬
‫‪4- ORBITAL TUMORS‬‬
‫‪3- RETINAL AND OPTIC NERVEHEAD TUMORS‬‬
‫‪2- UVEAL AND INTRAOCULAR TUMORS‬‬
‫‪1- LID AND CONJUNCTIVAL TUMORS‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪20.8 ATLAS OF OPHTALMOLOGY (RICHARD K. PARRISG II) (CD I , II) (Mosby‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪21.8 ATLAS OF OPHTHALOMOLGY (SUE FORDRONALD MARSH) (Mosby‬‬
‫‪2003‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ﺍﺭﺯﺵ ﻳﻚ ﺍﻃﻠﺲ ﺧﻮﺏ ﺩﺭ ﺗﻤﺎﻣﻲ ﺷﺎﺧﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻋﻠﻢ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺧﺼﻮﺻﹰﺎ ﭼﺸﻢﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻛﺎﻣ ﹰ‬
‫ﻼ ﻣﻌﻠﻮﻡ ﻭ ﻣﺸﺨﺺ ﺑﻮﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌﺔ ﻛﺘﺐ ‪ text‬ﺑﺪﻭﻥ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻫﻲ ﺍﻃﻠﺲﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﺗﺄﺛﻴﺮ ﻭ ﻛﺎﺭﺁﺋﻲ ﻻﺯﻡ ﺭﺍ ﻧﺨﻮﺍﻫﺪ ﺩﺍﺷﺖ‪CD .‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﺫﻳﻞ ﻛـﻪ ﺣـﺎﻭﻱ ﻣﻌﺘﺒﺮﺗـﺮﻳﻦ ﻭ ﺷـﻨﺎﺧﺘﻪﺷـﺪﻩﺗـﺮﻳﻦ‬
‫ﺍﻃﻠﺲﻫﺎﻱ ﭼﺸﻢﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﻨﺪ‪ ،‬ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ ﺗﻮﺍﻧﺎﺋﻲ ﺑﺰﺭﮔﻨﻤﺎﻳﻲ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺗﺎ ﭼﻨﺪﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﺍﺑﺮ ﺑﺪﻭﻥ ﻛﺎﺳﺘﻪﺷﺪﻥ ﺍﺯ ﻛﻴﻔﻴﺖ ﺑﻲﻧﻈﻴﺮ ﺁﻥ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ ‪ Search‬ﻭ ﺟﺴﺘﺠﻮﻱ ‪ Case‬ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻧﻈﺮ ﺩﺭ ﻛﻤﺘﺮﻳﻦ ﺯﻣﺎﻥ ﻣﻤﻜﻦ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﻨﺪ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻛﻨﺎﺭﺩﺍﺷﺘﻦ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺍﻃﻠﺲﻫﺎ ﭼﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻫﻨﮕﺎﻡ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ‬
‫ﻭ ﻳﺎﺩﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺩﻭﺭﺓ ﺩﺳﺘﻴﺎﺭﻱ ﻭ ﭼﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻫﻨﮕﺎﻡ ‪ Practice‬ﻭ ﻣﻮﺍﺟﻪ ﺑﻪ ‪Case‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﻧﺴﺒﺘﹰﺎ ﻧﺎﺩﺭ ﺩﺭ ﻛﻠﻴﻨﻴﻚ ﺑﺴﻴﺎﺭ ﻣﻔﻴﺪ ﻭ ﻛﻤﻚﻛﻨﻨﺪﻩ ﺧﻮﺍﻫﺪ ﺑﻮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫)‪22.8 Basic and Clinical Science Course Retina and Vitreous (Section 12) (American Academy of Ophthalmology) (SALEKAN E-BOOK‬‬
‫‪23.8 Basic Ophthalmology‬‬
‫‪Physiology of the Eye‬‬
‫)‪24.8 OPHTHALMOLOGY (Myron Yanoff.Jay S. Duker) (Mosby‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD ٣‬ﺑﻪ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻭ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﭼﺸﻢ ﻭ ﺭﺍﻫﻬﺎﻱ ﺑﻴﻨﺎﺋﻲ‪ ،‬ﻣﻜﺎﻧﻴﺴﻢ ﻋﻴﻮﺏ ﺍﻧﻜﺴﺎﺭﻱ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﭼﺸﻢ ﺩﺭ ﺳﻄﺢ ﻧﻴﺎﺯ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﺠﻮﻳﺎﻥ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‪ ،‬ﭘﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ ﻋﻤﻮﻣﻲ ﻭ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺺ ﺩﺭ ﺳﺎﻳﺮ ﺭﺷﺘﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻣﻲﭘﺮﺩﺍﺯﺩ‪ .‬ﺩﻳﺪﻥ ﺍﺷﻜﺎﻝ ﺷﻤﺎﺗﻴﻚ ﺯﻳﺒـﺎ ﻭ ﻧﻴـﺰ ‪25.8‬‬
‫ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﭼﺸﻤﻲ ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪CD‬ﻫﺎ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﻣﺤﺘﺮﻡ ﭼﺸﻢﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺧﺎﻟﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻟﻄﻒ ﻧﺨﻮﺍﻫﺪ ﺑﻮﺩ‬
‫)‪Cataract Surgery & Intraocular Lenses (Second Edition) (Jerry G. Ford, Carol L. Karp‬‬
‫‪Clinical update course on Retina‬‬
‫‪26.8‬‬
‫‪27.8‬‬
‫‪ CD‬ﻓﻮﻕ ﺍﺯ ﺳﺮﻱ ‪CD‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ‪ (Lifelong education for the ophthalmologist) LEO‬ﻣﺘﻌﻠﻖ ﺑﻪ ﺁﻛﺎﺩﻣﻲ ﭼﺸﻢﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺁﻣﺮﻳﻜﺎ )‪ (AAO‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻗﺎﻟﺐ ‪ Lecture ١٥‬ﻭ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ‪ ،‬ﻣﺮﻭﺭﻱ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ ﺑﺮ ﺟﺪﻳﺪﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﻣﺘـﺪﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺭﻣـﺎﻧﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻓﻴﻠـﺪ ﻭ ﺗﻴـﺮﻩ ﻭ‬
‫ﺭﺗﻴﻦ‪ .‬ﺍﺯ ﺟﻤﻠﻪ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻣﻄﺮﺡﺷﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﺑﻪ ﺷﻴﻮﻩﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ‪ endophthalmitis ،macular hole ،BRVO ،DR ،AMD‬ﻭ ‪ ...‬ﺍﺷﺎﺭﻩ ﻧﻤﻮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪28.8 Clinical Update Course on Neuro-ophthalmology (Peter J. Savino, MD, Steven E. Feldon. MD, Barrett Katz, MD, Thmas L. Slamovits, MD‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺑﻪ ﻣﻌﺮﻓﻲ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﮔﻠﻮﻛﻮﻡ ﻭ ﺁﺧﺮﻳﻦ ﭘﻴﺸﺮﻓﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺣﺎﺻﻠﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﻣﻲﭘﺮﺩﺍﺯﺩ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻗﺎﻟﺐ ‪ Lecture ٩‬ﺍﺯ ﺍﺳﺘﺎﺩﺍﻥ ﺻﺎﺣﺐﻧﺎﻡ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺭﺷﺘﻪ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳـﺖ‪ .‬ﺍﺯ ﺟﻤﻠـﻪ ﻣﺒﺎﺣـﺚ ﻣﻬـﻢ ﺁﻣـﻮﺯﺵ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷـﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳـﻦ ‪ CD‬ﻣـﻲﺗـﻮﺍﻥ ﺑـﻪ‬
‫‪ LTP ،Perimetry‬ﻭ ‪ CPC‬ﺍﺷﺎﺭﻩ ﻧﻤﻮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫)‪29.8 Clinical Orthptics (Second Edition) (SALEKAN E-BOOK‬‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
46
30.8 Clinical Pathways in Bitreoretinal Disease
___
(Scott M. Steidl, Mary Elizabeth Hartnett)
2004
31.8 Clinical Practice in Small Incision Cataract Surgery (Phaco Manual) (VCD I , II)
32.8 Complications in Phacoemulsification
‫ــــ‬
(SALEKAN E-BOOK)
‫ ﺍﺷـﻜﺎﻝ ﺷـﻤﺎﺗﻴﻚ ﻭ‬.‫ ﺷﻴﻮﺓ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻮﻗﻊ ﻭ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺑﺮﺧﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺎ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﻣﻲﭘـﺮﺩﺍﺯﺩ‬،‫ ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ ﺍﺣﺘﻤﺎﻟﻲ‬، Phaco ‫ … ﺗﻤﺎﻣﹰﺎ ﺑﻪ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻜﻬﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ‬, H. Gimbel ، H. Fine ‫ ﻫﺎﻱ ﺣﺎﻝ ﺣﺎﺿﺮ ﺩﺭ ﺩﻧﻴﺎ ﻣﻦﺟﻤﻠﻪ‬phacosurgen ‫ﺑﻪ ﻗﻠﻢ ﺑﺮﺟﺴﺘﻪﺗﺮﻳﻦ‬
.‫ ﺁﻥﻫﺎ ﺑﺴﻴﺎﺭ ﻛﻤﻚﻛﻨﻨﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﻧﻮﻉ ﺧﻮﺩ ﺑﻲﻧﻈﻴﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‬management ‫ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﺁﻥ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺭﻙ ﻣﻜﺎﻧﺴﻢ ﻭ ﻋﻠﺖ ﺑﺮﻭﺯ ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ ﻭ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﭘﻴﺸﮕﻴﺮﻱ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ‬
33.8 CONTACT LENS COMPLICATIONS Efron Grading Morphs For the clinical assessment of contact lens complications (NATHAN EFRON, PHILIP MORGAN)
papillary ، epithelial microcystes ،epithelial polymegethism ‫ ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺿﻲ ﭼﻮﻥ‬Grading ‫ ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻧﺎﺷﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩ ﻟﻨﺰﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﻤﺎﺳﻲ ﻭ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﭘﻴﺸﺮﻓﺖ ﻭ ﺳﻴﺮ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺗﻲ ﺑﺴﻴﺎﺭ ﺯﻳﺒﺎ ﻭ ﺑﻴﺎﺩﻣﺎﻧﺪﻧﻲ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ ﺑﻄﻮﺭﻳﻜﻪ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
.‫ ﻣﻴﺴﺮ ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﺩ‬... ‫ ﻭ‬conjunctivitis
1999
34.8
‫ــــــ‬
Cosmetic Blepharolasty & Facial Rejuvenation (Stephen L. Bosniak, M.D.,)
35.8 Dodick Laser Photolysis (Ultra Small Incision Cataract Surgery) (Jack M. Dodik)
‫ــــ‬
Journal of Cataract & Refractive Surgery Surgical Cases Provided by Photolysis System Manufacturer
36.8 Diabetes And The Eye
(Hamish MA Towler, Julian A Patterson, Susan Lightman) Department of Clinical Ophthalmology Institute of Ophthalmology University College London
‫ ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ‬.‫ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬text ‫ ﻭ ﺑﺎﻻﺧﺮﻩ ﻟﻴﺰﺭﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﻳﻚ ﺭﻭﺵ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﻬﻢ ﺑﻪ ﻛﻤﻚ ﻋﻜﺲ ﻭ‬Fluorescein angiography ‫ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ ﻣﻦﺟﻤﻠﻪ‬،‫ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬.‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﻧﻤﺎﻳﺪ‬diabetic retinopathy ‫ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺟﺎﻣﻌﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻘﻮﻟﺔ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
.‫ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺭ ﺁﻥ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬Seff-test ‫ ﻣﺬﻛﻮﺭ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ‬CD
37.8 Diagnosing & Treating Computer-Related Vision Problems
__
(Sheedy, Shaw-McMinn)
2000
38.8 DICTIONARY OF VISUAL SCIENCE AND RELATED CLINICAL TERMS (Henry W. Hofstetter, John R. Griffin, Morris S. Berman, Ronald W. Everson)
‫ــــ‬
39.8 Diseas of the Orbit A multimedia Approach (second Edition)
2004
40.8 Duane’s Ophthalmology (Foundations of clinical Ophthalmology) (LIPPINCOTT-RAVEN)
41.8 Endoscopic Dacryocystorhinostomy (DCR) Advantages and Indications
42.8 EENT
(David I. Silbert, MD FAAP)
(CD I , II)
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
Welch Allyn Institute of Interactive Learning
43.8 European Society of Cataract & Refractive Surgeons
2000
ROME
2005
9th ESCRS Winter Refractive Surgery Meeting
44.8 Endoscopic Laser Assisted Lacrimal Surgery (Russel S. Gonnering, MD) (VCD)
‫ــــ‬
.‫ ﻓﻮﺍﻳﺪ ﺁﻥ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻣﻲﻧﻤﺎﻳﺪ‬،‫ ﺑﻪ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺷﻴﻮﻩ ﻛﻤﺘﺮ ﺗﻬﺎﺟﻤﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻣﺠﺎﺭﻱ ﺍﺷﻜﻲ ﭘﺮﺩﺍﺧﺘﻪ‬VCD ‫ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﺑﺤﺚﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﻳﺎﺩﻱ ﺑﺮﺍﻧﮕﻴﺨﺘﻪ ﻭ ﻣﺨﺎﻟﻔﺎﻥ ﻭ ﻣﻮﺍﻓﻘﺎﻥ ﺯﻳﺎﺩﻱ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‬endoscopic laser ‫ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﻻﻛﺮﻳﻤﺎﻝ ﺑﻪ ﻛﻤﻚ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﻧﺴﺒﺘﹰﺎ ﺟﺪﻳﺪ‬
45.8 Enucleation Techniques With MEDPOR Orbital Implant
MCP Placement in a Vascularized MEDPOR Implant (VCD) (Charles N. S. Soparker, Peter A. D.)
Natural Movement For Artificial Eyes With MEDPOR Biomaterial Orbit Implants ans the MEDPOR MPC Motility Coupling Post (VCD) (POREX)
46.8 Orbital Floor reconstruction using MEDPOR surgical implants
‫ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻧﺘﻬـﺎﺏ ﺑـﻪ‬
MEDPOR
‫ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺑـﻪ ﻃﺮﻳﻘـﺔ ﻛﺎﺷـﺖ ﺍﻳﻤﭙﻼﻧـﺖ‬، enucleation ‫ﺍﻭﻝ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﺑﻪ ﺭﻭﺵ ﻫﺎﻱ‬
CD
٢ . ‫ﺭﺍ ﺩﺭ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺮﻣﻴﻤﻲ ﺍﺭﺑﻴﺖ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻣﻲ ﺩﻫﻨﺪ‬
MEDPOR
‫ﻓﻮﻕ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋ ﺎﹰ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﺎﺷﺖ ﺍﻳﻤﭙﻼﻧﺘﻬﺎﻱ‬
VCD
‫ــــ‬
٣
47.8 MEDPOR Surgical implant ‫ ﺳﻮﻡ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺗﺮﻣﻴﻢ ﻭ ﺑﺎﺯﺳﺎﺯﻱ ﺩﻓﻜﺖ ﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﻒ ﺍﺭﺑﻴﺖ ﺑﻪ ﻛﻤﻚ‬CD ‫ ﻗﺎﺑﻞ ﻗﺒﻮﻝ ﺁﻥ ﺭﺍ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﻣﻲ ﺩﻫﺪ ﺩﺭ‬Motility ‫ ﻣﻲ ﭘﺮﺩﺍﺯﺩ ﻭ‬MCP ‫ ﻭ‬implant ‫ ﺁﻥ ﻭ ﻗﺮﺍﺭﺩﺍﺩﻥ ﭘﺮﻭﺗﺰ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﺭﻭﻱ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﺔ‬drilling
. ‫ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲ ﺷﻮﺩ‬
48.8 Essentials of Ophthalmic Lens Finishing
(Clifford W. Brooks)
16.2 Facial Plastic & Reconstructive Surgery
‫ــــــ‬
(Terence M. Davidson, MD) (VCD I , II)
49.8 FUNDAMENTALS OF CORMEAL TOPOGRAPHY
‫ﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺣﺘﻤﺎﻟﻲ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺳﻴﺮ ﺗﻐﻴﻴﺮﺍﺕ ﺗﻮﭘﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﻭ ﺣﺎﻻﺕ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻗﺮﻧﻴﻪ ﺑﻄﻮﺭ‬artefact ،‫ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﻃﺒﻴﻌﻲ ﻭ ﻏﻴﺮﻃﺒﻴﻌﻲ‬،‫ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺗﻔﺴﻴﺮ ﺗﻮﭘﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﻗﺮﻧﻴﻪ‬،‫ ﻣﻜﺎﻧﻴﺴﻢ ﻭ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﻋﻤﻠﻜﺮﺩ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ‬.‫ ﺟﻤﻌﹰﺎ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻛﺎﻣﻠﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺗﻮﭘﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﻗﺮﻧﻴﻪ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﻨﺪ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺩﻭ‬
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
47
.‫ ﺗﻮﺻﻴﻪ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬OSCE ‫ ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩ ﻛﻠﻴﻨﻴﻜﻲ ﺁﻥ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺷﺮﻛﺖ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻣﺘﺤﺎﻧﺎﺕ‬CD ‫ ﺑﻬﺮﻩﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺩﻭ‬.‫ﺟﺎﻣﻊ ﻭ ﻗﺎﺑﻞ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩﺍﻱ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
50.8 Glaucoma Basic and Clinical Science Course (Section 10)
2003
(Salekan E-Book)
2000
51.8 Hereditary Retinal Dystrophies (Ulrich Kellner, Markus Ladewing, Christoph Heinrich)
52.8
Highlights of the XVIIth Congress of the ESCRS VIENNA'99
1. Intrastromal Corneal Rings
2. Multifocal IOLs
3. Cataract Technidues
53.8 Illustrated Tutorials Clinical Ophthalmology
(EUROPEAN SOCIETY OF CATARACT & REFRACTIVE SURGEONS)
4. LASIK: Muopia & Mixed Astigmatism
‫ــــ‬
5. Phakic IOLs
(Jack J Kansski, Anne Bolton)
‫ــــ‬
54.8 Implantation of AcryFlex Foldable Lens (Surgery Performed by Dr. Jagdeep M Kakadla) (VCD)
‫ــــ‬
55.8 IMPLANTE MEDPOR MANDIBULAR (VCD), (AJL OPHTHALMIC, S.A.)
‫ــــ‬
Highlights of the ASCRS 1995 Annual Meeting
57.8
Highlights of the ASCRS 1996 Annual Meeting
58.8
59.8
60.8
61.8
62.8
63.8
64.8
Cataract & Refractive Sugery
56.8
‫ ﺍﺯ ﺑﺮﺟﺴﺘﻪﺗـﺮﻳﻦ ﺍﺳـﺎﺗﻴﺪ ﻣﺎﻧﻨـﺪ‬Cataract & refractive Surgury ‫ ﺩﺭ ﺑﺎﺏ‬Lecture ‫ ﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻘﺎﺑﻞ ﺣﺎﻭﻱ ﺩﻫﻬﺎ‬CD
‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑـﻪ ﻛﻤـﻚ‬... ‫ ﻭ‬Robert J. Cionni ، Roger F. Steinert، ouglas D. Koch ، I.Howard Fine
‫ ﺁﺧــﺮﻳﻦ ﺗﻜﻨﻴــﻚﻫــﺎﻱ ﺟﺮﺍﺣــﻲ ﻛﺎﺗﺎﺭﺍﻛــﺖ ﺑــﺮﻭﺵ‬،‫ﻓــﻴﻠﻢ ﺟﺮﺍﺣــﻲﻫــﺎﻱ ﺍﻧﺠــﺎﻡﺷــﺪﻩ ﺗﻮﺳــﻂ ﺍﻳــﻦ ﺍﺳــﺘﺎﺩﺍﻥ‬
‫ﻫﺎﻱ‬CD ‫ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﻪ‬.‫ ﺭﺍ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‬PRK ‫ ﻭ‬LASIK ‫ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻛﺮﺍﺗﻮﺭﻓﺮﺍﻛﺘﻴﻮ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬Phacoemulsification
‫ ﻭ ﭼﻪ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺑﻪ ﺭﻭﺯﺩﺭﺁﻭﺭﺩﻥ‬LASIK ‫ ﻭ‬Phaco ‫ ﭼﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻨﻈﻮﺭ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺍﻭﻟﻴﺔ‬،‫ﻣﺬﻛﻮﺭ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻨﺰﻟﺔ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺎﻩ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﺍﺭﺯﺷﻤﻨﺪﻱ‬
.‫ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﻭ ﻣﻬﺎﺭﺕﻫﺎﻱ ﻗﺒﻠﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬
Highlights of the ASCRS 1997 Annual Meeting
Highlights of the ASCRS 1998 Annual Meeting
Highlights of the ASCRS 1999 Annual Meeting
Highlights of the ASCRS 2000 Annual Meeting
Highlights of the ASCRS 2001 Annual Meeting
Highlights of the ASCRS 2003 Annual Meeting
Highlights of the ASCRS 2005 Annual Meeting
65.8 IMPROVING SUCCESS IN FILTRATION SURGERY American Academy of Ophthalmology (BRADFORD J. SHINGLETON)
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻌﺮﻓـﻲ ﺩﻭ ﺷـﻴﻮﺓ ﺟﺪﻳـﺪ ﺩﺭﻣـﺎﻥ ﺟﺮﺍﺣـﻲ‬CD ‫ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻭ ﺟﺰﺋﻴﺎﺕ ﻫﺮ ﻛﺪﺍﻡ ﺍﺯ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺎ ﻛﻤﻚ ﻓﻴﻠﻢﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﻬﻴﻪﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻋﻤﺎﻝ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‬Filstratioh Surgery ‫ ﻳﻚ ﺩﻭﺭﺓ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
.‫ ﻣﻲﭘﺮﺩﺍﺯﺩ‬Viscocanalostomy ‫ ﻭ‬Deep Sclerectomy ‫ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﮔﻠﻮﻛﻮﻣﻲ ﻳﻌﻨﻲ‬
2000
th
66.8 Incomitant Deviatons (4 edition) a supplement chapter 17 of Pickwell's Binocular Vision Anomalies
‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﻭ ﺗﺸﺮﻳﺢ‬... ‫ ﻭ‬Brown's ، Duane's ‫ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺳﻨﺪﺭﻡﻫﺎﻱ‬rectus ‫ﻭ‬
67.8 Intraocular Inflammation and Uveitis
(Section 9)
oblique ‫ ﻛﻢﻛﺎﺭﻱ ﻭ ﻓﻠﺞ ﻋﻀﻼﺕ‬،‫ ﻣﻦﺟﻤﻠﻪ ﭘﺮﻛﺎﺭﻱ‬Comitant ‫ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﻪﺍﻱ ﻛﻢﻧﻈﻴﺮ ﺟﻬﺖ ﻛﻤﻚ ﺑﻪ ﺩﺭﻙ ﺑﻬﺘﺮ ﻭ ﻋﻤﻴﻖﺗﺮ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺍﻧﺤﺮﺍﻓﺎﺕ ﭼﺸﻤﻲ‬CD
‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
.‫ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻫﺮ ﻛﺪﺍﻡ ﺍﺯ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﻣﻲﭘﺮﺩﺍﺯﺩ‬Case ‫ ﻃﺒﻘﻪﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﻭ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺍﻓﺘﺮﺍﻗﻲ ﻫﺮ ﻧﻮﻉ ﺍﻧﺤﺮﺍﻑ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻌﺮﻓﻲ ﭼﻨﺪﻳﻦ‬،‫ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬،‫ﻣﻜﺎﻧﻴﺴﻢ‬
2003
(SALEKAN E-BOOK)
2005
68.8 Lasek, PRK, & Excimer Laser Stromal Surface Ablation (Dimitri T. Azar, Massimo Camellin, Rochard W. Yee)
69.8 LEO Clinical Update Course on Retina (H. Michael Lambert, Charles. Arr, J. Paul Diechert, Mark W. Johnson, James S. Tiedeman)
‫ــــ‬
70.8 LEO Clinical Update Course on Cataract (Stephen S. Lane, MD, Alan S. Candall, MD, Douglas D. Koch, MD, Roger F. Steinert, MD)
‫ــــ‬
71.8 LEO Clinical Update Course on Pediatric Ophthalmology and Strabismus THE AMERICAN ACADEMY OF OPHTHALMOLOGY (American Academy of Ophthalmology)
2000
‫ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﺍﺳـﻼﻳﺪ ﻭ ﻓـﻴﻢ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷـﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺍﺳـﺘﺎﺩﺍﻥ ﻣﻌﺮﻭﻓـﻲ ﻫﻤﭽـﻮﻥ‬Lecture ١٣ ‫( ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬AAO) ‫( ﻣﺘﻌﻠﻖ ﺑﻪ ﺁﻛﺎﺩﻣﻲ ﭼﺸﻢﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺁﻣﺮﻳﻜﺎ‬Lifelong education for the ophthalmologist)LEO ‫ﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺭﺯﺷﻤﻨﺪ ﻭ ﻣﻌﺘﺒﺮ‬CD ‫ ﻓﻮﻕ ﺍﺯ ﺳﺮﻱ‬CD
.‫ ﺍﻧﺴﺪﺍﺩ ﻣﺠﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﺷﻜﻲ ﻣﺎﺩﺭﺯﺍﺩﻱ ﻭ ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺍﻧﺤﺮﺍﻓﺎﺕ ﭼﺸﻤﻲ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺍﺷﺎﺭﻩ ﻛﺮﺩ‬،ROP ،‫ ﮔﻠﻮﻛﻮﻡ ﻭ ﻛﺎﺗﺎﺭﺍﻛﺖ ﺍﻃﻔﺎﻝ‬،‫ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﺑﻪ ﺁﻣﺒﻠﻴﻮﭘﻲ‬CD ‫ ﺍﺯ ﺳﺮﻱ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻣﻄﺮﺡﺷﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﺍﺳﺖ‬M.X.Repka ‫ ﻭ‬K.W.Wright
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
48
72.8 Loeil Prental Endoscopie du Vitre Phaco Chop (VIDEO Media) (Roussat B. Choukroun J, Boscher C, Lebuisson DA, Amar R, Escalas P)
2003
:‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
- Reconnaissance des structures oculaires
- Lors des echographies prenatales
- Possibilites et limites actuelles
Roussat B, Choukroun J (Paris)
- Anatomie endoscopique normale et Pathologique de la base du vitre anterieur
Boscher C, Lebuisson DA, Amar R (paris)
73.8 Management of Strabismus & Amblyopia A Practical Guide
74.8 Manual of Eye Emergencies Diagnosis & Management
- Le Phaco Chop: Pour que les noyaux durs deviennet un plaisir
Escalas P (Nantes)
(Second Editon) (John A. Pratt-Johnson, Geraldine Tillson)
‫ــــ‬
2004
(Lennox A. Webb, Jack J. Kanski)
75.8 Manual of Oculoplastic Surgery (Third Edition) (Mark R. Levine)
‫ــــ‬
76.8 MOVIMIENTQ NATURAL PARA EL OJO ARTIFICIAL (VCD), (AJL OPHTHALMIC, S.A.)
‫ــــ‬
77.8 MVP VIDEO JOURNAL OF OPHTHALMOLOGY
‫ــــ‬
78.8 New England Eye Center Imaging in Glaucoma
‫ــــ‬
.‫ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺑﻴﻮﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﺳﻜﻮﭘﻲ ﺍﻭﻟﺘﺮﺍﺳﻮﻧﺪ ﺍﺷﺎﺭﻩ ﻛﺮﺩ‬OCT ،SLO ‫ ﺍﺯ ﺟﻤﻠﺔ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﺑﺮﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﺑﻪ‬. ‫ ﺑﺎ ﺗﻮﺟﻪ ﻭﻳﮋﻩ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﮔﻠﻮﻛﻮﻣﻲ ﻣﻲﭘﺮﺩﺍﺯﺩ‬Optic nerve ‫ ﻓﻮﻕ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻌﺮﻓﻲ ﺟﺪﻳﺪﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﺑﺮﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﺭﺗﻴﻦ ﻭ‬CD
79.8 New England Eye Center Photorefractive Keratectomy (PRK) Course (Helen K. WU, MD, Roger F. Steinert, MD, Michael B. Raizman, MD)
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺸﺨﺼﺎﺕ ﻟﻴﺰﺭ ﺑـﻪ ﻛـﺎﺭ‬PRK ‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻠﻴﺔ ﻣﺴﺎﺋﻞ ﻭ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ‬Roger F. Steinert ‫ ﻛﻪ ﻋﻤﺪﺗﹰﺎ ﺍﺯ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‬Lecture ١٥ ‫ ﺑﻪ ﺷﻤﺎﺭ ﻣﻲﺭﻭﺩ ﻛﻪ ﺍﺯ ﻃﺮﻳﻖ‬PRK ‫ ﺗﻬﻴﻪ ﻭ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﺩﺭ ﻭﺍﻗﻊ ﻳﻚ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺎﻩ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ‬New England ‫ ﻓﻮﻕ ﻛﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﭼﺸﻢﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬CD
.‫ ﺗﺎ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﻋﻤﻞ ﻭ ﺑﺎﻻﺧﺮﻩ ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ ﺍﺣﺘﻤﺎﻟﻲ ﻭ ﺭﺍﻩﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻴﺸﮕﻴﺮﻱ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺭﺍ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬Patient sclection ‫ﺭﻓﺘﻪ‬
2002
80.8 Ocular Pathology (FIFTH EDITION) (MYRON YANOFF, MD AND BEN S. FINE, MD) (Mosby) (SALEKAN E-BOOK)
Basic Principles of Pathology
Congenital Anomalies
Cornea and Sclera
Neural (Sensory) Retina
Orbit
Ocular Melanotic Tumors
Surgical and Nonsurgical Trauma
Nongranulomatous Inflammation: Uveltis, Endophthalmitis, Panophthalmitis, and Sequelae Granulomatous Inflammation.
Uvea
Vitreous
Diabetes Mellitus
Retinoblastoma and Pseudoglioma
Skin and Lacrimal Drainage System
Conjunctive
Lens
Optid Nerve
Glaucoma
81.8 Ocular Syndromes and Systemic Disease (Frederick Hampton Roy) (SALEKAN E-BOOK)
‫ــــــ‬
82.8 Ocular Therapeutics Handbook A Clinical Manual (Bruce E. Onofrey, Leonid Skorin.Jr., Nicky R. Holdeman) (SALEKAN E-BOOK)
2004
83.8 Ophthalmic & Facial Plastic Surgery
‫ــــــ‬
(Frank A. Nasi., Geoffrey J. Gladstone, Brian G. Brazzo)
Ophthalmic
Lenses
&
Dispensing
(Mo
JALIE)
84.8
‫ــــ‬
.‫ ﺟﺰﺋﻴﺎﺕ ﻭ ﻧﻜﺎﺕ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﺗﺠﻮﻳﺰ ﻟﻨﺰ ﻭ ﭘﺮﻳﺴﻢ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺍﺻﻼﺡ ﻋﻴﻮﺏ ﺍﻧﻜﺴﺎﺭﻱ ﻭ ﺍﻧﺤﺮﺍﻓﺎﺕ ﭼﺸﻤﻲ ﺭﺍ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‬،‫ ﭘﺮﺩﺍﺧﺘﻪ‬Refraction ‫ ﻭ‬Optic ‫ ﻓﻮﻕ ﺍﺯ ﻃﺮﻳﻖ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺷﻤﺎﺗﻴﻚ ﺑﻪ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻣﻔﺎﻫﻴﻢ ﭘﺎﻳﻪ ﻭ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻱ‬CD
85.8 Ophthalmic Surgery: principles and Techniques (BLACKWELL SCIENCE) (SALEKAN E-BOOK)
‫ــــ‬
86.8 Ophthalmology A multimedia tutorial for Primary care physicians and medical students (Robert Johnston FRCOpth, Jonathan Boulton MA MRCP FRCOpth)
‫ــــ‬
87.8 Optometric Practice Management (Irving Bennett) (Second Edition)
88.8 Orbital Floor Reconstruction Using Medpor Surgical Implant
(Joseph M. Serletti, MD, Paul Manson, MD) (VCD)
89.8 PHACO TODAY
(The Latest Development in Phacomulsification and Small Incision Cataract Surgery) (HOWARD FINE, MD)
‫ ﺍﺷـﻜﺎﻝ‬.‫ ﺭﺍ ﺁﻣـﻮﺯﺵ ﻣـﻲﺩﻫـﺪ‬phacoemulsfication ‫ ﻭ‬Incisions ،Anesthesin ‫ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺪﻳـﺪ‬،‫ ﺍﻳﺮﺍﺩﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﺳﻴﺮ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻛﺎﺗﺎﺭﺍﻛﺖ ﺑﻪ ﺭﻭﺵ ﻓﻴﻜﻮ ﺭﺍ ﻣﺮﻭﺭ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ‬I. Howard Fine ‫ ﻭ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪ ﻛﻪ ﻋﻤﺪﺗﹰﺎ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ‬Lecture ١٤ ‫ ﺩﺭ ﻗﺎﻟﺐ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺗﻚ‬
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
49
.‫ﺷﻤﺎﺗﻴﻚ ﻭ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺁﻥ ﺑﻪ ﺩﺭﻙ ﺑﻬﺘﺮ ﻣﻜﺎﻧﻴﺴﻢﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻜﻬﺎﻱ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻓﻴﻜﻮ ﻛﻤﻚ ﺯﻳﺎﺩﻱ ﻣﻲﻧﻤﺎﻳﺪ‬
90.8 Phacoemulsification
Step by Step (Video & Textbook)
‫ــــ‬
(Ric Caesar, Larry Benjamin)
91.8 Phakic Intraocular Lenses (Principles & Practice) (David R. Hardten. MD. FACS, Richard L. Lindstrom, Elizabeth A. David, MD, FACS) (SALEKAN E-BOOK)
2004
92.8 PhcoChop (Mastering Techniques, Optimizing Technology, and Avoiding Complications) (Text & Video clip) (David F. Chang) (CD I, II, III)
2004
93.8 Phacoemyulsification Cataract Surgery (Multimedia Oculosurgical Module) (Robert M. Schertzer, David X. Pang, MSE, Luanna R. Bartholomew, PhD) (Mosby)
"Scleral tunnel"
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﺑـﻪ ﻣﺜﺎﺑـﺔ ﻛﺎﺭﮔـﺎﻩ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷـﻲ ﻛـﻢﻧﻈﻴـﺮﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﻴﻨـﺔ ﺟﺮﺍﺣـﻲ ﻛﺎﺗﺎﺭﺍﻛـﺖ ﺑـﺮﻭﺵ‬CD ‫ ﺍﻳـﻦ‬.‫ ﻣـﻲﺑﺎﺷـﺪ‬Mosby ‫( ﻣﺘﻌﻠـﻖ ﺑـﻪ ﺍﻧﺘﺸـﺎﺭﺍﺕ‬Multimedia Oulosurgical Module) MOM ‫ﻫـﺎﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷـﻲ ﻣﻌـﺮﻭﻑ ﻭ ﻣﻌﺘﺒـﺮ‬CD ‫ ﻓﻮﻕ ﺍﺯ ﺳﺮﻱ‬CD
.‫ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺗﻲ ﻛﺎﻣ ﹰﻼ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻱ ﻭ ﻗﺎﺑﻞ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‬text ‫ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻗﺎﻟﺐ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﻭ‬phacoemulsification
94.8 Physiology of the Eye
‫ــــ‬
Anatomy of the Eye 3-D Tour of the Eye Development of Vision Physics of Light & Color Illusions & Your Vision
Practical
Viewing of the Optic Disc (KATHLEEN B. DIGRE, M.D., JAMES J. CORBETT, M.D.
95.8
Getting Ready-Preparing to View the Opic Disc
What Should I Look for in the Normal Fundus?
Is the Disc Swollen?
Common Eye Conditions
2003
Is the Disc Pale?
Amaurosis Fugax and Not So Fugax-Vaxcular Disorders of the Eye
White Spots-What Are They?
Hemorrhage
Pigment
What is That in the Retina?
Macula
Practical Viewing in Children
What to Look for in the Aging
Viewing the Disc in Pregnancy
Practical Viewing of the Optic Disc and Retina in the Emergency Department
96.8 PROVISION INTERACTIVE: Clinical Case Studies (AAO) (Thomas A. Weingeist, MD., ph, D)
‫ــــ‬
97.8 RECONSTRUCCIÓN DE BASE ORBITAL CON IMPLANTE MEDPOR (VCD), (AJL OPHTHALMIC, S.A.)
‫ــــ‬
98.8 Review of Ophthalmology (Friedman, Kaiser, Trattler)
99.8 Refractive Surgery First interactive Symposium (Marguerite B. McDonald, MD)
2005
(American Academy of Ophthalmology)
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﻭ‬Roger F. Steinert ،،Jack T. Holladay :‫ ﺍﺯ ﺍﺳﺘﺎﺩﺍﻥ ﺻﺎﺣﺐﻧﺎﻡ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺭﺷﺘﻪ ﻣﻦﺟﻤﻠﻪ‬Lecture ‫ ﺍ ﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭﺑﺮﮔﻴﺮﻧﺪﺓ ﺩﻫﻬﺎ‬Manus C. Kraff ‫ ﺑﻪ ﺳﺮﭘﺮﺳﺘﻲ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‬ASCRS ‫ﺗﻬﻴﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻭﻟﻴﻦ ﺳﻤﭙﻮﺯﻳﻮﻡ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺭﻓﺮﺍﻛﺘﻴﻮ ﺍﻧﺠﻤﻦ‬CD ‫ ﻓﻮﻕ ﻳﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﺔ ﺩﻭ‬CD
.PRK ‫ ﻭ‬LASIK ،phacoemulsification ‫ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﺔ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲﻫﺎ ﺑﻪ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﻭ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﻪ ﻣﺮﻭﺭﻱ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺧﺮﻳﻦ ﻭ ﺟﺪﻳﺪﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﭘﻴﺸﺮﻓﺖﻫﺎ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﺔ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻛﺎﺗﺎﺭﺍﻛﺖ ﺑﻪ ﺭﻭﺵ‬.‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬...
