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Gleim Airplane Transport Pilot FAA Knowledge Test
2011 Edition, 1st Printing
Updates
June 10, 2011
NOTE: Text that should be deleted from the outline is displayed with a line through the text.
New text is shown with a blue background.
Because new questions have been added to this product in previous updates, the question
numbers here may not exactly match the numbers in your book. If you have trouble following
along, please see the previous updates from December 6, 2010, March 21, 2011, and May 13,
2011.
Study Unit 2 – FAR Part 91, Civil Aviation Security, Hazardous Materials
Page 43, Subunit 2.3, 10.a.: The following outline material is added to address a new FAA
question dealing with hazardous materials.
10. Not more than 50 lb. of hazardous materials may be carried in an accessible cargo
compartment of a passenger-carrying aircraft.
a. No more than 25 kg (55 pounds) net weight of hazardous material may be loaded in an
inaccessible manner.
11. No limitation applies to the number of packages of ORM (other regulated material) aboard a
passenger-carrying aircraft.
Page 66, Question 87: The following new question is added to better address FAA coverage
of hazardous materials.
87. No person may carry more than __________ of
hazardous materials in a passenger-carrying aircraft
(disregarding non-flammable compressed gas).
A. 25 kg gross weight.
B. 25 pounds net weight.
C. 55 pounds net weight.
Answer (C) is correct. (49 CFR 175.75)
DISCUSSION: For each package containing a
hazardous material acceptable for carriage aboard
passenger-carrying aircraft, no more than 25 kg (55 pounds)
net weight of hazardous material may be loaded in a
passenger-carrying aircraft. The reference material for this
question is found in Title 49 CFR Part 175, not the more
commonly referenced Title 14 CFR Parts 91, 121, or 135.
Answer (A) is incorrect. No person may carry more than
25 kg net, not 25 kg gross, weight of hazardous materials in a
passenger-carrying aircraft (disregarding non-flammable
compressed gas). Answer (B) is incorrect. No person may
carry more than 55 pounds, not 25 pounds, net weight of
hazardous materials in a passenger-carrying aircraft
(disregarding non-flammable compressed gas).
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Page 2 of 9
Study Unit 3 – Federal Aviation Regulations: Part 121
Page 69, Subunit 3.1, 121.106: The following outline content was revised to better address
ETOPS information.
121.106 ETOPS Alternate Airport: Rescue and Fire Fighting Service
1. Extended-Range Twin-Engine Operational Performance Standards (ETOPS) are a set of
rules developed by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) and approved by the
FAA that permit twin-engine commercial air transports to fly routes that, at some the ETOPS
entry points, are farther than a distance of 60-minutes flying time with one engine
inoperative from an emergency or diversion airport with one engine inoperative that is
adequate for an airplane with two engines.
a. When filing an alternate using the 180 minute ETOPS rule, the alternate airport must
have rescue and fire fighting services (RFFS) that meet the ICAO Category 4 standard,
or higher.
b. When filing an alternate using the beyond-180 minute ETOPS rule, the alternate airport
must have RFFS that meet the ICAO Category 4 standard, or higher, and the aircraft
must remain within the ETOPS authorized diversion time from an Adequate Airport that
has RFFS equal to ICAO Category 7, or higher.
Page 80, Subunit 3.1, Questions 4 and 5: The following new questions are added to better
address FAA coverage of ETOPS on the ATP knowledge test.
4. ETOPS entry points mean
A. the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS
flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that
is more than 90 minutes from an adequate airport for
airplanes having two engines.
B. the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS
flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that
is more than 60 minutes from an adequate airport for
airplanes having two engines.
Answer (B) is correct. (FAR 121.7)
DISCUSSION: An ETOPS entry point is the point at
which the airplane is farther than a distance of 60 minutes
flying time with one engine inoperative from an emergency or
diversion airport that is adequate for an airplane with two
engines.
