Modul 1. Medical prescription. Pharmacology of agents affecting

Modul 1.

Medical prescription. Pharmacology of agents affecting nervous system

Text test questions

1 Drug for general anaesthesia with the widest range of narcotic action

A Nitrous oxide

B Sombrevin

C Ethyl alcohol

D Thiopental

E *Ether for anesthesia

2 Typical effect, which develops during introduction to ether anaesthesia

A Does not irritate mucous membranes

B does not cause myorelaxation

C Rapid development of anesthesia

D Absence of sleep after narcosis

E *Protracted stage of excitation

3 The medicine for i.v. and i.m. anesthesia

A Ether for anesthesia

B Nitrous oxide

C Phthorothanum

D Propanidid

E *Ketaminum

4 The preparation for inhalation anesthesia

A Natrii oxybutyras

B Sombrevin

C Ketamin

D Propanidid

E *Nitrous oxide

5 Nitrous oxide is characterized by

A Proper myorelaxation

B Prolonged stage of excitation

C Mucous membrane irritation

D Deep anesthesia

E *Expressed analgesia

6 Drug for general anesthesia, the derivative of barbiturates, which contains sulfur

A Nitrous oxide

B Aether pro narcosi

C Ketamin

D Sombrevin

E *Thiopentalum

7 The duration of Propanidide action

A 3-5 hours

B 20-30 min.

C 0,5-1 hours

D 20-30 sec.

E *3-5 min.

8 The preparation used for insomnia

A Difenine

B Ethosuximidum

C Carbamazepine

D Ketaminum

E *Nitrazepam

9 Diazepame main property which used for neurosis treatment

A Analeptical

B Narcotic

C Antipsychotic

D Anaesthetic

E *Anxiolytic

10 Phenobarbital main property

A Does not change the structure of sleep

B Stimulates psychical activity

C Does not cause accumulation

D Does not activate microsomal enzyme system

E *Shortens the phase of rapid sleep

11 The long-term phenobarbitale admininstration may cause

A Anaesthesia

B Tachyphylaxis

C Blockade of microsomal enzymes

D Analgesia

E *Material accumulation

12 Which preparation can markedly change the structure of sleep?

A Phenitoin

B Zopiclone

C Gidasepam

D Bromide

E *Phenobarbital

13 The preparation with somnolent and antihistaminic activity

A Phenobarbital

B Zopiclone

C Sibazone

D Nitrazepamum

E *Dimedrolum

14 Which preparation is effective for trigeminal neuralgia?

A Nitrazepamum

B Sibazone

C Bromide

D Phenobarbital

E *Carbamazepine

15 Typical side effect of diphenine (phenitoin), showing up in the cavity of mouth

A Dryness

B Hypersalivation

C Stomatitis

D Glossitis

E *Gingival hyperplasia

16 What is the drug for epilepsia treatment?

A Amitryptilin

B Magnesium sulfate

C Ketaminum

D Valeriana

E *Carbamazepine

17 Carbamazepine is applied for

A Improvement of mood

B For local anaesthesia

C Breathing stimulations

D General anesthesia

E *Epilepsy treatment

18 Which concentration of Ethyl alcohol solution for surgeon hands rinsing correlates with proper antiseptic effect?

A 96%

B 40%

C 30%

D 10%

E *70%

19 What Ethyl alcohol concentration for disinfection of surgical instruments?

A 70%

B 40%

C 76%

D 30%

E *96%

20 Ethyl alcohol is used for inhalation at

A Insomnia

B Allergy

C Oppressing of breathing

D Cardiac arrhythmia

E *Pulmonary edema

21 Why ethyl alcohol cannot be used for general anesthesia?

A Increases heat beating and renders a diuretic action

B Strong irritative action

C Absence of prolonged stage of analgesia

D Causes chronic intoxication

E *Narrow therapeutic window and expressed stage of excitation

22 Effect of Natrii oxybutyras

A Antipsychotic

B Analeptical

C Local anesthesia

D Psycho-motor stimulant

E *Antihypoxic

23 The drug used for Parkinson disease which affects dophaminergic processes in CNS

A Cyclodolum

B Difenin

C Karbamazepinum

D Phenobarbital

E *Levodopa

24 Drug for Parkinson disease with the central cholinoblocking action?

A Levodopa

B Carbidopa

C Phenobarbital

D Nitrazepam

E *Cyclodolum

25 Levodopa effect at Parkinsonism is due to:

A Oppression of dophaminergic processes in CNS

B Stimulation of cholinergic processes in CNS

C Oppression of cholinergic processes in CNS

D Oppression of glutamatergic processes in CNS

E *Stimulation of dophaminergic processes in CNS

26 Cyclodolum is used for:

A Pain

B Anesthesia

C Epilepsia

D Insomnia

E *Parkinson disease

27 Property of Nitrous oxide which may be used in ambulatory dental practice for tooth extraction:

A Drying

B Anesthetic

C Irritating

D Disinfecting

E *Analgesic

28 Coffeine is

A Antidepressant

B Nootropic drug

C Analgesic

D Anxiolytic

E *Psycho-motor stimulant

29 Preparation which belongs to analeptics

A Proserinum

B Lidocaine

C Adrenalini hydrochloridum

D Ketamini hydrochloridum

E *Bemegridum


A Piracetam

B Sydnocarb

C Natrii oxybutyras

D Amitriptyline

E *Cordiaminum

31 Basic pharmacological effect of analeptics

A Antidepressive

B Anti cough

C Dilation of vessels

D Memory increase

E *Breathing stimulation

32 Psychomotor stimulant

A Aethimizolum

B Bemegridum

C Cordiaminum

D Camphora

E *Caffeine

33 Analeptics indication

A Psychical depression

B Postoperative atony of the intestine

C Hypertension crisis

D Insomnia

E *Oppressing of breathing

34 The preparation used for respiratory and vasomotor centers stimulation is called

A Paracetamolum

B Proserinum

C Amitriptyline

D Morphinum

E *Caffeine

35 Nootropic drug (neurometabolic cerebroprotector)

A Caffeine

B Noradrenalinum

C Proserinum

D Cordiaminum

E *Piracetam

36 Caffeine action caused by excitation of brain stem center:

A Tranquilizer

B Improvement of memory

C Mental and physical capacity increase

D Tachycardia

E *Breathing stimulation

37 Antidepressant used for treatment of endogenous depressions (schizophrenia, manicdepressive psychosis) is

A Proserinum

B Caffeine

C Bemegridum

D Sibazonum

E *Amitriptyline

38 Sulfocamphocainum is used

A For endogenous depression

B For rheumatism

C For arterial hypertension

D For tachyarrhythmias

E *For medulla centers activation

39 Caffeine is

A Analeptic and antidepressant

B Antidepressant and psychomotor stimulant

C Antidepressant and nootropic

D Analeptic and nootropic

E *Analeptic and psychomotor stimulant

40 Piracetamum nootropic activity reveals in

A Delirium and hallucinations

B Fear

C Fatigue

D Depression

E *Improvement of studying and memory

41 Coffeine is not used for cardiac insufficiency treatment due to its ability:

A To diminish oxygen consumption of myocardium

B To increase intensity of systole

C To diminish intensity of systole

D To cause bradycardia

E *To increase oxygen consumption of myocardium

42 Bemegridum is not applied at somnolent poisoning due to its ability:

A To promote excitability of neurons of CNS

B To stimulate the centers of brain stem

C To promote arterial hypertension

D To stimulate breathing

E *To provoke cramps and hypoxia of CNS

43 Mechanism of Cordiaminum stimulative influence on breathing

A Direct action on respiratory center

B Reflex action on respiratory center

C Intensive contraction of respiratory muscles

D Intensive contraction of the diaphragm

E *Mixed action on respiratory center

44 Bronchial asthma attacks are relieved with

A Noradrenalinum

B Mesatonum

C Anaprilinum

D Reserpine

E *Salbutamolum

45 Mechanism of Salbutamole bronchodilation action

A Stimulation alpha 1 – adrenoreceptors of the bronchi

B Stimulation of м – cholinoreceptors of the bronchi

C Blockage of м-cholinoreceptors of the bronchi

D Blockage beta 2 - adrenoreceptors of the bronchi

E *Stimulation beta 2 - adrenoreceptors of the bronchi

46 Mechanism of Cytitonum stimulant influence on breathing

A Direct action on a respiratory center

B Mixed action on a respiratory center

C Intensive contraction of the intercostal muscles

D Intensive contraction of the diaphragm

E *Reflex action on a respiratory center

47 The expectorant of reflex action

A Acetylcysteinum

B Trypsinum

C Natrii hydrocarbonate

D Bromhexinum

E *Thermopsis drugs

48 Complications, arising up at codeine application as anti cough agent

A Dry mouth, insomnia

B Tachycardia, arrhythmia

C Tachypnoe, bronchospasm

D Increase of arterial pressure

E *Constipation, medical dependence

49 Bemegridum belongs to the group of

A Narcotic analgesics

B Non-narcotic analgesics

C Antidepressants

D Psychostimulants

E *Analeptics

50 Complication, arising up at the overdose of the Thermopsis herb extract

A Bronchial asthma

B Arrhythmia

C Bradycardia

D Dry mouth

E *Vomiting

51 Libexinum belongs to the group of



C Mucolytics agents

D Stimulators of breathing

E *Anticough drugs

52 Acetylcysteinum is used for treatment

A Hypertensive disease

B Ulcer disease

C Angina pectoris

D Arrhythmias

E *Chronic bronchitis

53 Cordiaminum is used for

A Bronchial asthma

B Hypertensive disease

C Bronchitis

D Gastritis

E *Collapse

54 Bromhexinum belongs to the group of

A Non-narcotic analgesics

B Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

C Laxatives

D Analeptics

E *Mucolytics

55 beta 2-adrenomimetics include:

A Nafthyzinum

B Adrenaline hydrochloridum

C Atropine sulfas

D Methacinum

E *Salbutamolum

56 Glucocorticoid used as inhalation for bronchial asthma treatment

A Isadrinum

B Salbutamolum

C Euphyllinum

D Cromolinum-natrium

E *Beclometazoni dipropionat

57 Ketotifenum is used for

A Constipation

B Pneumonia treatment

C Gastritis

D Angina pectoris

E *Prophylaxis of bronchial asthma attack

58 Mechanism of action of Cromolinum-sodium

A Blockage of adenosine A alpha1- receptors in the bronchi

B Stimulation of beta2 - adrenoreceptors of the bronchi

C Blockage of beta2 - adrenoreceptors of the bronchi

D Blockage of M - cholinoreceptors of the bronchi

E *Stabilisation of mast cells membranes and prevention release of allergy mediators

59 Local anesthetics affect:

A Cortex of cerebrum

B Thalamus

C Limbic system

D Proteins of superficial layer of mucous membranes and skin

E *Endings of sensitive nerves and nerve fibers

60 The action of local anesthetics is

A Increase of permeability of cellular membranes for calcium ions

B Oppressing of pain impulses in the spinal cord

C Oppressing of pain impulses at thalamus

D Activating of the endogenous antinociceptive system

E *Decrease of permeability of cellular membranes for sodium ions

61 Local anesthetic of the ether group (according to chemical structure):

A Lidocaine

B Ultracaine

C Trimecainum

D Bupivacaine

E *Novocainee

62 How does action of local anesthetics change in the locus of inflammatory process?

A Does not change

B Increases

C Accelerates

D Lengthens

E *Reduces

63 Local anesthetic of the amide group (according to chemical structure):

A Cocaine

B Anaesthesinum

C Novocaine

D Dicainum

E *Lidocaine

64 Vasoconstrictive agents supplements to the solutions of local anesthetics results in:

A Acceleration of local anesthetic absorption

B Effect decreases

C Toxic effect increases

D Systemic action increases

E *Prophylaxis of their resorbtive (systemic) action

65 The group of drugs, which intensify and increase the duration of action of local anesthetics:

A Analeptics

B alfa-adrenoblockers

C M-cholinomimetics

D N-cholinomimetics

E *alfa-adrenomimetics

66 The preparation used for all types of local anesthesia:

A Cocaine

B Dicainum

C Anaesthesinum

D Novocaine

E *Lidocaine

67 Lidocaine

A Is used only for infiltrative and conductive anesthesia

B Is not used for anesthesia

C Is used only for superficial anesthesia

D Is used only for spinal anesthesia

E *Is used for all kinds of local anesthesia

68 Novocaine

A Is used only for infiltrative anesthesia

B Is not a derivative of PABA

C Is not destroyed by cholinesterase

D May be combined with sulphonamides

E *Often causes allergic reactions

69 Neuroleptics are administered for:

A Neuroses

B Hyperkinesis

C Collapse

D Parkinson’s disease

E *Psychoses

70 The typical effect for all neuroleptics:

A Anti cough

B Expectorant

C Nootropic

D Psychostimulative

E *Antipsychotic

71 Neuroleptic, used for neuroleptanalgesia

A Aminazine

B Triftazine

C Levomepromazinum

D Haloperidol

E *Droperidol

72 Mechanism of myorelaxation of tranquilizers

A Oppress an acetylcholinesterase

B Block M-cholinoreceptors of smooth muscles

C Block N-cholinoreceptors of skeletal muscles

D Direct influence on myofibrils of skeletal muscles

E *Oppress the central mechanisms of muscular tonus

73 Mechanism of antipsychotic action of neuroleptics

A Blockade of cholinoreceptors in CNS

B Blockade of adenosine receptors in CNS

C Blockade of histamine receptors in CNS

D Activating of GABA-receptors in CNS

E *Blockade of dopamine D2-receptors in CNS

74 The typical effect of tranquilizers of benzodiazepine is:

A Antipsychotic

B Hypothermal

C Antivomiting

D M-cholinoblocking

E *Anxyolitic

75 The tranquilizer, applied for premedication before an operation

A Nitrazepam

B Haloperidol

C Droperidol

D Aminazine

E *Diazepam

76 Tranquilizer with the expressed somnolent action

A Codeine

B Aminazine

C Dimedrolum

D Ephedrine

E *Nitrazepam

77 The effect of Diazepamum

A Antipsychotic

B Antivomiting

C Hypothermal

D M-cholinoblocking

E *Anxyolitic

78 The effect of Etaperazinum

A Psychostimulative

B Provokes vomiting

C Hypertensive

D Spasmolytic

E *Antivomiting

79 The preparation, applied at neuroses

A Adrenalinum

B Isadrinum

C Cordiaminum

D Atropinum

E *Sibazon

80 The typical complication, developing after long-term administration of Aminasinum and other neuroleptics

A Euphoria

B Increase of arterial pressure

C Vomiting

D Bradycardia

E *Parkinsonism

81 The typical complication, developing after prolonged usage of Diazepamum and other tranquilizers

A Extrapyramidal disorders

B Gastritis

C Bronchial asthma

D Arterial pressure increase

E *Drug dependence

82 Basic difference of neuroleptics from tranquilizers

A Anticonvulsant properties

B Do not affect the vegetative nervous system

C Do not intensify the action of anesthesia drugs

D Cause tachyphylaxis

E *Antipsychotic effect

83 The tranquilizer is:

A Aminazine

B Morphine

C Droperidol

D Fentanyl

E *Sibazon

84 Aminazine, Droperidol belong to

A Tranquilizers

B Antidepressants

C Analeptics

D Nootropic drugs

E *Neuroleptics

85 The mechanism of action of sodium bromide

A Excitation of M-cholinoreceptors in the brain

B Intensifying processes of excitation in CNS

C Blockade of the histamine receptors in CNS

D Blockade of dopamine receptors in CNS

E *Intensifying processes of depression in the brain

86 Valerian and Motherwort preparations belong to the group

A Tranquilizers

B Neuroleptics

C Sleeping-pills

D Anticonvulsant preparations

E *Sedative preparations

87 The symptoms of bromism (side effect of long-term bromides administration)

A Excitation of CNS, dryness of mucous membranes

B Constipation, stomach-ache

C Tachycardia, insomnia

D Nausea, vomiting

E *Acne rashes, somnolence, rhino rhea

88 The drug which after long-term administration causes phenomenon of bromism

A Sodium hydrocarbonate

B Sodium sulfate

C Sodium citrate

D EDTA (Trilonum B)

E *Sodium bromide

89 The plant with sedative action

A Lemon

B Thermopsis

C Foxglove

D Strophanthus

E *Valeriana

90 How do we mark the neuroleptics effect of removing delirium and hallucinations

A Antivomiting

B Sedation

C Hypothermal

D Myorelaxation

E *Antipsychotic

91 The main complication after neuroleptics administration

A Arterial pressure increase

B Bradycardia

C Drug dependence

D Euphoria

E *Extrapyramidal disorders

92 Neuroleptic which causes Parkinson syndrome due to its M-cholinoblocking activity

A Rezerpine

B Aspirin

C paracetamol

D Etaperazin

E *Aminazine

93 Which preparation belongs to neuroleptics

A Chlozepid

B Sibazon

C Phenazepamum

D Nitrazepamum

E *Aminazinum

94 The excitation of benzodiazepine receptors is accompanied with:

A Antipsychotic effect

B Antivomiting effect

C Arterial pressure increase

D Arterial pressure decrease

E *Anxiolytic effect

95 Benzodiazepine tranquilizers intensify the action

A Psychomotor stimulants

B Analeptics

C Antidepressants

D Nootropic preparations

E *General anesthetics, analgesics, somnolents

96 Prolonged administration of tranquilizers is limited due to their ability to cause:

A Myorelaxation of central genesis

B Intensifying of analgesics action

C Somnolent effect

D Anticonvulsant effect

E *Drug dependence

97 What is the mechanism of indirect-action cholinergic stimulants action?

A Stimulate beta-adrenoreceptors

B Block of М-cholinoreceptors

C Block of monoaminooxidase

D Affect serotonine receptors

E *Block of cholinesterase

98 Patient entered the hospital neurological department with post-stroke syndrome. What cholinergic medicine is the most expediently to the patient?

A Atropine

B Dipiroxim

C Salbutamol

D Aspirine

E *Galantamine

99 Patient with the acute stomachache, vomiting, heavy breathing, bronchospasm, was delivered to the intensive therapy department. During examination of patient - skin moisture, hypersalivation, myosis, bradycardia, muscular fascilation was noted. From the anamnesis it is known, that patient – toxin abused person, used aerosols against insects as abuse substance.

What pharmacological group of agents the poisoning substance belongs to?

A N- cholinomimetic

B

М-choliniblockers

C Myorelaxants

D Ganglion-blockers

E *Anticholinesterase agents

100 To patient with signs of poisoning by phosphor organic substance cholinesterase reactivator was injected. Indicate a mechanism of action of this drug.

A Inactivation of cholinesterase

B Block of cholinoreceptors

C Activate of cholinoreceptors

D Oppression of acetylcholine synthesis

E *Dephosphorilation of cholinesterase with renewal of its activity

101 What is the mechanism of action of proserine?

A Stimulates beta – adrenoreceptors

B

Blocks М-cholinoreceptors

C Blocks monoaminooxidase

D Acts on serotonin receptors

E *Blocks of cholinesterase

102 Patient complaints to dizziness, nausea, salivation and spastic stomachache. He was

delivered to a hospital. The diagnosis: poisoning by the phosphor organic substance. What medicines must be included to the complex therapy?

A Tiosulfate sodium and Bemegridum

B Tetacin-calcium and Unitiolum

C Nalorphine hydrochloride and Bemegridum

D Glucose and Bemegridum

E *Atropine sulfate and Dipiroxim

103 To the patient with post-operation atony of intestine Proserine was injected. What is the mechanism of drug’s action?

A Receptor

B Physical and chemical inter-reaction

C Affects ionic channels of cellular membrane

D Affects the transport systems of cellular membranes

E *Enzyme blockade

104 The woman of 63 years for renewal of functions of CNS after the stroke of brain injections of Galantamine was recommended. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

A Block of MAO

B Block of KOMT

C Block of GABA-receptors

D Block of Catalase


105 What is therapeutic indication of Proserine

A Dislocation of lens

B Fever

C Ulcer disease

D Hypertension

E *The treatment of glaucoma

106 Which of the following therapeutic effect do indirect cholinergic stimulants have?

A Decreased GI motility

B Mydriasis

C Vasoconstriction

D Increase of arterial pressure

E *Increased GI motility

107 What agent does belong to М-cholinomimetics?

A Proserine

B Atropine

C Platyphylline

D Ephedrine

E *Aceclidine

108 What agent does belong to М-cholinoblockers?

A Proserine

B Phosphacole

C Acetylcholine

D Cytitone

E *Atropine

109 What group of agents does Atropine sulfate belong to?

A М-cholinomimetics

B N-cholinomimetics

C Adrenoblockers

D Anticholinesterase agents

E *М-cholinoblockers

110 What group of agents is used for the treatment of ulcer disease of stomach and duodenum?

A N-cholinomimetics

B Myorelaxants

C Adrenomimetics



111 How М-cholinomimetics act?

A Block of M-cholinoreceptors

B Inactivate of cholinesterase

C Activate cholinesterase

D Block cholinacetylase

E *Activate of M-cholinoreceptors

112 What drug is used for dilatation of pupil when eye examination has been made?

A Proserine

B Tubacurarine

C Methacine

D Pilocarpine

E *Atropine

113 Which of the following therapeutic effect does Skopolamine hydrobromide have?

A Reduce intraocular pressure

B Atony of skeletas musculature

C Arterial hypertension

D Myorelaxation

E *Relaxation of smooth musculature

114 Group of drugs that produce paralysis of visual accommodation?


B N-cholinomimetics

C Adrenomimetics

D Cholinesterase blockers


115 Group of medicines that causes a spasm of visual accommodation?

A М-cholinoblockers

B N-cholinomimetics

C Adrenomimetics

D Sympatholitics


116 Choose the indication to atropine.

A Glaucoma

B Myasthenia

C Atony of intestine

D Epilepsy

E *Ulcer disease

117 Patient complaints to dry mouth, photophobia and violation of vision were delivered to the hospital. The other symptoms: hyperemic, dry skin, dilated pupils, tachycardia. Acute

poisoning by alkaloids of Belladonna was diagnosed. What medicine is the most expediently to patient?

A Aceclidine

B Pilocarpine

C Armine

D Dipiroxime

E *Proserine

118 The child, by chance, drank solution from the small bottle, which his grandmother used for the treatment of glaucoma. The physician prescribed atropine to the child. What is the mechanism of atropine antidote action?

A Co-operation with cellular metabolites

B Physic-chemical

C Antienzymic

D Enzymic

E *Antagonism to specific receptors

119 At 5 years old child was noted: moving excitation, delirium, hoarse voice, dilated pupils which are not irresponsive on light, dry, hot, hyperemic skin, tachycardia, tachypnoe.

The indicated symptoms appeared after the child ate Belladonna berries. Medicine of which pharmacological group it is necessary to prescribe?

A N-cholinolitics

B N-cholinomimetics

C M-cholinomimetics

D Cholinesterase reactivates


120 At adult man in 15-20 min after ingestion the Ammanita muscaria mushrooms the excitation, increased sweating, the phenomena of acute gastroenteritis, the narrowed pupils were noted. Then cramps, bradycardia, considerable general weakness, somnolence, the collapse developed. The doctor immediately injected to the sick patient antidote from the group:

A N-cholinomimetics

B N-cholinolitics

C Anticholinesterase agents

D Reactivators of cholinesterase


121 The 6 years old child was delivered to the hospital with symptoms of psycho-motor excitation, dry mouth, bad swallowing and horse voice. A skin was dry, hot. Pupils were extended; photophobia, tachycardia. From anamnesis it is known, that child ate some berries of dark-violet color. What toxic substance has caused acute poisoning?

A Pirenzepine

B Pilocarpine

C Proserin

D Methacine

E *Atropine

122 To the patient with ulcer disease of stomach in the period of increased acidity of gastric juice (in anamnesis is glaucoma) it is necessary to prescribe some М-cholinoblocker. What agent must be chosen, taking into account attendant diseases?

A Adrenaline

B Atropine

C Scopolamine

D Mesatone

E *Methacine

123 Patient with the complaints to dry mouth, photophobia and violation of sight was delivered to the hospital. The skin was hyperemic, dry, pupils were extended, tachycardia.

After examination it was diagnosed: poisoning by alkaloids of Belladonna. What medicine is the most expediently to patient?

A Pilocarpine

B Dipiroxime

C Diazepam

D Armine

E *Proserine

124 What substance is sensitive to M-cholinoreceptors?

A Novocainee

B Nalorphine

C Nicotine

D Atropine

E *Muscarine

125 What group of drugs may be used for hypertensive emergences?

A Sympathomimetics

B alpha-adrenomimetics

C beta-adrenomimetics

D Myorelaxants

E *Ganglionblockers

126 What agent belongs to ganglionblockers?

A Mesatone

B Proserine

C Atropine

D Tubocurarine

E *Benzohexonium

127 What group of agents does Hygronium belong to?

A Myorelaxants

B Anticholinesterase agents

C М-cholinoblockers

D N-cholinomimetics

E *Ganglionblockers

128 Indication of Tubocurarine

A Asphyxia

B High blood pressure crisis

C Glaucoma

D Ulcer disease

E *Myorelaxation

129 What agent does belong to myorelaxants?

A Hygronium

B Proserine

C Aceclidine

D Atropine sulfate

E *Tubocurarine chloride

130 Indication of myorelaxants?

A High blood pressure crisis

B Parkinson’s disease

C Myastenia

D Pneumonia

E *Myorelaxation in surgery

131 Which of the following therapeutic effects is typical for ganglionblockers?

A Increase of blood pressure

B Increase of intestine motility

C Relaxation of muscles

D Contraction of pupils

E *Decrease of blood pressure

132 What effects do exist in a case of myorelaxants introduction?

A Contraction of pupils

B Decrease of intestine motility

C Relaxation of smooth muscles

D Decrease of eye pressure

E *Relaxation of skeletal muscles

133 What muscles are relaxed after myorelaxants introduction at last?

A Muscles of fingers of hands and feet

B Muscles of face

C Trunk muscles

D Muscles of eyes

E *Diaphragm muscles

134 What tubocurarine is used for?

A For the removal of bronchial spasm

B For the treatment of intestine atony

C For the removal of attacks of angina pectoris

D For the treatment of glaucoma

E *For myorelaxation

135 After operation of reposition of femur fracture when Tubacurarine was used, breathing of patient did not resume. What is necessary to inject?

A Platyphylline

B Cyclodole

C Atropine

D Acetylcholine

E *Proserine

136 Deficiency of what enzyme causes the prolongation of Ditiline (lystenone) action from several minutes to several hours?

A Succinatedehydrogenase

B Carboanhydrase

C N-acetyltransferase

D К+, Na+-АТP-ase

E *Butyrilcholinesterase of blood

137 What drug can improve skeletal muscles contraction after poliomyelitis?

A Platyphylline

B Methacine

C Atropine sulfate

D Tubocurarine

E *Galantamine hydrobromide

138 What drug (short acting myorelaxant) may be used for attenuating of skeletal muscles contraction during reposition of bones in femur fracture?

A Anapriline

B Tubacurarine

C Atropine

D Adrenaline

E *Dithyline

139 In 30 minutes after short-term surgical operation with Dithyline administration the spontaneous breathing of the patient does not appear. What is necessary to prescribe to this patient?

A Hemodialysis

B Hemosorbtion

C Forced diuresis

D Peritoneum dialysis

E *Fresh blood transfusion

140 In 30 minutes after short-term surgical operation with Dithyline administration the spontaneous breathing of the patient does not appear. What genetic pathology is the main reason to this complication?

A Deficiency of katalase

B Deficiency of acetylcholinesterase

C Deficiency of glucoso-6-phosphatase

D Deficiency of glutationperoxydase

E *Deficiency of butyrilcholinesterase

141 At 39 years old woman for the removal of high blood pressure crisis the solution of

Hygronium was injected. What is the mechanism of the drug action?

A Blockade of М-cholinoreceptors

B Stimulation of М-, Н-cholinoreceptors

C Stimulation of N-cholinoreceptors

D

Stimulation of М-cholinoreceptors

E *Blockade of N-cholinoreceptors

142 The man appeared at the trauma department with diagnosis: fracture of femur with displacement. 10 ml of 2 % solution of Dithyline were used for reposition of bones. As a result protracted apnea and myorelaxation developed. Deficit of what enzyme caused such complication?

A Uridindiphosphoglucoronic transferase

B Glucoso-6-phosphatdehydrogenase

C Methemoglobinreductase

D N-acetyltransferase

E *Butyrilcholinesterase

143 What preparation belongs to the beta -adrenomimetics?

A Anaprilin.

B Adrenalin.

C Phentholamin.

D Reserpin.

E *Isadrin.

144 What preparation belongs to alpha-adrenoblockers?

A Adrenalin.

B Octadine.