‫ــــ‬
100.8 Refractive Surgery in the new millennium.
101.8 Evolution in LASIK
102.8
LASIK: Customized Ablations and Quality of Vision
‫ ﺗﺎ ﺗﻜﻨﻴـﻚ‬Patient Selection ‫ ﺑﻪ ﺷﻤﺎﺭ ﻣﻲﺭﻭﺩ ﻭ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺗﻤﺎﻣﻲ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﺎﺕ ﻣﻘﺪﻣﺎﺗﻲ‬LASIK ‫ ﺩﻭﺭﺓ ﺟﺎﻣﻊ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ‬،‫( ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬AAO) ‫( ﻣﺘﻌﻠﻖ ﺑﻪ ﺁﻛﺎﺩﻣﻲ ﭼﺸﻢﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺁﻣﺮﻳﻜﺎ‬Ophthalmology Interactive) ‫ﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻌﺘﺒﺮ‬CD ‫ ﻛﻪ ﺍﺯ ﺳﺮﻱ‬CD ٣ ‫ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﺔ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
‫ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺁﻥ ﻭ ﺑﺎﻻﺧﺮﻩ ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ ﺍﺣﺘﻤﺎﻟﻲ ﻭ ﻃﺮﻕ ﭘﻴﺸﮕﻴﺮﻱ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
103.8 RETINA (Stephen J. Ryan, M.D., Thomas E. Ogden, M.D.,)
‫ــــ‬
2000
‫ــــ‬
104.8 Retina and Optic Nerve Imaging (Thomas A. Ciulla, Carl D. Regillo, Alon Harris)
2003
105.8 RETINA LIBRARY
‫ــــ‬
106.8 Retina & Vitneous
‫ــــ‬
Hereditary retinal dystrophies
‫ ﺑـﻪ‬CD ‫ ﺩﺍﺷـﺘﻦ ﺍﻳـﻦ‬.‫ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﺑﺎ ﻛﻴﻔﻴﺘﻲ ﻛﻢﻧﻈﻴﺮ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻭ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪﺍﻧﺪ‬١٧٠٠ ‫ ﻭ ﺑﺎﻟﻎ ﺑﺮ‬Case ٤٦٧ ‫ ﺗﻤﺎﻣﻲ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﺩﻳﺴﺘﺮﻭﻓﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﺗﻴﻦ ﺍﺯ ﺷﺎﻳﻊﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﺗﺎ ﻧﺎﺩﺭﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺩﺭ ﻗﺎﻟﺐ‬.‫ ﻓﻮﻕ ﻳﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺟﺎﻣﻊﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﻣﺮﺍﺟﻊ ﻣﻌﺘﺒﺮ ﺩﺭ ﺑﺎﺏ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺩﻳﺴﺘﺮﻭﻓﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﺗﻴﻦ ﺍﺳﺖ‬CD
.‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﺭﻓﺮﺍﻧﺴﻲ ﻣﺼﻮﺭ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺍﺟﻪ ﺑﺎ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﮔﻮﻧﺎﮔﻮﻥ ﺩﻳﺴﺘﺮﻭﻓﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﺗﻴﻦ ﺩﺭ ﻛﻠﻴﻨﻴﻚ ﺿﺮﻭﺭﻱ ﻣﻲﻧﻤﺎﻳﺪ‬
107.8 Refractive Surgery: A Guide to Assessment and Management (Shehzad A Naroo)
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
‫‪50‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪108.8 Stereoscopic Atlas of Macular Diseases: diagnosis and treatment (Fourth Edition) (J. Donald M. Gass, M.D.) (Mosby‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪109.8 Subjective Refraction: Cross Cylider Technique‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪110.8 SURGICAL TECHNIQUES WITH MEDPORIMPLANTS AND THE MCP (VCD), (AJL OPHTHALMIC, S.A.‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪111.8 ADVANCED CONCEPTS IN CATARACT SURGERY The American Society of Cataract and Refractive Surgery (ASCRS‬‬
‫)‪112.8 Clinical Update Course on Glaucoma (Mark B. Sherwood, MD, James D. Brandt, MD, Neil T. Choplin, MD, Joel S. Schuman, MD‬‬
‫)‪113.8 Techniques in CLEAR CORNEAL CATARACT SURGERY OPHTHALMOLOGY Interactive‬‬
‫ﺗﻤﺎﻣﻲ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻛﺎﺗﺎﺭﺍﻛﺖ ﺑﺮﻭﺵ ‪ "Clear cornea" Phacoemulsification‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ‪ ،‬ﺑﻲﺣﺴﻲ ﺗﺎﭘﻴﻜﺎﻝ ﻭ ‪ ،Prep & drape ، intracameral‬ﺍﻧﺴﺰﻳﻮﻥ ‪ capsulorrhexis ،Clear cornea‬ﻭ ﻇﺮﺍﻳﻒ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ‪setting ،hydrodissection ،‬‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫ﻛﺎﺷﺖ ‪ Foldable IOL‬ﻭ ﺑﺎﻻﺧﺮﻩ ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ ﺍﺣﺘﻤﺎﻟﻲ ﻭ ﻃﺮﻳﻘﺔ ﺑﺮﺧﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺎ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﺔ ‪ CD٣‬ﻓﻮﻕ ﺍﺯ ﻃﺮﻳﻖ ‪ ،Lecture‬ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺷﻤﺎﺗﻴﻚ ﻭ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡﺷﺪﻩ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺍﺳﺘﺎﺩﺍﻥ ﺑﻨﺎﻡ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺭﺷﺘﻪ ﺑﻄﻮﺭ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫)‪114.8 Technique of Cosmetic Eyelid Surgery (A Case Study Approach) (Joseph A. Mauriello, Jr., M.D.‬‬
‫)‪115.8 TEXBOOK OF OPHTHALMOLOGY (KENNETH W.WRIGHT‬‬
‫)‪REVIEW QUESTIONS IN OPHTHALMOLOGY (KENNETHC. CHERN.KENNETH W. WRIGHT‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ﻓﻴﻜﻮ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻛﺎﺗﺎﺭﺍﻛـﺖ‪،‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺩﺳﺘﺮﺱ ﺑﻮﺩﻥ ﻛﺘﺐ ﻣﺮﺟﻊ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﻟﻮﺡ ﻓﺸﺮﺩﻩ )‪ (CD‬ﺍﺭﺯﺵ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺭﺍ ﺩﻭ ﭼﻨﺪﺍﻥ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﺪ ﺯﻳﺮﺍ ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺷﻐﺎﻝ ﻓﻀﺎﻱ ﻛﻤﺘﺮ ﻭ ﺣﻤﻞ ﻭ ﻧﻘﻞ ﺭﺍﺣﺘﺘﺮ‪ ،‬ﺍﻣﻜﺎﻥ ﺟﺴﺘﺠﻮﻱ ﺳﺮﻳﻊ ﻣﻄﻠﺐ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻧﻈﺮ ﻭ ﺍﺣﻴﺎﻧﹰﺎ ﺗﻬﻴﺔ ‪ Print‬ﺍﺯ ﺁﻥ ﻧﻴﺰ ﻓﺮﺍﻫﻢ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺍﺯ ﺳﻮﻱ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ‪ ،‬ﺑﻬﺎﻱ ‪ CD‬ﺣﺘـﻲ ﺑـﺎ‬
‫ﻼ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ‪ CD‬ﻣﻌﺮﻓﻲ ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﺩ‪ ،‬ﺍﻧﺤﺼﺎﺭﹰﺍ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺷﺮﻛﺖ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ﺑﺎ ﺩﻗﺘﻲ ﻭﺳﻮﺍﺱ ﮔﻮﻧﻪ ﺍﺯ ﺭﻭﻱ ﺁﺧﺮﻳﻦ ﺗﺠﺪﻳﺪﻧﻈﺮ ﻛﺘﺐ ‪ text‬ﺗﻬﻴﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪،‬‬
‫ﻛﺘﺐ ‪ text‬ﻣﻌﺎﺩﻝ ﺁﻥ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺍﺧﻞ ﻛﺸﻮﺭ ﺍﹸﻓﺴﺖ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻗﺎﺑﻞ ﻣﻘﺎﻳﺴﻪ ﻧﻤﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺩﻭ ﻧﻤﻮﻧﻪ ﺍﺯ ﻛﺘﺐ ﻣﺮﺟﻌﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺫﻳ ﹰ‬
‫ﺑﻄﻮﺭﻳﻜﻪ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻭ ﻋﻜﺲﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺭ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ ﺑﺰﺭﮔﻨﻤﺎﺋﻲ ﺑﻮﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺍﺯ ﻧﻈﺮ ﻛﻴﻔﻲ ﺑﻬﻴﭻ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﺑﺎ ﻛﺘﺐ ﺍﻓﺴﺖ ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺍﺧﻞ ﻛﺸﻮﺭ ﻗﺎﺑﻞ ﻣﻘﺎﻳﺴﻪ ﻧﻴﺴﺖ‪.‬‬
‫)‪116.8 THE FAILING GLAUCOMA FILTER: EARLY IDENTIFICATION & TREATMENT (Bradford J. Shingleton, MD‬‬
‫‪ CD‬ﻓﻮﻕ ﺗﻤﺎﻣﹰﺎ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻘﻮﻟﺔ ‪ Failing Filtration Surgery‬ﭘﺮﺩﺍﺧﺘﻪ ﻭ ﻋﻠﻞ‪ ،‬ﻋﻮﺍﻣﻞ ﻣﺴﺘﻌﺪﻛﻨﻨﺪﻩ‪ ،‬ﺭﺍﻩﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻴﺸﮕﻴﺮﻱ ﻭ ﺑﺎﻻﺧﺮﻩ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﻃﺒﻲ ﻭ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺁﻥ ﺭﺍ ﺍﺯ ﻃﺮﻳﻖ ﭼﻨﺪﻳﻦ ‪ Lecture‬ﻭ ﻓﻴﻠﻢﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫـﺎﻳﻲ ﻣﺎﻧﻨـﺪ ‪ Choroidal tap‬ﻭ‬
‫ﻼ ﺿﺮﻭﺭﻱ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﺑﺨﻮﺑﻲ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪ bleb revision‬ﻛﻪ ﺩﺍﻧﺴﺘﻦ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻫﺮ ﺟﺮﺍﺡ ﮔﻠﻮﻛﻮﻣﻲ ﻛﺎﻣ ﹰ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪(MICHAEL K. SMOLEK, PH. D.‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪117.8 The Multimedia Atlas of Videokeratography Basics of Map Interpretation‬‬
‫)‪118.8 The Retina ATLAS ( Yannuzzi,Green) (Mosby‬‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫)‪office & eoffice & emergency rom diagnosis & treatment of eye disease (Derek &. Kunimoto, Kunal D. Kanitkar‬‬
‫‪119.8 The Wills Eye Manual‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪120.8 THE VIDEO ATLAS OF COSMETIC BLEPHAROPLASTY (8 CDs‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪121.8 Vitreoretinal Course Bascom Palmer Eye Institute's (William E. Smiddy, Philip Rosenfeld, Patrick E. Rubsamen, Janet L.‬‬
‫)‪(S.LBosniak‬‬
‫ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﺔ ‪ VCD ٨‬ﻓﻮﻕ ﻳﻚ ﺩﻭﺭﺓ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﭘﻠﻚ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺍﺳﺘﺎﺩ ﺑﺮﺟﺴﺘﻪ ‪ S.LBosniak‬ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﻭ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺗﻤﺎﻣﻲ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺍﺯ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﭘﻠﻚ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺑﻲﺣﺴﻲ ﺗﺎ ﺟﺪﻳﺪﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫـﺎﻱ ﺟﺮﺍﺣـﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺻـﻼﺡ ﻭ ﺗـﺮﻣﻴﻢ ﻛﻠﻴـﺔ‬
‫ﻣﺴﺎﺋﻞ ﻭ ﻣﺸﻜﻼﺕ ﭘﻠﻜﻲ ﻣﻦﺟﻤﻠﻪ‪ ،‬ﺁﻧﺘﺮﻭﭘﻴﻮﻥ‪ ،‬ﺍﻛﺘﺮﻭﭘﻴﻮﻥ‪ ،‬ﭘﺘﻮﺯ‪ ،‬ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﺷﺎﻻﺯﻳﺲ ﻭ ‪ ...‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﻪ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻨﺰﻟﺔ ﮔﺬﺭﺍﻧﺪﻥ ﻳﻚ ﺩﻭﺭﻩ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺎﻩ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﺑﻠﻔﺎﺭﻭﭘﻼﺳﺘﻲ ﺩﺍﻧﺴﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪ CD‬ﻓﻮﻕ ﺍﺯ ﺳﺮﻱ ‪CD‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ‪ (Ophthalmology interactive) OI‬ﻣﺘﻌﻠﻖ ﺑﻪ ﺁﻛﺎﺩﻣﻲ ﭼﺸﻢﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺁﻣﺮﻳﻜﺎ )‪ ،(AAO‬ﺣﺎﻭﻱ ‪ Lecture ١٦‬ﺑﻪ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪ ﻭ ﻓﻴﻢ ﺍﺯ ﺍﺳﺘﺎﺩﺍﻥ ﺑﺮﺟﺴﺘﻪﺍﻱ ﭼﻮﻥ ‪ W.E.Smiddy‬ﻭ ‪ H.W.Flynn‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑـﻪ ﻣـﺮﻭﺭ ﻭ ﻣﻌﺮﻓـﻲ‬
‫ﺁﺧﺮﻳﻦ ﺩﺳﺘﺎﻭﺭﺩﻫﺎ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺳﮕﻤﺎﻥ ﺧﻠﻔﻲ ﭼﺸﻢ ﻣﻲﭘﺮﺩﺍﺯﺩ‪ .‬ﺍﺯ ﺟﻤﻠﻪ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻋﺎﺕ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ‪ Macular hole ،Giant retinal tear،Dislocated IOLs ،AMD , ROP ،Endophthalmitis :‬ﻭ ‪ ...‬ﺭﺍ ﻧﺎﻡ ﺑﺮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪122.8 VJO Ophthalmology (I, I , III ,) (VCD) (Charles, H. Cozean, James S. Lewis, Richard J. Mackool‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪123.8 Wavefront Analysis Aberrometers & Corneal Topography (Benjamin F. Boyd, M.D.,FACS) (SALEKAN E-BOOK‬‬
‫‪ -٩‬ﻣﻐﺰ ﻭ ﺍﻋﺼﺎﺏ‬
‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ‪CD‬‬
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫)‪5 Minute Neurology Consult (SALEKAN E-BOOK) (D. Joanne Lynn‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﻧﻮﺭﻭﻟﻮﮊﻳﺴﺖﻫﺎ‪ ،‬ﺭﺯﻳﺪﻧﺖﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﺩﺍﺧﻠﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺑﻪ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﺭﻓﺮﺍﻧﺲ ﺳﺮﻳﻌﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻗﺎﻟﺐ ﺳﺮﻱ ‪ 5-Minute‬ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻓﺮﻣﺖ ﺩﻭﺻﻔﺤﻪﺍﻱ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺑﻼﻓﺎﺻﻠﻪ ﻭ ﺳﺮﻳﻊ ﺍﺯ ﺁﻥ ﺭﺍ ﺭﺍﺣﺖ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺑـﻴﺶ ﺍﺯ‬
‫‪ ٢٠٠‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻛﺎﺭ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻃﻮﺭ ﺷﺎﻳﻌﻲ ﺑﺎ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﻣﻮﺍﺟﻪ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﻳﻢ‪ .‬ﻫﺮ ﻣﺒﺤﺚ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪ Follow up ، Medications ، Management ، Diagnosis ،Basics‬ﻭ ‪ Miscellaneous‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ CD .‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫‪-Neurologic Symptoms and Signs‬‬
‫‪-Neurologic Diagnostic Tests‬‬
‫‪-Neurologic Diseases and Disorders‬‬
‫‪-Short Topics‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫‪1.9‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
‫‪51‬‬
‫)‪55th Annual Meeting March 29-Aprill 5, American Academy of Neurology (HAWAII‬‬
‫‪2003‬‬
‫‪2.9‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪ Full text‬ﺗﻤﺎﻡ ﻣﻘﺎﻻﺕ ﻭ ‪ Presentation‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﻛﻨﮕﺮﻩ ﺁﻛﺎﺩﻣﻲ ﻧﻮﺭﻭﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺍﻣﺮﻳﻜﺎ ﺩﺭ ﺁﻭﺭﻳﻞ ‪ 2003‬ﺩﺭ ﻫﺎﻭﺍﻳﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫‪2000‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫)‪(Barlow/Durand's, Durand/Barlow's, Trull/Pharcs‬‬
‫‪ CD‬ﻣﻮﻟﺘﻲﻣﺪﻳﺎ ﻭ ﺍﻳﻨﺘﺮﺍﻛﺘﻴﻮ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﻪ ﻣﻔﺎﻫﻴﻢ ﻧﺎﺑﻬﻨﺠﺎﺭﻱ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺳﻪ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ‪ -١ :‬ﺭﻭﺍﻧﺸﻨﺎﺳﻲ ﻧﺎﻫﻨﺠﺎﺭﻱ‪ :‬ﺭﻭﻳﻜﺮﺩ ﺍﻟﺘﻘﺎﻃﻲ‬
‫‪Abnormal Psychology LIVE and interactive tutorial‬‬
‫‪ -٢‬ﺭﻭﺍﻧﺸﻨﺎﺳﻲ ﻧﺎﻫﻨﺠﺎﺭﻱ‪ :‬ﻣﻘﺪﻣﻪ‬
‫‪3.9‬‬
‫‪ -٣‬ﺭﻭﺍﻧﺸﻨﺎﺳﻲ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ‬
‫)‪Advanced Therapy of HEADACHE CONQUERING HEADACHE (SECOND REVIED EDITION) An Illustrated Guide to Understanding The Treatment and Control of Headache (Alan M. Rapoport, Fred D. Sheftell‬‬
‫‪ (١‬ﻣﺘﻦ ﻓﺎﻳﻞ ‪ PDF‬ﻛﺘﺎﺏ )‪ Advanced Therapy of headache (1999‬ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ‪) Alan rappaport‬ﺍﺳﺘﺎﺩ ﻧﻮﺭﻭﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﮕﺎﻩ ‪) Fred sheftell ( Yale‬ﺍﺳﺘﺎﺩ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﮕﺎﻩ ‪ ( Newyork‬ﻧﻮﺷﺘﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪ 48‬ﻣﺒﺤﺚ ﭘﺎﻳﻪ ﻭ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻱ‬
‫ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﺗﺌﻮﺭﻱ ﻭ ﻋﻤﻠﻲ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺳﺮﺩﺭﺩ ﺍﺯ ﺟﻤﻠﻪ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻴﭽﻴﺪﻩ‪ ،‬ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻬﺎﻱ ﺟﺪﻳﺪ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ‪ management‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫‪ (٢‬ﻣﺘﻦ ﻓﺎﻳﻞ ‪ PDF‬ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ‪ Conquering headache 1998 2nd edition‬ﺍﺯ ﻧﻮﻳﺴﻨﺪﮔﺎﻥ ﻓﻮﻕ ﻛﻪ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺗﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺁﻥ ﺟﻬﺖ ﻣﻘﺎﺑﻠﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺳﺮﺩﺭﺩ ﻭ ﺑﻬﺒﻮﺩ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺯﻧﺪﮔﻲ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﺁﺧﺮﻳﻦ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺭﺍﺟﻊ ﺑﻪ ﺗﻘﺴﻴﻢ ﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﺳـﺮﺩﺭﺩﻫﺎ‪ -‬ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻬـﺎﻱ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻳـﻲ‬
‫ ﺗﺌﻮﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺪﻳﺪ‪ -‬ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﺗﻐﺬﻳﻪﺍﻱ ﻭﺭﺯﺷﻲ‪ -‬ﺧﻮﺍﺏ‪ -‬ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﻏﻴﺮ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻳﻲ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬‫‪ (٣‬ﻣﺘﻦ ‪ PDF‬ﺟﻤﻠﺔ ‪ Seminars in Headache mamagement‬ﻛﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ‪ James W.Lance‬ﺍﺩﺍﺭﻩ ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﺩ ﻭ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺳﻪ ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﺯ ﺳﺎﻝ ‪ 1996- 1998‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻋﺒﺎﺭﺗﻨﺪ ﺍﺯ‪ :‬ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ‪ -‬ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺣﺎﺩ ﻣﻴﮕﺮﻥ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﭘﺮﻭﻓﻴﻼﻛﺘﻴﻚ‬
‫ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺳﺮﺩﺭﺩﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﻼﺳﺘﺮ‪ – Post traumatic -‬ﺍﻳﺴﻜﻤﻲ ﻣﻐﺰﻱ ﻧﺎﺷﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻴﮕﺮﻥ‪ -‬ﻣﻴﮕﺮﻥ ﻭ ﻫﻮﺭﻣﻮﻧﻬﺎﻱ ﺟﻨﺴﻲ‪.‬‬
‫‪American Academy of Neurology 2004 Syllabi‬‬
‫‪4.9‬‬
‫‪5.9‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﻛﻪ ﺣﺎﺻﻞ ﻣﻘﺎﻻﺕ ﺁﺧﺮﻳﻦ ﻛﻨﮕﺮﻩ ﺁﻛﺎﺩﻣﻲ ﻧﻮﺭﻭﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺍﻣﺮﻳﻜﺎ ﺩﺭ ﺳﺎﻝ ‪ ٢٠٠٤‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺑﻴﺶ ﺍﺯ ‪ ١٦٠‬ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻃﺒﺎﺑﺖ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻧﻮﺭﻭﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﻫﺮ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﭼﻨﺪ ﻣﻘﺎﻟﻪ ﻭ ﻣﺒﺤﺚ ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﺩ‪ .‬ﺑﻌﻀﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻘﺎﻻﺕ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪﺷﺪﻩ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ‬
‫ﻓﺎﻳﻞﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪﻫﺎﻱ ‪ Presentation‬ﻧﻴﺰ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩ ﺁﻥ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺗﺪﺭﻳﺲ ﻭ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﺔ ﻣﺠﺪﺩ ﺩﻭﭼﻨﺪﺍﻥ ﻣﻲﺳﺎﺯﺩ‪ .‬ﻓﺎﻳﻞﻫﺎ ﺍﺯ ﻃﺮﻳﻖ ‪ Java‬ﻭ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ‪ Autorun‬ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﻧﺪ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ ‪ Search‬ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ ﻭ ﻧﻮﻳﺴﻨﺪﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺰﺍﻳﺎﻱ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻣﻬﻢ ﻣﻄﺮﺡﺷﺪﻩ ﻋﺒﺎﺭﺗﻨﺪ ﺍﺯ‪:‬‬
‫‪Stroke‬‬
‫‪Demyelinating dyorden‬‬
‫‪Botutinum Toxin Injection‬‬
‫‪Movement disorders‬‬
‫‪Bedside Neurology‬‬
‫‪Clinical EEG‬‬
‫‪Balance and gaif disorder‬‬
‫‪Clinical EMG‬‬
‫‪Seizure and antiepilep drugs‬‬
‫‪Child Neurology‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫)‪Aphasia & Related Neurogenic Language Disorders (Third Edition) (Leonard L. LaPointe, Ph.D.‬‬
‫‪6.9‬‬
‫‪2000‬‬
‫)‪Atlas of Functional Neuroanatomy (Dr. Walter J. Hendelman‬‬
‫‪7.9‬‬
‫‪Boehringer Ingelheim Satellite Symposium Interanational Stroke Conference‬‬
‫‪8.9‬‬
‫)‪(Phoenix, Arizona‬‬
‫‪2003‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪(An interactive digital atlas designed to assist in learning human neuroanatomy‬‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫)‪(Version 1.52‬‬
‫‪Medical Multimedia Systems Presents‬‬
‫)‪(A Primer for Clinicians) (Bryan Bergeron‬‬
‫‪CD 2. The Movement Disorder Society's Guide to Botulinum Toxin Injections‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫‪TM‬‬
‫!‪Brainiac‬‬
‫‪9.9‬‬
‫‪10.9 Case Studies in Genes & Disease‬‬
‫‪11.9 CD 1. BOTOX Injection Tracking Tool‬‬
‫‪12.9 Cerebral Palsy Resource Guide for Speech-1-anguage Pathologists‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪13.9 Clinical Electromyography Nerve Conduction Studies (Third Edition‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪14.9 Clinical Neurology (G David Perkin Fred H Hochberg Douglas C Miller‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪15.9 Comprehensive Handbook of PSYCHOTHERAPY‬‬
‫)‪(Florence W. Kaslow, Jeffrey J. Magnavita) (Volume 1-4‬‬
‫ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻣﺮﺟﻊ ﺟﺎﻣﻊ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﺪﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻗﺎﺑﻞ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﺸﻨﺎﺳﺎﻥ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﺩﺭﺑﺮﮔﻴﺮﻧﺪﺓ ﻣﻔﺎﻫﻴﻢ ﻭ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﺪﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫‪ : CD I‬ﺭﻭﻳﻜﺮﺩ ﺳﺎﻳﻜﻮﺩﻳﻨﺎﻣﻴﻚ ‪ : CD II‬ﺭﻭﻳﻜﺮﺩﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﻓﺘﺎﺭﻱ‪ -‬ﺷﻨﺎﺧﺘﻲ )‪ : CD III (CBT‬ﺭﻭﺍﻧﺪﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻓﺮﺩﻱ ﻭ ﺭﻭﻳﻜﺮﺩﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻧﺴﺎﻥﮔﺮﺍﻳﻲ )‪ (humanistic‬ﻭ ﺍﺻﺎﻟﺖ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ )‪(existential‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪ : CD IV‬ﺭﻭﻳﻜﺮﺩﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﻠﻔﻴﻘﻲ ﻭ ﺍﻟﺘﻘﺎﻃﻲ‬
‫)‪16.9 Comprehensive Textbook of PSYCHIATRY (Seventh Edition CD-ROM) (Benjamin J. Sadock, MD – Virginia A. Sadock, MD) ( LIPPINCOTT WILLIAMS & WILKINS‬‬
‫ﻼ ﺍﺯ ﻭﺿﻮﺡ ﺑﺎﻻﻳﻲ ﺑﺮﺧﻮﺭﺩﺍﺭﻧﺪ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﻳﻚ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺟﺎﻣﻊ ﻭ ﻣﺮﺟﻊ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﺔ ﺭﻭﺍﻥ ﭘﺰﺷـﻜﻲ ﺍﺳـﺖ‪ .‬ﺗﺼـﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻣﺘﻌـﺪﺩ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷـﻲ‪،MRI ،‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﻳﻚ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻚ ﻣﺸﺘﻤﻞ ﺑﺮ ‪ ٥٥‬ﻓﺼﻞ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﺣﺎﻭﻱ ‪ ٦٥٠‬ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺟﺪﺍﻭﻝ ﻣﺘﻌﺪﺩﻱ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﻛﺎﻣ ﹰ‬
‫ﻃﺮﺡﻭﺍﺭﻩﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺑﺮﺧﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﻤﻨﺪﺍﻥ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺭﺷﺘﻪ‪ ،‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﻨﺎﺑﻊ ﺩﺭ ﭘﺎﻳﺎﻥ ﻫﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ‪ ،‬ﻓﻬﺮﺳﺖ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻋﺎﺕ‪ ،‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻭ ﺍﺷﻜﺎﻝ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﺋﻲ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺑﻪ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺍﺯ ﻭﻳﮋﮔﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺑﺮﺧﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﻪ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺫﻳﻞ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫‪ -١‬ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺍﻋﺼﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺭﻓﺘﺎﺭ ‪ -٢‬ﻋﻠﻮﻡ ﺍﻋﺼﺎﺏ ‪ -٣‬ﺗﺌﻮﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺷﺨﺼﻴﺖ ﻭ ﺁﺳﻴﺐﺷﻨﺎﺳﻲ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ‪ -٤‬ﺭﻭﺷﻬﺎﻱ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺩﺭ ﺭﻭﺍﻥﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ‪ -٥‬ﻃﺒﻘﻪﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻐﺰﻱ ‪ -٦‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺷﻨﺎﺧﺘﻲ …‪ -٧ ((Delirium Dementin,‬ﺍﺳﻜﻴﺰﻭﻓﺮﻧﻲ ‪ -٨‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺍﺿﻄﺮﺍﺏ‬
‫‪ -٩‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ‪ -١٠ Mood‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﻲ ﺧﻮﺍﺏ ‪ -١١‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ‪ -١٢ Dissociative‬ﺧﻮﺩﻛﺸﻲﻫﺎ ‪ -١٣‬ﺭﻭﺍﻥ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺍﻃﻔﺎﻝ ‪ -١٤‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﻳﺎﺩﮔﻴﺮﻱ ‪ -١٥‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺍﺭﺗﺒﺎﻃﻲ ‪ -١٦‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ‪ Tic‬ﻋﺼﺒﻲ ‪ -١٧‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺍﺿﻄﺮﺍﺏ ﺩﺭ ﻛﻮﺩﻛﺎﻥ‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
52
.‫ ﺍﺿﺎﻓﻪ ﻧﻤﻮﺩﻥ ﻳﺎﺩﺩﺍﺷﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺷﺨﺼﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻭﻳﮋﮔﻴﻬﺎﻱ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‬،‫ ﺗﻮﺍﻧﺎﻳﻲ ﭼﺎﭖ ﻣﺘﻦ ﻭ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ‬،‫ ﺟﺴﺘﺠﻮﻱ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ‬.‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺗﻮﺍﻧﺎﻳﻲ ﺟﺴﺘﺠﻮ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﻭﺍﮊﻩﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﻭ ﺍﺳﺎﻣﻲ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻫﺎ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﺳﺖ‬... ‫ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ )ﮔﺬﺷﺘﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺁﻳﻨﺪﻩ( ﻭ‬-١٩
Adoption -١٨
17.9 Computational Neuroscience Realistic Modeling for Experimentalists (Erik De Schutter)
Introduction to Equation Solving and Parameter Fitting Modeling Networks of Signalling Pathways Modeling Local and Global Calcium Signals Using Reaction-Diffusion Equations Monte Carlo
Methods for Simulating Realistic Synaptic Microphysiology Using Mcell Which Formalism to Use for Modeling voltage-Dependent Conductances? Accuate Reconstruction of Neunal Morphology
Modeling Dendritic Geometry and the Development of Nerve Connections Passive Cable Modeling-A practical Introduction Modeling Simple and Complex Active Neurons Realistic Modeling of Small
Neuronal Circuits Modeling of Interactions Between Neural Networks and Musculoskeletal System
‫ــــ‬
18.9 CONTEMPORARY NEUROSURGERY A BIWEEKLY PUBLICATION FOR CLINICAL NEUROSURGICAL CONTINUING MEDICAL EDUCATION (Ali F. Krisht, MD)
‫ــــ‬
19.9 Core Curriculum in Primary Care Psychiatry and Pain Management Section
‫ــــ‬
(Micheal K. Rees, MD, MPH, Robert Birnbaum, MD, PHD, James A.D. Otis)
‫ ﻋﻤﺪﺗﺎﹰ ﺟﻬﺖ ﭘﺎﺳﺨﮕﻮﻳﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻧﻴﺎﺯ ﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﻋﻤﺪﺓ ﻓﻌﺎﻟﻴﺘﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﻪ ﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﺳﺮﭘﺎﻳﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ ﺑﻪ ﻃﻮﺭﻳﻜﻪ ﺗﻤﺎﻡ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻭ ﻣﻔﺎﻫﻴﻢ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﺟﺮﺍﻱ ﻋﻤﻠـﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻛﻠﻴﻨﻴـﻚ ﺟﻬـﺖﺩﻫـﻲ‬CCC ‫ ﺍﺯ ﺳﺮﻱ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
:‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺩﻭ ﻣﺒﺤﺚ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬.‫" ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﻧﻤﺎﻳﻨﺪ‬Current best Standard of therapy"‫ﺷﺪﻩﺍﻧﺪ ﻭ ﺁﺧﺮﻳﻦ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺎ ﺷﻌﺎﺭ‬
:‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﺩ ﻭ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺳﺮ ﻓﺼﻞﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‬Harvard Medical School ‫ ﺍﺯ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﮕﺎﻩ‬Robert Birnbaum ‫ ﻛﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‬: Psychopharmacology for primay Care Medicine -١
Anxiety disorder- Panic disorder- Social phobia- Specific phobia- Obcessive & Compulsire disorder- PTSD- Generalized Anxiety disorder- Depression-Dysthymia
.‫ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ( ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻭ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‬-‫ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﺪﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ‬-‫ ﻣﺨﺪﺭ‬-‫ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻬﺎﻱ ﺩﺭﺩ )ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻳﻲ‬-‫ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺩﺳﺘﻪﺑﻨﺪﻱ‬-‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﻭ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ‬Boston ‫ ﺍﺯ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﮕﺎﻩ‬James A.D. otis ‫ ﻛﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‬: Pain Management -٢
.‫ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﻟﺨﻮﺍﻩ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻭ ﻛﻨﻔﺮﺍﻧﺲ ﺟﺪﺍﮔﺎﻧﻪ ﻧﻴﺰ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬CD ‫ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩﻱ ﺳﻮﺍﻝ ﺩﺭ ﺭﺍﺑﻄﻪ ﺑﺎ ﻣﺒﺤﺚ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻣﻄﺮﺡ ﻭ ﭘﺎﺳﺦ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬print ‫ﻣﺘﻦ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲﻫﺎ ﺩﺭ ﻓﺎﻳﻞ ﺟﺪﺍﮔﺎﻧﻪﺍﻱ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﻗﺎﺑﻞ‬
20.9 Corel Medical Series Epilepsy (Alan Guberman MD, FRCP (C)) (Professor of Neurology University of Ottawa
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﻛﺎﻣـﻞ‬Quiz ‫ ﺍﻧﻴﻤﻴﺸـﻦ ﻭ ﻗﻄﻌـﺎﺕ ﻭﻳـﺪﺋﻮﻳﻲ ﻭ‬-‫ ﺳﺮ ﻓﺼﻞﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﺁﻧﺎﻟﻴﺰ ﮔﺮﺩﺩ ﻭ ﺑﺎ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ‬:‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺳﻌﻲ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﻳﻜﺴﺮﻱ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺸﻜﻼﺕ ﺷﺎﻳﻊ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻣﺒﺘﻼ ﺑﻪ ﺻﺮﻉ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﻮﺩ‬.‫ ﺍﺯ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﮕﺎﻩ ﺍﺗﺎﻭﺍ ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻭ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬Allan Guberman ‫ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‬
‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺳﺮ ﻓﺼﻞﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬problem based interactive ‫ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ‬review ‫ ﺳﻌﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻭ‬.‫ ﺗﻤﺎﻣﻲ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ ﺍﺯ ﻧﻘﺎﻁ ﻗﻮﺕ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﻣﺤﺴﻮﺏ ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﺩ‬Print ‫ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻭ ﺗﻮﺍﻧﺎﻳﻲ ﺑﺎﺯﮔﺸﺖ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ ﻭ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ‬-‫ ﻗﻮﻱ‬Search .‫ﮔﺮﺩﺩ‬
Definitions
Topic index
Epilepsy Notes
Patient & Family information
Epilepsy Case Study
Video
Reference list
Epilepsy Facts
What is Epilepsy
Learning Objectives
2002
21.9 CRANIAL NERVES in health and disease (Second Edition)
‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻋﺎﻟﻲ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻴﻚ ﻭ ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺴﻴﺮﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻋﺼﺎﺏ ﻛﺮﺍﻧﻴﺎﻝ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻃﺮﺍﻑ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻐﺰ ﻭ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻐﺰ ﺑﻪ‬.‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺟﻤﻌﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺍﺳﺎﺗﻴﺪ ﺟﺮﺍﺡ ﻭ ﻧﻮﺭﻭﻟﻮﮊﻳﺴﺖ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﮕﺎﻩﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﺎﻧﺎﺩﺍ ﻧﻮﺷﺘﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬2002 ‫ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻓﻮﻕ ﭼﺎﭖ‬PDF ‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺘﻦ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
‫ ﻣﻄﺮﺡ ﺷـﺪﻩ ﻭ ﻟـﺬﺍ ﺑـﺮﺍﻱ‬Problem-oriented ‫ ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺑﺮ ﻣﺒﻨﺎﻱ‬.‫ ﮔﻨﺠﺎﻧﺪﻩ ﺷﺪﻩﺍﻧﺪ‬CD ‫ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺩﺭﻙ ﺑﻬﺘﺮ ﺭﻭﺍﺑﻂ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻴﻚ ﻭ ﺍﺛﺮﺍﺕ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻚ ﺩﺭ‬animation ‫ ﭼﻨﺪ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ‬.‫ ﺳﻨﺎﺭﻳﻮﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻭ ﺗﺴﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺧﻮﺩﺁﺯﻣﺎﻳﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬،‫ﺍﻃﺮﺍﻑ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻗﺎﻟﺐ ﻣﺘﻦ‬
.‫ ﺩﺭ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﺎﺕ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻫﺮ ﻛﺪﺍﻡ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻋﺼﺎﺏ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﺗﻚ ﺗﻚ ﮔﻨﺠﺎﻧﺪﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ ﻭ ﭼﺸﻢ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺑﺴﻴﺎﺭ ﻣﻔﻴﺪ ﻭ ﺿﺮﻭﺭﻱ ﺑﻪ ﻧﻈﺮ ﻣﻲﺭﺳﺪ‬ENT ،‫ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻓﻚ ﻭ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ‬،‫ﺩﺍﻧﺸﺠﻮﻳﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺭﺯﻳﺪﻧﺖﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﺭﺷﺘﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻧﻮﺭﻭﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬
22.9 Critical Decisions in Headache Management
(Giammarco. Edmeads. Dodick)
‫ــــ‬
(SALEKAN E-BOOK)
2002
23.9 CURRENT MANAGEMENT IN CHILD NEUROLOGY (SECOND EDITION) (Bernrd L. Maria, MD, MBA)
Section 1: Clinical Practice Trends
Section 2: The Office Visit
Section 3: The Hospitalized Child
‫ــــ‬
24.9 DICTIONARY OF MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS (Lance D Blumgardt) (Martin Dunitz)
25.9 DISORDERS OF COGNITIVE FUNCTION
(VCD-I)
Severe Amnesic Syndrome: Anterograde and Retrograde Amnesia
Left Spatial Neglect
Broca's Aphasia
26.9 DISORDERS OF COGNITIVE FUNCTION
Wernicke's Aphasia
Negative Signs of Executive Dysfunction
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
Perseverative Verbal Behavior in Amnesia
Eye Movements in Severe Left Spatial Neglect
Lewy Bodies
Semantic Memory Loss
Anosognosia for Hemiparesis
Impaired Verbatim Repetition
Fluctuativng Sensorium in Dementia With
Paraphasias
2002
(VCD-II) (AMERICAN ACADEMY OF NEUROLOGY) (CONTINUUM)
Dysexecutive Syndrome
Prosopognosia and Visual Agnosia
27.9 DISORDERS OF COGNITIVE FUNCTION
2002
(AMERICAN ACADEMY OF NEUROLOGY) (CONTINUUM)
Disinhibited Behavior
Simultanagnosia
Grasp Response and Imitation Behavior
Optic Ataxia
Positive Signs of Executive Dysfunction
Ocular Apraxia
(VCD-III) (AMERICAN ACADEMY OF NEUROLOGY) (CONTINUUM)
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
Progressive Apraxia
2002
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
53
Basic Mental Status Examination
28.9
Token Test for Auditory Comprehension
Confrontation Naming
Finger Constructions
Luria 3-Step Test
Line Cancellation
Gestural Praxis
‫ــــ‬
Electromyography & Neuromuscular Disorders Clinical Electrophysiologic Correlations (David C. Preston, Barbara E. Shapiro)
29.9 EMG Training (Kenneth Ricker, M.D.)
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﻣﺘﻦ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺕ ﻛﺎﻓﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﻛﺎﺭ‬.‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺭﺍ ﻫﻤﺎﻧﮕﻮﻧﻪ ﻛﻪ ﻣﺎﻧﻴﺘﻮﺭ ﻣﺸﺎﻫﺪﻩ ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﺩ ﺑﻪ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﻛﺸﻴﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺻﺪﺍﻱ ﺁﻥ ﺭﺍ ﭘﺨﺶ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﺪ‬٢٧ ‫ ﺍﺯ‬EMG ‫ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ‬٧٥ .‫ ﺗﻬﻴﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬TOENNIES ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﻛﻪ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻣﻴﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺷﺮﻛﺖ‬
.‫ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻣﺒﺘﺪﻳﺎﻥ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺍﻓﺮﺍﺩ ﻣﺠﺮﺏ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﻪ ﺟﺎﻟﺐ ﺗﻮﺟﻪ ﺧﻮﺍﻫﺪ ﺑﻮﺩ‬CD ‫ ﻓﺎﻳﻞﻫﺎ ﺭﺍ ﻓﺮﺍﻫﻢ ﻣﻲﺁﻭﺭﺩ ﺍﻳﻦ‬Search ‫ ﺍﻣﻜﺎﻥ‬EMG glossary .‫ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻳﻚ ﻓﺎﻳﻞ ﻣﺴﺘﻘﻞ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﺩ‬Case ‫ ﻫﺮ‬.‫ﺭﺍ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺗﻲ ﺭﺍ ﻣﻄﺮﺡ ﻧﻤﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﭘﺎﺳﺦ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
30.9 ENS Teaching Course
‫ ﻋﻤﺪﺓ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻣﻄﺮﺡﺷﺪﻩ ﺗﺤﺖ ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺑﻪﺭﻭﺯ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻋﻤﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺑﺤﺚﺍﻧﮕﻴﺰ ﻧﻮﺭﻭﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺟﺪﻳﺪ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺩﻳﺪﮔﺎﻩ ﺟﺪﻳﺪ ﻧﺴﺒﺖ ﺑﻪ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺷﺎﻳﻊ ﻧﻮﺭﻭﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺭﺍ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‬٢٠٠٣ ‫ ﺩﺭ ﺳﺎﻝ‬ENS ‫ ﻛﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﻘﺎﻻﺕ ﺩﻭﺭﺓ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻛﻨﮕﺮﻩ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
.‫ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻧﻴﺰ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬Title ‫ﺯﻳﺮ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﻣﻲﮔﻴﺮﻧﺪ ﻛﻪ ﻫﺮ ﻛﺪﺍﻡ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﭼﻨﺪ‬
‫ــــ‬
Dizziness and vesthg
Neurogenetics for Clinicians
Neuroimaging
ICU in Neurology
31.9 EPILEPSY
Clinical Neurophysiology
NeuroSurgery for Neurologist
Neurology of Systemic disease
Movement discords
The Comprehensive CD-ROM
Clinical Neuropathology
Epilepsy
Parkinson's diseane
Neuroplathies
Sleep Disorder
Multiple Sclerosis
Ultrasound in Neurology
Current Treatments Neurology
(Jerome Engel, Jr., M.D., Ph.D., Timothy A. Pedley, M.D.)
Stroke
Muscle disorders
Dementia
1999
Lippincott Williams & Wilkins
‫ ﺗﻮﺍﻧـﺎﻳﻲ‬.‫ ﮔﻨﺠﺎﻧـﺪﻩ ﺷـﺪﻩ ﺍﺳـﺖ‬CD ‫ ﺩﺭ‬imaging ‫ ﻋﻜـﺲ ﻭ‬٨٠٠ ‫ ﻫﻤﭽﻨـﻴﻦ‬.‫ ﺳﺮﻓﺼـﻞ ﻣـﻲﺑﺎﺷـﺪ‬٢٨٩ ‫ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺭ ﺑﺮﻣﻲﮔﻴﺮﺩ ﻛـﻪ ﻣﺸـﺘﻤﻞ ﺑـﺮ‬Full text .‫ ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬Epilepsy: A comprehensive textBook ‫ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
.‫ ﺭﻓﺮﺍﻧﺲ ﻛﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﻧﻮﻳﺴﻨﺪﻩ ﺟﻤﻊﺁﻭﺭﻱ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﺍﺯ ﻧﻘﺎﻁ ﻗﻮﺕ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﻣﺤﺴﻮﺏ ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﺩ‬٥٠٠ ‫ ﻭ ﺧﻼﺻﻪ ﻣﻘﺎﻻﺕ ﺑﻴﺶ ﺍﺯ‬Weblink- Seasch
32.9
Essentials of Clinical Neurophysiology (Karl E. Misulis MD. PhD, Thomas C. Head MD)
33.9
Foundations of NEUROBIOLOGY
2002
‫ــــ‬
.‫ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‬٥ ‫ ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬،‫ ﻭ ﺗﻜﻤﻴﻞ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺍﻓﺮﺍﺩﻱ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺎ ﻋﻠﻮﻡ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﺍﻋﺼﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺳﺮﻭﻛﺎﺭ ﺩﺍﺭﻧﺪ‬Self evaluattion ‫ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻨﻈﻮﺭ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
.‫ ﺧﻮﺩﺁﺯﻣﺎﻳﻲﻫﺎ ﻛﻪ ﻓﻬﺮﺳﺖﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺩﺍﺭﻧﺪ‬-١
‫ ﺁﻣﺎﺩﮔﻲ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻣﺎ ﺍﻣﻜـﺎﻥ ﻣـﻲﺩﻫـﺪ ﺑـﺎ‬-٤ Expansion Module -٣ .‫ ﺍﻧﻴﻤﻴﺸﻦﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻓﻴﻠﻢﻫﺎﻱ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮﻳﻲ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﻧﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺑﻴﺎﺩﻣﺎﻧﺪﻧﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺕ ﻛﺘﺒﻲ ﺭﺍﺟﻊ ﺑﻪ ﻫﺮ ﻗﻄﻌﻪ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ‬-٢
.‫ ﻣﻌﺮﻓﻲ ﺷﺪﻩﺍﻧﺪ ﻭ ﻟﻴﻨﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺘﻌﺪﺩ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩﺍﻧﺪ‬Neurobiology ‫ ﺳﺎﻳﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻠﻮﻡ‬، CD ‫ ﺩﺭ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺩﻳﮕﺮﻱ ﺍﺯ‬.‫ ﻣﺨﺼﻮﺹ ﺑﻪ ﺧﻮﺩ ﺭﺍ ﺳﺎﺧﺘﻪ ﻭ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻛﻨﻔﺮﺍﻧﺲﻫﺎ ﻳﺎ ﺗﺪﺭﻳﺲ ﺍﺯ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺑﻬﺮﻩ ﺑﺒﺮﻳﻢ‬play list ، CD ‫ﺍﺷﻜﺎﻝ ﻭ ﻓﻴﻠﻢﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺭ‬
34.9 Foundations of Behavioural Neuroscience
-Neural Communication - Central Nervous system
-Research methods
-Visual System
- Control of movements
‫ــــ‬
Quiz ‫ ﺩﺭ ﭼﻨﺪ ﻓﺼـﻞ ﺳـﻮﺍﻻﺗﻲ ﺑـﻪ ﻋﻨـﻮﺍﻥ‬.‫ ﻓﻬﺮﺳﺖ ﺩﺭﺧﺘﭽﻪﺍﻱ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ ﻛﻤﻚ ﻣﻬﻤﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻳﺎﺩﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﻋﻠﻮﻡ ﭘﺎﻳﻪ ﺍﻋﺼﺎﺏ ﻣﻲﻧﻤﺎﻳﺪ‬.‫ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬glossary , Search ‫ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﻣﻮﺗﻮﺭ‬.‫ﺣﺎﻭﻱ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮﻱ ﺑﺎ ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻋﺎﻟﻲ ﻭ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺭﺍﺣﺖ ﺟﻬﺖ ﻓﻬﻢ ﺟﺰﺋﻴﺎﺕ ﭘﻴﭽﻴﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺭﻳﺰ ﺳﺎﺧﺘﻤﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﻧﻮﺭﻭﻧﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬
.‫ﻣﻄﺮﺡ ﺷﺪﻩﺍﻧﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺗﻜﻤﻴﻞ ﺁﻣﻮﺧﺘﻪﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻳﺎﺩﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﻣﻨﺎﺳﺐ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
35.9 FUNDAMENTALS OF HUMAN NEURAL STRUCTURE (S. Mark Williams) (Sylvius
36.9 General depression and its pharmacological treatment (Professor Brain Leonard)
TM
‫ــــ‬
2.0)
‫ــــ‬
(VCD)
37.9 Guidelines (American Academy of Neurology) (SALEKAN E-BOOK)
.‫ ﺑﺎ ﺩﺳﺘﺮﺳﻲ ﺁﺳﺎﻥ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺧﺘﻴﺎﺭ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‬Offline ‫ ﺩﺭ ﺁﻣﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﻣﻘﺎﻻﺕ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ‬Salekan E-Book ‫ ﺩﺭ ﻗﺎﻟﺐ‬Search ‫ ﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺁﻛﺎﺩﻣﻲ ﻧﻮﺭﻭﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺁﻣﺮﻳﻜﺎ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻓﺎﻳﻞ ﻗﺎﺑﻞ‬Guidline ‫ ﻛﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺁﺧﺮﻳﻦ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
- Brain Injury & Brain Death - Child Neurology
38.9
- Dementia
- Epilepsy
- Headache - Movement Disorders - Multiple Sclerosis
Human Brain Cancer: Diagnostic Decisions (Lauren A. Langford, MD, Dr. med,)
- Neuroimaging
- Neuromuscular
- Stroke and Vascular Neurology
-Technology Assessment
American Medical Association
39.9 ICU Syllabus
‫ ﺑـﺎ‬PDF ‫ ﺟﻤﻊﺁﻭﺭﻱ ﻭ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻓﺎﻳﻞ‬٢٠٠٤ ‫ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻨﺎﺑﻊ ﻭ ﻣﺠﻼﺕ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺗﺎ ﺳﺎﻝ‬ICU Patient Care ‫ ﺁﺧﺮﻳﻦ ﻣﻘﺎﻻﺕ ﻣﻨﺘﺸﺮﻩ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﻣﻘﺎﻻﺕ ﻣﻬﻢ ﻗﺒﻠﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ‬،‫ ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬،‫ ﺳﺮﻭﻛﺎﺭ ﺩﺍﺭﻧﺪ‬ICU ‫ ﻛﻪ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﺎﻧﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﺑﺪﺣﺎﻝ ﻭ ﺑﺴﺘﺮﻱ ﺩﺭ‬CD ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
:‫ ﺳﺮﻓﺼﻞﻫﺎﻱ ﻋﻤﺪﻩ ﻋﺒﺎﺭﺗﻨﺪ ﺍﺯ‬.‫ ﻗﻮﻱ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬Search ‫ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ‬
Anemia and blood Transfusion
Hyperghycemia and Ihsulia
Non invasive Ventilation
ARDS
Hypothermia for cardiac arrest
Nutritions
40.9 Interactive Guide to Human Neuroanatomy
Atlas:
-Surface Anatomy of Brain
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
Ethics
Impaired cognition
Pneumonia
Fever Wokup
Liver disease
Pulmonary Embolism
Hemodynamics
Mechanical Vetitation
Renal failure
RARS
Sedation
Sepsis
-The Spinal Cord -The Anatomy Nervous System
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
Weaning
From Mechanical Vetitation
2002
(Mark F. Bear, Barry W. Connors, Michael A. Paradiso)
-Cross-Sectional Anatomy of Brain
2004
-The Cranial Nerves -The Blood Supply to the Brain
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
‫‪54‬‬
‫‪-Comprehensive Exam‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪5. Functional Systems‬‬
‫‪-Cross-Sectional Anatomy of the Brain‬‬
‫‪4. Microscopical Sections‬‬
‫‪2003‬‬
‫‪Exam:I -Surface Anatomy of the Brain‬‬
‫)‪41.9 InterBRAIN (Martin C. hirsh) (Springer‬‬
‫‪3. Brain Slices‬‬
‫‪2. Vessels and Meninges‬‬
‫‪1. Gross Anatomy‬‬
‫‪42.9 International Symposium ON 10 Years Betaferon‬‬
‫‪ CD‬ﻓﻮﻕ ﻛﻪ ﻣﺎﺣﺼﻞ ﺳﻤﭙﻮﺯﻳﻮﻡ ﭘﺮﺍﮒ ﺩﺭ ﺳﺎﻝ ‪ ٢٠٠٣‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺗﺠﺮﺑﻪ ﺩﻩﺳﺎﻟﺔ ﻣﺼﺮﻑ ﺑﺘﺎﻓﺮﻭﻥﻫﺎ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ‪ MS‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺗﻤﺎﻡ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻣﻄﺮﺡﺷﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﻨﮕﺮﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻋﺒﺎﺭﺗﻨﺪ ﺍﺯ‪:‬‬
‫ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺳﻤﭙﺘﻮﻣﺎﺗﻴﻚ ﻭ ﺗﻮﺍﻧﺒﺨﺸﻲ ﺩﺭ ‪MS‬‬
‫ﺍﻓﻖﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺪﻳﺪ‬
‫‪2003‬‬
‫‪Geomics and Proteomics‬‬
‫ﻧﺘﺎﻳﺞ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌﺎﺕ ‪ BENEFIT‬ﻭ ‪BEYOND‬‬
‫ﺁﻣﻮﺧﺘﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺎﻟﻮﺯ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌﺎﺕ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﺩﺭﺑﺎﺭﺓ ﻓﺎﻛﺘﻮﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﺮﻭﮔﻨﻮﺳﺘﻴﻚ‬
‫ﺍﻳﻨﺘﺮﻓﺮﻭﻥ ﺩﻭﺯ ﺑﺎﻻ ﻳﺎ ﭘﺎﻳﻴﻦ؟‬
‫ﺍﻫﻤﻴﺖ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻳﺎﻓﺘﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻧﺮﻭﭘﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻚ ‪MS‬‬
‫ﺗﺎﺭﻳﺨﭽﺔ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻣﺪﺭﻥ ‪MS‬‬
‫ﻧﻘﺶ ‪ Stem Cell Transplant‬ﺩﺭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ‪Aggressive MS‬‬
‫ﺑﺘﺎﻓﺮﻭﻥ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ‪Primary Progressive MS‬‬
‫)‪43.9 Kaplan & Sadock's STUDY SUIDE & SEIF-EXAMINATION REVIEW IN PSYCHIATRY (Seventh Edition) (Benjamin James Sadock‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺩﺭ ﺑﺮﮔﻴﺮﻧﺪﺓ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ‪ Synopsis‬ﻛﺎﭘﻼﻥ )‪ (٢٠٠٣‬ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻃﻮﺭ ﺧﻼﺻﻪﺗﺮﻳﻦﻫﺎ ﺑﺮ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﺗﻤﺎﻡ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺗﺎﺯﻩﺗﺮ ﻭ ﺑﻪﺭﻭﺯﺷﺪﻩﺗﺮ ﻣﺮﺗﺒﻂ ﺑﺎ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺩﺭ ﻗﻴﺎﺱ ﺑﺎ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ‪ Synopsis‬ﺭﺍ ﭘﻮﺷﺶ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‪ .‬ﺟﻨﺒﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﺁﻥ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺗﻤﺎﻡ‬
‫ﺭﺯﻳﺪﻧﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ‪ ،‬ﺩﺍﻧﺸﺠﻮﻳﺎﻥ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‪ ،‬ﺭﻭﺍﻧﺸﻨﺎﺳﻲ‪ ،‬ﻣﺪﺩﻛﺎﺭﻱ ﺍﺟﺘﻤﺎﻋﻲ‪ ،‬ﺭﻭﺍﻥﭘﺮﺳﺘﺎﺭﻱ‪ ،‬ﻛﺎﺭﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻭ ﺳﺎﻳﺮ ﺣﺮﻓﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺮﺗﺒﻂ ﺑﺎ ﺳﻼﻣﺖ ﺭﻭﺍﻥ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪.‬‬
‫‪44.9 MANAGE STRESS‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪ CD‬ﻣﻮﻟﺘﻲﻣﺪﻳﺎ ﻭ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻱ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻛﻨﺘﺮﻝ ﺍﺳﺘﺮﺱ‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫ﺷﻨﺎﺳﺎﻳﻲ ﺍﺳﺘﺮﺱ‪ ،‬ﺗﻄﺎﺑﻖ ﺑﺎ ﺍﺳﺘﺮﺱ ﺍﻳﺠﺎﺩ ﻭ ﺗﻨﺎﻭﺏ ﻭ ﺗﻌﺎﺩﻝ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﻲ‬
‫ﻗﺎﺑﻞ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺤﻴﻂﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻓﺮﺩﻱ ﻭ ﮔﺮﻭﻫﻲ‬
‫)‪45.9 MANAGING STRESS (Audio CD‬‬
‫‪ CD‬ﺻﻮﺗﻲ ﺣﺎﻭﻱ ﺁﻫﻨﮓﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﺭﺍﻡ‪ ،‬ﺗﺄﻳﻴﺪﺷﺪﻩ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺁﺭﺍﻳﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻭ ﺭﻓﺘﺎﺭﻱ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﻣﻨﺎﺳﺐ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺷﺨﺼﻲ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻛﺴﺐ ﺁﺭﺍﻣﺶ ﻭ ﻛﻨﺘﺮﻝ ﺍﺳﺘﺮﺱ‪.‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫)‪46.9 Manual of Nerver Conduction Study & Surface Anatomy for Needle Electromyography (Hang J. Lee, Joel A. Delisa) (Fourth Edition‬‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫)‪47.9 Manual of Neurologic Therapeutics (seventh edition‬‬
‫)‪(Martin A. Samuels, Brigham & Women's Hospital, Harvard Medical School‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪(SALEKAN E-BOOK‬‬
‫)‪(Second Edition‬‬
‫)‪48.9 Manual of Pain Management (Carol A. Warfield, Hilary J. Fausett‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺑﺎ ﻓﺮﻣﺖ ﺧﺎﺹ ﺧﻮﺩ ﻛﻪ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺁﻥ ﺭﺍ ﺭﺍﺣﺖ ﻧﻤﻮﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺯﻣﻨﻴﺔ ﻛﺎﻣﻠﻲ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌﻪ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺍﺩﺍﺭﻩ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻣﺒﺘﻼ ﺑﻪ ﺩﺭﺩﻫﺎﻱ ﻗﺴﻤﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺑﺪﻥ ﺭﺍ ﻓﺮﺍﻫﻢ ﻣﻲﺁﻭﺭﺩ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺍﻭﻝ ﻧﻈﺮﻳﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻋﻤﺪﺓ ﻓﻴﺰﻭﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺩﺭﺩ ﻣﻄﺮﺡ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﻋﻤﺪﻩ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺗﻮﺻﻴﻔﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺳﻨﺪﺭﻡﻫﺎﻱ ﺷﺎﻳﻊ ﺩﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻛﻼﺳﻪﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﺷﺪﻩﺍﻧﺪ‪ .‬ﻓﺼﻞ ﺑﻌﺪﻱ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥﻫﺎ ﻭ ‪Procedure‬ﻫﺎﻳﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﺎﻥ ﺩﺭﺩﻣﻨﺪ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺎﺭ ﻣﻲﺭﻭﻧﺪ‪ ،‬ﻣﺘﻤﺮﻛﺰ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺩﺭﺩ ﻛﻮﺩﻛﺎﻥ‪ ،‬ﺳﺎﻟﻤﻨﺪﺍﻥ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻣﺒﺘﻼ ﺑﻪ ‪ HIV‬ﻧﻴﺰ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ‬
‫ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪-Pain Management‬‬
‫‪-Common Painful Syndromes‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫‪-Pain by Anatomic Location‬‬
‫‪-Understanding pain‬‬
‫)‪49.9 Merritt's Neurology (Eleven Edition) (Lewis P. Rowland‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪(CD I, II , III , IV‬‬
‫‪2001‬‬
‫)‪50.9 Microneurosurgery (M. G. Yasargil) Cassette 1 Aneurysms (VCD) (Thieme AV‬‬
‫)‪51.9 Migraine Current Approaches To Treatment (Dr. Andrew Dowson‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪52.9 Motor Speech Disorders (Joseph R. Duffy, PHD‬‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫)‪53.9 Movement Disorders Society Official Journal of The Movement Disorder Society Published by John Wiley & Sons, Ins VCD (I, II‬‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫)‪54.9 Needle Electromyography (Daniel Dumitru, M.D., PhD.‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ‪ Needle EMG‬ﻧﻮﺷﺘﺔ ‪ Daniel Dumitru‬ﺩﺭ ﺳﺎﻝ ‪ ٢٠٠٢‬ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻭ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺘﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﻌﻼﻭﺓ ‪ EMG Video Library‬ﺍﺳﺖ‪ ٣٣ .‬ﻓﺎﻳﻞ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺍﻣﻮﺍﺝ ﻧﺮﻣﺎﻝ ﻭ ﻏﻴﺮﻧﺮﻣﺎﻝ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﻛﺎﻓﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺍﺟﺮﺍﻱ ‪ EMG‬ﻭ ‪Pitfull‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻥ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺧﺘﻴﺎﺭ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﻨﺪ‪ .‬ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ ‪ Glossary , Search‬ﻗﻮﻱ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺰﺍﻳﺎﻱ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﻓﻮﻕ ﻣﺤﺴﻮﺏ ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﺩ‪.‬‬
‫‪1999‬‬
