Microbiology 2014
First Exam
Spring 1994
Your name ________________________
Multiple choice: circle the best answer. (2 points each)
1. Which of the following structures is found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
A. peptidoglycan-containing cell wall
B. mitochondria
C. nucleus
D. ribosomes
E. lysosome
2.
A.
B.
C.
Which of the following is not one of Koch's Postulates?
same organism found in all cases of the disease
organism isolated and grown in pure culture
organism from pure culture must produce same disease in the same individual from which it was originally
isolated
D. organism must be reisolated from experimentally infected individual
E. all of the above are Koch's Postulates
3. Nitrogen fixation is the process that converts
A. nitrate to gaseous nitrogen
B. nitrogen gas to ammonia
C. ammonia to nitrate
D. nitrate to ammonia
E. both B. and D.
4.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
In the name Escherichia coli, Escherichia is the
Kingdom
Family
Genus
Species
Order
5.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which of the following is an example of bioremediation?
Application of oil-degrading bacteria to an oil spill.
Application of bacteria to a crop to prevent frost damage.
Fixation of gaseous nitrogen into usable nitrogen.
Bacteria using light energy to convert carbon dioxide to organic compounds.
All of the above.
6.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
Camplylobacter-diarrhea
Yersinia-plague
Vibrio-anthrax
Treponema-syphilis
E. Neisseria-meningitis
1
7.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which of the following terms is most specific?
Bacillus
Bacillus
Gram-positive
Facultative anaerobic rod
Microorganism
8.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
In addition to tetrapeptide, which of the following molecules are components of the peptidoglycan layer of
the bacterial cell wall?
Lipopolysaccharide
N-acetylmuramic acid and N-acetylglycine
N-acetylmuramic acid and N-acetylglucosamine
Polyphosphate and poly-B-hydroxybutyrate
Deoxyribonucleic acid, teichoic acid, and dipicolinic acid
9.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which of the following is NOT equal to 1 meter (m)?
106 µm
109 nm
1010 angstroms (A)
100 mm
None of the above
10. Which of the following is an obligate intracellular parasite?
A. Rickettsia
B. Bacillus
C. Salmonella
D. Treponema
E. both A and D
11. Place these structures in order as light passes through them until it reaches the observer's eyes:
1-condenser
2-ocular lens
3-lamp
4-specimen 5-objective lens
A. 2-1-4-3-5
B. 3-1-5-4-2
C. 3-1-4-5-2
D. 3-4-1-5-2
E. 2-5-1-4-3
12. The chloroplast can best be described as the site for which of the following processes?
A. Reproduction
B. Photosynthesis
C. Protein synthesis
D. ATP synthesis
E. Transport of substances within the cell
2
13.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The belief that life arises only from living organisms is known as
Biogenesis
Antisepsis
Abiogenesis
Koch's Postulate
Speciation
14.
A.
C.
E.
What is the total magnification of a chloroplast viewed with a 10 x ocular lens and a 45 x objective lens?
10 x
B. 45 x
100 x
D. 450 x
55 x
15. The most detail images of a macromolecule such as DNA (2 nm thick) can be obtained using which of the
following:
A. scanning electron microscope
B. compound light microscope
C. transmission electron microscope
D. scanning tunnelling electron microscope
E. DNA cannot be seen with any type of microscope
16.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Lyme disease is caused by a
Chlamydiae
Rickettsiae
a spirochete
enteric bacteria
none of the above
17.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the plasma membrane?
maintains cell shape
composed of a phospholipid bilayer
contains proteins
the site of cell wall formation
selectively permeable
18.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which of the following most closely resembles a prokaryotic cell?