C Mezaton.

D Anaprilin.

E *Phentholamine.

145 What group of remedies does Anaprilin belong to?

A alpha-adrenoblockers.

B alpha, beta-adrenomimetics.

C sympatholytics.

D beta-adrenomimetics.

E *beta-adrenoblockers.

146 When is naphthysin used?

A Collapse

B Bronchial asthma

C Cardiac arrhythmia

D Cardiac arrest.

E *Rhinitis

147 What substance is a mediator of adrenergic synapses?

A Anaprilin

B Acethylcholin.

C Mezaton.

D Dophamin.

E *Noradrenalin

148 What is the way of noradrenalin introduction to the organism?

A Intramuscular.

B Per oral.

C Subcutaneous.

D Intracutaneous.

E *Intravenous.

149 What disease is the main indication to Reserpine administration?

A Diabetes mellitus.

B Hypotonic disease.

C Endarteriitis.

D Arrhythmia.

E *Hypertensive disease.

150 What is the main effect after noradrenalin usage?

A Vasodilatation

B Bronchodilatation

C Bronchoconstriction

D Analeptic

E *Vasoconstriction

151 After eye drops usage the patient began to suffer from paralysis of accommodation and mydriasis. What group of preparations can cause such effect?

A M-cholinomimetics

B Cholinesterase inhibitors

C Beta-adrenoblockers

D Beta-adrenomimetics

E *M-cholinoblockers

152 The patient with disturbed circulation of lower limbs was treated with selective alpha-1 adrenoblocker. Which of them?

A Adrenalin.

B Acethylcholin.

C Mezaton.

D Dophamin.

E *Phentolamin

153 The patient, who suffered from endarteriitis, was prescribed a Phentholamine. After its usage tachycardia occured. What is the reason to this undesirable effect?

A Blockade of the postsynaptic beta-adrenergic receptors

B Blockade of the postsynaptic N-cholinenergic receptors

C Blockade of the postsynaptic M-cholinenergic receptors

D Blockade of serotonine receptors

E *Blockade of the presynaptic alpha-adrenergic receptors.

154 What medicine belongs to antipsychotics’?

A Anapriline

B Sibasone.

C Sodium bromide

D Caffeine.

E *Aminazine

155 What medicine belongs to tranquilizers?

A Aminazine

B Haloperidol

C Sodium bromide.

D Tincture of Valeriana.

E *Sibazon

156 What preparation does belong to the sedative remedies?

A Aminazine

B Haloperidol

C Sibazon

D Chlozepide.

E *Tincture of Valerian

157 What medicine is used for psychosis treatment?

A Phenthanil

B Paracetamol

C Codeine phosphate.

D Nalorphine.

E *Aminazine

158 With what pharmacological group is narcotic analgesic combined in a case of neuroleptanalgesia?

A Tranquilizers

B Nonnarcotic analgesics

C M-cholinomimetics

D M-cholinoblockers

E *Neuroleptics.

159 In the patient, who suffered from irritability, sleeplessness, rapid fatigability and emotional misbalance, neurosis has been diagnosed. What drug can be prescribed?

A Anaprilin

B Sodium chloride

C Aminazine.

D Atropine

E *Sibazon.

160 The patient, who suffered from anxiety, fear, hesitancy Sibazon has been prescribed.

What is the mechanism of its tranquilizing activity?

A Interaction with adrenergic receptors.

B Interaction with cholinergic receptors.

C Interaction with serotonin receptors.

D Interaction with dopaminergic receptors.

E *Interaction with benzodiazepine receptors.

161 The patient, who suffered from hyper excitability, irritability, sleeplessness was prescribed Phenazepam. What is the mechanism of its action?

A Stimulation of GABA (gamma amino butyric acid) receptors.

B Stimulation of ?-adrenergic receptors.

C Stimulation of M-cholinergic receptors.

D Stimulation of H-cholinergic receptors.

E *Stimulation of benzodiazepine receptors.

162 Neuroleptanalgesia was used in a case of surgical operation. What neuroleptic is often used with phenthanile for this type of general anesthesia?

A Caffeine

B Diazepam

C Clozapin.

D Anapriline.

E *Droperidole

163 Neuroleptanalgesia was used in a case of myocardial infarction. What narcotic analgesic is often used with droperidole in this case?

A Pentazocin

B Omnopon

C Morphine.

D Promedol.

E *Phenthanil

164 The patient, suffered from schizophrenia, was prescribed Aminazine for delirium and hallucinations reducing. What is the mechanism of its antipsychotic action?

A Stimulate dopaminergic receptors in CNS.

B Stimulate cholinergic receptors in CNS.

C Block cholinergic receptors in CNS.

D Inhibition of re-up taking of MAO.

E *Block dopaminergic receptors in CNS.

165 After examining the patient was prescribed a remedy that is used in a case of neurosis or neurosis-like situation, hyper excitability and irritability. What pharmacological group does this remedy belong to?

A Analgesics

B Analeptics

C Antipsychotics

D CNS stimulants.

E *Anxiolytics

166 The patient instead Aminazine was prescribed another neuroleptic. What drug belongs

to this group?

A Phentanile

B Paracetamol

C Sibazon

D Morphine.

E *Haloperidol

167 The physician monitors for side effects a patient who is treated with neuroleptic. What side effect is the most typical for these drugs?

A Hyper salivation

B Hypertension

C Diarrhea

D Cramps

E *Extrapyramidal syndrome

168 At the hands of nurse, which works at the psychiatric unit the symptoms of neurodermitis appear. What drug can cause such adverse effect?

A Morphine

B Paracetamol

C Atropine

D Diazepam.

E *Aminazine

169 Antipsychotic medication which is beneficial for schizophrenia is:

A Morphine

B Paracetamol

C Atropine

D Diazepam.

E *Clozapine

170 What is the mechanism of irritating substances action?

A distant action on CNS

B form albuminates

C direct action on CNS

D

Decrease of vessel’s wall penetration;

E *cutano-visceral reflexes

171 What kind of anesthesia is Anaesthesine used for?

A Conductive anesthesia

B Trunk anesthesia

C Infiltrative anesthesia

D Spinal anesthesia

E *Superficial anesthesia

172 Ammonii caustici is used for?

A As antiseptic for wounds

B Heavy metal salts poisoning

C Instrument sterilisation

D Superficial anaesthesia

E *Unconsciousness

173 What kind of anaesthesia is Dicainum used for?

A Conductive anaesthesia

B Trunk anaesthesia

C Infiltrative anaesthesia

D Spinal anaesthesia

E *Superficial anaesthesia

174 Drug of choice for cleaning the stomach during heavy salts metal and alkaloids poisoning

A Solution of Menthol

B Solution of Ammonia caustic

C Bismuth nitras

D Infusion of Salvia leaves

E *Solution of Tannin

175 Indication for Bismuth nitras external usage

A Alkaloid poisoning


C Crakes of rectum

D Alcohol poisoning

E *Dermatitis, eczema

176 What concentration of Novocaine solution is used for infiltrative anesthesia?

A 1-2%

B 3%

C 10-20%

D 0,05%

E *0,25-0,5%

177 What drug depends to the irritative agents?

A Tannin

B Bismuth nitras

C Argenti nitras

D Carbo activatus

E *Menthol

178 For treatment of what poisoning Tannin is a drug of first choice?

A Acids

B Alkalines

C Insecticides

D Alcohol

E *Heavy metal salts

179 Drug that is used for treatment of poisoning and meteorism (gas in the stomach and intestine)

A Tanninum

B Bismuthi nitras

C Argenti nitras

D Solution of ammomii caustici

E *Carbo activatus (activated charcoal)

180 What antiarrhythmic agent has local anaesthetic activity?

A Anaprilin

B Verapamile

C Cordarone

D Ethmosine

E *Xycaine

181 To the patient with myocardial infarction, which is complicated by ventricle arrhythmia? After the injection of antiarrhythmic drug with local anaesthetic activity cardiac

rhythm has been normalized. What drug was used?

A Anaesthesine

B Verapamile

C Adrenaline

D

Аnapriline

E *Lidocaine

182 What structures of skin and mucus during superficial anesthesia are influenced?

A Epidermis

B Subcutaneous fat tissue

C Vessels walls

D Actually derma

E *Sensitive nerves

183 For the patien with depression was prescribed Nialamide. The physician informed the patient about the necessity to remove from a diet such product as:

A Apples

B Potatoes

C Cabbages

D Pears.

E *Cheese

184 Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) both function by:

A Increasing level of neurotransmitters in peripheral neurons

B Decreasing levels of epinephrine and serotonin at nerve endings

C Increasing the placebo effect

D Increasing level of endorphins

E *Blocking the reuptake of neurotransmitters at nerve endings

185 Choose what food products are necessary to remove from the patients' diet in case of inhibitor of monooxygenase prescribing

A Cabbages, tomatoes

B Millet, buckwheat

C Milk, porridges

D Honey, fruits

E *Aged cheese, bananas

186 What food product is necessary to remove from the patient’s diet in case of medical treatment by antidepressants- MAO inhibitors?

A Beef

B Cabbage

C Potatoes

D Apples

E *Aged cheese

187 The old patient complains to headache, dizziness, rapid fatigue, worsening a memory.

In anamnesis is cranial-cerebral trauma. What pharmacological group is necessary to prescribe?

A Hypnotics

B Neuroleptics

C Tranquilizers

D Analgesics

E *Nootropic agents

188 The psychiatrist diagnosed in the patient endogenous depression. What drug is necessary to prescribe?

A Morphine

B Sibasone

C Mesatone

D Procaine

E *Amitripthyline

189 Which of the following should the patient be cautioned against while taking an MAO inhibitor?

A Eating apples

B Sunbathing at the pool

C Dancing

D Swimming

E *Eating aged cheese

190 At the old man with cranial-cerebral trauma the breathing is weakened, pulse is threadlike, the reflexes are depressed. What route of Piracetame introduction is most expedient in this case?

A Rectal

B Inhalation

C Per oral

D Subcutaneous

E *Intravenous

191 The physician prescribed some pills to the patient with depressive syndrome. Thus he informed about necessity of exception from the diet such products as cheese, creams, coffee, beer, wine. After month of medical treatment patient broke diet, as result hypertensive crisis appear. What drug from the group of antidepressants has been taken by patient?

A Aminazine

B Caffeine

C Acetaminophen

D Piracetame

E *Nialamide.

192 The physician notes lithium on a patient's drug history upon admission. The physician would suspect that this patient suffers from:

A Obesity

B Abstinent syndrome

C Renal disorder

D Diabetes mellitus

E *Maniac-depressive psychosis

193 Opioid abstinence syndrome is:

A Improvement patient’s condition after abolishing of drug.

B Euphoria after usage of drug.

C The physical adaptation of the body to the presence of an opioid.

D Desire of repeated usage of medicine.

E *The symptoms of opioid analgesics withdrawal.

194 Contra-indication for M-cholinoblockers usage is:

A Bronchial asthma.

B Ulcer disease.

C Kidney colic

D Parkinson disease.

E *Glaucoma.

195 What is the contra-indication for cholinesterase inhibitors administration?

A Glaucoma.

B Myasthenia.

C Postoperative atony of intestine.

D Postoperative atony of urine bladder

E *Bronchial asthma.

196 Mechanism of ephedrine action:

A Binds to postsynaptic adrenoreceptors.

B Blocks cholinacethylase

C Decreases norepinephrine synthesis.

D Blocks cholinesterase.

E *Increases quantity of norepinephrine in the synaptic gap.

197 What drug is used at the case of overdose of anti-depolarizing myorelaxants?

A Atropine.

B Cytitone.

C

Аrmine.

D Anapriline.

E *Proserine.

198 Which of the following is antipsychotic drug with psycho-stimulative activity:

A Aminazine.

B Sibazon.

C Anaprilin.

D Naphthyzin

E *Тriftazine.

199 The drug of a first choice for treatment of anaphylactic shock is:

A Noradrenaline.

B Naphthyzine.

C Isadrine.

D Anapriline.

E *Adrenaline.

200 Non-selective beta -adrenoblocker is:

A Metoprolol.

B Аtenolol.

C Talinolol.

D Isadrine.

E *Anaprilin (Propranolol).

201 What drug from opioid analgesics is of plant origin?

A Promedole.

B Fentanyl.

C Buprenorphine.

D Pentazocin

E *Morphine.

202 Antipsychotic, mainly used as anti-vomiting agent:

A Sibazon.

B Valeriana.

C Sodium bromide.

D Morphine.

E *Aethaperazine.

203 «Atypical» antipsychotic agent is:

A Aminazine.

B Triftazine.

C Haloperidol.

D Ethaperazine.

E *Clozapine.

204 М-cholino blocker with substantial sedative effect:

A Atropine.

B Belladonna.

C Platyphylline.

D Anapriline.

E *Scopolamine.

205 Main pharmacological effect of myorelaxants:

A Decline blood pressure.

B Increase blood pressure.

C Bradycardia.

D Bronchial spasm.

E *Decline skeletal muscles tone.

206 Adrenergic agent that is used for treatment of bronchial asthma attack:

A Мesatone.

B Noradrenaline.

C Xylometazoline.

D Anaprilin.

E *Salbutamol.

207 The most common adverse effect of Anaprilin is:

A Tachycardia.

B Hypertension.

C Hyper tonus of skeletal muscles.

D Hypo tonus of skeletal muscles.

E *Bronchial spasm.

208 What diuretic is a drug of choice for hypertensive emergencies complicated with lung edema?

A Dichlothyazide.

B Spironolactone.

C

Тriamteren.

D Mannitol.

E *Furosemide .

209 Non-narcotic analgesic is most effective at pain connected with:

A Kidney colic.

B Correction of dislocation.

C Traumatic shock.

D Cancer.

E *Rheumatoid arthritis.

210 Drug which is highly selective blocker of COG-2 (cyclooxygenase-2):

A Indometacine.

B Piroxicam.

C Butadione.

D Diclofenac-sodium.

E *Celecoxib.

211 Volatile liquid used for inhalation during general anesthesia.

A Phenazepam.

B Morphine.

C Natrii oxybutyras.

D Naloxone.

E *Phthorothanun

212 General mechanism of antipsychotics’ action:

A Block of M-cholinergic receptors.

B Block of re-uptake of serotonin.

C Disturbance of neurotransmitter synthesis in CNS.

D Block of histamine receptors.

E *Block of dopamine receptors.

213 Antagonist of benzodiazepines tranquilizers is:

A Naloxone.

B Unithiol

C Potassium chloride

D Phenobarbital.

E *Flumazenil (annexat).

214 Main effect of ganglion-blockers is:

A Increase of vessels’ tone.

B Increase smooth muscles tone.

C Analeptic action.

D Bronchial spasm.

E *Decrease of vessels’ tone.

215 What anticholinesterases agent is used only for glaucoma?

A Proserine.

B Physostigmine

C Galantamine.

D Halazoline.

E *Armine (Phosphacolum)

216 What selective M1-cholinoblocker is used for ulcer disease?

A Мethacine.

B Ipratropium bromide.

C Plathyphylline.

D Aceclidine.

E *Pirenzepine (Gastrocepin).

217 Аdrenergic agonist, used for prophylaxis of premature labor:

A Noradrenaline.

B Меsatone.

C Halazoline.

D Ephedrine.

E *Phenoterole.

218 Expectorant of reflex action is:

A Potassium chloride

B Sodium chloride.

C Acetylcysteine.

D Codeine.

E *Grass of Thermopsidis.

219 The main mechanism of NSAID action is a block of:

A Opiate receptors.

B Chemoreceptors.

C Аdrenoreceptors.

D Histamine receptors.

E *Cyclooxygenase (COG).

220 The most dangerous side-effect of Analgine (Metamizole) is:

A Dizziness.

B Bleeding.

C Arrhythmia.

D Cough.

E *Agranulocytosis

221 Which of the following is associated with abuse of narcotic analgesics?

A Decreasing of blood pressure.

B Mydriasis.

C Hyperemia of face.

D Increase of intraocular pressure.

E *Myosis.

222 Duration of action of Phentanyle:

A 5-6 hours.

B 2 -3 hours.

C 5-10 minutes.

D More than 12 hours

E *20-30 minutes.

223 General anaesthetic that increases sensitivity of myocardium to catecholamine:

A Ether.

B Natrii oxybutyras.

C Thiopentalum-natrium.

D

Мorphine.

E *Phthorothanun.

224 Which of the following is typical adverse effect of antipsychotics, related to their mechanism of action:

A Insomnia.

B Bronchial spasm

C Tachycardia.

D Tachyphylaxia.

E *Parkinsonism.

225 Cholinesterase reactivator in a case of phosphor organic pesticides poisoning is:

A Pirenzepine.

B Isadrine.

C Ipratropium.

D Adrenaline.

E *Alloxime.

226 The myorelaxant of depolarizing action is:

A Isadrinum.

B Platyphyllinum.

C Atropinum.

D Proserinum.

E *Dithylinum.

227 Antidote in a case of poisoning by atropine or atropine’s like substances is:

A

Аdrenaline.

B Тubocurarine.

C Аnapriline.

D Dipiroxime.

E *Proserine.

228 Which of the following is broncholytic from the group of beta 2-adrenomimetics:

A Ephedrine.

B Platyphylline.

C Euphylline.

D Adrenaline.

E *Salbutamol.

229 Route of Cromolyn Sodium introduction for the treatment of bronchial asthma:

A

Рer rectum.

B Intramuscularly.

C Under tongue.

D Subcutaneously

E *By inhalation.

230 Drug from NSAIDs, which irreversibly blocks cyclooxygenase of platelets:

A Paracetamol.

B Morphine.

C Omnopone.

D Phentanile.

E *Acetylsalicylic acid.

231 The most common adverse effect of Paracetamol:

A Headache.

B Hypertension.

C Chill.

D Headache

E *Hepatotoxicity.

232 Which of the following opioid analgesics is used for neuroleptanalgesia:

A Morphine.

B Promedole.

C Naloxone.

D Paracetamole.

E *Phentanile.

233 Which of the following describes Aminazine influence on the cardio-vascular system:

A Increasing of blood pressure.

B Tachycardia.

C Atrio-ventricular block.

D Cardiac arrest.

E *Decreasing of blood pressure.

234 CNS stimulant is:

A Phenazepam.

B Sibazon.

C Paracetamole.

D Morphine.

E *Sydnocarb.

235 Which of the following is described as benzodiazepine with hypnotic action?

A Zopiclone.

B Phenobarbital.

C Aethaminal sodium.

D Morphine.

E *Nitrazepam.

236 The most common side effect of Anaprilin:

A Arrhythmia.

B Increasing of arterial pressure.

C Dyspepsia.

D Increasing of temperature.

E *Increasing of bronchial tone.

237 Which of the following is described as agent of ganglion blockers group:

A Enalapril.

B Prazosine.

C Dichlothyazide.

D Anaprilin.

E *Benzohexonium.

238 Diazepam is used intravenously for treatment of:

A Endogenous depression.

B Comatose status.

C Schizophrenia.

D Intestine atony

E *Seizures.

239 Which of the following can cause insomnia?

A Diazepam.

B Aminazine.

C Sodium bromide.

D Valeriana.

E *Caffeine.

240 Which of the following is described as barbiturate with potent hypnotic action?

A Zopiclone.

B Phenazepam.

C Dimedrol.

D Droperidol.

E *Phenobarbital.

241 What medicine is a drug of choice for epileptic status?

A Ethosuximide.

B Valproate sodium.

C Carbamazepine.

D Caffeine.

E *Sibazon.

242 Nootropic agent is:

A Caffeine.

B Camphor.

C Bemegride.

D Valeriana root.

E *Piracetame.

243 Which of the following is useful in the treatment of endogenous depression?

A Aminazine.

B Triftazine.

C Aethaperazine.

D Droperidol.

E *Amitriptyline.

244 Side-effect of hypnotic agents from barbiturates group:

A Excitation.

B Increase of blood pressure.

C Таchycardia.

D Bronchial spasm.

E *Violation of structure of sleep.

245 M-сholinomimetiс used for glaucoma treatment is:

A Ephedrine.

B Proserine.

C Halazoline.

D Coffeine.

E *Pilocarpine.

246 Which of the following agents should be taken for a stuffy, runny nose?

A Anapriline.

B Pilocarpine.

C Proserine.

D Coffeine

E *Halazoline.

247 Which of the following is nonselective beta 1, 2? -adrenergic agonist?

A Codeine.

B Anaprilin.

C Adrenaline.

D Coffeine.

E *Isadrine.

248 Which of the following is anticough drug with central action?

A Libexine.

B Acetylcystein (ACC)

C Salbutamol.

D Caffeine.

E *Codeine.

249 Partial agonist of opioid receptors is:

A Paracetamol.

B Aspirin.

C Aminazine.

D Caffeine.

E *Buprenorphine.

250 A 65-year-old male has a blood pressure 170/105 mmHg. Which of the following would be effective in lowering arterial pressure?

A Halazoline.

B Salbutamol.

C Isadrine.

D Coffeine.

E *Аtenolol

251 Psycho-motor stimulant is:

A Phenazepam.

B Меzapam.

C Nootropile.

D Haloperidol.

E *Caffeine.

252 Which of the following, would not be diminished by atropine?

A Bradycardia

B Salivary secretion

C Bronchoconstriction

D Miosis

E *Skeletal muscle contraction

253 Parkinson-like syndrome is side effect of Aminazine, caused by

A Blockade of M-cholinergic receptors

B Blockade of alpha-adrenergic receptors

C Hypersensitivity of dopamine receptors

D Stimulation of nicotine receptors

E *Blockade of dopamine receptors

254 Which of the following anaesthetics is most likely to produce hepatotoxicity?

A Ether.

B Natrii oxybutyras.

C Diazepam.

D Мorphine.

E *Isoflurane

255 The main mechanism of NSAIDs action is a blockade of:

A Opioid receptors.

B Chemoreceptors.

C

Аdrenoreceptors.

D Cholinesterase.

E *Cyclooxygenase (COG).

256 Which of the following is antidepressant?

A Aminazine.

B Atropine.

C Caffeine.

D Lithium

E *Nialamide.

257 Atropine causes:

A Decreasing of blood pressure.

B Bradycardia.

C Decreasing of intraocular pressure.

D Diarrhoea.

E *Tachycardia.

258 Diazepam is used for treatment of:

A Endogenous depression.

B Shock.

C Bipolar disorders.

D Myasthenia.

E *Epileptic status.

259 Selective alpha 1-adrenoblocker is:

A Paracetamole.

B Меsatone.

C Noradrenaline.

D Аtenolol.

E *Prasozine.

260 Which of the following NSAIDs, irreversibly blocking cyclooxygenase, has antiplatelet activity:

A Ibuprophen.

B Indometacine.

C Diclofenac sodium.

D Meloxicam.

E *Acetylsalicylic acid.

261 Narcotic analgesic for neuroleptanalgesia is:

A Моrphine.

B Promedole.

C Naloxone.

D Buprenorphine.

E *Phentanile.

262 Tricycle antidepressants cause pharmacological effect due to:

A

Block Н1-receptors.

B Block М-cholinoreceptors in CNS.

C Activation of GABA-receptors.

D Block of cholinesterase.

E *Block of catecholamines re-uptake in CNS.

263 Analeptics stimulate:

A Vomiting center.

B Motion zone of cortex.

C Extrapyramidal system.

D Trigger zone.

E *Respiratory centre.

264 At the case of Nitrazepam poisoning is used:

A Paracetamole

B Caffeine.

C Diazepam.

D Мorphine.

E *Flumazenil (annexat).

265 Which of the following therapeutic effects does Epinephrine, as an adrenergic drug, produce?

A Urinary retention

B Bronchial constriction

C Decreased heart rate and contractility

D Decreased arterial pressure

E *Increased heart rate and contractility

266 Beta-blockers may be used to treat hypertension and:

A Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

B Diarrhoea

C Heart block

D Ulcer disease

E *Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias

267 An example of a cardioselective beta-blocker includes:

A Propranolol

B Nitroglycerine

C Epinephrine

D Enalaprile

E *Atenolol

268 Propranolol (Anaprilin) is an effective:

A Selective alpha-adrenergic antagonist

B Beta1-adrenergic antagonist

C Beta2-adrenergic antagonist

D Nonselective alpha-adrenergic antagonist

E *Nonselective beta-adrenergic antagonist

269 When assessing a patient for adverse effects related to morphine sulphate, which of the following would the physician NOT expect?

A Decreased peristalsis

B Delayed gastric emptying

C Common bile duct spasm

D Miosis

E *Diarrhoea

270 A patient has been admitted after overdosing on acetaminophen (Paracetamol), with a total ingested dose of 10 g. The physician plans to monitor this patient for development of which of the following signs and symptoms related to the overdose?

A Hypertension

B Kidney stones

C Metabolic alkalosis

D Headache

E *Acute hepatic necrosis

271 When assessing for the most serious adverse reaction to narcotic analgesic, the physician is careful to monitor the patient's:

A Temperature

B Blood pressure

C Mental status

D Salivation

E *Respiratory rate

272 Which of the following medications is used to treat a patient suffering from acute intoxication by narcotic analgesics?

A acetylcysteine

B methylprednisolone

C protamine sulfate

D atropine

E *Naloxone

273 A patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia asks the physician why she is receiving codeine when she does not have any pain. His response is based on knowledge that codeine also has what effect?

A Immunostimulant

B Expectorant

C Immunosuppressant

D Antiseptic

E *Anticough

274 Which of the following therapeutic effects do cholinergic stimulants have?

A Urinary bladder relaxation

B Mydriasis

C Vasoconstriction

D Spasmolytic


275 Side effects to expect from anticholinergic (parasympatholytic) agents, such as atropine, include all of the following EXCEPT:

A Dilated pupils (mydriasis)

B Urinary retention

C Dry mouth

D Tachycardia

E *Diarrhea

276 Which effect do analeptics have on the respiratory system?

A Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle

B Antitussive

C Constriction of pulmonary arteries

D Decreased fatigue

E *Stimulation of respiration

277 The following drug can depress respiration

A Adrenaline

B Analgine

C Anapriline

D Aspirin

E *Morphine

278 The following drugs are used for the treatment of asthma exept

Salbutamol

B Isadrine

C Ephedrine

D Phenoterolum

E *Anaprilin

279 Acetaminophen (paracetamolum)

A can induce bad headache

B can induce high temperature

C has anticough action

D is used to treat hypotension

E *can induce fatal hepatic damages in the case of poisoning

280 The following drug decreases delusions and hallucinations:

A Diazepam

B Ephedrinum

C Anaprilinum

D Paracetamolum

E *Droperidolum

281 Adverse effects of neuroleptic agents, such as galactorrhea, gynecomastia, ejaculation disorders, are attributed to

A an antimuscarinic effect

B an inhibition of angiotensin receptors

C an increase of prolactin secretion

D a stimulation of the alpha1 adrenergic receptors

E *an inhibition of dopamine receptors

282 The following drugs act mainly by inhibiting the reuptake of neurotransmitters - serotonin and noradrenaline:

A Codeinum

B Aminasine

C Coffeine

D Sodium bromide

E *Amitriptiline

283 The following drugs are regarded as atypical neuroleptic agents

A Haloperidol

B Sodium bromide

C Caffeine

D Droperidol

E *Clozapine

284 The following drug is used commonly as anxiolytic

A Flumazenil

B Buprenorphine

C Haloperidol

D Paracetamole

E *Diazepam

285 The following drugs act mainly by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin

A Aminazine

B Caffeine

C Cordiamine

D Sodium bromide

E *Fluoxetine

286 The following drugs are used as specific treatment for bipolar disorders

A Carbamazepine

B Caffeine

C Cordiamine

D Codeine

E *Lithium

287 Administration of morphine to a patient in pain

A stimulates respiration

B induces diarrhoea

C causes a dilation of the pupil (mydriasis)

D causes headache

E *relieves pain

288 Diclofenac is

A a beta – adrenergic stimulant

B a cholinergic stimulant

C a sodium channel antagonist

D adrenergic antagonist

E *a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

289 Piroxicam is:

A a cholinergic stimulant

B a beta – adrenergic stimulant

C a sodium channel antagonist

D adrenergic antagonist

E *an inhibitor of cyclooxygenases

290 Monoamine oxidases are enzymes which:

A inactivate arachidonic acid

B inactivate GABA

C inactivate leukotrienes

D inactivate cyclooxygenases

E *inactivate norepinephrine

291 The precursor of prostaglandins and leukotrienes is:

A glutamic acid

B citric acid

C pyruvic acid

D mevalonic acid

E *arachidonic acid

292 Scopolamine

A an adrenergic

B is a specific inhibitor of serotonin reuptake

C is an inhibitor of monoamines oxidases

D a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

E *has an atropinic effect

293 The drugs whose common name ends by the suffix - zepam or - zolam are:

A antidepressants

B nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

C neuroleptics

D adrenergic stimulants

E *benzodiazepines

294 What is the mechanism of action of irritating substances?

A distant action

B form albuminates

C Axon-reflexes

D Increase of vessel’s wall penetration

E *cutano-visceral reflexes

295 What is the prescription to the anaesthesinum usage?


B Trunk anaesthesia



E *Superficial anaesthsia

296 When solution of amonii caustici is used?

A Antiseptic of wounds


C Instrument sterilisation

D Superficial anaesthsia

E *Unconsciousness

297 What is the prescription to the Dicainum usage?


B Trunk anaesthesia



E *Superficial anaesthsia

298 To mark the drug that is used for internal usage during heavy salts metal and alkaloids poisoning

A Solution of menthol

B Solution of ammonia caustici

C Vismuti nitras

D Infusion of Salvia leaves

E *Solution of tannin

299 To mark the usage of Vismuti nitras

A Alkaloid poisoning


C Craks of rectum

D Alcohol poisoning

E *Dermatitis, eczema

300 In what concentration Novocaine is used for infiltrate anaesthesia?

A 1-2%

B 3%

C 10-20%

D 0,05%

E *0,125-0,5%

301 What drug depends to irritative agents?

A Tannin

B Vismuti nitras

C Argenti nitras

D Carbo activatus

E *Mentholum

302 For treatment of what poisoning tannin is drug of choice?

A Acids

B Alkaline

C Phosphor organic substance

D Alcohol

E *Heavy metal salts

303 To mark the drug which is used for treatment of poisoning and

A Tannin

B Vismuti nitras

C Argenti nitras

D Solution of ammonia caustici

E *Carbo activatus

304 What antiarrythmic agent has local anaesthetic activity?

A Novocaineamidum

B Verapamil

C Cordarone

D Etmosinum

E *Xycainum

305 Combine-operator during gathering of crop has felt an acute pain in the eye. He has been hospitalized. What local anaesthetic can be used for extracting of foreign body from the eye?