‫)‪55.9 NEUROANATOMY-3D-Stereoscopic Atlas of the Human Brain (Martin C. Hirsch, Thomas Kramer) (Springer‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺳﻪ ﺑﻌﺪﻱ ﻭ ﺑﺴﻴﺎﺭ ﺩﻗﻴﻘﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﻋﺼﺒﻲ ﻣﺮﻛﺰﻱ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺗﻮﺟﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻗﺪﺭﺕ ﺑﺎﻻﻱ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﻗﺎﺩﺭﻳﻢ ﺍﺯ ﻫﺮ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺩﻟﺨﻮﺍﻩ ﺑﻪ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ‪ Gross‬ﻣﻐﺰ ﺑﻨﮕﺮﻳﻢ‪ .‬ﺑﺎ ﺩﺭﻧﻈﺮﮔﺮﻓﺘﻦ ﺍﻳﻨﻜﻪ ﺗﻚ ﺗﻚ ﺍﺟﺰﺍﻱ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﻋﺼﺒﻲ ﺭﺍ ﻣﺮﺣﻠﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻣﺮﺣﻠﻪ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﺑﻪ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﻗﺒﻠﻲ ﺍﺿﺎﻓﻪ ﻭ ﻳﺎ‬
‫ﻛﻢ ﻛﺮﺩ‪ ،‬ﺟﺰﺋﻴﺎﺕ ﺍﺭﺗﺒﺎﻃﺎﺕ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢﻫﺎﻱ ﻋﻤﻠﻜﺮﺩﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺑﻪ ﻭﺿﻮﺡ ﻣﺸﺨﺺ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻭ ﺑﺮﺵﻫﺎ ﺑﺴﻴﺎﺭ ﻫﻮﺷﻤﻨﺪﺍﻧﻪ ﻭ ﻫﻨﺮﻣﻨﺪﺍﻧﻪ ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﮔﺸﺘﻪﺍﻧﺪ ﻭ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﺠﻮﻳﺎﻥ‪ ،‬ﭘﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ ﻭ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﺩﺭﮔﻴﺮ ﺑﺎ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﻋﺼﺒﻲ ﺁﻧﺮﺍ ﺗﺠﺮﺑﺔ ﺟﺪﻳﺪﻱ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻛﺮﺩﻩﺍﻧﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪56.9 Neurofunctional Systems 3D‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪57.9 Neurological surgery (julian R. Youmans , MD Editor-in-Chief) (Fourth Edition) (Y.O.U.M.A.N.S‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
‫‪55‬‬
‫‪2001‬‬
‫)‪58.9 Neurology (Baker's clinical on CD-ROM‬‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫‪59.9 New Analgesic Options: Overcoming Obstacles to Pain Relief‬‬
‫‪-References‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪1998‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪-Trauma‬‬
‫‪-Post Op Pain‬‬
‫‪-Back Pain -Fibromyalgia‬‬
‫‪-OA Pain‬‬
‫‪-Pharmacist Answer Sheet‬‬
‫‪- MD, NP, PA, RN Answer Sheet‬‬
‫‪25.7 Photographic manual of Regional Orthopaedic and Neurological Tests‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺑﻴﺶ ﺍﺯ ‪ ٨٥٠‬ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺗﻤﺎﻡ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﺎﺕ ﻧﻮﺭﻭﻟﻮﮊﻳﻚ ﻭ ﺍﺭﺗﻮﭘﺪﻳﻚ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺎ ﺟﺰﺋﻴﺎﺕ ﺗﻤﺎﻡ ﺭﻭﺷﻦ ﻣﻲﺳﺎﺯﺩ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺍﻗﻊ ﻟﺰﻭﻡ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻴﻚ ﺿﺮﻭﺭﻱ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺍﺿﺎﻓﻪ ﺷﺪﻩﺍﻧﺪ‪ .‬ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﻣﺤﻞ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﻪ ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻭ ﻗﺴﻤﺖﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﺷـﺪﻩﺍﻧـﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﺎﺕ ﺍﺯ ﻓﻘﺮﺍﺕ ﮔﺮﺩﻧﻲ ﻭ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﻡ ﻓﻮﻗﺎﻧﻲ ﺷﺮﻭﻉ ﻭ ﺑﻪ ﻓﻘﺮﺍﺕ ﻛﻤﺮﻱ ﻭ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﻡﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺤﺘﺎﻧﻲ ﺧﺘﻢ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﻧﺪ‪ .‬ﻫﺮ ‪ Test‬ﺩﺭ ﻳﻚ ﺻﻔﺤﻪ ﻳﺎ ﺩﻭ ﺻﻔﺤﻪ ﻣﻘﺎﺑﻞ ﻫﻢ ﺑﺎ ﻋﻜﺲﻫﺎﻳﻲ ﻛﻪ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺍﻧﺠـﺎﻡ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨـﻪ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻮﺿـﻮﺡ ﻧﺸـﺎﻥ ﻣـﻲﺩﻫﻨـﺪ ﺗﻮﺿـﻴﺢ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷـﺪﻩ ﺍﺳـﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺿـﻤﻦ ﻳـﻚ‬
‫‪ Sensitivity/Relialility Scale‬ﻧﻴﺰ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻫﺮ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﻪ ﺗﻌﺮﻳﻒ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﻣﻴﺰﺍﻥ ﺣﺴﺎﺳﻴﺖ ﻭ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ ﺍﻋﺘﻤﺎﺩ ﺑﻪ ﺁﻥ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﻪ ﺭﺍ ﻣﺸﺨﺺ ﻣﻲﺳﺎﺯﺩ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻜﺎﺭﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺗﺴﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺣﺴﺎﺳﺘﺮ ﻭ ﺍﺧﺘﺼﺎﺹﺗﺮ ﻛﻤﻚ ﻓﺮﺍﻭﺍﻥ ﺑﻪ ﭘﺰﺷﻚ ﻣﻲﻧﻤﺎﻳﺪ‪.‬‬
‫)‪60.9 Principles of Neurology (6th Edition) (Raymond D. Adams, M.A., M.D.‬‬
‫‪61.9 PROFESS‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﻛﻪ ﻣﺎﺣﺼﻞ ﺳﻤﭙﻮﺯﻳﻮﻡ ﭘﻴﺸﮕﻴﺮﻱ ﺍﺯ ﺳﻜﺘﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻐﺰﻱ ﺩﺭ ‪ International Stroke Conference‬ﺩﺭﺁﺭﻳﺰﻭﻧﺎﻱ ﺍﻣﺮﻳﻜﺎ ﺩﺭ ﺳﺎﻝ ‪ ٢٠٠٣‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﭼﺎﻟﺶﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻴﺶﺭﻭ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻭ ﭘﻴﺸﮕﻴﺮﻱ ﺍﺯ ﺳﻜﺘﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺠﺪﺩ ﻣﻐﺰﻱ ﺭﺍ ﻣﻄﺮﺡ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺁﺧﺮﻳﻦ ﺭﮊﻳﻢﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻭﻳﺮﻭﺗﺮﻛﻞﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺭ ﻗﺎﻟﺐ‬
‫‪Lecture‬ﻫﺎ‪ ،‬ﺳﺆﺍﻝ ﻭ ﺟﻮﺍﺏ ﻭ ﺧﻼﺻﻪ ﻣﻘﺎﻻﺕ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻓﻬﺮﺳﺖ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲﻫﺎ ﻋﺒﺎﺭﺗﻨﺪ ﺍﺯ‪:‬‬
‫‪ -‬ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺗﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭﺑﺎﺭﺓ ﺩﻳﭙﺮﻳﺪﺍﻣﻮﻝ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪ - .‬ﭼﺮﺍ ﺑﺮﺧﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺎ ‪ CVA‬ﻣﺘﻔﺎﻭﺕ ﺍﺯ ‪ MI‬ﺍﺳﺖ‪ - .‬ﺁﻳﺎ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻣﺮﻛﺐ ﺁﻧﺘﻲﭘﻜﺪﺗﻲ ﺧﻄﺮﻧﺎﻙ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻳﺎ ﻣﻔﻴﺪ؟ ‪ -‬ﺁﻳﺎ ﺁﻧﮋﻳﻮﺗﺎﻧﻴﻦ ‪ II‬ﺩﻳﺴﻜﺎﻓﺎﻛﺘﻮﺭ ﻣﺴﺘﻘﻠﻲ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺳﻜﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ؟ ‪ -‬ﺭﮊﻳﻢ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﭘﻴﺸﮕﻴﺮﻱ ﺍﺯ ﺳﻜﺘﻪ ﺩﻭﻡ‪.‬‬
‫‪2001‬‬
‫)‪62.9 Recognizing Extrapyramidal Symptoms (VCD‬‬
‫‪- and Tardive- Dyskinesia‬‬
‫ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‪:‬‬
‫‪- Parkinsonism‬‬
‫‪- Akathisia‬‬
‫‪2001‬‬
‫‪- Clinical Examples of Acute Dystonia‬‬
‫‪63.9 Rune Aaslid TCD Simulator Version 2.1‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡ ﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﻳﻚ ﺷﺒﻴﻪ ﺳﺎﺯ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ ﺍﻳﻨﺘﺮﺍﻛﺮﺍﻧﻴﺎﻝ ﻭﺍﻛﺴﺘﺮﺍﻛﺮﺍﻧﻴﺎﻝ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﻣﺨﺘﺮﻉ ‪ ، TCD‬ﺁﻗﺎﻱ ‪ Rune Aaslid‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺘﻨﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ‪ CD‬ﺭﺍ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‪ .‬ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ‪ -‬ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ‪ -‬ﻫﻤﻮﺩﻳﻨﺎﻣﻴﻚ ﻭ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ‬
‫ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﻣﻐﺰﻱ ﺭﺍ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‪ .‬ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﻓﺮﺍﻭﺍﻧﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺟﻤﻠﻪ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺍﺭﺍ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ :‬ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺍﺳﭙﻜﺘﺮﻭﻡ ﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ‪ -‬ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﻣﺤﻞ ﺗﺎﺑﺶ ﻭ ﺯﺍﻭﻳﻪ ﺗﺎﺑﺶ ﺍﻣﻮﺍﺝ‪ -‬ﻣﻮﻧﻴﺘﻮﺭﻳﻨﮓ‪ -‬ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ‪ – CBF‬ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻭ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ‪ ،‬ﻛﻨﺘﺮﻝ ﻛﺎﺭﺩﻳﻮ ﻭﺍﺳﻜﻮﻻﺭ‪ -‬ﺗﺄﺛﻴﺮ ﺗﻐﻴﻴـﺮ ﺿـﺮﺑﺎﻥ ﻗﻠـﺐ‪ -‬ﺗـﺄﺛﻴﺮ ﺗﻐﻴﻴـﺮ‬
‫ﺗﻨﻔﺲ‪ HITS -‬ﻭ ﺑﺎﻻﺧﺮﻩ ﺩﻳﺪ ﺳﻪ ﺑﻌﺪﻱ ﻛﻪ ﺗﺠﺴﻢ ﻣﻮﻗﻌﻴﺖ ﻓﻀﺎﻳﻲ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺍﺧﻞ ﺟﻤﺠﻤﻪ ﺭﺍ ﺳﻬﻞ ﻣﻲﻧﻤﺎﻳﺪ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﻳﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻬﺘﺮﻳﻦ ﻭ ﻣﺆﺛﺮﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﺍﺑﺰﺍﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ‪ TCD‬ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺍﺳﺎﺗﻴﺪ ﻭ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﺠﻮﻳﺎﻥ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﻣﻲﮔﻴﺮﺩ‪ .‬ﻣﻔﺎﻫﻴﻢ ﭘﻴﭽﻴﺪﻩ ﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﻣﻐﺰﻱ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﻣﻠﻤﻮﺱ ﺩﺭ‬
‫ﺍﺧﺘﻴﺎﺭ ﻋﻼﻗﻪﻣﻨﺪﺍﻥ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪64.9 SHAME & Guilt (June Price Tangney, Ronda L. Dearing‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪65.9 Stroke‬‬
‫‪Overview of Stroke: 1. Stroke in Perspective 2. Pathogenesis & Pathophysiology 3. Evaluation & Diagnosis 4. Interventions 5. Thrombolytic Therapy Studies‬‬
‫‪IV Tissue Plasminogen Activator(t-PA) Studies: 1. Recent Multicenter, IV Streptokinase (SK) Studies‬‬
‫‪Ultra Rapid Response: 1. Increasing Public/Professional Awareness 2. Modifying Care Patterns 3. Stroke Care Systems 4. Assessing Critical Resources‬‬
‫‪Case Studies‬‬
‫‪1999‬‬
‫)‪66.9 TEXTBOOK of CLINICAL NEUROLOGY (Christopher G. Goetz, MD, Eric J. Pappert, MD) (W.B. Saunders Company‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫)‪67.9 Textbook of CRITICAL CARE (Salekan E-book‬‬
‫‪SECTION I RESUSCITATION AND MEDICAL EMERGENCIES‬‬
‫‪SECTION II TRAUMA‬‬
‫‪SECTION III IMAGING‬‬
‫‪SECTION IV CELL INJURY AND CELL DEATH‬‬
‫‪SECTION V INFECTIONS DISEASE‬‬
‫‪SECTION VI ENDOCTINOLOGY, METABOLISM, NUTRITION, PHARMACOLOGY‬‬
‫‪SECTION VII CARDIOVASCULAR‬‬
‫‪SECTION VIII PULMONARY‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪TM‬‬
‫)‪Atlas of Brain Anatomy An interactive tool for students, teachers, and researchers (Wieslaw L. Nowinski, A. Thirunavuukarasuu, R. Nick Bryan‬‬
‫‪68.9 The Cerefy‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪69.9 The Clinical Atlas of Parkinson's Disease‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺑﺎ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ‪ MRI‬ﺩﺭ ﺳﻪ ﺟﻬﺖ‪ ،‬ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﻭ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﻧﺎﻣﮕﺬﺍﺭﻱ ﻣﺎ ﺭﺍ ﻗﺎﺩﺭ ﻣﻲﺳﺎﺯﺩ ﺑﺮﺍﺣﺘﻲ ﻫﺮ ﺳﺎﺧﺘﻤﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺧﻠﻲ ﻣﻐﺰﻱ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺭ ‪ ٣‬ﺟﻬﺖ ﺑﻄﻮﺭ ﻫﻤﺰﻣﺎﻥ ﻣﺸﺎﻫﺪﻩ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﻴﻢ‪ .‬ﺟﻬﺖ ﺗﺠﺴﻢ ﻓﻀﺎﻳﻲ ﺑﻬﺘﺮ ﻭ ﻋﻤﻠﻴﺎﺕ ﺍﺳﺘﺮﺗﻮﺗﺎﻛﺴـﻲ ﻣـﻲﺗـﻮﺍﻥ‬
‫‪ Grid‬ﺧﺎﺻﻲ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﺩﺍﺩ ﻭ ﻓﺎﺻﻠﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﻟﺨﻮﺍﻩ ﺭﺍ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﺯﻩﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﻧﻤﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺗﺴﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ‪ interactive‬ﻭ ﺑﺴﻴﺎﺭ ﺟﺬﺍﺏ ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻣﻔﺎﻫﻴﻢ ﻭ ﺁﻣﻮﺧﺘﻪﻫﺎ ﻣﻘﺪﻭﺭ ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﺩ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ‪ Glossory‬ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﻛﺎﻣﻠﻲ ﺭﺍﺟﻊ ﺑﻪ ﻫﺮ ﻛﺪﺍﻡ ﺍﺯ‬
‫ﻣﻨﺎﻃﻖ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻴﻚ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺷﺎﺭﻩ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﻓﺮﺍﺩﻳﻜﻪ ﻧﻮﺭﻭﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ‪ ،‬ﻧﺮﻭﻟﻮﮊﻱ‪ -‬ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺍﻋﺼﺎﺏ‪ -‬ﻧﺮﻭﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‪ -‬ﻋﻠﻮﻡ ﻧﺮﻭﺳﺎﻳﻨﺲ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻣﻲﺁﻣﻮﺯﻧﺪ ﻳﺎ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﻨﺪ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﻣﻲﮔﻴﺮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫)‪(D.J. Nicholl & A. Williams‬‬
‫)‪70.9 The Clinical Diagnosis of Alzheimer's Disease (An Interactive Guide for Family Physician‬‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
56
:‫ ﻣﺒﺤﺚ ﻋﻤﺪﺓ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‬٨ ‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬.‫ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﭼﻨﺪﻱ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬
‫ﺷﺮﺡ ﺣﺎﻝ‬
‫ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺷﻨﺎﺧﺘﻲ‬
71.9 THE HUMAN BRAIN
‫ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻚ‬
Flowchart ‫ ﭼﻨﺪﻳﻦ ﻗﻄﻌﻪ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﺭﺍﺟﻊ ﺑﻪ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﻣﺼﺎﺣﺒﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻣﺒﺘﻼ ﺑﻪ ﺁﻟﺰﺍﻳﻤﺮ ﻭ‬.‫ ﻛﺎﻧﺎﺩﺍ ﺗﻬﻴﻪ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬RiverView ‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺳﺘﺎﻥ‬Alzheimer disease group ‫ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﮔﺮﻭﻩ‬
Case Studies
‫ﻣﻌﺮﻓﻲ‬
‫ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﺎﺕ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ‬
‫ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺁﺯﻣﺎﻳﺸﮕﺎﻫﻲ‬
‫ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ‬
(Marion Hall David Robinson)
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
72.9 THE HUMAN NERVOUS SYSTEM (Springer)
73.9 The Massachusetts General Hospital Handbook of Pain Management (Second Edition)
(Jane Ballantyne, Scott M. Fishman, Salahadin Abdi) (SALEKAN-E-book)
‫ــــ‬
I. General Considerations
II. Diagnosis of Pain
III. Therapeutic Options: Pharmacologic Approaches
IV. Therapeutic Options: Nonpharmacologic Approaches
V. Acute Pain VI. Chronic Pain
VII. Pain Due to Cancer
VIII. Special Situations
- Apendices
- Subject Index
2002
74.9 The Movement Disorder Society's Guide to Botulinum Toxin Injections
،‫ ﺑﺎ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﺳﻨﺪﺭﻡ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻳﺎ ﻋﻀﻠﺔ ﺩﻟﺨﻮﺍﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻟﻴﺴﺖ‬.‫ ﻋﻀﻼﺕ ﻭ ﺳﻨﺪﺭﻡﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﺁﻥ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﻓﻌﺎﻝ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﻧﺪ‬.‫ ﺩﺭ ﻛﺎﺩﺭ ﺍﻭﻝ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﻛﻠﻲ ﺑﺪﻥ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻛﻪ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻧﻈﺮ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ﺭﺍ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﻣﻲﻧﻤﺎﻳﻲ‬.‫ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ﺑﻮﺗﻮﻟﻴﻨﻮﻡ ﺗﻮﻛﺴﻴﻦ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬:‫ ﺍﻭﻝ‬CD
.‫ ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻘﺎﺕ ﻭ ﺍﺣﺘﻴﺎﻃﺎﺕ ﻻﺯﻡ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩﺍﻧﺪ‬-‫ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﻭﺭﻭﺩ ﺳﻮﺯﻥ‬-‫ ﻣﺸﺨﺼﺎﺕ ﺳﻮﺯﻥ ﻭ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﻓﻌﺎﻝﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﻋﻀﻠﻪ‬-‫ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﻳﺎﻓﺘﻦ ﻋﻀﻠﻪ‬-‫ ﺟﺰﺋﻴﺎﺕ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ﻣﺎﻧﻨﺪ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﻧﺸﺴﺘﻦ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ‬.‫ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ﺑﻬﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺩﻳﺎﮔﺮﺍﻡ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻴﻚ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﻧﺪ‬
‫ ﺩﺭ ﭼﺎﺭﺕﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﻫﺮ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﻣﺤﻞ ﻭ ﻣﻘﺪﺍﺭ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ‬.‫ ﺑﺮ ﺣﺴﺐ ﺍﻟﻔﺒﺎ ﺩﺳﺘﻴﺎﺑﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺳﻮﺍﺑﻖ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺭﺍ ﻣﻤﻜﻦ ﻣﻲﺳﺎﺯﺩ‬Search ‫ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻮﺗﻮﻟﻴﻨﻮﻡ ﺗﻮﻛﺴﻴﻦ ﺩﺭ ﻛﻠﻴﻨﻴﻚ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺎﻧﻚ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺗﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻫﺮ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺭﺍ ﺗﺸﻜﻴﻞ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺑﺎ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ‬:‫ ﺩﻭﻡ‬CD
.‫ ﺑﻪ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ ﺩﺭ ﺟﻤﻊﺁﻭﺭﻱ ﻳﺎﻓﺘﻪﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻛﻼﺳﻪﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺑﻌﺪﻱ ﻭ ﺗﺤﻘﻴﻘﺎﺕ ﻛﻤﻚ ﺷﺎﻳﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﺪ‬CD ‫ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬CD ‫ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺭﺍﻫﻨﻤﺎﻳﻲ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻭ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺑﻴﺸﺘﺮ ﺩﺭ‬PDF ‫ ﻓﺎﻳﻞ‬.‫ﻣﺸﺨﺺ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﺣﺎﻓﻈﻪ ﺫﺧﻴﺮﻩ ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﻧﺪ‬
75.9 The Washington Manual Survival Guide Series Neurology Survival Guide
(Dave A. Rengachary, Tammy L. Lin, Daniel M. Goodenberger)
2001
76.9 Thinking a head (Critical question in ms therapy)
Video CD Collection
The John Hopkins
Neuroradiology Review
77.9
VCD 1.1: Neuroradiology Practice Techniques
VCD 1.2: MR Spectroscopy Techniques
VCD 1.3: Oral Cavity
VCD 2.1: I- Oral Carity
VCD 2.2: I- Extramucosal Spaces (Suprahyoid)
VCD 3.1: I- Head and Neck Case Review
VCD 3.2: I- Stroke Imaging (CT, CTA, CTP)
VCD 5.1: I- Spinal Interventions
VCD 5.2: I-Temporal Bone External and Middle Ear
VCD 6.1: I-Orbit
VCD 6.2: Spaces of the Neck (Infrahyoid)
VCD 6.3: Head and Neck Case Review
VCD 7.1: I- Cancer of the Nesopharynx
VCD 7.2: I- Brain (Molecular Imaging
VCD 8.3: I- Demyelinating Disorders
VCD 8.4: I- Carotid Imaging (part 1)
VCD 9.1: I- Pediatric Brain Tumors
VCD 9.2: Carotid Imaging (part2)
VCD 9.3: Brain Case Review
VCD 10.1: Anatomy and DJD Spine
VCD 10.2: Extradural (Non-DJD) Spine Sinus CT
VCD 11.1: I- Intradural Extramedullary Spine
VCD 11.2: I- Intradural Intramedullary Spine
VCD 12.1: I- Spine Case Review
VCD 12.2: New Techniques (Diffusion Tensor Imaging)
VCD 12.3: Functional Imaging
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
2004
2002
II- Imaging the Larynx
II- Extraaxial Adult Tumors
II- Vascular Disease
II- AVMS
II- Brain Case Review
II- Irbit
II- Temporal Bone Inner Ear
III- Head and Neck Case Review
II- Brain Case Review
II- Congenital Imaging (part 1)
II- Congenital Imaging (part 2)
II- Pediatric Brain Tumors
II- Hemorrhage/Head Trauma
II- Spine Trauma
II- Spine Infection and Inflammation
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
‫‪57‬‬
‫‪VCD 13.1: Functional Imaging‬‬
‫‪VCD 13.2: MR Spectroscopic Imaging‬‬
‫‪VCD 13.3: An overview of 3.0 Tesla Imaging‬‬
‫‪78.9 Understanding and Diagnosing Restless Legs Syndrome‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﻛﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﻫﻴﺌﺖ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ‪ RLS Foundation‬ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻭ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺁﺧﺮﻳﻦ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﻭ ﻳﺎﻓﺘﻪﻫﺎ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺳﻨﺪﺭﻡ ﭘﺎﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﻲﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺍﻥ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻓﺎﻳﻞﻫﺎﻱ ‪ PDF‬ﺩﺭ ﺩﺳﺘﺮﺱ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﻳﻚ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﺩﺭﺑﺎﺭﺓ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺳﻨﺪﺭﻡ ﻭ ﺗﻈﺎﻫﺮﺍﺕ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﺁﻥ ﻭ ﺗﺪﺍﺑﻴﺮ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﻳﺎﻓﺖ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ‪-‬ﺭﻭﺍﻧـﺸﻨﺎﺳﻲ‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫ﺗﻮﺻﻴﻒ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﻭ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻱ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﻣﻜﺎﻧﻴﺴﻢﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﻓﺎﻋﻲ ﻧﺎﺧﻮﺩﺁﮔﺎﻩ ﺫﻫﻦ‬
‫___‬
‫ﺭﺍﻫﻨﻤﺎﻱ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﺧﻮﺍﺏ ﻛﻮﺩﻛﺎﻥ‬
‫ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﻣﺜﺎﻝﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺣﺎﻝﻫﺎﻱ ﻧﻤﻮﻧﻪ ﺟﻬﺖ ﻓﻬﻢ ﺑﻬﺘﺮ ﺩﻓﺎﻉﻫﺎ‬
‫)‪79.9 101 DEFENSES (How the Mind Shields Ltself) (Taylor & Francis Books‬‬
‫ﻗﺎﺑﻞ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﺸﻨﺎﺳﺎﻥ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ‬
‫)‪80.9 A Clinical Guide to PEDIATRIC SLEEP (Diagnosis & Management of Sleep Problems) (Jodi A. Mindell, Judith A. Owens‬‬
‫ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ‬
‫ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺧﻮﺍﺏ ﻣﺮﺗﺒﻂ ﺑﺎ ﻫﺮ ﮔﺮﻭﻩ ﺳﻨﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻛﻮﺩﻛﺎﻥ‬
‫ﺳﻨﻴﻦ ﻣﺪﺭﺳﻪ ﻭ ﻧﻮﺟﻮﺍﻧﺎﻥ‬
‫ﻧﻮﭘﺎﻫﺎ‪ ،‬ﺳﻨﻴﻦ ﻗﺒﻞ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺪﺭﺳﻪ‬
‫ﺷﻴﺮﺧﻮﺍﺭﺍﻥ‬
‫ﺟﻨﺒﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻋﻤﻮﻣﻲ ﺧﻮﺍﺏ ﻛﻮﺩﻛﺎﻥ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺧﻮﺍﺏ ﺩﺭ ﻧﻮﺯﺍﺩﺍﻥ‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻭﺭﻱ ﺑﺮ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﻧﻤﻮﻧﻪ ﺍﺯ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺣﺎﻝﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫)‪81.9 Case Files Psychiatry (Toy, Klamen‬‬
‫ﻗﺎﺑﻞ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺭﺯﻳﺪﻧﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ‪ ،‬ﺩﺍﻧﺸﺠﻮﻳﺎﻥ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﺸﻨﺎﺳﻲ ﻭ ‪...‬‬
‫ﺗﻮﺻﻴﻪﻫﺎﻳﻲ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻏﻠﺒﻪ ﺑﺮ ﻣﺸﻜﻼﺕ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ‪ ،‬ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻭ ‪...‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫)‪(Paul R. Carney, Richard B. Berry, James D. Geyer‬‬
‫ﺗﻈﺎﻫﺮﺍﺕ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺧﻮﺍﺏ‬
‫ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺍﻭﻟﻴﻪ ﺧﻮﺍﺏ‬
‫ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺧﻮﺍﺏ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻴﻦ ﺳﺎﻳﺮ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻫﺎ‬
‫‪82.9 Clinical Sleep Disorders‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫)‪83.9 Clinical Geriatric Psychopharmacology (Fourth Edition) (Cari Salzman‬‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫)‪84.9 Comprehensive Handbook of Psychotropics (Florence W. Kaslow, Jeffrey J. Magnavita) (Volume 1-4‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫)‪85.9 Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry (Kaplan & Sadock) (Eighth Edition) (Volume I , II‬‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫)‪86.9 Concise textbook of CLINICAL PSYCHIATRY (KAPLAN & SADOCK‬‬
‫)‪(Benjamin James Sadock, Virginia Alcott Sadock‬‬
‫___‬
‫)‪87.9 DSM-IV-TR GuideBook the essential companion to the diagnostic & statistical manual of mental disorders (Fourth Edition) (Michael B. First, Allen Frances‬‬
‫ﺭﺍﻫﻨﻤﺎﻱ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻌﻴﺎﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ‪ ،‬ﻣﺘﻦ ﺗﺠﺪﻳﺪﻧﻈﺮﺷﺪﺓ ﻧﺴﺨﺔ ﭼﻬﺎﺭﻡ ﻛﺘﺎﺑﭽﺔ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﺁﻣﺎﺭﻱ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﻲ )‪ . (DSM-IV-TR‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺑﭽﻪ ﻧﻘﺸﻪﺍﻱ ﻛﻠﻲ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺩﺳﺘﻴﺎﺑﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺭﺍ ﻓﺮﺍﻫﻢ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﺪ ﻭ ﻣﻌﻴﺎﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺷﺎﺭﻩﺷﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ‪ DSM-IV-TR‬ﺭﺍ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ‬
‫ﻼ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﻭ ﻓﻬﻢ ﺑﻬﺘﺮ‪ ،‬ﻛﺎﻣ ﹰ‬
‫___‬
‫)‪88.9 Handbook of SLEEP MEDICINE (John M. Shneerson‬‬
‫ﻗﺎﺑﻞ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ‪ ،‬ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﮔﻮﺵ ﻭ ﺧﻠﻖ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻨﻲ‪ ،‬ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﺩﺍﺧﻠﻲ‪ ،‬ﭘﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ ﻋﻤﻮﻣﻲ ﻭ ‪...‬‬
‫ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺧﺼﻮﺹ ﺁﺷﻨﺎﻳﻲ ﺑﺎ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺧﻮﺍﺏ ﺧﻮﺍﺏ ﻃﺒﻴﻌﻲ ﻭ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺁﻥ‬
‫ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺧﻮﺍﺏ‬
‫ﺍﺛﺮ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻫﺎ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﺧﻮﺍﺏ‬
‫ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻭ ﻣﺪﻳﺮﻳﺖ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺧﻮﺍﺏ‬
‫)‪Principles & Practice (Antony Ryle & Lan B Kerr‬‬
‫___‬
‫ﺭﻭﻳﻜﺮﺩ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﺪﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺗﻠﻔﻴﻘﻲ ﺷﻨﺎﺧﺖ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ‪ -‬ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺗﺤﻠﻴﻠﻲ‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫)‪ (CAT‬ﭼﺸﻢﺍﻧﺪﺍﺯ‪ ،‬ﻣﻔﺎﻫﻴﻢ ﻭ ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ‪CAT‬‬
‫ﺟﻨﺒﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺳﺎﺳﻲ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﺪﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺗﺤﻠﻴﻠﻲ‪ -‬ﺷﻨﺎﺧﺘﻲ‬
‫‪89.9 Introducing Cognitive Analytic Therapy‬‬
‫ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻗﺎﻟﺐ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺩﺭ ‪CAT‬‬
‫)‪90.9 Neurological and Neurosurgical Intensive Care (Allan H. Ropper, Daryl R. Gress, Michael N. Diringer) (Fourth Edition‬‬
‫___‬
‫)‪91.9 Pocket Guide to the ICD-10 Classification of Mental & Behavioural Disorders (Compilation and editorial arrangements by JE Cooper‬‬
‫ﻃﺒﻘﻪﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﻭ ﻣﻌﻴﺎﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﺬﻳﺮﻓﺘﻪﺷﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺁﺧﺮﻳﻦ ﻧﺴﺨﻪ ﻃﺒﻘﻪﺑﻨﺪﻱ ‪ ICD‬ﭘﺬﻳﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ‪ WHO‬ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﻣﻌﻴﺎﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﭘﻴﺸﻨﻬﺎﺩﺷﺪﻩ ﭘﮋﻭﻫﺸﻲ )‪(DCR-10‬‬
‫___‬
‫)‪92.9 Practical Guides in Psychiatry Consultation Liaison Psychiatry (Michael Blumenfield, Maria L.A. Tiamson‬‬
‫ﺭﺍﻫﻨﻤﺎﻱ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻱ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻣﺸﺎﻭﺭﻩ‪ -‬ﺍﺭﺗﺒﺎﻁ‪ .‬ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺧﻼﺻﻪ ﻭ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻱ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺳﺮﻳﻊ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﻪ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻣﺸﺎﻭﺭﻩ‪ -‬ﺍﺭﺗﺒﺎﻁ )‪ (C-L‬ﺑﺎ ﺗﺄﻛﻴﺪ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺭﺗﺒﺎﻁ ﺑﻴﻦ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻭ ﺍﺧـﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺟﺴـﻤﻲ‪ Psychonephrology, Psychocardiology ،‬ﻣﺮﺍﻗﺒـﺖﻫـﺎﻱ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷـﻜﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻴﻤـﺎﺭﺍﻥ‬
‫ﺁﺳﻴﺐﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﻭ ‪...‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫)‪93.9 Psychiatry: 1200 Questions To Help Youpass the Boatds (Salekan E-Book‬‬
‫‪ ١٢٠٠‬ﺳﺆﺍﻝ ﻧﻤﻮﻧﻪ ﺑﺮﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﺍﺯ ﺁﺯﻣﻮﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺮﺩ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫)‪(A Practitioner's Guide) (Naney MeWilliams‬‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫ﺭﺍﻫﻨﻤﺎﻱ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻱ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﺪﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﻮﻳﺎﻳﻲ‬
‫ﻣﻔﺎﻫﻴﻢ ﻭ ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﺪﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺭﻭﺍﻥ ﺗﺤﻠﻴﻠﻲ‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫ﭼﻬﺎﺭﭼﻮﺏ ﻭ ﻓﺮﺁﻳﻨﺪ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺗﺤﻠﻴﻠﻲ‬
‫ﻗﺎﺑﻞ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﺸﻨﺎﺳﺎﻥ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ‬
‫‪94.9 Psychoanalytic Psychotherapy‬‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
‫‪58‬‬
‫___‬
‫‪95.9 Quick Reference to the Diagnostic Criteria from DSM-IV-TR Published by the American Psychiatric Association Washington, DC‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﺟﻊ ﺁﺳﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺳﺮﻳﻊ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺁﺧﺮﻳﻦ ﻃﺒﻘﻪﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﻭ ﻣﻌﻴﺎﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﺬﻳﺮﻓﺘﻪﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﻲ ﻃﺒﻖ ﻧﻈﺮ ﺍﻧﺠﻤﻦ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺁﻣﺮﻳﻜﺎ )‪ -(APA‬ﻣﺘﻦ ﺗﺠﺪﻳﺪ ﻧﻈﺮﻇﺪﻩ ﻧﺴﺨﺔ ﭼﻬﺎﺭﻡ ﻛﺘﺎﺑﭽﺔ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ ﻭ ﺁﻣﺎﺭﻱ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﻲ )‪(DSM-IV-TR‬‬
‫___‬
‫)‪96.9 Social Skills Training for Schizophrenia A Step-by-Step Guide (Alan S. Bellack, Kim T. Mueser, Susan Gingerich, Julie Agresta‬‬
‫ﺭﺍﻫﻨﻤﺎﻱ ﻣﻔﻴﺪ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻣﻬﺎﺭﺕﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺟﺘﻤﺎﻋﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻣﺒﺘﻼ ﺑﻪ ﺍﺳﻜﻴﺰﻭﻓﺮﻧﻴﺎ‪ .‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﺍﻭﻟﻲ‪ ،‬ﻗﺎﻟﺐ ﻭ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﻪ ﻭ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺭﻭﺷﻲ ﮔﺎﻡ ﺑﻪ ﮔﺎﻡ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻣﻬﺎﺭﺕﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺟﺘﻤﺎﻋﻲ ﺧﺎﺹ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻭ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻳﺎﺩﺩﺍﺷﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪﺭﻳﺰﻱﺷـﺪﻩ ﺑـﺮﺍﻳﻦ ﺍﻳـﻦ ﻣﻨﻈـﻮﺭ‪.‬‬
‫ﻗﺎﺑﻞ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ‪ ،‬ﺭﻭﺍﻧﺸﻨﺎﺳﺎﻥ‪ ،‬ﺭﻭﺍﻥﭘﺮﺳﺘﺎﺭﺍﻥ ‪ ،‬ﻣﺪﺩﻛﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﺍﺟﺘﻤﺎﻋﻲ ﻛﺎﺭﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﮕﺮﺍﻥ ﻭ ‪...‬‬
‫‪2003‬‬
‫)‪97.9 Study Guide & Self-Examination Review in Psychiatry (Kkaplan & Sadock) (Seven Edition‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫)‪98.9 SUBSTANCE ABUSE (A Comprehensive Texbook) (Fourth Edition) (Joyce H. Lowinson, Pedro Ruiz, Robert B. Millman, John G. Langrod) (CD I , II‬‬
‫ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻣﺮﺟﻊ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﻣﺮﺗﺒﻂ ﺑﺎ ﻣﻮﺍﺩ )ﺁﻣﻔﺘﺎﻣﻴﻦﻫﺎ‪ ،‬ﻛﻮﻛﺎﺋﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﻣﻮﺍﺩ ﺗﻮﻫﻢﺯﺍ ﻭ ‪ (...‬ﺑﺎ ﺗﺄﻛﻴﺪ ﺟﻨﺒﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺗﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻚ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻚ‪ ،‬ﺍﭘﻴﺪﻣﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻚ‪ ،‬ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ‪.‬‬
‫___‬
‫)‪99.9 The American Psychiatric Publishing Textbook of Consultstion Liaison Psychiatry (Second Edition) (Michael G. Wise, James R. Rundell‬‬
‫ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺟﺎﻣﻊ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻣﺸﺎﻭﺭﻩ‪ -‬ﺍﺭﺗﺒﺎﻁ )‪ . (C-L‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻣﺮﺟﻌﻲ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﺎﻧﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻣﺒﺘﻼ ﺑﻪ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺟﺴﻤﻲ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﻨﺪ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺿﻤﻦ ﺍﺷﺎﺭﻩ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻔﺎﻫﻴﻢ ﻭ ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﺍﻭﻟﻴﻪ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻣﺸﺎﻭﺭﻩ‪ -‬ﺍﺭﺗﺒﺎﻁ‪ ،‬ﺑﻪ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻴﻦ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺳﺘﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﻋﻤﻮﻣﻲ‬
‫)ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺍﻓﺴﺮﺩﮔﻲ‪ ،‬ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺍﺿﻄﺮﺍﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺟﻨﺴﻲ ﻭ ‪ (...‬ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺁﺭﺍﻳﻪ ﻣﺸﺎﻭﺭﻩﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻭ ﻧﻜﺎﺕ ﻣﻬﻢ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﻪ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺍﻳﻨﮕﻮﻧﻪ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎ ﻣﻲﭘﺮﺩﺍﺯﺩ‪.‬‬
‫___‬
‫)‪100.9 The many Faces of Mental Disorders (Adult Case Histories According to ICD-10‬‬
‫ﺷﺮﺡ ﺣﺎﻝﻫﺎﻱ ﻧﻤﻮﻧﻪﺍﻱ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻓﺮﺍﺩ ﻣﺒﺘﻼ ﺑﻪ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺳﺮﺍﺳﺮ ﺟﻬﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻭ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻧﻤﻮﻧﻪ ﺑﺮ ﭘﺎﻳﺔ ﻣﻌﻴﺎﺭﻫﺎﻱ ‪ . ICD-10‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻓﻬﻢ ﺳﺮﻳﻌﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌﻪﻛﻨﻨﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻣﺮ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﻣﺪﻳﺮﻳﺖ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻣﺒﺘﻼ ﺑﻪ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﻲ‪ ،‬ﺑﺎ ﺟﻠﺐ ﺗﻮﺟﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺟﻨﺒﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﻭ‬
‫ﺍﺟﺘﻤﺎﻋﻲ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﻧﻤﻮﻧﻪ ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺕ ﺍﺳﺘﺨﺮﺍﺝﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺮﺍﺟﻊ ﺍﺻﻠﻲ ﺭﻭﺍﻧﭙﺰﺳﻜﻲ ‪ comprehensive Synopsis‬ﺑﺮ ﻃﺒﻖ ﻓﺼﻞﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ‪Synopsis‬‬
‫‪ -١٠‬ﺩﺍﺧﻠﻲ‬
‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ‪CD‬‬
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
‫‪2003‬‬
‫‪1.10 (AGA Postgraduate Course) A Day and Night in the Life of a Gastroenterologist‬‬
‫‪Clinical Challenge Sessions‬‬
‫‪Small Bowel and Colon‬‬
‫___‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪2001‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪GI Malignancy‬‬
‫‪Nutrition‬‬
‫‪Esophagus and Stomach Liver Pancreas and Biliary Tract‬‬
‫‪2.10 3DClinic (Version 1.0) Seeing is Understanding‬‬
‫ﺟﻬﺖ ﻧﺼﺐ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺑﻌﺪ ﺍﺯ ﺷﺮﻭﻉ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ‪ Autorun‬ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ‪ QTS‬ﺭﺍ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ‪ CD‬ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻧﺼﺐ ﻧﻤﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺩﺭ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺩﻭﻡ )‪ (SN: BI-B25600000-131‬ﺭﺍ ﺑﻬﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺍﺳﻢ ﺧﻮﺩ ﻭﺍﺭﺩ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﻴﺪ‪ .‬ﺳﭙﺲ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﺭﺍ ‪ Restart‬ﻛﻨﻴﺪ‪ (2D Clinic) Icon .‬ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ‪ Desktop‬ﺷﻤﺎ‬
‫ﻇﺎﻫﺮ ﺧﻮﺍﻫﺪ ﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻛﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺍﺟﺮﺍﻱ ﺁﻥ ﻣﻨﻮﻱ ﺍﺻﻠﻲ ﻇﺎﻫﺮ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﺑﻌﺪ ﺍﺯ ﻧﺼﺐ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻃﻮﺭ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﺩﺭ ﻛﺎﻣﭙﻴﻮﺗﺮ ﺣﻔﻆ ﺧﻮﺍﻫﺪ ﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺑﺎ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻋﻜﺲﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻓﻴﻠﻢﻫﺎﻱ ﺳﻪﺑﻌﺪﻱ ﺟﺬﺍﺏ ﻣﻔﺎﻫﻴﻢ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠـﻒ ﺑـﺪﻥ ﺍﺯ ﺟﻤﻠـﻪ ‪-Cardiovascular -‬‬
‫‪ Gastrointestinal -Musculoskeletal -Respiratory -Nervous -Urinary -Sensory -Endocrine -Lymphatic -Skin‬ﺭﺍ ﺩﺭ ﺩﻭ ﺣﺎﻟﺖ ‪ Healthy‬ﻭ ‪ Disorder‬ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‪ .‬ﻓﻴﻠﻢﻫﺎﻱ ‪ 3D‬ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﺷﻤﺎ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ‬
‫ﻣﻲﺷﻮﻧﺪ ﻗﺴﻤﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺴﻴﺎﺭ ﺟﺎﻟﺐ ﻭ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﻧﺪﻩﺍﻱ ﺍﺯ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺑﺪﻥ ﺩﺭ ﺣﺎﻟﺖ ﻧﺮﻣﺎﻝ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺩﺭﻙ ﺑﻬﺘﺮ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ ﻛﻤﻚ ﺷﺎﻳﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﻲﻧﻤﺎﻳﺪ‪ .‬ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ ﻧﮕﻬﺪﺍﺷﺘﻦ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﺩﺭ ﻟﺤﻈﻪ ﺩﻟﺨﻮﺍﻩ‪ ،‬ﺍﺿﺎﻓﻪﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﻧﻜﺎﺕ ﻣﻬﻢ ﺑﺎ ﻣﺎﺭﻛﺮ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺗﺎﻳﭗ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﻋﻜﺲﻫﺎ ﺍﺯ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺎﻟﺐ ﺍﻳـﻦ‬
‫ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺷﻤﺎ ﺩﺭ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺗﻤﺎﻳﻞ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻧﻴﺪ ﭘﺮﻳﻨﺖ ﻭ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪ ﺑﺎ ﻛﻴﻔﻴﺖ ﺑﺎﻻ ﺍﺯ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺗﻬﻴﻪ ﻓﺮﻣﺎﺋﻴﺪ‪.‬‬
‫‪Adult‬‬
‫‪Airway‬‬
‫‪Management‬‬
‫‪Principles‬‬
‫&‬
‫‪Techniques‬‬
‫‪American‬‬
‫‪Association‬‬
‫‪(afael‬‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫‪Ortega,‬‬
‫‪M.D.,‬‬
‫)‪Harold Arkoff, M.D.‬‬
‫‪3.10‬‬
‫)‪4.10 Advanced Therapy of INFLAMMATORY BOWEL DISEASE (Theodore M. Bayless, MD, Stephen B. Hanauer, MD‬‬
‫‪5.10 AGA Postgraduate Course CONTROVERSIES And CLINICAL CHALLENGES in Pancreatic Diseases‬‬
‫)‪(An Intensive Two-Day Course Covering A Diversity of Topics Related to the Pancreas‬‬
‫‪-Expanded Content‬‬
‫‪-Includes Results of the Q&A‬‬
‫‪-Section Challenge Sessions‬‬
‫)‪Atlas of GASTROINTESTINAL in Health and Disease (Marvin M. Schuster, Michael D. Crowell, Kenneth L. Koch‬‬
‫‪6.10‬‬
‫‪Part 1: Physiologic Basis of Gastrointestinal Motility‬‬
‫‪Part 2: Motility Test for the Gastrointestinal Tract‬‬
‫‪Atlas‬‬
‫‪of‬‬
‫‪GASTROINTESTINAL‬‬
‫‪MOTILITY‬‬
‫‪in‬‬
‫‪Health‬‬
‫‪and‬‬
‫‪Disease‬‬
‫)‪(Second Edition‬‬
‫‪7.10‬‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫)‪(Marvin M. Schuster, MD, FACP, FAPA, FACG, Michael D. Crowell, PhD, FACG, Kenneth L. Koch, MD‬‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫‪Part II: Motility Tests for The Gastrointestinal Tract‬‬
‫)‪American Cancer Sosiety (Raphael E. Pollock, MD, Phd‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫‪Part I: Physiologic Basic of Gastrointestinal Motility‬‬
‫‪8.10 Atlas of Clinical Oncology Soft Tissue Sarcomas‬‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
59
Atlas of Clinical Oncology Cancer of the Lower Gastrointestinal Tract (Christopher G. Willett, MD)
nd
10.10 Atlas of Clinical Rheumatology (2 Edition) (David J. Nashel, Chief, Rheumatology Section Va Medical Center, Washington, Professor of Medicine Georgetown University)
2001
11.10 Atlas of INTERNAL MEDICINE (Eugene Braunwald)
‫ــــــ‬
12.10 CANCER Principles & Practice of Oncology
‫ــــــ‬
9.10
1. Clinical Atlas of Rheumatic Diseases
2. Radiograph Intrerpretation Instructional Module
3. Physical Examination
4. Procures
5. Physical Findings Instructional Module Radiography
6. Aspiration/Injection Instructional Module
(6th Edition) (Vincent T. DeVita, Jr., Samuel Hellman, Steven A. Rosenberg)
‫ــــــ‬
13.10 Case Studies in GASTROENTEROLOGY (Second Edition) (Ingram Roberts, MD)
‫ــــــ‬
14.10 CD-ATLAS OF DIAGNOSTIC ONCOLOGY
‫ــــــ‬
15.10 Clinical Endocarinology
‫ــــــ‬
(G. Michael Besser MD, DSc, FRCP, Michael O. Thorner MB BS, DSc, FRCP)
Adrenals
Gonads
Growth
Hormone Assay
Imaging Techniques
Pancreas
Ectopic Humoral Syndromes Gastrointestinal Tract Lipids and Lipoproteins Thyroid & Parathyroide Pituitary and Hypothalamus
16.10 Clinical Immunology PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE (Second Edition) (Robert R Rich, Thomas A Fleisher, William T Shearer, Brain L Kotzin, Harry W Schroeder)
:‫ ﺑﺨﺶ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬١١ ‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬.‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬Rich ‫ ﻧﻮﺷﺘﺔ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‬Clinical Immunology ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺑﺮﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ‬
‫ ﺭﻭﺷﻬﺎﻱ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻤﻮﻧﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬-٧
‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺍﻳﻤﻮﻧﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻜﻲ‬-٦ ‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺁﻟﺮﮊﻳﻜﻲ‬-٥ ‫ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﺩﻓﺎﻋﻲ ﺫﺍﺗﻲ ﻭ ﺍﻛﺘﺴﺎﺑﻲ‬-٤
‫ ﻋﻔﻮﻧﺖ ﻭ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﺍﻳﻤﻨﻲ‬-٣
‫ ﻣﻜﺎﻧﻴﺴﻢﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﻓﺎﻋﻲ ﻣﻴﺰﺑﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺍﻟﺘﻬﺎﺏ‬- ٢
‫ ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ ﺍﻳﻤﻨﻲ‬-١
‫ــــــ‬
‫ ( ﺫﺧﻴﺮﻩ ﻭ ﻧﮕﻬﺪﺍﺭﻱ‬Slide vision ‫ ﻫﺮ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪ ﺭﺍ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﺩﺭ ﻳﻚ ﻓﺎﻳﻞ )ﺗﺤﺖ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﺔ‬drag & drop ‫ ﺑﺎ ﺭﻭﺵ‬.‫ ﻭﺍﮊﻩ ﻭ ﻟﻐﺎﺕ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺍﺭﺳﺖ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻭ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪﻫﺎ ﺭﺍ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﭼﺎﭖ ﻧﻤﻮﺩ‬Search ‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ‬.‫ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺘﻌﺪﺩﻱ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬،‫ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮﺑﺨﺶ‬
.‫ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬Slide vision ‫ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﻭ ﺗﺤﺖ‬Autorun ‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ‬.‫ ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﻳﮕﺮﻱ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻪ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺍﺿﺎﻓﻪ ﻳﺎ ﺣﺬﻑ ﻛﺮﺩ‬.‫ﻧﻤﻮﺩ‬
17.10 CLINICAL ONCOLOGY (Raymond E. Lenhard, J. MD, Robert T. Osteen, MD, Ted Gansler, MD)
2001
18.10 Clinician's Guide to Laboratory Medicine (Saml, P. Desai, MD)
2004
19.10 Colonoscopy New Technology & Technique (CB Williams, JD Waye, Y Sakai)
‫ــــــ‬
20.10 Color Atlas & Text of Pulmonary Pathology
2005
(Philip T. Cagle, MD)
2000
21.10 Comprehensive Clinical Endocrinology G. Michael Besser MD, DSc, FRCP, Michael O. Thorner
Hypothalamus and Pituitary, Thyroid, Adrenal, Control of Blood glucose and its disturbance, gonad and growth, General conditions-basic, General conditionsclinical, Imaging, Patient Perspectives on endocrine Diseases
22.10 COMPREHENSIVE MANAGEMENT OF Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (Jean Bourbeau, MD, MSc, FRCPC, Diane Nault, RN, MSc, Elizabet Borycki)
2002
23.10 Core Curriculum in Primary Care Metabolic Diseases Section
‫ــــــ‬
.‫ ﺑﻨﺎ ﻧﻬﺎﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬Harvard ‫ﻫﺎﻳﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻣﺪﺍﻭﻡ ﺩﺳﺘﻴﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻭ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﻫﺮ ﺭﺷﺘﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺍﻋﻀﺎﺀ ﻫﻴﺌﺖ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﮕﺎﻩ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬CD ‫ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﻪﺍﻱ ﺍﺯ‬CCC
‫ ﺳـﺆﺍﻻﺕ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃـﻪ ﺑـﻪ ﺻـﻮﺭﺕ‬،‫ ﺩﺭ ﺁﺧـﺮ ﻫـﺮ ﺳـﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲ ﻭ ﻣﺒﺤﺜـﻲ‬.‫ ﻫﺮ ﻛﺪﺍﻡ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲﻫﺎ ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻣﺘﻦ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺳﺘﺮﺱ ﻛـﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﻣـﻲﺑﺎﺷـﺪ‬.‫ ﺣﺎﺿﺮ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺩﺍﺧﻠﻲ ﻭ ﻗﻠﺐ ﻭ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﺭﺍ ﮔﺮﺩﺁﻭﺭﻱ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬CD
.‫ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺩﺭﺳﻨﺎﻣﻪ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬CD ‫ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺩﺭ‬.‫ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺧﻼﺻﻪ ﻫﺮ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻳﻚ ﻣﻘﺎﻟﻪ ﭼﺎﭘﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺠﻼﺕ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺯﻧﺎﻣﻪﻫﺎ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ﭼﻬﺎﺭﮔﺰﻳﻨﻪﺍﻱ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
‫ ﻣﺘﺎﺑﻮﻟﻴﺴﻢ ﺁﻫﻦ‬-٤
(‫ ﻧﮕﺮﺷﻲ ﻋﻤﻠﻲ )ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺩﻭﻡ‬:‫ ﺩﻳﺎﺑﺖ ﻣﻠﻴﺘﻮﺱ‬-٣
(‫ ﻧﮕﺮﺷﻲ ﻋﻤﻠﻲ )ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺍﻭﻝ‬:‫ ﺩﻳﺎﺑﺖ ﻣﻠﻴﺘﻮﺱ‬-٢
‫ﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻗﻠﺐ ﻭ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ‬Lipid -١
24.10 Critical Diagnostic Thinking in Respiratory Care A Case-Based Approach
(James K. Storier, Eric D. badow, david L. longworth)
‫ــــــ‬
25.10 Differential Diagnosis (Seventh Edition) (LC Gupta Abhitabh Gupta Abhishek Gupta) (Salekan E-Book)
-Common Signs and Symptoms -Causes
-Differentiating Tables -Essentials of Diagnosis
-Staging of Diseases
-Syndromes
-Synonyms
-Investigations
2005
26.10 Digestive Diseases
‫ــــــ‬
Self-Education Program
27.10 Diseases of the Liver
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
(A Core Curriculum and Self-Assessment in Gastroenterology and Hepatology)
(8th Edition) (Lippincott Williams & Wilkins)
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
60
General Considerations
Autoimmune Liver Disease
The Liver in Pregnancy and Childhood
28.10 ESAP
The Consequences of Liver Disease
Alcohol and Drug-Luduced Disease
Infections and Granulomatous Disorders
(Endocrinology Self-Assessment Program)
The Cholestasis Disorders
Genetic and Metabolic Disease
Transplantation
Viral Hepatitis
Vascular Disease and Trauma
Benign and Malignant Tumors
Immunology of Liver
2003
(Clark T. Sawin, MD, Kathryn A. Martin, MD) (The Endocrine Society)
29.10 Evidence-Based Asthma Management PATHOPHYSIOLOGY/DIAGNOSIS/MANAGEMENT (7 edition)
‫ ﺁﺳﻢ ﻳﻚ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺷﺎﻳﻊ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺷـﻴﻮﻉ ﺭﻭ‬.‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﻛﻤﻚ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﺪ ﺗﺎ ﺑﻬﺘﺮﻳﻦ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﺩﺭﻳﺎﻓﺖ ﺷﺨﺼﻲ ﺧﻮﺩ ﺍﺯ ﺟﺪﻳﺪﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻘﺎﻻﺕ ﻭ ﻛﺘﺎﺏﻫﺎ ﺭﺍ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺎﺭ ﺑﺮﺩ‬Evidence-Based in medicin ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﺯ ﺳﺮﻱ ﻛﺘﺎﺏﻫﺎﻱ‬
.‫ ﺁﻣﺎﺭﮔﻴﺮﻱﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌﺎﺕ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻛﻪ ﺍﻓﺰﺍﻳﺶ ﺷﻴﻮﻉ ﺁﺳﻢ ﻭﺍﻗﻌﻲ ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺑﺎ ﺍﺯ ﻛﺎﺭﺍﻓﺘﺎﺩﮔﻲ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻛﻪ ﻧﺸﺎﻥﺩﻫﻨﺪﻩ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺗﺎ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ﺑﻪ ﺍﻓﺰﺍﻳﺶ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‬
:‫ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﺣﺎﺿﺮ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬.‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﺎ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻥ ﻣﻘﺎﻻﺕ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﻣﻌﺘﺒﺮﺑﻮﺩﻥ ﻭ ﺩﺭﺟﻪﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﺍﻋﺘﺒﺎﺭ ﻣﻘﺎﻻﺕ ﭘﺰﺷﻚ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺺ ﺭﺍ ﻛﻤﻚ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﺪ ﺗﺎ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺁﺳﻢ ﺑﻬﺘﺮﻳﻦ ﻭ ﻛﻢﻋﺎﺭﺿﻪﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻫﺮ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺟﺪﺍﮔﺎﻧﻪ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺪ‬
TH
1. Natural History and Epidemiology
2. Diagnosis
3. Role of Childhood Infection
4. Management of Persistent Asthma in Childhood
5. Use of Theophylline and Anticholinergic Therapy
6. Leukotriene Modifiers
7. Acute Life-Threatening Asthma
8. Role of Asthma Education
30.10 EVIDENCE-BASED DIABETES CARE
9. Genetics of Asthma
10. Role of the Outdoor Environment
11. Diagnosis and Management of Occupational Asthma
12. Mechanisms of Action of 2-Agonists and Short-Acting 2 Therapy
13. Environmental Control and Immunotherapy
14. Alternative Anti-inflammatory Therapies
15. Management of Asthma in the Intensive Care Unit
16. Asthma Unresponsive to Usual Therapy
17. Cellular and Pathologic Characteristics
18. Role of Indoor Aeroallergens
19. Principles of Asthma Management in Adults
20. Role of Long-Acting 2-Adrenergic Agents
21. Role of Inhaled Corticosteroids
22. Exercise-Induced Bronchoconstriction
23. Severe Acute Asthma in Children
24. Measures of Outcome
2001
(Hertzel C. Gerstein, MD, R. Brain Haynes, MD,)
1- EVIDENCE
2- DEFINITION AND IMPORTANCE OF DIABETES MELLITUS
4- PREVENTION AND SCREENING FOR DIABETES MELLITUS
3- ETIOLOGIC CLASSIFICATION OF DIABETES
5- LONG-TERM CONSEQUENCES OF DIABETES
6- DELIVERY OF CARE
2001
31.10 EVIDENCE-BASED Diagnosis: A Handbook of Clinical Prediction Rules (Mark Ebell, MD, MS) (Springer-Verlag)
-Cardiovascular Diseases -Endocrinology -Gastroenterology -Gynecology and Obstetrics -Hematology/Oncology
-Musculoskeletal -Neurology -Pulmonary Diseas -Renal Disease -Surgery and Trauma
32.10 First Principles of Gastroenterology
-Infectious Disease
The basis of disease & an approach to management (5th edition) (A.B.R. Thomson, E.A. Shaffer)
2000
33.10 Gastric Cancer Diagnosis and Treatment (An interactive Training Program) (J.R. Siewert, D.Kelsen, K. Maruyama) (Springer)
34.10 Gastroenterology
‫ــــ‬
Endoscopy (2nd Edition)
2002
th
35.10 Gastrointestinal and Liver Disease Pathophysiology/Diagnosis/Management (7 edition) (Sleisenger & Fordtran's)
Esophagus
Pancreas
Liver
Biliary tract
Nutrition in gastroenterology
Approach to patients with symptoms and signs
Topics involving multiple organs
Small and Large Intestine
Biology of the Gastrointestinal Tract and Liver
Vasculature and Supporting Structures
Stomach and duodenum
Psychosocial
36.10 HARRISON'S 15 McGraw-Hill presents
‫ــــ‬
37.10 Linear ECHO ENDOSCOPY Tome I anatomy (Dr. Marc Giovannini)
38.10 Management of Patients with
-Equipment
-Environment
‫ــــ‬
-Echo-anatomy
Viral Hepatitis from the state of the Art…to Real Life (Patrick Marcellin)