Answer (A) is incorrect. The flying time stipulated by the
rule is 60 minutes, not 90 minutes. Answer (C) is incorrect.
An ETOPS entry point occurs at the point where the flying
time is more than 60 minutes, not 207 minutes.
C. the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS
flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that
is more than 207 minutes from an adequate airport for
airplanes having more than two engines.
5. For flight planning, a Designated ETOPS Alternate Airport
A. for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS
equivalent to that specified by ICAO Category 3,
unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local
fire fighting assets within 45 minutes.
B. for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS
equivalent to that specified by ICAO Category 4,
unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local
fire fighting assets within 45 minutes.
C. for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS
equivalent to that specified by ICAO Category 4,
unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local
fire fighting assets within 30 minutes.
Answer (C) is correct. (FAR 121.106)
DISCUSSION: For ETOPS up to 180 minutes, RFFS
equivalent of that specified in ICAO Category 4 is a
requirement; however, the RFFS can be augmented by local
fire fighting assets with a 30-minute response time.
Answer (A) is incorrect. The RFFS requirement under
ICAO is for Category 4, not Category 3. The response time
for local fire fighting assets is also incorrect; the allowance is
30 minutes, not 45 minutes. Answer (B) is incorrect. The
response time for local fire fighting assets is 30 minutes, not
45 minutes.
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Page 3 of 9
Study Unit 5 – Aerodynamics and Airplanes
Page 171, Subunit 5.4, 5.: The following outline content is added to better address the use,
function, and purpose of flap systems.
5. Flaps are secondary flight control systems that are installed on the inboard section of the wing
along the trailing edge.
a. Flaps are the most common high-lift devices used on aircraft.
b. The four common types of flaps are
1)
2)
3)
4)
Plain
Split
Slotted
Fowler
c. When fully extended, both plain and split flaps produce high drag with little additional lift.
d. The split flap produces a slightly greater increase in lift than the plain flap; however, more
drag results due to the turbulent air pattern produced behind the airfoil.
e. Fowler flaps generate the most lift and drag of any flaps when fully extended.
1) When extended, Fowler flaps also cause the greatest downward pitching moment of all
flap types.
f. Thick wings benefit from the greatest increase in lift when flaps are extended.
Page 171, Subunit 5.6, 4.: The following outline content is added to better address the subject
of drag and its relationship with airfoils.
5.6 DRAG
1. When airspeed decreases below the maximum L/D airspeed, total drag increases due to
increased induced drag.
a. At maximum L/D, a propeller-driven airplane enjoys maximum range and maximum engineout glide distance.
2. When an airplane leaves ground effect, it will require an increase in angle of attack to maintain
the same lift coefficient due to an increase in induced drag.
3. As gross weight increases, induced drag increases more than parasite drag increases.
4. Drag increases significantly when the boundary layer separates from the surface of the airfoil.
a. The boundary layer separation and subsequent increase in drag can result in a stall.
Page 176, Subunit 5.18, 11.: The following information on VNE is added to the outline for this
subunit.
5.18 MULTIENGINE AIRPLANE OPERATION
1. Stalls should never be practiced with one engine inoperative or at idle power; loss of control
may result.
2. The blue line on the airspeed indicator on a light twin-engine airplane represents the maximum
single-engine rate of climb at gross weight.
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Page 4 of 9
3. Pilots of light twin-engine airplanes should be able to maintain heading at VMC.
a. VMC decreases with altitude on airplanes with unsupercharged engines.
b. VMC is the highest when CG is in the most rearward allowable position.
4. When an engine on a twin-engine airplane fails, the rate of climb will be reduced by 50% or
more.
5. The critical engine of a twin-engine airplane is the one with the center of thrust closest to the
center line in the fuselage.
6. The ball of the slip-skid indicator may be deflected outside of its reference lines when operating
on a single engine in a light twin at any airspeed above VMC.