A Novocaine

B Lidocaine

C Trimecainum

D Sovcainum

E *Dicainum

306 To the patient with myocardial infarction which is complicated ventrical arrhythmia.

After the injection of antiarrhythmic drug with local anaesthetic activity cardiac rhythm was normalized. What drug was used?

A Anaesthesinum

B Verapamilum

C Pananginum

D Аnaprilinum

E *Lidocaine

307 What structures of skin and mucus during superficial anaesthesia are influenced for?

A Epidermis

B Subcutaneous fat tissue

C Vessels walls

D Actually derma

E *Sensitive nerves

308 In the ophthalmologic department was hospitalized patient with eye trauma. From the anamnesis it is known that he has hypersensitivity to the sulphonamide agents. What local anaesthetic can be used in this case?

A Novocaine

B Trimecainum

C Dicainum

D Anaesthesinum

E *Lidocaine


A Stimulates (-adrenoreceptors

B Blocks of М-cholinoreceptors

C Blocks of monoaminooxidase

D Operates on serotonine receptors



A Atropine

B Dipiroxim

C Salbutamol

D Aspirine

E *Galantamine

311 Patient with the acute stomach ache, vomiting, heavy breathing, shortness of breath, was delivered to the intensive therapy department. During examination of patient - skin moisture, hyper salivation, myosis, bradycardia, muscular fascination was noted. From the anamnesis it is known, that patient – toxin abused person, used aerosols to insects as abuse substance. What pharmacological group of agents the poisoning substance belongs to?

A N- cholinomimetic

B М-choliniblockers

C Myorelaxants

D Ganglion-blockers


312 To patient with signs of poisoning by phosphor organic substance injected cholinesterase reactivators. Indicate a mechanism of action of this group of drugs.

A Inactivation of cholinesterase.

B Block of cholinoreceptors.

C Activate of cholinoreceptors.

D Oppression of acetylcholine synthesis.

E *Dephosphorilation of cholinesterase with renewal of its activity


A Stimulates beta-adrenoreceptors

B Blocks М-cholinoreceptors.

C Blocks monoaminooxidase

D Acts on serotonin receptors



A Receptor

B Physical and chemical interaction

C Affect ionic channels of cellular membrane

D Affect the transport systems of cellular membranes

E *Antienzymic


A Block of MAO

B Block of KOMT

C Block of GABA-receptors.

D Block of Catalase


316 What is therapeutic indication of Proserine?

A Dislocation of lens

B Myasthenia

C Arrhythmia

D Hypertension

E *The treatment of glaucoma

317 Indirect cholinergic stimulants drugs have which of the following therapeutic effect?


B Mydriasis

C Vasoconstriction

D Spasm reliving


318 Contra-indication for M-cholinoblockers indication is:

A Bronchial asthma.

B Ulcer disease.

C Kidney colic

D Parkinson disease.

E *Glaucoma.


A Proserine

B Atropine

C Platyphylline

D Ephedrine

E *Aceclidine


A Proserine

B Phosphacole

C Acetylcholine

D Cytitone

E *Atropine

321 What group of agents does Atropine sulphate belong to?


B N-cholinomimetics

C Adrenoblockers





B Inactivate of cholinesterase

C Activate cholinesterase

D Block cholinesterase

E *Activate of M-cholinoreceptors

323 What group of agents is used for the treatment of ulcer disease of stomach and duodenum?

A N-cholinomimetics

B Myorelaxants

C Adrenomimetics




A Proserine

B Tubacurarine

C Methacine

D Pilocarpine

E *Atropine

325 Skopolamine hydrobromide have which of the following therapeutic effect?

A Reduce intraocular pressure

B Atony of intestine

C Arterial hypertension

D Myorelaxation

E *Motion sickness

326 Group of drugs that produced paralysis vision accommodation?

A

М-cholinomimetics

B N-cholinomimetics

C Adrenomimetics



327 Group of medicines causes an accommodation spasm?

A

М-cholinoblockers

B N-cholinomimetics

C Adrenomimetics

D Sympatholitics


328 Indication to atropine.

A Glaucoma

B Myastenia


D Epilepsy

E *Ulcer illness of stomach

329 Patient complaints to dryness in the mouth, photophobia and violation of vision were delivered to the hospital. The skin was hyperemic, dry, pupils were dilate, tachycardia. Acute poisoning by alkaloids of Belladonna was diagnosed. What medicine is the most expediently to patient?

A Aceclidine

B Pilocarpine

C Armine

D Dipiroxime

E *Proserine

330 The child, by chance, drank solution from the small bottle, which his grandmother used for the treatment of glaucoma. The physician prescribed atropine to the child. What is the mechanism of atropine antidote action?

A Co-operation with cellular metabolites

B Physic-chemical

C Antienzymic

D Enzymic

E *Influence on special receptors

331 At 5 years old child was noted: moving excitation, delirium, hoarse voice, dilated pupils which are not irresponsive on light, dry, hot, hyperemic skin, tachycardia, tachypnoe.

The indicated symptoms appear in the child eating of Belladonna berries. Medicine of which pharmacological group it is necessary to prescribe?

A N-cholinolitics

B N-cholinomimetics

C M-cholinomimetics

D Cholinesterase reactivates


332 At adult man after consumption of food the Amanita muscaria mushrooms the

excitation, increased sweating, appeared the phenomena of acute gastroenteritis, the pupils narrowed through 15-20 min was noted. Then cramps, bradycardia, considerable general weakness, somnolence, the collapse developed. The doctor immediately injected to the sick patient antidote from the group:

A N-cholinomimetics

B N-cholinolitics

C Anticholinesterase agents

D Reactivators of cholinesterase

E *М-cholinolitics

333 The 6 years old child appear in the hospital with symptoms of motive and linguistic excitation, dryness in mouth, bad swallowing, hoarse voice. A skin was dry, hot. Pupils were extended, photophobia, tachycardia. From anamnesis it is known, that child ate some berries of dark-violet color. What toxic substance caused poisoning?

A Pirenzepine

B Pilocarpine

C Platyphylline

D Methacine

E *Atropine

334 To the patient with ulcer disease of stomach in the period of increased acidity of gastric juice (in anamnesis is glaucoma) it is necessary to prescribe a М-cholinoblocker. What agents must you choose, taking into account attendant diseases?

A Adrenaline

B Atropine

C Scopolamine

D Mesatone

E *Methacine

335 Patient with the complaints to dryness in the mouth, photophobia and violation of sight was delivered to the hospital. The skin was hyperemic, dry, pupils were extended, tachycardia. After examination it was diagnosed: poisoning by alkaloids of Belladona. What medicine is the most expediently to patient?

A Pilocarpine

B Dipiroxime

C Diazepam

D Armine

E *Proserine

336 A 25-year-old woman with red and itchy eczematous dermatitis visits your office. She had a dental procedure one day earlier with administration of a local anesthetic. There were no other findings, although she indicated that she had a history of allergic reactions. Which of the following drugs is most likely involved?

A Cocaine

B Lidocaine

C Etidocaine

D Bupivacaine

E *Procaine

337 A 50-year-old male farm worker has been brought to the emergency room. He was found confused in the orchard and since then has remained unconscious. His heart rate is 45 and his blood pressure is 80/40 mm Hg. He is sweating and salivating profusely. Which of the following should be prescribed?

A Physostigmine

B Proserine

C Pentamine

D Norepinephrine

E *Atropine

338 Analeptical remedy of reflective type from the H-cholinomimetics group was given to the patient for restoration of breathing after poisoning with carbon monoxide. What medicine was prescribed to the patient?

A Adrenalin hydrochloride

B Atropine sulphate

C Pentamin

D Mesaton

E *Lobeline hydrochloride

339 Which of the mentioned drugs belongs to the cholinoblockers of the selective action and is used at the complex ulcer therapy?

A Strophanthinum

B Proserinum

C Furosemidum

D Reserpine

E *Gastrozepin

340 At the case of antidepolarizing myorelaxants overdose is used:

A Atropine.

B Cytitone.

C

Аrmine.

D Anapriline.

E *Proserine.


A Binding with adrenoreceptors.

B Block of COMT.

C Disturbance of noradrenaline synthesis.

D Block of anticholinesterase.

E *Increased quantity of neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft.

342 The drug of choice for treatment of anaphylactic shock is:

A Noradrenaline.

B Naphthyzine.

C Isadrine.

D Anapriline.

E *Adrenaline.

343 Non- selective beta - adrenoblocker is:

A Metoprolol.

B Аtenolol.

C Talinolol.

D Isadrine.

E *Anaprilin.


A Decline blood pressure.

B Increase blood pressure.

C Bradycardia.

D Bronchial spasm.

E *Decline skeletal muscles tone.

345 Selective alpha1-adrenoblocker:

A Phentolamine.

B

Мesatone.

C Noradrenaline.

D Anapliline.

E *Prazosine.


A Мesaton.

B Noradrenaline.

C Galazoline.

D Anaprilin.

E *Salbutamol.


A Tachycardia.

B Hypertension.

C Hyper tonus of skeletal muscles.

D Hypo tonus of skeletal muscles.

E *Bronchial spasm

348 Main effect of ganglionblockers is:

A Increase of vessels’ tone.

B Decrease intraocular pressure.

C Analeptic action.

D Bronchial spasm.

E *Decrease of vessels’ tone

349 Аdrenergic agonist, used for prophylaxis of premature labor:

A Noradrenaline.

B Меsatone.

C Halazoline.

D Ephedrine.

E *Phenoterole

350 What substance does N-cholinoreceptors have sensitivity to?

A Novocainee

B Nalorphine

C Nitroglycerine

D Atropine

E *Nicotine

351 What group of drugs used for the acute decreasing of blood pressure?

A Sympathomimetics

B beta-adrenomimetics

C alpha –adrenomimetics

D Myorelaxants

E *Ganglioblockers

352 What agent belongs to ganglioblockers?

A Mesatone

B Proserine

C Atropine

D Tubocurarine

E *Benzohexonium


A Myorelaxants

B Anticholinesterase agents

C

М-cholinoblockers

D N-cholinomimetics

E *Ganglioblockers


A Asphyxia


C Glaucoma

D Ulcerous illness

E *Myorelaxation


A Hygronium

B Proserine

C Aceclidine

D Atropine sulfate

E *Tubacurarine chloride


A High blood pressure crisis

B Parkinson’s disease

C Myastenia

D Pneumonia

E *Long-term myorelaxation in surgery

357 Ganglioblockers drugs have which of the following therapeutic effect?

A Increase blood pressure

B Increase motility of intestine

C Relaxation of muscles

D Contraction of pupil

E *Decrease blood pressure

358 What effects do exist in case of myorelaxants introduction?

A Contraction of pupil

B Decreasing of intesnine motility

C Increasing of blood pressure

D Decreasing of eye pressure

E *Relaxation of skeletal muscles

359 An amount of indifferent powder which is taken for pasta preparing must be not more than:

A * 65%

B 40%

C 85%

D 30%

E 55%

360 How is medication named after the proper technological treatment in accordance with the rules of pharmacopoeia?

A Medical substance

B * Medical preparation

C Medical form

D Reagent

E Preparation of comparison

361 1 ml of the water solution includes:

A 5 drops

B 10 drops

C 15 drops

D * 20 drops

E 30 drops

362 Abbreviation ad means

A * up to

B amount

C water

D capsule

E emulsion

363 Abrevation " aa " means

A up to

B * equally

C morning

D every other hour

E water

364 Abrevation " pulv. " means

A * powder

B write on label

C immediately

D water

E amount

365 All of the following are Liquid pharmaceutical forms EXCEPT

A Balsams

B Aromatic waters

C Extracts

D Emulsions

E * Liniments

366 All statements about coagulants are correct EXCEPT

A Heparin is effective for prevention and treatment of venous thrombosis

B Heparin is used for treatment of pulmonary embolism

C Heparin induces anticoagulation by primarily potentiating the activity of ATIII

D peak effect of Heparin is 2 minutes after IV injection

E * Heparin sodium is effective by oral administration

367 An amount of indifferent powder which is taken for pasta preparing must be not less than:

A * 25%

B 40%

C 85%

D 30%

E 55%

368 As a basic substance for the ointments is used:

A * Lanolin

B Butyrol

C Poly ethylene - oxide

D Sunflower oil

E Mineral oil

369 As basis for preparing of Liniments is used

A Talc

B Sugar

C * Olei Vaseline

D Amyl

E Syrup of Althea

370 As medical forms which prepares in a pharmacy after the recipe of doctor are named

A * Magistralis medical agents

B Officinalis medical agents

C Poisoning medical agents

D Strong-acting medical agents

E Galen’s preparations

371 As the constituent for manufacturing dosed powders for the diabetes patient is used:

A Sugar

B Milk-sugar

C Glucose

D * Starch

E Talc

372 Basic substance for ointments is

A Talc

B Sugar

C * Vaseline

D Cacao-seed oil

E Syrup of Althea

373 Basis for preparing of ointments is

A Talc

B Sugar

C * Vaseline

D Cacao-seed oil

E Syrup of Althea

374 Choose a firm medical form for the internal and external use, which dries, friable, evenly ground up, substances enter in the complement of?

A Capsules

B Pills

C Drop

D * Powders

E Species

375 Firm medical form, which is a mix of the grinding plant raw material (flowers, roots, leaves), sometimes with addition of salts, other oils or other medicinal substances

A Dragee

B * Species (collections)

C Pencil

D Medicinal films

E Capsules

376 Firm medical forms, which are intended for application to skin:

A Granules

B Pencil

C * Sinapismes (mustard plasters)

D Ointments

E Sticks

377 Flying and hydroscopic powders are packaged in:

A Granules

B Capsules

C Dragee

D Species

E * In waxed paper (charta cerata) or paraffin paper (charta paraffinata) packing

378 For treatment bronchial asthma are used special form such as:

A Tablets

B Dragee

C Species (collections)

D Sponges

E * Inhalator

379 How is named medicine after the proper technological process in accordance with the rules of pharmacy?

A Medicinal substance

B * Medicinal preparation

C Medical form

D Reagent


380

How is part of recipe which goes after denotation of “Rp” named.?

A Inscriptio

B Praepositio

C Invocatio

D Subscriptio

E * Designatio of materiarum

381 How is the form of medications, which by the best appearance answers the purpose of application and most advantageous for the use with a medical and prophylactic purpose named?

A Medical substance

B Medical preparation

C * Medical form

D Reagent

E Constituens

382 If in a recipe mass of vaginal suppositories is not indicated, then they are made mass:

A 2,0 g

B * 4,0 g

C 5,0 g

D 1,0 g

E 3,0 g

383 If in the prescription the weight rectal suppositories is not indicated pharmaceutics will take basic substance in mass:

A 2,0 gr.

B * 3,0 gr.

C 4,0 gr.

D 5,0 gr.

E 6,0 gr.

384 If in the prescription the weight vaginal suppositories is not indicated. pharmaceutics will take basic substance in mass:

A 2,0 gr

B 3,0 gr

C * 4,0 gr

D 5,0 gr

E 6,0 gr

385 If it is necessary to give medicines immediately, in the upper part of prescription we must made the mark:

A * Cito!

B Provoke the sleepiness

C Da. Signa.

D Ana

E Repete

386 In what medical form does write medical substances, which have an unpleasant taste, smell, harmful influence on teeth or have an irritating action?

A Powders

B Pills

C Drop

D * Capsules

E Granules

387 In what medicinal form is prescribed dosed firm pharmaceutical form for internal use, which is received by stratification of active substance and exponents?

A Powders

B Species

C Drop

D * Dragee

E Ointment

388 Liniment is

A * for external application

B liquid for injections

C dosed for peroral application

D solution for injections

E for inhalations

389 Liniment – it is:

A *Liquid ointment

B Firm ointment

C Aerosol

D Medical film

E Caramel

390 Mass of dosed powders of synthetic origin for the internal use is:

A 0,5 – 5,0

B 5,0 – 100, 0

C * 0,1 – 1,0

D 0,05 – 1,0

E 20,0 – 50, 0

391 Mass of the dosed powders of plant origin for internal use is:

A 0,5 – 5,0

B 5,0 – 100, 0

C 0,1 – 1,0

D * 0,05 – 1,0

E 20,0 – 50, 0

392 Medical prescription is write using such language

A * Latin

B Greece

C Russian

D Italian

E only English

393 What medical forms do you know

A Solid, soft, liquid

B only soft

C only solid

D Soft and solid

E * soft, solid, liquid, medical form for injection

394 Creams —

A * soft medicinal products for local application which represent one, two- or multiphase dispersion systems

B soft medicinal products for local application, which contain up to 5% of hard substances

C soft medicinal products for local application, in the form of suspensions containing a significant amount (usually above 25 %) of solid dispersion phase distributed in a base.

D liquid pharmaceutical form, which is solutions of ether oils (usually vegetable products) in alcohol or oils.

E pharmaceutical form, which consists of solid, dry, sufficiently strong aggregates of powder particles

395 The Latin term "Recipe" used in prescription means

A Give

B * Take

C put

D Mix

E prepare

396 Common abbreviation "ana" used in prescription means

A * so much of each

B divide in equal parts

C number

D fluid

E give

397

Doctor’s written apply to the pharmacist about manufacturing and giving medicines to the patient with the indicating of a way of their use.

A pharmacology

B Pharmacy

C drug interaction

D drug store

E * prescription

398 What pharmaceutical form cannot be used orally

A tablets

B capsules

C powder

D * suppositories

E tincture

399 The dosed pharmaceutical form. They are solid at room temperature, are dissolved or melted at a body temperature

A Powder

B * Suppositories

C tablets

D Dragee

E Collections

400 Ointment in latin translation

A species

B * unguenta

C paste

D emplastra

E pilula

401 Used in medical prescription abrevation "D. t. d." means

A * Give the same dose

B take

C Sign

D Mix

E Prepare

402 Latin term "Da" used in prescription means

A Take

B * Give

C Mix

D Prepare

E Dose

403 Medicines for smoking prophylaxis and prophylaxis of the angina pectoris attacks are often used in form of:

A Sinapismes (mustard plasters)

B * Medical films

C Pencil

D Granules

E Sponges

404 Medicines, components, doses and technology of their preparation are noted in pharmacopoeia are named:

A * Officinal

B Magisterial

C

Galen’s preparation

D

New Galen’s preparations

E Active agents (substances)

405 Name indifferent substance (constituent) for the dosed powders

A Zinci oxydum

B Bolus alba

C Lycopodium

D * Sugar

E Talcum

406 Name indifferent substance (costituents) for the undosed powders

A sodium hydrocarbonate

B Milk-sugar

C Sugar

D * Talc

E Glucose

407 Name liquid medical form which is measured by spoons

A Tinctures

B Liniments

C Spray

D * Extracts

E Enemas

408 Note the indifferent substance (constituent) for the dosed powders

A Zinci oxydum

B Bolus alba

C Lycopodium

D * Sugar

E Talcum

409 Paste is…

A * soft medicinal products for local application, in the form of suspensions containing a significant amount (usually above 25 %) of solid dispersion phase distributed in a base.

B soft medicinal products for local application, which contain up to 5% of hard substances.

C liquid pharmaceutical form, which is solutions of ether oils (usually vegetable products) in alcohol or oils.

D pharmaceutical form, which consists of solid, dry, sufficiently strong aggregates of powder particles

E the firm pharmaceutical form shaped as small pillows, plates

410 Paste – it is:

A Liquid ointment

B * Firm ointment

C Liniment

D aspersion

E Pastille

411 Latin word " linimentum " means

A name of the plant

B * liquid ointment

C powder

D oil

E name of the drug

412 Pharmaceutical forms, which are preparing in drugstore according doctors’ prescription, are called:

A Officinal

B * Magisterial

C Galen’s preparation

D New Galen’s preparations


413 quantity of the unguent for treatment the skin (mucous) is approximately:

A 1,0-2,0 gr

B 3,0-4,0 gr

C * 5,0-100,0 gr

D 150,0-200,0 gr

E 250,0-300 ,0 gr

414 Soft medical form, which is used for prophylactic and treatment different dental pathologies:

A Suppositories

B Sponges

C Granules

D Pencil

E * Pastes

415 Specify mass of the dosed powder for the internal use:

A 10,0 – 15,0

B 5,0 - 100,0

C * 0,1 - 1,0

D 50,0 – 70,0

E 5,0 – 10,0

416 Specify medication, excerption, vacation, account, storage and control, after the use of which place is taken for to the special rules of safety and plugged in List And (Venena) in obedience to the requirements of pharmacopoeia:

A Strong-acting agent

B Galen’s preparation

C Standard medication

D * Poisonous medication

E Species



B




E Species

418 Sticks – it is:

A Liquid ointment

B Ointment

C Liniment

D Glosseta

E * Suppositories

419 Abbreviation ad means

A * up to

B amount

C water

D capsule

E emulsion

420 The abrevation " pulv." is

A * powder

B write on label

C immediately

D water

E amount

421 The dragee are intended for

A * preroral applications

B intramuscular applications

C intravenous applications

D local applications

E rectal applications

422 Liniment – it is:

A * Liquid ointment

B Firm ointment

C Aerosol

D Medical film

E Caramel

423 Paste – it is:

A Liquid ointment

B * Firm ointment

C Liniment

D aspersion

E Pastille

424 Sticks – it is:

A Liquid ointment

B Ointment

C Liniment

D Glosseta

E * Suppositories

425 To note constituents for manufacturing suppositories substances of firm consistence, which trample at temperature of a body (37 C) are used, such as:

A Glycerini

B Talc

C * Oil of cocoa

D Vaselin

E Lanolin

426 To what medical form does take a dragee?

A Soft

B * Firm

C Liquid

D Medical forms for injections

E Species

427 To what medical form does take ointments?

A Firm

B Liquid

C * Soft


E Species

428 To what medical form does take Species?

A * Soft

B Firm

C Liquid


E Solution

429 Undosed powders for external and internal use are prescribed in quantities

A 0,5 – 5,0

B * 5,0 – 100, 0

C 0,1 – 1,0

D 0,05 – 1,0

E 200,0 – 500, 0

430 What constituent is used for preparing liniments:

A Lanoline

B * Olive oil

C Vaseline

D Butyrol

E Poly ethylene - oxide

431 What form do rectal suppositories have?

A * Cone

B Spherical

C As egg

D Flat

E Bullets

432 What is the weight of rectal suppositories?

A * 1, 1 – 4,0

B 3,0 – 6,0

C 2,1 – 4, 5

D 10,0 – 15,0

E 1,5 – 6,0

433 What is the weight of vaginal suppositories?

A 1, 1 – 4,0

B 3,0 – 6,0

C 2, 1 – 4, 5

D 10,0 – 15,0

E * 1,5 – 6,0

434 What is the mass of eye ointment?

A 5,0 – 15,0 gs

B 5,0 - 20,0 g

C 10,0 - 15,0 g

D * 5,0 - 10,0 g

E 20,0 – 100,0 gs

435 What firm medical form is for external usage?

A * aspersion (powder)

B tablet

C capsule

D solution for injection

E suppositories

436 What medical form is drops belong to?

A Firm (solid)

B * Liquid

C Soft

D For injections

E Gaseous

437 What percent of Prednisoloni ointment in 100 g of which contained a 0,5 g of

Pradnisolonum?

A 5 %

B 1 %

C * 0,5 %

D 2 %

E 2,5 %

438 What percent of Prednisoloni iointment in 100 g of which contained a 1,0 g of

Pradnisolonum?

A 5 %

B * 1 %

C 0,5 %

D 2 %

E 2,5 %

439 What substance is used for making of ointments of superficial action?

A Pork cleared Adeps

B Lanolin

C * Vaseline

D Oil of cocoa

E Gelatinous mass

440 What substance is used for making of proof ointments which can be saved long time?

A Pork cleared Adeps

B * Lanolin

C Naphthalene ointment

D Spermaceti ointment

E Gelatinous mass

441 What substances are used as constituents for manufacturing suppositories substances of firm consistence?

A Lanolini

B * Oil of cocoa

C Vaselini

D Ol. Helianthi

E Pork cleared Adeps

442 What term in prescription show the necessity of immediate delivery of medications?

A * Cito

B simplex

C Da

D repete

E misce

443 What term is reflect the necessity of immediate vacation the patient of medications

A simplex

B da

C * Cito

D repete

E misce

444 Which of the following depend to the firm medical forms?

A * capsule

B ointment

C tincture

D pasta

E suspension

445 Which of the following depend to the firm soft forms?

A capsule

B * pasta

C tablet

D powder

E solution


A * ointment

B oil solution

C suspension

D tincture

E tablet


A suspension

B * suppositories

C syrup

D solution

E aspersion

448 Choose the name of medication after the proper technological treatment. This medication is received in accordance with the rules of pharmacopoeia?

A Medical substance


C Medical form

D Reagent


449 Note the name of drug after the proper technological treatment. This medication is received in accordance with the rules of pharmacopoeia?

A Medical substance


C Medical form

D Reagent


450 3% Aceclidinum solution. Eye drops. 2 drops 2 times a day. Common quantity of solution is:

A * 10 ml

B 15 ml

C 20 ml

D 25 ml

E 30 ml

451 Soft pharmaceutical forms for local application in the form of suspensions containing a significant amount (usually above 25 %) of solid dispersion phase distributed in a base. They contain one or more active substances and excipients, forming a base. Bases for gels, ointments, creams can be used as a base for soft pharmaceutical forms. As a rule, they are intended for application to skin, for application in oral cavity, in some cases — for preparation of solutions for peroral use. By application they can be divided into forms for external application, forms for application in oral cavity (dental, stomatologic, for gums), and also forms for preparation of suspension (solution) for peroral use.

A Ointments

B * Pastes

C Liniments

D Creams

E Gels

452 Ambulance has been called to a man because of asthmatic status. What route of adrenaline hydrochloride administration in this case?

A Inhalation

B * Intravenous

C Intramuscular

D Subcutaneous

E Sublingual

453 An emergency doctor was called to a 60-year-old patient with bronchial asthma, who had an attack of bronchospasm with manifestations of angina pectoris. Most effective drug for the acute care is salbutamolum. To note possible routes of administration.

A per rectum only

B rectally and intravaginal

C locally

D * inhalation

E all of above

454 Choose soft medicinal products for local application which are one, two- or multiphase dispersion systems with the liquid dispersion medium, which rheological properties are conditioned by presence of gelatinizes in small concentration. They contain one or more active substances and excipients which form a base.

A * Gels

B Creams

C Liniments

D Ointments

E Pastes

455 Choose a soft pharmaceutical form for local application in the form of suspensions containing a significant amount (usually above 25 %) of solid dispersion phase distributed in a base. They contain one or more active substances and excipients, forming a base. Bases for gels, ointments, creams can be used as a base for soft pharmaceutical forms. As a rule, they are intended for application to skin, for application in oral cavity, in some cases — for preparation of solutions for peroral use. By application they can be divided into forms for external application, forms for application in oral cavity (dental, stomatologic, for gums), and also forms for preparation of suspension (solution) for peroral use.