‫ــــــ‬
39.10 Menopausal Osteoporosis (Neill Musselwhlte, M.D., Herman Rose, M.D.)
‫ ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺕ ﺟﺪﻳﺪ ﻣﻄﺮﺡﺷﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﻪ‬-٦
‫ ﺍﺳﺘﺌﻮﭘﺮﻭﺯ‬-٥
Impact of osteobrosis -٤
MKSAP®
12
(American
College
of
Physiciance-American
Sosiety
Internal Medicine)
40.10
‫ــــــ‬
:‫ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ ﺟﺎﻟﺒﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺭﺍﺑﻄﻪ ﺑﺎ ﻣﻨﻮﭘﻮﺯ ﻭ ﺍﺳﺘﺌﻮﭘﺮﻭﺯ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﺁﻥ ﺑﻪ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬CD ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
‫ ﻧﮕﺮﺍﻧﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﺎﻥ‬-٣
‫ ﺭﻭﺵ ﺟﻠﻮﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺍﺯ ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ ﺁﻥ‬-٢
‫ ﻣﻨﻮﭘﻮﺯ ﻭ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺑﺮﺧﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺎ ﺁﻥ‬-١
-Gastroenterology and Hepatology - Endocrinology and Metabolism -Infectious Disease Medicine - Rheumatology
-Neurology
- Dermatology - Nephrology -Hospital-Based Medicine and Critical Care
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
2001
- Oncology
- Hematology
- Cardiovascular Medicine
2001
- Pulmonary Medicine
- Ambulatory Medicine
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
61
41.10 Oxford Textbook of Medicine (OTM) (Weatherall, Ledingham, Weatherall)
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﻳﻚ ﻣﻨﺒﻊ ﻭ ﻣﺮﺟﻊ ﻗﻮﻱ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻨﻈﻮﺭ ﻣﺸﺎﻭﺭﻩ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨـﺎﺕ ﺭﻭﺯﻣـﺮﻩ ﻭ ﭘﺎﺳـﺦ‬.‫ ﺗﻤﺎﻣﻲ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻋﻠﻮﻡ ﭘﺎﻳﻪ ﻭ ﻣﻬﺎﺭﺗﻬﺎﻱ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﻃﺐ ﺩﺍﺧﻠﻲ ﻭ ﺗﺨﺼﺺﻫﺎﻱ ﻭﺍﺑﺴﺘﻪ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺭﺑﺮ ﻣﻲﮔﻴﺮﺩ‬CD ‫ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬٢٥٠٠ ‫ ﺻﻔﺤﻪ ﻭ‬٥٠٠ ‫ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺩﺭ‬٣٣ ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﻳﻚ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﻣﺸﺘﻤﻞ ﺑﺮ‬
:‫ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺰﻳﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺷﺎﺭﻩ ﻛﺮﺩ‬.‫ ﻣﻘﺎﻟﻪﻧﻮﻳﺲ ﻭ ﻣﺤﻘﻖ ﻣﻌﺘﺒﺮ ﺩﺭ ﺳﺮﺗﺎﺳﺮ ﺟﻬﺎﻥ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬٥٨٠ ‫ ﺩﺭ ﻧﻮﺷﺘﻦ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ‬.‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬،‫ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺗﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺧﺎﺭﺝ ﺗﺨﺼﺺ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ ﻣﻄﺮﺡ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬
‫ ﺩﺭ‬.‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬـﺎﻱ ﻣﻘـﺎﺭﺑﺘﻲ‬،‫ ﻣﻌﺎﻟﺠﺎﺕ ﺩﻭﺭﻩﺍﻱ‬،‫ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﭘﻴﺮﻱ‬،‫ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻗﺎﻧﻮﻧﻲ‬،‫ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻭﺭﺯﺷﻲ‬.‫ ﺑﻴﺸﺘﺮ ﻣﻔﺎﻫﻴﻢ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﻋﻔﻮﻧﻲ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﺩﺭﺳﻨﺎﻣﻪ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺭﺍ ﭘﻮﺷﺶ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‬.‫ ﺩﺍﻣﻨﺔ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻭ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻋﺎﺕ ﺍﺯ ﻗﺒﻞ ﻭﺳﻴﻊﺗﺮ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ﮔﺮﺩﺁﻭﺭﻱ ﻏﻴﺮﺗﻜﺮﺍﺭﻱ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻋﻠﻮﻡ ﭘﺎﻳﻪ ﻭ ﻋﻠﻮﻡ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ‬
.‫ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺩﻗﻴﻖ ﻭ ﻣﻮﺷﻜﺎﻓﺎﻧﻪ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﻧﮕﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‬،‫ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺍﻋﺘﻴﺎﺩ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺍﻥﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﺎﺕ ﻋﻤﻮﻣﻲ‬،‫ ﺗﻐﺬﻳﻪ‬،‫ ﺑﻬﺪﺍﺷﺖ ﻣﺤﻴﻂ ﻭ ﻣﺸﺎﻏﻞ‬.‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﺑﺎﺭﺩﺍﺭﻱ‬،CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
‫ ﻗﺪﺭﺕ ﺗﻐﻴﻴﺮ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﺯﺓ ﻗﻠﻤﻬﺎﻱ ﻣﺘﻮﻥ ﻭ ﭼﺎﭘﮕﺮ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﻗﺪﺭﺕ ﭼﺎﭖ ﻣﺘﻦ ﻭ ﺟﺴﺘﺠﻮﻱ ﻛﻠﻤـﺎﺕ ﻭ ﻭﺍﮊﻩﻫـﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼـﻲ ﻭ ﺩﺳﺘﺮﺳـﻲ ﺁﺳـﺎﻥ ﺑـﻪ‬.‫ ﺭﺍ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺟﺪﺍﮔﺎﻧﻪ ﻣﺸﺎﻫﺪﻩ ﻧﻤﻮﺩ‬CD ‫ ﻛﻪ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﺗﻤﺎﻣﻲ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ‬،‫ ﻫﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮﻱ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬.‫ ﻣﻨﺎﺑﻊ ﺁﻥ ﻗﻴﺪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬،‫ﺩﺭ ﭘﺎﻳﺎﻥ ﻫﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ‬
.‫ ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬CD ‫ ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺕ ﭼﻨﺪﮔﺰﻳﻨﻪﺍﻱ )ﻛﻪ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﺟﺪﺍﮔﺎﻧﻪ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ( ﻭ ﻓﻬﺮﺳﺖ ﺗﻔﺼﻴﻠﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻨﺪﺭﺟﺎﺕ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ﺟﺪﺍﻭﻝ ﻭ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺍﺯ ﻭﻳﮋﮔﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
42.10 Parenting Guide
‫ــــــ‬
43.10 Pre-Colonoscopy Education Program (Dr. Michael Shaw, Dr. Oliver cass Dr. James Reynolds Patricia Tomshine, Rn)
- Reason for Colonoscopy
- The Colon and The Colonoscope
- Preparations - Day of the Procedure
‫ــــ‬
- About the Procedure -After the Procedur - Minor Complicaions
- Major Complications
th
44.10 Reproductive Endocrinology Physilogy, Pathology & clinical management) (4 edition) (Yen, Jaffe, Barbieri)
45.10 Rheumatology (John H. Klippel.Paul A Dieppe)
-Rheumatic Diseases
-Regional Pain Problems
‫ــــ‬
-Signs and Symptoms
-Connective Tissue Disorders
46.10 TEXTBOOK OF Gastroenterology (Third Edition)
‫ــــــ‬
-Rheumatoid Arthritis and Spondylopathy
-Disorders of Bone, Cartilage
-Infection and Arthritis
-Management of Rheumatic Disease
ATLAS OF Gastroenterology (Second Edition) (David H. Alpers, MD, Loren Laine, MD)
2001
47.10 Textbook of Rheumatology (Kelley's) (W.B. Saunders Company)
Section I BIOLOGY OF THE NORMAL JOINT
Section III EVALUATION OF THE PATIENT
Section V DIAGNOSTIC TESTS AND PROCEDURES
Section VII CLINICAL PHARMACOLOGY
Section IX SPONDYLOARTHROPATHIES
Section XI VASCULITIC SYNDROMES
Section XIII STRUCTURE, FUNCTION, AND DISEASE OF MUSCLE
Section XV CRYSTAL-ASSOCIATED SYNOVITIS
Section XVII ARTHRITIS RELATED TO INFECTION
Section XIX DISORDERS OF BONE AND STRUCTURAL PROTEIN
Section XXI RECONSTRUCTIVE SURGERY FOR RHEUMATIC DISEASE
‫ــــ‬
Section II IMMUNE AND INFLAMMATORY RESPONSES
Section IV MUSCULOSKELETAL PAIN AND EVALUATION
Section VI SPECIAL ISSUES
Section VIII RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS
Section X SYSTEMIC LUPUS ERYTHEMATOSUS AND RELATED SYNDROMES
Section XII SCLERODERMA AND MIXED CONNECTIVE TISSUE DISEASES
Section XIV RHEUMATIC DISEASES OF CHILDHOOD
Section XVI OSTEOARTHRITIS, POLYCHONDRITIS, AND HERITABLE DISORDERS
Section XVIII ARTHRITIS ACCOMPANYING SYSTEMIC DISORDERS
Section XX TUMORS INVOLVING JOINTS
48.10 Textbook of TRAVEL MEDICINE and HEALTH (Herbert L. Dupont, M.D., Robert Steffen, M.D.) (B.C.DECKER INC)
‫ــــ‬
.‫ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﺎﻥ ﻣﺴﺎﻓﺮﺕ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻨﺎﻃﻖ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺍﻣﻜﺎﻥ ﺍﺑﺘﻼ ﺑﻪ ﺑﺮﺧﻲ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎ ﺑﺎ ﺗﻮﺟﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺷﺮﺍﻳﻂ ﺍﭘﻴـﺪﻣﻴﻜﻲ ﻭ ﺍﻧـﺪﻣﻴﻚ ﺑﻴﺸـﺘﺮ ﻣـﻲﺷـﻮﺩ‬.‫ ﻧﻮﺷﺘﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬Steffen ‫ ﻭ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‬Dupont ‫ ﻭ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‬.‫ ﺻﻔﺤﻪ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬٣٧٠ ‫ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺩﺭ‬٣٤ ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﻳﻚ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬
.‫ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‬CD ‫ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺴﺎﻓﺮﺍﻥ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺩﺭ ﻛﺸﻮﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﮔﻮﻧﺎﮔﻮﻥ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻭ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬. . . ‫ ﺍﺛﺮﺍﺕ ﻭﺍﻛﺴﻴﻨﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﻭ ﺁﻣﺎﺭ ﻣﺮﮒ ﻭ ﻣﻴﺮ ﻭ‬،‫ ﺷﻴﻮﻩﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﻧﺎﺷﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺣﻮﺍﺩﺙ‬.‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﻣﻘﺎﺭﺑﺘﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺟﻤﻠﻪ ﻫﺴﺘﻨﺪ‬،‫ ﻭﺑﺎ‬،‫ ﺍﻳﺪﺯ‬،‫ ﺗﻴﻔﻮﺋﻴﺪ‬،‫ ﻫﭙﺎﺗﻴﺖ‬،‫ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻳﻲ ﻣﺜﻞ ﻣﺎﻻﺭﻳﺎ‬
57.9 The Massachusetts General Hospital Handbook of Pain Management (Second Edition) (Jane Ballantyne, Scott M. Fishman, Salahadin Abdi) (SALEKAN-E-book)
:‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬CD ‫ﻗﺴﻤﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
‫ــــ‬
I. General Considerations
II. Diagnosis of Pain
III. Therapeutic Options: Pharmacologic Approaches
IV. Therapeutic Options: Nonpharmacologic Approaches
V. Acute Pain VI. Chronic Pain
VII. Pain Due to Cancer
VIII. Special Situations
- Apendices
- Subject Index
‫ــــ‬
49.10 UEGW Gastroenterology Week 10th United European (Geneva, Switzerland)
2003
50.10 UEGW IBS: Management not myth
1. IBS: the clinician's view
2. IBS: care, cost and consequences
:‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
3. Diagnosis: identigy, Probe, eliminate
51.10 Upper GI Endoscopy An Interactive Aducasional Program
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
4. Tegaserod: a world of experience
5. Chairman's summary
Video Segments of Common Pathologics of the Upper Gl tract (Iencludes Educational text)
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
62
52.10 UpToDate CLINICAL REFERENCE LIBRARY 13.3 (CD I , II) (Burton D. Rose, MD, Joseph M. Rush, MD)
2005
:‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬CD ‫ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
Adult Primary Care Allwrgy and Immonology Cardiology
Critical Care
Drug Information Enodcrinoology Family Medicine Rheumatology
Women's Health
Gastroenterology
Gynecology
Hematology Infections Disease
Nephrology
Oncology
Pediatrics
Pulmonology
53.10 YEAR BOOK of RHEUMATOLOGY, ARTHRITI, AND MUSCULOSKELETAL DISEASE
Health Sciences, Epidemiology, Economics, & Arthritis Care
TM
(Richrd S. Panush, MD) (SALEKAN E-BOOK)
2003
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus and Related Disorders
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Vasculitis and Systemic Rheumatic Diseases and Other Related Disorders
Systemic Selerosis and Related Disorders
Osteoarthritis, Crystal-Related Arthropathies, Osteoporosis, Infectious Arthritides, and Spondyloarthropathies
Regional Pain Syndromes, Non-Articular Musculoskeletal Disorders, and Fibromyalgia
Miscellaneous Topics
‫ﻋﻔﻮﻧﻲ‬
‫ــــ‬
54.10 Critical Care Clinics Infections in Critical Care I & II (W.B. Saunders)
55.10 Differential Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases
56.10 Infectious Disease Pathology
(David Schlossberg, Jonas A. Shulman)
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
(Clinical Cases) (Gail l. Woods, Vicki, Schnadig, David H. Walker)
57.10 Infectious Disease Secrets (Second Edition) Questions & Answers Reveal the Sectet to the Diagnosis & Management of Infectionus Diseases (Robert H. Gates)
58.10 INFECTIOUS DISEASES
(W Edmund Farrar, Martin J Wood, John A Innes, Hugh Tubbs)
The Head and Neck
The Urinary Tract
Vira, Fungal and Ectoparasitic Infections
Lower Respiratory Tract
The Genital Tract
The Eye
The Nervous System
Bones and Joints
Systemic Infections
The Gastrointestinal Tract
The Cardiovascular System
HIV Infection and Aids
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
The liver and Biliary Tract
Bacterial Infections
Acknowledgements
59.10 Infectious Diseases Handbook Diagnostic Medicine Series (Carlos M. Isada, Bernard L. Kasten, Morton P. Goldman) (5th Edition)
‫ــــــ‬
60.10 Manual of Clinical Problems in Infectious Disease (Nelson M. Gantz, Richard B. Brown)
‫ــــــ‬
61.10 Principles & Practice of Infectious Diseases
2000
A Harcourt Health Sciences Company
:‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺳﻪ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺍﺻﻠﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ‬CD ‫ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﻭ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺗﻤﺎﻣﻲ ﻣﻔﺎﻫﻴﻢ ﺍﺳﺎﺳﻲ ﻭ ﺟﺎﺭﻱ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﺑﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ ﻋﻔﻮﻧﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬٨٠٠ ‫ ﺟﺪﻭﻝ ﻭ‬٨٠٠ ‫ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﻳﻚ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﺑﻴﺶ ﺍﺯ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
.‫ﻛﻪ ﻣﺘﻦ ﺍﺻﻠﻲ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺭﺍ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬
2- Subject index Search: .‫ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﺣﺮﻭﻑ ﺍﻟﻔﺒﺎ ﻭﺍﮊﻩﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﺭﺍ ﭘﻴﺪﺍ ﻧﻤﻮﺩ ﻭ ﺑﻪ ﻓﺼﻞ ﻭ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﺁﻥ ﺩﺭ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻣﻨﺘﻘﻞ ﺷﺪ‬
3- Help
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬CD ‫ﻃﺮﻳﻘﺔ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ‬
‫ ﻋﻔﻮﻧﺘﻬﺎﻱ ﺳﻴﺴـﺘﻢ ﻋﺼـﺒﻲ ﻭ‬،‫ ﻋﺮﻭﻗﻲ‬-‫ ﻋﻔﻮﻧﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ‬،‫ ﻋﻔﻮﻧﺘﻬﺎﻱ ﺑﺮﻭﻧﺸﻴﻮﻟﻬﺎ‬،‫ ﻋﻔﻮﻧﺘﻬﺎﻱ ﻓﻮﻗﺎﻧﻲ ﺗﻨﻔﺴﻲ‬،‫( ﻋﻼﺋﻢ ﻭ ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﻠﻴﻨﻴﻜﻲ )ﺗﺐ‬٢
(‫ ﺍﭘﻴﺪﻣﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺭﻭﺷﻬﺎﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ‬،‫ ﻣﻜﺎﻧﻴﺰﻡﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﻓﺎﻋﻲ ﻣﻴﺰﺑﺎﻥ‬،‫( ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﺍﻭﻟﻴﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﻋﻔﻮﻧﻲ )ﻋﻮﺍﻣﻞ ﻣﻴﻜﺮﻭﺑﻲ‬١
(... ‫ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻭ ﻋﻔﻮﻧﺘﻬﺎﻱ ﺗﺮﻭﻣﺎ ﻭ‬،‫ ﻋﻔﻮﻧﺘﻬﺎﻱ ﻣﻴﺰﺑﺎﻧﻬﺎﻱ ﺧﺎﺹ‬،‫ )ﻋﻔﻮﻧﺘﻬﺎﻱ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺳﺘﺎﻧﻲ‬،Special problems (٤ (.... ‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﻣﻴﻮﭘﻼﺳﻢﻫﺎ ﻭ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﭘﺮﻳﻮﻥﻫﺎ‬،‫( ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﻋﻔﻮﻧﻲ ﻭ ﻋﻮﺍﻣﻞ ﻭ ﻋﻠﻞ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ )ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﻭﻳﺮﻭﺳﻲ‬٣ (.......
.‫( ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﻣﻲﮔﻴﺮﻧﺪ‬CD ‫ ﻗﺎﺑﻞ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻫﻨﮕﺎﻡ ﻧﺼﺐ ﺁﻥ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﻛﺎﻣﭙﻴﻮﺗﺮ ﺷﻤﺎ )ﺍﺯ ﻃﺮﻳﻖ‬Java VM ‫ ﻭ‬internet explver ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺗﺤﺖ‬
1- Browse Mandell, Douglas & Bennett s
62.10 The Washington Manual INFECTIOUS DISEASES Subspecialty consult
‫ــــ‬
(Richard Stalin)
‫ ﺍﻃﻔﺎﻝ‬-١١
CD ‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ‬
1.11 A Major Contributor to Neonatal Infant Morbidity and Mortality (SURVANTA) (Part I , II) (Alan J. Gold, MD, J. Harry Gunkel, Arvin M. Overbach)
2.11 Atlas of Pediatric Gastrointestinal Disease
3.11 AVERY'S DISEASES OF THE NEWBORN (EIGHTH EDITION) (H. William Taeusch, M.D., Roberta A. Ballard, M.D., Christine A. Gleason, M.D.) (CD I, II)
4.11 Basic Mechanisms of Pediatric Respiratory Disease (Second Edition) (Gabriel G. Haddad,MD, Steven H. Abman, MD)
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
2005
2002
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
63
Genetic and Developmental Biology of the Respiratory System
Developmental Physiology of the Respiratory System
Structure-Function Relations of the Respiratory System During Development
Inflammation and Pulmonary Defense Mechanisms
5.11
6.11
7.11
8.11
18.9
Care of the Newborn: A Handbook for Primary Care (David E. Hertz, MD)
Care of the Sick Neonate (A Ouick Reference for Health Care Providers) (Paulette S. Haws, MSN, RNC)
Child Development, 9/e (John W. Santrock)
Clinical Use of Pediatric Diagnostic Tests (Enid Gilbert-Barness, M.D, Lewis A. Barness, M.D., Philip M. Farrell, M.D.)
CURRENT MANAGEMENT IN CHILD NEUROLOGY (SECOND EDITION) (Bernrd L. Maria, MD, MBA)
9.11
10.11
11.11
12.11
13.11
14.11
15.11
16.11
17.11
EVIDENCE-BASED PEDIATRICS (William Feldmam, MD, FRCPC) (B.C. Decker Inc.)
Section 1: Clinical Practice Trends
Section 2: The Office Visit
2005
2004
2001
2003
2002
Section 3: The Hospitalized Child
HANDBOOK A Manual for Pediatric House Officers (Jason Robertson, MD, Nicole Shilkofski, MD)
Nelson TEXTBOOK OF PEDIATRICS (17th Edition) (CD I, II, II)
Neonatal and Pediatric Pharmacology Therapeutic Principles in Practice (Third Edition) (Sumner J. Yaffe, MD, Jacob V. Aranda, MD)
Nutrition in Pediatrics (W. Allan Walker, John B. Watkins, Christopher Duggan)
Oski's Essential Pediatrics (Michael Crocetti, M.D., Michael A. Barone, M.D.,) (Second Edition)
PEDIATRIC GASTROINTESTINAL DISEASE Pathophysiology . Diagnosis . Management (Third Edition)
TEXTBOOK OF NEONATAL RESUSCITATION (4TH EDITION MULTIMEDIA CD-ROM)
THE HARRIET LANE HANDBOOK (Seventeenth Edition) (Jason Robertson, MD Nicole Shilkofski, MD) A Manual for Pediatric House Officers
2000
2005
2004
2005
‫ــــ‬
2004
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
2005
‫ ﻋﻤﻮﻣﻲ‬:١٢
CD ‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ‬
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
1.12 1. Review for USMLE NMS® (Step 1)
2. Review for USMLE NMS® (Step 2)
3. Review for USMLE NMS® (Step 3)
‫ــــ‬
2.12 A.D.A.M. PracticePractical Review Anatomy – Create New Test – Open Existing Test
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﺳﺆﺍﻝ ﺍﻣﺘﺤﺎﻧﻲ ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪﻣﻨﻈﻮﺭ ﻳﺎﺩﺁﻭﺭﻱ ﻭ ﻣﺮﻭﺭ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺷﺪﻩ‬١٥٠٠٠ ‫ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﺑﻴﺶ ﺍﺯ‬.‫( ﻣﻲ ﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬X-ray ‫ ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ‬،‫ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻴﻜﻲ )ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻭﺍﻗﻌﻲ‬٥٠٠ ‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺑﻴﺶ ﺍﺯ‬.‫ﻫﺪﻑ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﻣﺮﻭﺭ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻭ ﻣﺤﻚ ﺯﺩﻥ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
‫ﺏ( ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ ﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺪﻥ‬
‫ﺍﻟﻒ( ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﻧﻮﺍﺣﻲ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻴﻜﻲ‬
:‫ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩﺍﻧﺪ‬٢ ‫ ﺩﺭ‬،CD ‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬Review Anatomy ‫ ﺩﺭ ﭘﻨﺠﺮﺓ ﺍﺻﻠﻲ‬.‫ﺍﺳﺖ‬
:‫ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻣﻄﺮﺡ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺑﺨﺶ ﻧﻮﺍﺣﻲ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻴﻜﻲ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬.‫ﻫﺮ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺭﺍ ﻛﻪ ﻣﺸﺨﺺ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﻴﺪ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻭ ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺕ ﺍﻣﺘﺤﺎﻧﻲ ﺁﻥ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺧﻮﺍﻫﺪ ﺷﺪ‬
.‫ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﻡ ﺗﺤﺘﺎﻧﻲ‬-٧
‫ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻟﮕﻦ ﺧﺎﺻﺮﻩ‬-٦
‫ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﺷﻜﻢ‬-٥
‫ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻗﻔﺴﻪ ﺳﻴﻨﻪ‬-٤
‫ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﺗﻨﻪ‬-٣
‫ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﻡ ﻓﻮﻗﺎﻧﻲ‬-٢
‫ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﺳﺮ ﻭ ﮔﺮﺩﻥ‬-١
‫ ﺗﺼـﻮﻳﺮ ﺩﺭ‬٤ ‫ ﻭ‬٢ ،١ ‫ ﻗﺪﺭﺕ ﺑﺰﺭﮔﻨﻤﺎﻳﻲ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺣﺬﻑ ﻭ ﺍﺿﺎﻓﻪ ﻧﻤﻮﺩﻥ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺩﻟﺨﻮﺍﻩ ﻭ ﻧﻤـﺎﻳﺶ ﻫﻤﺰﻣـﺎﻥ‬.‫ ﺷﻤﺎ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻧﻴﺪ ﻧﻮﻉ ﻣﻘﻄﻊ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻴﻜﻲ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﻣﺸﺨﺺ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﻴﺪ‬.‫ ﺑﻄﻮﺭ ﺟﺪﺍﮔﺎﻧﻪ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬Related images ‫ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻭﺍﺑﺴﺘﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻫﺮ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺍﺯ ﻃﺮﻳﻖ ﺩﻛﻤﺔ‬
‫ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴـﺖ ﺍﺿـﺎﻓﻪ ﻧﻤـﻮﺩﻥ‬.‫ ﭘﺎﺳﺦ ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺕ ﺑﻪ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﻧﻤﺮﺓ ﻧﻬﺎﻳﻲ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣـﻲﺷـﻮﺩ‬Show Results ‫ ﺑﺎ ﺯﺩﻥ ﻛﻠﻴﺪ‬،‫ ﻳﻚ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻴﻜﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺩﺭﻣﻲﺁﻳﺪ ﻭ ﻧﺎﻡ ﺑﺨﺸﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺁﻥ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺳﺆﺍﻝ ﺍﺳﺖ‬text ‫ ﺩﺭ ﭘﻨﺠﺮﺓ‬Start test ‫ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺍﻣﺘﺤﺎﻧﺎﺕ ﺑﺪﻳﻦ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺎ ﻓﻌﺎﻝ ﻧﻤﻮﺩﻥ‬.‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‬
‫ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﺷﻤﺎ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ ﻳﺎ ﻧﺎﺣﻴﺔ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻴﻜﻲ ﻣﻮﺭﺩﻧﻈﺮ ﺭﺍ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﻣﻲﻧﻤﺎﻳﻴﺪ )ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺯﻣﺎﻥ ﭘﺎﺳﺦ ﻫـﺮ ﺳـﺆﺍﻝ ﺭﺍ ﻣﺸـﺨﺺ‬،‫ ﺩﺭ ﻧﻮﻉ ﺩﻳﮕﺮﻱ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻣﺘﺤﺎﻧﺎﺕ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ‬.‫ ﺭﺍ ﺧﻮﺩ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻧﻴﺪ ﺑﻪ ﺩﻟﺨﻮﺍﻩ ﺗﻨﻈﻴﻢ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﻴﺪ‬CD ‫ ﺯﻣﺎﻥ ﭘﺎﺳﺦ ﺑﻪ ﻫﺮ ﺳﺆﺍﻝ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻣﺘﺤﺎﻧﺎﺕ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ﻳﺎﺩﺩﺍﺷﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺷﺨﺼﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻫﺮ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﻧﻴﺰ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‬
.‫ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬Autorun ‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻭ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ‬Olson ‫ ﻭ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‬Pawlina ‫ ﻧﻮﺷﺘﺔ ﺩﻛﺘﺮ‬CD ‫ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﺯﻣﺎﻥ ﺑﺎﻗﻴﻤﺎﻧﺪﻩ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻫﺮ ﺳﺆﺍﻝ ﺩﺭ ﺣﻴﻦ ﺍﻣﺘﺤﺎﻥ ﺩﺭ ﺣﺎﻝ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﺳﺆﺍﻝ ﻧﺎﻡ ﺑﺨﺸﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻳﻚ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻴﻜﻲ ﻣﻮﺭﺩﻧﻈﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ ﺍﻣﺘﺤﺎﻥ ﺷﺮﻭﻉ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬Start ‫ﻣﻲﻛﻨﻴﺪ( ﺑﺎ ﺯﺩﻥ ﻛﻠﻴﺪ‬
3.12
Atlas of Clinical Medicine
4.12
Infection
Cardiovascular Renal
Joints and Bones Respiratory
Endocrine, Metabolic and Nutritional
CECIL TEXTBOOK of MEDICINE (21st Edition)
(Version 2.0) (Forbes. Jackson)
Part I MEDICINE AS A LEARNED AND HUMANE PROFESSION
Part III AGING AND GERIATRIC MEDICINE
Part V PRINCIPLES OF EVALUATION AND MANAGEMENT
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
‫ــــ‬
Gastrointestinal
Liver and Pancreas
Blood
Nerve and Muscle
2001
Part II SOCIAL AND ETHICAL ISSUES IN MEDICINE
Part IV PREVENTIVE HEALTH CARE
Part VI PRINCIPLES OF HUMAN GENETICS
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
‫‪64‬‬
‫‪Part VIII RESPIRATORY DISEASES‬‬
‫‪Part X RENAL AND GENITOURINARY DISEASES Part XI GASTROINTESTINAL DISEASES‬‬
‫‪Part XIV ONCOLOGY‬‬
‫‪Part XVI NUTRITIONAL DISEASES‬‬
‫‪Part XVIII WOMEN'S HEALTH‬‬
‫‪Part XX DISEASES OF THE IMMUNE SYSTEM‬‬
‫‪Part XXII INFECTIOUS DISEASES‬‬
‫‪Part XXIV DISEASES OF PROTOZOA AND METAZOA‬‬
‫‪Part XXVI EYE, EAR, NOSE, AND THROAT DISEASES‬‬
‫‪Part XXVIII LABORATORY REFERENCE INTERVALS AND VALUES‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪2003‬‬
‫)‪(Patr. Ce M. Healey, Edwin J. Jacobson‬‬
‫‪Part VII CARDIOVASCULAR DISEASES‬‬
‫‪Part IX CRITICAL CARE MEDICINE‬‬
‫‪Part XII DISEASES OF THE LIVER, GALLBLADDER, AND‬‬
‫‪BILE DUCTS‬‬
‫‪Part XIII HEMATOLOGIC DISEASES‬‬
‫‪Part XV METABOLIC DISEASES‬‬
‫‪Part XVII ENDOCRINE DISEASES‬‬
‫‪Part XIX DISEASES OF BONE AND BONE MINERAL METABOLISM‬‬
‫‪Part XXI MUSCULOSKELETAL AND CONNECTIVE TISSUE DISEASES‬‬
‫‪Part XXIII HIV AND THE ACQUIRED IMMUNODEFICIENCY SYNDROME‬‬
‫‪Part XXV NEUROLOGY‬‬
‫‪Part XXVII SKIN DISEASES‬‬
‫)‪Common Medical Diagnoses: An Algorithmic Approach (Third Edition‬‬
‫‪BEST MEDICAL COLLECTION‬‬
‫‪6.12‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ‪ ٧‬ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﺔ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ ،‬ﻛﻪ ﻫﺮ ﻳﻚ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﺑﻄﻮﺭ ﺟﺪﺍﮔﺎﻧﻪ ﺍﺯ ﻓﺎﻳﻞ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ‪ ،‬ﻧﺼﺐ ﻭ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﻧﻤﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪﻫﺎ ﻋﺒﺎﺭﺗﻨﺪ ﺍﺯ ‪:‬‬
‫‪ -٧‬ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺳﻼﻣﺖ ‪Health soft‬‬
‫‪ -١‬ﺩﻳﻜﺸﻨﺮﻱ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‪ -٢ ،‬ﻃﺐ ﺳﻮﺯﻧﻲ‪ -٥ ،Health manger -٤ ،Multimedia workout -٣ ،‬ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻫﺎﻱ ﻧﺴﺨﻪﺍﻱ )‪) medical Drug Reference -٦ ،(Prescription Drugs‬ﻣﺮﺟﻊ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻳﻲ(‬
‫‪ -١‬ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺩﻳﻜﺸﻨﺮﻱ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‪ :‬ﻣﻔﺎﻫﻴﻢ ﻭﺍﮊﻩﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺍﺻﻄﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺭﺍ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺟﺴﺘﺠﻮ ﻧﻤﻮﺩ‪ .‬ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﺩﻭ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ‪ :‬ﺍﻟﻒ( ﺳﻼﻣﺖ ﺧﺎﻧﻮﺍﺩﻩ ﺏ( ﺳﻼﻣﺖ ﻛﻮﺩﻛﺎﻥ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ ﻛﻪ ﻫﺮ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﻭ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺒﻲ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ‪ text‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫‪ -٢‬ﻃــﺐ ﺳــﻮﺯﻧﻲ ‪ :‬ﺷــﺎﻣﻞ ‪ ٩‬ﻓﺼــﻞ ﻣــﻲﺑﺎﺷــﺪ ﻛــﻪ ﺭﻭﺵ ﻛــﺎﺭ ﺑــﺎ ﻭﺳــﺎﻳﻞ ﻭ ﻧﺤــﻮﺓ ﺩﺭﻣــﺎﻥ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬــﺎ‪ ،‬ﺑﺼــﻮﺭﺕ ﺗﻮﺿــﻴﺤﺎﺕ ﻣﺘﻨــﻲ ﺍﺭﺍﺋــﻪ ﺷــﺪﻩ ﺍﺳــﺖ‪ .‬ﻳــﻚ ﻓــﻴﻠﻢ ﺭﺍﺟــﻊ ﺑــﻪ ﻃــﺐ ﺳــﻮﺯﻧﻲ ﻧﻴــﺰ ﻟﺤــﺎﻅ ﺷــﺪﻩ ﺍﺳــﺖ‪ .‬ﺍﻳــﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣــﻪ ﻣﺤﺼــﻮﻝ ﺷــﺮﻛﺖ‬
‫‪ Hopkins technology‬ﺳﺎﻝ ‪ ١٩٩٧‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫‪ -٣‬ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﺔ ‪ workout‬ﻧﺴﺨﺔ ‪ :١‬ﺑﺎ ﻭﺍﺭﺩ ﻧﻤﻮﺩﻥ ﻣﺸﺨﺼﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﺩﻱ )ﺳﻦ‪ ،‬ﻗﺪ‪ ،‬ﻭﺯﻥ‪ ،‬ﺟﻨﺴﻴﺖ‪ ،‬ﻣﻴﺰﺍﻥ ﺍﻧﺮﮊﻱ ﭘﺎﻳﺔ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻧﻴﺎﺯ ﻭ ‪ (...‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺭﮊﻳﻢ ﻏﺬﺍﻳﻲ ﻣﻨﺎﺳﺐ‪ ،‬ﻧﻮﻉ ﻧﺮﻣﺶ ﺍﻭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩﻧﻈﺮ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻪ ﺷﻤﺎ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﻣﺤﺼﻮﻝ ﺳﺎﻝ ‪ ١٩٩٤‬ﺍﺳـﺖ ﻭ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﭼﻨـﺪﻳﻦ ﻓـﻴﻠﻢ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷـﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻧﺤـﻮﺓ‬
‫ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﻧﺮﻣﺶﻫﺎ ﻧﻴﺰ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫‪ :Health manager -٤‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺣﻘﻴﻘﺖ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﻭ ﺳﻼﻣﺘﻲ ﺷﻐﻠﻲ ﺍﻓﺮﺍﺩ ﺭﺍ ﻣﺪﻳﺮﻳﺖ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﺪ‪ .‬ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪﺍﻱ ﺍﺳﺖ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺿﺒﻂ ﻭ ﻧﮕﻬﺪﺍﺭﻱ ﻭﻗﺎﻳﻊ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺷﺨﺼﻲ‪ ،‬ﻟﻴﺴﺖ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﺓ ﻓﺮﺩ‪ ،‬ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻟﺮﮊﻱ ﻭ ﻳﻚ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺁﺩﺭﺱ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺮﺍﻛﺰ ﻣﻬـﻢ ﺑﻬﺪﺍﺷـﺘﻲ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣـﺎﻧﻲ‪.‬‬
‫ﺯﻣﺎﻥ ﺗﺠﺪﻳﺪ ﻭ ﺗﻌﻮﻳﺾ ﻧﺴﺨﺔ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻭ ﻣﺮﺍﺟﻌﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺩﻧﺪﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻚ ﺩﺭ ﺟﺪﺍﻭﻟﻲ ﻣﺸﺨﺺ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫‪ -٥‬ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻫﺎﻱ ﻧﺴﺨﻪﺍﻱ‪ :‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺕ ﻣﺨﺘﺼﺮﻱ ﺭﺍﺟﻊ ﺑﻪ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﻓﺎﺭﻣﺎﻛﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻜﻲ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‪ .‬ﻣﺤﺼﻮﻝ ﺷﺮﻛﺖ ‪ Quanta Press‬ﺳﺎﻝ ‪ ١٩٩٢‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫‪ -٦‬ﻣﺮﺟﻊ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻳﻲ ﻧﺴﺨﺔ ‪ :٢‬ﺍﺯ ﺳﻪ ﺭﺍﻩ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﻭﺍﺭﺩ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺷﺪ ﻭ ﺍﺯ ﺁﻥ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﻧﻤﻮﺩ‪:‬‬
‫ﺏ( ﺑﺎ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻴﻠﺔ ﺟﺴﺘﺠﻮ‪ ،‬ﻧﺎﻡ ﺩﺍﺭﻭ ﺭﺍ ﺗﺎﻳﭗ ﻧﻤﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺁﻧﺮﺍ ﺑﻴﺎﺑﻴﺪ ﺝ( ﺑﺎ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ‪ ،Class‬ﮔﺮﻭﻫﻬﺎﻱ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻳﻲ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻣﻌﺮﻓﻲ ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﻧﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺍﻟﻒ( ﻟﻴﺴﺖ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻫﺎ‪ :‬ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻱ ﻣﻮﺭﺩﻧﻈﺮ ﺭﺍ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﻴﺪ ﻭ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﻻﺯﻡ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺭﻳﺎﻓﺖ ﻛﻨﻴﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺩﺭﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻫﺮ ﺩﺍﺭﻭ‪ ،‬ﻣﻘﺪﺍﺭ ﻣﺼﺮﻑ ﺭﻭﺯﺍﻧﻪ‪ ،‬ﺍﺛﺮﺍﺕ ﺟﺎﻧﺒﻲ‪ ،‬ﺍﺷﻜﺎﻝ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺩﺍﺭﻭ ﻭ ﻫﺸﺪﺍﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﻻﺯﻡ ﺩﺭﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺛﺮﺍﺕ ﺳﻮﺀ ﺁﻥ‪ ،‬ﺭﻭﺷﻬﺎﻱ ﻧﮕﻬﺪﺍﺭﻱ ﺩﺍﺭﻭ ﻭ ‪ . . .‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﻣﺤﺼﻮﻝ ﺷﺮﻛﺖ ‪ Parsons Technology‬ﺳﺎﻝ ‪ ١٩٩٥‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫‪ -٧‬ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺳﻼﻣﺖ )‪ : (Healthsoft‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺳﻪﺑﺨﺶ )ﺳﻪ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ( ﻣﺴﺘﻘﻞ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪:‬‬
‫ﺍﻟﻒ( ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺗﻲ ﺭﺍﺟﻊ ﺑﻪ ﺍﻋﻤﺎﻝ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ‪ ،‬ﻣﺮﺍﻗﺒﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﺲ ﺍﺯ ﻋﻤﻞ‪ ،‬ﺍﻋﻤﺎﻟﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﺎﻥ ﺍﻭﺭﮊﺍﻧﺲ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺩﺍﺩ ﻭ ‪ . . .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻣﺘﻌﺪﺩ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺗﻠﻔﻆ ﺻﺤﻴﺢ ﺍﺻﻄﻼﺣﺎﺕ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻧﺎﺁﺷﻨﺎ ﻧﻴﺰ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ ،‬ﺑﺎ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﻓﻬﺮﺳﺖ ﺍﻟﻔﺒﺎﻳﻲ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﺍﻃﻼﻋـﺎﺗﻲ ﺭﺍﺟـﻊ‬
‫ﺑﻪ ﻫﺮ ﻭﺍﮊﻩ ﺭﺍ ﭘﻴﺪﺍ ﻧﻤﻮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫ﺏ( ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ‪ ،‬ﻋﻠﺖ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎ‪ ،‬ﻋﻼﺋﻢ ﻭ ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎ‪ ،‬ﭘﻴﺸﮕﻴﺮﻱ‪ ،‬ﻣﺮﺍﻗﺒﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﻬﺪﺍﺷﺘﻲ‪ ،‬ﺭﻭﺷﻬﺎﻱ ﺻﺤﻴﺢ ﻣﻌﺎﻟﺠﻪ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺯﻣﺎﻥ ﻻﺯﻡ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻣﺮﺍﺟﻌﻪ ﺑﻪ ﭘﺰﺷﻚ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﺝ( ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺗﻲ ﺭﺍﺟﻊ ﺑﻪ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻫﺎﻱ ﮊﻧﺘﻴﻚ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺍﺛﺮﺍﺕ ﺟﺎﻧﺒﻲ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻫﺎ‪ ،‬ﻭﺍﻛﻨﺶ ﻧﺎﺳﺎﺯﮔﺎﺭﻱ ﺗﺪﺍﺧﻞ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻳﻲ ﻭ ‪ . . .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺍﺷﺎﺭﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺍﻟﺒﺘﻪ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺗﻨﻬﺎ ﺟﻨﺒﺔ ﺁﮔﺎﻫﻲ ﺩﺍﺩﻥ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺍﺷﺘﻪ ﻭ ﻧﻮﻳﺴﻨﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺷﺮﻛﺖ ﺗﻮﻟﻴﺪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ‪ CD‬ﻫﻴﭻ ﺗﻮﺻﻴﻪﺍﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳـﻦ‬