7. Slush on the runway has the effect of reducing the critical engine failure speed (V1).
8. The safest and most efficient takeoff and initial climb procedure in a light twin is to accelerate to
an airspeed slightly above VMC and then lift off and climb at the best-rate-of-climb airspeed.
9. Use VYSE if engine failure occurs at an altitude above the single-engine ceiling.
10. For an engine-out approach and landing, the flight path and procedures should be almost
identical to the normal approach and landing.
11. VNE is published and shown by a red radial line on the airspeed indicator.
a. VNE decreases with altitude. This is especially true of helicopters, which are subject to a
retreating blade stall when flying at or near VNE.
Page 177, Subunit 5.20, 4.a.: The following information on preventing compressors stalls is
added to the outline for this subunit.
5.20 COMPRESSOR STALL
1. A transient compressor stall is characterized by intermittent bang as backfires and flow
reversals take place.
2. Strong vibrations and a loud roar indicate that a compressor stall has developed and become
steady.
3. Steady, continuous flow-reversal compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine
damage.
4. To recover from a compressor stall, the pilot should reduce the throttle, decrease the aircraft’s
angle of attack, and increase airspeed. These steps will allow the compressor blades to
recover from the stall that precipitated the issue.
a. To prevent compressor stalls, compressor bleed valves are contained in the system to
restrict the engine until it is at an RPM that allows it to respond to a rapid acceleration
demand without distress.
Page 179, Subunit 5.25, 3.: The following information on true airspeed is added to the outline
for this subunit.
5.25 PITOT SYSTEM
1. If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system become completely blocked
during an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, a decrease
in indicated airspeed should be expected.
a. If level flight is conducted, large power changes may not produce any variation in indicated
airspeed.
b. In other words, the airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter.
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2. If the ram air input to the pitot tube is blocked by ice but the drain hole and static port are not,
the indicated airspeed will drop to zero.
3. True airspeed (TAS) is calibrated airspeed corrected for nonstandard temperature and
pressure.
a. TAS increases as altitude increases.
Page 180, Subunit 5.27, 4.: The following information on the automated flight deck is added to
the outline for this subunit.
5.27 GLASS COCKPIT SYSTEMS
1. Moving map systems offer many benefits to pilots, including increased situational awareness,
better emergency planning resources, enhanced collision avoidance information, and much
more.
a. Despite the great benefits of moving map displays, they are not approved to be used as
primary navigation instruments. They are designed to provide supplementary navigation
and position information.
b. While the primary navigation CDI and related system components are required to meet
certification standards for accuracy of information, moving map displays are not. Thus, a
moving map may or may not be accurate depending on the accuracy of the information
being fed to it by the navigation source.
2. If a moving map display should experience errors or failures, they will be displayed to the pilot
in several different ways.
a. Failure indications on the moving map can be quite subtle.
1) The moving map will reflect a loss of position information by the removal of the aircraft
symbol, compass labels, and other subtle differences.
2) A message of some sort will also appear, alerting the pilot that the navigation source is
not providing data to the display unit.
a) Remember that a moving map display is not a control unit; it is only a display unit.
Acknowledging a message has no effect on the system that sent the message.
b) The only way to reset the NAV source in the event of a failure would be to
troubleshoot the source itself, not the moving map display.
3. Primary flight displays (PFDs) display pertinent flight information to the pilot in a condensed,
easily reviewable space.
a. Airspeed information is presented via a vertical scrolling tape with low-speed values at the
bottom of the tape and high-speed values at the top of the tape.
1) When airspeed is increasing, the vertical tape scrolls downward, allowing for the higherspeed values to be displayed on the tape.
b. Make use of your standby instruments to detect abnormalities inflight.
1) EXAMPLE: If your standby and PFD airspeed indications are dramatically different and
your power setting and flight condition agree with the standby indication, there is most
likely a blockage in the pitot line feeding the Air Data Computer (ADC), which feeds
airspeed information to the PFD.
4. The automated flight deck can be a great help to pilots under high workload situations, like
flying in busy terminal areas or executing a missed approach in adverse weather conditions.