nucleus
mitochondrion
lysosome
vacuole
flagella
19.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
All of the following are true about archaebacteria except
they are prokaryotes
they lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls
they contain ether linked lipids
rRNA data suggests they evolved from eukaryotes
they are difficult to distinguish from eubacteria based on size and shape
3
20. Which of the following best describes a strain?
A. a population of cells with similar characteristics
B. a group of organisms with a limited geographical distribution
C. a pure culture
D. a group of cells derived from a single parent
E. the same as a species
21.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
You have isolated a motile, gram-positive cell with no visible nucleus. You can safely assume that the cell
has 9 pairs + 2 flagella
has a mitochondrion
has a cell wall
is an archaebacterium
cannot assume any of the above
22. Borrelia is classified with the spirochetes because it
A. is aerobic
B. possesses an axial filament
C. is a rod
D. is a pathogen
E. none of the above
23.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Escherichia, Salmonella, Yersinia, and Shigella are put together in Bergey's Manual because they are all
pathogens
gram-negative facultatively anaerobic rods
gram-positive aerobic cocci
fermentative
none of the above
24. A gram-positive bacterial cell that has had its cell wall removed in the lab is called
A. a spheroplast
B. a cytoplast
C. a protoplast
D. a chloroplast
E. a micelle
25.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Ribosomes are composed of which of the following
RNA and protein
DNA and protein
DNA, RNA and protein
protein and lipid
none of the above
4
26. Fill in the blanks: (2 points each)
A. Small circular DNA molecules that are often associated with the spread of antibiotic resistance among
bacterial species are called ______________________.
B. ______________________ is the microbial process of converting useful nitrates into gaseous nitrogen.
C. The type of taxonomic scheme that seeks to group based on evolutionary relationships is called
________________________ .
D. The large molecule in the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria that contributes most to cell surface
antigenicity (and therefore to immunological serotyping) is called ________________________.
E. The __________ is the soil region composed of microorganisms and decaying organic matter.
F. The set of techniques for the isolation and maintenance of pure cultures of microorganisms, largely invented
by Robert Koch, is collectively referred to as _______________________.
G. The differentiation process of going from vegetative cell to endospore is called ________________.
Matching:
27. (8 points) Match the following structures with the
appropriate functions.
1. motility
2. osmotic protection
3. adhesion and cell-cell recognition
4. permeability barrier
5. genetic material
6. storage forms
7. protein synthesis
8. stealth
__ A. Glycocalyx
__ B. Nucleoid
__ C. Cytoplasmic membrane
__ D. Inclusion bodies
__ E. Flagella
__ F. Fimbriae
__ G. Ribosomes
__ H. Cell wall
28. (7 points) Match the scientist with the discovery or accomplishment
__ A. Needham
__ B. Beijerinck
__ C. Woese
__ D. Leeuwenhoek
__ E. Linnaeus
__ F. Pasteur
__ G. Koch
1. Two-word classification system
2. Supported abiogenesis
3. Fermentation is a microbiological process
4. Discovered the cause of cholera
5. One of the first microbial ecologists
6. Animalcules
7. rRNA classification system
5
Discussion:
29. (6 points) Describe resolving power as it relates to microscope function. What limits the resolving power of
a light microscope, and how is that limitation overcome by an electron microscope.
30. (15 points) Use labeled diagrams to compare the structure of the cell walls of Gram-negative with Grampositive bacteria. In your discussion indicate where and how lysozyme and penicillin act to disturb cell wall
structure. Also briefly describe how the archaebacterial cell wall differs from the eubacterial wall.
6
Microbiology 2014
Second Exam
Spring 1994
Your name ________________________
Multiple choice: circle the best answer. (2.5 points each)
1)
Archaebacterial lipids are unusual in having
A. hydrocarbon chains attached to glycerol by ether bonds.
B. stearic acid as the hydrocarbon component.
C. hydrocarbon chains attached to glycerol by ester bonds.
D. no muramic acid.
E. hydrocarbons attached to glycerol by phosphate bonds.
2)
Viral capsids are composed of which of the following molecules?
A. Nucleic acids
B. Proteins
C. Carbohydrates
D. Phospholipids
E. Cholesterol
3)
Which of the following statements describes a lysogenized bacterium?
A. It is a carrier of a prophage.
B. It is infected by an avirulent bacteriophage.
C. It is lysed before binary fission takes place.
D. It is easily distinguished from nonlysogenic cells.
E. It contains mature phages that are released by endolysin.
4)
Which of the following represents the correct order of steps in viral multiplication?