‫ﺧﺼﻮﺹ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻧﻤﻲﺩﻫﻨﺪ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﺔ ﻧﺎﻣﻬﺎﻱ ﮊﻧﺘﻴﻚ ﻭ ﺗﺠﺎﺭﻱ‪ ،‬ﮔﺮﻭﻫﻬﺎﻱ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﺋﻲ ﻭ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻱ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻣﻘﺪﺍﺭ ﻣﺼﺮﻑ ﺩﺍﺭﻭ‪ ،‬ﻋﻼﺋﻢ ﻭ ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻪﻫﺎﻱ ‪ Dverdose‬ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻫﺎ‪ ،‬ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﻣﻨﻊ ﻣﺼﺮﻑ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﻭ ﺗﻠﻔﻆ ﺻﺤﻴﺢ ﻧﺎﻡ ﺩﺍﺭﻭ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪Clinical Examination‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪Nervous system‬‬
‫‪Male genitalia‬‬
‫‪Heart & cardiovascular system‬‬
‫‪Respiratory system‬‬
‫‪Skin, nails & hair‬‬
‫‪Infants & children‬‬
‫‪Bones, joints & muscle‬‬
‫‪Abdomen‬‬
‫‪Femal breast & genittalia‬‬
‫‪Ear, nose & throah‬‬
‫‪CMDT CURREAT Medical Diagnosis & Treatment‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪5.12‬‬
‫‪Endoscopic Assessment of Esophagitis According to the Los Angeles Classification System‬‬
‫‪y Viewing Area 1 :Slide Viewer 2: Slide Gallery 3:Video Gallery‬‬
‫‪3: Complicatins‬‬
‫‪2: Los Angeles Classification‬‬
‫‪2: On Endoscopic Assessment of Esophagitis‬‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫‪1: Mucosal Break‬‬
‫‪y Definitions‬‬
‫‪1: International Working Group‬‬
‫‪y Quiz‬‬
‫‪7.12‬‬
‫‪8.12‬‬
‫‪9.12‬‬
‫‪10.12 GRIFFITH'S 5-MINUTE CLINICAL CONSULT‬‬
‫ﺑﻪ ﮔﻔﺘﺔ ﻣﺆﻟﻔﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ ﻭ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﻭ ﺩﺳﺘﻲ`ﺍﺭﺍﻥ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻣﺮﻭﺭ ﺳﺮﻳﻊ ﻭﻟﻲ ﺟﺎﻣﻊ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻋﻤﺪﻩ ﺩﺍﺧﻠﻲ‪ ،‬ﺯﻧﺎﻥ‪ ،‬ﭘﻮﺳﺖ‪ ،‬ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ‪ ،‬ﭼﺸﻢ ﻭ ‪ ENT‬ﻭ ‪ ....‬ﮔﺮﺩﺁﻭﺭﻱ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺑﻴﺶ ﺍﺯ ﻫﺰﺍﺭ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺑﻪ ﺗﺮﺗﻴﺐ ﺍﻟﻔﺒﺎ ﺗﺮﺗﻴﺐ ﻳﺎﻓﺘـﻪ ﺍﺳـﺖ‬
‫ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﺟﺰﺋﻴﺎﺕ ﻛﺎﻓﻲ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻭ ﭘﻴﮕﻴﺮﻱ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪ .‬ﺑﻴﺶ ﺍﺯ ‪ ٣٣٠‬ﻧﻔﺮ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﻣﺠﺮﺏ ﺩﺭ ﮔﺮﺩﺁﻭﺭﻱ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﻪ ﻫﻤﻜﺎﺭﻱ ﺩﺍﺷﺘﻪﺍﻧﺪ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎ )ﺩﺭ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ( ﻭ ﻋﻜﺲﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ‪ ،‬ﻧﻤﻮﺩﺍﺭ ﻭ ﺟﺪﻭﻝ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﻫﺮ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺩﺭ ‪ ٦‬ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺍﺻﻠﻲ ﻭ ‪ ٣٦‬ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﻓﺮﻋﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺗﻔﻀﻴﻞ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻣﺸﺮﻭﺡ ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﻋﺒﺎﺭﺗﻨﺪ ﺍﺯ‪:‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
65
4- MEDICATION
• Drugs of choice
• Contraindications
• Precautions
• Interactions
• Alternate drugs
5- FOLLOW-UP
• Monitoring
• Prevention
• Complications
• Prognosis
6- MISCELLANEOUS
• Associated conditions
• Age-related factors
• Pregnancy
• Synonyms
• ICD-9-CM
• See also
• Other notes
• Abbreviations
• References
3- TREATMENT
• Genral measures
• Surgical measures
• Activity
• Diet
• Patient education
2- DIAGNOSIS
• Differential
• Laboratory
• Pathological findings
• Special tests
• Imaging
1- BASICS
• Description
• Genetics
• Prevalence
• Age
• Signs and symptoms
• Causes
• Risk factors
2002
11.12 HEALTH ASSESSMENT (Gaylene Bouska Altman, RN, Ph.D., Karrin Johnson, RN, Robert W. Wallach, MD)
.‫ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺭﺍﺟﻊ ﺑﻪ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺳﻼﻣﺖ ﻭ ﺁﺯﻣﺎﻳﺸﺎﺕ ﻭ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﺎﺕ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻜﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬٤ ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬
.‫ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻫﻬﺎ ﻭ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﻣﻬﺎﻱ ﺑﺪﻥ ﺑﻪ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﻣﺘﻨﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺗﻤﺎﻣﻲ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻭ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻣﺮﻭﺭ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬٥٩ ‫ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ‬١٧٥ ‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬: ‫ ﻣﺮﻭﺭﻱ ﺑﺮ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻭ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬:١ ‫ﺑﺨﺶ‬
.‫ ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﻋﻤﻠﻜﺮﺩ ﻭ ﺳﺎﺧﺘﺎﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﻗﻠﺐ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺻﺪﺍﻫﺎﻱ ﻗﻠﺐ ﻭ ﺭﻳﻪ )ﺩﺭ ﺣﺎﻟﺖ ﺳﻼﻣﺘﻲ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ( ﺩﺭ ﻫﻨﮕﺎﻡ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﺔ ﻣﺮﻳﺾ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬:‫ ﺻﺪﺍﻫﺎﻱ ﻗﻠﺐ ﻭ ﺭﻳﻪ‬:٢ ‫ﺑﺨﺶ‬
‫ ﻫﺪﻑ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺍﻓﺰﺍﻳﺶ ﻗﺪﺭﺕ‬.‫ ﻭﺿﻌﻴﺖ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ )ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﺳﺆﺍﻝ ﻭ ﺟﻮﺍﺏ( ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﻣﺸﺨﺺ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬،‫ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﭘﺲ ﺍﺯ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺣﺎﻝ‬Case ٢٠ .‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ »ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻭ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌﺔ ﻣﻮﺭﺩﻱ« ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬:‫ ﻣﻬﺎﺭﺗﻬﺎﻱ ﺣﻴﺎﺗﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺳﻼﻣﺘﻲ ﻭ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﺎﺕ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻜﻲ‬:٣ ‫ﺑﺨﺶ‬
.‫ﻭ ﻣﻬﺎﺭﺕ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﺠﻮﻳﺎﻥ ﺩﺭ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﺳﺖ‬
.‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺨﺶ ﻳﻚ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﺔ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻣﺼﻮﺭ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺗﻌﺎﺭﻳﻒ ﻭ ﺍﺻﻄﻼﺣﺎﺕ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﺎﺕ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬،‫ ﻓﺼﻞ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬٢C‫ ﺁﺷﻨﺎﻳﻲ ﺑﺼﺮﻱ ﺑﺎ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﺎﺕ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻜﻲ؛ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ‬:٤ ‫ﺑﺨﺶ‬
.‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﭼﻬﺎﺭ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺍﻣﺘﺤﺎﻥ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺕ ﭼﻨﺪ ﮔﺰﻳﻨﻪﺍﻱ ﻧﻴﺰ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‬
12.12 MCCQE
Review Nots and Lecture Series
2000
(Marcus Law & Brain Rotengberg(
Section Menu:
Anesthesia, Cardiology, Color Atlas, Community Med, Dermatololgy, Diagnostic Imaging, Emergency, Endocrinology, Family Medicinne, Gastroenterology,
General Surgery, Geriatrics, Gynecology, Hematology, Infectious Disease, Nephrology, Neurology, Neurosurgery, Obstetrics, Ophthalmology, Orthopedics, Otolaryngology,
Pediatrics, Plastic Surgery, Psychiatry, Respirology, Rheumatology, Urology
13.12 Medical Dictionary (Dorland's) (by W. B. Saunders)
2000
14.12 MEDICAL Encyclopedia For Health Consumers (With Atlas)
TM
(The Best Internal Medicine Board Review)
15.12 MedStudy
1. The Most Board Specific
2. The Most Powerful
3. The Most Effective
‫ــــ‬
2000
4. The Most Talked About
16.12 Natural Medicine Instructions for Patients (Lara U. Pizzorno, Joseph E. Pizzorno, Jr, Michael T. Murray)
2002
17.12 Patient Teaching Aids
2002
‫ ﺻﻔﺤﺎﺕ ﻗﺎﺑـﻞ‬.‫ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻉ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺩﺳﺘﻪﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﺷﺪﻩﺍﻧﺪ ﻭ ﻫﺮ ﻣﻄﻠﺐ ﺣﺪﻭﺩ ﻳﻚ ﺻﻔﺤﻪ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬.‫ ﺍﻗﺪﺍﻣﺎﺕ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺩﺭﺑﺮ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‬،‫ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻭ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ ﺩﺭ ﺭﺷﺘﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻃﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﻻﺯﻡ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺭ ﺑﺎﺑﺖ ﺍﻗﺪﺍﻣﺎﺕ ﺣﻤﺎﻳﺘﻲ‬
‫ ﻗﻮﻱ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺍﺿﺎﻓﻪﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﻧﻮﺷﺘﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻣﺘﻦ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺰﺍﻳﺎﻱ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧـﺮﻡﺍﻓـﺰﺍﺭ ﻣﺤﺴـﻮﺏ‬Search ‫ ﻗﺎﺑﻠﻴﺖ‬.‫ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﻧﻘﺶ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺭﺍ ﺩﺭ ﻓﺮﺁﻳﻨﺪ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺗﻘﻮﻳﺖ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺩﻳﺪﮔﺎﻩ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﻭ ﻣﻨﺎﺳﺒﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻭﻱ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺭﻭﻧﺪ ﻛﻠﻲ ﺳﻼﻣﺖ ﻭ ﺑﻬﺒﻮﺩ ﻛﻤﻚ ﺑﺴﺰﺍﻳﻲ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‬.‫ ﻭ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻫﺴﺘﻨﺪ‬Print
.‫ ﻋﻤﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺷﺎﻳﻊ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﺭﺍ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﺑﺮﺍﺣﺘﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﻳﺎﻓﺖ‬Tapic ‫ ﺳﺮﻓﺼﻞ ﻛﻪ ﻫﺮ ﻛﺪﺍﻡ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﭼﻨﺪ‬٤٠٠ ‫ ﺣﺪﻭﺩ‬.‫ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﺩ‬
18.12 Practical General Practice (Guidelines for effective clinical management) (Alex Khot, Andrew Polmear)
(Third Edition)
‫ــــ‬
2002
19.12 RAPID REVIEW FOR USMLE STEP 1 (Mosby)
Sciences:
y Anatomy y Behavioral Science y Biochemistry y Histology/Cell Biology y Microbiology/Immunology y Neuroscience y Pathology y Pharmocology y Physiology y Randomize All
20.12 SPSS 12.0 for Windows
2003
21.12 Textbook of Physical Diagnosis HISTORY AND EXAMINATION (Fourth Edition) (Mark H. Swartz, M.D.) (W.B. SAUNDERS COMPANY)
2002
22.12 The Basics for Interns
‫ــــ‬
:‫ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺍﺻﻠﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ‬٦ ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬
(‫ ﻟﻮﻟﻪﮔﺬﺍﺭﻱ ﻧﺎﻱ ﺗﺮﺍﻛﻨﻮﺗﻮﻣﻲ‬،‫ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺘﻼﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﻣﺎﺳﻚ ﻛﻴﺴﻪﺍﻱ‬،‫ ﺭﻭﺷﻬﺎﻱ ﺑﻴﻬﻮﺷﻲ‬،‫ ﺍﺑﺰﺍﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺴﻴﺮﻫﺎﻱ ﻫﻮﺍﻳﻲ ﺑﻴﻨﻲ ﻭ ﺩﻫﺎﻥ‬، . . . ‫ ﻭ‬hypoxia ‫ ﻭ‬Apnea ‫ ﻛﻨﺘﺮﻝ ﻣﺴﻴﺮ ﺭﺍﻫﻬﺎﻱ ﻫﻮﺍﻳﻲ ﺩﺭ‬،‫ )ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻣﺴﻴﺮ ﺭﺍﻫﻬﺎﻱ ﻫﻮﺍﻳﻲ‬airway Management
(CT-scan ‫ ﻭ‬Abdominal x-ray ‫ – ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ‬Chest x-ray ‫ﺗﻔﺴﻴﺮ ﻭ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺍﻭﻟﻴﺔ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ )ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ‬
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
-١
-٢
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
66
( . . . ‫ ﺭﻭﺵ ﭘﺎﻧﺴﻤﺎﻥ ﺯﺧﻢﻫﺎ‬،‫ﻣﺪﻳﺮﻳﺖ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺯﺧﻢﻫﺎ )ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻧﺦﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ – ﻣﻌﺮﻓﻲ ﺍﺑﺰﺍﺭ ﻭ ﻭﺳﺎﻳﻞ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ – ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﺑﺨﻴﻪ ﺯﺩﻥﻫﺎ‬
(‫ﺩﺳﺘﺮﺳﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺷﺮﻳﺎﻥﻫﺎ )ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺷﺮﻳﺎﻥ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﺎﻝ – ﺷﺮﻳﺎﻥ ﻓﻤﻮﺭﺍﻝ‬
( . . . ‫ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﭘﻴﺶ ﺍﺯ ﻋﻤﻞ ﻭ ﺗﺪﺍﺭﻛﺎﺕ ﻻﺯﻡ – ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻭ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺮﺷﻲ ﺳﻴﺎﻫﺮﮒﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺍﻳﻤﭙﻠﻨﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺯﻳﺮﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﻭ‬-‫ﺩﺳﺘﺮﺳﻲ ﻭ ﺑﻜﺎﺭﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺳﻴﺎﻫﺮﮒﻫﺎ )ﻣﻌﺮﻓﻲ ﻭﺳﺎﻳﻞ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺩﺳﺘﺮﺳﻲ ﻃﻮﻻﻧﻲ ﻣﺪﺕ ﺑﻪ ﺳﻴﺎﻫﺮﮒﻫﺎ‬
( ‫ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﺗﻴﻮﺏ ﺗﻮﺭﺍﻛﻮﺳﺘﻮﻣﻲ‬،‫ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﺗﻮﺭﺍﺳﻨﺘﺰ‬،‫ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﻋﻤﻞ‬،‫ )ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﺍﺳﺘﻌﻤﺎﻝ‬: ‫ﺩﺭ ﻧﺎﮊ ﻭ ﺗﺨﻠﻴﻪ ﭘﻠﻮﺭﺍﻝ‬
.‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻓﻴﻠﻤﻐﻬﺎﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻳﺎ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﻭﺍﻗﻌﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺑﺮﺭﻭﻱ ﻣﺮﻳﺾ ﺩﻗﻴﻘﹰﺎ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﻳﺎ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﺍﻧﻴﻤﻴﺸﻦ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ﺗﻤﺎﻣﻲ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺑﺎﻻ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﻓﻴﻠﻤﻐﻬﺎﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻭ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻣﺘﻌﺪﺩ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺕ ﮔﻮﻳﻨﺪﻩ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
-٣
-٤
-٥
-٦
-٧
23.12 The MERCK MANUAL of Medical Information (Second Edition) (Mark H. Beers, MD) (CD I , II) (Salekan E-Book)
24.12 Understanding Lung Sounds (Audio CD)
2003
‫ــــ‬
25.12 UNDERSTANDING PATHOPHYSIOLOGY (Second Edition) (Sue E. Huether, Kathryn L. McCance)
‫ــــ‬
26.12 Virtual Medical Office CHALLENGE (to accompany Bonewit-West Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants, 5 Edition)
th
(W.B. Saunders Company)
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﻛﻪ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻬﻤﺘﺮﻳﻦ ﻣﻬﺎﺭﺕﻫﺎ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ‬Triage ‫ ﻭ‬Critical ‫ ﻗﺪﺭﺕ ﺗﺼﻤﻴﻢﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺑﻪ ﺿﺮﺍﻓﺖﻫﺎﻱ‬،‫ ﺩﺭ ﻋﻴﻦ ﺣﺎﻝ ﺷﻴﻮﺓ ﺣﻞ ﻣﺸﻜﻼﺕ‬.‫ﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺘﻌﺪﺩ ﻣﻄﺮﺡﺷﺪﻩ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻪ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪﺷﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﻛﺘﺐ ﺭﻓﺮﺍﻧﺲ ﻋﺎﺩﺕ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‬CaseStudy ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺑﺎ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ‬
:‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﭼﻬﺎﺭ ﺳﺮﻓﺼﻞ ﻋﻤﺪﻩ ﺑﻪ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‬CD ‫ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﺩﺭ ﻃﻲ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﻣﺘﻌﺪﺩ ﻭ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻋﻤﻠﻲ ﻭ ﺳﻤﻌﻲ ﺑﺼﺮﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻭ ﺗﻤﺮﻳﻦ ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﻧﺪ‬،‫ﭘﺰﺷﻜﺎﻥ ﻭ ﻛﺎﺩﺭ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻣﺤﺴﻮﺏ ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﺩ‬
- Case Study
- Clinical Skills
- Challenge Status
-Help
‫ﺗﻐﺬﻳﻪ‬
27.12 Contemporary Nutrition Food Wise (Food Wise, Weight Manager)
2002
28.12 Food Works (College Edition)
___
29.12 INTRODUCTION TO NUTRIOTION AND METABOLISM (Third Edition) (DAVID A Bender)
30.12 Multimedia Workout
2002
(Jeffrey S. Smith, Joseph D. Cook)
‫ــــ‬
31.12 NUTRIENTS IN FOOD (Elizabet S. Hands)
2002
32.12 THE FOOD LOVER'S ENCYCLOPEDIA Culinary Techniques Recipes Nutrition Foods
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﺋﻲ‬-١٣
CD ‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ‬
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
‫ــــ‬
1.13
A Primer on Quality in the Analytical Laboratory (John Kenkel)
2.13
American DRUG INDEX (FACTS AND COMPARISONS)
3.13
Appleton and Lange's Quick Review PHARMACY
4.13
Basic Concepts in Biochemistry A Student's Survival Guid (Hiram F. Gilbert, Ph.D.) (Second Edition)
‫ــــ‬
5.13
Bioethics for Scientists (Professor John Bryant D. Linda Baggott La Velle, Revd Dr John Searle)
‫ــــ‬
6.13
British Pharmacopoeia (version 6.0)
Vol 1: -Notices -Preface -British Pharmacopoeia Commision -Introduction -General Notices -Monographs: Meidicinal and Pharmaceutical Substances
Vol 2: -Notices -General Notices -Monographs -Infrared Reference Spectra -Appendices -Supplementary Chapters
British Pharmacopoeia (Veterinary): -Preface -British Pharmacopoeia Commission -Introduction -General Notices -Monographs -Infrared Reference Spectra -Appendics
-Parmaceutics/Pharmokinetics
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
-Pharmacology
2001
(Twelfth Edition) (Joyce A. Generali, Christine A. Berger)
-Microbiology and Public Health
-Chemistry and Biochemistry
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
-Physiology/Pathology
___
-Clinical Pharmacy
2002
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
67
7.13
Characterization of Nanophase Materials (Zhong Lin Wang) (Salekan E-Book)
8.13
Chem Office (Renate Buergin Schaller)
9.13
Chemometrics Data Analysis for the Laboratory and Chemical Plant Richard G. Brereton (University of Bristol, UK)
‫ــــ‬
___
2003
___
10.13 Cleanroom Design (Second Edition) (Second Edition)
th
11.13 CLINICAL DRUG THERAPY Rationnales for Nursing Practice (7 Edition)
-Dosage Calc Challenge!
-Animations
-NCLEX Questions
(ANNE COLLINS ABRAMS) (Lippincott Williams & Wilkins)
-Monographs of 100 Most Commonly Prescribed Drug
-Preventing Medication Errors Video
12.13 Common Fragrance and Flavor Materials (Kurt Bauer, Dorothea Garbe, Horst Surburg)
13.13
‫ــــ‬
___
DERIVATIZATION REACTIONS FOR HPLC (Georgelunn, Louise C. Hellwic)
2000
14.13 Dosages and Solutions CD Conpanion (Virginia Daugherty, RN, MSN, Diana Romans, RN, BSN) (Harcourt Health Sciences)
-Mathematics Review
-Introducing Drug Measures
-How to Read a Drug Label
-Calculatin Dosages
DRU
ERUPTION
REFERENCE
MANUAL
(The
Parthenon
Publishing
Group)
(Jerome
Z. Litt, MD)
15.13
Search by:
- Drug Name
-Reactions
-Interactions
-Categories
-Company
-Multiple Search
-Comprehensive Posttest
2004
-Printing
-Common
-Reaciton
___
16.13 DRUG CONSULT (Mosby)
17.13
Drug Identifier
Find Products by: -Drug name
___
-Patient Teaching Sheets
2003
-Imprint
-NDC code
-Manufacturer name
18.13 Drug-Membrane Interactions Analysis, Drug Distribution, Modeling (Joachim K. Seydel, Michael Wiese)
2002
19.13 Encyclopedic Dictionary of Named Processes in Chemical Technology (Ed. Alan E. Comyns)
‫ــــ‬
20.13
European Pharmacopoeia (4th Edition)
___
21.13
FIRE AND EXPLOSION HAZARDS HANDBOOK OF INDUSTRIAL CHEMICALS (Tatyana A. Davletshina Nicholas P. Cheremisinoff, Ph.D.)
‫ــــ‬
22.13 Fluid Flow for Chemical Engineers
‫ــــ‬
(Second edition) (Professor F. A. Holland Dr R. Bragg)
‫ــــ‬
23.13 From Genome To Therapy: Integrating New Technologies with Drug Development
24.13
___
GoodMan and Gilmans's CD-ROM
25.13 Handbook of Solvents
(George Wypych)
‫ــــ‬
26.13
HERBAL MEDICINE Expanded Commission E Monographs (INTEGRATIVMEDICINE)
___
27.13
Herbal Remedy FINDER
___
28.13
HPLC and CE METHODS for Pharmaceutical Analysis
(Version 2.0)
(George Lunn) (John Wiley and ons)
2000
___
Patient Education Guide to Oncology Drugs Name Search – Categories – Comparisons
(Gail M. Wilkes, RNC, MS, AOCN, Terri B. Ades, RN, MS, AOCN)
30.13 PDQ PHARMACOLOGY (GORDON E. JOHNSON, PHD)
PDR® Electronic Library™ PHYSICIANS DESK REFERENCE (Thomson Medical Economics).
29.13
2002
2004
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩﺍﻧﺪ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻌﺘﺒﺮﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﻭ ﺟﺪﻳﺪﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﻣﺮﺍﺟﻊ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﺷﻨﺎﺳﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﻨﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ‬CD ‫( ﻓﺎﺭﻣﺎﻛﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ‬PDR, PDQ) ‫ ﺩﻭ ﺭﻓﺮﺍﻧﺲ‬.‫ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﻳﻚ ﺭﻓﺮﺍﻧﺲ ﺟﺎﻣﻊ ﻭ ﻣﻌﺘﺒﺮ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﺋﻲ ﺿﺮﻭﺭﻱ ﻣﻲﻧﻤﺎﻳﺪ‬،‫ ﺻﺮﻓﻨﻈﺮ ﺍﺯ ﻧﻮﻉ ﺗﺨﺼﺺ‬،‫ﺩﺭ ﻣﻄﺐ ﺭﻭﻱ ﻣﻴﺰ ﻛﺎﺭ ﻫﺮ ﭘﺰﺷﻚ‬
.‫ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻪ ﺩﺳﺖ ﺁﻭﺭﺩ‬... ‫ ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ ﺟﺎﻧﺒﻲ ﻭ‬،‫ ﻛﻨﺘﺮﺍﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥﻫﺎ‬،‫ ﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥﻫﺎ‬،‫ﺩﺭ ﻛﻤﺘﺮﻳﻦ ﺯﻣﺎﻥ ﻣﻤﻜﻦ ﻛﻠﻴﺔ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﻻﺯﻡ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻱ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻧﻈﺮ ﻣﻦﺟﻤﻠﻪ ﺩﻭﺯﺍﮊ‬
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
68
2004
31.13 PDR for Herbal Medicines (Third Edition) (David Heber, MD. Phd, Facp, FACN)
32.13
PHARMACOLOGY (Thomas L. Pazderink, Laszlo Kerecsen, Mrugshkumar K. Shah) (Mosby)
33.13 PHYSICANAS' CANCER CHEMOTHERAPHY DRUG MANUAL
- Principles of Cancer Chemotheraphy
- Common Chemotherapy Regimens in Clinical Practice
2003
2004
(Jones & Bartlett)
- Physician's Cancer Chemotherapy Drug Manual 2004
- Guidelines for Chemotherapy and Dosing Modifications
- Antimetic Agents for the Treatment of Chemotherapy-Induced Nausea and Vomiting
34.13 The Analysis of Controlled Substances (Michael D. Cole) (Wiley)
35.13
36.13
37.13
38.13
39.13
40.13
2003
The Aqueous Cleaning Handbook A Guide to Critical-cleaning Procedures, Techniques, and Validation)
The Constituents of Medicinal Plant (2nd Edition) (An introduction to the chemistry and therapeutics of herbal medicine)
The Herbalist (David L. Hoffman)
THE MERCK INDEX on CD-ROM (Version 12:3)
USP 27-NF 22 Through Supplement Two (U.S. PHARMACOPEIA) (The standard of Quality) (The United States Phamocopeial Convention, Inc)
Workplace Safety Volume 4 of the Savety at Work Series (John Ridley, John Channing)
2002
2004
___
2000
2004
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﺯﺑﺎﻥ‬:١٤
CD ‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ‬
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
1.14
BUILDING A MEDICAL VOCABULARY (FIFTH EDITION) (FEGGY C. LEONARD) (W.B. Saunders Company)
2001
2.14
ELECTRONIC MEDICAL DICTIONARY (STEDMAN'S) (LIPPINCOTT WILLIAMS & WILKINS)
2001
3.14
English Family (Merriam-Webster)
‫ــــ‬
4.14
Entertainment Collection
‫ــــ‬
5.14
How to Prepare for TOEFL
‫ــــ‬
6.14
Mad About English Spelling (Interactive Learning)
‫ــــ‬
7.14 Medical Information on the Internet (A Guide for Health Professionals) (Second Edition)
Why use the Internet?
Internetive Learning
The future
Appendix D: Configuring TCP/IP
Getting Wired
E-mail, discussion lists and newsgroups
Appendix A: Finding more information information
Appendix E: Glossary
(Robert Kiley)
‫ــــ‬
Finding what you want
The quality issue
Appendix B: Netscape Navigator and Internet
The top ten medical resources
Consumer health information
Appendix C: Optimising your computer
8.14
Preparation For the TOEFL (Dictionary Crossword Puzzle Matching Game)
‫ــــ‬
9.14
Preparing for the GRE Writing Assessment
‫ــــ‬
What does the GRE General Test measure? The GRE General Test is designed to measuregeneral knowledge and reasoning skills in three areas that are important for a academic
Analytical Ability
achievement: Verbal Ability Quantitative Ability
10.14 Speak Fluent Series
‫ــــ‬
11.14 Studying a Study Texting a Test (Fourth Edition) (Richard K. Riegelman)
‫ــــ‬
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
69
Designation Statement
Target Audience
Test-CME Needs Assessment
Glossary
Learning Objectives
12.14 The AMERICAN HERITAGE® TALKING DICTIONARY (Daniel Finkel)
‫ــــ‬
13.14 TriplePlayPlus! ENGLISH (Syracuse Languag Systems)
‫ــــ‬
14.14 Users' Guides To The Medical Literature (A manual for Evidence-Based Clinical Practice) (Gordon Guyatt, MD, Drummond Rennie, MD, Robert Hayward, MD)
15.14 Learn To Speak English Dictionary & Grammer
16.14 THE LANGUAGE OF MEDICINE (6
TH
1. Word Ports
(Chapters 1-4)
(CD1-4)
‫ــــ‬
2000
EDITION) (W.B. Saunders Company)
2.Body Systems
(Chapter 5-18)
2002
3. Specialties
(Chapter 19-22)
‫ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ‬-١٥
CD ‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ‬
1.15 1. Reflux Disease and Nissen Fundoplication (Philip E. Donahue, MD) (VCD)
2. Supraceliac Aortic-Celiac Axix-Superior Mesenteric Artery Bypass (Gregorio A. Sicard, Charles B. Anderson)
2.15 Advanced Therapy in THORACIC SURGERY (Kenneth L. Franco, MD, Joe B. Putnam Jr., MD)
3.15 Aesthetic Department
ARTECOLL: Injectable micro-Implant, for long lasting levelling of facial wrinkles and folds
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
4.15
American Collage of Surgeons ACS Surgery Principles & Practice (CDI , II)
5.15
Anesthesia for the Cardiac Patient
6.15
7.15
8.15
Aspects of Electrosurgery (Dr. Anthony C. Easty, PhD PEng CCE) Department Medical Engineering
Atlas of RENAL TRANSPLANTATION (Prof. Legndre, Martin, Helenon, Lebranchu, Halloran, Nochy)
Basic Surgical Skills (David A. Sherris. M.D., Eugene B. Kern, M.D.) (Mayo Clinic)
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
9.15
Cholecystectomy by Laparoscopy (Department of Surgery Hospitalor Saint-Avold France) (VCD)
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
(Christopher A. Troianos)
10.15 Clinical Surgery (Second Edition) (Michael M. Henry, Jeremy N. Thompson)
12.3
2005
(Salekan E-Book)
Core Curriculum in Primary Care Gynecology (Michael, Isaac Schiff, Keith, Thomas, Annekathryn)
11.15 Core Curriculum in Primary Care Gynecology
‫ــــــ‬
(Michael, Isaac Schiff, Keith, Thomas, Annekathryn)
‫ــــــ‬
12.15 Core Curriculum in Primary Care Patient Evaluation for Non-Cardiac Surgery and Gynecology and Urology (Michael K. Rees, MD, MPH)
‫ــــ‬
.‫ ﺑﻨﺎ ﻧﻬﺎﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬Harvard ‫ﻫﺎﻳﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻣﺪﺍﻭﻡ ﺩﺳﺘﻴﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻭ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﻫﺮ ﺭﺷﺘﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺍﻋﻀﺎﺀ ﻫﻴﺌﺖ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﮕﺎﻩ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬CD ‫ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﻪﺍﻱ ﺍﺯ‬CCC
‫ ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺕ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺻـﻮﺭﺕ ﭼﻬﺎﺭﮔﺰﻳﻨـﻪﺍﻱ‬،‫ ﺩﺭ ﺁﺧﺮ ﻫﺮ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲ ﻭ ﻣﺒﺤﺜﻲ‬.‫ ﻫﺮ ﻛﺪﺍﻡ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲﻫﺎ ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻣﺘﻦ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺳﺘﺮﺱ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬.‫ ﺯﻧﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺍﻭﺭﻭﮊﻱ ﺭﺍ ﮔﺮﺩﺁﻭﺭﻱ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬،‫ ﺣﺎﺿﺮ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ‬CD
:‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬.‫ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺧﻼﺻﻪ ﻫﺮ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻳﻚ ﻣﻘﺎﻟﻪ ﭼﺎﭘﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺠﻼﺕ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺯﻧﺎﻣﻪﻫﺎ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
Male impotence
‫ ﻋﻘﻴﻤﻲ ﻣﺮﺩﺍﻥ‬-٣
.(AUB) ‫ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺧﻮﻧﺮﻳﺰﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺑﻨﺮﻣﺎﻝ ﺭﺣﻢ‬
-٢
‫ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﻪ ﻳﻚ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﻋﻤﺎﻝ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ )ﺑﺠﺰ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻗﻠﺐ( ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻭ ﺁﻣﺎﺩﻩ ﻛﻨﻴﻢ؟‬-١
.‫ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬text ‫ ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺕ ﺷﻨﻮﻧﺪﮔﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺟﻮﺍﺏ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻥ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ‬،‫ﺩﺭ ﺁﺧﺮ ﻫﺮ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲ‬
13.15 LAPAROTOMY (Royal Society of Medicine in association with Royal College of Surgeons of England) (VCD)
‫ــــ‬
14.15 Lipostructure (Sydncy Coleman, M.D.) (byron) (VCD)
‫ــــ‬
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
70
‫ــــ‬
15.15 LONG-TERM MECHANICAL VENTILATION (Nicholas S. Hill)
16.15 Lower Body Lift (Abdominoplasty) (Lockwood, M. d., Kansas Gity) (VCD) (CD I , II)
‫ــــ‬
17.15 MALAR AUGMINTATION (CLINICAL MIRASIERRA MADRID)
(Ulrich T. Hinderer Dr. Juan L. Del Rio) (VCD)
‫ــــ‬
18.15 Mammary augmention by High-Cohesive Silicon Gel Implant
(Igar Nicchajev, Goran Jurell)
‫ــــ‬
2005
19.15 Mastery of Endoscopic & Laparoscopic Surgery (Second Edition)
20.15 Nail Surgery
A text & Atlas (Edward A. Krull, Elvin G. Zook, Robert Earan, Eckart Haneke)
21.15 NMS Surgery Tutor
‫ــــــ‬
2000
(Dereck Mooney, T. Mack Brown, Cristian Jansenson, Denise Riedlinger)
22.15 Open Repair of Abdominal Wall Hernias Using Prosthetic materials (Arthur I. Gilbert, M.D.)
‫ــــ‬
-Small Bowel Obstrution Immediately Following Laparoscopic Herniorraphy (Karl A. Zucher, MD)
-VJGS Case Study: Laparoscopic Loop Ilestomy for Temporary Fecal Diversion (Steven D. Wexner, Petachia Reissman)
-VJGS Consultants Corner: Managed Care Update, Pt, III (Michael A. Wood)
23.15 Plug Repair for Inguinal Hernias
‫ــــ‬
1- First Case: Inguinal Hernia type "Direct"
25.6 Practical MINOR SURGERY
2- Second Case: Injuinal Hernia type "Indirect"
24.15 Principles of Surgery (Eight Edition) (Schwartz's)
Part1: Basic Considerations
‫ــــ‬
2005
(E-Book) (CD I , II)
Part II: Specific Considerations
25.15 SCHWARTZ'S PRINCIPLES OF SURGERY (8th Edition) (F. Charles Brunicardi, Dana K. Andersen, Timothy R. Billiar) (Salekan e-book) (CD I, II)
26.15 Single Puncture Laparoscopic Technique (Marco Pelosi, MD) (VCD)
‫ــــ‬
27.15 Submitted Subject: Transvaginal Sonographic Assessment of Pelvic Pathology: Preoperative Evaluation
28.15 Surgical Decision Marking
-Surgical Principles and Critical Care
(Frances R. Batzer, MD)
(Mcintyre, Stiegmann, Eiseman)
29.15 SURGERY (John D Corson, Robin CN Willimson)
-Trauma
-Vascular Surgery
-Brast and Endoceine Surgery
-Transplantation Surgery
30.15 Surgery of the Liver & Biliary Tract 3e: Selected Operative Procedures (L.H. BLUMGART, Y. FONG)
-Allied Surgical Specialties
(W.B. Saunders)
-Hepatic Procedures
-Biliary Procedures
-Special Procedures
The
Distal
Splenorenal
Shunt:
Effective
or
Obsolete?
(VIDEO JOURNAL OF GENERAL SURGERY) (Layton Fredrick Rikkers, M.D.) (VCD)
31.15
- Options for Treating Portal Hypertension
-HIPS Advantages
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
(Launching Slide Vision) (Mosby)
-Gastrointestinal surgery
2005
-Ideal Candidates for Distal Splenorenal Shunt
-HIPS Disadvantages
‫ــــ‬
2000
‫ــــ‬
-Components of Distal Splenorenal Shunt Procedure
-Distal Splenorenal Shunt Patency
32.15 The Ileana Pull-through Operative Prpcedure of Ulcerative Colitis: Eliminating the Permanent Ileostomy (Eric W. Fonkalseud, M.D.) (VCD)
‫ــــ‬
33.15 The Massachusetts General Hospital Handbook of Pain Management (Second Edition)
‫ــــ‬
- General Considerations
- Acute Pain
- Diagnosis of Pain
- Chronic Pain
- Therapeutic Options: Pharmacologic Approaches
- Pain Due to Cancer
(Jane Ballantyne, Scott M. Fishman, Salahadin Abdi) (SALEKAN-E-book)
- Therapeutic Options: Nonpharmacologic Approaches
- Special Situations
- Apendices
- Subject Index
34.15 TISSUE ADHESIVES In Wound Care (James V. Quinn, M.D., FACEP)
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
71
35.15 Tolaryngology Surgery for Fronatal Sinus Disease
36.15
Video Journal General Surgery
(Professor & Chairman, Bobby R. Alford, M.D.) (VCD)
‫ــــ‬
(VCD)
1. Reflux Disease and Nissen Fundoplication (Philip E. Donahue, MD)
2. Supraceliac Aortic-Celiac Axis-Superior Mesenteric Artery Bypass
37.15 Video Journal General Surgery
1.
2.
3.
4.
‫ــــ‬
(Gregorio, Leonardo, Brent, Charles)
‫ــــ‬
(VCD)
Open Repair of Abdominal Wall Hernias Using Prosthetic materials (Arthur I. Gilbert, M.D.)