A * Pastes

B Ointments

C Liniments

D Creams

E Gels

456 Choose a solid pharmaceutical form received by stratification of acting substances and exipients. Has even spherical shape, weight of a coating makes over 20 % of weight of the form. A peculiar feature of technology of production of a form is that acting substances and exipients are applied by repeated stratification (making the whole mass of form) whereas in tablets only coating is layered. They consist of exipients which perform different functions, dyes, flavoring, etc. The form is intended for preroral applications. This route of application therefore is omitted at definition of the pharmaceutical form.

A * Dragee

B Gums

C Granules

D Caplets

E Capsules

457 Choose a solid pharmaceutical form shaped as small pillows, plates. The elastic mass of forms contains acting substances, and exipients which performing different functions

(stabilizers, flavouring additives, flavoring etc.). They are intended for application in oral cavity (for chewing), therefore the route of administration can be omitted in the name to a pharmaceutical form.

A * Gums

B Granules

C Dragee

D Caplets

E Capsules

458 Choose a solid pharmaceutical form, which consists of solid, dry, sufficiently strong aggregates of powder particles. They contain one or more acting substances with or without fillers. Also added can be fillers, dyes, flavors, etc.They are intended for preoral use (for swallowing, chewing, dissolution, dispergation) and for direct peroral applications. They are produced in single-dosed or multi-dosed containers. According to place of action they are divided into enteric- and gastric release. They can be dosed or undosed.

A Gums

B Dragee

C Caplets

D Capsules

E * Granules

459 Choose the name of preparations which are received by simple extraction from vegetative raw material by mean of water, alcohol or other. Beside active substances they contain ballast, substances (fat, fibbers, oils, pigments, pitch, saponins and others). They are: extracts, infusions, tinctures and others, for example, tincture Valerianae, extract of

Viburnum.

A Poisoning drugs

B * Galen's preparations

C All of above

D Reagent


460 How is named a pharmaceutical form consisting of solid separate dry particles of varying grinding degree. They contain one or more acting substances, and, if necessary, fillers. They are intended for external application, for preroral applications, for parenteral applications (as solutions, suspensions, emulsions etc.), and also for rectal, vaginal applications (as solutions, suspensions, etc.). They can be dosed and undosed.

A Dragee

B Gums

C Granules

D Capsules

E * Powders

461 How is named a pharmaceutical form the firm or soft preparations of the appropriate size and shape are intended for an insert in conjunctiva bag, vagina, etc. They consist of a matrix in which acting substance is included, or the acting substance surrounded by a membrane which controls rate of release. Each form is issued in the individual sterile container. They are classified on eye, intravaginal, stomatological.

A Dragee

B Gums

C * Films (inserts)

D Granules

E Capsules

462 How is named a soft pharmaceutical forms for local application which represent one, two- or multiphase dispersion systems, which dispersion environment at certain storage temperature is, as a rule, Newton type of course and low value of rheological parameters.

They contain one or more active substances and excipients forming a base. By application the soft medical forms can be divided for external application, nasal, ear, eye, rectal, vaginal.

A Gels

B Liniments

C Ointments

D Pastes

E * Creams

463 How is named a soft pharmaceutical forms for local application which dispersive medium at the certain storage temperature is different from a Newton type of course and high value of rheological parameters. They contain one or more active substances and excipients which form a simple or complex base. They are intended for application to skin and its appendages, wounds, ulcers, certain mucous membranes. Depending on a base they can be hydrophobic (carbohydrate basis — vaseline, vaseline oil, paraffin etc.), hydrophilic (a water-soluble basis). By application they can be divided for external application, nasal, ear, eye, rectal, vaginal, and for inhalations.

A Liniments

B Creams

C Gels

D * Ointments

E Pastes

464 How is named a solid pharmaceutical form having the shape of a plate of the different form, intended for dissolution in an oral cavity (dispersion), for preroral applications.

Produced by formation paste-like form of medicinal substances with sugar, chocolate, with addition of water, a syrup. The paste obtained is unroll to make a thin layer, cut out plates of the appropriate shape and the size, and then dry up. They are intended for preroral applications and for dispersing.

A * Pastilles

B Dragee

C Gums

D Granules

E Capsules

465 How is named a solid pharmaceutical form which prepared as sweets. Acting substances, some exipients are mixed with sugar, treacle, with subsequent addition of flavouring, aromatic, and dye components. This is intended for preroral applications and for application in an oral cavity (for dispersion).

A Dragee

B Gums

C Granules

D * Caramel

E Capsules

466 How is named a solid pharmaceutical form which prepared as sweets. Normally, they are intended for application in an oral cavity (for dispersion), therefore route of administration/purpose may not be used in the name of a pharmaceutical form.

A Dragee

B Gums

C * Lozenges

D Granules

E Capsules

467 How is named a solid pharmaceutical form with a soft or hard coating, contains one doze of one or more acting substances. They contain exipients acting as dyes, flavoring, etc.

They coating is made of gelatine or other substances. The ground mass of form is intended for preroral applications. A small part is intended for rectal, vaginal applications. By definition the forms can be soft or hard. The coating of hard form consists of two preproduced parts and contains acting substance (substances) normally solid. The coating of soft form consists of one par. As tablets and granules are the pharmaceutical forms intended, mainly, for preroral applications. Therefore a route of administration should be specified when it is different from preroral one.

A Caplets

B Dragee

C Gums

D Granules

E * Capsules

468 How is named a solid pharmaceutical form, a sort of tablets. Normally, they are intended for preroral applications, therefore the route of administration may be not specified in the name of a pharmaceutical form. Form classification coincides with classification of tablets.

A Dragee

B Gums

C * Caplets

D Granules

E Capsules

469 How is named a solid pharmaceutical form, a sort of capsules. They consist of a mix of granules and a microdragee of the different type, differently coated and capable of dissolving in the certain environment after definite time period. They may contain 3—5 or more microdragees of different type, with different time release. They are intended for preroral applications. Classification coincides with classification of capsules.

A * Spansules

B Dragee

C Gums

D Granules

E Pastilles

470 How is named a solid pharmaceutical forms shaped as small pillows, plates. The elastic mass of forms contains acting substances, and exipients which performing different functions (stabilizers, flavouring additives, flavoring etc.). They are intended for application in oral cavity (for chewing), therefore the route of administration can be omitted in the name to a pharmaceutical form.

A * Gums

B Granules

C Dragee

D Caplets

E Capsules

471 How is named a solid pharmaceutical forms which consists of solid, dry, sufficiently strong aggregates of powder particles. They contain one or more acting substances with or without fillers. Also added can be fillers, dyes, flavors, etc.They are intended for preoral use

(for swallowing, chewing, dissolution, dispergation) and for direct peroral applications. They are produced in single-dosed or multi-dosed containers. According to place of action they are divided into enteric- and gastric release. They can be dosed or undosed.

A * Granules

B Gums

C Dragee

D Caplets

E Capsules

472 How is named medicine which are received by simple extraction from vegetative raw material by mean of water, alcohol or other. Beside active substances they contain ballast, substances (fat, fibbers, oils, pigments, pitch, saponins and others). They are: extracts, infusions, tinctures and others, for example, tincture Valerianae, extract of Viburnum.

A Poisoning drugs

B * Galen's preparations

C All of above

D Reagent


473 How is the form of medications consisting of solid separate dry particles of varying grinding degree? They contain one or more acting substances, and, if necessary, fillers.They are intended for external application, for preroral applications, for parenteral applications (as solutions, suspensions, emulsions etc.), and also for rectal, vaginal applications (as solutions, suspensions, etc.). They can be dosed and undosed.

A Dragee

B * Powders

C Gums

D Granules

E Capsules

474 How is the form of medications for local application which are one, two- or multiphase dispersion systems with the liquid dispersion medium, which rheological properties are conditioned by presence of gelatinizes in small concentration. They contain one or more active substances and excipients which form a base.

A Creams

B Liniments

C Ointments

D * Gels

E Pastes

475 How is the form of medications for local application do you know, which represent one, two- or multiphase dispersion systems, which dispersion environment at certain storage temperature is, as a rule, Newton type of course and low value of rheological parameters.

They contain one or more active substances and excipients forming a base. By application the soft medical forms can be divided for external application, nasal, ear, eye, rectal, vaginal.

A Gels

B * Creams

C Liniments

D Ointments

E Pastes

476 How is the form of medications for local application which dispersive medium at the certain storage temperature is different from a Newton type of course and high value of rheological parameters? They contain one or more active substances and excipients which form a simple or complex base. They are intended for application to skin and its appendages, wounds, ulcers, certain mucous membranes. Depending on a base they can be hydrophobic

(carbohydrate basis — vaseline, vaseline oil, paraffin etc.), hydrophilic (a water-soluble basis). By application they can be divided for external application, nasal, ear, eye, rectal, vaginal, and for inhalations.

A Liniments

B Creams

C * Ointments

D Gels

E Pastes

477 How is the form of the firm or soft preparations of the appropriate size and shape are intended for an insert in conjunctiva bag, vagina, etc. They consist of a matrix in which acting substance is included, or the acting substance surrounded by a membrane which controls rate of release. Each form is issued in the individual sterile container. They are classified on eye, intravaginal, stomatological.

A Dragee

B Gums

C * Films (inserts)

D Granules

E Capsules

478 In what medical form does write pharmaceutical form the firm or soft preparations of the appropriate size and shape are intended for an insert in conjunctiva bag, vagina, etc. They consist of a matrix in which acting substance is included, or the acting substance surrounded by a membrane which controls rate of release. Each form is issued in the individual sterile container. They are classified on eye, intravaginal, stomatological.

A Dragee

B Gums

C Granules

D * Films (inserts)

E Capsules

479 In what medical form does write pharmaceutical form consisting of solid separate dry particles of varying grinding degree. They contain one or more acting substances, and, if necessary, fillers. They are intended for external application, for preroral applications, for parenteral applications (as solutions, suspensions, emulsions etc.), and also for rectal, vaginal applications (as solutions, suspensions, etc.). They can be dosed and undosed.

A * Powders

B Dragee

C Gums

D Granules

E Capsules

480 In what medical form does write soft medicinal products for local application, which contain up to 5% of hard substances. They contain one or more active substances and excipients forming a base. As a rule, are intended for external application.

A * Liniment

B Cream

C Gel

D Ointment

E Paste

481 In what medical form does write solid pharmaceutical form, which consists of solid, dry, sufficiently strong aggregates of powder particles. They contain one or more acting substances with or without fillers. Also added can be fillers, dyes, flavors, etc. They are intended for preoral use (for swallowing, chewing, dissolution, dispergation) and for direct peroral applications. They are produced in single-dosed or multi-dosed containers. According to place of action they are divided into enteric- and gastric release. They can be dosed or undosed.

A Caplets

B Gums

C Dragee

D * Granules

E Capsules

482 In what medical form does write solid pharmaceutical form shaped as small pillows, plates. The elastic mass of forms contains acting substances, and exipients which performing different functions (stabilizers, flavouring additives, flavoring etc.). They are intended for application in oral cavity (for chewing), therefore the route of administration can be omitted in the name to a pharmaceutical form.

A Granules

B * Gums

C Dragee

D Caplets

E Capsules

483 In what medical form does write solid pharmaceutical form which prepared as sweets.

Normally, they are intended for application in an oral cavity (for dispersion), therefore route of administration/purpose may not be used in the name of a pharmaceutical form.

A Dragee

B Gums

C Granules

D * Lozenges

E Capsules

484 10 ml Scopolamini hydrochlridi in such concentration, that 20 drops of solution containing 0,0025 g of substance. For inner use. This solution concentration is:

A * 0.25 %

B 0.5 %

C 1 %

D 5 %

E 10 %

485 200 ml of cortex Eucommia decoction. Correlation 1?20. For inner use. Necessary quantity of cortex Eucommia is:

A * 10,0 gr

B 20,0 gr

C 30,0 gr

D 40,0 gr

E 50,0 gr

486 A liquid pharmaceutical form oils of plants and fats of animal reserve tissues consisting of fat acid glycerids. Liquid fats non-drying (peanut, castor), semi-drying

(sunflower, corn), drying (heropseed, linseed) are obtained by pressing seeds and plant fruits.

Animal fats - liquid fats (fats of land animals, sea animals, fishes), as well as hard fats. They are used as excipients in pharmaceutical production, and as individual medicinal products.

They are classified as forms for peroral and external application.

A Mixtures

B Emulsions

C * Oils

D Extracts

E Balsams

487 A liquid pharmaceutical form, homogeneous by appearance, consisting of mutually insoluble fine-dispersed liquids. Normally, they are stabilized by emulsifying agents. They can be of different types, mainly water/oil (inverse type) or oil/water (direct type). Depending on the method of application emulsions differ in dispersity. They are forms, which instead of an aqueous phase have a non-aqueous liquid (hydrophilic solvent). Such forms are named

«non-aqueous oil», they can form films. They are intended for external, internal, parenteral application, etc.

A * Emulsions

B Elixirs

C Extracts

D Aromatic waters

E Balsams

488 A liquid pharmaceutical form, presenting a mixture of medicinal product with concentrated solution of sugar or any other sweetener. Added to the content of syrups are excipients, which carry out different functions, as well as dyes, flavors, and alcohol or other preservatives are added in syrups to prevent fermentation. They are intended for peroral application. In that case, when a pharmaceutical form is intended only for one method of use, route of administration «for peroral use» can be omitted. This form can be produced in single-dose and multy-dose containers.

A * Syrups

B Mixtures

C Emulsions

D Extracts

E Balsams

489 A liquid pharmaceutical form, which are aqueous or hydroalcoholic solutions of ether oils. It is produced in 1:1000 ratio, except for some of them. It is obtained by distillation of ether oils contained in plant raw material, or by disolution in water of ether oils alcoholic concentrates. They are intended for peroral and external application.

A Creams

B Liniments

C Extracts

D * Aromatic waters

E Balsams

490 A liquid pharmaceutical form, which is alcohol-aqueous clear or slightly opalescent solutions of medicinal substances. They contain flavors, dyes and other excipients. They are intended for external use (application to skin): for its purification, disinfection, sweat deodorization, etc.); there is also eye lotion.

A * Lotions

B Emulsions

C Elixirs

D Extracts

E Creams

491 A liquid pharmaceutical form, which is alcoholic or hydroalcoholic extracts from pharmaceutical plant or animal raw material. For tincture preparation the raw material before extraction can be exposed to pretreatment, for example, by crushing, degreasing/deoiling or inactivation of enzymes. They are produced by maceration, percolation or other methods

using alcohol in the appropriate concentration. They are usually prepared, using 1 part of raw material and 10 parts of extragent, or 1 part of raw material and 5 parts of extragent. They are intended for peroral and external use. They are classified by the route of administration/purpose.

A * Tinctures

B Mixtures

C Emulsions

D Extracts

E Balsams

492 A liquid pharmaceutical form, which is the sweetened fragrant aqueous-alcoholic solution of medicinal substance. Elixirs are intended for peroral use, there are dental foms.

A Extracts

B Aromatic waters

C Balsams

D * Elixirs

E Mixtures

493 Are intended for peroral and for external application.

A Emulsions

B * Mixtures

C Extracts

D Balsams

E Elixirs

494 Are intended for peroral and for external application.

A * Mixtures

B Emulsions

C Extracts

D Balsams

E Elixirs

495 Cardiovalenum (new – Galena’s preparation ). For inner use. 20 drops twice a day.

Common quantity of extract is:

A 5 ml

B 10 ml

C * 20 ml

D 25 ml

E 30 ml

496 Choose a liquid pharmaceutical form – concentrated preparations of liquid, solid and dense consistence, usually obtained from dried plant and animal raw material. It is obtained by maceration, percolation or other applicable methods, using alcohol or other solvent. They are intended for peroral, external and parenteral use.

A Aromatic waters

B * Extracts

C Balsams

D Mixtures

E Creams

497 Choose a liquid pharmaceutical form consisting of a solvent (water, aromatic water, alcohol, glycerin, etc.) and active agents dissolved in or mixed with it. They are intended for peroral and for external application.

A * Mixtures

B Emulsions

C Extracts

D Balsams

E Elixirs

498 Choose a liquid pharmaceutical form presenting a mixture of medicinal product with concentrated solution of sugar or any other sweetener. Added to the content of syrups are excipients, which carry out different functions, as well as dyes, flavors, and alcohol or other preservatives are added in syrups to prevent fermentation. They are intended for peroral application. In that case, when a pharmaceutical form is intended only for one method of use, route of administration «for peroral use» can be omitted. This form can be produced in single-dose and multy-dose containers.

A Mixtures

B * Emulsions

C Syrups

D Extracts

E Balsams

499 Choose a liquid pharmaceutical form, containing different kinds of plant mucilage in form of solution or suspension. They are obtained by processing of mucus plant substances with water. They are intended for peroral use, and sometimes — for external application.

A Syrups

B Mixtures

C * Mucus’s

D Emulsions

E Extracts

500 Choose a liquid pharmaceutical form, homogeneous by appearance, consisting of mutually insoluble fine-dispersed liquids. Normally, they are stabilized by emulsifying agents. They can be of different types, mainly water/oil (inverse type) or oil/water (direct type). Depending on the method of application emulsions differ in dispersity. They are forms, which instead of an aqueous phase have a non-aqueous liquid (hydrophilic solvent). Such forms are named «non-aqueous oil», they can form films. They are intended for external, internal, parenteral application, etc.

A Elixirs

B * Emulsions

C Extracts

D Aromatic waters

E Balsams

501 Choose a liquid pharmaceutical form, oils of plants and fats of animal reserve tissues consisting of fat acid glycerids. Liquid fats non-drying (peanut, castor), semi-drying




A Mixtures

B * Oils

C Emulsions

D Extracts

E Balsams

502 Choose a liquid pharmaceutical form, representing solutions, suspensions or emulsions which contain one or more acting substances in similar solvents. They include stabilizers, preservatives, prolongators and other excipients. They are intended for peroral use for administration in body cavities: nasal, eye, ear, in stomatological practice and also for combined purpose: eye / nasal, ear/eye.

A * Drops

B Tea spoons

C Dessert spoons

D Table spoons

E All of above

503 Choose a liquid pharmaceutical form, representing a homogeneous system including one or more active substances. This fom consist of solved substance (substances) and a solvent. As a rule, they are intended for use in large volumes. In most cases water is used as solvent, but if solubility is bad or in order to provide a prolonged release non-aqueous solvents (alcohol, ethers, oils etc.) can be used.

A Cream

B * Solution

C Suppository

D Dragee

E Species

504 Choose a liquid pharmaceutical form, which are aqueous or hydroalcoholic solutions of ether oils. It is produced in 1:1000 ratio, except for some of them. It is obtained by distillation of ether oils contained in plant raw material, or by disolution in water of ether oils alcoholic concentrates. They are intended for peroral and external application.

A * Aromatic waters

B Creams

C Liniments

D Extracts

E Balsams

505 Choose a liquid pharmaceutical form, which are alcohol-aqueous clear or slightly opalescent solutions of medicinal substances. They contain flavors, dyes and other excipients.

They are intended for external use (application to skin): for its purification, disinfection, sweat deodorization, etc.); there is also eye lotion.

A Emulsions

B Elixirs

C Extracts

D * Lotions

E Creams

506 Choose a liquid pharmaceutical form, which is alcoholic or hydroalcoholic extracts from pharmaceutical plant or animal raw material. For tincture preparation the raw material before extraction can be exposed to pretreatment, for example, by crushing, degreasing/deoiling or inactivation of enzymes. They are produced by maceration, percolation or other methods using alcohol in the appropriate concentration. They are usually prepared, using 1 part of raw material and 10 parts of extragent, or 1 part of raw material and

5 parts of extragent. They are intended for peroral and external use. They are classified by the route of administration/purpose.

A Mixtures

B Emulsions

C * Tinctures

D Extracts

E Balsams

507 Choose a liquid pharmaceutical form, which is the sweetened fragrant aqueousalcoholic solution of medicinal substance. Elixirs are intended for peroral use, there are dental forms.

A Extracts

B Aromatic waters

C Balsams

D Mixtures

E * Elixirs

508 Decoction of rhizome Tormentillae. For inner use. One tablespoon 3 times a day for 4 days. Common quantity of decoction is:

A 50ml

B 100 ml

C 150 ml

D * 180 ml

E 200 ml

509 Decoction of. For inner use. One tablespoon 3 times a day for 4 days. Necessary quantity of rhizome Tormentillae is:

A 5,0 gr

B 10,0 gr

C 15,0 gr

D * 18,0 gr

E 20,0 gr

510 Emulsum making from 15 ml oleum Helianthi. For inner use. One tablespoon 3 times a day. Common quantity of emulsum is:

A 50ml

B 100 ml

C * 150 ml

D 200 ml

E 250 ml

511 Emulsum preparing from 20,0 Cucurbite seeds. For inner use. Use at once. Common quantity of emulsum is:

A 50ml

B 100 ml

C 150 ml

D * 200 ml

E 250 ml

512 For the improvement taste and smell of mixtures we add other substances with coregent action (corrigents). Mostly it is syrups. What percent from general quantity of mixture can make syrup?

A * 10-30%

B 10-50%

C 30-60%

D 25-65%

E 20-70%

513 How is named a liquid pharmaceutical form – concentrated preparations of liquid, solid and dense consistence, usually obtained from dried plant and animal raw material. It is obtained by maceration, percolation or other applicable methods, using alcohol or other solvent. They are intended for peroral, external and parenteral use.

A Aromatic waters

B Balsams

C Mixtures

D * Extracts

E Creams

514 How is named a liquid pharmaceutical form consisting of a solvent (water, aromatic water, alcohol, glycerin, etc.) and active agents dissolved in or mixed with it. They are intended for peroral and for external application.

A Emulsions

B Extracts

C * Mixtures

D Balsams

E Elixirs

515 How is named a liquid pharmaceutical form, representing a homogeneous system including one or more active substances. This fom consist of solved substance (substances) and a solvent. As a rule, they are intended for use in large volumes. In most cases water is used as solvent, but if solubility is bad or in order to provide a prolonged release non-aqueous solvents (alcohol, ethers, oils etc.) can be used.

A * Solution

B Cream

C Suppository

D Dragee

E Species

516 How is named a liquid pharmaceutical form, which are aqueous or hydroalcoholic solutions of ether oils. It is produced in 1:1000 ratio, except for some of them. It is obtained by distillation of ether oils contained in plant raw material, or by disolution in water of ether oils alcoholic concentrates. They are intended for peroral and external application.

A Creams

B Liniments

C Extracts

D Balsams

E * Aromatic waters

517 How is named a liquid pharmaceutical form, which consists of natural juice with or without addition of medicinal substances. They are intended for peroral use.

A * Juices

B Syrups

C Mixtures

D Emulsions

E Extracts

518 How is named a liquid pharmaceutical form, which contains as a disperse phase one or more active substances dissolved or dispersed in the appropriate solvent. They contain excipients intended for maintenance of necessary viscosity, pH maintenance or stabilization, for improvement of solubility of active substances, flavorings, flavor additives, etc. Most common are forms in which the dispersion medium is water, extracts of pharmaceutical

plants, glycerin, and oils as a disperse phase- various powder-like substances. These are thermodynamically unstable systems, muddy, opaque, characterized by kinetic

(sedimentation) and aggregate (condensation) instability. Presence of precipitate, which easy disperses with formation of suspension, is allowed. They are intended for external, internal, parenteral application, etc. They can be classified by dispersion medium (water, oil), by size of particles.

A * Suspensions

B Syrups

C Mixtures

D Emulsions

E Extracts

519 How is named a liquid pharmaceutical form, which is alcohol-aqueous clear or slightly opalescent solutions of medicinal substances. They contain flavors, dyes and other excipients.

They are intended for external use (application to skin): for its purification, disinfection, sweat deodorization, etc.); there is also eye lotion.

A Emulsions

B Elixirs

C Mixtures

D * Lotions

E Creams

520 How is named a liquid pharmaceutical form, which is alcoholic or hydroalcoholic extracts from pharmaceutical plant or animal raw material. For tincture preparation the raw material before extraction can be exposed to pretreatment, for example, by crushing, degreasing/deoiling or inactivation of enzymes. They are produced by maceration, percolation or other methods using alcohol in the appropriate concentration. They are usually prepared, using 1 part of raw material and 10 parts of extragent, or 1 part of raw material and

5 parts of extragent. They are intended for peroral and external use. They are classified by the route of administration/purpose.

A * Tinctures

B Mixtures

C Emulsions

D Extracts

E Balsams

521 How is named a liquid pharmaceutical form, which is solutions of ether oils (usually vegetable products) in alcohol or oils. They are usually intended for peroral use, and sometimes, for external one.

A Creams

B Liniments

C Ointments

D * Balsams

E Extracts

522 How is the form of medications, which are solutions of ether oils (usually vegetable products) in alcohol or oils? They are usually intended for peroral use, and sometimes, for external one.

A Creams

B Liniments

C Ointments

D * Balsams

E Extracts

523 In what medical form does write a liquid pharmaceutical form – concentrated preparations of liquid, solid and dense consistence, usually obtained from dried plant and animal raw material. It is obtained by maceration, percolation or other applicable methods, using alcohol or other solvent. They are intended for peroral, external and parenteral use.

A Aromatic waters

B Balsams

C Mixtures

D Creams

E * Extracts

524 In what medical form does write a liquid pharmaceutical form, which is the sweetened fragrant aqueous-alcoholic solution of medicinal substance. Elixirs are intended for peroral use, there are dental foms.

A * Elixirs

B Extracts

C Aromatic waters

D Balsams

E Mixtures

525 In what medical form does write a liquid pharmaceutical form, homogeneous by appearance, consisting of mutually insoluble fine-dispersed liquids. Normally, they are stabilized by emulsifying agents. They can be of different types, mainly water/oil (inverse type) or oil/water (direct type). Depending on the method of application emulsions differ in dispersity. They are forms, which instead of an aqueous phase have a non-aqueous liquid

(hydrophilic solvent). Such forms are named «non-aqueous oil», they can form films. They are intended for external, internal, parenteral application, etc.

A * Emulsions

B Elixirs

C Extracts

D Aromatic waters

E Balsams

526 In what medical form does write a liquid pharmaceutical form, representing solutions, suspensions or emulsions which contain one or more acting substances in similar solvents.

They include stabilizers, preservatives, prolongators and other excipients. They are intended for peroral use for administration in body cavities: nasal, eye, ear, in stomatological practice and also for combined purpose: eye / nasal, ear/eye.

A Tea spoons

B * Drops

C Dessert spoons

D Table spoons

E All of above

527 In what medicinal form is prescribed a liquid pharmaceutical form, representing solutions, suspensions or emulsions which contain one or more acting substances in similar solvents. They include stabilizers, preservatives, prolongators and other excipients. They are intended for peroral use for administration in body cavities: nasal, eye, ear, in stomatological practice and also for combined purpose: eye / nasal, ear/eye.

A * Drops

B Tea spoons

C Dessert spoons

D Table spoons

E All of above

528 In what medicinal form is prescribed liquid pharmaceutical forms, which are alcoholaqueous clear or slightly opalescent solutions of medicinal substances. They contain flavors, dyes and other excipients. They are intended for external use (application to skin): for its purification, disinfection, sweat deodorization, etc.); there is also eye lotion.

A Emulsions

B Elixirs

C Mixtures

D * Lotions

E Creams

529 In what medicinal form is prescribed a liquid pharmaceutical form consisting of a solvent (water, aromatic water, alcohol, glycerin, etc.) and active agents dissolved in or mixed with it. They are intended for peroral and for external application.

A Emulsions

B Extracts

C Balsams

D * Mixtures

E Elixirs

530 Lantosidum (new- Galleon’s preparation). For inner use. 15 drops 3 times a day.


A 5 ml

B 10 ml

C * 15 ml

D 20 ml

E 25 ml

531 Liquid pharmaceutical form, containing different kinds of plant mucilage in form of solution or suspension. They are obtained by processing of mucus plant substances with water. They are intended for peroral use, and sometimes — for external application.

A * Mucus’s

B Syrups

C Mixtures

D Emulsions

E Extracts

532 Liquid pharmaceutical form, which consists of natural juice with or without addition of medicinal substances. They are intended for peroral use.