1. Synthesis of coat proteins 2. Penetration
3. Assembly and packaging
4. Release
5. Replication
6. Attachment (Adsorption)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
5)
2-3-5-1-6-4
3-5-2-6-1-4
5-1-3-6-4-2
6-1-5-2-4-3
6-2-5-1-3-4
All of the following can be oncogenic viruses EXCEPT:
A. Retroviruses
B. Papovaviruses
D. Adenoviruses
E. Herpes viruses
C. Pox viruses
6)
All of the following are macroelements required in abundant quantities for microbial growth EXCEPT:
A. carbon.
B. nitrogen.
C. hydrogen.
D. oxygen.
E. sodium.
7)
Which of the following terms refers to organisms that use organic carbon as an energy source and as their
principal source of carbon?
A. Fastidious
B. Chemoautotrophs
C. Chemoheterotrophs
D. Photoautotrophs
E. Photoheterotrophs
1
8)
Which of the following pairs of factors represents the basis for the nutritional classification of
microorganisms?
A. Essential elements and trace elements
B. Inorganic compounds and organic compounds
C. Temperature and oxygen requirements
D. Carbon source and energy source
E. Sugar and protein requirements
9)
Bacteria isolated from glaciers in Alaska would be most likely classified as:
A. barophiles.
B. psychrophiles.
C. mesophiles.
D. thermophiles.
E. microaerophiles.
10) The generation time is best described as the time required for a population of bacteria in a culture to:
A. double.
B. triple.
C. increase exponentially to 210 .
D. reach the exponential phase of growth.
E. reach its maximum concentration.
11) You were given a water sample from Yellowstone's Grand Prismatic Spring and instructed to streak a
portion of the sample onto nutrient agar and incubate at 55oC for 36 hours in a standard air atmosphere.
Green and gray colonies appear on the agar at the end of the incubation period. Based on this information,
which of the following descriptions is most accurate for these bacteria?
A. Mesophilic and aerobic
B. Psychrophilic and aerobic
C. Thermophilic and aerobic
D. Mesophilic and anaerobic
E. Thermophilic and anaerobic
12) Oncogenic viruses are best described as viruses that:
A. contain both RNA and DNA.
B. belong only to the group of DNA viruses.
C. transform a host cell into a tumor cell.
D. can replicate outside of a living cell.
E. replicate only in embryonated chicken eggs.
13) Which of the following compounds is the most important high-energy-transfer compound in a cell?
A. CO2
B. ADP
C. ATP
D. Glucose
E. Pyruvate
14) Which of the following descriptions most accurately describes the citric acid cycle? A cyclic sequence of
biochemical reactions by which:
A. ATP is produced.
B. pyruvic acid is reduced.
C. glucose is broken down to pyruvic acid.
D. ATP is produced from the oxidation of pyruvic acid.
E. NADH2 is produced from the oxidation of pyruvic acid
15) How many net ATP molecules are generated during glycolysis?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 34
E. 38
2
16) The following reactions release energy EXCEPT:
A. ATP hydrolysis reactions
B. oxidation reactions
C. exergonic reactions
D. ADP phosphorylation reactions
E. all of the above reactions release energy
17) Each of the 10 steps of reactions in glycolysis requires one molecule of:
A. ATP.
B. ADP.
C. NAD.
D. a specific enzyme.
E. GTP.
18) A comparison of the amount of ATP produced from aerobic respiration with the amount of ATP produced
from fermentation reveals that the amount of ATP produced from aerobic respiration is:
A. less than the amount of ATP produced from fermentation.
B. greater than the amount of ATP produced from fermentation.
C. identical to the amount of ATP produced from fermentation.
D. approximately two ATP molecules more than the amount of ATP produced from fermentation.
E. approximately 10 ATP molecules more than the amount of ATP produced from fermentation.
19) Which of the following descriptions best depicts Photosystem II in cyanobacteria, algae, and green plants?
A. It functions independently of Photosystem I.
B. It oxidizes water to form gaseous oxygen.
C. It is typically deficient in electrons.
D. It functions in the absence of light.
E. It reduces NADP to NADPH2 .
20) Which of the following is an exact sequence (no skipped steps) of reactions found in glycolysis?