Small Bowel Obstrution Immediately Following Lapatoscopic Herniorraphy (Karl A. Zucker, MD)
Laparoscopic Loop Ileostomy For Temporary Fecal Diversion (Steven D. Wxner, MD, Petachia Reissman, MD)
Consultants Corner: Managed Care Update, Pt, III (Michael A. Wood)
‫ﺟـﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﭘﻼﺳـــﺘﻴﻚ‬
38.15 Aesthetic Plastic Surgery
‫ــــ‬
(Thomas D. Rees)
39.15 Atlas of Liposuction (Tolbert s. Wilkinson, MD)
40.15 Breast-Augmentation with NovagoldTM
2005
‫ــــ‬
(Salekan E-Book)
The PVP-Hydrogel Filled Implant
2004
42.15
‫ــــــ‬
43.15
44.15
45.15
46.15
47.15
48.15
49.15
50.15
51.15
52.15
COMPREHENSIVE FACIAL REJUVENATION
(A practical and systematic guide to surgical
management of the aging face)
41.15 Case Presentations In Plastic Surgery (Christopher Stone, Consultant Plastic Surgeon)
VCD 1: Rhinophyma (9:52) - Alloderm Lip Augmentation (14:04) - Collagen Injection Sequence
VCD 2: Full-Face Jessner’s/35% Trichloroacetic Acid Pell (31:21)
‫ــــ‬
VCD 3: Combined Resurfacing Technique for Aone Scarring (10:18)
Botox Reconstitution and Injection Sequence (20:53) - Carbon Dioxide Laser Resurfacing (8:10)
‫ــــ‬
2000
‫ــــ‬
VCD 4: Postoperative Care of the Chemical Peel Patient (31:21)
VCD 5: Transconjunctival Lower-Lid Blepharoplasty (9:05)
Skin-Muscle Flap Lower-Lid Blepharoplasty with Midface Extension (16:20)
VCD 6: Follicular Transfer Hair Transplantation Session (30:20)
‫ــــ‬
VCD 7: Upper-Lid Blepharoplasty (11:25) - Chin Augmentation with Gore-Tex Alloplast (13:21)
‫ــــ‬
VCD 8: Minimal Incision Brow and Midface Lift (31:02)
‫ــــ‬
VCD 9: Primary Facelift (37:17)
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
VCD 10: Secondary Facelift with Gore-Tex Sling (30:21)
‫ــــ‬
VCD 11: Scalp Reduction Sessions (31:47)
53.15 Facial Rejuvenation Greams, Toxins, Lasers & Surgery (Thomas C Spoor MD, Ronald L Moy MD)
‫ـــــ‬
54.15 FACIAL SURGERY Plastic and Reconstructive
‫ــــ‬
55.15 Fundamental Techniques of Plastic Surgery and their Surgical Applications
(10th Edition) (Alan D McGrergo, Ian A. McGregor)
2000
56.15 Plastic and Reconstructive Breast Surgery (Second Edition) (Volume 1 , 2)
‫ـــــ‬
57.15 Plastic Surgery (Indications, Operations & Outcomes) (Volume five)
‫ــــــ‬
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
(Bahman Gayuran, MD FACS)
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
‫‪72‬‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫)‪58.15 Structural Fat Grafting (Sydney R. Caleman) (E-book & Film‬‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫‪59.15 Techniques of Cosmetic Eyelid Surgery‬‬
‫)‪A Case Study Approach (Joseph A. Mauriello, Jr‬‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫)‪(Salekan E-Book‬‬
‫)‪60.15 Tissue Glues in Cosmetic Surgery (RENATO SALTZ, M.D., DEAN M. TORIUMI, M.D.‬‬
‫‪61.15 Transaxillary Augmentation‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪ -١٦‬ﺩﻧﺪﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ‪CD‬‬
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
‫‪Burkect's Oral Medicine Diagnosis and Treatment‬‬
‫‪1.16‬‬
‫‪Caratera's Clinical PERIODONTOLOGY 9th Edition‬‬
‫– ﻧﺤﻮﻩ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻟﺜﻪ ﻭ ‪PDL‬‬
‫‪2.16‬‬
‫)‪COLOR ATLAS OF Dental Medicine Aesthetic Dentistry (Josef Schnidsedes‬‬
‫‪3.16‬‬
‫‪Color Atlas of Endodontics‬‬
‫‪4.16‬‬
‫‪Contemporary Orthodontics PROFFIT‬‬
‫‪ -‬ﻣﻜﺎﻧﻴﺴﻢﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻮﻣﻜﺎﻧﻴﺴﻢﻫﺎ ‪ -‬ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ‪ TMJ‬ﻭ ‪..‬‬
‫‪5.16‬‬
‫‪Craniofacial Development‬‬
‫‪6.16‬‬
‫‪Critical Decisious in Periodoutology‬‬
‫‪7.16‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪Dental Assisting‬‬
‫ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﻱ ‪ -‬ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﻨﺘﺮﻝ ﻋﻔﻮﻧﺖ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻄﺐ ‪ -‬ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﻓﻠﻮﺭﺍﻳﺪﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ ‪ -‬ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﻪ ﻭ ‪ Position‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﻭ ﺩﻧﺪﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻚ ‪ -‬ﺭﻭﺵ ﺻﺤﻴﺢ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ‪) Instroment‬ﻗﻠﻢﻫﺎ( ‪ -‬ﺭﻭﺵ ﻧﺼﺐ ﺭﺍﺑﺮﺩﻡ ﻭ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺻﺤﻴﺢ ﺍﺯ ﺁﻥ‬‫ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺻﺤﻴﺢ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻦ ﻭ ﻧﺤﻮﻩ ﻇﻬﻮﺭ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﻭ ﻛﻨﺘﺮﻝ ﻋﻔﻮﻧﺖ ﺗﺎﺭﻳﻜﺨﺎﻧﻪ ‪ -‬ﭘﺮﻳﻮﺩﻭﻧﺘﺎﻝ ‪ Dessing‬ﻭ ﻧﺤﻮﻩ ﺑﺮﺩﺍﺷﺘﻦ ﺁﻥ‬‫‪Dental Implant System‬‬
‫‪ -‬ﺍﻳﻨﺘﺮﻭﻣﻨﺖ ‪ -‬ﺁﻧﺎﻟﻴﺰ ﻭ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺭﻭﺵ ﻛﺎﺭ ‪ -‬ﺍﻋﻤﺎﻝ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ‪ -‬ﺗﺮﻣﻴﻢ ﻭ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ‬
‫‪8.16‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪Dental Implant System Fixed Implant Restorations (ITI Dental Implant System) (VCD‬‬
‫‪10.16‬‬
‫‪Endodontics‬‬
‫‪11.16‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪Endodontics 5th Edition (John I. Ingle, DDS, MSD, Leif K. Bakland, DDS‬‬
‫‪12.16‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪ESSENTIAL OF ORAL MEDICINE (Silverman, Roy Eversole, Truelove‬‬
‫ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺩﻫﺎﻥ ﺳﺮ ﻭ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ‪Case‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻭ ﭘﺮﺳﺶ ﻭ ﭘﺎﺳﺦ‬‫ ﻧﻜﺎﺕ ﺿﺮﻭﺭﻱ ﻓﺎﺭﻣﺎﻛﻮﻣﻮﺭﻋﻲ‬‫ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻤﻴﻚ ﻭ ﺗﻈﺎﻫﺮﺍﺕ ﺩﻫﺎﻧﻲ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ‬
‫)‪ESTHETIC DENTISTRY 2th Edition (Dennet W. Aschheim, Barry G. Dale‬‬
‫ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﻭ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ‪-١ :‬ﺗﺮﻣﻴﻢﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﺎﻣﭙﺎﺯﻳﺖ ‪ -٢‬ﺳﺮﺍﻣﻴﻚ‪ -‬ﻣﺘﺎﻝ ‪ -٣‬ﭼﻴﻨﻲ ﻓﻮﻝﻛﺮﺍﻭﻥ ‪ -٤‬ﻭﻳﻨﻴﺮ )‪ -٥ (PFM‬ﺭﺯﻳﻨﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﭼﺴﺒﻨﺪﻩ ‪ -٦‬ﺑﻠﻴﭽﻴﻨﮓ )ﺳﻔﻴﺪﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﺩﻧﺪﺍﻥﻫﺎ( ‪ -٧‬ﺍﻳﻤﭙﻠﻨﺖ ﻭ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺩﻫﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ‬
‫‪13.16‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪Esthetic Implant Dentistry (Daniel Buser, Hans Peter Hirt) (VCD‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ‪Mange‬ﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ‬‫‪ Textbook -‬ﺩﻧﺪﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﻭ ﭘﺮﻳﻮﺩﻭﻧﺘﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬
‫‪-‬ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺗﻤﭙﻮﺭﻭﻣﻨﺪﻣﺒﻮﻻﺭ ﻭ ‪ Manage‬ﺁﻧﻬﺎ‬
‫‪ -‬ﻣﻼﺣﻈﺎﺕ ﺩﻧﺪﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﺕ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻤﻴﻚ‬
‫‪ -‬ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﻟﺜﻪ ﻧﺮﻣﺎ ‪ -‬ﻃﺒﻘﻪﺑﻨﺪﻱ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﻟﺜﻪ ﻭ ‪ PPL‬ﻭ ‪...‬‬
‫ﺍﻃﻠﺲ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﻧﺪﺍﻧﻲ‪ -‬ﺩﻧﺪﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺯﻳﺒﺎﻳﻲ‪ -‬ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﻣﺘﺎﻝ ﻛﺮﺍﻭﻧﻬﺎ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﺮﺍﻭﻥﻛﺮﺩﻥ‪ -‬ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﺳﺮﺍﻣﻴﻚ ﻛﺮﺍﻭﻥﻫﺎ‪ -‬ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﻗﺒﻞ ﺍﺯ ﺗﺮﻣﻴﻢ‪ -‬ﻛﺎﻣﭙﺎﺯﻳﺖ ﺍﻓﻴﻠﻪ )ﻣﺰﺍﻳﺎ ﻭ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﺐ(‪ – (PFM) -‬ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﻭﻧﻴﺮﻭ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﻭﻧﻴﺮﻛﺮﺍﻭﻥ‬
‫ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ‪ -‬ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ‪ - Acsess‬ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﺯﻩﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﻃﻮﻝ ﻛﺎﻧﺎﻝ ﺭﻳﺸﻪ‬‫‪ -‬ﺍﺭﺗﻮﺩﻭﻧﺴﻲ ﻧﻮﻳﻦ ‪ Textbook -‬ﺍﺭﺗﻮﺩﻭﻧﺴﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺩﻧﺪﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ ‪ -‬ﻣﺸﻜﻼﺕ ﺍﺭﺗﻮﺩﻭﻧﺴﻲ‬
‫)‪(William T. Johnson DDS.MS‬‬
‫ ﺁﻣﺎﺩﻩﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﻛﺎﻧﺎﻝ ﻭ ‪ – ...‬ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻣﺠﺪﺩ )‪(Retreatment‬‬‫‪ -‬ﻧﺤﻮﻩ ﺗﻜﺎﻣﻞ ﺍﻳﺮﺍﺩﺍﺕ ﺍﺭﺗﻮﺩﻭﻧﺴﻲ ‪ -‬ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﻃﺮﺡ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﺳﻴﻨﻮﺱﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﺎﺭﺍﻧﺎﺯﺍﻝ ‪ -‬ﻣﻨﺪﻳﺒﻮﻝ ﻭ ‪...‬‬‫ــــ‬
‫‪ -‬ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﺮﻳﻮﺩﻭﻧﺘﺎﻝ ‪ -‬ﺳﺎﺑﻘﻪ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ‪ -‬ﻧﺤﻮﻩ ﺷﻨﺎﺳﺎﻳﻲ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪ -‬ﻃﺮﺡ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻧﻴﺎﺯ‬
‫)‪(Walte R.B.HALL‬‬
‫‪ -‬ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻧﻴﺎﺯ ﺩﺭ ﭘﺮﻳﻮﺩﻭﻧﺘﻴﻜﺲ ﻭ ﺯﻳﺒﺎﻳﻲ‬
‫‪ -‬ﺍﻳﻨﺘﺪﻭﻣﻨﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺪﻳﺪ – ‪ Shaping - Cleaning‬ﻭ ﺁﺩﺍﭘﺘﻪﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﺭﻭﺕﻛﺎﻧﺎﻝ ﻭ ‪...‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫‪9.16‬‬
‫‪14.16‬‬
‫‪15.16‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
‫‪73‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪ -١‬ﺟﺎﻳﮕﺰﻳﻨﻲ ﺗﻚﺩﻧﺪﺍﻧﻲ ﺑﺎ ﺍﻳﻤﭙﻠﻨﺖ ‪ITI‬‬
‫)‪ESTHETIC IMPLANT DENTISTRY (Daniel A. Bases, Urs.E.Belses‬‬
‫‪ -٢‬ﺍﻳﻤﭙﻠﻨﺖ ﺩﻧﺪﺍﻧﻲ ﺗﻴﺘﺎﻧﻴﻮﻡ ﺑﺎ ﭘﻮﺷﺶ ‪TPS‬‬
‫‪16.16‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺕ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﻭ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺟﺎﻳﮕﺬﺍﺭﻱ ﺍﻳﻤﭙﻠﻨﺖ – ﻣﺰﺍﻳﺎ ﻭ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﺐ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﺍﻳﻤﭙﻠﻨﺖﻫﺎ‪ -‬ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺑﺎﻓﺖ ﻧﺮﻡ ﻗﺒﻞ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺍﻳﻤﭙﻠﻨﺖ ﻭ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺩﺭﺻﺪ ﻣﻮﻓﻘﻴﺖ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫)‪Esthetic in Dentistry (Vol 1- Vol 2‬‬
‫‪17.16‬‬
‫)‪ESTHETICS IN DENTISTRY (Second Edition‬‬
‫‪18.16‬‬
‫‪Glossary of Orthodontic Terms‬‬
‫‪19.16‬‬
‫)‪Guide to Physical Examination (Mosby‬‬
‫‪20.16‬‬
‫‪Implant Medpor Mandibular A method to Restore Skeletal Support to the Lower Face‬‬
‫‪21.16‬‬
‫‪ITI Dental Implant‬‬
‫‪22.16‬‬
‫)‪ITI TE Solution ITI TE Implant (DENTAL IMPLANT SYSTEM) (Daniel Buser) (Disk 1-3‬‬
‫‪23.16‬‬
‫‪Journal of Esthetic & Restorative Dentistry‬‬
‫‪ -٦‬ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎ ‪ -٧‬ﺍﻧﺪﻳﻜﺎﺳﻴﻮﻥﻫﺎ ‪ -٨‬ﺑﻠﻴﭽﻴﻨﮓ‬
‫‪24.16‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪ -‬ﻣﺎﻝ ﺍﻛﻠﻮﮊﻱ‬
‫ ﻣﺸﻜﻼﺕ ﺯﻳﺒﺎﻳﻲ ﺗﻚﺩﻧﺪﺍﻧﻲ ‪ -‬ﺍﺯ ﺩﺳﺖﺩﺍﺩﻥ ﺩﻧﺪﺍﻥ‬‫ــــ‬
‫‪PRINCIPLES COMMUNICATIONS TREATMENT METHODS‬‬
‫)‪(John Daskalogiannakis‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺑﻬﺪﺍﺷﺖ ﺩﻫﺎﻧﻲ ﻭ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﭼﻨﺪﻳﻦ ‪ Case‬ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﻋﻜﺲﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﻫﺎﻧﻲ ﺭﺍ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‪.‬‬
‫)‪(Oscar M. Ramirez M.D., F.A.C.S.) (POREX) (VCD‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪(CD I , II , III‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪ -‬ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﺁﻣﺎﺩﻩﺳﺎﺯﻱ‬
‫‪ -‬ﻭﺳﺎﻳﻞ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻧﻴﺎﺯ‬
‫‪ -‬ﻧﺤﻮﻩ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻟﺜﻪ ﻭ ﻓﻚ ﻭ ﺁﻣﺎﺩﻩﺳﺎﺯﻱ ﻣﺤﻞ‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪ -١‬ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﺗﺮﻳﺲﻫﺎ ‪ -٢‬ﮊﻭﺭﻧﺎﻝ ﺩﻧﺪﺍﻧﭙﺰﺷﻜﻲ ﺗﺮﻣﻴﻤﻲ ﻭ ﺯﻳﺒﺎﻳﻲ‬
‫‪ -٩‬ﻋﻜﺲﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﺗﺮﻣﻴﻢ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺕ‬
‫‪ -٣‬ﺳﺮﺍﻣﻴﻚ ﺍﻳﻨﻠﻪ ﻭ ﺍﻧﻠﻪ ‪ -٤‬ﻛﺎﻣﭙﺎﺯﻳﺖ ﺭﺯﻳﻦ ‪ -٥‬ﻛﺎﻣﭙﺎﺯﻳﺖ ﺭﺯﻳﻦ ‪Packable‬‬
‫‪Post -١٠‬‬
‫‪ Crown -١١‬ﺗﻤﺎﻡ ﺳﺮﺍﻣﻴﻚ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪ -‬ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺗﺰﺭﻳﻖ ﺑﺎ ﺍﻫﺪﺍﻑ ﻣﺘﻔﺎﻭﺕ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺑﻲﺣﺴﻲ ﻧﻮﺍﺣﻲ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺩﻧﺪﺍﻥﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻟﺜﻪ ﻭ ﺑﺎﻓﺖ ﻧﺮﻡ‬
‫)‪LINGUAL ORTHODONTICS (Rafi Romano) (TO EXPLORE THE CD-ROM‬‬
‫‪25.16‬‬
‫)‪Local Anesthesia in Dentistry (VCD‬‬
‫‪ -‬ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺻﺤﻴﺢ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮﻱ ﮔﻮﻳﺎ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻋﻤﻠﻲ ‪ -‬ﺧﻄﺮﺍﺕ ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩ ﻭ ﺍﻳﺮﺍﺩﺍﺕ‬
‫‪26.16‬‬
‫)‪Local Anesthesia in Dentistry (Dr. Markus D. W. Lipp Wolfgang Kelm) (VCD‬‬
‫‪27.16‬‬
‫‪My Orthodontics‬‬
‫‪28.16‬‬
‫)‪Oral & Management Surgery Trauma (Raymond J. Fonseca, Robert, Barry H. Hendler‬‬
‫‪29.16‬‬
‫‪Oral Disease Diagnosis & Treatment‬‬
‫‪30.16‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪-‬ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﻪ ‪ -‬ﻗﺒﻞ ﺍﺯ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ‪ ،‬ﻃﻲ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ‪ ،‬ﺑﻌﺪ ﺍﺯ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ‬
‫‪ -‬ﻧﺘﺎﻳﺞ ﺣﺎﺻﻠﻪ ﺍﺯ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ‪ ،‬ﻣﺮﺍﻗﺒﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺣﻴﻦ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ‪ -‬ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﻟﻴﻨﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺘﻌﺪﺩ ﻭ ﺁﺩﺭﺱﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺎﻟﺐ ﺳﺎﻳﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺭﺗﻮﺩﻭﻧﺴﻲ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﺩﻫﺎﻥ ‪ -‬ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﺳﻔﻴﺪ ﺁﺑﻲ ﻗﺮﻣﺰ‬‫ــــ‬
‫‪ -‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻭﺯﻳﻜﻮﻟﻮﺑﻮﻟﻮﺯ‬
‫‪ -‬ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺑﻴﺶ ﺍﺯ ‪ Case ٥٠‬ﻣﺘﻔﺎﻭﺕ ‪ -‬ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺁﺯﻣﻮﻥ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﺟﻮﺍﺏ ﺻﺤﻴﺢ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪ -‬ﺷﺮﺍﻳﻂ ﺯﺧﻢﻫﺎ‬
‫‪ -‬ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺭﻧﮕﺪﺍﻧﻪﺍﻱ‬
‫‪ -‬ﺿﺎﻳﻌﺎﺕ ﺑﺎﻓﺖ ﻫﻤﺒﻨﺪ‬
‫ ﻛﻴﺴﺖﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺗﻮﻣﻮﺭﻫﺎ‬‫‪Oral Pathology 4th edition‬‬
‫‪31.16‬‬
‫)‪Orthodontics Current Principles and Techniques (Third Edition‬‬
‫‪32.16‬‬
‫‪Orthodontics & Paediatric Dentistry‬‬
‫‪33.16‬‬
‫‪Orthodontics Priociples & Techniques 3th Edition‬‬
‫‪34.16‬‬
‫)‪Pathways of the PMP (8th Edition‬‬
‫‪35.16‬‬
‫‪ -‬ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌﺔ ﺟﺰﺋﻴﺎﺕ ﻭ ﻣﻼﺣﻈﺎﺕ ﻭ ﻣﺸﺨﺼﺎﺕ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ‬
‫)‪(Thomas M. Graber, Robert L. Vanaradall, Jr.‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪ -‬ﻣﺎﻝ ﺍﻛﻠﻮﮊﻥ ‪Mixed dentition-‬‬
‫‪ -‬ﻣﺎﻝ ﺍﻛﻠﻮﮊﻥ ﻭ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ‪TMJ‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪ -‬ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﻃﺮﺡ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺭﺗﻮﺩﻭﻧﺴﻲ ﻭ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ‬
‫‪ -‬ﻭﺍﻛﻨﺶﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺎﻓﺖﻫﺎ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺍﺳﺘﺨﻮﺍﻥ ‪ -‬ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ‪ TMJ‬ﻭ ﺑﻴﻮﻣﻜﺎﻧﻴﺴﻢﻫﺎ‬‫‪Part III: Related Clinical Topics‬‬
‫‪Part II: The Science of Endodoutics‬‬
‫)‪(James J. Sciubba, DMD, PhD, Joseph A. Regezi, DDS, MS , Roy S. Rogers III, MD‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫‪Part I: The Art of Endodoutics‬‬
‫‪36.16 PDQ ORAL DISEASE Diagnosis and Treatment‬‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
74
37.16
PERIODONTAL MEDICINE (L.F. Rose, R.J.Genco, B.L. Mealey, D.W. Cohen)
38.16
Periodontal Surgery
39.16
Periodontal Surgery Clinical Atlas
40.16
Removal Orthodontics Apliances
41.16
Saunders Dental Assisting (Multimedia Resource) (Second Edition) (Doni L. Bird , Debbie S. Robinson)
42.16
Strauman Dental Implant System (VCD)
43.16
The Center of Education, Teaching and Research for Oral Implant Reconstruction (Prof. Dr. Hns L. Grafelmann) (CD I , II)
- Vertical Load
-Pitt-Easy BIO OSS
-Phase TPS Cylinder Implant
‫ــــ‬
44.16
The Entegra Dental Implant System Entegra Surgical Videos (Robert Schroering)
‫ــــ‬
45.16
The IMZ Implant System (VCD) (Dr. Karl-Ludwing Ackermann, Dr. Axel Kirsch)
‫ــــ‬
46.16
Toothcolored Restoratives
2000
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺑﻬﺪﺍﺷﺖ ﭘﺲ ﺍﺯ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ‬- ‫ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﺮﻳﻮﺩﻭﻧﺸﻴﻢ‬- ‫ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺗﺤﻠﻴﻞ ﻟﺜﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﺮﻳﻮﺩﻭﻧﺘﺎﻝ ﻛﻮﺭﺗﺎﮊ‬- ‫ ﺣﺬﻑ ﭘﺎﻛﺖ ﭘﺮﻳﻮﺩﻭﻧﺘﺎﻝ‬- ‫ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﭘﺮﻳﻮﺩﻭﻧﺘﺎﻝ‬‫ــــ‬
.‫ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﻻﺑﺮﺍﺗﻮﺍﺭﻱ ﻭ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺕ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﻭ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﺍﺯ ﺗﻤﺎﻡ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ‬III ‫ ﻭ‬II ‫ ﻭ‬I ‫ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺍﻋﻢ ﺍﺯ ﻛﻼﺱ‬Case ‫ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺩﻫﻬﺎ‬
2003
‫ ﺍﻳﻤﭙﻠﻨﺖ ﭼﻨﺪ ﺩﻧﺪﺍﻧﻲ ﻣﺎﮔﺰﻳﻠﺪ‬- ‫ ﭘﻴﻦﮔﺬﺍﺭﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺳﺘﺨﻮﺍﻥ ﺍﻟﻮﺋﻞ‬- ‫ ﻧﺤﻮﻩ ﺁﻣﺎﺩﻩﺳﺎﺯﻱ ﻧﺴﺞ ﻧﺮﻡ ﻭ ﺳﺨﺖ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﺳﺘﻘﺮﺍﺭ ﺍﻳﻤﭙﻠﻨﺖ‬-
(CD I , II)
47.16
‫ ﻭ ﺩﻧﺪﺍﻥ ﻧﻴﺎﺯﻣﻨﺪ ﺑﻪ ﺗﺮﻣﻴﻢ‬Case ‫ ﻧﺤﻮﻩ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ‬- ‫ ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﻭ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎ‬TOOTH-COLORED RESTORATIVES Ninth Edition (Principles and Techniques) (Harry F. Albers, DDS)
48.16
Treatment Planning in Dentistry
49.16
Treatment Planning in Dentistry (Stephen Stefanac, D.D.S., M.S.Sam Nesbit, D.D.S., M.S.)
50.16
UCD Implant
‫ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﺁﺯﻣﻮﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺎﻟﺐ ﻭ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ‬-
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻣﻮﺍﺩ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺩﺭ ﺗﺮﻣﻴﻢ ﻫﻤﺮﻧﮓ ﻣﺰﺍﻳﺎ ﻭ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﺐ‬-
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
2002
‫ﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﭘﺮﻭﻧﺪﻩﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ‬Case ‫ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ‬-
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
... ‫ ﻧﺤﻮﻩ ﺟﺎﻳﮕﺬﺍﺭﻱ ﭘﻴﻦﻫﺎ ﻭ‬- ‫ ﺁﻣﺎﺩﻩﺳﺎﺯﻱ ﻧﺴﺞ ﻧﺮﻡ ﻭ ﻧﺤﻮﻩ ﺍﻳﺠﺎﺩ ﻓﻠﭗ ﻭ ﻧﺤﻮﻩ ﺁﻣﺎﺩﻩﺳﺎﺯﻱ ﻧﺴﺞ ﺍﺳﺘﺨﻮﺍﻥ‬- ‫ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﻲﺣﺴﻲ‬-
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬:١٧
CD ‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ‬
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
1.17 ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY (5 Edition)
th
(Gary A. Thibodeau, Kevin T. Patton)
2.17 BODY WORKS 6.0 A 3D Journey Through The Human Anatomy
3.17 Interactive Physilogy MUSCULAR SYSTEM (A. D. A. M. Benjamin/Cummings) (Marvin J. Branstrom, Ph.D.)
-Anatomy Review: Skeletal Muscle Tissue
-The Neuromuscular Junction
-Sliding Filament Theory
-Muscle Metabolism
-Contraction of Motor Units
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
-Contraction of Whole Musle
4.17 InterActive PHYSIOLOGY Cardiovascular System
5.17
‫ــــ‬
The Heart
Blood Vessels
Anatomy Review: The Heart Intrinsic Conduction System
Cardiac Action Potential
Cardiac Cycle
Cardiac Output
Anatomy Review: Blood
Vessel Structure and Function
Measuring Blood Pressure
Factors that Affect Blood Pressure
Interactive PHYSIOLOGY for Windows Urinary System
Blood Pressure Regulation
Autoregulation and Capillary Dynamics
‫ــــ‬
Version 1.0
‫ﺏ( ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﺧﻮﻧﻲ‬
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
‫ ﺍﻟﻒ( ﻗﻠﺐ‬.‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﺩﻭ ﻣﺒﺤﺚ ﻣﺠﺰﺍ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻭ ﺍﻫﺪﺍﻑ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍﻱ ﻫﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
75
‫ ﺧـﻮﺩﺗﻨﻈﻴﻤﻲ ﻭ ﺩﻳﻨﺎﻣﻴـﻚ‬،‫ ﺗﻨﻈـﻴﻢ ﻓﺸـﺎﺭ ﺧـﻮﻥ‬،‫ ﻓﺎﻛﺘﻮﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﻣـﺆﺛﺮ ﺑـﺮﺭﻭﻱ ﻓﺸـﺎﺭ ﺧـﻮﻥ‬،‫ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﺯﻩﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﻓﺸﺎﺭ ﺧﻮﻥ‬،‫ ﺳﺎﺧﺘﺎﺭ ﻭ ﻋﻤﻠﻜﺮﺩ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﺧﻮﻧﻲ‬:‫ ﺏ( ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﺧﻮﻧﻲ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ‬.‫ ﭼﺮﺧﺔ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ ﻭ ﺑﺮﻭﻥﺩﻩ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ‬،‫ ﭘﺘﺎﻧﺴﻴﻞ ﻋﻤﻞ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ‬،‫ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻢ ﻫﺪﺍﻳﺘﻲ ﻗﻠﺐ‬،‫ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻗﻠﺐ‬:‫ﺍﻟﻒ( ﻗﻠﺐ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ‬
.‫ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﻳﻚ ﻓﻬﺮﺳﺘﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺍﺻﻄﻼﺣﺎﺕ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﻫﺮ ﻭﺍﮊﻩ ﺭﺍ ﻣﺨﺘﺼﺮﹰﺍ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‬CD ‫ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺭﺋﻮﺱ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﮔﻮﻳﻨﺪﻩ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻴﺎﻥ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﺪ‬.‫ﻣﻮﻳﺮﮒﻫﺎ‬
.‫ ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺕ ﭼﻨﺪ ﮔﺰﻳﻨﻪﺍﻱ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﭘﺎﺳﺦﻫﺎﻱ ﻧﺎﺻﺤﻴﺢ ﺑﺎ ﺭﻧﮓ ﻗﺮﻣﺰ ﻣﺸﺨﺺ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﻧﺪ‬،‫( ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﻳﻚ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻓﻮﻕ‬Quiz) ‫ﺩﺭ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺍﻣﺘﺤﺎﻥ‬
Interactive Physiology RESPIRATORY SYSTEM (A. D. A. M. Benjamin/Cummings) (Andrea K. Salmi)
-Anatomy Reviw: Respiratory Structures
-Pulmonary Ventilation
-Gas Exchange
-Gas Transport
7.17 MedWorks Anatomy & Physilogy
6.17
Anatomy Y Physiology:
Overview
The Endocrine System
The Sensory Organs
-Control of Respiration
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
Cells and Tissues
The Integumentary System
Body Chemistry
The Skeletal System
The Muscula System
Cardiovascular System: The
Blood
Somatic and Autonomic
Systems
Cardiovascular System, The
Heart
The Peripheral Nervous
Systems
Lymphatic and Immune
System
The Respiratory System The Digestive System
Inheritance
The central Nervous
System
The Nervous System
Organization
The Urinary System
The Reproductive
System
.‫ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﻛﻨﻴﺪ‬Medwork ‫ ﺭﺍ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺴﻴﺮ ﺩﺍﻳﺮﻛﺘﻮﺭﻱ‬Setup.exe ‫ ﻓﺎﻳﻞ‬،‫ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ‬
Panorama of Anatomy & Physiology Structure & Function of the Body (Eleven Edition) (Gary A. Thibodeau, Kevin T. Patton)
(Thime)
9.17 Range of Motion-AO Neutral-0 Method Measurement and Documentation
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
8.17
10.17 The Interactive Skeleton Tutorial
1. Head
2. Spine
(Dr. peter Abrahams of cambridger University, UK.)
3. Ribs
4. Upper Limb
‫ــــــ‬
5. Lower Limb
11.17 World of SPORT examined
12.17 Interactive Guide to Human Neuroanatomy
Atlas: -Surface Anatomy of Brain
Exam:I -Surface Anatomy of the Brain
‫ــــ‬
2002
(Mark F. Bear, Barry W. Connors, Michael A. Paradiso)
-Cross-Sectional Anatomy of Brain
-Cross-Sectional Anatomy of the Brain
-The Spinal Cord -The Anatomy Nervous System
-Comprehensive Exam
-The Cranial Nerves -The Blood Supply to the Brain
2002
13.17 Sobotta (Atlas of Human Anatomy) (Urban & Schwarzenbery)
1. General Anatomy
2. Head and neck
3. Upper Limb
4. Brain and Spine Cord
Past (‫ ﺍﺟـﺮﺍ ﺷـﺪﻩ‬Setup ‫ )ﻫﻤﺎﻥ ﻣﺴﻴﺮﻱ ﻛـﻪ‬C:\Urban ‫ ﺭﺍ ﻛﭙﻲ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺩﺭ‬Sobotta 1.5Crack
5. Eye
6. Ear
7. Thoracic and Abdominal Wall
8. Thoracic Oegans
9. Lower Limb
‫ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ‬Crack ‫ ﻭﺍﺭﺩ ﺩﺍﻳﺮﻛﺘﻮﺭﻱ‬،‫ ﭘﺲ ﺍﺯ ﺍﺗﻤﺎﻡ‬.‫ ﺁﺑﻲﺭﻧﮓ ﺭﺍ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﻣﻲﻛﻨﻴﻢ‬Setup ، English ‫ ﺟﻬﺖ ﻧﺼﺐ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﺍﺯ ﺩﺍﻳﺮﻛﺘﻮﺭﻱ‬:‫( ﻃﺮﻳﻘﺔ ﻧﺼﺐ‬
.‫ ﺣﺎﻝ ﻧﺮﻡﺍﻓﺰﺍﺭ ﻓﻮﻕ ﻗﺎﺑﻞ ﺧﻮﺍﻧﺪﻥ ﻭ ﺍﺟﺮﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ﻣﻲﻛﻨﻴﻢ‬
14.17 Student Companion CD-ROM for Principles of Anatomy & Physiology (Tenth Edition) (John Willey & Sons, INC.)
15.17
Gray's Anatomy The Anatomical Basis of Clinical Practice (Thirty-Ninth Edition) (Susan Standring) (CD I , II) (Salekan E-Book)
2003
2005
‫ ﭘﺮﺳﺘﺎﺭﻱ‬:١٨
CD ‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ‬
1.18
2.18
3.18
4.18
5.18
6.18
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
The Oncology Nursing Society presents THE ADVANCED PRACTICE ONCOLOGY NURSING REVIEW
Textbook of MEDICAL SURGUCAL NURSING (Ninth Edition) (Katherine H. Dimmock) Student Self Study Disk to Accompany BRUNNER & SUDDARTH'S
Focus on Nursing Pharmacology (Lippincott Williams & Wilkins)
Wongs ESSENTIALS OF Pediatric Nursing (Mosby) A Harcoun Health Sciences Company
Maternal, Neonatal and Women's Health Nursing
By Delmar, a division of Thomson Learning
Nursing Care of Infants and Children (Seven Edition)
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
2000
2001
2002
2003
:‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻋﻨﺎﻭﻳﻦ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
76
- Childre, Their Families, and the Nurse
- Assessment of the Child and Family
- Family-Centered Care of the Newborn
- Family-Centered Care of the Infant
- Family-Centered Care of the Young Child - Family-Centered Care of the School-Age Child
- Family-Centered Care of the Adolescent
- Family-Centered Care of the Child with Special Needs
- The Child who is Hospitalized
- The Child with Problems Related to Transfer of Oxygen and Nutrients
- The Child with Disturbance of Fluid and Electrolytes
- The Child with Problems Related to Production & Circulation of Blood
- The Child with Disturbance of Regulatory Mechanisms
- The Child With a Problem that Interfers with Physical Mobility
McMinn's Interactive Clinical Anatomy
8.18 INRERACTIVE ATLAS OF CLINICAL ANATOMY (Illustrations by Frank H. Netter, M.D.)
7.18
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ‬-١٩
CD ‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ‬
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
1.19 A Manual of ACUPUNCTURE (Peter Deadman & Mazin Al-Khafaji with Kevin baker)
2.19 BACK STABILITY
Christopher M. Norris, MSc, MCSP, Director, Norris Associates, Manchester, UK)
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
(Salekan E-Book)
3.19 Chiropractic Pediatrics A Clinical Handbook (Neil J. Davies, Jennifer R. Jamison)
4.19 Chiropractic Peripheral Joint Technique
5.19
6.19
7.19
8.19
9.19
(Raymond T. Broome)
Chronic Pain Management for Physical Therapists (Second Edition) (Harriet Wittink, Theresa Hoskins Michel)
Clinical Tests for the Musculoskeletal System (Klaus Buckup, KlinikumDortmund Orthopaedic Hospital Dortmund Germany) (Salekan E-Book)
Daniels and Worthingham's MUSCLE TESTING Techniques of Manual Examination
DIET & FITNESS
DIGITAL SHIATSU
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
2004
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
:‫ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﻣﻲ ﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‬٦ ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ‬
‫ ﺭﺍﻫﻨﻤﺎ‬-
‫ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﻭ ﻣﺒﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﺎﺳﺎﮊ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ‬-
‫ ﺟﺴﺘﺠﻮ‬-
(therapies) ‫ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩ ﻣﺎﺳﺎﮊ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ‬-
(self- shiatsu) ‫ ﺧﻮﺩ ﻣﺎﺳﺎﮊ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ‬-
(total body) ‫ ﻣﺎﺳﺎﮊ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺗﻤﺎﻣﻲ ﺑﺪﻥ‬-
.‫ ﺩﺭ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻃﺮﺡﻭﺍﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﻧﻘﺎﻁ ﺣﺴﺎﺱ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺎﺳﺎﮊ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺗﻮﺟﻪ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﻣﻲﮔﻴﺮﺩ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺭﻭﺵ ﻣﺎﺳﺎﮊ ﺻﺤﻴﺢ ﻭ ﻋﻤﻠﻲ ﺗﻤﺎﻣﻲ ﺑﺪﻥ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﻭ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺕ ﮔﻮﻳﻨﺪﻩ ﻭ ﻣﺘﻦ ﭼﺎﭘﻲ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻲ ﺷﻮﺩ‬-١
.‫ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﻭ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺕ ﮔﻮﻳﻨﺪﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺩﻭ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺭﻭﺵ ﻣﺎﺳﺎﮊ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬-٢
(... ‫ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﮕﻲ ﻭ ﻛﺮﺍﻣﭗ ﭘﺎ ﻭ‬، ‫ ﻗﺎﻋﺪﮔﻲ‬، ‫ ﺍﺳﻬﺎﻝ‬، ‫ ﻳﺎﺋﺴﮕﻲ‬، ‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﻛﻠﻴﻮﻱ‬، ‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻳﻬﺎﻱ ﻛﺒﺪﻱ‬، ‫ ﺧﻮﻥ ﺩﻣﺎﻍ‬،‫ ﺳﻴﻨﻮﺯﻳﺖ‬،‫ ﺩﺭﺩ ﻗﻔﺴﻪ ﺳﻴﻨﻪ ﻓﻠﺞ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ‬،‫ ﺁﺭﺗﺮﻳﻮﺍﺳﻜﻠﺮﻭﺯ‬: ‫ ) ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬.‫ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬٢٢ ‫ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩ ﻣﺎﺳﺎﮊ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺩﺭ‬-٣
‫ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬Namikoshi ‫ ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﻣﺎﺳﺎﮊ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺷﻬﺎﻱ ﻛﻼﺳﻴﻚ ﺁﻥ ﻭ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺗﺎﺭﻳﺨﭽﻪ ﻣﺘﺪ‬-٤
.‫ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﺣﺮﻭﻑ ﺍﻟﻔﺒﺎﻳﻲ ﻣﻲ ﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﻭﺍﮊﻩﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻧﻈﺮ ﺧﻮﺩ ﺭﺍ ﭘﻴﺪﺍ ﻧﻤﻮﺩ ﻭ ﺑﺎ ﻛﻠﻴﻚ ﻧﻤﻮﺩﻥ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﺁﻥ ﺑﻪ ﺁﻥ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻣﻨﺘﻘﻞ ﺷﺪ‬-٥
.‫ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﻣﻲ ﺷﻮﺩ‬Autorun ‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ‬
.‫ ﻧﺼﺐ ﻣﻲ ﺷﻮﺩ‬program ‫ ﺩﺭ ﮔﺰﻳﻨﻪ‬Lifestyle softuare Group ‫ ﺩﺭ ﻧﻬﺎﻳﺖ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻧﺎﻡ‬،‫ ﺩﻭ ﺑﺎﺭ ﻛﻠﻴﻚ ﻧﻤﺎﺋﻴﺪ ﻭ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﻧﺼﺐ ﺭﺍ ﭘﻴﮕﻴﺮﻱ ﻛﻨﻴﺪ‬Setup.exe ‫ ﺟﻬﺖ ﻧﺼﺐ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﻻﺯﻡ ﺍﺳﺖ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﺁﻳﻜﻮﻥ‬:‫( ﻃﺮﻳﻘﺔ ﻧﺼﺐ‬
.‫ ﻛﻠﻴﻚ ﻧﻤﺎﺋﻴﺪ‬install.exe ‫ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻧﺼﺐ ﺁﻳﻜﻮﻥ‬.‫ ﻛﺎﻣﭙﻴﻮﺗﺮ ﺷﻤﺎ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺎﺭ ﻣﻲ ﺭﻭﺩ‬Desktop ‫ ﻧﻴﺰ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺳﻔﺎﺭﺷﻲ ﻧﻤﻮﺩﻥ ﺻﻔﺤﻪ‬Jurassic Park Entertainment ‫ ﻳﻚ ﺑﺮﻧﺎﻣﻪ ﺟﺎﻧﺒﻲ ﺑﻪ ﻧﺎﻡ‬CD ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
10.19 EXERCISE THERAPY PREVENTION AND TREATMENT OF DISEASE
2005
___
( John Gormley and Juliette Hussey)
(
11.19 Fibromyalgia Syndrome Bodywork Management Strategies
٥ ‫ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻓﻴﺒﺮﻭﻣﻴﺎﻟﮋﻳﺎ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﭘﺮﻭﺳﻪ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﭘﻴﺸﻨﻬﺎﺩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ ﺑﺪﻳﻦﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺷـﺎﻣﻞ‬.‫ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﺔ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺳﺘﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻣﻌﺮﻓﻲ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬Leon Chitow ‫ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩﻱ ﺍﺯ ﻛﺘﺐ‬CD ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
.‫ﺑﺨﺶ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﺑﺎ ﺗﺄﻛﻴﺪ ﺑﺮ ﻣﻬﺎﺭﺕﻫﺎﻱ ﻟﻤﺲ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
Assessment Methodes
- Manual Thermal Diagnosis
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
- Skin on Fascia Adherence
- Hyperalgesic Skin Zones reduced Skin elasticity
- Drag palpation for increased hydrosis
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
- Neuro muscular Technique Evaluation (NMT)
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
77
12.19 Fundamentale of Sensation ad Perception
(3rd Edition) (M.W. Levine)
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:‫ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬١٦ ‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬CD ‫ﻣﺤﺘﻮﺍﻱ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
Introduction and instructions
Afterimages
Depth from motion of random dots
Traveling waves on the basilar
membrane
Gnglion Cells responding to light
Threshold experiment or Signal Detection
Brain anatomy, Blink Suppression, or Cortical
Cell responses
Optical IIIusions and Constancies
Motion demonstrations
Retinal Cells responding to light
Demonstratuins of Fourier
components
Color mixing or Opponent cells
Pitch and Loudness of tones
Speech sounds of Mystery phrase
Muscle spindle feedback
Mechanics of the middle and inner ear
Taste-influenced by vision
Motions from form of Impossible figures
13.19 Health & Fitness (DataSel Software, Inc)
1. Getting Started 2. The Exercise Demonstration Screen 3. Strength 4. Stretch
Specializations of the Vertebrate eye
Cortical columns or Equiluminant demos
5. Equipment
6. Muscles
7. Workouts
8. Setup
9. Technical Support
14.19 Hysical Agents in Rehabiliation from Research to practice (Michelle H. Cameron)
15.19 Interactive Atlas of Human Anatomy
16.19 Introduction to Massage Therapy (Mary Beth Braum, Steplianic Simonsoon) (Salekan E-Book)
17.19 Kinesiology of the Musculoskeletal Foundations for Physical Rehabilitation
(Donald A. Neumann.PT.PHD)
18.19 Maintaining Body Balance Flexibility and Stability A Practical Guide to the Prevention and Treatment of Musculoskeletal Pain and Dysfunction (Leon Chaitow ND DO, Douglas C. Lewis ND)
19.19 MANIPULATION OF THE SPINE, THORAX AND PELVIS An Osteopatic Perspective (Peter Gibbons, Philip Tehan)
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2005
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:‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻓﻴﻠﻢﻫﺎ ﺩﺭ ﺩﻭ ﺑﺨﺶ ﻛﻠﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺫﻳﻞ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ ﻓﻘﺴﺔ ﺳﻴﻨﻪ ﻭ ﻟﮕﻦ ﺧﺎﺻﺮﻩ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺳﺘﺨﻮﺍﻧﻲ ﺳﺘﻮﻥ ﻓﻘﺮﺍﺕ‬manipulation ‫ ﻗﻄﻌﻪ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻛﻮﺗﺎﻩ ﺩﺭ ﺧﺼﻮﺹ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﺔ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻜﻲ ﻭ‬٣٤ ‫ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
‫ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺍﻭﻝ‬: HVLA thrust techniques-spine and thorax
- Cervical and cervicothoracie spine
-Thoracic spine and rib cage
-Lumbar and thora Columbar spine
‫ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺩﻭﻡ‬: HVLA thrust techniques-pelvis
.‫ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬Autorun ‫ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ‬CD ‫ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‬manipulafion ‫ ﭘﺰﺷﻚ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺺ ﻧﺤﻮﺓ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﻪ ﻭ‬،‫ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﻗﻄﻌﻪ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ‬
20.19 Massage Therapy Review
(interactive Edition) (Mosby)
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‫ـــــ‬
21.19 Medical Acupuncture (A Western scientific approach) (Jacqueline Filshie)
22.19 Men's Health GET RID OF THAT GUT
STAGE 1: BEGINNERS LEVEL
STAGE 2: INTERMEDIATE LEVEL
23.19 Modern Neuromuscular Techniques
24.19 MUSCLE ENERGY TECHNIQUES
STAGE 3: ADVANCED LEVEL
2003
(Leon Chaitow)
2001
ADVANCED SOFT TISSUE TECHNIQUES (Second Edition)
.‫ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮﺋﻲ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‬٣٠ ‫ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺑﻪ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ‬٨ ‫ ﻟﺌﻮﻥ ﭼﻴﺘﻮ ﻣﺸﺘﻤﻞ ﺑﺮ‬Muscle Energy Techniques ‫ ﻣﺘﻦ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ‬CD ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﻧﻘﺶ ﻓﻌﺎﻟﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺻﻼﺡ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﻋﻤﻠﻜﺮﺩﻱ ﺑﺮ ﻋﻬﺪﻩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ ﻭ ﺗﺮﺍﭘﻴﺴﺖ ﺑـﺎ ﺍﺳـﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ‬.‫ ﻳﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺩﺳﺘﻲ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺁﻥ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻧﻘﺒﺎﺽ ﺍﺭﺍﺩﻱ ﻋﻀﻠﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻳﻚ ﺟﻬﺖ ﻛﻨﺘﺮﻝ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺩﻗﻴﻖ ﺑﺎ ﺷﺪﺕﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﺑﺮﺍﺑﺮ ﻧﻴﺮﻭﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﮕﺮ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬MET
:‫ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﺯﻳﺎﺩﻱ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ ﻛﻪ ﻣﻲﺗﻮﺍﻥ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺍﺷﺎﺭﻩ ﻛﺮﺩ‬.‫ ﺑﺎﻋﺚ ﻛﺎﻫﺶ ﺗﻮﻥ ﻳﺎ ﻣﻬﺎﺭ ﻋﻀﻼﺕ ﻛﻮﺗﺎﻩﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺗﻘﻮﻳﺖ ﻋﻀﻼﺕ ﺿﻌﻴﻒ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬Reciprocal inhibtion ‫ ﻳﺎ‬isometric Relaxation
‫ ﮔﻴﺮﺍﻓﺘـﺎﺩﮔﻲ ﻣﻨﻴﺴـﻚ ﻭ ﻋـﺪﻡ ﺗﻄـﺎﺑﻖ ﻛﺎﻣـﻞ ﺳـﻄﻮﺡ ﻣﻔﺼـﻠﻲ ﻭ ﻫﻤﭽﻨـﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺍﺻﻼﺡ ﻣﻮﺍﻧﻊ ﻣﻜﺎﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﺩﺍﺧﻞ ﻣﻔﺼﻞ ﻣﺜﻞ ﺁﺭﺗﺮﻳﺖ‬،‫ ﻛﺎﻫﺶ ﺍﺩﻡ ﻣﻮﺿﻌﻲ‬،‫ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻴﻦﺑﺮﺩﻥ ﭼﺴﺒﻨﺪﮔﻲ ﻣﺘﻌﺎﻗﺐ ﺍﺣﺘﻘﺎﻥ ﻭﺭﻳﺪﻱ‬،‫ ﺭﻓﻊ ﺍﺣﺘﻘﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﻭﺭﻳﺪﻱ‬،‫ ﺗﻘﻮﻳﺖ ﻋﻀﻼﺕ ﺿﻌﻴﻒ‬،‫ﻛﺸﺶ ﻋﻀﻼﺕ ﻛﻮﺗﺎﻩ ﻭ ﺍﺳﭙﺎﺳﺘﻴﻚ‬
‫ﻣﺘﺤﺮﻙﻧﻤﻮﺩﻥ ﻣﻔﺎﺻﻞ ﻣﺤﺪﻭﺩ‬
Post
25.19 Muscles (Testing and Function with Posture and Pain)
26.19 Myofascial Release Techniques
(John F. Barnes, PT) (VCD I , II)
27.19 Occupational Therapy for Physical Dysfunction (Fifth Edition) (Catherine A. Trombly, Mary Vining Radomski)
28.19 Orthopaedics for Nurses (John Ebnezar) (Salekan E-Book)
29.19 Orthopedic Massage Theory and Technique (Whitney Lowe Leon Chaitow)
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
2005
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
2003
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
78
30.19 Palpation Skill in Assessment and Tr eatment Fibromyalgia Syndrome (Leon Chaitow)
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31.19 Physical Education and the Study of Sport (Bob Davis, Ros Bull, Jan Roscoe, Dennis Roscoe) (Mosby)
‫ــــــ‬
1- Physical Education and the Study of Sport
2- Synoptic Questions Harcourt Health Sciences
3- The Project Personal Performance Profile
32.19 Physical Rehabilitatioon of the Injured Athlete 3
Edition (James R. Andrews, Gary I., Harrison, Kevin) (Salekan E-Book)
33.19 Physiotherapy for Respiratory & Cardiac Problems Adults & Paediatrics (Jennifer A. Pryor, S. Ammani Prasad)
2004
34.19 Physiotherapy in Obstetrics & Gynaecology
‫ــــــ‬
rd
35.19 Positional Release Techniques
(Second Edition) (Jill Mantle, Jeanette Haslamk Sue Barton) (Second Edition)
ADVANCED SOFT TISSUE TECHNIQUES (Leon Chaitow) (Harcourt) (Second Edition)
‫ــــــ‬
.‫ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮ ﻭﻳﺪﺋﻮﺋﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻋﻤﺎﻝﺷﺪﻩ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‬٣١ ‫ ﻓﺼﻞ ﻫﻤﺮﺍﻩ ﺑﺎ‬١٢ ‫ ﻟﺌﻮﻥ ﭼﻴﺘﻮ ﻣﺸﺘﻤﻞ ﺑﺮ‬Positional Release ‫ ﻣﺘﻦ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ‬CD ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
‫ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﻳﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺆﺛﺮ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺑﺎﻓﺖ ﻫﻤﺒﻨﺪ ﻣﻨﺎﻃﻘﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻟﻤﺲ ﻫﺎﻳﭙﺮﺗﻮﻥ ﻳﺎ ﻛﻮﺗﺎﻩ ﺷﺪﻩﺍﻧﺪ ﺑﻜﺒﺎﺭ ﻣﻲﺭﻭﺩ ﻭ ﭼﻮﻥ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﺁﻥ ﻗﺮﺍﺭﺩﺍﺩﻥ ﺑﺎﻓﺖ ﻫﻤﺒﻨﺪ ﻳﺎ ﻋﻀﻠﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺭﺍﺣﺖﺗﺮﻥ ﻭﺿﻌﻴﺖ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﺑﻪﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻥ ﺁﻥ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩﻳﻜﻪ ﺑﻪ‬Positional Release
.‫ ﻟﺬﺍ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻣﺒﺘﻼ ﺑﻪ ﻣﺸﻜﻼﺕ ﻣﺎﺳﻜﻠﻮﺍﺳﻜﻠﺘﺎﻝ ﺑﺴﻴﺎﺭ ﻣﺆﺛﺮ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ﻋﻠﺖ ﺍﺳﭙﺎﺳﻢ ﻳﺎ ﺍﻟﺘﻬﺎﺏ ﺑﺎﻓﺖ ﻫﻤﺒﻨﺪ ﺑﺴﻴﺎﺭ ﺩﺭﺩﻧﺎﻙ ﺍﺳﺖ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﻗﺎﺑﻞ ﺗﺤﻤﻞ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬
Spontaneous Positional relese variations
The evolution of dysfunction
Unloading and Proprioceptive taping
Modified strain/counterstrain technique
Learning SCS
SCS for muscle pain (plus INTT and self-treatment)
Goodheart and Morrison's Positional release variations and lift techniques
SCS (and SCS variations) in hospital settings
The Mulligan concept: NAGs, SNAGs, MWMs, etc.