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Page 6 of 9
Page 186, Subunit 5.6, Question 34.: The following new question regarding the boundary
layer of an airfoil is added.
34. If the boundary layer separates
A. drag will decrease.
B. the airflow separates from the wing surface and stall
occurs.
C. ice will not sublimate in this area.
Answer (B) is correct. (ANA Chap 1)
DISCUSSION: The boundary layer is the thick boundary
that exists between the flow of air and the solid surface of the
airfoil. If the boundary layer separates, the airflow separates
as well, causing an increase in drag and a loss of lift that
results in a stall.
Answer (A) is incorrect. Drag increases with the
separation of the boundary layer. It does not decrease due to
the separation. Answer (C) is incorrect. The separation of the
boundary layer affects airflow, lift, and drag in a relatively
short duration manner. The result is an increase in drag and a
stall. The sublimation of ice is not a factor in this situation.
Page 187, Subunit 5.7, Question 40: The following question on the effect of altitude on true
airspeed is added.
40. How does VS (KTAS) vary with altitude?
A. Remains the same at all altitudes.
B. Varies directly with altitude.
C. Varies inversely with altitude.
Answer (B) is correct. (PHAK Chap 7)
DISCUSSION: Due to the lesser pressure at altitude, a
higher true airspeed is required to create the same pressure
differential between impact (pitot) pressure and static air
pressure. Consequently, true airspeed increases as altitude
increases.
Answer (A) is incorrect. True airspeed (TAS) increases
with altitude; it does not remain unchanged. Answer (C) is
incorrect. True airspeed varies directly with altitude, not
inversely. As altitude increases, true airspeed increases.
Page 215, Subunit 5.18, Question 122: The following question on the effect of altitude on VNE
is added.
122. How does VNE change with altitude?
A. Stays the same.
B. VNE increases with increasing altitude.
C. VNE decreases with increasing altitude.
Answer (C) is correct. (PHAK Chap 7)
DISCUSSION: VNE decreases with altitude and is of
special interest to helicopter pilots due to the increasing risk
of a retreating blade stall at higher altitudes when flying at or
near VNE in gusty conditions.
Answer (A) is incorrect. VNE decreases with altitude; it
does not remain the same. Answer (B) is incorrect. VNE
decreases with altitude; it does not increase. The radial red
line on the airspeed indicator is the value of VNE at sea level.
As altitude increases, that value will decrease.
Page 218, Subunit 5.20, Question 136: The following question on the prevention of
compressor stalls is added.
136. What limits turbine engines from developing
compressor stalls?
A. Deice valves-fuel heat.
B. Compressor bleed valves.
C. TKS system.
Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-3A)
DISCUSSION: To prevent compressor stalls,
compressor bleed valves are contained in the system to
restrict the engine until it is at an rpm that allows it to respond
to a rapid acceleration demand without distress.
Answer (A) is incorrect. Deice valves and heated fuel do
not contribute to the prevention of compressor stalls in turbine
engines. Answer (C) is incorrect. The TKS system is an antiicing system that prevents ice from building up on the aircraft.
It does not play a role in the prevention of compressor stalls.
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Page 7 of 9
Page 228, Subunit 5.27, Question 186: The following question on the use of automated flight
decks is added.
186. Automated flight decks or cockpits
A. enhance basic pilot flight skills.
B. decrease the work load in terminal areas.
C. often create much larger pilot errors than traditional
cockpits.
Answer (B) is correct. (AAH Chap 4)
DISCUSSION: The automated flight deck can be a great
help when flying in high workload situations, such as in a busy
terminal area or when executing a missed approach in
adverse weather conditions.
Answer (A) is incorrect. The automated flight deck can
assist a pilot or provide enhanced information to the pilot, but
it cannot directly affect the pilot’s basic skills. Answer (C) is
incorrect. Although errors can occur when piloting an aircraft
with an automated flight deck, the automated systems do not
make those errors more common or more serious than similar
errors that occur in an aircraft with a nonautomated flight
deck.