A. Glucose > fructose-6-phosphate > glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
B. Glucose-6-phosphate > fructose-1,6-diphosphate > fructose-6-phosphate
C. 1,3-diphosphoglyceric acid > 3-phosphoglyceric acid > 2-phosphoglyceric acid
D. 3-phosphoglyceric acid > phosphoenolpyruvic acid > pyruvate
E. Phosphoenolpyruvic acid > citric acid > pyruvic acid
3
21) Fill in the blanks: (2 points each)
a)
The presence of bacterial viruses on agar plates is apparent by the formation of clear areas known as
___________________________ against a dense background of bacterial growth.
b)
The temperature at which a species of microorganism grows most rapidly is referred to as
the ______________________________.
c)
The stacked intracellular membranous sacs that contain the photophosphorylation apparatus of the
phototrophic cell are called ________________________.
d)
The _______________________________ is the unequal distribution of protons and positive charge
across a membrane, which can be used to drive ATP synthesis and other processes in a cell.
e)
Approximately ___________ percent of all AIDS transmissions worldwide are heterosexual.
f)
The cell body of the fungus is called the _____________________.
g)
Icosahedral capsids have 20 faces and _______________ vertices.
h)
Cases of AIDS in females are predicted to outnumber cases in males by the year _________.
i)
The study of fungi is referred to as _______________________.
j)
Media in which all of the chemical components are known is ____________________.
Matching:
22) (16 points) Match the following groups of microorganisms with the appropriate description.
__ A.Fungi Imperfecti
__ B.
Mycoplasmas
__ C.
Thermoplasmas
__ D.
Methanogens
__ E.
Algae
__ F.
Slime molds
__ G.
Protozoa
__ H.
Halophiles
1. Strict anaerobic archaebacteria that may
contribute to the greenhouse effect
2. Non-photosynthetic eucaryotes with no
observed sexual reproduction
3. Archaebacterial species lacking cell
walls
4. Phototrophic eucaryotic microbes
5. Unicellular eucaryotes lacking cell walls
6. Bacteria that require salt for growth
7. Form slugs during their life cycle
8. Eubacteria with no cell wall
4
Discussion:
23) (7 points) Define and distinguish between a persistent and a latent viral infection of an animal cell. Give
examples of each.
24) (7 points) Draw a typical bacterial growth curve. Label the stages of growth, and briefly describe what
processes are occurring in each stage.
5
Microbiology 2014
Third Exam
Spring 1994
Your name ________________________
Multiple choice: circle the best answer. (2.5 points each)
1) Purine nucleotides contain which of the following nitrogenous
bases?
A. Adenine and thymine
B. Adenine and guanine
C. Guanine and cytosine
D. Thymine and uracil
E. Thymine and cytosine
2) Which of the following molecules represents the energized form of
glucose?
A. UDP-glucose
B. UTP-glucose
C. Pyrophosphate
D. Ribose phosphate
E. Phosphoribose pyrophosphate
3) Which of the following processes require the expenditure of
energy?
A. Simple diffusion only
B. Facilitated diffusion only
C. Active transport only
D. Simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion only
E. Facilitated diffusion and active transport only
4) In the feedback inhibition of proline, the more proline the cell
produces, the:
A. greater the degree of inhibition of proline production.
B. lower the degree of inhibition of proline production.
C. same amount of proline is continuously produced.
D. greater the amount of proline degradation.
E. specific enzyme stimulates the production of more proline.
5) If ammonium sulfate were inadvertently omitted from the culture
medium prepared for the growth of E. coli, the biosynthesis of
which of the following macromolecules by E. coli would be most
adversely affected?
A. Amino acids
B. Carbohydrates
C. Phospholipids
D. Long-chain fatty acids
E. Cell-wall peptidoglycan
6) All of the following statements correctly describe simple
diffusion EXCEPT that:
A. it does not require a carrier protein.
B. it does not require the input of metabolic energy.
C. water molecules and some lipid-soluble molecules pass freely
across the cytoplasmic membrane.
D. it results in a higher concentration of nutrient molecules
inside the cell than outside the cell.
E. molecules can pass across the cytoplasmic membrane in
opposite directions.