Functional technique
Facilitated Positional release (FPR)
Cranial and TMJ Positional release methods
36.19 Power Touch
‫ــــــ‬
37.19 Principles & Pracice of Sport Management (Second Edition) (Lisa Pike Masteralexis, Carol A. Barr, BS, Mary A. Hums)
38.19 Principles of Manual Therapy (A Manual Therapy Approach to Musculoskeletal Dyslimction) (Salekan E-Book)
2005
2005
39.19 Rehabilitation for the Postsurgical orthopedic patient
‫ــــــ‬
40.19 Running Biomechanics & Exercise Physiology Applied in Practice (Frans Bosch & Ronald Klomp)
‫ــــــ‬
41.19 Surface and Living Anatomy
2002
(Gordon Joslin SOtJ)
.‫ ﺩﺭ ﻛﻨﺎﺭ ﻫﺮ ﻳﻚ ﺍﺯ ﻣﺘﻦﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﻋﻜﺲﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻭﺳﻴﻠﺔ ﻣﺎﺭﻛﺮﻫﺎﻳﻲ ﻣﻨﺎﻃﻖ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﺭﺍ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﻨﺪ‬.‫ ﻣﻨﻄﻘﻪ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻴﻜﻲ ﺭﺍ ﻣﺮﺣﻠﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻣﺮﺣﻠﻪ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‬٢٢٦ ‫ ﻣﺘﻦ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﺳﻄﺤﻲ ﻗﺴﻤﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺑﺪﻥ ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ ﻭ ﭘﻴﺪﺍﻛﺮﺩﻥ‬CD ‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬
42.19 The Back Pain Revolution
(Gordon Waddell)
‫ــــــ‬
43.19 The Complete Acupuncture
‫ــــــ‬
44.19 The Principles of Harmonic Techniques
‫ــــــ‬
(Eyal Lederman) (VCD)
‫ ﺑﺮ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺍﺳﺎﺱ ﻛﻪ ﻫﺮ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻤﻲ ﻳﻚ ﻓﺮﻛﺎﻧﺲ ﻧﻮﺳﺎﻥ ﻃﺒﻴﻌﻲ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ ﭼﻨﺎﻧﭽﻪ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺤﺪﻭﺩﺓ ﻓﺮﻛﺎﻧﺲ ﺑﺎﻓﺖﻫﺎ‬.‫ ﻣﻌﺮﻓﻲ ﺷﺪ‬Eyal Lederman ‫ﻫﺎﺭﻣﻮﻧﻴﻚ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﻳﻚ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﺆﺛﺮ ﺩﺭ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﻪ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺎﻧﻮﺍﻝ )ﺩﺳﺘﻲ( ﺑﻪ ﻭﺳﻴﻠﺔ‬
:‫ ﺑﺨﺶ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬٤ ‫ ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺵ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻔﺎﺻﻞ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺩﺭ‬CD ‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ﻭ ﺗﻮﺩﻩﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺪﻥ ﺍﻋﻤﺎﻝ ﺷﻮﻧﺪ ﺑﺎﻋﺚ ﺍﻳﺠﺎﺩ ﺭﺯﻭﻧﺎﻧﺲ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺑﺎ ﺻﺮﻑ ﺍﻧﺮﮊﻱ ﻛﻤﺘﺮ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﮕﺮ ﺩﺍﻣﻨﻪ ﺣﺮﻛﺘﻲ ﻣﻨﺎﺳﺐ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺍﻳﺠﺎﺩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‬
1- The Principles of Harmonic Technique
2- The Principles of Harmonic Technique Using Thoracic Mass Oscillations
45.19 Therapeutic Exercise (Foundations and Techniques)
46.19
3- The Principles of Harmonic Technique Using Pelvic Mass Oscillations
4- The Principles of harmonic Technique Using Appendicular Oscillations
(4th Edition) (Carolyn Kisner, MS, PT, Lynn Allen Colby, MS, PT)
Therapeutic Exercise for Lumbopelvic Stabilization A motor Control Approach for the Treatment and Prevention of low back pain
(Second Edition) (Carolyn Richardson, Paul W. Hodges, Julie Hides) (Salekan E-Book)
47.19 Tidy's Physiotherapy (Stuart B.Porter) (13th edition)
48.19 YOGA for YOU (Anatomy)
‫ــــ‬
2004
2003
‫ــــ‬
‫ ﺍﻭﺭﮊﺍﻧﺲ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻬﻮﺷﻲ‬:٢٠
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
79
CD ‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ‬
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
1.20
A manual of Acupuncture (Peter Deadman& Mazin Al-Khafaji, With Kevin Baker)
2.20
Advanced Pediatric Life Support: The Critical First Hour CPR and ACLS Review (David G. Nichols, MD)
‫ــــــ‬
:‫ ﺭﻳﻮﻱ ﭘﻴﺸﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻛﻮﺩﻛﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺑﺎﻟﻐﻴﻦ ﺷﺮﺡ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‬-‫ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺍﺣﻴﺎﺀ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
‫ــــــ‬
1: Initial Evaluation, 2: Airway Management, 3: Epiglottitis and Gidup, 4: Respiratory Failure, 5: Advanced Pediatric CPR, 6: Resuscitative Drugs
3.20
4.20
American College of Surgons ACS Surgery Principles & Pracitce (CD I , II)
ANESTHESIA (Ronald D. Miller, MD) (Fifth Edition)
(E-Book)
Anesthesiology (The Journal of the American Society of Anesthesiologists, Inc) Abstracts of Scientific Papers
Anesthesiology (The Journal of the American Society of Anesthesiologists, Inc) Abstracts of Scientific Papers
7.20 Anesthesiologist's manual of Surgical Procedures
.‫ )ﻭﻳﺰﻳﺖ( ﻗﺒﻞ ﺍﺯ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻭ ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﺑﻴﻬﻮﺷﻲ ﻭ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﻴﻬﻮﺷﻲ ﻣﺘﻨﺎﺳﺐ ﺑﺎ ﻫﺮ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﻭ ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﻣﺮﺍﻗﺒﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﻌﺪ ﺍﺯ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺫﻛﺮ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬Preob ‫ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻛﻠﻴﺔ ﻣﺮﺍﺣﻞ ﺁﻣﺎﺩﻩﺳﺎﺯﻱ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻭ‬
5.20
6.20
8.20
9.20
2004
2000
2002
2000
2004
Atlas of Interventional Pain Managemetn (Steven D. Waldman)
‫ــــــ‬
Bonica's Management of Pain (John D. Loser, M.D.) (3th Edition)
‫ــــــ‬
10.20 CHINA ZHENJIUOLOGY
(VCD) (VCD 1 – 30)
.‫ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬... ‫( ﻭ ﺷﻨﺎﺧﺖ ﺍﺑﺰﺍﺭﻫﺎ ﻭ‬... ‫ ﻧﻘﺸﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻧﻘﺎﻁ ﻃﺐ ﺳﻮﺯﻧﻲ ﻭ‬،‫ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻜﺎﻝ )ﻣﺴﻴﺮﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻧﺮﮊﻱ‬،‫ ﺣﺠﺎﻣﺖ‬،‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﺗﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻛﻠﻲ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﻭ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮﺩﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺗﻤﺎﻣﻲ ﺯﻣﻴﻨﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻃﺐ ﺳﻮﺯﻧﻲ ﻭ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺟﻨﺒﻲ ﻫﻤﭽﻮﻥ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻫﺎﻱ ﮔﻴﺎﻫﻲ‬
‫ـــــ‬
11.20 Clinical Procedures in EMERGENCY MEDICINE (4th Edition) (James R. Roberts, MD, Jerris R. Hedges, MD, MS) (E-Book) (CD I, II)
12.20 Critical Care Handbook of the Massachusetts general hospital (3th edition) (William E. Hurford)
2004
13.20 Critical Care Secrets
‫ــــــ‬
(Third Edition) (Pollye, parsons, jeantne p. wiener-kronish)
14.20 Decision Making in ANESTHESIOLOGY An Algorithmic Approach (Lois L. Bready, Rhonda
15.20 Emergency Medical Training (MedEMT) Victory Technology, Inc. Presents (DISC ONE, TWO)
M. Mullins)
‫ــــــ‬
MedEMT Overview
Emergency Medical Services (EMS)
The Well-Being of the EMT-Basic
Anatomy and Physiology-Part 1
Anatomy and Physology-Part 2
Medical Terminology
Vital Signs and SAMPLE History
Lifting and Moving Patients
Airway Management
Patient Assessment
Trauma
Infants and Children
Medical and Behaval Care I
Medical and Behavioral Care II
Obstetric and Gynecological Care
Operations
Appendix A: Video/Animation List
Appendix B: Victory Products
16.20 EMERGENCY MEDICINE A COMPREHENSIVE STUDY GUIDE (Rosen's ) (Volume 1-3) (Sixth Edition) (Judith E. Tintinall, MD, MS)
17.20 EMT-Basic Slide Set Slide Program Guide (John A. Stouffer, EMT-P, Richard S. Bennett, RN, EMT-P, BSN) (Mosby)
18.20 Halperin & Goldstein
‫ــــــ‬
Fluid, Electrolyte, & Acid-Base Physiology (A Problem-Based Approack) (Mitchell L. Hlperin, Marc B. goldstein)
.‫ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺍﺳﻴﺪ ﻭ ﺑﺎﺯ ﺁﺏ ﻭ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻟﻴﺘﻬﺎ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺍﺳﻴﺪ ﻭ ﺑﺎﺯ ﻭ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻟﻴﺘﻲ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻣﺮﺣﻠﻪ ﺑﻪ ﻣﺮﺣﻠﻪ ﻭ ﺑﺎ ﻣﺸﺨﺺﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﻧﻜﺎﺕ ﻣﻬﻢ ﻭ ﺑﺼﻮﺭﺕ ﺟﺪﺍﻭﻝ ﻭ ﺍﻟﮕﻮﺭﻳﺘﻢ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
2006
‫ــــــ‬
‫ـــــ‬
19.20 Intensive Care Medicine (Irwin & Rippe) (Vol A,B)
‫ـــــ‬
11.20 Interactive Regional Anesthesia
‫ــــــ‬
12.20 Medical Acupuncture
‫ــــــ‬
A western scientific approach (Jacqueline Filshie, Adrian White)
13.20 Miller's Anesthesia (Vol I & II) (Salekan E-book)
2005
SECTION I: INTRODUCTION
SECTION II: SCIENTIFIC PRINCIPLES
SECTION III: ANESTHESIA
VOLUME 2
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
80
SECTION IV: SUB SPECIAL TV
SECTION V: CRITICAL CARE MEDICINE
SECTION VI: ANCILLARY
RESPONSIBILITIES AND PROBLEMS
COMPANION VIDEO CD-ROM
Video 1 Patient Positioning in Anesthesia
Video 2 Code Blue Simulation
48.9
2002
New Analgesic Options: Overcoming Obstacles to Pain Relief
- MD, NP, PA, RN Answer Sheet
-Pharmacist Answer Sheet
-Back Pain
-Fibromyalgia
-OA Pain
-Post Op Pain
-Trauma
-References
14.20 NEW YORK SCHOOL OF REGIONAL ANESTHESIA PERIPHERAL NERVE BLOCKS PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE
2004
20.20 PERIPHERAL NERVE BLOCKS Principles & Practice (Admir Hadzic, Jerry D. Vloka)
21.20 Peripheral Regional Anaesthesia Tutorial in the Ulm Rehabilitation hospital (Prof. Dr. Med. H. Mehrkens)
(VCD) (CD I , II)
1. Anatomical Fundamentals
2. Peripheral Neve Stimulation
3. Regional Anaesthesia
4. Upper, Lower Extremity
5. Peripheral Neve Blocks 6. Peripheral Neve Blocks
15.20 Textbook of CRITICAL CARE (Salekan E-book)
SECTION I RESUSCITATION AND MEDICAL EMERGENCIES
SECTION II TRAUMA
SECTION III IMAGING
SECTION IV CELL INJURY AND CELL DEATH
SECTION V INFECTIONS DISEASE
SECTION VI ENDOCTINOLOGY, METABOLISM, NUTRITION, PHARMACOLOGY
SECTION VII CARDIOVASCULAR
SECTION VIII PULMONARY
22.20 The American Academy of Pediatric (David G. Nichols, MD Associate Professor of Anesthesiology and Clinical Care Medicine)
2004
-TRAINING IN PERIPHERAL NERVE BLOCKS - ESSENTIAL REGIONAL ANESTHESIA ANATOMY -EQUIPMENT AND PATIENT MONITORING IN REGIONAL ANESTHESIA
-PERIPHERAL NERVE STIMULATORS AND NERVE STIMULATION
-CLINICAL PHARMACOLOGY OF LOCAL ANESTHETICS
-NEUROLOGIC COMPLICATIONS OF PERIPHERAL NERVE BLOCKS
-KEYS TO SUCCESS WITH PERIPHERAL NERVE BLOCKS -CERVICAL PLEXUS BLOCK
-INTERSCALENE BRACHIAL PLEXUS BLOCK
-INFRACLAVICULAR BRACHIAL PLEXUS BLOCK
-AXILLARY BRACHIAL PLEXUS BLOCK
-INTRAVENOUS REGIONAL BLOCK OF THE UPPER EXTREMITY
-CUTANEOUS NERVE BLOCKS OF THE UPPER EXTREMITY -THORACIC PARAVERTEBRAL BLOCK
-THORACOLUMBAR PARAVERTEBRAL BLOCK
-LUMBAR PLEXUS BLOCK
- SCIATIC BLOCK: POSTERIOR APPROACH 234
-SCIATIC BLOCK: ANTERIOR APPROACH 252
-FEMORAL NERVE BLOCK
-POPLITEAL BLOCK: INTERTENDINOUS APPROACH
-POPLITEAL BLOCK: LATERAL APPROACH
-ANKLE BLOCK
- WRIST BLOCK
-CUTANEOUS NERVE BLOCKS OF THE LOWER EXTERMITY
-DIGITAL BLOCK
-Intitial Steps in Resuscitation -Ventilating the Infant
16.20 The ICU Book (Second Edition) (Paul L. Marino)
-Chest Compressions
23.20 The Lipponcott-Raven Interactive Anesthesia Library on CD-ROM
24.20 The Massachusetts General Hospital Handbook of Pain Management
-Endotracheal Intubaion
‫ـــــ‬
2005
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــــ‬
(Version 2.0) (Paul G. Barash, MD)
(Salekan E-Book)
‫ـــــ‬
‫ـــــ‬
‫ ﺳـﺮﻭﻛﺎﺭ‬،‫ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻠﺖ ﺩﺳﺘﻴﺎﺑﻲ ﺭﺍﺣﺖ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﺎﻧﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺎ ﺑﻴﻤـﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﺩﺭﺩﻣﻨـﺪ‬Poacet guide ‫ ﺍﺯ‬Edition ‫ ﺍﻳﻦ‬.‫ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺧﺘﻴﺎﺭ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‬،‫ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﻣﻲﮔﺮﺩﻧﺪ‬Mass.Gen ‫ ﺩﻳﺪﮔﺎﻩ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﻭ ﻣﻔﻴﺪﻱ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺗﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻣﺆﺛﺮ ﺩﺭﺩ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻧﻴﺎﺯ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﻨﺪ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ‬CD ‫ﺍﻳﻦ‬
.‫ ﻣﺰﻣﻦ ﻭ ﺩﺭﺩ ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮ ﺭﺍ ﭘﻮﺷﺶ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ‬،‫ ﻣﻮﺍﻟﻴﺘﻪﺍﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺭﺍ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﻣﻲﺩﻫﺪ ﻭ ﺟﻨﺒﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺩﺭﺩ ﺍﻋﻢ ﺍﺯ ﺣﺎﺩ‬CD ‫ ﺍﻳﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﺎ ﻣﺮﻭﺭ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻋﻤﺪﺓ ﺩﺭﺩ‬.‫ ﻣﺸﻬﻮﺭ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬،‫ﺩﺍﺭﻧﺪ‬
.‫ ﺍﻃﻼﻋﺎﺕ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻳﻲ ﻛﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬‫ﺩﺭﺩ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ‬‫ ﻣﺪﺍﺧﻼﺕ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ ﻭ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻓﺎﺭﻣﺎﺳﻲ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺩﺭﺩﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮ‬‫ ﻣﺪﺍﺧﻼﺕ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻭ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺍﻋﺼﺎﺏ‬:‫ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‬
‫؛ ﺍﻭﺭﻭﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬٢١
CD ‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ‬
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
1.21 Adult and Pediatric Urology
Adult Urology
(Jay Y. Gillenwater, john T. Grayhack, Stuart S. Howards, Michael E. Mitchell)
Adult Urology Continued
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
Pediatric Urology
2002
Video Library
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
‫‪81‬‬
‫‪2000‬‬
‫)‪2.21 Advanced Therapy of Prostate Disease (Martin I. Resnick, MD, Ian M. Thompson, MD‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ‪ ٦٤٨‬ﺻﻔﺤﻪﺍﻱ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺤﻴﻂ ‪ Acrobat reader‬ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﻳﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻬﺘﺮﻳﻦ ﺭﻓﺮﺍﻧﺲﻫﺎ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﺮﻭﺳﺘﺎﺕ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺭﻓﺮﺍﻧﺲﻫﺎ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﺮﻭﺳﺘﺎﺕ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪ ٧١‬ﻓﺼﻞ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ‪ ٦-١‬ﺍﭘﻴﺪﻣﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮ ﭘﺮﻭﺳﺘﺎﺕ ﺷـﺮﺡ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷـﺪﻩ ﺍﺳـﺖ‪ .‬ﻓﺼـﻞ ‪ -٧‬ﺍﻟﮕـﻮﺭﻳﺘﻢ ﺍﺭﺯﻳـﺎﺑﻲ ﺧﻄـﺮ ﭘﺮﻭﺳـﺘﺎﺕ ﻛﺎﻧﺴـﺮ ﺷـﺮﺡ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷـﺪﻩ ﺍﺳـﺖ‪ .‬ﻓﺼـﻞ ‪ -٨‬ﻓﺎﻛﺘﻮﺭﻫـﺎﻱ ﻣﻠﻜـﻮﻟﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺭﺯﻳـﺎﺑﻲ ﻛﺎﻧﺴـﺮ ﭘﺮﻭﺳـﺘﺎﺕ‪ .‬ﻓﺼـﻮﻝ ‪ ١٢‬ﻭ ‪ ١١‬ﻭ ‪ -٩‬ﻏﺮﺑـﺎﻟﮕﺮﻱ ﻛﺎﻧﺴـﺮ ﭘﺮﻭﺳـﺘﺎﺕ‪،‬‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ -١٠‬ﺍﺑﺰﺍﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ‪ .‬ﻓﺼﻮﻝ ‪ -١٣-١٦‬ﺗﺎﺭﻳﺨﭽﺔ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﭘﺮﻭﺳﺘﺎﺕ ﻭ ﺗﺎﺭﻳﺨﭽﺔ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﺑﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮ ﭘﺮﻭﺳﺘﺎﺕ ﺑﻴﺎﻥ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ -١٧-١٨‬ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ‪ staging‬ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮ ﭘﺮﻭﺳﺘﺎﺕ‪ ،‬ﻓﺼﻞ ‪-١٩‬ﺁﻣﺎﺩﮔﻲ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ‪ :‬ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻜﺎﻝ ﭘﺮﻭﺳﺘﺎﺗﻜﺘﻮﻣﻲ‪.‬‬
‫‪ ٢٠‬ﻭ ‪ ٢١‬ﻭ ‪Stage -٢٢‬ﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺩﺭ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ‪ -٢٩-٢٤ .Radical Perianal Prostatectomy -٢٣ .‬ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ‪ Brachy therapy ،‬ﻭ ﻫﻮﺭﻣﻮﻧﺎﻝﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ ﻭ ﻛﺮﺍﻳﺮﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﭘﺮﻭﺳﺘﺎﺕ ‪ -٣٩-٣٠‬ﺩﺭ ﻫـﺮ ﻓﺼـﻞ ‪(TNM) Staging‬‬
‫ﺟﺪﺍﮔﺎﻧﻪ ﺷﺮﺡ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺵ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺁﻥ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ‪ -٤٠-٤٣‬ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﺑﻌﺪ ﺍﺯ ﻋﻤﻞ ﭘﺮﻭﺳﺘﺎﺗﻜﺘﻮﻣﻲ ﺑﺎ ‪ PSA‬ﻭ ﻫﻮﺭﻣﻮﻥﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ ﻭ ‪ -٤٤ ...‬ﺍﺳﻔﻨﻜﺘﺮ ‪ genitourinary‬ﺁﺭﺗﻴﻔﻴﺸﺘﺎﻝ ‪ -٤٥‬ﻛﻼﮊﻥﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺑﻲﺍﺧﺘﻴﺎﺭﻱ ﺑﻌﺪ ﺍﺯ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺟﺮﺍﺣـﻲ ﭘﺮﻭﺳـﺘﺎﺕ‬
‫‪ -٤٦-٤٧‬ﺗﺪﺍﺑﻴﺮ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ ‪ erction‬ﻭ ﺍﻧﻮﺭﻛﺘﺎﻝ ‪ -٥٠-٤٨‬ﺟﻠﻮﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺍﺯ ﻋﻮﺩ ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮ ﺑﺎ ﺷﻴﻤﻲﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻭ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ ‪ -٥١‬ﻧﮕﺮﺵ ﺳﻠﻮﻟﻲ ﻭ ﻫﻮﺭﻣﻮﻧﻲ ﺑﻪ ‪ -٥٢-٥٣ . BPH‬ﻧﺴﺒﺖ ﺍﻭﺭﻭﺩﻳﻨﺎﻣﻴﻚ ﻭ ﺍﺑﻨﺮﻣﺎﻟﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ‪ -٥٤ .‬ﭘـﺎﺗﻮﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺍﻧﺴـﺪﺍﺩ ﻣﺠـﺮﺍﻱ ﺧﺮﻭﺟـﻲ‬
‫ﻣﺜﺎﻧﻪ ﻭ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻝ ﺩﺭ ‪ -٥٥ Voding‬ﺟﻠﻮﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺍﺯ ﭘﻴﺸﺮﻓﺖ ﻭ ﻋﻮﺍﺭﺽ ﺑﻠﻨﺪﻣﺪﺕ ‪ :BPH -٥٦ BPH‬ﻛﻲ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﻣﺪﺍﺧﻠﻪ ﻛﺮﺩ؟ ‪ -٥٧-٥٨‬ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ‪ /‬ﺁﻣﺎﺩﮔﻲ ﻭ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻣﻨﺎﺳﺐ ﺑـﺮﺍﻱ ‪ -٥٩ BPH‬ﻣﻬﺎﺭﻛﻨﻨـﺪﻩﻫـﺎﻱ ‪ 5α‬ﺭﺩﻭﻛﺘـﺎﺯ ‪ -٦٠-٦٦‬ﺭﻭﺵﻫـﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠـﻒ‬
‫ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺩﺭ ‪ BPH‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ )ﺗﺮﺍﻧﺲ ﺍﻭﺭﺗﺮﺍﻝ ‪ ،needle Ablation‬ﻟﻴﺰﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ‪ TUIP ،TUFP ،‬ﻭ ﻓﻴﺘﻮﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ ﻭ ‪ open‬ﭘﺮﻭﺳﺘﺎﺗﻜﺘﻮﻣﻲ(‪ -٦٧-٧١ .‬ﭘﺮﻭﺳﺘﺎﺕ‪ :‬ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‪ ،‬ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺍﻓﺘﺮﺍﻗﻲ‪ ،‬ﻓﺎﻛﺘﻮﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺆﺛﺮ ﺩﺭ ﭘﺮﻭﮔﻨﻮﺯ ﻭ ﺟﺪﻳﺪﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥﻫﺎ ﺩﺭ ﭘﺮﻭﺳﺘﺎﺕ‪.‬‬
‫___‬
‫)‪(Male Reproductive Health and Dysfunction) (2nd Edition‬‬
‫‪2005‬‬
‫)‪(ESE Hafez and SD Hafez‬‬
‫‪3.21 ANDROLOGY‬‬
‫‪4.21 Atlas of Clinical Andrology‬‬
‫‪5.21 AUA Vide Digest The American Urogical association (AUA) Impotence and Infertility‬‬
‫ـــــ‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻳﻜﻲ ﺍﺯ ﺳﺮﻱ ﻓﻴﻠﻢﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﺍﻧﺠﻤﻦ ﺍﻭﺭﻭﻟﻮﮊﻳﺴﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻣﺮﻳﻜﺎ )‪ (AUA video digest‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻛﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ‪ Impotence‬ﻭ ‪ Infertilitey‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺍﻭﻝ ‪ :Impotence‬ﺍﻟﻒ( ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺍﻧﺘﺨﺎﺏ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻣﻨﺎﺳﺐ ﺁﻥ ﺑﻴﺎﻥ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺩﺭ ﺣﻴﻦ ﻧﺸﺎﻥﺩﺍﺩﻥ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺍﺳﺎﺗﻴﺪ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪(Diagnosis8 treatment option) .‬‬
‫ﺏ( ‪ :Penile Venous Ligation‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺑﺎ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺣﻴﻦ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺑﺎ ﻓﻴﻠﻢ ﻧﺸﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺩﻭﻡ ‪ :Rectal Probe Electroejaculation :Infertiliry‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ‪ ejaculation‬ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺗﺠﻬﻴﺰﺍﺕ ﻭ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻧﻴﺎﺯ ﻭ ﻃﺮﺯ ﻛﺎﺭ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺑـﺎ ﻓـﻴﻠﻢ ﻧﺸـﺎﻥ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷـﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺳـﭙﺲ ﻃﺮﻳﻘـﻪ ﺍﻧﺠـﺎﻡ‬
‫ﭘﺮﻭﺏﮔﺬﺍﺭﻱ ﻭ ﺍﻳﺠﺎﺩ ‪ ejaculation‬ﺑﻪ ﻧﻤﺎﻳﺶ ﺩﺭﺁﻣﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪2004‬‬
‫)‪(SALEKAN E-BOOK‬‬
‫)‪(Jonathan I. Epstein, M.D., Mahul B. Amin, M.D., Victor E. Reuter, M.D.‬‬
‫‪6.21 BLADDER BIOPSY INTERPRETATIONS‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻛﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ﺗﺒﺪﻳﻞ ﺑﻪ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪:‬‬
‫‪Papillary Urothelial Neoplasms with Inverted Growth‬‬
‫‪Patterns‬‬
‫‪Flat Urothelial Lesions‬‬
‫‪Conventional Morphologic, Prognostic, and Predictive Factors and Reporting of‬‬
‫‪Bladder Cancer‬‬
‫‪Cystitis‬‬
‫‪Second ary Tumors of the Bladder‬‬
‫‪Glandular Lesions‬‬
‫‪Mesenchymal Tumors and Tumor-Like Lesions‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪Normal Blodder Anatomy and Variants of Normal‬‬
‫‪histology‬‬
‫‪Invasive Urothelial Carcinoma‬‬
‫‪Squamous Lesions‬‬
‫‪Miscellaneous Nontumors and Tumors‬‬
‫)‪Bristol Urological Institute (Computer Aided Learning Program‬‬
‫ﺑﻪ ﮔﻔﺘﺔ ﻣﺆﻟﻔﻴﻦ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﻓﺰﺍﻳﺶ ﻣﻌﻠﻮﻣﺎﺕ ﺣﻔﻈﻲ ﻧﻴﺴﺖ ﺑﻠﻜﻪ ﻫﺪﻑ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺩﺍﻧﺶ ﺍﻭﺭﻭﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻫﺮ ﺷﺨﺺ ﻭ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﻓﻬﻢ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ ﻭ ﻛﻢ ﺑﻪ ﺑﻬﺘﺮﻓﻬﻤﻴﺪﻥ ﻭ ﺗﺼﻤﻴﻢ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻦ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺍﻭﺭﻭﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺗﺴﺖﻫﺎﻱ ‪ ٤‬ﮔﺰﻳﻨﻪﺍﻱ ﺍﺳﺖ ﻭ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ‪:‬‬
‫‪ -١‬ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﻪ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﺍﻭﺭﻭﻟﻮﮊﻱ‬
‫‪impotence -٢‬‬
‫‪ -٣‬ﺗﺮﻭﻣﺎﻱ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ‬
‫‪ -٤‬ﻋﻼﺋﻢ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ ﺍﺩﺭﺍﺭﻱ ﺗﺤﺘﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫‪ -٥‬ﻫﻤﺎﺗﻮﺭﻱ‬
‫‪ -٦‬ﻋﻘﻴﻤﻲ ﻣﺮﺩﺍﻥ ‪ -٧‬ﺳﻨﮓﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﻠﻴﻮﻱ‬
‫‪ -٨‬ﺑﻲﺍﺧﺘﻴﺎﺭﻱ ﺍﺩﺭﺍﺭ‬
‫‪ -٩‬ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺍﺳﻜﺮﻭﺗﻮﻡ‬
‫‪7.21‬‬
‫‪ -١٠‬ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮ ﭘﺮﻭﺳﺘﺎﺕ‬
‫‪ -١‬ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﻣﻘﺪﻣﻪﺍﻱ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﻭ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ -٢ .‬ﺳﭙﺲ ﺍﻫﺪﺍﻓﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺎ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﻌﻪ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺍﺯ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺑﺎﻳﺪ ﺑﻪ ﺩﺳﺖ ﺁﻭﺭﺩ ﺑﻴﺎﻥ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ -٣ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺳﻮﻡ ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺣﺎﻝ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ‪ ،‬ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ‪،‬‬
‫ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ‪ ،‬ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻫﺮ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻝ ﺩﺭ ﺻﻔﺤﻪﺍﻱ ﺟﺪﺍﮔﺎﻧﻪ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺕ ‪٤‬ﺟﻮﺍﺑﻲ ﺑﺮ ﺁﻥ ﻓﺮﺍﻫﻢ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺁﺧﺮ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻌﻠﻮﻣﺎﺕ ﺷﺨﺺ ‪ Score‬ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﻣﻲﺷﻮﺩ‪.‬‬
‫‪CAMPBELL'S UROLOGY‬‬
‫‪2003‬‬
‫& ‪Voiding Function‬‬
‫‪Dysfunction‬‬
‫‪Oncology‬‬
‫‪Infections and Inflammations of the‬‬
‫‪Genitourinary Tract‬‬
‫‪Pediatric Urology‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫‪Physiology, Pathology, and Management of Upper‬‬
‫‪Urinary Tract Diseases‬‬
‫‪Sexual Function and Dysfunction‬‬
‫‪Urologic Examination and Diagnostic‬‬
‫‪Techniques‬‬
‫‪Reproductive Function and‬‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫‪8.21‬‬
‫‪Anatomy‬‬
‫‪Benign Prostatic‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
82
Hyperplasia
Carcinoma of the
Prostate
Study Guide
9.21
Dysfunction
Urinary Lithiasis and Endourology
Urologic Surgery
Pathology Atlas
Radiology Atlas
Additional Media
2004
Case Studies in Genes & Disease A Primer for Clinicians (Bryan Bergeron)
10.21 Core Curriculum in Primary Care Patient Evaluation for Non-Cardiac Surgery and Gynecology and Urology (Michael K. Rees, MD, MPH)
‫ــــــ‬
.‫ ﺑﻨﺎ ﻧﻬﺎﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬Harvard ‫ﻫﺎﻳﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻣﺪﺍﻭﻡ ﺩﺳﺘﻴﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻭ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﻫﺮ ﺭﺷﺘﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺍﻋﻀﺎﺀ ﻫﻴﺌﺖ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﮕﺎﻩ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬CD ‫ ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﻪﺍﻱ ﺍﺯ‬CCC
‫ ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺕ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﭼﻬﺎﺭﮔﺰﻳﻨـﻪﺍﻱ‬،‫ ﺩﺭ ﺁﺧﺮ ﻫﺮ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲ ﻭ ﻣﺒﺤﺜﻲ‬.‫ ﻫﺮ ﻛﺪﺍﻡ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲﻫﺎ ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻣﺘﻦ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺳﺘﺮﺱ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬.‫ ﺯﻧﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺍﻭﺭﻭﮊﻱ ﺭﺍ ﮔﺮﺩﺁﻭﺭﻱ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬،‫ ﺣﺎﺿﺮ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ‬CD
:‫ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺯﻳﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‬.‫ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺧﻼﺻﻪ ﻫﺮ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻳﻚ ﻣﻘﺎﻟﻪ ﭼﺎﭘﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺠﻼﺕ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺯﻧﺎﻣﻪﻫﺎ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬.‫ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‬
‫ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﻪ ﻳﻚ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﺭﺍ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﻋﻤﺎﻝ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ )ﺑﺠﺰ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻗﻠﺐ( ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻭ ﺁﻣﺎﺩﻩ ﻛﻨﻴﻢ؟‬-١
Male impotence ‫ ﻋﻘﻴﻤﻲ ﻣﺮﺩﺍﻥ‬-٣
.(AUB) ‫ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺧﻮﻧﺮﻳﺰﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺑﻨﺮﻣﺎﻝ ﺭﺣﻢ‬-٢
11.21 Core Curriculum in Primary Care Gynecology
(Michael, Isaac Schiff, Keith, Thomas, Annekathryn)
12.21 Cystectomy and Construction an Ileocecal Neobladder for Urethral Voiding
13.21 Erectile Dysfunciton
‫ــــــ‬
(John A. Libertino MD, FACS)
‫ــــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
Current Investigation and Management (lan Eardley, Drishna Sethia)
14.21 Glenn's Urologic Surgery
(Sixth Edition)
15.21 Hot Topics in UROLOGY
(Roger S Kirby, Michael P O'Leary) (SALEKAN E-BOOK)
2004
(Sam D. Graham, James F. Glenn,) (Salekan E-Book)
Premature ejaculation Michael P O'Leary
Angiogenesis as a diagnostic and therapeutic tool in urological
malignancy
Robotic surgery and nanotechnology
2004
New developments for the treatment of erectile dysfunction: Present and Future
Erectile dysfunction and cardiovascular disease
Chemoprevention of prostate cancer
Apoptosis in the prostate
Marginally worse? Positive resection limits after radical prostatectomy
Adjuvant therapy for prostate cancer
Bisphosphonates: a potential new treatment strategy in prostate cancer I mmunotherapy for prostate
What,s hot and whats not - the medical management of BPH
Three-dimensional imaging of the upper urinary tract
Future prospects for .. nephron conservation in renalcel I carcinoma
Urethral stricture surgery: the state of the art
Reducing medical errors in urology
Management of female sexual dysfunction
Laparoscopic radical prostatectomy
Antisense therapy in oncology: current
The overactive bladder
Organ preserving therapies for penile carcinomas
2004
16.21 HOW the Human Genome Works (Edwin H. McConkey.Ph.D)
(Salkan E-Book)
17.21 Male and Famale Sexual Dysfunction (Allen D. Seftel)
.‫ﺗﻮﺻﻴﻒ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﻋﻤﻠﻜﺮﺩ ﺣﻨﺴﻲ ﻭ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ‬
. ‫ﺟﻨﺒﻪﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺭﮔﺎﻧﻴﻚ ﻭ ﺳﺎﻳﻜﻮﻟﻮﮊﻳﻚ ﻋﻤﻠﻜﺮﺩ ﺳﻜﺴﻮﺁﻝ‬
18.21 Male Hypogonadism
2004
.‫ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻭ ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻋﻤﻠﻜﺮﺩ ﺳﻜﺴﻮﺁﻝ‬
.‫ﻛﺘﺎﺑﻲ ﺟﺎﻣﻊ ﺩﺭ ﺧﺼﻮﺹ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻝ ﻋﻤﻠﻜﺮﺩ ﺳﻜﺴﻮﺁﻝ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻓﺮﺍﺩ ﻣﺬﻛﺮ ﻭ ﻣﺆﻧﺚ‬
2004
(Feiedpich Jockeahovel)
19.21 Mind Maps in pathology
___
(Michele Harrison, Peter Dervan)
20.21 Pelvic Floor Exercises for Erectile Dysfunction (Grace Dorey phD MSCP)
2004
21.21 Smith's
2004
General Urology
22.21 The Journal of UROLOGY
CD I:
CD II:
- Clinical Urology
- Clinical Urology
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
(Sixteenth edition) (Emil A. Tanagho, Jack W. Mcaninch) (Salekan E-Book)
(Spring & Summer)
-Pediatric Urology
-Pediatric Urology
(CD I, II)
-Investigative Urology
-Investigative Urology
(Official Journal of the American Urological Association)
-Urological Survey
-Urological Survey
2003
-CME Participant Assessment Test and Course Evaluation
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
‫‪83‬‬
‫)‪23.21 Urogynecology: Evaluation and Treatment of Urinary Incontinence (Bruce Rosenzweig, MD, Jeffrey S. Levy, MD, Donald R. Ostergard, MD‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫ﻼ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﺑﻮﺩﻩ ﻭ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺤﺎﺕ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﻧﻮﺷﺘﺎﺭﻱ ﻭ ﻓﺎﻳﻞ ﺻﻮﺗﻲ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮ ﺭﻭﻱ ﻫﺮ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﻭﺟﻮﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ‪.‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﻛﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻛﺎﻣ ﹰ‬
‫‪ ٤ Urogynechology‬ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﻣﺠﺰﺍ ﺩﺍﺭﺩ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‪:‬‬
‫‪-١‬‬
‫‪Introduction Definigg Incontinence‬‬
‫‪Evaluation -٢‬‬
‫‪:Introduction & Defining Incontince (١‬‬
‫‪-٣‬‬
‫‪won surgical & surgical Management‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺧﻮﺩ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ‪:‬‬
‫‪ y‬ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ‪incontince‬‬
‫‪-٤‬‬
‫‪Consideration for the OB/GYN Generalist‬‬
‫‪affected women y‬‬
‫‪Patient misconceptions y‬‬
‫‪Types of incontinernce y‬‬
‫‪incontinence awareness y‬‬
‫‪ (٢‬ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﺑﺎ ‪:incontinency‬‬
‫‪ y Voiding diary y‬ﺗﺎﺭﻳﺨﭽﻪ ‪ y‬ﻣﻌﺎﻳﻨﺎﺕ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ‬
‫‪un , u/s y‬‬
‫‪Multi-Channel urodynamics y‬‬
‫‪Cystoscopy y uroflowmetry y Postvoid residual y Cystometrogram y Pad test y‬‬
‫‪Pessary test y‬‬
‫‪ (٣‬ﺗﺪﺍﺑﻴﺮ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻭ ﻏﻴﺮ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺩﺭ ‪: Stress urinary incontinence‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺍﻟﮕﻮﺭﻳﺘﻢ ﺗﺼﻤﻴﻢﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺭﻭﺵ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ﺭﻭﺵ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻏﻴﺮﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ))‪ biofeedback, Beharioral modification‬ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﺋﻲ ‪ funetional electrieal Stimalation‬ﻭ ‪ (....‬ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ‪ :‬ﺍﺑﺘﺪﺍ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻧﺠﺎﻡ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺳﭙﺲ ‪ Procedure‬ﺍﻋﻤﺎﻝ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻗﺴﻤﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﻌﺪﻱ ﻣﻘﺎﻳﺴﻪ ﺩﺭﺻﺪ ﻣﻮﻓﻘﻴﺖ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎ ﺫﻛﺮ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻭ ﺩﺭ ﺁﺧﺮ ‪ Complication‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﺭﻭﺵﻫﺎ ﺗﻮﺿﻴﺢ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪: Consideration for the OB/Gyn Generalist (٤‬‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻓﺼﻞ‪:‬‬
‫‪urogynechology as a subdiscipline y‬‬
‫‪Non surgical therapy y‬‬
‫‪professional consideration y‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫___‬
‫‪incontinrence management to private patients y‬‬
‫‪Urodynamics y‬‬
‫)‪(Patrick J, Rowe, Frank H. Conhaire, Timothy B. Hargreave‬‬
‫‪equipment cost ySet-up requirement y‬‬
‫‪eystometry y‬‬
‫‪Allied Staff y‬‬
‫ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﮔﺮﻓﺘﻪ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪24.21 WHO Manual for the standardized investigation & diagnosis of the infertile couple‬‬
‫‪25.21 WHO Manul for the standardized investigation, diagnosis and management of the infertile male‬‬
‫)‪(Patrick J. Rowe, Frank H. Comhaire‬‬
‫ﻧﻔﺮوﻟﻮﻟﻮژی‬
‫)‪(Prof. Legndre, Martin, Helenon, Lebranchu, Halloran, Nochy‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪-immunosupperssive‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫‪-clinical section‬‬
‫‪-surgery‬‬
‫‪-Histopathology‬‬
‫)‪27.21 Core Curriculum in Primary Care Nephrology (Michael K. Rees, MD, MPH‬‬
‫‪ CCC‬ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﻪﺍﻱ ﺍﺯ ‪CD‬ﻫﺎﻳﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻛﻪ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻣﺪﺍﻭﻡ ﺩﺳﺘﻴﺎﺭﺍﻥ ﻭ ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼﻴﻦ ﻫﺮ ﺭﺷﺘﻪ ﺗﻮﺳﻂ ﺍﻋﻀﺎﺀ ﻫﻴﺌﺖ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﺩﺍﻧﺸﮕﺎﻩ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ ‪ Harvard‬ﺑﻨﺎ ﻧﻬﺎﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪ CD‬ﺣﺎﺿﺮ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺒﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻧﻮﺭﻭﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪ‪ ،‬ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲ ‪ ،‬ﻧﻤﻮﺩﺍﺭ ﻭ ﺍﻟﮕﻮﺭﻳﺘﻢﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ ﺭﺍ ﮔﺮﺩﺁﻭﺭﻱ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﻫﺮ ﻛﺪﺍﻡ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲﻫﺎ ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ ﺍﺳﻼﻳﺪﻫﺎﻱ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺷﻲ ﻣﺘﻦ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲ ﻧﻴﺰ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺳﺘﺮﺱ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺁﺧﺮ ﻫﺮ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲ ﻭ ﻣﺒﺤﺜﻲ‪ ،‬ﺳﺆﺍﻻﺕ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮﺭﺕ ﭼﻬﺎﺭﮔﺰﻳﻨﻪﺍﻱ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻛﺎﺭﺑﺮ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺳﭙﺲ ﺧﻼﺻﻪ ﻫﺮ ﺳﺨﻨﺮﺍﻧﻲ ﺑـﻪ ﺻـﻮﺭﺕ ﻳـﻚ ﻣﻘﺎﻟـﻪ ﭼـﺎﭘﻲ ﺩﺭ‬
‫ﻣﺠﻼﺕ ﻋﻠﻤﻲ ﻭ ﺭﻭﺯﻧﺎﻣﻪﻫﺎ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺯﻳﺮ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻭﺭﻭﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ‪ CD‬ﻣﻮﺟﻮﺩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪4-Clinical Application of Renal Physiology‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫‪-immunology‬‬
‫‪-imaging‬‬
‫‪26.21 Atlas of RENAL TRANSPLANTATION‬‬
‫‪3- Treatment of Mypertension-Special Case‬‬
‫‪2- Drugs vs Diet in Modifying Renal failure‬‬
‫‪1- How to erahcate Renal mass/Tumor‬‬