A * Juices

B Syrups

C Mixtures

D Emulsions

E Extracts

533 Mixture, containing tincture Valerian and tincture Convalaria in correlation 2:1. 15 drops 3 times a day. Common quantity of mixture is:

A 5 ml

B 10 ml

C * 15 ml

D 20 ml

E 25 ml

534 Mixture, containing tincture Valeriana and tincture Convalaria in correlation 2:1. 15 drops 3 times a day. Common quantity of Valeriana in mixture is:

A 5 ml

B * 10 ml

C 15 ml

D 20 ml

E 25 ml

535 Mixture, containing tincture Valeriana and tincture Leonurus, correlation 1:3. For inner use. 20 drops 3 times a day. Common quantity of mixture is:

A 5 ml

B 10 ml

C 15 ml

D * 20 ml

E 25 ml

536 Mixture, containing tincture Valeriana and tincture Leonurus, correlation 2:2. For inner use. 20 drops 3 times a day. Common quantity of Valeriana in mixture is:

A 5 ml

B *10 ml

C 15 ml

D 20 ml

E 25 ml

537 Note the name a liquid pharmaceutical form – concentrated preparations of liquid, solid and dense consistence, usually obtained from dried plant and animal raw material. It is obtained by maceration, percolation or other applicable methods, using alcohol or other solvent. They are intended for peroral, external and parenteral use.

A * Extracts

B Aromatic waters

C Balsams

D Mixtures

E Creams

538 Note the name a liquid pharmaceutical form consisting of a solvent (water, aromatic water, alcohol, glycerin, etc.) and active agents dissolved in or mixed with it. They are intended for peroral and for external application.

A * Mixtures

B Emulsions

C Extracts

D Balsams

E Elixirs

539 Note the name a liquid pharmaceutical form presenting a mixture of medicinal product with concentrated solution of sugar or any other sweetener. Added to the content of syrups are excipients, which carry out different functions, as well as dyes, flavors, and alcohol or other preservatives are added in syrups to prevent fermentation. They are intended for peroral application. In that case, when a pharmaceutical form is intended only for one method of use, route of administration «for peroral use» can be omitted. This form can be produced in single-dose and multy-dose containers.

A Mixtures

B * Syrups

C Emulsions

D Extracts

E Balsams

540 Note the name a liquid pharmaceutical form, containing different kinds of plant mucilage in form of solution or suspension. They are obtained by processing of mucus plant substances with water. They are intended for peroral use, and sometimes — for external application.

A Syrups

B Mixtures

C Emulsions

D * Mucuses

E Extracts

541 Note the name a liquid pharmaceutical form, homogeneous by appearance, consisting of mutually insoluble fine-dispersed liquids. Normally, they are stabilized by emulsifying agents. They can be of different types, mainly water/oil (inverse type) or oil/water (direct type). Depending on the method of application emulsions differ in dispersity. They are forms, which instead of an aqueous phase have a non-aqueous liquid (hydrophilic solvent). Such forms are named «non-aqueous oil», they can form films. They are intended for external, internal, parenteral application, etc.

A * Emulsions

B Elixirs

C Extracts

D Aromatic waters

E Balsams

542 Note the name a liquid pharmaceutical form, oils of plants and fats of animal reserve tissues consisting of fat acid glycerids. Liquid fats non-drying (peanut, castor), semi-drying




A * Oils

B Mixtures

C Emulsions

D Extracts

E Balsams

543 Note the name a liquid pharmaceutical form, representing solutions, suspensions or emulsions which contain one or more acting substances in similar solvents. They include stabilizers, preservatives, prolongators and other excipients. They are intended for peroral use for administration in body cavities: nasal, eye, ear, in stomatological practice and also for combined purpose: eye / nasal, ear/eye.

A Tea spoons

B Dessert spoons

C Table spoons

D * Drops

E All of above

544 Solutanum ( new- Galena’s preparation). For inner use. 10 drops 3 times a day.


A 5 ml

B * 10 ml

C 15 ml

D 20 ml

E 25 ml

545 Solution of Calcii chloridum in such concentration, that one spoonful (15 ml) containing 1,0 of substance. For inner use. This solution concentration is:

A 5 %

B * 7 %

C 9 %

D 12 %

E 15 %

546 Solution of Kalii chloridum for inner use. 1 tablespoon of solution 4 times a day, for 4 days. Common quantity of solution is:

A 140 ml

B 200 ml

C 220 ml

D * 240 ml

E 300 ml

547 Solution of Kalii chloridum, for inner use. 1 tablespoon 3 times a day, for 5 days.

Common quantity of solution is:

A 100 ml

B 125 ml

C 150 ml

D 200 ml

E * 225 ml

548 Solution of Platyphyllini hydrotartas for inner use. 10 drops 3 times a day, for 5 days.

Common quantity of solution is:

A 1 ml

B 5 ml

C 7 ml

D * 7,5 ml

E 9 ml

549 The liquid pharmaceutical form, which contains as a disperse phase one or more active substances dissolved or dispersed in the appropriate solvent.. Most common are forms in which the dispersion medium is water, extracts of pharmaceutical plants, glycerin, and oils as a disperse phase- various powder-like substances. Presence of precipitate, which easy disperses with formation of suspension, is allowed. They are intended for external, internal, parenteral application, etc. They can be classified by dispersion medium (water, oil), by size of particles.

A * Suspensions

B Syrups

C Mixtures

D Emulsions

E Extracts

550 The liquid pharmaceutical form, which is solutions of ether oils (usually vegetable products) in alcohol or oils. They are usually intended for peroral use, and sometimes, for external one.

A * Balsams

B Creams

C Liniments

D Ointments

E Extracts

551 Liquid pharmaceutical form, which is alcoholic or hydroalcoholic extracts from pharmaceutical plant or animal raw material. For this preparation the raw material before extraction can be exposed to pretreatment, for example, by crushing, degreasing/deoiling or inactivation of enzymes. They are produced by maceration, percola¬tion or other methods using alcohol in the appropriate concentration.

A * Tinctures

B Pastes

C Tablets

D capsules

E Dragee

552 Viburnum liquid extract. For inner use. 20 drops 3 times a day. Common quantity of extract is:

A 10 ml

B * 20 ml

C 30 ml

D 40 ml

E 50 ml

553 What a liquid medical forms do you know, which is solutions of ether oils (usually vegetable products) in alcohol or oils. They are usually intended for peroral use, and sometimes, for external one.

A * Balsams

B Creams

C Liniments

D Ointments

E Extracts

554 What preparations do get by simple extraction from a digister by water, alcohol or ether? They contain operating ballast substances.

A

New galen’s preparations

B

* Galen’s preparations

C Magistralis medical agents

D Officinalis medical agents

E Strong-acting medical agents

555 You are to administer Rocephin 750 mg. Reconstitution directions for this powdered drug is to add 5.3 mL of sterile water or normal saline to the vial to prepare dosage strength of 1g/mL. How much of the solution should you give?

A 0.5 mL

B * 0.75 mL

C 1.25 mL

D 1.5 mL

E 2 ml

556 Extracts from the grass (herba) of Thermopsidis prepare from a calculation:

A 1:10

B * 1:400

C 1:30

D 1:50

E 1:40

557 How is medication named after the proper technological treatment in accordance with the rules of pharmacopoeia?

A Medical substance


C Medical form

D Reagent


558 An amount of indifferent powder which is taken for pasta preparing must be not more than:

A * 65%

B 40%

C 85%

D 30%

E 55%

559 1 ml of the alcohol solutions contains:

A 10 drops

B 20 drops

C 30 drops

D 40 drops

E * 50 drops

560 1 ml of the ether solution contains approximately:

A 40 drops

B 50 drops

C 60 drops

D 70 drops

E * 80 drops

561 1 ml of the oil solution includes:

A 3-5 drops

B 5-10 drops

C 10-15 drops

D * 30 drops

E 20 drops

562 1 ml of the water solution includes:

A 5 drops

B 10 drops

C 15 drops

D * 20 drops

E 30 drops

563 According to Pharmacopoeia infusion of Adonis herb is made using correlation:

A 1:20

B * 1:30

C 1:40

D 1:50

E 1:60

564 According to Pharmacopoeia infusion of Foreglove leaves is made using correlation:

A 1:300

B * 1:400

C 1:500

D 1:600

E 1:700

565 According to Pharmacopoeia infusion of rhizome Valerian is made using correlation:

A * 1:30

B 1:40

C 1:50

D 1:60

E 1:70

566 According to Pharmacopoeia infusion of roots of Ipecacuanha is made using correlation:

A 1:300

B * 1:400

C 1:500

D 1:600

E 1:700

567 According to Pharmacopoeia infusion of Secale cornutum is made using correlation:

A * 1:30

B 1:40

C 1:50

D 1:60

E 1:70

568 According to Pharmacopoeia infusion of Thermopsis herb is made using correlation:

A 1:100

B 1:200

C 1:300

D * 1:400

E 1:500

569 As medical forms which prepares in a pharmacy after the recipe of doctor are named

A * Magistralis medical agents

B Officinalis medical agents

C Poisoning medical agents

D Strong-acting medical agents

E Galen’s preparations

570 At what pathology does give advantage aerosols?

A Cardiovascular diseases

B * Diseases of respiratory organs

C Diseases of gastrointestinal tract

D Traumas

E Diseases of blood system

571 Decoction from Senega root (radix Senegae) what is made using correlation:

A 1:5

B 1:10

C 1:20

D * 1:30

E 1:40

572 Decoctions had to be prescribed only for:

A 1-2 days

B * 3-4 days

C 5-6 days

D 7-8 days

E 9-10 days

573 Dessert-spoon of water solution include:

A 5 ml

B * 10 ml

C 15 ml

D 20 ml

E 25 ml

574 For preparing the decoctions it is necessary to take raw material and water at making of?

A * 1 : 10

B 1 : 1000

C 2 : 100

D 1 : 200

E 1 : 400

575 For preparing the extracts it is necessary to take raw material and water at making of from drastic plants?

A 1 : 100

B * 1 : 400

C 1 : 200

D 1 : 3

E 1 : 10

576 For preparing the mixture it is necessary to take the syrups:

A 10-50%

B * 10-30%

C 30-60%

D 25-65%

E 20-70%

577 For preparing the mixture it is necessary to take a solvent:

A * Aquae of destillatae

B Olei Lini

C Sirupi Althaeae

D Mucilaginis Salep

E Aquae of pro injectionibus

578 For preparing the oil emulsion it is necessary to take the emulgator:

A Vaselinum

B Lanolinum

C Pork cleared Adeps

D Olive oil

E * Gummi Arabici

579 For the improvement of taste, smell of mixture, corrigent actions add other matters.

Mostly it is syrups. What percent of mixture volume can make syrup?

A 10-50%

B 30-60%

C *10-30%

D 25-65%

E 20-70%

580 For treatment bronchial asthma are used special form such as:

A Tablets

B Dragee

C Species (collections)

D Sponges

E * Inhalator

581 From what parts of plants does prepare decoctions?

A Flowers

B Leaves

C Grass

D * Roots

E Seed

582 From what parts of plants does prepare decoctions?

A Flowers

B Leaves

C Grass

D * Roots

E Seed

583 From what parts of plants does prepare extracts?

A * Flowers

B Seed

C Roots

D Club

E Rhizomes

584 From what parts of plants does prepare extracts?

A * Flowers

B Cora

C Roots

D Club

E Rhizomes

585 How many percents of mucus decoction it is necessary to add to mixture, if in composition a matter is included with the expressed irritating properties.

A * 30-60%

B 50-80%

C 10-30%

D 20-40%

E 40-60%

586 If in the complement of mixture enter extract, decoction, emulsion in a recipe they are written:

A * First

B After basic agents

C After corrigens

D In the end

E After a solvent

587 If there is no other pointing at making of mixtures take a solvent:


B Olei Lini

C Sirupi Althaeae

D Mucilaginis Salep


588 If there is not painting at making of mixtures take a solvent:

A Olei Lini

B * Aqua destillatae

C Sirupi Althaeae

D Mucilaginis Salep

E Aquae pro injectionibus

589 In case when the mixture contains the substance with epressed irritative action it is necessary to add to the mixture instead of a part of the solvent plant mucous:

A * 30-60%

B 50-80%

C 10-30%

D 20-40%

E 40-60%

590 In what correlation does take raw material and water at making of decoctions?

A * 1 : 10

B 1 : 1000

C 2 : 100

D 1 : 200

E 1 : 400

591 In what correlation does take raw material and water at making of extracts from drastic plants?

A 1 : 100

B * 1 : 400

C 1 : 200

D 1 : 3

E 1 : 10

592 In what correlation does take raw material and water at making of decoctions?

A * 1 : 10

B 1 : 1000

C 2 : 100

D 1 : 200

E 1 : 400

593 In what correlation does take raw material and water at making of extracts from drastic plants?

A 1 : 100

B * 1 : 400

C 1 : 200

D 1 : 3

E 1 : 10

594 Infusion from medical plants with strong acting substances are prepared using correlation:

A 1:100

B 1:200

C 1:300

D * 1:400

E 1:500

595 Infusions are prescribed only for:

A 1-2 days

B *3-4 days

C 5-6 days

D 7-8 days

E 9-10 days

596 Infusions from medical plants with less intensive action are prepared using correlation:

A 1:10

B 1:20

C * 1:30

D 1:40

E 1:50

597 Infusions from medical plants with strong acting substances are prepared using correlation:

A 1:100

B 1:200

C 1:300

D * 1:400

E 1:500

598 It is necessary to prescribe infuse of Thermopsidis herb which must be recepted:

A 1:10

B * 1:400

C 1:30

D 1:50

E 1:40

599 Mass of the dosed powders of plant origin for internal use is:

A 0,5 – 5,0

B 5,0 – 100, 0

C 0,1 – 1,0

D * 0,05 – 1,0

E 20,0 – 50, 0

600 Whatmedicalforms do you know

A Solid,soft, liquid

B only soft

C only solid

D Soft and solid


601 Medicines, components, doses and technology of their preparation are noted in pharmacopoeia are named:

A * Officinal

B Magisterial

C Galen’s preparation

D

New Galen’s preparations


602 Mixture is necessary to write for:

A 1-2 days

B * 3-4 days

C 5-6 days

D 7-8 days

E 9-10 days

603 Mixtures is:

A Soft

B Firm

C * Liquid

D Medical forms are for injections

E All of above

604 Mixtures is:

A Soft

B Firm

C * Liquid


E There is not a faithful answer

605 Name liquid medical form which is measured by spoons

A Tinctures

B Liniments

C Spray

D * Extracts

E Enemas

606 Note the medicine which is received by simple extraction from vegetative raw material using water, alcohol or other substance:

A

New Galen’s preparation

B

* Galen’s preparation

C Narcotic agent

D Spay

E Dragee

607 Note the medicines which are the persistent extracts from vegetative raw material cleaned as much as possible from ballast substances:

A

* New Galen’s preparations

B

Galen’s preparations

C Narcotic medical agents

D Spays

E Dragee

608 Note the overage capacity of the dessert-spoon:

A 5 ml of water solution

B 10 ml of water solution

C I 15 ml of water solution

D * I 20 ml of water solution

E 25 ml of water solution

609 Note the overage capacity of the table-spoon:

A 5 ml of water solution


C * 15 ml of water solution

D 20 ml of water solution


610 Note the overage capacity of the tea-spoon:

A *5 ml of water solution


C 15 ml of water solution

D 20 ml of water solution


611 Pharmaceutical form of the mixtures?

A Soft

B Firm

C * Liquid


E All of above

612 quantity of the unguent for treatment the skin (mucous) is approximately:

A 1,0-2,0 gr

B 3,0-4,0 gr

C * 5,0-100,0 gr

D 150,0-200,0 gr

E 250,0-300 ,0 gr

613 Solutions for ear drops are prescribed in quantity approximately:

A 1-2 ml

B * 5-10 ml

C 100-150 ml

D 150-200 ml

E 200-250 ml

614 Solutions for nose drops are prescribed in quantity approximately:

A 1-2 ml

B * 5-10 ml

C 100-150 ml

D 150-200 ml

E 200-250 ml

615 Table-spoon of water solution include:

A 5 ml

B 10 ml

C * 15 ml

D 20 ml

E 25 ml

616 Tea-spoon of water solution include:

A 5 ml

B * 10 ml

C 15 ml

D 20 ml

E 25 ml

617 The name of the pharmaceutical form of mixtures?

A Firm

B * Liquid

C Soft

D For injections

E Gaseous

618 To note the medical form of emulsions?

A Soft

B Firm

C * Liquid



619 To note the medical form of mixtures:

A Soft

B Firm

C Medical forms are for injections

D All of above

E * Liquid

620 To note the parts of plants does prepare decoctions?

A Flowers

B Leaves

C Grass

D *Roots

E Seed

621 To note the parts of plants does prepare extracts?

A Cora

B Roots

C * Flowers

D Club

E Rhizomes

622 To note the pharmaceutical form of mixture:

A Soft

B Firm

C * Liquid


E All of above

623 To note the pharmaceutical form of New Galen’s preparations?

A Soft

B Firm

C Medical forms are for injections

D * Liquid


624 To note the preparations make as proof extractions from a digister are maximally cleared from ballast matters

A * New Galenov’s preparations

B Magistralis

C Officinalis


E All of above

625 To specify how many percents of mucus it is necessary to add do mixture, if in composition a matter is included with the expressed irritating properties:

A 10-20 %

B 30-40 %

C 40-50 %

D * 30-60 %

E 60-80 %

626 To specify how many percents of the solvent plant mucous it is necessary to add to mixture, if in composition a matter is included with the expressed irritating properties.

A 30-60%

B 50-80%

C *10-30%

D 20-40%

E 40-60%

627 To what medical form does take emulsions?

A Soft

B Firm (solid)

C * Liquid



628 To what medical form does take emulsions?

A Soft

B Firm

C * Liquid



629 To what medical form does take mixtures?

A * Soft

B Firm

C Liquid


E Species


A Soft

B Firm (solid)

C * Liquid


E Spayed


A Soft

B Firm

C * Liquid


E All of above

632

To what medical form does take New Galen’s preparations?

A Soft

B Firm

C * Liquid



633 To what medical form does take tinctures?

A Soft

B * Liquid

C Firm



634 What constituent is used for preparing liniments:

A Lanoline

B * Olive oil

C Vaseline

D Butyrol

E Poly ethylene - oxide

635 What emulgator is necessary to add for prepared of oily emulsions:

A Glycerine

B Peachy butter

C Gelatinous mass

D Olive oil

E * Arabic gum

636 What emulsifier is applied at making of oily emulsions:

A Talcum

B Peachy butter

C Gelatinous mass

D Olive oil

E * Acacia gum

637 What emulsifier is applied at making of oily emulsions?

A Olive oil

B Peachy butter

C Gelatinous mass

D Lenseed oil

E * Arabian gum

638 What is mixture pharmaceutical form?

A Soft

B Firm

C * Liquid


E All of above

639 What medical forms are appointed drops inward?

A * Tinctures

B Extracts

C Decoctions

D Collections

E Powders

640 What medical forms are appointed drops inward?

A * Tinctures

B Extracts

C Decoctions

D Collections

E Mucuses

641 What medical forms are drops belong to?

A Firm (solid)

B * Liquid

C Soft

D For injections

E Gaseous

642 What medical liquids are appointed the drops per os?

A * tinctures

B decoctions

C mixtures

D emulsions

E infuses

643 What medicinal preparations make as proof extractions from a digester are maximally cleared from ballast matters

A * New Galen medicine

B mixtures

C emulsions

D species

E Medical forms are for injections

644 What percent from general volume of mixture can make syrup?

A 10-50%

B 30-60%

C * 10-30%

D 25-65%

E 20-70%

645 What percent of the mixture volume can make syrup?

A 10-50%

B 30-60%

C 25-65%

D * 10-30%

E 20-70%

646 What pharmaceutical form is mixture?

A Soft

B Firm

C * Liquid


E All of above

647 What pharmaceutical form are tinctures?

A * Liquid

B Soft

C Firm


E All of above

648 What preparations do get by simple extraction from a digister by water, alcohol or ether? They contain operating ballast matters.

A * Galenov’s preparations

B Auxiliary substances

C Magistralis

D Officinalis

E Active substances

649 What preparations make as proof extractions from a digister are maximally cleared from ballast substances.

A * New galen’s preparations

B Galen’s preparations

C Officinalis medical agents

D Magistralis medical agents

E Medical forms for injections

650 What term in prescription show the necessity of immediate delivery of medications?

A * Cito

B simplex

C Da

D repete

E misce

651 What the emulgator is applied at making of oily emulsions:

A Glycerini

B Sweet almond emulsion

C Gelatosa

D Ol. Olivarum

E * Arabic gum

652 When it is not noted in the prescription the quantity of plant raw material chemist shop prepares decocts with correlation:

A 1:1

B 1:5

C * 1:10

D 1:20

E 1:25

Situation tasks

653 A 25-year-old woman with red and itchy eczematous dermatitis visits your office. She had a dental procedure one day earlier with administration of a local anesthetic. There were no other findings, although she indicated that she had a history of allergic reactions. Which of the following drugs is most likely involved?

A Cocaine

B Lidocaine

C * Procaine

D Etidocaine

E Bupivacaine

654 A 30 y.o. patient who was diagnosed with acute pain in the eye. What local anaesthetic can be used for extracting of foreign body from the eye?

A * Dicainum

B Novocaine

C Lidocaine

D Trimecainum

E Sovocainum

655 A 40 y.o. patient who was diagnosed with myocardial infarction which is complicated ventrical arrhythmia. After the injection of antiarrhythmic drug with local anesthetic activity cardiac rhythm was normalized. What drug was used?

A * Lidocaine

B Anaesthesinum

C Verapamilum

D Pananginum

E Аnaprilinum

656 A 40 y.o. who has been treated in clinic with ventricular arrhythmia followed myocardial infarction. Cardiac rhytm was normalized by the introduction of antiarrhytmic drug with local anesthesia effect. What drug was prescribed?

A Propranololum

B Anaesthesinum

C Verapamilum

D Panaginum

E * Lidocaine

657 52 patient-year-old men were hospitalized with myocardial infarction and cardiac insufficiency has ventricular arrhytmia. What antiarrhytmic drug is a medicine of choice in this case?

A Novocaineamidum

B Chinidini sulfas

C Nifedipininum

D * Lidocaine

E Aimalinum

658 A 54 year man was taken to the hospital for operative treatment. During additional examination ventricular premature beats were detected. What drug is the most expedient for anesthesia in this case?

A Aether pro narcosi

B Phthorothanum

C Hexenalum

D * Lidocaine

E Ketaminum

659 A 56 year old man was taken to the hospital with eye trauma. From the anamnesis it is known that he has hypersensitivity to the sulfonamide agents. What local anesthetic can be used in this case?

A * Lidocaine

B Novocaine

C Trimecainum

D Dicainum

E Anaesthesinum

660 A 56 year old man was taken to the hospital with myocardial infarction which is complicated ventricle arrhythmia. After the injection of antiarrhythmic drug with local anaesthetic activity cardiac rhythm was normalized. What drug was used?

A * Lidocaine

B Anaesthesinum

C Verapamilum

D Pananginum

E Аnaprilinum

661 A 59 year man was taken to the hospital with ventricular arrhythmia followed myocardial infarction. Cardiac rhythm was normalized by the introduction of antiarrhytmic drug with local anesthesia effect. What drug was prescribed?

A Propranololum

B Anaesthesinum

C Verapamilum

D Panaginum

E * Lidocaine

662 61-year-old men it is necessary to made the paranephral by Wyshnevsy method block.

What concentration of solution must be used?

A 4–5 %

B 0,5–1 %

C 1–2 %

D 2–4 %

E * 0,125–0,5 %

663 A 65-year-old men was hospitalized patient with ventricular arrhythmia followed myocardial infarction. Cardiac rhytm was normalized by the introduction of antiarrhytmic drug with local anesthesia effect. What drug was prescribed?

A Propranololum

B * Lidocaine

C Anaesthesinum

D Verapamilum

E Panaginum

664 A doctor prescribed drug to a patient with eye trauma. What is the prescription to the

Dicainum usage?


B * Superficial anaesthesia

C Trunk anaesthesia

D Infiltrative anaesthesia

E Spinal anaesthesia

665 A doctor prescribed drug to a patient with myocardial infarction which is complicated ventrical arrhythmia. After the injection of antiarrhythmic drug with local anaesthetic activity cardiac rhythm was normalized. What drug was used?

A * Lidocaine

B Anaesthesinum

C Verapamilum

D Pananginum

E Аnaprilinum

666 A doctor prescribed drug to a patient with pain in the eye. What local anaesthetic can be used for extracting of foreign body from the eye?

A * Dicainum

B Novocaine

C Lidocaine

D Trimecainum

E Sovocainum

667 A doctor prescribed drug to a patient with red and itchy eczematous dermatitis visits your office. She had a dental procedure one day earlier with administration of a local

anesthetic. There were no other findings, although she indicated that she had a history of allergic reactions. Which of the following drugs is most likely involved?

A Cocaine

B Lidocaine

C * Procaine

D Etidocaine

E Bupivacaine

668 A doctor prescribed to make the paranephral block by Wyshnevsy method to a patient.

What concentration of solution must be used?

A 4–5 %

B 0,5–1 %

C 1–2 %

D 2–4 %

E * 0,125–0,5 %

669 A patient complained an acute pain in the eye. He has been hospitalized. What local anesthetic can be used for extracting of foreign body from the eye?

A * Dicainum

B Novocaine

C Lidocaine

D Trimecainum

E Sovocainum

670 A patient complained in acute pain in the heart which is complicated ventrical arrhythmia. After the injection of antiarrhythmic drug with local anaesthetic activity cardiac rhythm was normalized. What drug was used?

A * Lidocaine

B Anaesthesinum

C Verapamilum

D Pananginum

E Аnaprilinum

671 A patient has eye trauma. From the anamnesis it is known that he has hypersensitivity to the sulfonamid agents. What local anaesthetic can be used in this case?

A * Lidocaine

B Novocaine

C Trimecainum

D Dicainum

E Anaesthesinum

672 A patient has felt an acute pain in the eye. He has been hospitalized. What local anaesthetic can be used for extracting of foreign body from the eye?

A * Dicainum

B Novocaine

C Lidocaine

D Trimecainum

E Sovocainum

673 A patient has myocardial infarction which is complicated ventrical arrhythmia. After the injection of antiarrhythmic drug with local anaesthetic activity cardiac rhythm was normalized. What drug was used?

A * Lidocaine

B Anaesthesinum

C Verapamilum

D Pananginum

E

Аnaprilinum

674 A patient was hospitalized in the ophthalmologic department with eye trauma. From the anamnesis it is known that he has hypersensitivity to the sulfonamid agents. What local anaesthetic can be used in this case?

A * Lidocaine

B Novocaine

C Trimecainum

D Dicainum

E Anaesthesinum

675 A patient was hospitalized patient with eye trauma. From the anamnesis it is known that he has hypersensitivity to the sulfonamid agents. What local anaesthetic can be used in this case?

A Novocaine

B Trimecainum

C Dicainum

D * Lidocaine

E Anaesthesinum

676 A patient with an abscess was admitted to a surgical department for operative treatment. During additional examination ventricular premature beats were detected. What drug is the most expedient for anesthesia in this case?

A Aether pro narcosi

B Phthorothanum

C Hexenalum

D * Lidocaine

E Ketaminum

677 A patient with myocardial infarction and cardiac insufficiency has ventricular arrhytmia. What antiarrhytmic drug is a medicine of choice in this case?

A Novocaineamidum

B Chinidini sulfas

C Nifedipininum

D * Lidocaine

E Aimalinum

678 A patient with ventricular arrhythmia followed myocardial infarction. Cardiac rhytm was normalized by the introduction of antiarrhytmic drug with local anesthesia effect. What drug was prescribed?

A Propranololum

B Anaesthesinum

C * Lidocaine

D Verapamilum

E Panaginum

679 Before the operation with the spinal anaesthesia patient shold be instructed about possible complications. Possible complications of the spinal anaesthesia are listed below

EXCEPT:

A * Myocardial infarction

B Respiratory paralisis

C Cauda equina syndrom

D Septic meningitis

E Nausea and womiting

680 Choose the correct statement about the Anaesthesinum. This drug may be used for:

A * Superficial anaesthsia

B Conductive anaesthesia

C Trunk anaesthesia



681 Choose the correct statement about the solution of amonii caustici. What is indication of this drug?

A * Unconsciousness

B Antiseptic of wounds

C Heavy metal salts poisoning

D Instrument sterilisation

E Superficial anaesthsia

682 Choose the right answer of Lidocaine. Lidocaine:

A * Is used for all of the kinds anesthesia

B Is used only for infiltrative and conductive anesthesia

C Is not used for anesthesia

D Is used only for superficial anesthesia

E Is used only for spinal anesthesia

683 Choose the right answer of Novocaine. Novocaine

A Is used only for infiltration anesthesia

B * Often causes allergic reactions

C It is not a derivative of PABA

D Does not destroy the cholinesterase plasma

E Is combined with sulphonamides

684 Choose the right answer. Local anesthetic of the ether group

A Lidocaine

B * Novocaine

C Ultracaine

D Trimecainum

E Bupivacaine

685 Choose the right answer. Local anesthetics of the amide group

A Cocaine

B * Lidocaine

C Anaesthesinum

D Novocaine

E Dicainum

686 Choose the right answer. The group of preparations, intensifying and prolonging the action of local anesthetics

A Analeptics

B * L-adrenomimetics

C L-adrenoblockers

D M-cholinomimetics

E N-cholinomimetics

687 Choose the right question. Dicainum is used for:



C Trunk anaesthesia



688 Choose the right question. The correct statement about the Anaesthesinum is:

A * Anaesthesinum is used for Superficial anaesthsia

B Anaesthesinum is used for onductive anaesthesia

C Anaesthesinum is used for Trunk anaesthesia

D Anaesthesinum is used for Infiltrative anaesthesia

E Anaesthesinum is used for Spinal anaesthesia

689 Combine-operator during gathering of crop has felt an acute pain in the eye. He has been hospitalized. What local anaesthetic can be used for extracting of foreign body from the eye?