Study Unit 6 – Airspace and Airports
Page 231, Subunit 6.3, 5.: To better cover the topic of the ILS critical area boundary sign, the
following edits are made to the outline for this subunit.
5. An ILS critical area boundary sign (Fig. 157 on page 244) has a graphic depiction of the ILS
pavement holding position marking.
a. The image on page 241 shows ILS Critical Area Markings and is listed as Figure 224 in the
ATP FAA Test Supplement The ILS critical area hold sign is red with white lettering.
1) This sign is seen at entrances to a runway or a critical area and indicates that you should
stop before proceeding past it when the ILS approach is in use.
b. The ILS critical area boundary sign is yellow with black lines.
1) This sign is seen when exiting a runway and indicates that aircraft should taxi beyond
the sign’s location before stopping when the ILS approach is in use.
Page 244, Question 35: The following question is added regarding the importance of the ILS critical
area boundary sign.
35. ILS critical area sign indicates
A. where aircraft are prohibited.
B. the edge of the ILS critical area.
C. the exit boundary.
Answer (B) is correct. (PHAK Chap 13)
DISCUSSION: An ILS critical area sign indicates the
edge, or boundary, of the ILS critical area.
Answer (A) is incorrect. The ILS critical area sign is
seen when exiting the runway. It indicates the boundary, or
edge, of the ILS critical area. If the ILS approach is in use,
aircraft should taxi beyond the sign’s location before
stopping. Answer (C) is incorrect. Although the ILS critical
area sign indicates the boundary, or edge, of the ILS critical
area, it does not indicate an exit boundary. When the ILS is
in use, aircraft should taxi beyond the sign’s location before
stopping.
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Page 8 of 9
Study Unit 8 – IFR Navigation Equipment, Holding, and Approaches
Page 284, Subunit 8.12, 1.e.: The following LPV information is added to the outline for this
subunit.
8.12 GPS APPROACHES
1. Authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires, in part, that
a. Procedures must be established for use in the event that the loss of receiver autonomous
integrity monitoring (RAIM) capability is predicted to occur.
1) In such an event, you must rely on other approved navigation equipment, delay
departure, or cancel the flight.
b. Air carrier and commercial operators must meet the appropriate provisions of their approved
operations specifications.
c. Aircraft navigating by GPS are considered to be RNAV-equipped aircraft and must use the
appropriate equipment suffix in the flight plan.
d. Pilots must be able to retrieve RNAV/RNP approach procedures by name from the aircraft
navigation database.
e. To conduct an LPV approach, the aircraft must be equipped with an approach-certified
system with a required navigation performance (RNP) of 0.3.
Page 285, Subunit 8.12, 5.a.: The following WAAS clarification is added to the outline for this
subunit.
5. In each phase of the GPS Approach Overlay Program, any required alternate airport must have
an approved IAP, other than GPS or LORAN-C, which is anticipated to be operational and
available at the estimated time of arrival and which the airplane is equipped to fly.
a. This restriction does not apply to aircraft with RNAV systems using WAAS equipment.
Page 285, Subunit 8.12, 13.b.: The following GPS navigation information is added to the
outline for this subunit.
13. In order to fly published IFR charted departures and SIDs, the GPS receiver must be set to
terminal (±1 NM) CDI sensitivity, and the navigation routes must be in the database.
a. Remember, the database may not contain all of the transitions or departures from all
runways, and some GPS receivers do not contain SIDs in the database.
b. In order to use a substitute means of guidance on departure procedures, pilots of aircraft
with RNAV systems using DME/DME/IRU without GPS input must ensure their aircraft
navigation system position is confirmed within 1,000 feet at the start point of takeoff roll.
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Page 9 of 9
Page 344, Subunit 8.12, four new questions: The following new questions are added based on
FAA test coverage of various GPS-related topics.