1
7) All of the following descriptions of active transport are
accurate EXCEPT that:
A. it requires a carrier molecule.
B. it requires the energy of the protonmotive force or ATP.
C. most nutrients are transported into a cell by active
transport.
D. nutrients are transported from a higher concentration to a
lower concentration.
E. nutrients are concentrated to high levels inside the cell.
8) The entire genetic capability of an organism as found in its DNA
is referred to as the:
A. genotype.
B. genetic code.
C. phenotype.
D. oncogenes.
E. transposons.
9) The process by which RNA is made from a DNA template is called
which of the following?
A. Translation
B. Transformation
C. Transcription
D. Transduction
E. RNA replication
10) All of the following descriptions are accurate concerning
bacterial DNA EXCEPT it:
A. can mutate.
B. is double-stranded.
C. is replicated on the ribosomes.
D. has a shape described as a double helix.
E. can produce exact copies of itself.
11) Which of the following components of bacterial cells are made
during translation?
A. Proteins only
B. DNA only
C. mRNA only
D. Proteins and DNA only
E. Proteins and m RNA only
12) Evaluate the following according to the amount of genetic
material that is present. Which of the following is the correct
order from highest to lowest amounts of genetic material?
A. Gene, chromosome, codon, nucleotide
B. Chromosome, gene, codon, nucleotide
C. Chromosome, gene, nucleotide, codon
D. Nucleotide, chromosome, gene, codon
E. Nucleotide, gene, chromosome, codon
13) In genetic engineering experiments, foreign genes are inserted
into which of the following structures?
A. mRNA
B. Plasmids
C. Ribosomes
D. Chromosomes
E. Membrane vesicles
2
14) Which of the following enzymes is used in gene manipulation to
cut DNA and produce "sticky ends"?
A. DNA ligase
B. DNA polymerase
C. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
D. Reverse transcriptase
E. Restriction endonuclease
15) A modified plasmid can be placed into a recipient bacterium by
which of the following processes?
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Translation
D. Transcription
E. Recombination
16) Killing all the organisms including spores present in a material
is known as:
A. filtration.
B. incineration.
C. sterilization.
D. lyophilization.
E. pasteurization.
17) As applied to microorganisms, the term "death" is most closely
related to which of the following activities of microorganisms?
A. reproduction.
B. metabolism.
C. nutrition.
D. excretion.
E. mutation.
18) Which of the following structures or microorganisms exhibit the
greatest resistance to moist heat?
A. Cysts
B. Endospores
C. Viruses
D. Vegetative cells of bacteria
E. Vegetative cells of fungi
19) Fill in the blanks: (2 points each)
a) The process that produces glucose from phosphoenolpyruvate by a
reversal of glycolysis is called ______________________.
b) When the initial step in some biosynthetic pathways is catalyzed
by a regulatory enzyme that is inhibited by its own product the
process is called _____________________.
c) _____________________is the energy-requiring pumping of ions or
other solutes across a cell membrane from a lower to a higher
concentration.
3
d) __________________ is a type of antimicrobial agent that is used
to kill or prevent the growth of pathogenic vegetative cells on
inanimate objects.
e) The ____________ is that portion of the genetic potential of an
organism which is actually expressed.
f) Genetic exchange in which a virus serves as the vehicle for
carrying DNA from a donor bacterium to a recipient bacterium is
called __________________.
g) A cell or an organism carrying a mutated gene is called a/an
___________; the parent organism with a normal gene is called the
________________.
h) A/An ____________ is an apparatus that uses pressurized steam for
sterilization.
i) _____________________ refers to the fact that microorganisms die
at a constant rate over a period of time.
j) Ultraviolet radiation exerts its greatest bactericidal action as
wavelengths of __________ nanometers, which is where UV light is
absorbed most strongly by __________.
20) Matching (Two points each) Match the following choices with the
descriptions listed below.
__
__
__
__
__
__
__
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
Autoclave
Pasteurization
Gamma radiation
Ultra-low temperature freezers
Incineration
Ultraviolet light
Hot-air oven
1.
2.
3.
Sterilization of transfer loops and needles
Most commonly used form of sterilization
Sterilization of materials damaged by or impermeable to
moisture such as sharp instruments, metals, and oils
Microbicidal treatment that kills microorganisms on the
surface of an object such as the surfaces of hospital
operating rooms or laboratory hoods.