A * Dicainum

B Novocaine

C Lidocaine

D Trimecainum

E Sovocainum

690 Correct answer about Novocaine. Novocaine






691 Determine the drug. Local anesthetics used for conductive anesthesia

A Anaesthesinum

B * Xycainum

C Tanninum

D Dicainum

E Cocaine

692 Determine the drug. The preparation used for all of the types of local anesthesia

A Cocaine

B * Lidocaine

C Dicainum

D Anaesthesinum

E Novocaine

693 Determine the drug. This drug is used for internal usage during heavy salts metal and alkaloids poisoning

A * Solution of taninum

B Solution of mentholum

C Solution of ammonii caustici

D Vismuti nitras

E Infusion of Salvia leaves

694 Determine the group of drugs: reversibly inhibit impulse generation and propagation in nerves. In sensory nerves, such an effect is desired when painful procedures must be performed, e.g., surgical or dental operations.

A * Local anesthetics

B M-cholinomimetics

C Antiryretic agents

D Laxatives

E General anesthetics

695 Determine the right answer of Lidocaine. Lidocaine:

A * Is used for all of the kinds anesthesia





696 Determine the right answer. Novocaine






697 Doctor prescribed the taninum solution. What is indication for its usage:

A * Heavy metal salts poisoning

B Unconsciousness

C Antiseptic of wounds



698 Doctor prescribed rectal suppositories with anaesthesinum. What are the propeties of this drug?

A * insoluble

B well soluble

C amide linked local anaesthetic

D can be used for infiltrative anaesthesia

E is the drug of choise to reduse severe headache

699 For patient it is necessary to make the paranephral by Wyshnevsy method block. What concentration of solution must be used?

A 4–5 %

B 0,5–1 %

C 1–2 %

D 2–4 %

E * 0,125–0,5 %

700 From the anamnesis it is known that patient has hypersensitivity to the sulfonamide agents. What local anaesthetic can be used in case eye trauma?

A * Lidocaine

B Novocaine

C Trimecainum

D Dicainum

E Anaesthesinum

701 In the hospital was hospitalized patient with eye trauma. From the anamnesis it is known that he has hypersensitivity to the sulfonamid agents. What local anaesthetic can be used in this case?

A * Lidocaine

B Novocaine

C Trimecainum

D Dicainum

E Anaesthesinum

702 In the hospital was hospitalized patient with myocardial infarction and cardiac insufficiency has ventricular arrhytmia. What antiarrhytmic drug is a medicine of choice in this case?

A Novocaineamidum

B Chinidini sulfas

C Nifedipininum

D * Lidocaine

E Aimalinum

703 In the hospital was hospitalized patient with ventricular arrhythmia followed myocardial infarction. Cardiac rhythm was normalized by the introduction of antiarrhytmic drug with local anesthesia effect. What drug was prescribed?

A Propranololum

B * Lidocaine

C Anaesthesinum

D Verapamilum

E Panaginum

704 In the ophthalmologic department was hospitalized patient with eye trauma. From the anamnesis it is known that he has hypersensitivity to the sulfonamide agents. What local anesthetic can be used in this case?

A * Lidocaine

B Novocaine

C Trimecainum

D Dicainum

E Anaesthesinum

705 Indicate the correct answer. Lidocaine:

A Is used for superficial anesthesia

B Is less active than Novocaine

C * Has more prolonged effect than

D Is less toxic, that Novocaine

E Has irritating action on tissues

706 Indicate the correct answer. Novocaine






707 Indicate the drug. Local anesthetics used for conductive anesthesia

A Anaesthesinum

B * Xycainum

C Tanninum

D Dicainum

E Cocaine

708 Indicate the group of drugs: reversibly inhibit impulse generation and propagation in nerves. In sensory nerves, such an effect is desired when painful procedures must be performed, e.g., surgical or dental operations.


B M-cholinomimetics


D Laxatives


709 Indicate the right answer of local anesthetics. The action of local anesthetics is:


B * Decrease of permeability of cellular membranes for sodium ions

C Oppressing of pain impulses in the spinal cord

D Oppressing of pain impulses at the level of thalamus

E Activating of the endogenous antinociceptive system

710 Indicate the right answer. Correct statement about the amonii caustici is:

A * Unconsciousness



D Instrument sterilization

E Superficial anesthesia

711 Indicate the right answer. Local anesthetics action at inflammation

A Does not change

B Increases

C Accelerates

D Lengthens

E * Reduces

712 Indicate the right answer. Local anesthetics have effect on


B Thalamus

C Limbic system

D * Ending of sensible nerves and nervous fibers

E Proteins of superficial layer of mucous membranes and skin

713 Indicate the right answer. Local anesthetics of the amide group

A Cocaine

B * Lidocaine

C Anaesthesinum

D Novocaine

E Dicainum

714 Indicate the right question. All statement about anaesthesinum is correct Except:



C Trunk anaesthesia



715 Indicate the right question. The correct statement about the Anaesthesinum is:

A * Anaesthesinum is used for Superficial anaesthsia

B Anaesthesinum is used for onductive anaesthesia

C Anaesthesinum is used for Trunk anaesthesia

D Anaesthesinum is used for Infiltrative anaesthesia

E Anaesthesinum is used for Spinal anaesthesia

716 Indicate the right question. What is the prescription to the Dicainum usage?



C Trunk anaesthesia



717 Miss Mary takes tablets with mentolum sublingualy in the case of headache. What is the mechanism of action of irritating substances?

A * cutano-visceral reflexes;

B direct action;

C binding the receptors in the nucleus of the cell;

D axon-reflexes;

E Increase of vessel’s wall penetration;

718 Patient had allergic reactions coursed by procaine in anamnesis. Chose the best local anesthetic drug for this patient?

A * lidocaine;

B tetracaine;

C benzocaine;

D propranolol;

E cocaine;

719 Patient needs prostatectomy. Doctor recommended him to use the spinal anaesthesia during the operation. The advantages of spinal anaesthesia are all of the following EXCEPT:

A * It is widely used in pediatrics

B It is safer than general anaesthesia

C It produces good analgesia without loss of consciousness

D It produces good muscle relaxation without loss of consciousness

E Cardiac, pulmonary, renal desease and diabetes pose less problem

720 Patient was hospitalized with myocardial infarction and cardiac insufficiency has ventricular arrhytmia. What antiarrhytmic drug is a medicine of choice in this case?

A Novocaineamidum

B Chinidini sulfas

C Nifedipininum

D * Lidocaine

E Aimalinum

721 Patient with ventricular arrhythmia followed myocardial infarction. Cardiac rhytm was normalized by the introduction of antiarrhytmic drug with local anesthesia effect. What drug was prescribed?

A Propranololum

B Anaesthesinum

C Verapamilum

D Panaginum

E * Lidocaine

722 Solution of Calcii chloridum in such concentration, that one spoonful (15 ml) containing 1,0 of substance. For inner use. This solution concentration is:

A 5 %

B * 7 %

C 9 %

D 12 %

E 15 %



B




E Species

724 The patient during gathering of crop has felt an acute pain in the eye. He has been hospitalized. What local anaesthetic can be used for extracting of foreign body from the eye?

A * Dicainum

B Novocaine

C Lidocaine

D Trimecainum

E Sovocainum

725 The patient has ventricular arrhythmia followed myocardial infarction. Cardiac rhytm was normalized by the introduction of antiarrhytmic drug with local anesthesia effect. What drug was prescribed?

A Propranololum

B Anaesthesinum

C Verapamilum

D Panaginum

E * Lidocaine

726 The patient was hospitalized patient with eye trauma. From the anamnesis it is known that he has hypersensitivity to the sulfonamid agents. What local anaesthetic can be used in this case?

A * Lidocaine

B Novocaine

C Trimecainum

D Dicainum

E Anaesthesinum

727 The patient with eye trauma was hospitalized in the ophthalmologic department. From the anamnesis it is known that he has hypersensitivity to the sulfonamid agents. What local anaesthetic can be used in this case?

A * Lidocaine

B Novocaine

C Trimecainum

D Dicainum

E Anaesthesinum

728 The patient with myocardial infarction and cardiac insufficiency has ventricular arrhytmia. What antiarrhytmic drug is a medicine of choice in this case?

A Novocaineamidum

B Chinidini sulfas

C Nifedipininum

D * Lidocaine

E Aimalinum

729 The patient with myocardial infarction which is complicated ventrical arrhythmia.

After the injection of antiarrhythmic drug with local anaesthetic activity cardiac rhythm was normalized. To note the medication used?

A * Lidocaine

B Anaesthesinum

C Verapamilum

D Pananginum

E Аnaprilinum

730 The patient with red and itchy eczematoid dermatitis visits your office. She had a dental procedure one day earlier with administration of a local anesthetic. There were no other findings, although she indicated that she had a history of allergic reactions. Which of the following drugs is most likely involved?

A Cocaine

B Lidocaine

C * Procaine

D Etidocaine

E Bupivacaine

731 To decrease the possibility of a headache after spinal anesthesia, you should instruct the patient to:

A * lie flat in bed.

B Eat little sugar.

C Limit fluids.

D Engage in activity.

E All of above


A * Dermatitis, eczema

B Alkaloid poisoning


D Craks of rectum

E Alcohol poisoning

733 To note right question. What is indication of Dicainum?



C Trunk anaesthesia



734 To note the drug that is used for internal usage during heavy salts metal and alkaloids poisoning




D Vismuti nitras


735 To note the drug. Local anesthetics used for conductive anesthesia

A Anaesthesinum

B * Xycainum

C Tanninum

D Dicainum

E Cocaine

736 To note the drug. The preparation used for all of the types of local anesthesia

A Cocaine

B * Lidocaine

C Dicainum

D Anaesthesinum

E Novocaine

737 To note the group of drugs: reversibly inhibit impulse generation and propagation in nerves. In sensory nerves, such an effect is desired when painful procedures must be performed, e.g., surgical or dental operations.


B M-cholinomimetics


D Laxatives


738 To note the indication of this drug. Anaesthesinum is usage for:



C Trunk anaesthesia



739 To note the right answer Local anesthetics of the amide group

A Cocaine

B * Lidocaine

C Anaesthesinum

D Novocaine

E Dicainum

740 To note the right answer of local anesthetics. The action of local anesthetics is:




D Oppressing of pain impulses at the level of thalamus


741 To note the right answer. Correct statement about the amonii caustici is:

A * Unconsciousness





742 To note the right answer. Local anesthetic of the ether group

A Lidocaine

B * Novocaine

C Ultracaine

D Trimecainum

E Bupivacaine

743 To note the right answer. Novocaine






744 To note the right question. All statement about anaesthesinum is correct Except:



C Trunk anaesthesia



745 To the patient with myocardial infarction which is complicated ventrical arrhythmia.

After the injection of antiarrhythmic drug with local anaesthetic activity cardiac rhythm was normalized. What drug was used?

A * Lidocaine

B Anaesthesinum

C Verapamilum

D Pananginum

E Аnaprilinum

746 Tourists are going to have a trip. One of them takes the bottle with solution of amonii caustici. This preparation can be used in the case of:

A * Unconsciousness





747 Ventricular arrhythmia followed myocardial infarction of a patient. Cardiac rhytm was normalized by the introduction of antiarrhytmic drug with local anesthesia effect. What drug was prescribed?

A Propranololum

B Anaesthesinum

C Verapamilum

D Panaginum

E * Lidocaine

748 You are to administer Rocephin 750 mg. Reconstitution directions for this powdered drug is to add 5.3 mL of sterile water or normal saline to the vial to prepare dosage strength of 1g/mL. How much of the solution should you give?

A 0.5 mL

B * 0.75 mL

C 1.25 mL

D 1.5 mL

E 2 ml

749 Young girl lost consciousness in the supermarket. After smelling the solution of amonium caustici she awaked. To what group does this medical agent belong?

A * iritative agents;

B local anesthetics;

C antihypertensive agents;

D expectorants;

E slime agents;

750 What is the mechanism of action of irritating substances?

A distant action;

B form albuminates;

C * cutano-visceral reflexes;

D Axon-reflexes;

E

Increase of vessel’s wall penetration;

751 All about Novocaine is correct Except:

A Is used only for Superficial anaesthsia anesthesia


C Is not a derivative of PABA

D Is not destroyed by cholinesterase

E May be combined with sulphonamides

752 All statement about Anaesthesinum is correct Except:



C Trunk anaesthesia



753 All statement about noted anaesthesinum is correct Except:



C Trunk anaesthesia



754 All statements about Novocaine is correct Except:






755 Amonii caustici can be used:

A * Unconsciousness





756 Anaesthesinum can be used for:



C Trunk anaesthesia



757 Choose the Local anesthetic of the amide group (according to chemical structure):

A Cocaine

B * Lidocaine

C Anaesthesinum

D Novocaine

E Dicainum

758 Classification of Local anesthetic of the amide group (according to chemical structure):

A Cocaine

B * Lidocaine

C Anaesthesinum

D Novocaine

E Dicainum

759 Correct statement about Anaesthesinum is :



C Trunk anaesthesia



760 Correct statement about Novocaine:






761 Correct statement about the Vismuti nitras is:




D Craks of rectum

E Alcohol poisoning

762 Dicainum can be used for:



C Trunk anaesthesia



763 Dicainum can be used for:



C Trunk anaesthesia



764 Everything about noted Novocaine is correct Except:






765 Everything about Novocaine is correct Except:






766 For anesthesia an abscess was prescribed the following drug:

A Lidocaine

B Tanninum

C Aether pro narcosi

D Cocaine

E * Proserine

767 For preparing the solutions for injections use:

A Alcohol

B Vaselinum

C Lanolinum

D Water cleared

E * Water pyrogen-free

768 For preparing the solutions of Novocaine is used for infiltrate anesthesia:

A * 0,125-0,5%

B 1-2%

C 3%

D 10-20%

E 0,05%

769 For treatment of what poisoning tannin is drug of choice?

A * Heavy metal salts

B Acids

C Alkaline

D Phosphor organic substance

E Alcohol

770 For what poisoning treatment tannin is drug of choice?


B Acids

C Alkaline


E Alcohol


A Does not change

B Increases

C Accelerates

D Lengthens

E * Reduces

772 How is the form of medications, which by the best appearance answers the purpose of application and most advantageous for the use with a medical and prophylactic purpose named?

A Medical substance

B Medical preparation

C * Medical form

D Reagent

E Constituens

773 If it is necessary to give medicines immediately, in the upper part of prescription we must made the mark:

A * Cito!

B Provoke the sleepiness

C Da. Signa.

D Ana

E Repete

774 In solutions for injections use:

A Alcohol

B Butyrol

C Vaseline butter

D Water cleared

E * Sterilized water

775 In what concentration Novocaine is used for infiltrate anesthesia?

A * 0,125-0,5%

B 1-2%

C 3%

D 10-20%

E 0,05%

776 Indicate the Local anesthetic of the amide group (according to chemical structure):

A Cocaine

B * Lidocaine

C Anaesthesinum

D Novocaine

E Dicainum

777 Indicate the mechanism of action of irritating substrances?

A distant action;

B form albuminates;


D Axon-reflexes;

E


778 Indication of amonii caustici is:

A * Unconsciousness





779 Indication to Xycaine is

A * Is used for all kinds of local anesthesia





780 Indications of Lidocaine are:






781 Lidocaine can be used for:

A Is used only for superficial anesthesia


C * Has more prolonged effect than Novocaine

D Is less toxic than Novocaine

E Has irritative action on tissues

782 Local anesthetic of the ether group (according to chemical structure):

A Lidocaine

B * Novocaine

C Ultracaine

D Trimecainum

E Bupivacaine

783 Local anesthetic used for conductive anesthesia:

A Anaesthesinum

B * Xycainum

C Tanninum

D Dicainum

E Cocaine

784 Local anesthetics affect:


B Thalamus

C Limbic system

D * Endings of sensitive nerve fibers

E Proteins of superficial layer of mucous membranes and skin

785 Mechanism of action of irritating substances?

A distant action;

B form albuminates;


D Axon-reflexes;

E


786 What medical forms do you know

A Solid, soft, liquid

B only soft

C only solid

D Soft and solid


787 Medical forms for injections must be:

A * Sterile

B Ether

C Alcoholic

D Oleum

E All of above

788 Medical forms must be for injections must be :

A * Sterile

B Ether

C Alcoholic

D Oil

789 Medical forms must be for injections:

A * Sterile

B Ether

C Alcoholic

D Oleum

E All of above

790 What pharmaceutical form cannot be used orally

A tablets

B capsules

C powder

D * suppositories

E tincture

791 Solutions for injections prepare on:

A Aqua distillate

B Olei Lini

C Sirupi Althaeae

D Mucilaginis Salep

E * Aquae pro injectionbus

792 Solutions for the external use prepare on:

A * Aquae destillatae

B Olei Lini

C Sirupi Althaeae

D Mucilaginis Salep

E Aquae pro injectionibus

793 The action of local anesthetics is




D Oppressing of pain impulses at thalamus


794 The correct statement about the amonii caustici is:

A * Unconsciousness





795 The correct statement about the Anaesthesinum is:



C Trunk anaesthesia



796 The correct statement about the Novocaine is






797 The correct statement about the Vismuti nitras is:




D Craks of rectum

E Alcohol poisoning

798 The group of preparations, which intensify and increase the duration of action of local anesthetics:

A Analeptics

B * alpha-adrenomimetics

C alpha-adrenoblockers

D M-cholinomimetics

E N-cholinomimetics

799 The name of solvents can be used in solutions for injections?

A Water is cleared

B Alcohol

C Lanolinum

D * Water is twice distilled

E Vaseline butter

800 The name of the Local anesthetic of the amide group (according to chemical structure):

A Cocaine

B * Lidocaine

C Anaesthesinum

D Novocaine

E Dicainum

801 The name of the Local anesthetic of the ether group (according to chemical structure):

A Lidocaine

B * Novocaine

C Ultracaine

D Trimecainum

E Bupivacaine

802 The name of the medication is usage for all types of local anesthesia:

A Cocaine

B * Lidocaine

C Dicainum

D Anaesthesinum

E Novocaine

803 The name of the solvents is used in solutions for injections?

A Water is cleared

B Alcohol

C Lanolinum


E Vaseline butter

804 The note group of preparations, which intensify and increase the duration of action of local anesthetics:

A Analeptics

B * alpha-adrenomimetics

C alpha-adrenoblockers

D M-cholinomimetics

E N-cholinomimetics

805 The patient with an abscess was prescribed the following drug for anesthesia:

A Lidocaine

B Tanninum


D Cocaine

E * Proserine

806 The Solutions for injections prepare on:

A Aquae of destillatae

B Olei Lini

C Sirupi Althaeae

D Mucilaginis Salep

E * Aquae pro injectionibus

807 To mark the drug that is used for internal usage during heavy salts metal and alkaloids poisoning




D Vismuti nitras


808 To mark the drug which is used for treatment of poisoning and

A * Carbo activatus

B Taninum

C Vismuti nitras

D Argenti nitras

E Solution of ammomii caustici





D Craks of rectum

E Alcohol poisoning

810 To note the antiarrythmic agent has local anaesthetic activity?

A Novocaineamidum

B * Xycainum

C Verapamilum

D Cordaronum

E Etmosinum

811 To note the correct statement about the Vismuti nitras is:




D Craks of rectum

E Alcohol poisoning

812 To note the indication of Taninum


B Acids

C Alkaline


E Alcohol

813 To note the mechanism of action of irritating substrances?

A distant action;

B form albuminates;


D Axon-reflexes;


814 To note the medication which are used in solutions for injections?

A Water is cleared

B Alcohol

C Lanolinum


E Vaseline butter

815 To note the solutions for injections use:

A Alcohol

B Lanolinum

C Vaseline butter

D Water cleared

E * Water pyrogen-free

816 To note the solvents are used in solutions for injections?

A Water is cleared

B Alcohol

C Lanolinum


E Vaseline butter

817 Unlike solutions for the external use solutions prepare on:


B Olei Lini

C Sirupi Althaeae

D Mucilaginis Salep


818 Vasoconstrictive agents supplements to the solutions of local anesthetics results in:

A Acceleration of local anesthetic absorption

B * Prophylaxis of their resorbtive (systemic) action

C Effect decreases

D Toxic effect increases

E Systemic action increases

819 Vismuti nitras can be used for:




D Craks of rectum

E Alcohol poisoning

820 What agent is used in acute poisoning by salts metal and alkaloids




D Vismuti nitras


821 What antiarrythmic agent has local anaesthetic activity?

A Novocaineamidum

B * Xycainum

C Verapamilum

D Cordaronum

E Etmosinum

822 What are indicationns of Anaesthesinum:



C Trunk anaesthesia



823 What are indications of amonii caustici

A * Unconsciousness





824 What are indications of Lidocaine

A Is used only for superficial anesthesia


C * Has more prolonged effect than Novocaine

D Is less toxic than Novocaine

E Has irritative action on tissues

825 What drug depends to irritative agents?

A * Mentholum

B Taninum

C Vismuti nitras

D Argenti nitras

E Carbo activatus

826 What drug does belong to irritative agents?

A * Mentholum

B Taninum

C Vismuti nitras

D Argenti nitras

E Carbo activatus

827 What drug is used for treatment of poisoning

A * Carbo activatus

B Taninum

C Vismuti nitras

D Argenti nitras

E Solution of ammomii caustici

828 What group of agents is used for the ulcerous illness of stomach and duodenum bowel?

A N-cholinomimetics

B * М-cholinoblockers

C Myorelaxants

D Adrenomimetics

E Anticholinesterase agents

829 What is action of local anesthetics:




D Oppressing of pain impulses at thalamus


830 What is concentration of solutions of Novocaine for infiltrate anesthesia:

A * 0,125-0,5%

B 1-2%

C 3%

D 10-20%

E 0,05%

831 What is correct statement about Xycaine indication






832 What is Correct statement about Novocaine

A Is used only for infiltrative anesthesia





833 What is indication of Amonii caustici?

A * Unconsciousness





834 What is indication of Anaesthesinum:



C Trunk anaesthesia



835 What is mechanism of action of irritating substrances?

A distant action;

B form albuminates;


D Axon-reflexes;


836 What is the indication to the Dicainum?



C Trunk anaesthesia



837 What is the prescription to the anaesthesinum usage?



C Trunk anaesthesia



838 What is the prescription to the Dicainum usage?



C Trunk anaesthesia



839 What Local anesthetic can be used for conductive anesthesia:

A Anaesthesinum

B * Xycainum

C Tanninum

D Dicainum

E Cocaine

840 What Local anesthetic is used for conductive anesthesia:

A Anaesthesinum

B * Xycainum

C Tanninum

D Dicainum

E Cocaine

841 What preparation is usage for all types of local anesthesia:

A Cocaine

B * Lidocaine

C Dicainum

D Anaesthesinum

E Novocaine

842 What solvents are used in solutions for injection?

A Water is cleared

B Alcohol

C Glitserin

D *Water is twice distilled, pyrogen-free

E Vaseline butter

843 What solvents can be used in solutions for injections?

A Water is cleared

B Alcohol

C Lanolinum


E Vaseline butter

844 What solvents it is necessary to take for preparing the solutions for injection?

A * Water is cleared

B Alcohol

C Lanolinum

D Vaselinum

E Vaseline butter

845 What structures of skin and mucus during superficial anaesthesia are influenced for?

A * Sensitive nerves

B Epidermis

C Subcutaneous fat tissue

D Vessels walls

E Actually derma

846 When solution of amonii caustici is used?

A * Unconsciousness





847 Which of the following is Local anesthetic of the ether group (according to chemical structure):

A Lidocaine

B * Novocaine

C Ultracaine

D Trimecainum

E Bupivacaine


A Physostigmine

B * Atropine

C Proserine

D Pentamine

E Norepinephrine


A Physostigmine

B * Atropine

C Proserine

D Pentamine

E Norepinephrine

850 Analeptical remedy of reflective type from the H-cholinomimetics group was gi ven to the patient for restoration of breathing after poisoning with carbon monoxide. What medicine was prescribed to the patient?

A * Lobeline hydrochloride

B Adrenalin hydrochloride

C Atropine sulphate

D Pentamin

E Mesaton

851 At 5 years old child next symptoms were set by doctor: moving exitation, delirium, and hoarse voice, dilated pupils which are not irresponsive on light, dry, hot, hyperemic skin, tachycardia, and tachypnoe. The indicated symptoms arose up after consumption by child of berries of Belladona. Drugs of what numerated pharmacological groups of medicines are necessary to prescribe?

A N-cholinomimetics

B N-cholinolitics

C * Anticholinesterase agents

D M-cholinomimetics

E Reactivators of cholinesterase

852 At adult man after consumption of food the Amanita muscaria mushrooms appeared the excitation, increased sweating, appeared the phenomena of acute gastroenteritis, the pupils narrowed through 15-20 min.. Afterwards the cramps arose up, bradycardia,

considerable general weakness, somnolence, the collapse developed. The doctor immediately injected to the sick patient antidote from the group:

A * М-cholinolitics

B N-cholinomimetics

C N-cholinolitics


E Reactivators of cholinesterase

853 In the ophthalmologic department was hospitalized patient with eye trauma. From the anamnesis it is known that he has hypersensitivity to the sulfonamid agents. What local anaesthetic can be used in this case?

A * Lidocaine

B Novocaine

C Trimecainum

D Dicainum

E Anaesthesinum

854 Patient complaints to dizziness, nausea, salivation and spastic stomachaches. He was delivered to the hospital. The diagnosis: poisoning by the phosphor organic substance. What medicines must be included to the complex therapy?

A

* Atropine sulfate and Dipirоxim

B Tiosulfate sodium and Bemegridum

C Tetacin-calcium and Unitiolum

D Nalorphine hydrochloride and Bemegridum

E Glucose and Bemegridum

855 Patient complaints to dryness in the mouth, photophobia and violation of vision were delivered to the hospital. The skin was hyperemic, dry, pupils were dilate, tachycardia. Acute poisoning by alkaloids of Belladonna was diagnosed. What medicine is the most expediently to patient?

A * Proserine

B Aceclidine

C Pilocarpine

D Armine

E Dipiroxime


A * Galantamine

B Atropine

C Dipiroxim

D Salbutamol

E Aspirine

857 Patient with the acute stomach-ache, vomit, heavy breathing, shortness of breath, delivers in intensive therapy. At the review of patient - skin moisture, hypersalivation, myosis, bradycardia, muscular fascilation. From anamnesis it is known, that patient – toxin abuse, used the aerosols to insects. To which group of agents, the substance that caused poisoning, belong?

A N-cholinomimetic

B

М-choliniblockers

C Myorelaxants

D Ganglion-blockers

E * Anticholinesterase agents

858 Patient with the complaints about dryness in the mouth, photophobia and violation of sight was delivered to the hospital. The skin was hyperemic, dry, pupils were extended, tachycardia. After examination it was diagnosed: poisoning by alkaloids of Belladona. What medicine most expediently to choose to patient?

A Pilocarpine

B Dipiroxime

C Diazepam

D Armine

E * Proserine

859 Patient with the complaints about dryness in the mouth, photophobia and violation of sight was delivered to the hospital. The skin was hyperemic, dry, pupils were extended, tachycardia. After examination it was diagnosed: poisoning by alkaloids of Belladona. What medicine most expediently to choose to patient?

A Pilocarpine

B Dipiroxime

C Diazepam

D Armine

E * Proserine

860 Patient with the complaints to dizziness, nausea, salivation and spastic stomach-aches was delivered to the hospital. The diagnosis set: poisoning by the phosphor organic substance. What must be included to the complex therapy?