154. When the use of RNAV equipment using GPS input is
planned to be used for an instrument approach at a
destination airport, any required alternate airport must have
an available instrument approach procedure that does not
A. require the us of GPS except when the RNAV system
has an IRU input.
B. require the use of GPS except when dual,
independent GPS receivers are installed.
C. require the use of GPS except when the RNAV
system has a WAAS input.
155. Pilots are not authorized to
A. fly a published RNAV or RNP procedure unless it is
retrievable by the procedure name from the aircraft
database.
B. fly a published RNAV or RNP procedure unless it is
retrievable by the procedure name from the aircraft
database, or manually loaded with each individual
waypoint in the correct sequence.
C. fly a published RNAV or RNP procedure unless it is
retrievable by the procedure name from the aircraft
database, or manually loaded with each individual
waypoint and verified by the pilots.
156. To conduct a localizer performance with vertical
guidance (LPV) RNAV (GPS) approach, the aircraft must be
furnished with
A. a WAAS receiver (TSO-145A/146A) approved for an
LPV approach.
B. a GPS receiver certified for IFR operations.
C. an approach-certified system with required navigation
performance (RNP) of 0.3.
157. In order to use a substitute means of guidance on
departure procedures, pilots of aircraft with RNAV systems
using DME/DME/IRU without GPS input must
A. ensure their aircraft navigation system position is
confirmed within 2,000 feet of the initialization point.
B. ensure their aircraft navigation system position is
confirmed within 1,000 feet of pushback.
C. ensure their aircraft navigation system position is
confirmed within 1,000 feet at the start point of takeoff
roll.
Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 1-2-3)
DISCUSSION: Any required alternate airport must have
an available instrument approach procedure that does not
require the use of GPS. The exception to that rule applies to
RNAV systems using WAAS equipment.
Answer (A) is incorrect. The restriction stipulates that
the alternate airport must have an instrument approach
procedure available that does not require GPS unless the
RNAV system utilizes WAAS equipment. There is no
exception for RNAV systems with an IRU input. Answer (B)
is incorrect. The restriction stipulates that the alternate
airport must have an instrument approach procedure
available that does not require GPS unless the RNAV system
utilizes WAAS equipment. Dual, independent GPS receivers
that are not WAAS compliant would not meet the conditions
for the exception.
Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 5-5-16)
DISCUSSION: In order to fly a published RNAV or RNP
procedure, it must be retrievable from the aircraft navigation
database by the procedure name, not simply as a manually
entered series of waypoints.
Answer (B) is incorrect. It is not acceptable to retrieve
the procedure via a manually entered series of waypoints. It
must be retrievable from the aircraft navigation database by
the procedure name. Answer (C) is incorrect. The procedure
cannot be retrieved by manually entering a series of
waypoints. It must be retrieved from the aircraft navigation
database by its procedure name.
Answer (C) is correct. (IFH Chap 7)
DISCUSSION: The United States currently supports
three standard RNP levels. The 0.3 tolerance indicates a
0.3-NM distance on either side of a specified flight path
centerline, which is established for aircraft and obstacle
separation.
Answer (A) is incorrect. The requirement is for a
required navigation performance of 0.3 NM on either side of
the flight path centerline. There is no specific requirement
that a WAAS receiver approved for LPV approaches must be
used. Answer (B) is incorrect. The requirement for an LPV
approach is that the aircraft must be approach certified, not
just IFR certified, and that it must have a required navigation
performance of 0.3.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 90-100A)
DISCUSSION: Pilots using DME/DME/IRU without
GPS/GNSS must ensure the aircraft navigation system
position is confirmed within 1,000 feet at the start point of the
takeoff roll.
Answer (A) is incorrect. The tolerance is 1,000 feet, not
2,000 feet, and the reference point is the start of the takeoff
roll, not the initialization point. Answer (B) is incorrect. The
reference point for the aircraft navigation system position is
the start of the takeoff roll, not the pushback position.
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