Microbicidal treatment used to sterilize packaged items
Microbiostatic method of preserving stock cultures of
microorganisms at temperatures of -70oC or lower
Destruction of vegetative cells of pathogens and other
microorganisms in milk, fruit juices and other beverages
4.
5.
6.
7.
4
21) Matching (One point each) Match the following terms with the
correct depiction of the mutation.
__
A.
__
__
__
__
B.
C.
D.
E.
Silent(neutral)
mutation
Missense mutation
Nonsense mutation
Insertion mutation
Deletion mutation
1. CGU-CAU-GAG
2. AUG-ACG-CUA
3. CCC-GGG-UAU
Pro Gly Tyr
4. CGC-AAC-GGC
Arg Asp Gly
5. UUA-AAC-GGC
Leu Asn Gly
> CGC-AUG-AG
> AUG-ACU-GCU-A
> CCC-GGG-UAG
Pro Gly *
> CUG-AAC-GGC
Leu Asp Gly
> UUG-AAC-GGC
Leu Asn Gly
22) (a) Briefly describe the three major processes of bacterial genetic
exchange.
(b) What is the role of recombination in the process of bacterial
genetic exchange?
5
23) Describe, using a diagram, the biosynthesis of phospholipid,
beginning with glucose and ending with a simple phospholipid
(phosphatidic acid). Indicate the activated forms of the building
blocks.
6
Microbiology 2014
Fourth Exam
Spring 1994
Your name ________________________
Multiple choice: circle the best answer. (2.5 points each)
1. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
A) Phenol - lysol
B) Halogens - silver nitrate
C) Chemical sterilant - glutaraldehyde
D) Heavy metals - mercury compounds
E) Detergents - quaternary ammonium compounds
2. Resident flora can be found in all of the following locations in the human body EXCEPT the:
A) eye
B) skin
C) blood
D) mouth
E) large intestine
3. A relationship between members of different species in which one organism benefits but the host is not
adversely affected is called:
A) mutualism
B) commensalism
C) parasitism
D) synergism
E) opportunism
4. In which of the following anatomical locations would you expect to find the largest microbial population?
A) mouth
B) skin
C) kidneys
D) large intestine
E) upper respiratory tract
5. A microorganism that initiates disease in a healthy individual is known as a/an:
A) normal flora
B) primary pathogen
C) secondary pathogen
D) avirulent pathogen
E) opportunistic pathogen
6. Which of the following best describes interferon?
A) an antibody to a virus
C) a protein in the complement system
B) a substance comparable to an antigen
D) a substance with action against viruses
7. The invasiveness of a pathogen refers to the ability of the pathogen to:
A) survive
B) produce toxins
C) produce disease
D) penetrate tissues
E) overcome the host's resistance mechanisms
8. Which of the following most correctly describes an antigen?
A) a pathogen
B) a serum protein
C) a foreign substance that provokes the inflammatory response
D) a foreign substance that provokes a humoral or cellular immune response
E) a foreign substance that activates complement
1
9. Which of the following is considered to be the key step in the activation of the complement system?
A) The antigen-antibody combination forms a complex with interferon
B) C3 is split into two fragments-C3a and C3b
C) C1 cleaves proteins from C4 and C2 and exposes their active forms
D) A bacterial antigen lyses the fragment C3a
E) Fragments C2 and C3a fuse to produce fragment C3b
10. All of the following are host factors involved in nonspecific resistance EXCEPT for:
A) phagocytosis
B) the inflammatory response
C) lysozyme
D) the antigen-antibody reaction
E) the barrier of the skin and mucous membranes
11. An increase in the susceptibility of a pathogen to phagocytosis, induced by complement and/or antibodies is
called:
A) opsonization
B) agglutination
C) neutralization
D) phagolysosome fusion
E) complementation
12. The following molecules are potential adhesins EXCEPT:
A) outer membrane proteins B) teichoic acid
C) hyaluronidase
D) flagella
13. The normal flora of the human body consists mainly of
A) bacteria
B) fungi
D) viruses
E) macrophages and PMNs
E) pili
C) protozoa
14. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events involved in phagocytosis of invading
microorganisms by macrophages and PMNs?