A * Atropine sulfate and Dipiroxim

B Tiosulfate sodium and Bemegridum

C Tetacin-calcium and Unitiolum

D Nalorphine hydrochloride and Bemegridum

E Glucose and Bemegridum

861 Patient with the complaints to dryness in the mouth, photophobia and violation of vision was delivered to the hospital. The skin was hyperemic, dry, pupils were extended, tachycardia. After examination the poisoning by alkaloids of Belladona was diagnosed. What medicine is the most expediently to choose to patient?

A Dipiroxime

B Aceclidine

C Pilocarpine

D Armine

E * Proserine


A Aceclidine

B Pilocarpine

C Armine

D * Proserine

E Dipiroxime


A Aceclidine

B Pilocarpine

C Armine

D * Proserine

E Dipiroxime

864 The 6 years old child appear in the hospital with symptoms of motive and linguistic excitation, dryness in mouth, bad swallowing, hoarse voice. A skin was dry, hot. Pupils were extended, photophobia, tachycardia. From anamnesis it is known, that child ate some berries of dark-violet color. What toxic substance caused poisoning?

A * Atropine

B Pirenzepine

C Pilocarpine

D Platyphylline

E Methacine

865 The child drank from the small bottle solution, which its grandmother used for the medical treatment of glaucoma. There was pilocarpinum hydrochloridum. The doctor prescribed to the child an atropine sulfate. What mechanism lies in the basis of antydote action of atropine?

A * Influence on special receptors

B Co-operation with cellular metabolits

C Physico-chemical

D Antienzymic

E Enzymic

866 The remaining phenomena of carry poliomyelitis exist at child. What medicine is possible to prescribe him?

A Atropine sulfate.

B Platyphylline.

C Methacine.

D * Galantamine hydrobromide.

E Tubacurarine

867 The remaining phenomena of carry poliomyelitis exist at child. What medicine is possible to prescribe him?

A Atropine sulfate.

B Platyphylline.

C Methacine.

D * Galantamine hydrobromide.

E Tubacurarine

868 The remaining phenomena of carry postoperative intestines atonia at patient. What medicine is possible to prescribe him?

A * Proserine.

B Platyphylline.

C Methacine.

D Atropine sulfate.

E Tubacurarine


A * Block of cholinesterase

B Block of MAO

C Block of KOMT

D Block of GABA-receptors.

E Block of Кatalase

870 The woman of 63 years got the injections of galantaminum for renewal of functions of

CNS after the ischemic stroke of brain. State of patient considerably became better. What mechanism of action of this drug?

A Dopaminehydroxilase blockade

B Blockade of cholinacetelase

C Blockade of KOMT

D * Blockade of cholinesterase

E Blockade of monoaminooxidase


A * Dephosphorilation of cholinesterase with renewal of its activity.

B Inactivation of cholinesterase.

C Block of cholinoreceptors.

D Activate of cholinoreceptors.

E Oppression of acetylcholine synthesis.


A * Dephosphorilation of cholinesterase with renewal of its activity.

B Inactivation of cholinesterase.

C Blockade of cholinoreceptors.

D Activate of cholinoreceptors.

E Oppression of synthesis of acetylcholine.


A * Antienzymic

B Receptor

C Physical and chemical interreaction

D Affect ionic channels of cellular membrane

E Affect the transport systems of cellular membranes

874 To the patient with the after operation atony of intestine injected Proserinum. Which mechanism lies in basis of action of this preparation?

A Receptor

B * Antienzymic

C Physical and chemical co-operation

D Affect ionic channels of cellular membranes


875 To the patient with the after operation atony of intestine injected Proserinum. Which mechanism lies in basis of action of this preparation?

A Receptor

B * Antienzymic

C Physical and chemical co-operation

D Affect ionic channels of cellular membranes


876 To the patient with ulcer disease of stomach in the period of increased acidity of gastric juice (in anamnesis is glaucoma) it is necessary to prescribe a М-cholinoblocker.

What agents must you choose, taking into account attendant diseases?

A * Methacine

B Adrenaline

C Atropine

D Scopolamine

E Mesatone

877 To the sick by the ulcerous illness of stomach on background of increased acidity of gastric juice in acute stage (in anamnesis is glaucoma) it is necessary to prescribe a Мcholinoblocker. What agents must you choose, taking into account attendant diseases?

A Scopolamine

B Spasmolytine

C Atropine

D * Methacine

E Gomatropine

878 Cholinergic (parasympathomimetic) drugs are indicated for which of the following situations?

A Treating a postoperative patient who has bradycardia.

B * Lowering intraocular pressure in patients with glaucoma.

C Inhibiting muscular activity in the bladder.

D Preventing salivation and sweating.

E Hypertonia.

879 Cholinergic (parasympathomimetic) drugs have which of the following therapeutic effects?

A Urinary retention.

B * Increased tonus of the bronchi and other internal organs.

C Mydriasis.

D Vasoconstriction.

E Hypertonia.

880 Cholinergic (parasympathomimetic) drugs should be used cautiously with patients who have a history of:

A Leg cramps.

B Hemorrhoids.

C Glaucoma.

D * Benign prostatic hyperplasia.

E Headache.

881 Cholinergic (parasympathomimetic) drugs should be used cautiously with patients who have a history of:

A Leg cramps.

B Hemorrhoids.

C Glaucoma.

D * Benign prostatic hyperplasia.

E Headache.

882 Contra-indication for M-cholinoblockers indication is:

A * Glaucoma.

B Bronchial asthma.

C Ulcer disease.

D Kidney colic

E Parkinson disease.

883 Drugs of what group can cause an accommodation spasm?

A * Anticholinesterase agents

B М-cholinoblockers

C N-cholinomimetics

D Adrenomimetics

E Sympatholitics

884 For treatment of what poisoning taninum is drug of choice?


B Acids

C Alkaline


E Alcohol

885 Group of drugs that produced paralysis vision accommodation?

A * М-cholinoblockers

B М-cholinomimetics

C N-cholinomimetics

D Adrenomimetics




B * Activate of M-cholinoreceptors

C Inactivate of cholinesterase

D Activate cholinesterase

E Block cholinesterase


A Does not change

B Increases

C Accelerates

D Lengthens

E * Reduces


A Does not change

B Increases

C Accelerates

D Lengthens

E * Reduces

889 In case of application of what group of drugs does the accommodation paralysis arise up?

A * М-cholinoblockers.

B М-cholinomimetics.

C N-cholinomimetics.

D Adrenomimetics.

E Anticholinesterase agents.


A N-cholinomimetics


C

* М-cholinoblockers

D Adrenomimetics



A N-cholinomimetics

B

М-cholinomimetics

C


D Adrenomimetics


892 In what concentration Novocaine is used for infiltrate anesthesia?

A * 0,125-0,5%

B 1-2%

C 3%

D 10-20%

E 0,05%

893 Indication of Cholinergic (parasympathomimetic) drugs are:


B * Lowering intraocular pressure in patients with glaucoma.


D Preventing salivation and sweating.

E Hypertonia.

894 Indication to atropine.

A * Ulcer illness of stomach

B Glaucoma

C Myastenia

D Atony of intestine

E Epilepsy

895 Indication(s) to the following drus is (are)

A As an antidote for inadvertent overdose of cholinergic drugs or for cholinesterase poisoning such as from organophosphorus insecticides

B As an antisialogogue when reduction of secretions of the respiratory tract are thought to be needed;

C To temporarily increase heart rate or decrease AV-block until definitive intervention can take place, when bradycardia or AV-block are judged to be hemodynamically significant

D As an antidote for the "rapid type of mushroom poisoning due to the presence of the alkaloid muscarine, in certain species of fungus such as Amanita muscaria

E * All of above

896 Side-effects of Atropini sulfas include:

A Constipation.

B Hypertension.

C * Increasing of the intra-eye pressure.

D Postoperative ischemic colitis.

E Headache.

897 Side-effects of Proserini include:

A * Diarrhea.

B Hypertension.

C Increasing of the intra-eye pressure.


E Headache.

898 Skopolamine hydrobromide have which of the following therapeutic effect?

A * Air sick

B Reduce intraocular pressure


D Arterial hypertension

E Myorelaxation

899 The cholinergic (parasympathomimetic) drugs have which of the following therapeutic effects?


B Increased GI motility.

C * Mydriasis.

D Vasoconstriction.

E Hypertonia.

900 The correct statement about Cholinergic (parasympathomimetic) drugs is:


B Preventing salivation and sweating.


D * Treating a patient who has paresis and paralysis.

E Hypertonia.

901 To name the indications to application of atropine.

A Glaucoma

B * Ulcer illness of stomach

C Myastenia

D Atony of intestine

E Hypoacid gastritis

902 To name the indications to application of Proserinum.

A Ulcer illness of stomach.

B * Glaucoma.

C Hypertension.

D Rhinitis.

E Hypoacid gastritis.

903

What agent does belong to М-cholinoblockers?

A Phosphacole

B Proserine

C * Atropine

D Acetylcholine

E Cytitone


A Phosphacole

B Proserine

C * Atropine

D Acetylcholine

E Cytitone


A * Aceclidine

B Proserine

C Atropine

D Platyphylline

E Ephedrine

906 What agent is direct stimulating action M-cholinoreceptors?

A Metoprolol.

B Gigronium.

C * Pilocarpini hydrochloridum.

D Anaprilinum.

E Methacine.

907 What is indication of Cholinergic (parasympathomimetic) drugs?


B Preventing salivation and sweating.


D * Treating a patient who has paresis and paralysis.

E Hypertonia.

908 What are therapeutic indication of Phosphacolum

A * The treatment of glaucoma

B Dislocation of lens

C Myasthenia

D At postoperative atone of intestine and of urinary bladder

E Stop action on the eye of atropinum

909 What does the М-cholinomimetics action mechanism consist in?


B * Activate of M-cholinoreceptors

C Inactivate of cholinesterase

D Activate cholinesterase

E Block cholinesterase

910 What does the М-Ncholinomimetics action mechanism consist in?

A Block of M-cholinoreceptors.

B * Activate of M-Ncholinoreceptors

C Inactivate of cholinesterase.

D Activate cholinesterase.

E Block cholinesterase.

911 What drug is contraindication in glaucoma?

A Metoprolol.

B Gigronium.

C Proserine.

D Anaprilinum.

E * Atropini sulfas.


A Metoprolol.

B Gigronium.

C Proserine.

D Anaprilinum.

E * Methacinum.


A Metoprolol.

B Gigronium.

C Proserine.

D Anaprilinum.

E * Atropini sulfas.


A Metoprolol.

B Gigronium.

C Proserine.

D Anaprilinum.

E * Methacinum.


A * Atropine

B Proserine

C Tubacurarine

D Methacine

E Pilocarpine


A * Atropine

B Proserine

C Tubacurarine

D Methacine

E Pilocarpine

917 What drug is used for dilatation of pupil with the purpose of examination of eye fundus?

A * Atropine

B Proserine

C Phosphacole

D Methacine

E Pilocarpine


A Phosphacole

B Proserine

C * Atropine

D Methacine

E Pilocarpine


A * Atropine

B Proserine

C Phosphacole

D Methacine

E Pilocarpine

920 What drug may cause increasing of the intra-eye pressure, accommodation disturbances, photophobia, dryness in the mouth, tachycardia?

A Metoprolol.

B Gigronium.

C * Atropini sulfas.

D Anaprilinum.

E Proserine.

921 What drug may cause mydriasis and paralysis of accommodation?

A * Atropine.

B Proserine.

C Phosphacole.

D Gigronium.

E Pilocarpine.

922 What drug may cause pupil contraction and spasm of accommodation?

A Atropine.

B Furosemidum.

C Phosphacole.

D Methacine.

E * Pilocarpini hydrochloridum.

923 What effect can cause cholinesterase inhibitors when they are used as eye drops?

A Excitement of H-cholinoreceptors of muscles rotundas of iris

B Increasing of intraocular preassure

C Relaxation of ciliary muscles

D Relaxation of muscle rotundas of iris

E * Relaxation of copula of Zinn

924 What group of agents does Atropine sulfate belong to?

A * М-cholinoblockers


C N-cholinomimetics

D Adrenoblockers


925 What group of agents Ipratropium bromide is?

A Adrenoblockers.

B

М-cholinomimetics.


D * М-cholinoblockers.


926 What group of agents is used for the ulcerous illness of stomach and duodenum bowel?

A N-cholinomimetics

B


C Myorelaxants

D Adrenomimetics


927 What group of agents is used for treatment glaucoma?

A М-cholinoblockers.

B * M-N-cholinomimetics.

C Myorelaxants.

D N-cholinomimetics.

E Adrenomimetics.



B M-N-cholinoblockers.

C Myorelaxants.

D Adrenomimetics.

E * Anticholinesterase agents.



B * M-N-cholinomimetics.

C Myorelaxants.

D N-cholinomimetics.

E Adrenomimetics.

930 What is the main sing of cholinesterase inhibitors pharmacodynamic?

A Increasing of internal-eye pressure

B * Decreasing of internal-eye pressure

C Decreasind of smooth muscles tonus

D Slowing of nervous-muscular conduction

E Decreasing of arterial preassure

931 What is the main sing of cholinesterase inhibitors pharmacodynamic?

A Increasing of internal-eye pressure

B * Decreasing of internal-eye pressure

C Decreasind of smooth muscles tonus

D Slowing of nervous-muscular conduction

E Decreasing of arterial preassure


A * Blocks of cholinesterase

B Stimulates b – adrenoreceptors

C Blocks М-cholinoreceptors.

D Blocks monoaminooxidase

E Acts on serotonin receptors



B Stimulates b – adrenoreceptors

C Blocks М-cholinoreceptors.

D Blocks monoaminooxidase

E Acts on serotonin receptors



B Stimulates S-adrenoreceptors

C Blocks of М-cholinoreceptors

D Blocks of monoaminooxidase

E Operates on serotonine receptors




C Myasthenia

D At postoperative atony of intestine and of urinary bladder

E Hypertension




C Myasthenia

D At postoperative atony of intestine and of urinary bladder

E Hypertension

937 Which of the following therapeutic effects have indirect cholinergic stimulants?


B * Increased GI motility

C Mydriasis

D Vasoconstriction

E Spasm reliving

938 Which of the mentioned drugs belongs to the cholinoblockers of the selective action and is used at the complex ulcer therapy?

A * Gastrozepin

B Strophanthinum

C Proserinum

D Furosemidum

E Reserpine

939 With what aim is used skopolamine hydrobromide?

A At arterial hypertension

B For the medical treatment of glaucoma

C At atony of intestine

D * At the vestibular disorders

E At overdosage of myorelaxants antidepolarizing type of action













942 A patient presents with symptomatic bradycardia. The nurse prepares to administer which dose of atropine intravenously?

A 0.3 mg.

B * 0.5 mg.

C 1.25 mg.

D 2 mg.

E 3 mg.

943 A patient presents with symptomatic bradycardia. The nurse prepares to administer which dose of atropine intravenously?

A 0.3 mg.

B * 0.5 mg.

C 1.25 mg.

D 2 mg.

E 3 mg.

944 After dithyline injection (1 mg/kg) long-term muscle paralysis has been observed (for over 2 hours). What cure must be used for this patient?

A Adrenaline

B * Blood transfusion

C Proserine

D Propranolol

E Anaprilin

945 After dithyline injection (1 mg/kg) long-term muscle paralysis has been observed (for over 2 hours). What cure must be used for this patient?

A Adrenaline

B * Blood transfusion

C Proserine

D Propranolol

E Anaprilin


A * Proserine

B Platyphylline

C Cyclodole

D Atropine

E Acetylcholine

947 After operation of reposition of femur fracture with the using of tubacurarine, breathing of patient did not resume. What is needed to inject to sick for the removal of relaxation?

A Platyphylline.

B * Proserine.

C Cyclodole.

D Atropine.

E Acetylcholine.


A Platyphylline.

B * Proserine.

C Cyclodole.

D Atropine.

E Acetylcholine.


A * Proserine

B Platyphylline

C Cyclodole

D Atropine

E Acetylcholine


A Platyphylline.

B * Proserine.

C Cyclodole.

D Atropine.

E Acetylcholine.

951 Analeptical remedy of reflective type from the N-cholinomimetics group was gi ven to the patient for restoration of breathing after poisoning with carbon monoxide. What medicine was prescribed to the patient?

A * Lobeline hydrochloride

B Adrenalin hydrochloride

C Atropine sulphate

D Pentamin

E Mesaton

952 At 39 years old woman for the removal of high blood pressure crisis the solution of pentamine was injected. What is the mechanism of medicine action?

A Stimulation of N-cholinoreceptors.

B

Depression of М-cholinoreceptors.

C Stimulation of М-, Н-cholinoreceptors.

D * Depression of N-cholinoreceptors.

E Stimulation of М-cholinoreceptors.

953 At 42 years old woman, who carried an operation on kidney, after anesthesia the phenomena of recuraresation developed and breathing halted. It was used ditiline as myorelaxant. What agent is most expediently to use for renewal of muscles tonus?

A Proserine.

B * Blood plasma.

C Sthyhnine nitrate.

D Caffeine.

E Galantamine hydrobromide.

954 At man, to which during the surgical operation applied myorelaxant - ditiline, relaxation of skeletal muscles and depression of breathing more 2 hours proceeded. The absence of what enzyme in the blood serum does predetermine this state?

A Catalase.

B * Butirilcholinesterase.

C Acetylcholinesterase.

D Glucoso-6-phosphatase.

E Glutationperoxydase.

955 At the combine anesthesia at the patient, to whom the stomach resection was carried out, was used the tubacurarine chloride as myorelaxant. What agent-antagonist is necessary to enter to sick reson for renewal of his independent breathing?

A Cytotone.

B Ditiline.

C * Proserine.

D Ethymisole.

E Benzohexonium.

956 At the patient after the short surgical operation with Dithyline after 30 minutes the depression of breathing appeared, the tonus of muscles did not renewal. The absence of what enzyme in the blood serum caused this state?

A * Butirilcholinesterase

B Catalase

C Acetylcholinesterase

D Glucoso-6-phosphatase

E Glutationperoxydase

957 At the patient after the short surgical operation with Dithyline after 30 minutes the depression of breathing appeared, the tonus of muscles did not renewal. What is necessary to prescribe to this patient?

A * Blood transfusion

B Hemodialysis

C Hemosorbtion

D Forced diuresis

E Peritoneum dialysis



B Catalase




959 At the patient after the short surgical operation with using of ditiline over 30 minutes the depression of breathing appeared, the previous tonus of muscles did not resume. What is necessary to prescribe to this patient?

A Hemosorbtion.

B Hemodialysis.

C * Blood transfusion.

D Forced diuresis.

E Peritoneum dialysis.



B Catalase




961 At the patient after the short surgical operation with using of ditiline over 30 minutes the depression of breathing appeared, the previous tonus of muscles did not resume. What is necessary to prescribe to this patient?

A Hemosorbtion.

B Hemodialysis.

C * Blood transfusion.

D Forced diuresis.

E Peritoneum dialysis.

962 Ditiline (lystenone) injected to patient before operation and intubation conducted.

After operation and stopping an anesthesia the independent breathing did not resume. Defect of what enzyme at the patient’s organism does lengthen the duration myorelaxants’ action?

A * Butirilcholinesterase of blood

B Succinatedehydrogenase

C Carboanhydrase

D N-acetyltransferase

E К-Nа-АТP–ase

963 Ditiline (lystenone) injected to sick before operation and intubation conducted. After operation and stopping an anesthesia the independent breathing did not resume. Defect of what enzyme at the patient’s organism does lengthen the action of myorelaxant?

A * Butirilcholinesterase of blood plasma.

B Succinatedehydrogenase.

C Carboanhydrase.

D N-acetyltransferase.

E К-Nа-АТP–ase.

964 Ditiline (lystenone) injected to sick before operation and intubation conducted. After operation and stopping an anesthesia the independent breathing did not resume. Defect of what enzyme at the patient’s organism does lengthen the action of myorelaxant?

A N-acetyltransferase.

B Succinatedehydrogenase.

C Carboanhydrase.

D * Butirilcholinesterase of blood plasma.

E К-Nа-АТP–ase.

965 Myorelaxant ditiline injected to the patient for relief of reduction of dislocation in the shoulder joint with aim of relaxation muscles. Thus apnoe came. What is necessary to prescribe to the patient?

A Dipiroxime.

B Galantamine hydrobromide.

C Bemegride.

D * Fresh citrate blood.

E Isonitrosine.

966 Sick person appealed to the doctor for consultation about action of new drug. The doctor acquainted himself with the structure of bisfourth derivative and said that this is myorelaxant. What is the feature of myorelaxant’s structure?

A * Distance between the nitrogen atoms more 6 atoms of carbon.

B Distance between the nitrogen atoms less 6 atoms of carbon.

C Distance between the nitrogen atoms - 4 atoms of carbon.

D Molecule has 3 hydroxil.

E Molecule of new agent has an ether connection.

967 The analeptic agent of reflex type from the N-cholinomimetics’ group injected to the patient with the purpose of renewal of breathing in case of poisoning by the carbon monoxide. What agent was used in this case?

A Atropine sulfate.

B Adrenaline hydrochloride.

C Pentamine.

D Mesatone.

E * Lobeline hydrochloride.

968 The man appeared at the trauma department with diagnosis: fracture of femur with displacement. For reposition of bone physician used 10 ml of 2 % solution of Dithyline i/v, as a result protracted apnoe and myorelaxation developed. Deficit of what enzyme caused such pharmacogenetic enzymepatia?

A * Pseudocholinesterase

B Uridindiphosphoglucoronic transferase

C Glucoso-6-phosphatdehydrogenase

D Met-hemoglobinreductase

E N-acetyltransferase

969 The old woman for the removal of high blood pressure crisis the solution of Pentamine was injected. What is the mechanism of medicine action?

A * Depression of N-cholinoreceptors

B

Depression of М-cholinoreceptors

C Stimulation of М-, Н-cholinoreceptors

D Stimulation of N-cholinoreceptors

E Stimulation of М-cholinoreceptors

970 The patient with symptomatic bradycardia. The docter prepares to administer which dose of atropine intravenously?

A 0.3 mg.

B * 0.5 mg.

C 1.25 mg.

D 2 mg.

E 3 mg.

971 The problem of skeletal muscle contraction exists at child after poliomyelitis. What medicine is possible to prescribe?

A * Galantamine hydrobromide

B Platyphylline

C Methacine

D Atropine sulfate

E Tubacurarine

972 The problem of skeletal muscle contraction exists at child after poliomyelitis. What medicine is possible to prescribe?

A * Galantamine hydrobromide

B Platyphylline

C Methacine

D Atropine sulfate

E Tubacurarine

973 At the case of antidepolarizing myorelaxants overdose is used:

A * Proserine.

B Atropine.

C Cytitone.

D Аrmine.

E Anaprilin.

974 A priority diagnosis for a patient receiving anticholinergic (parasympatholytic) drugs would be:

A Risk for injury related to excessive CNS stimulation.

B * Impaired gas exchange related to thickened respiratory secretions.

C Urinary retention related to loss of bladder tone.

D Knowledge deficit related to pharmacologic regimen.

E Decrease in GI motility.

975 All statements about side effects to expect from anticholinergic (parasympatholytic) agents, such as atropine, include all of the following except:

A Dilated pupils (mydriasis).

B Urinary retention.

C * Increase smooth muscle tonus of the bronchi and other internal organs.

D Paralysis of accommodation.

E Dry mouth.

976 At the patient with the femur fracture, for reducing of sceletal muscles tension at reposition of bone wreckages, it is needed to prescribe a myorelaxant of short action.

A * Ditiline.

B Anatruxonium.

C Tubacurarine.

D Decamethonium.

E Diplacine.

977 Cholinergic (parasympathomimetic) drugs have which of the following therapeutic effects?


B * Increased secretion of the bronchial, digestive and sweat gland.

C Mydriasis.

D Vasoconstriction.

E Hypertonia.

978 Correct statement about side effects to expect from anticholinergic (parasympatholytic) agents, such as atropine, include all of the following except:



C Dry mouth.

D * Diarrhea.

E Paralysis of accommodation.

979 Drugs of what group are used for controlled hypotension?

A * Ganglioblockers.

B Sympatholitics.

C Beta-adrenoblockers.

D Antagonists of the calcium ions.

E Inhibitors of angiotensine-coversive enzyme.

980 Drugs of what group are used for the decreasing of blood pressure?


B Sympatholitics.

C M-cholinoblockers.





B Sympatholitics.




982 Everything about side effects to expect from anticholinergic (parasympatholytic) agents, include all of the following except:



C Dry mouth.


E * Decreasing of intra-eye pressure.

983 Everything about side effects to expect from anticholinergic (parasympatholytic) agents, include all of the following except:



C Dry mouth.


E * Decreasing of intra-eye pressure.

984 For reducing of sceletal muscles tension during reposition of bone, for the patient with the femur fracture, it is necessary to prescribe short acting myorelaxant.

A * Dithyline

B Anaprilin

C Tubacurarine

D Atropine

E Adrenaline

985 For the patient with the femur fracture, for reducing of sceletal muscles tension during reposition of bone, it is necessary to prescribe short acting myorelaxant.

A * Dithyline

B Anaprilin

C Tubacurarine

D Atropine

E Adrenaline

986 For treatment overdose of antidepolarizing myorelaxants is used:

A * Proserine.

B Atropine.

C Cytitone.

D

Аrmine.

E Anaprilin.

987 Ganglioblockers drugs have which of the following therapeutic effect?

A * Decrease blood pressure

B Increase blood pressure

C Increase motility of intestine

D Relaxation of muscles

E Contraction of pupil


A * Long-term myorelaxation in surgery


C Parkinson’s disease

D Myastenia

E Pneumonia


A Asphyxia


C Glaucoma

D Ulcerous illness

E * Myorelaxation


A * Decline skeletal muscles tone.

B Decline blood pressure.

C Increase blood pressure.

D Bradycardia.

E Bronchial spasm.

991 Myorelaxants can be used?

A * Long-term myorelaxation in surgery


C Parkinson’s disease

D Myastenia

E Pneumonia

992 Side effects to expect from anticholinergic (parasympatholytic) agents, such as atropine, include all of the following except:



C * Increase smooth muscle tonus of the bronchi and other internal organs.


E Dry mouth.

993 Side-effects of Hygronium include:

A Diarrhea.

B Hypertension.

C * Orthostatic hypotension.


E Headache.

994 The correct statement about the side effects from anticholinergic (parasympatholytic) agents, include all of the following except:



C Dry mouth.

D * Diarrhea.

E Paralysis of accommodation.

995 The doctor monitors a patient taking oxybutynin (Ditropan) for which therapeutic effect?

A Decrease in GI motility.

B * Decrease in urinary frequency.

C Increase in heart rate.

D Increase in blood pressure.

E Increase in GI motility.

996 The drug of choice for treatment of anaphylactic shock is:

A Noradrenaline.

B Naphthyzine.

C Isadrine.

D * Adrenaline.

E Anaprilin.

997 The indications to application of Tubacurarinum.

A Hypertensive crisis.

B Glaucoma.

C * In anesthesia during surgery to skeletal muscles.

D Atony of intestine.


998 The name of the medication of ganglioblockers?

A * Benzohexonium

B Mesatone

C Proserine

D Atropine

E Tubocurarine

999 The patient with the femur fracture, for reducing of sceletal muscles tension at reposition of bone wreckages, it is needed to prescribe a myorelaxant of short action.

A * Ditiline.

B Anatruxonium.

C Tubacurarine.

D Decamethonium.

E Е. Diplacine.

1000 To name the indications to application of Hygronium.

A * Controlled hypotension.

B Glaucoma.

C Myastenia.



1001 To name the indications to application of myorelaxants.

A * Long-term myorelaxation in case of surgical treatment.

B Hypotonia.

C

Parkinson’s disease.

D Myastenia.

E Intestine atony.

1002 To name the indications to application of Pentaminum.

A * Hypertensive crisis.

B Glaucoma.

C Myastenia.



1003 To name the indications to application of Tubacurarinum.


B Glaucoma.

C * In anesthesia during surgery to skeletal muscles.



1004 To note the agent of myorelaxants?

A Proserinum.

B Gigronium.

C * Dithyllinum.

D Aceclidine.

E Atropine sulfate.

1005 To note the drug of myorelaxants?

A * Tubocurarine chloride

B Hygronium

C Proserine

D Aceclidine

E Atropine sulfate

1006 To note the group of drugs are used as adjuvant drugs in anesthesia during surgery to relax skeletal muscles.

A N-cholinomimetics.

B Ganglioblockers.

C M-N- cholinomimetics.

D M-cholinoblockers.

E * Myorelaxants.