‫)‪28.21 PRIMER ON KIDNEY DISEASES (Second Edition) (NATINAL KINDEY FOUNDATION SCIENTIFIC ADVISORY BOARD‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻚ ﺩﺭ ﻣﺤﻴﻂ ﺍﻛﺮﻭﺑﺎﺕ ﺍﺟﺮﺍ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪ ١١‬ﻓﺼﻞ ﻭ ﻣﺸﺘﻤﻞ ﺑﺮ ‪ ٥١٧‬ﺻﻔﺤﻪ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ -١‬ﺳﺎﺧﺘﻤﺎﻥ ﻭﻓﺎﻧﻜﺸﻦ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﻭ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‪ :‬ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ‪ ،‬ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ‪ ،‬ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻓﺎﻧﻜﺸﻦ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ‪ ،U/A ،‬ﻫﻤﺎﺗﻮﺭﻱ‪ ،‬ﭘﺮﻭﺗﺌﻴﻦ ﺍﺩﺭﺍﺭﻱ‪ ،‬ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﺑﺮﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﺍﺯ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ -٢‬ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺍﺳﻴﺪ ﻭ ﺑﺎﺯ ﻭ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻚ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‪ :‬ﻫﻴﭙﻮﻭﻫﻴﺒﺮﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ‪ ،‬ﺍﺳﻴﺪﻭﺯ‪ ،‬ﺍﻟﻜﺎﻟﻮﺯﻣﺘﺎﺑﻮﻟﻴﻚ‪ ،‬ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﻣﺘﺎﺑﻮﻟﻴﺴﻢ ﭘﺘﺎﺳﻴﻢ ﻭ ﻛﻠﻴﺴﻴﻢ ‪ ،‬ﻣﻨﻴﺰﻳﻮﻡ ﻭ ﺩﻳﻮﺭﺗﻴﻚ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ Glomerular Diseuse -٣‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‪ :‬ﺍﻳﻤﻮﻧﻮﭘﺎﺗﻮﮊﻧﺰ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﺍﻱ ﮔﻠﻮﻣﺮﻭﻱ‪ MGN ،FSGN ،MPGN ،MCD ،‬ﻭ ﺳﻨﺪﺭﻭﻡ ﮔﻮﺩﭘﺎﺳﭽﺮ ﻭ ‪ IGA‬ﻧﻔﺮﻭﭘﺎﺗﺎ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ -٤‬ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺳﻴﺴﺘﻤﻴﻚ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‪ :‬ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﺩﺭ ‪ CHF‬ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﺒﺪﻱ‪ PSGN ،‬ﻭ ﺍﺳﻜﻮﻟﻴﺖﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ‪ SLE ،‬ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺭﻭﻣﺎﺗﻴﺴﻤﻲ ﻭ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ‪ ،‬ﺩﻳﺎﺑﺘﻴﻚ ﻧﻔﺮﻭﭘﺎﺗﻲ ﻭ ‪ HIV‬ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﻭ ‪ ....‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ -٥‬ﻧﺎﺭﺳﺎﺋﻲ ﺣﺎﺩ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‪ :‬ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‪ ،‬ﻋﻠﻞ‪ approach ،‬ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ -٦‬ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻫﺎﻱ ﻭ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ‪ :‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪ NSAID‬ﻭ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﻭ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻱ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻧﺎﺭﺳﺎﺋﻲ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ -٧‬ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺍﺭﺛﻲ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ‪ :‬ﻧﻔﺮﻭﭘﺎﺗﻲ ‪ ،Sickle cell‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ‪ Cystic‬ﻛﻠﻴﻪ‪ ،‬ﺳﻨﺪﺭﻭﻡ ‪ Alport‬ﻭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﺴﻴﺘﻴﻚ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ -٨‬ﻧﻔﺮﻭﭘﺎﺗﻲ ﺗﻮﺑﻮﻟﻮﺍﻳﻨﺘﺮﺳﺘﻴﺸﻴﻞ ﻭ ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﻣﺠﺎﺭﻱ ﺍﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‪ :‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﻭ ﻟﻴﺘﻴﻮﻡ ﺳﺮﺏ‪ ،‬ﺍﮔﺰﺍﻻﺕ ﺳﻨﮓﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﻠﻴﻮﻱ‪ ،‬ﻋﻔﻮﻧﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﻠﻴﻮﻱ ‪ ،‬ﻋﻔﻮﻧﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﻠﻴﻮﻱ ﺍﻧﺴﺪﺍﺩ ﻣﺠﺎﺭﻱ ﻭ ﺳﺮﻃﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﻭ ﻣﺠﺎﺭﻱ ﺁﻥ‪.‬‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ -٩‬ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﻭ ﻣﻮﺍﺭﺩ ﺧﺎﺹ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‚ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﺩﺭ ﻧﻮﺯﺍﺩﺍﻥ ﻭ ﻛﻮﺩﻛﺎﻥ‪ ،‬ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﺩﺭ ﺣﺎﻣﻠﮕﻲ‪ ،‬ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﺩﺭ ﭘﻴﺮﻱ‪.‬‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ -١٠‬ﻧﺎﺭﺳﺎﺋﻲ ﻣﺰﻣﻦ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‪ :‬ﺳﻨﺪﺭﻭﻡ ﺍﻭﺭﻣﻲ‪ ،‬ﻫﻤﻮﺩﻳﺎﻟﻴﺰ ﻭ ﻫﻤﻮﻓﻴﻠﺘﺮﺍﺳﻴﻮﻥ ﺩﻳﺎﻟﻴﺰ ﺻﻔﺎﺗﻲ‪ ،‬ﭘﻴﺶﺁﮔﻬﻲ ﻭ ﺗﻐﺬﻳﻪ ‪ ،CRF‬ﺗﻈﺎﻫﺮﺍﺕ ﻗﻠﺒﻲ‪ ،‬ﻋﺼﺒﻲ‪ ،‬ﻫﻤﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‪ ،‬ﻏﺪﺩﻱ ‪ CRF‬ﻭ ﭘﻴﻮﻧﺪ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﻭ ﭼﮕﻮﻧﮕﻲ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﺩﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ‪.‬‬
‫ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ -١١‬ﻓﺸﺎﺭ ﺧﻮﻥ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‪ :‬ﭘﺎﻧﻮﮊﻧﺰ‪ ،‬ﻓﺸﺎﺭ ﺧﻮﻥ ﺍﺳﺎﺳﻲ‪ ،‬ﻓﺸﺎﺭ ﺧﻮﻥ ‪ Renovascular‬ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻓﺸﺎﺭ ﺧﻮﻥ‪.‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
‫‪84‬‬
‫)‪Seven Edition (Barry M. Brenner) (E-Book‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪(Volume 1-2‬‬
‫‪29.21 The Kidney‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺩﻭ ﺟﻠﺪ ﺍﺳﺖ ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻧﺘﻬﺎﻱ ﻫﺮ ﺑﺨﺶ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ‪ ،‬ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻃﻪ ﺑﺎ ﻭﺿﻮﺡ ﺑﺎﻻ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻛﻴﻔﻴﺖ ﺑﺎﻻﻱ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ‪ ،‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﺍﻣﻜﺎﻥ ﺭﺍ ﻓﺮﺍﻫﻤﻲ ﻣﻲﺳﺎﺯﺩ ﺗﺎ ﺍﺳﺘﻔﺎﺩﻩ ﺍﺯ ﺁﻧﻬﺎ ﺩﺭ ﺳﻤﻴﻨﺎﺭﻫﺎ ﻭ ﻫﻤﻴﻨﻄﻮﺭ ﺟﻬﺖ ﺁﻣﻮﺯﺵ ﻣﻨﺎﺳﺐ ﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﺟﻠﺪ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﺩﻭ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺍﺳﺖ‪:‬‬
‫‪ -١‬ﻗﺴﻤﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ ﻃﺒﻴﻌﻲ ﻭ ﻋﻤﻠﻜﺮﺩ ﻫﺮ ﻳﻚ ﺍﺯ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺨﺶﻫﺎ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺨﺶ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺜﻲ ﻫﻤﭽﻮﻥ ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ‪ ،‬ﺭﺷﺪ ﻭ ﺑﻠﻮﻍ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ‪ ،‬ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﻣﺘﺎﺑﻮﻟﻴﻚ ﺍﻧﺘﻘﺎﻝ ﻳﻮﻥ‪ ،‬ﺟﺮﻳﺎﻥ ﺧﻮﻥ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ‪ ،‬ﺍﻧﺘﻘﺎﻝ ﻛﻠﻴﻮﻱ ﮔﻠﻮﻛﺰ‪ ،‬ﺍﺳﻴﺪ ﺁﻣﻴﻨﻪ‪ ،‬ﺳﺪﻳﻢ‪ ،....‬ﻛﻨﺘﺮﻝ ﺗﺮﺷﺢ ﻛﻠﻴﻮﻱ ﭘﺘﺎﺳﻴﻢ ﻭ ‪ ....‬ﺩﻫﻬﺎ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﻣﻄﺮﺡ ﺷﺪﻩﺍﻧﺪ‪.‬‬
‫‪ -٢‬ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻝ ﺩﺭ ﻛﻨﺘﺮﻝ ﺣﺠﻢ ﻣﺎﻳﻊ ﺑﺪﻥ‪ :‬ﻛﻨﺘﺮﻝ ﺣﺠﻢ ﺧﺎﺭﺝ ﺳﻠﻮﻟﻲ ﻭ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺍﺩﻡ‪ ،‬ﻋﻮﺍﻣﻞ ﻣﺆﺛﺮ ﺑﺮ ﻫﻤﻮﺳﺘﺎﺯ ﻣﺎﻳﻊ‪ ،‬ﻓﺎﻛﺘﻮﺭﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺆﺛﺮ ﺑﺮ ﺗﻮﺑﺮﻝ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ‪ ،AVP ،‬ﭘﺮﻭﺳﺘﺎﮔﻼﻧﺪﻳﻦﻫﺎ‪ ،‬ﺍﺩﻡ ﺩﺭ ﺳﻴﺮﻭﺯ‪ ،‬ﺍﺩﻡ ﺩﺭ ‪ ،CHF‬ﺩﻳﺎﺑﺖ ﺑﻲﻣﺰﻩ ﻭ ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﺁﻥ‪ ،‬ﻫﻴﭙﻮﻧﺎﺗﺮﻣﻲ ﻭ ﺍﻳﺘﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﺁﻥ‪ ،‬ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺍﺳـﻴﺪ‬
‫ﻭ ﺑﺎﺯ‪ ،‬ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﺗﻮﺍﺯﻥ ﭘﺘﺎﺳﻴﻢ‪ ،‬ﺑﺮﺧﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺎ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﻣﺒﺘﻼ ﺑﻪ ﻫﻴﭙﻮﻭﻫﻴﭙﺮﻛﺎﺳﻤﻲ‪ ،‬ﺍﺧﺘﻼﻻﺕ ﻛﻠﺴﻴﻢ ﻭ ﻓﺴﻔﺮ ﻭ ‪ ....‬ﺩﻫﻬﺎ ﻣﻄﻠﺐ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺨﺶ‪ ،‬ﺩﺭ ﺩﺳﺘﺮﺱ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﻨﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺟﻠﺪ ‪ ٢‬ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ‪ ٣‬ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺍﺳﺖ‪:‬‬
‫ﺍﻟﻒ( ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻓﻴﺰﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ‪ :‬ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺜﻲ ﭼﻮﻥ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﮔﻠﻮﻣﺮﻭﻟﻲ ﺍﻭﻟﻴﻪ ﻭ ﺛﺎﻧﻮﻳﻪ‪ ،‬ﻋﻔﻮﻧﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺩﺭﺍﺭﻱ‪ ،‬ﻧﻔﺮﻭﭘﺎﺗﻲ ﺗﻮﻛﺴﻴﻚ ﻭ ‪ ....‬ﺩﻫﻬﺎ ﻣﻄﻠﺐ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ‪.‬‬
‫ﺏ( ﭘﺎﺗﻮﮊﻧﺰ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ‪ :‬ﻧﺌﻮﭘﻼﺯﻱ ﻛﻠﻴﻪ‪ ،‬ﻫﻴﭙﺮﺗﺎﻧﺴﻴﻮﻥ )ﺍﻭﻟﻴﻪ ‪ (renovascular‬ﺍﻭﺭﻱ‪ ،‬ﺍﺳﺘﺌﻮﺩﺳﻴﺘﺮﻭﻓﻲ ﺭﻧﺎﻝ ﻭ ‪ ...‬ﺍﺯ ﺟﻤﻠﻪ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻣﻄﺮﺡ ﺷﺪﻩ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﻨﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺝ( ﺑﺮﺧﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺎ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭ ﻣﺒﺘﻼ ﺑﻪ ﻧﺎﺭﺳﺎﻳﻲ ﻛﻠﻴﻮﻱ‪ :‬ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﺩﻳﺎﻟﻴﺰ‪ ،‬ﺍﻳﻤﻮﻧﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﭘﻴﻮﻧﺪ‪ ،‬ﺍﻧﻮﺍﻉ ﺩﺍﺭﻭﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﻳﻮﺭﺗﻴﻚ ﻭ ‪ ....‬ﺩﺭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺑﺤﺚ ﺷﺪﻫﺎﻧﺪ‪.‬‬
‫‪ : ٢٢‬ﮐﺎﻧﺴﺮ‬
‫ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ‪CD‬‬
‫ﺳﺎﻝ ﺍﻧﺘﺸﺎﺭ‬
‫‪2002‬‬
‫)‪(Jay Y. Gillenwater, john T. Grayhack, Stuart S. Howards, Michael E. Mitchell‬‬
‫‪Adult and Pediatric Urology‬‬
‫‪1.22‬‬
‫‪Adult Urology Continued‬‬
‫‪Pediatric Urology‬‬
‫‪Video Library‬‬
‫)‪2.22 American Cancer Society Atlas of Clinical Oncology (Cancer of the Female Lowe Genital Tract) (Patricia J. Eifel, M.D. Charles Levenback, M.D.‬‬
‫‪Adult Urology‬‬
‫‪2001‬‬
‫)‪(SALEKAN E-BOOK‬‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺍﻟﻜﺘﺮﻭﻧﻴﻜﻲ ﺑﻪ ﮔﻔﺘﺔ ﻣﺆﻟﻔﻴﻦ ﺑﻪ ﻣﻨﻈﻮﺭ ﻓﺮﺍﻫﻢﻛﺮﺩﻥ ﻣﺮﻭﺭ ﻭ ﺁﻧﺎﻟﻴﺰ ﺑﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‪ ،‬ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ‪ ،‬ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮﻫﺎ ﺩﺳﺘﮕﺎﻩ ﺗﻨﺎﺳﻠﻲ ﺗﺤﺘﺎﻧﻲ ﺯﻧﺎﻥ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺁﺧﺮﻳﻦ ﺗﻐﻴﻴﺮﺍﺕ ﺩﺭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﺬﻳﺮﻓﺘﻪﺷﺪﻩ ﺑﺮﺍﻱ ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮ ﻣﻬﺎﺟﻢ ‪ Cervix‬ﻭ ﻳﻚ ﺑﺎﺯﻧﮕﺮﻱ ﻛﻠﻲ‬
‫ﺩﺭ ﻫﻤﻪ ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﺁﻭﺭﺩﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪Epidemiology‬‬
‫‪Diagnostic Imaging‬‬
‫‪Pathology‬‬
‫‪Screening for Neoplasms‬‬
‫‪Molecular Biology‬‬
‫‪Treatment of Squamous Intraepithelial‬‬
‫‪Lesions‬‬
‫‪Anatomy and Natural‬‬
‫‪History‬‬
‫‪2001‬‬
‫‪Invasive Carcinoma of the Cervix‬‬
‫‪Surgical Treatment of Invasive Cervical‬‬
‫‪Cancer‬‬
‫‪Radiation Therapy for Invasive Cervical‬‬
‫‪Cancer‬‬
‫‪Radical Management of Recurrent Cervical‬‬
‫‪Cancer‬‬
‫‪Management of Vaginal Cancer‬‬
‫‪Surgery for Vulvar Cancer‬‬
‫‪Chemotherapy in Curative‬‬
‫‪Management‬‬
‫‪Radiation Therapy for Vulvar Cancer‬‬
‫‪Post-treatment Surveillance‬‬
‫‪Acute Effects of Radiation Therapy‬‬
‫‪Palliative Care‬‬
‫‪Late Complications of Pelvic Radiation‬‬
‫‪Therapy‬‬
‫)‪American Cancer Society Atlas of Clinical Oncology Skin Cancer (Arthur J. Sober, MD, Frank G. Haluka, MD, phD) (Bc Decker Inc‬‬
‫‪3.22‬‬
‫ﻫﻤﭽﻨﺎﻧﻜﻪ ﻭﺍﺭﺩ ﻗﺮﻥ ‪ ٢١‬ﻣﻲﺷﻮﻳﻢ ﺷﺎﻳﻊﺗﺮﻳﻦ ﺷﻜﻞ ﺳﺮﻃﺎﻥﻫﺎ‪ ،‬ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻭ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻠﺖ ﺍﻳﻨﻜﻪ ﺑﺮ ﺧﻼﻑ ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮﻫﺎﻱ ﺩﻳﮕﺮ‪ ،‬ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻮﺳﺖ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻌﺮﺽ ﺩﻳﺪ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﺳﺮﻳﻌﺘﺮ ﻭ ﺭﺍﺣﺖﺗﺮ ﻗﺎﺑﻞ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺩﺭ ﻧﺘﻴﺠﻪ ﺩﺍﻧﺶ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻭ ﺟﻠـﻮﮔﻴﺮﻱ ﺍﺯ ﺳـﺮﻃﺎﻥﻫـﺎﻱ ﭘﻮﺳـﺘﻲ‬
‫ﻣﻮﺟﺐ ﻧﮕﺎﺭﺵ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﮔﺮﺩﻳﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻣﺸﺨﺼﺔ ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺗﺄﻛﻴﺪ ﺑﺮ ﻧﻤﺎﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ‪ Skin cancer‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﭼﻮﻥ ﻋﻠﻢ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﺑﺮ ﭘﺎﻳﺔ ﻣﺸﺎﻫﺪﻩ ﺑﻨﺎ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ ،‬ﺑﻨﺎﺑﺮﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺩﺍﺭﺍﻱ ﺗﺼﺎﻭﻳﺮ ﺯﻳﺎﺩ ﺑﺎ ﻛﻴﻔﻴﺖ ﺑﺴﻴﺎﺭ ﺑﺎﻻﺳﺖ ﻭ ﻫﺮ ﺟﺎ ﻛﻪ ﻋﻜﺲﻫﺎ ﺩﺭ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻣﻄﻠﺐ ﻛﻤﻚﻛﻨﻨﺪﻩ ﻧﺒﻮﺩﻩ ‪ text‬ﺍﺿﺎﻓﻪ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻭ ﻋﻼﻭﻩ ﺑﺮ‬
‫ﺍﻳﻦ ﻧﻜﺎﺕ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ‪ ،‬ﺍﭘﻴﺪﻣﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ‪ ،‬ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻭ ﭘﻴﺸﮕﻴﺮﻱ ﺩﺭ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﮔﻨﺠﺎﻧﺪﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺑﻪ ‪ ٤‬ﻗﺴﻤﺖ ﺗﻘﺴﻴﻢ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪:‬‬
‫ﺑﺨﺶ ‪ Basic Concept :١‬ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺍﭘﻴﺪﻣﻴﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ‪ ،‬ﮊﻧﺘﻴﻚ ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﻭ ﻋﻮﺍﻣﻞ ﺧﻄﺮﺯﺍ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺑﺨﺶ ‪ :٢‬ﺗﻈﺎﻫﺮﺍﺕ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ‪ :‬ﺩﺭ ﻫﺮ ﻓﺼﻞ ﺟﺪﺍﮔﺎﻧﻪ ﻧﻤﺎﻱ ﺑﺎﻟﻴﻨﻲ ﻣﻼﻧﻮﻡ )ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ (٤‬ﻭ ‪) BCE‬ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ (٥‬ﻭ ‪) Scc‬ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ (٦‬ﻟﻤﻔﻮﻡﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ )ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ (٧‬ﻭ ﻣﺎﻟﻴﻨﮕﻨﺎﻧﺴﻲﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﻧﺎﺷﺎﻳﻊ )ﻓﺼﻞ ‪) Merckle cell Carcinoma (٨:١‬ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ( ٨:٢‬ﻭ ﻛﺎﭘﻮﺳﻲ ﺳﺎﺭﻛﻮﻡ )ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ (٨:٣‬ﺍﺷﺎﺭﻩ ﺷﺪﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫ﺑﺨﺶ ‪ Management : ٣‬ﻛﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ‪ :‬ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚ ﺑﻴﻮﭘﺴﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻣﻼﻧﻮﻡ )ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ، (٩‬ﺗﺪﺍﺑﻴﺮ ﺟﺮﺍﺣﻲ ﻣﻼﻧﻮﻡ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ )ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ،(١١‬ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﻟﻤﻒﻧﻮﺩﻫﺎ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻮﭘﺴﻲ ﺍﺯ ﻟﻤﻒﻧﻮﺩ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻼﻧﻮﻡ )ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ adjuvant therapy ،(١١‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻼﻧﻮﻡ )ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ ،(١٢‬ﺍﻳﻤﻮﻧﻮﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻼﻧﻮﻡ )ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ (١٣‬ﻭ ﻛﻤﻮﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ ‪ ،‬ﺳـﻴﺘﻮﻛﻴﻦ ﺗﺮﺍﭘـﻲ ﻭ ﺑﻴﻮﻛﻤـﻮﺗﺮﺍﭘﻲ ﺩﺭ ﻣﻼﻧـﻮﻡ )ﻓﺼـﻞ‬
‫‪ (١٤‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻫﻤﭽﻨﻴﻦ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻥ ﻟﻤﻔﻮﻡ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﺍﻭﻟﻴﻪ ]‪) [MF‬ﻓﺼﻞ ‪ (١٧‬ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫ﺑﺨﺶ ‪ : ٤‬ﺩﺭ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﭘﻴﺸﮕﻴﺮﻱ ﺍﺯ ﻛﺎﻧﺴﺮﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﻮﺳﺘﻲ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻛﺮﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪.‬‬
‫‪2000‬‬
‫)‪Atlas of Clinical oncology Breast Cancer (American Cancer Society ) (David J Winchester, MD, David P Winchester, MD‬‬
‫‪y Breast Cancer Risk and Management: Chemoprevention, Surgery, and Surveillance‬‬
‫‪4.22‬‬
‫‪yGenetics, Natural History, and DNA-Based Genetic Counseling in Hereditary Brast Cancer‬‬
‫‪y Screening and Diagnostic Imaging yImaging-Directed y Breast Biopsy yHistophathology of Malignant Breast Disease‬‬
‫‪yUnusual Breast Pathology y Prognostic and Predictive Markers in Breast‬‬
‫‪Cancer‬‬
‫‪y Surgical Management of Ductal Carcinoma In Situ‬‬
‫‪yEvaluation and Surgical Management of Stage I and II Breast Cancer y Locally Advanced Breast Cancer y Breast Reconstruction‬‬
‫)‪5.22 Atlas of Clinical Oncology Cancer of the Lower Gastrointestinal Tract (Christopher G. Willett, MD‬‬
‫‪6.22 Atlas of DIAGNOSTIC ONCOLOGY‬‬
‫‪2001‬‬
‫ــــ‬
‫ــــ‬
‫)‪CANCER Principles & Practice of Oncology (7th Edition) (Vincent T. Devita, Jr., Samuel Hellman, Steven A. Rosenberg‬‬
‫‪7.22‬‬
‫ــــــ‬
‫)‪Color atlas of Cancer Cytology (Third Edition) (Masayoshi Takahashi‬‬
‫‪8.22‬‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
85
2000
‫ــــ‬
2003
‫ــــ‬
2004
9.22 Gastric Cancer Diagnosis and Treatment (An interactive Training Program) (J.R. Siewert, D.Kelsen, K. Maruyama) (Springer)
10.22 Handbook of Cancer Combination Chemotherapy
11.22 Holland.frei CANCER 6 MEDICINE (volume 2)
(Danald W. Kufe, MD, Raphael E. Pollock, Md, PHD)
12.22 Human Brain Cancer: Diagnostic Decisions (Lauren A. Langford, MD, Dr. med,) American Medical Association
13.22 PHYSICANAS' CANCER CHEMOTHERAPHY DRUG MANUAL
- Principles of Cancer Chemotheraphy
- Common Chemotherapy Regimens in Clinical Practice
14.22 Thyroid Cancer 4
(Jones & Bartlett)
- Physician's Cancer Chemotherapy Drug Manual 2004
- Guidelines for Chemotherapy and Dosing Modifications
- Antimetic Agents for the Treatment of Chemotherapy-Induced Nausea and Vomiting
& Asso Schilddruse (Werner Langsteger, Paul Sungler, Peter Lind, Bruno Niederle)
2004
‫ﻧﻮﻳﺴﻨﺪﻩ‬/‫ﺍﺳﺎﻣﻲ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ‬
‫ﻗﻴﻤﺖ )ﺭﻳﺎﻝ( ﺗﻌﺪﺍﺩ ﻣﺠﻠﺪﺍﺕ‬
RADIOLOGY
1.
Pediatric Radiology (The Requestions) (Hans Blickman)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
200,000
2.
Differential Diagnosis in Conventioanl Gastrointestinal Readiology (Francis A. Burgener, Marti Konnano)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
240,000
3.
Dynamic Radiology of the Abdomen: Normal and Pathologic Anatomy (Morton A. Meyers, 5th Edition Springer Verla)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
500,000
4.
Primary Care Radiology (Mettker, Guibert EAU. VO.SS', URBINA)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
250,000
5.
Textbook of Uroradiology (N. Reed Dunnick, MD, Carl M. Sandler, Md, Jeffrey H. Newhouse, MD, Estephen Amis', JR., MD)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
400,000
6.
Head and Neck Radiology a Teaching File (Anthony a Mancusd, Hiroya Ojiri, Ronald G. Quisling)(Lippincottt Williams & Wilkins)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
400,000
7.
Essentials of Skeletal Radiology (Terry R. Yochum; Lindsay J. Rowe)
‫ﺩﻭ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
700,000
8.
Textbook of Radiology & Imaging (David Stutton) (2003)
‫ﺩﻭ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
(‫)ﺍﻭﺭﮊﻳﻨﺎﻝ‬
1,400,000
9.
Radiology Reviw Manual (Fourth Edition) (Wolfgang Dahnert) (2003)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
400,000
10. Forensic Radiology (B. G. Brogdon MD)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
300,000
11. The Core Curriculum Neuroradiology (Mauricio Castillo) (Lippincott Williams & Wilkins)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
400,000
12. Diagnostic Neuroradiology (Anne G. Osborn) (Mosby)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
500,000
13. Bone and Joint Disorders (Conventional Radiologic Differentioal Diagnosis) (Francis A. Burgener Marti Kormano)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
300,000
14. Atlas of Radiologic Measurement (Theodore E. Keats, Christopher Sistrom) (Mosby)
‫ ﺻﻔﺤﻪ ﮔﺮدآوری ﮔﺮدﯾﺪه و ﻣﯽﺗﻮاﻧﺪ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻨﻮان ﯾﮏ اﺑﺰار ﺑﺴﯿﺎر ﻣﻬﻢ در ﺗﻔﺴﯿﺮ ﻧﻮاﺣﯽﻫـﺎی‬630 ‫ ﻣﺒﺤﺚ و در‬14 ‫ ﻗﺴﻤﺖ اﻋﻈﻢ ﺟﺪاول و ﻧﻤﻮدارﻫﺎی ﻣﻌﻢ ﮐﺎرﺑﺮدی ﻣﺮﺗﺒﻂ ﺑﺎ اﻧﺪازهﮔﯿﺮیﻫﺎی رادﯾﻮﻟﻮژی و ﺗﺼﻮﯾﺮﺑﺮداری در‬، ‫در اﯾﻦ ﮐﺘﺎب‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
400,000
:‫ ﻓﺼﻮل اﯾﻦ ﮐﺘﺎب ﺑﻪ ﻗﺮار ذﯾﻞ ﻣﯽﺑﺎﺷﻨﺪ‬.‫ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻣﻮرد اﺳﺘﻔﺎده ﻗﺮار ﮔﯿﺮد‬
‫ اﻧﺪام ﺗﺤﺘﺎﻧﯽ‬- Hip ‫ ﻟﮕﻦ و ﻣﻔﺎﺻﻞ‬- ‫ اﻧﺪام ﻓﻮﻗﺎﻧﯽ‬- ‫ ﺳﺘﻮن ﻓﻘﺮات و ﻣﺤﺘﻮﯾﺎت آن‬- ‫ ﻣﺤﺘﯿﺎت ادرﺑﯿﺖ ﺻﻮرت و ﮔﺮدن‬- ‫ ﺟﻤﺠﻤﻪ ﺣﻔﺮه ادرﺑﯿﺖ و ﺳﯿﻨﻮسﻫﺎی ﭘﺎراﻧﺎﻣﺎل‬- ‫ ﻣﺤﺘﻮﯾﺎت اﯾﻨﺘﺮاﮐﺮاﻧﯿﺎل‬‫ ﺳﯿﺴﺘﻢ ﻋﺮوﻗﯽ و ﻟﻨﻔﺎوی‬- ‫ ﺑﯿﻮﻣﺘﺮی و ﭘﻠﻮﺳﯿﺘﺮی در ﺟﺮﯾﺎن ﺣﺎﻣﻠﮕﯽ‬‫ ﺗﻨﺎﺳﻠﯽ‬-‫ دﺳﺘﮕﺎه ادراری‬- ‫ دﺳﺘﮕﺎه ﮔﻮارش‬- ‫ ﻣﺪﯾﺎﺳﺘﻦ و ﺟﻨﺐ‬،‫ رﯾﻪﻫﺎ‬،‫ ﺗﻮراﮐﺲ‬‫ ﻗﻠﺐ و ﻋﺮوق ﺑﺰرگ‬‫ ﺑﻠﻮغ اﺳﮑﻠﺘﯽ‬-
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
‫‪86‬‬
‫‪400,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪15. Radiobiology for the Radiologist (Fifthe Edition‬‬
‫‪470,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪16. Anatomy Positioning & Procedures Workbook (Steven G. Hayes‬‬
‫‪700,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪17. Atlas of Normal Roentgen Variants That May Simulate disease (Seven Edition) (Theodere E. Keats & Mark W. Anderson) (Mosby‬‬
‫‪50,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫ﻣﺒﺎﻧﻲ ﺍﺳﺎﺳﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ ﻭ ﺗﺠﻬﻴﺰﺍﺕ ﺁﻥ )ﺗﺮﺟﻤﻪ ﻭ ﮔﺮﺩﺁﻭﺭﻱ‪ :‬ﺩﻛﺘﺮ ﭘﺮﻭﻳﻦ ﻋﻠﻲﭘﻮﺭ( ‪18.‬‬
‫‪180,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺼﻲ ﻭ ﺩﺭﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﭘﺴﺘﺎﻥ )ﺩﻛﺘﺮ ﻣﻌﺼﻮﻣﻪ ﮔﻴﺘﻲ‪ ،‬ﺩﻛﺘﺮ ﺍﻟﻬﺎﻡ ﺭﺣﻴﻤﻴﺎﻥ‪ ،‬ﺩﻛﺘﺮ ﻋﻠﻲ ﻋﺮﺏ ﺧﺮﺩﻣﻨﺪ( ‪19.‬‬
‫‪50,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫ﺷﺎﻳﻌﺘﺮﻳﻦﻫﺎ‪ ،‬ﻧﺎﺩﺭﺗﺮﻳﻦﻫﺎ‪ ،‬ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻓﺘﺮﺍﻗﻲ‪ ،‬ﺑﻬﺘﺮﻳﻦ ﺭﻭﺵ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎ )ﺗﺄﻟﻴﻒ‪ :‬ﺩﻛﺘﺮ ﺍﺣﻤﺪ ﻋﻠﻴﺰﺍﺩﻩ( ‪20.‬‬
‫‪380,000‬‬
‫ﺩﻭ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪21. Radiographic Anatomy Positioning and Procedures Workbook (Second Edition) (volume I , II) (Steven G. Hayes, Sr.‬‬
‫‪600,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪22. Gastrointestinal Radiology A Pattern Approach (4 Edition‬‬
‫‪250,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪23. Imaging Atlas of Human Anatomy (Third Edition) (Jamie Weir, Peter H. Abrahams) (2003‬‬
‫‪600,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪24. Pediatric Sonography (Third Edition) (Thieme) (Francis A. Burgener, Steven P. Meyers) (2004‬‬
‫‪500,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪25. Musculoskeletal Imaging Companion (Thomas H. Berquist) (2002‬‬
‫‪550,000‬‬
‫ﺟﻠﺪ ﺍﻭﻝ‬
‫‪600,000‬‬
‫ﺟﻠﺪ ﺩﻭﻡ‬
‫‪500,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪28. The Neurologic Examination (Dejong's) (William W. Campbell) (2005‬‬
‫‪800,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪29. Abrams' Angiography Interventional Radiology (Stanley Baum, Michael J. Pentecost) (2006‬‬
‫‪350,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪30. The Practice of Ultrasound A Step-by-Step Guide to Abdominal Scanning (Berthold Block) (Thieme‬‬
‫‪1,200,000‬‬
‫ﺩﻭﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫‪350,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪32. Ultrasonography in Urology A Practical Approach to Clinical Problems (Edward I. Bluth-Peter H.‬‬
‫‪70,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫‪33. Seminars in Ultrasound CT and MR‬‬
‫‪1,800,000‬‬
‫ﺩﻭ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪34. Diagnostic Ultrasound (Rumack, Wilson, Charboneau) (2005‬‬
‫)‪(Lippincott Williams & Wilkins) (2003‬‬
‫‪th‬‬
‫)‪(Ronald L. Eisenberg‬‬
‫اﯾﻦ ﮐﺘﺎب ﻣﺠﻤﻮﻋﮥ ﮐﺎﻣﻠﯽ از ﻣﺒﺎﺣﺚ ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ ﻣﺮﺗﺒﻂ ﺑﺎ ﺗﺼﻮﯾﺮﺑﺮداری دﺳﺘﮕﺎه ﮔﻮارش ﻣﯽﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ اﯾﻦ ﮐﺘﺎب در ‪ 80‬ﻣﺒﺤﺚ ‪ 10 ،‬ﻓﺼﻞ ﺗﺪوﯾﻦ ﮔﺮدﯾﺪه و ﺣﺪود ‪ 1200‬ﺻﻔﺤﻪ ﺣﺠﻢ دارد روش اراﺋﻪ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ در اﯾﻦ ﮐﺘﺎب ﺑﻪ‬
‫ﺻﻮرت ‪ Pattern Approach‬ﺑﻮده و ﺧﻮاﻧﻨﺪه را ﻗﺎدر ﻣﯽﺳﺎزد ﺗﺎ اﻟﮕﻮﻫﺎی ﺗﺼﻮﯾﺮﺑﺮداری ﻣﺨﺘﻠﻒ دﺳﺘﮕﺎه ﮔﻮارش را دﺳﺘﻪﺑﻨﺪی ﻧﻤﻮده و ﺗﺸﺨﯿﺺﻫﺎی اﻓﺘﺮاﻗﯽ ﻫﺮ ﮐﺪام را ﺑﻪ ﺧﻮﺑﯽ از دﯾﮕﺮ اﻟﮕﻮﻫﺎ ﺗﻤﯿﺰ دﻫﺪ‪.‬‬
‫)‪(2004‬‬
‫)‪(2004‬‬
‫)‪26. Surgical Neuroangiography 2.1 (A. Berenstein, P. Lasjaunias, K.G. TER Brugge) (Springer) (Second Edition‬‬
‫)‪27. Surgical Neuroangiography 2.2 (A. Berenstein, P. Lasjaunias, K.G. TER Brugge) (Springer) (Second Edition‬‬
‫)‪(Mitchell P. fink, Edward Abraham, Jean-Louis Vincent, Patrick M. Kochanek) (2005‬‬
‫)‪31. Textbook of CRITICAL CARE (FIFTH EDITION‬‬
‫‪SONOGRAPHY‬‬
‫ﭼﺎپ اول اﯾﻦ ﮐﺘﺎب ﮐﻪ در ﺳﺎل ‪ 1991‬ﺑﻪ ﭘﺎﯾﺎن رﺳﯿﺪ و ﺑﻪ ﻋﻨﻮان راﯾﺞﺗﺮﯾﻦ ﻣﺮﺟﻊ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮاﻓﯽ در ﺟﻬﺎن ﻣﯽﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬از آﻧﺠﺎ ﮐﻪ داﻧﺶ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮاﻓﯽ در ﻃﻮل ‪ 6‬ﺳﺎل ﮔﺬﺷﺘﻪ ﭘﯿﺸﺮﻓﺖﻫﺎی ﺑﺴﯿﺎری داﺷﺘﻪ اﺳﺖ ﻧﯿﺎز ﺑﻪ ﺑﺎزﻧﮕﺮی در اﯾﻦ ﮐﺘﺎب اﺣﺴﺎس ﻣﯽﺷﺪ‪.‬‬
‫در اﯾﻦ ﮐﺘﺎب ﺑﯿﺶ از ﯾﮑﺼﺪ ﻧﻮﯾﺴﻨﺪه ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺺ درﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮاﻓﯽ ﺗﻼش ﮐﺮدهاﻧﺪ ﺗﺎ آﺧﺮﯾﻦ دﺳﺘﺎوردﻫﺎی داﻧﺶ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮاﻓﯽ در زﻣﯿﻨﻪ ﺗﺼﻮﯾﺮﺑﺮداری‪ ،‬ﺗﺸﺨﯿﺺ و ﮐﺎرﺑﺮد آﻧﻬﺎ را ﺑﻪ رﺷﺘﻪ ﺗﺤﺮﯾﺮ درآوردهاﻧﺪ‪ .‬ﻓﺼـﻮل ﮐﺘـﺎب ﺷـﺎﻣﻞ ﻫﯿﺴﺘﺮوﺳـﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮاﻓﯽ ﻻﭘﺎروﺳـﮑﻮﭘﯿﮏ ﺳـﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮاﻓﯽ و‬
‫ﺗﮑﻨﯿﮏﻫﺎی ﺑﯿﻮﭘﯽ ﺗﺤﺖ ﻫﺪاﯾﺖ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮاﻓﯽ ﻧﯿﺰ ﻣﯽﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬در ﮐﻠﯽ ‪ %25‬ﺑﻪ ﺣﺠﻢ ﮐﻠﯽ ﮐﺘﺎب اﻓﺰوده ﺷﺪه اﺳﺖ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻋﻤﺪه اﻓﺰاﯾﺶ ﺣﺠﻢ ﻣﺮﺑﻮط ﺑﻪ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮاﻓﯽ زﻧﺎن و زاﯾﻤﺎن ﻣﯽﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﺗﻌﺪاد زﯾﺎدی از ﺗﺼﺎوﯾﺮ ﺟﺎﯾﮕﺰﯾﻦ ﺷﺪهاﻧﺪ و ﺑﯿﺶ از ‪ 450‬ﺗﺼﻮﯾﺮ ﺗﻤﺎم رﻧﮕﯽ در وﯾﺮاﯾﺶ ﺟﺪﯾﺪ وﺟـﻮد‬
‫دارد‪ .‬ﺗﻐﯿﯿﺮات ﺟﺪﯾﺪی ﺑﺮای ﺳﻬﻮﻟﺖ ﺧﻮاﻧﺪن و درک ﻣﻄﻠﺐ در ﺳﺎﺧﺘﺎر وﯾﺮاﯾﺶ اﻧﺠﺎم ﺷﺪه اﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﮐﺪﺑﻨﺪیﻫﺎی رﻧﮕﯽ ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ و ﺟﺪاول ‪ highlight‬ﺷﺪه ﺑﺮای ﻧﮑﺎت ﮐﻠﯿﺪی ﺗﺸﺨﯿﺼﯽ اﻧﺠﺎم ﺷﺪه اﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﻣﻄﺎﻟﺐ ﻣﻬﻢﺗﺮ درﺷﺖﺗﺮ ﻧﻮﺷﺘﻪ ﺷﺪهاﻧﺪ و ﻣﺮاﺟﻊ اﺳﺘﻔﺎده ﺷﺪه ﺑﻪ ﺻﻮرت دﻗﯿـﻖﺗـﺮی‬
‫ﺑﺎزﻧﻮﯾﺴﯽ ﺷﺪهاﻧﺪ‪ .‬اﯾﻦ ﮐﺘﺎب در دو ﺟﻠﺪ ﻧﻮﺷﺘﻪ ﺷﺪه اﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺟﻠﺪ اول ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﭘﻨﺞ ﻓﺼﻞ ﻣﯽﺑﺎﺷﺪ ﻓﺼﻞ اول ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﻓﯿﺰﯾﮏ و اﺛﺮات ﺑﯿﻮﻟﻮژﯾﮏ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮاﻓﯽ و ﻣﻮاد ﺣﺎﺟﺐ در ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮاﻓﯽ ﻣﯽﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻓﺼﻞ دوم ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺳـﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮاﻓﯽ ﺳـﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮاﻓﯽ ﺷـﮑﻢ و ﻟﮕـﻦ‪ ،‬ﺗـﻮراﮐﺲ و روشﻫـﺎی ﻣﺪاﺧﻠـﻪای‬
‫)‪ (interrcntional‬ﻣﯽﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪ .‬ﻓﺼﻞ ﺳﻮم ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮاﻓﯽ ‪ Intraoperative‬و ﻻﭘﺎراﺳﮑﻮﭘﯿﮏ را ﺷﺮح ﻣﯽدﻫﺪ ﻓﺼﻞ ﭼﻬﺎرم ﺗﺼﻮﯾﺮﺑﺮداری اﻋﻀﺎء ﮐﻮﭼﮏ )‪ (small part‬را اراﺋﻪ ﻣﯽﮐﻨﺪ‪ .‬ﮐﻪ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﮐﺎروﺗﯿﺪ‪ ،‬ﺷﺮﯾﺎنﻫﺎ و ورﯾﺪﻫﺎی ﻣﺤﯿﻄﯽ اﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺟﻠﺪ دوم ﮐﺘﺎب ﺷـﺎﻣﻞ ﻓﺼـﻞ ﭘـﻨﺠﻢ ﮐـﻪ ﺑﺤـﺚ‬
‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ ‪ :‬ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬
‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‪ :‬ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‪ ،‬ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‪ ،‬ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‪ ،‬ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‪ ،‬ﭘﻼﻙ ‪٢٣٩‬‬
‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‪٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‬‬
87
‫ ﺧﻮاﻧـﺪن اﯾـﻦ ﮐﺘـﺎب ﻣﺘﺨﺼﺼـﯿﻦ و دﺳـﺘﯿﺎران رادﯾﻮﻟـﻮژی داﻧﺸـﺠﻮﯾﺎن ﭘﺰﺷـﮑﯽ و‬.‫ ﺑﺨﺶ ﺟﺪﯾﺪ در ﻣﻮرد ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮاﻓﯽ داﭘﻠﺮ اﻃﻔﺎل و ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮاﻓﯽ ﻣﺪاﺧﻠﻪای در اﻃﻔﺎل ﺑﻪ اﯾﻦ ﻓﺼﻞ اﻓﺰوده ﺷﺪه اﺳـﺖ‬.‫ﮐﺎﻣﻞ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮاﻓﯽ زﻧﺎن و ﻣﺎﻣﺎﯾﯽ اﺳﺖ و ﻧﻬﺎﯾﺘﺎً ﻓﺼﻞ ﺷﺸﻢ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮاﻓﯽ اﻃﻔﺎل اﺳﺖ‬
.‫ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮاﻓﻬﺎ ﺗﻮﺻﯿﻪ ﻣﯽﮔﺮدد‬
35. Diagnostic Ultrasound (John P. McBany Gorgon, B. Gorgon, MD) (2005)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
800,000
36. Ultrasound A Practical Approach to Clinical Problems (Edward Bluth, Peter H. Arger Carol B. Benson, Philip W. Rails, Marilyan) (Thieme)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
500,000
37. Breast Ultrasound (A. Thomas Stavros, MD, FACR) (2004)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
800,000
38. Musculosceletal Ultrasound (Thomas R. Nelson, Donal B. downey, Dolores H. Pretorius, A aron Fenster)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
500,000
39. The Core Curriculum Ultrasound (William E. Brant) (Lippincott Williams & Wilkins)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
400,000
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
800,000
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
450,000
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
250,000
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
500,000
44. Body CT A Practical Approach
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
240,000
45. High Resolution CT of the Lung (W. Richard Webb)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
280,000
46. High Resolution CT of the Chest Comprehensive Atlas (Second Edition) (Eric J. ster, Stephen J. Swensen)(Lippincott Williams&Wilkins)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
320,000
47. Pediatric Body CT (Marilyn J. Siegel)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
320,000
48. CT Teaching Manual (Marthias Hofer) (Thieme) (2000)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
250,000
49. CT Teaching Manual (A Systematic Approach to CT Reading) (Second Edition) (Thieme) (2005)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
550,000
50. Spiral CT (Eliot K Fishman & R. Brocke Jeffrey)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
400,000
51. Helical (Spiral) computed Tomography (A Practical Approach to Clinical Protocols) (Paul M. Silverman)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
250,000
52. Norma findings in CT and MRI (Torsten B. Moeller, EmilReif) (Thieme)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
300,000
53. CT and MR Imaging of the Whole Body (John R. Haaga, MD) (2003)
‫ﺩﻭ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
1,000,000
54. Multidetector CT (Principles, Techniques, & Clinical Applications) (Elliot K. Fissman, R. Brooke Jeffrey, JR.)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
550,000
55. Spiral and Multislice Computed Tomography of the Body (Aart J. Van der Molen Cornelia M. Schaefer-Prokop) (Thieme) (2003)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
800,000
MRI
56. MRI of the Musculoskeletal System (2006) (Thomas H. Berquist)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
600,000
57. MRI of the Musculoskeletal System MRI Teaching file Series (Karence K Cahn, Mini Pathria)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
240,000
58. MRI of the Head and Neck MRI Teaching file Series (Jrffrey S. Ross)
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
240,000
40. Ultrasound in Obstetrics and Gynecology (Eberhard Merz) (Thieme) (Vol.1: Obstetrics
2005
41. Color Atlas of Ultrasound Anatomy (B. Block) (Thieme) (2004)
CT
42. Fundamentals of Body CT (Second Edition) (Webb & Brant & Helms)
43. Fundamentals of Body CT (Third Edition) (W. Richard Webb, William E. Brant, Nancy M. Major)
٠٩١٢١٣٧٢٣٦١-٦٦٩٣٦٦٩٦ :‫ﺗﻠﻔﻦ‬
٢٣٩ ‫ ﭘﻼﻙ‬،‫ ﺑﻦﺑﺴﺖ ﺳﻴﻤﻴﻦ‬،‫ ﺑﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﻭ ﺟﻤﺎﻟﺰﺍﺩﻩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻟﺒﺎﻓﻲﻧﮋﺍﺩ‬،‫ ﺥ ﻛﺎﺭﮔﺮ ﺟﻨﻮﺑﻲ‬،‫ ﻡ ﺍﻧﻘﻼﺏ‬،‫ ﺗﻬﺮﺍﻥ‬:‫ﻧﺸﺎﻧﻲ‬
(2006)
‫ ﺍﺭﺍﺋﻪ ﻛﻨﻨﺪﺓ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﻭ ﺳﻲﺩﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﺗﺨﺼﺼﻲ ﭘﺰﺷﻜﻲ‬: ‫ﻣﺮﻛﺰ ﺧﺪﻣﺎﺕ ﻓﺮﻫﻨﮕﻲ ﺳﺎﻟﻜﺎﻥ‬
‫‪88‬‬
‫‪240,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪59. MRI of the Spine MRI Teaching file Series (Jeffrey S. Ross‬‬
‫‪480,000‬‬
‫ﺩﻭ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)…‪60. MRI of the Brain I & II MRI Teaching file Series (Michel Brant, Zawadzki and‬‬
‫‪35,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪61. MRI the basics fray h. Hashemi and William g. bradley, Jr.) (Williams & Wilkins‬‬
‫‪190,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪62. MRI Principles (Donald G. Mitcell, MD‬‬
‫‪300,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪63. Clinical Pelvic Imaging CT, Ultrasound, and MRI (Arnold C. Friedman, MD‬‬
‫‪700,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪64. MRI and CT of the Cardiovascular System (Second Edition) (Charles B. Higgins, Albert de Ross) (2006‬‬
‫‪105,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪65. Magnetic Resonance in Medicine The Basic Textbook of the European Magnetic Resonance Forum (Peter A. Rinck‬‬
‫‪450,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪66. Magnetic Resonance in diagnosis of C.N.S. disorders (vaso antunavic, gradimir dragutinovic, zvonimir lec) (Thieme‬‬
‫‪450,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪67. Section and MRI anatomy of the human body (slobodan marinkovic, milan milisavljevic, dieter sehellinger, vaso antunovic) (Thieme‬‬
‫‪450,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪68. PRACTICAL GUIDE TO ABDOMINAL & PELVIC MRI (JOHN R. LEYENDECHER, JEFFERY J. BROWN‬‬
‫‪600,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪69. Vascular diagnosis with Ultrasound Clinical References With Case Studies (Hennerici, Neuerburg-Heusler)(Thieme‬‬
‫‪850,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪70. Introduction to Vascular Ultrasonography (Fourth Edition) (Zwiebel) (James Saunders‬‬
‫‪550,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪71. Teaching Manual of Color Duplex Sonography A Wokbook in color duplex ultrasound and echocardiographer (Matthias Hofer) (Thieme) (2005‬‬
‫‪400,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪72. Vascular Ultrasound of the Neck an Interpretive atlas (Antonio Alayon)(Lippincott Williams & Wilkins‬‬
‫‪600,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪73. Duplex Scanning in Vascular Disorders (Third Edition) (D. Eugene Strandness, Jr.‬‬
‫‪500,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫)‪74. Doppler Ultrasound in Gynecology and Obstetrics (Christof Sohn, Hans-Joachim Voigt, Klaus Vetter) (2004‬‬
‫‪500,000‬‬
‫ﺗﻚ ﺟﻠﺪﻱ‬
‫‪Imaging‬‬
‫)‪75. Skeletal Imaging Atlas of the Spine and Extremities (John A. M. Donald Resnick, MD‬‬
‫‪Doppler‬‬
‫)‪(2005‬‬
‫ﭘﻴﺸﺮﻓﺖﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺧﻴﺮ ﺩﺭ ﻋﺮﺻﻪ ﺭﺍﺩﻳﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ‪ ،‬ﺗﺼﻮﻳﺮﺑﺮﺩﺍﺭﻱ ﻭ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ ﺭﺍ ﺍﺯ ﻧﻈﺮ ﺩﻭﺭ ﻧﺪﺍﺷﺘﻪ ﻭ ﺍﻳﻦ ﺭﻭﺵ ﺭﺍ ﺑﻪ ﻋﻨﻮﺍﻥ ﻳﻚ ﺷﻴﻮﻩ ﺁﻟﺘﺮﻧﺎﺗﻴﻮ ﻏﻴﺮﺗﻬﺎﺟﻤﻲ ﻛﺎﺭﺁﻣﺪ ﻣﻮﺭﺩ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﺑﺪﻥ ﺩﺭ ﻛﻨﺎﺭ ﺁﻧﮋﻳﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﻗﺮﺍﺭ ﺩﺍﺩﻩ ﺍﺳﺖ‪ .‬ﺍﻳﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺏ ﺩﺭ ‪ ٥‬ﺑﺨﺶ ﺍﺻﻠﻲ )ﻣﺸﺘﻤﻞ ﺑـﺮ ‪ ٣١‬ﻣﺒﺤـﺚ‬
‫ﺟﺰﺋﻲﺗﺮ( ﺑﻪ ﺑﺤﺚ ﻭ ﺑﺮﺭﺳﻲ ﺁﺧﺮﻳﻦ ﺩﺳﺘﺎﻭﺭﺩﻫﺎﻱ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ ﺩﺭ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﭘﺎﺗﻮﻟﻮﮊﻱ ﻭ ﺍﺭﮔﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﺑﺪﻥ ﻣﻲﭘﺮﺩﺍﺯﺩ‪ .‬ﻭ ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺳﺮﻓﺼﻞﻫﺎﻱ ﺫﻳﻞ ﻣﻲﺑﺎﺷﺪ‪:‬‬
‫ﺍﻟﻒ‪ -‬ﺍﺻﻮﻝ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ‪ .١ :‬ﻧﻜﺎﺕ ﻗﺎﺑﻞ ﺗﻮﺟﻪ ﻫﻤﻮﺩﻳﻨﺎﻣﻴﻚ ﻣﺮﺑﻮﻁ ﺑﻪ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﻣﺤﻴﻄﻲ ‪ .٢‬ﻓﻴﺰﻳﻚ ﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ ﻭ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ‪ B-mode‬ﻭ ﺗﺠﻬﻴﺰﺍﺕ ﻻﺯﻡ‬
‫‪ .٣‬ﺁﻧﺎﻟﻴﺰ ﻃﻴﻒ )ﻣﻮﺝ( ﻓﺮﻛﺎﻧﺲ ﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ ‪ .٤‬ﻧﻘﺶ ﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ ﺭﻧﮕﻲ ﺩﺭ ﺗﺸﺨﻴﺺ ﺑﻴﻤﺎﺭﻱﻫﺎﻱ ﻋﺮﻭﻗﻲ ‪ .٥‬ﻣﻮﺍﺩ ﺣﺎﺟﺐ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻴﻚ‬
‫ﺏ‪ -‬ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﻣﻐﺰﻱ‪ .٦ :‬ﻣﻘﻴﺎﺱ ﺩﺭ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﻣﻐﺰﻱ ‪ .٧‬ﺁﻧﺎﺗﻮﻣﻲ ﻧﺮﻣﺎﻝ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﻣﻐﺰﻱ ‪ .٨‬ﺷﺮﺍﺋﻴﻦ ﻛﺎﺭﻭﺗﻴﺪ ﻧﺮﻣﺎﻝ ﻭ ﺗﻜﻨﻴﻚﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ ﻛﺎﺭﻭﺗﻴﺪ ‪ .٩‬ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻴﻚ ﭘﻼﻙ ﻛﺎﺭﻭﺗﻴﺪ‬
‫‪ .١٠‬ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ ﺗﻨﮕﻲ ﻛﺎﺭﻭﺗﻴﺪ ‪ .١١‬ﻣﻮﺿﻮﻋﺎﺕ ﻣﺘﻔﺮﻗﻪ ﺑﺎ ﻛﺎﺭﻭﺗﻴﺪ )ﺷﺎﻣﻞ ﺍﺳﺪﺍﺩ‪ -‬ﺩﻳﺴﻜﻨﺴﻴﻮﻥ ( ‪ .١٢‬ﺍﺭﺯﻳﺎﺑﻲ ﺍﻭﻟﺘﺮﺍﺳﻮﻧﻴﻚ ﻋﺮﻭﻕ ﻭ ﺭﺗﺒﺮﺍﻝ ‪ .١٣‬ﺳﻮﻧﻮﮔﺮﺍﻓﻲ ﺩﺍﭘﻠﺮ ﺗﺮﺍﻧﺲ ﻛﺮﺍﻧﻴﺎﻝ )‪(TCD‬‬
‫ﺝ‪ -‬ﺷﺮﻳﺎﻥﻫﺎﻱ ﺍﻧﺪﺍﻡﻫﺎ‪ .١٤