A) formation of phagolysosome=>destruction of microbe=>adherence=>ingestion
B) ingestion=>formation of phagolysosome=>adherence=>destruction of microbe
C) adherence=>ingestion=>formation of phagolysosome=>destruction of microbe
D) adherence=>ingestion=>destruction of microbe=>formation of phagolysosome
E) formation of phagolysosome=>adherence=>ingestion=>destruction of microbe
15. Bacteremia is
A) disease associated with bacterial infections of the cerebrospinal fluid.
B) disease associated with bacterial infections of the lower respiratory tract.
C) disease associated with bacterial infections of the bloodstream.
D) disease caused by ingestion of a bacterial toxin.
E) disease caused by Clostridium difficile and Candida albicans in the intestinal tract.
16. The following are major functions of antibodies EXCEPT:
A) opsonization
C) prevention of bacterial growth by binding iron
B) activation of complement
D) neutralization of toxins and viruses
17. Beta-lactam antibiotics inhibit which of the following?
A) DNA synthesis
B) cell wall synthesis
D) cytoplasmic membrane function
C) protein synthesis
E) growth of fungi
2
18. All of the following are mechanisms that can account for the resistance of bacteria to antibiotics EXCEPT
that the:
A) bacteria produce enzymes that destroy the antibiotic
B) bacteria alter ribosomes, enzymes, or other cell components to be unaffected by the antibiotic
C) antibiotics stimulate the bacteria to undergo rapid cell divisions
D) antibiotic is unable to penetrate the cell surface of the bacterium
E) bacteria pump the antibiotic out of the cytoplasm
19. Fill in the blanks: (2 points each)
a) A microorganism that is normally not pathogenic but that can cause disease if tissue injury occurs or
the resistance of the body to infection is decreased is call a/an __________________________.
b) Animals raised in an environment that is free of all demonstrable viable microorganisms are referred to
as ________________________. If these animals are colonized by one or more known species, they are then
referred to as _________________________.
c) The association in which two or more organisms living together benefit from the relationship is called
_____________________________.
d) Microorganisms that establish themselves briefly in or on the body but are not considered to be part of
the resident flora are called __________________________.
e) __________________________ is a quantitative term used to describe the degree of pathogenicity of
a microorganism.
f) _______________________ is a protein, found in mucous membranes, that binds iron and thus denies
an essential nutrient to potentially pathogenic microorganism.
g) Lymphocytes that differentiate in the thymus and are mainly responsible for cellular immunity are
called _______________________.
h) The surface proteins that mark "self" on human cells are called ________________________.
i) ________________________ is the term used for hospital-acquired infections.
j) The interferon-activated lymphocytes of the human non-specific defense system that seek out and
destroy tumor or viral-infected cells are called _________________________________.
Short answer: (5 points each)
20. What is colonization resistance, and what does it have to do with the fact that patients on antibiotics
frequently get diarrhea?
3
21. What is meant by the term portal of entry? What are some examples of portals of entry.
Matching:
22. (One point each) Match the following terms with the correct description.
__ A. Hemolysin
__ B. Exotoxin
__ C. Neurotoxin
__ D. Coagulase
__ E. Enterotoxin
__ F. Endotoxin
__ G. Toxoid
__ H. Lecithinase
__ I. Antitoxin
__ J. Hyaluronidase
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
secreted, proteinaceous toxin
makes fibrin coat surrounding bacterium
botulism toxin, for example
destroys phospholipid
"spreading factor" that degrades
connective tissue between epithelial cells
6. lipopolysaccharide (LPS), for example
7. toxin that has been neutralized by cleavage
or denaturation
8. lyses red blood cells
9. antibody raised against a toxin
10. frequently causes diarrhea
23. (7 points) Describe, with the help of a drawing, the ways that bacteria can associate with and colonize
human epithelial surfaces (mucous membranes). Describe two host processes that function to prevent such
colonizations.
4
24. (8 points) Describe, with words and diagram, the activation and response of B- and T-cells when an antigen
is detected by the specific immune system.
.
5