1007 Tubocurarine can be used for:

A Asphyxia


C Glaucoma

D Ulcerous illness

E * Myorelaxation

1008 What agent belongs to ganglioblockers?

A * Benzohexonium

B Mesatone

C Proserine

D Atropine

E Tubocurarine


A * Tubocurarine chloride

B Hygronium

C Proserine

D Aceclidine

E Atropine sulfate

1010 What agent does belong to the group of ganglioblockers?

A Atropine.

B Mesatone.

C Proserine.

D * Benzohexonium.

E Diazepam.

1011 What agent is direct stimulating action N-cholinoreceptors?

A * Lobelinum.

B Gigronium.

C Pilocarpini hydrochloridum.

D Anaprilinum.

E Methacine.

1012 What agent may block postsynaptic N-cholinoreceptors of the sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglion, adrenal medulla and caroid zone?


B * Ganglioblockers.



E Adrenomimetics.

1013 What are therapeutic effects of Cholinergic (parasympathomimetic) drugs?


B * Increased secretion of the bronchial, digestive and sweat gland.

C Mydriasis.

D Vasoconstriction.

E Hypertonia.

1014 What does the N-cholinomimetics action mechanism consist in?

A Block cholinesterase.

B * Activate of N-cholinoreceptors


D Activate cholinesterase.

E Block of M-cholinoreceptors.

1015 What drug can be used for treatment of anaphylactic shock:

A Noradrenaline.

B Naphthyzine.

C Isadrine.

D * Adrenaline.

E Anaprilin.

1016 What drug can be used for treatment of anaphylactic shock:

A Noradrenaline.

B Naphthyzine.

C Isadrine.

D * Adrenaline.

E Anaprilin.

1017 What effect does appear in case of ganglioblockers introduction?

A Increasing motor function of intesnine.

B Increasing of blood pressure.

C * Decreasing of blood pressure.

D Relaxation of посмугованих muscles.

E Contraction of pupil.

1018 What effects do exist in case of myorelaxants introduction?

A * Relaxation of skeletal muscles

B Contraction of pupil

C Decreasing of intesnine motility

D Increasing of blood pressure

E Decreasing of eye pressure



B Myorelaxants.

C Anticholinesterase agents.

D

М-cholinoblockers.

E N-cholinomimetics.

1020 What group of drugs is used as adjuvant drugs in anesthesia during surgery to relax skeletal muscles.


B Ganglioblockers.



E * Myorelaxants.

1021 What group of drugs is used for controlled hypotension?


B Sympatholitics.

C Alpha-adrenoblockers.



1022 What group of drugs is used for the decreasing of blood pressure?


B Sympatholitics.




1023 What is the main pharmacological effect of myorelaxants:

A * Decline skeletal muscles tone.

B Decline blood pressure.

C Increase blood pressure.

D Bradycardia.

E Bronchial spasm.

1024 What is therapeutic effect of Ganglioblockers drugs?

A * Decrease blood pressure

B Increase blood pressure

C Increase motility of intestine

D Relaxation of muscles

E Contraction of pupil

1025 What muscles are accepted in case of myorelaxants application at last?

A * Diaphragm muscles.

B Muscles of fingers of hands and feet.

C Muscles of face.

D Trunk muscles.

E Muscles of extremities.


A * Diaphragm muscles

B Muscles of fingers of hands and feet

C Muscles of face

D Trunk muscles

E Muscles of extremities

1027 What substance does N-cholinoreceptors have sensitivity to?

A Atropine.

B Novocainee.

C Nalorfine.

D Nitroglycerine.

E * Nicotine.

1028 What tubacurarine is used for?

A For the removal of bronchospasme


C * For myorelaxation

D For the removal of attacks of angina pectoris

E For the treatment of glaucoma

1029 A 36-year-old-female patient suffering from ischemic heart disease has been prescribed propranolol. But having found a concomitant disease, the doctor decided to replace this drug by the doctor?

A Cholecystitis

B Arterial hypertension

C Duodenal ulcer

D Myasthenia

E * Bronchial asthma

1030 A 40-year-old patient with bronchial asthma, who had an attack of bronchospasm with manifestations of angina pectoris. What drug is the most effective for the acute care?

A Ephedrini hydrochloridum

B * Salbutamolum


D Atropini sulfas

E Platyphyllini hydrotartras

1031 A 46-year-old patient presents symptomatic bradycardia. The nurse prepares to administer which dose of atropine intravenously?

A 0.3 mg

B * 0.5 mg

C 1.25 mg

D 2 mg

E 3 mg

1032 A 46-year-old patient with bronchial asthma was hospitalized. A doctor prescribed drug to a patient. What is mechanism of action this preparation?

A beta1 adrenergic

B muscarinic cholinergic

C * beta2 adrenergic

D nicotinic cholinergic

E neither

1033 A 46-year-old patient with hypovolemic shock due to severe blood loss was prescribed dopamine. For the medication to be effective, the physician must also order:

A * Fluid replacement

B Beta-stimulating drugs

C Antibodies

D Fluid restriction

E Beta-blocking drugs

1034 56 year-old female receiving sympathomimetic drugs. Clinical uses for sympathomimetic drugs:

A hypovolemic shock caused by dehydration or blood loss

B cardiogenic shock (pump failure)

C cardiac output obstruction

D loss of peripheral vascular tone

E * all of the above

1035 A 58-year-old female suffering from ischemic heart disease did not inform the doctor about the attack of bronchospasm he sometimes had. The doctor prescribed a drug, the intake of which made the attacks of angina pectoris less freguent, but the attack of bronchospasm became more freguent. What drug has been prescribed?

A Nitroglycerinum

B Verapamilum

C Nitrosorbidum

D * Propranololum

E Diltiazemum

1036 A 59-year-old woman has been given beta-adrenoreceptor antagonist. After a while she had a cough and bronchospasm. Which of the drugs has such evident side action?

A Atenololum

B Talinololum

C * Propranololum

D Nifedipinum

E Metoprololum

1037 A 60-yaer-old woman, suffering from toxic goiter, complains of constant palpitation.

What drug should be prescribed for normalization of heart rate?

A Isadrinum

B * Propranololum

C Salbutamolum

D Adrenalini hydrochloridum

E Pentaminum

1038 A 63-year-old man was admitted to an emergency hospital in collaptoid state. In order to cure hypotension, the doctor chose noradrenaline hydrotartras. What is the mechanism of the hypertensive action of this drug?

A Activation of alpha-adrenoreceptors

B Activation of serotonergic receptors

C * Activation of alpha1-adrenoreceptors

D Activation of dopamine receptors

E Inhibition of M-cholinoreceptors

1039 A 68-year-old man was admitted to an emergency hospital in anaphylactic shock.

From which of adrenoreceptors agonists is it possible to expect the maximal therapeutic effect?

A Mesatonum

B * Adrenalini hydrochloridum

C Ephedrini hydrochloridum

D Noradrenalini hedrochlorodum

E Alupent

1040 A doctor prescribed drug to a patient dopamine (Intropin). To note the pharmacological action(s) of dopamine (Intropin):

A positive inotropism

B promotes myocardial norepinephrine release

C increases glomerular filtration rates (low-dose)

D vasoconstriction by alpha-1 receptor activation (high-dose)

E * all the above

1041 A doctor prescribed drug to a patient Epinephrine. What are cardiac effects associated with epinephrine:

A positive chronotropic

B positive inotropic

C increased cardiac output

D increased oxygen consumption


1042 A doctor prescribed drug to a patient Epinephrine. Significant respiratory tract effects of epinephrine:

A beta-2 receptor mediated bronchoconstriction

B alpha-1 receptor-mediated bronchodilation

C beta-1 receptor-mediated bronchodilation

D * beta-2 receptor-mediated bronchodilation

E all of the above

1043 A doctor prescribed drug to a patient for the treatment of exertional angina a selective beta1-adrenergic blocker, which has no internal sympathomimetic activity. It is known that the drug is lipopholic, has average duration of action and is tablets and ampoules. What drug is it?

A Talinololum

B * Metoprololum

C Benzohexonium

D Drotaverini hydrochloridum

E Propranololum

1044 A doctor prescribed drug to a patient sympathomimetics. Clinical uses for sympathomimetic drugs:






1045 A doctor prescribed drug to a patient sympathomimetics. Toxicities/adverse reactions associated with sympathomimetics?

A angina

B hypertension; cerebral hemorrhage

C cardiac arrhythmias

D anxiety reactions

E * all the above

1046 A doctor prescribed drug to a patient with bronchial asthma. What is mechanism of action this preparation?

A beta1 adrenergic




E neither

1047 A doctor prescribed the patient dopamine 5 mcg/kg/min. He weighs 176 pounds. You have dopamine 400 mg in 500 mL D5W. You will infuse this at:

A 20 mL/hr

B * 30 mL/hr

C 35 mL/hr

D 40 mL/hr

E 50 mL/hr

1048 A doctor prescribed l-adrenoreceptor antagonist to a patient for the treatment ischemic heart disease. After a while he had a cough and bronchospasm. Which of the drugs has such evident side action?

A Atenololum

B Talinololum

C * Propranololum

D Nifedipinum

E Metoprololum

1049 A doctor presribed dopamine to treat your patient's hypovolemic shock due to severe blood loss. For the medication to be effective, the physician must also order:



C Antibodies

D Fluid restriction


1050 A doctor was called to a 40-year-old patient with bronchial asthma, who had an attack of bronchospasm with manifestations of angina pectoris. What drug is the most effective for the acute care?


B * Salbutamolum


D Atropini sulfas


1051 A female patient suffering from ischemic heart disease has been prescribed propranolol. But having found a concomitant disease, the doctor decided to replace this drug by the doctor?

A Cholecystitis


C Duodenal ulcer

D Myasthenia


1052 A patient came to a doctor complaining of health state deterioration. While waiting he had an attack of bronchial asthma. Drugs of what group are expedient for the aid?

A Sympatholytics

B N-cholinomimetics

C M-cholinomimetics

D * l-Adrenoreceptor agonists

E b-Adrenergic blockers

1053 A patient has a collaptoid state because of peripheric vessels tone decrease. What drug is the most efective in this situation?

A Isadrinum

B Proserinum

C * Mesatonum

D Clophelinum

E Prazozinum

1054 A patient has anaphylactic shock. From which of adrenoreceptors agonists is it possible to expect the maximal therapeutic effect?

A Mesatonum




E Alupent

1055 A patient has been given l-adrenoreceptor antagonist. After a while he had a cough and bronchospasm. Which of the drugs has such evident side action?

A Atenololum

B Talinololum

C * Propranololum

D Nifedipinum

E Metoprololum

1056 A patient in the condition of acute circulatory collapse resulting from severe poisoning with unknown substance has been admitted to a hospital. Which should be used for the acute care?

A Propranololum

B Naphthysinum

C Isadrinum

D Salbutamolum

E * Mesatonum

1057 A patient is to receive dopamine 5 mcg/kg/min. He weighs 176 pounds. You have dopamine 400 mg in 500 mL D5W. You will infuse this at:

A 20 mL/hr

B * 30 mL/hr

C 35 mL/hr

D 40 mL/hr

E 50 mL/hr

1058 A patient suffering from ischemic heart disease did not inform the doctor about the attack of bronchospasm he sometimes had. The doctor prescribed a drug, the intake of which made the attacks of angina pectoris less freguent, but the attack of bronchospasm became more freguent. What drug has been prescribed?

A Nitroglycerinum

B Verapamilum

C Nitrosorbidum

D * Propranololum

E Diltiazemum

1059 A patient visiting a traumatologist had acute arterial hypotension. Which of the drugs stimulationg adrenergic innervation would you sugest to use for the normalisation of arterial pressure?

A Doxazosinum

B Prazosinum

C Naphthyzinum

D Mesatonum

E * Xylomethazolinum

1060 A patient with attack of bronchial asthma. Drugs of what group are expedient for the aid?

A Sympatholytics

B N-cholinomimetics

C M-cholinomimetics

D * betta-Adrenoreceptor agonists

E betta-Adrenergic blockers

1061 A patient with bronchial asthma had been taking tablets which caused insomnia, headache, increased blood pressure. What medicine can cause such complications?

A Isadrine

B * Ephedrine

C Chromohn sodium

D Euphylme

E Adrenaline

1062 A patient with bronchial asthma was hospitalized. A doctor prescribed drug to a patient. What is mechanism of action this preparation?

A beta1 adrenergic




E neither

1063 A patient with hypovolemic shock due to severe blood loss was prescribed dopamine.

For the medication to be effective, the physician must also order:



C Antibodies

D Fluid restriction


1064 The doctor has ordered dopamine to treat your patient's hypovolemic shock due to severe blood loss. For the medication to be effective, the physician must also order:



C Antibodies

D Fluid restriction


1065 A woman visiting a traumatologist had acute arterial hypotension. Which of the drugs stimulationg adrenergic innervation would you sugest to use for the normalisation of arterial pressure?

A Doxazosinum

B Prazosinum

C Naphthyzinum

D Mesatonum

E * Xylomethazolinum

1066 A woman, suffering from toxic goiter, complains of constant palpitation. What drug should be prescribed for normalization of heart rate?

A Isadrinum

B * Propranololum

C Salbutamolum


E Pentaminum

1067 An emergency doctor was called to a 40-year-old patient with bronchial asthma, who had an attack of bronchospasm with manifestations of angina pectoris. What drug is the most effective for the acute care?


B * Salbutamolum


D Atropini sulfas


1068 At 39 years old woman for the removal of high blood pressure crisis the solution of

Pentamine was injected. What is the mechanism of medicine action?

A * Depression of N-cholinoreceptors

B

Depression of М-cholinoreceptors

C Stimulation of М-, Н-cholinoreceptors

D Stimulation of N-cholinoreceptors

E Stimulation of М-cholinoreceptors

1069 Determine the drug: drug may cause bronchospasm, increase of intestinal motor function and digestion glands secretion. Dyspepsia, bradycardia, intencification of ulcerative disease, retention of fluid in organism, orthostatic collapse?

A Lobelinum

B Gigronium

C Pilocarpini hydrochloridum

D Anaprilinum

E * Octadinum

1070 During a tooth extraction a patient had bleeding. The dentist imposed a tampon with a medicine, and the bleeding decreased. What drug was used by the doctor?

A Octadinum

B Isadrinum

C Naphthyzinum

D Prazosinum

E * Adrenalini hydrochloridum

1071

During an operative intervention with additional use of hydronium the patient’s arterial pressure has sharply decreased. What groups of drugs can normalize arterial pressure in the given situation?

A N-cholinomimetics

B l-Adrenergic blockers

C Ganglionic blockers

D M-cholinomimetics

E *bettal-Adrenoreceptor agonists

1072 For the treatment of exertional angina a selective betta 1-adrenergic blocker, which has no internal sympathomimetic activity, was prescribed. It is known that the drug is lipopholic, has average duration of action and is tablets and ampoules. What drug is it?

A Talinololum

B * Metoprololum

C Benzohexonium

D Drotaverini hydrochloridum

E Propranololum

1073 For the treatment of ischemic heart disease a patient has been given bettaadrenoreceptor antagonist. After a while he had a cough and bronchospasm. Which of the drugs has such evident side action?

A Atenololum

B Talinololum

C * Propranololum

D Nifedipinum

E Metoprololum

1074 For treatment in anaphylactic shock a patient was admitted to an emergency hospital.

From which of adrenoreceptors agonists is it possible to expect the maximal therapeutic effect?

A Mesatonum




E Alupent

1075 For treatment in collaptoid state a patient was admitted to an emergency hospital. In order to cure hypotension, the doctor chose noradrenaline hydrotartras. What is the mechanism of the hypotensive action of this drug?

A Activation of alpha-adrenoreceptors


C * Activation of betta 1-adrenoreceptors



1076 For treatment the condition of acute circulatory collapse resulting from severe poisoning with unknown substance a patient has been admitted to an emergency hospital.

Which should be used for the acute care?

A Propranololum

B Naphthysinum

C Isadrinum

D Salbutamolum

E * Mesatonum

1077 For treatment the condition of collaptoid state because of peripheric vessels tones decrease. What drug is the most efective in this situation?

A Isadrinum

B Proserinum

C * Mesatonum

D Clophelinum

E Prazozinum

1078 Identify the drug: drug may cause bronchospasm, increase of intestinal motor function and digestion glands secretion.Dyspepsia, bradycardia, intencification of ulcerative disease, retention of fluid in organism, orthostatic collapse?

A Lobelinum

B Gigronium

C Pilocarpini hydrochloridum

D Anaprilinum

E * Octadinum

1079 In hospital was hospitalized a patient with bronchial asthma A doctor prescribed drug to a patient. What is mechanism of action this preparation?

A beta1 adrenergic




E neither

1080 In hospital was hospitalized a patient. A doctor prescribed drug to a patient

Epinephrine. Epinephrine:

A limited effect on alpha receptors

B * increases heart rate, contributing to increase blood pressure

C epinephrine often reduces peripheral vascular resistance, especially at high concentration

D epinephrine tends to exhibit negative inotropic effects

E all of the above


Epinephrine. What are main effects Epinephrine on the heart

A increased rate

B decreased contractility

C coronary vasodilation

D * increased rate, coronary vasodilation

E All of the above


Epinephrine. Immediate biosynthetic precursor of epinephrine:

A * Norepinephrine

B Doapmine

C L-DOPA

D Isoproterenol

E Metaraminol

1083 In the hospital has been admitted a patient condition of collaptoid state because of peripheric vessels tone decrease. What drug is the most efective in this situation?

A Isadrinum

B Proserinum

C * Mesatonum

D Clophelinum

E Prazozinum

1084 In the hospital has been admitted a patient in the condition of acute circulatory collapse resulting from severe poisoning with unknown substance. Which should be used for the acute care?

A Propranololum

B Naphthysinum

C Isadrinum

D Salbutamolum

E * Mesatonum

1085 In the hospital was hospitalized patient suffering from toxic goiter, complains of constant palpitation. What drug should be prescribed for normalization of heart rate?

A Isadrinum

B * Propranololum

C Salbutamolum


E Pentaminum

1086 In the hospital was hospitalized patient suffering from ischemic heart disease has been prescribed propranolol. But having found a concomitant disease, the doctor decided to replace this drug by the doctor?

A Cholecystitis


C Duodenal ulcer

D Myasthenia


1087 In the hospital was hospitalized patient with bronchial asthma, who had an attack of bronchospasm with manifestations of angina pectoris. What drug is the most effective for the acute care?


B * Salbutamolum


D Atropini sulfas


1088 increased rate

A decreased contractility

B coronary vasodilation

C increased rate, coronary vasodilation

D * All of the above

E neither

1089 Increased renin level in the blood of a 55-year-old patient with hypertensive disease was detected. What hypotensive medicine should be preffered for the treatment of the patient?

A Magnesii sulfas

B * Clophelinum

C Enalaprilum

D Papaverini hydrochloridum

1090 limited effect on alpha receptors

A increases heart rate, contributing to increase blood pressure

B * epinephrine often reduces peripheral vascular resistance, especially at high concentration

C epinephrine tends to exhibit negative inotropic effects

D all of the above

E neither

1091 metoprolol (Lopressor)

A Diuretics

B Alpha1-blockers

C MAO inhibitors

D * Alpha2-adrenomimetics

E M-cholinomimetics

1092 Nurse assesses the intravenous infusion site of a patient receiving dopamine and finds it is infiltrated. The nurse will prepare which of the following medications to treat this infiltration?

A lidocaine (Xylocaine)

B * phentolamine (Regitine)

C nitroprusside (Nipride)

D naloxone (Narcan)

E prednisolonum

1093 Patient receiving sympathomimetic drugs. Clinical uses for sympathomimetic drugs:






1094 Patient suffering from ischemic heart disease did not inform the doctor about the attack of bronchospasm he sometimes had. The doctor prescribed a drug, the intake of which made the attacks of angina pectoris less freguent, but the attack of bronchospasm became more freguent. What drug has been prescribed?

A Nitroglycerinum

B Verapamilum

C Nitrosorbidum

D * Propranololum

E Diltiazemum

1095 Preparation is used in case hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, angina pectoris, supraventricular and other arrhythmias, glaucoma To note the name of the drug?

A Salbutamolum

B Gigronium

C Nitrozepamum

D * Anaprilinum

E Adrenalini hydrochloridum

1096 The doctor has ordered dopamine to treat your patient's hypovolemic shock due to severe blood loss. For the medication to be effective, the physician must also order:

A * Fluid replacement.

B Beta-stimulating drugs.

C Antibodies.

D Fluid restriction.

E Beta-blocking drugs.

1097 The drug can be used in hypotensive conditions, anaphylactic shock, hypoglycemic coma, in case of myocardial conductivity disturbance, in heart arrest. Indicate this preparation?

A Metoprolol

B Gigronium

C Octadinum

D Anaprilinum


1098 The nurse assesses the intravenous infusion site of a patient receiving dopamine and finds it is infiltrated. The nurse will prepare which of the following medications to treat this infiltration?

A lidocaine (Xylocaine).

B * phentolamine (Regitine).

C nitroprusside (Nipride).

D naloxone (Narcan).

E prednisolonum.

1099 The patient complaining of health state deterioration. While waiting he had an attack of bronchial asthma. Drugs of what group are expedient for the aid?

A Sympatholytics

B N-cholinomimetics

C M-cholinomimetics

D * l-Adrenoreceptor agonists

E l-Adrenergic blockers

1100 The patient is receiving sympathomimetic drugs. Clinical uses for sympathomimetic drugs:






1101 The patient is to receive dopamine 5 mcg/kg/min. He weighs 176 pounds. You have dopamine 400 mg in 500 mL D5W. You will infuse this at:

A 20 mL/hr

B * 30 mL/hr

C 35 mL/hr

D 40 mL/hr

E 50 mL/hr

1102 The patient suffering from ischemic heart disease has been prescribed propranolol. But having found a concomitant disease, the doctor decided to replace this drug by the doctor?

A Cholecystitis


C Duodenal ulcer

D Myasthenia


1103 The patient was admitted to an emergency hospital in collaptoid state. In order to cure hypotension, the doctor chose noradrenaline hydrotartras. What is the mechanism of the hypotensive action of this drug?

A Activation of l-adrenoreceptors


C * Activation of b1-adrenoreceptors



1104 The patient with bronchial asthma was hospitalized. A doctor prescribed drug to a patient. What is mechanism of action this preparation?

A beta1 adrenergic




E neither

1105 The patient with bronchial asthma, who had an attack of bronchospasm with manifestations of angina pectoris. What drug is the most effective for the acute care?


B * Salbutamolum


D Atropini sulfas


1106 The patient with hypovolemic shock due to severe blood loss was prescribed dopamine. For the medication to be effective, the physician must also order:



C Antibodies

D Fluid restriction


1107 The preparation is used in hypotensive conditions, anaphylactic shock, hypoglycemic coma, in case of myocardial conductivity disturbance, in heart arrest. Indicate this preparation?

A Metoprolol

B Gigronium

C Octadinum

D Anaprilinum


1108 The woman suffering from toxic goiter complains of constant palpitation. What drug should be prescribed for normalization of heart rate?

A Isadrinum

B * Propranololum

C Salbutamolum


E Pentaminum

1109 This drug is used in case hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, angina pectoris, supraventricular and other arrhythmias, glaucoma. Indicate the name of the medication?

A Salbutamolum

B Gigronium

C * Metoprolol

D Naphthyzinum

E Adrenalini hydrochloridum

1110 This preparation is used in hypotensive conditions, anaphylactic shock, hypoglycemic coma, in case of myocardial conductivity disturbance, in heart arrest. Indicate this preparation?

A Metoprolol

B Gigronium

C Octadinum

D Anaprilinum


1111 What drug may cause bronchospasm, increase of intestinal motor function and digestion glands secretion, dyspepsia, bradycardia, intencification of ulcerative disease, retention of fluid in organism, orthostatic collapse?

A Lobelinum.

B Gigronium.


D Anaprilinum.

E * Octadinum.

1112 Your patient is receiving dobutamine as a continuous infusion. Titration of this medication is based upon:

A Heart rate.

B Blood pressure.

C Urine output.

D * All of the above.

E Myometrium tonus.

1113 Your patient is receiving dobutamine as a continuous infusion. Titration of this medication is based upon:

A Heart rate

B Blood pressure

C Urine output

D * All of the above

E Myometrium tonus

1114 Your patient is receiving dopamine (Intropin). To note the pharmacological action(s) of dopamine (Intropin):

A positive inotropism

B promotes myocardial norepinephrine release

C increases glomerular filtration rates (low-dose)

D vasoconstriction by alpha-1 receptor activation (high-dose)

E * all the above

1115 Your patient is receiving dopamine to treat hypovolemic shock due to severe blood loss. For the medication to be effective, the physician must also order:



C Antibodies

D Fluid restriction


1116 Your patient is receiving Epinephrine. Epinephrine:





E all of the above

1117 Your patient is receiving Epinephrine. Epinephrine:





E all of the above

1118 Your patient is receiving Epinephrine. Significant respiratory tract effects of epinephrine:

A beta-2 receptor mediated bronchoconstriction

B alpha-1 receptor-mediated bronchodilation

C beta-1 receptor-mediated bronchodilation

D * beta-2 receptor-mediated bronchodilation

E all of the above

1119 Your patient is receiving Epinephrine. What are cardiac effects associated with epinephrine:

A positive chronotropic

B positive inotropic

C increased cardiac output

D increased oxygen consumption


1120 Your patient is receiving sympathomimetics. Toxicities/adverse reactions associated with sympathomimetics?

A angina

B hypertension; cerebral hemorrhage

C cardiac arrhythmias

D anxiety reactions

E * all the above

1121 Your patient is to receive dopamine 5 mcg/kg/min. He weighs 176 pounds. You have dopamine 400 mg in 500 mL D5W. You will infuse this at:

A 20 mL/hr.

B * 30 mL/hr.

C 35 mL/hr.

D 40 mL/hrAll of the above.

E 50 mL/hr.

1122 Your patient receiving drug Epinephrine. What are main effects Epinephrine on the heart

A increased rate




E All of the above

1123 Your patient receiving drug with bronchial asthma A doctor prescribed drug to a patient. What is mechanism of action this preparation?

A beta1 adrenergic




E neither

1124 Your patient receiving Epinephrine. What are main effects Epinephrine on the heart

A increased rate




E All of the above

1125 Your patient receiving sympathomimetic drugs. Clinical uses for sympathomimetic drugs:






1126 Your patient suffering bronchial asthma, who had an attack of bronchospasm with manifestations of angina pectoris. What drug is the most effective for the acute care?


B * Salbutamolum


D Atropini sulfas


1127 Your patient suffering from ischemic heart disease has been prescribed propranolol.

But having found a concomitant disease, the doctor decided to replace this drug by the doctor?

A Cholecystitis


C Duodenal ulcer

D Myasthenia


1128 Your patient suffering from toxic goiter, complains of constant palpitation. What drug should be prescribed for normalization of heart rate?

A Isadrinum

B * Propranololum

C Salbutamolum


E Pentaminum

1129 Your patient was admitted to an emergency hospital a collaptoid state because of peripheric vessels tone decrease. What drug is the most efective in this situation?

A Isadrinum

B Proserinum

C * Mesatonum

D Clophelinum

E Prazozinum

1130 Your patient was admitted to an emergency hospital in the condition of acute circulatory collapse resulting from severe poisoning with unknown substance. Which should be used for the acute care?

A Propranololum

B Naphthysinum

C Isadrinum

D Salbutamolum

E * Mesatonum

1131 Your patient was admitted to an emergency hospital in anaphylactic shock. From which of adrenoreceptors agonists is it possible to expect the maximal therapeutic effect?

A Mesatonum




E Alupent

1132 Your patient was prescribed b-adrenoreceptor antagonist. After a while he had a cough and bronchospasm. Which of the drugs has such evident side action?

A Atenololum

B Talinololum

C * Propranololum

D Nifedipinum

E Metoprololum

1133 Your patient with bronchial asthma is receiving drug. What is mechanism of action this preparation?

A beta1 adrenergic




E neither

1134 To note the drugs belong to B-adrenoblockers.

A Gigronium.

B * Talinololum.

C Proserine.

D Cytitonum.

E Methacine.

1135 A hypertensive crisis may occur if adrenergic (sympathomimetic) agents are given along with:

A Metoprolol (Lopressor).

B Diuretics.

C Alpha1-blockers.

D * MAO inhibitors.

E Alpha2-adrenomimetics.


A

Мesatone.

B Noradrenaline.

C Galazoline.

D * Salbutamole.

E Anapliline.

1137 An example of a cardioselective beta-blocker includes:

A Propranolol (Inderal).

B Nadolol (Corgard).

C * Tenolol (Tenormin).

D Timolol (Timoptic).

E Lidocaine (Xylocaine).

1138 Anaprilinum is:

A * Adrenoblockers.

B

М-cholinomimetics.


D М-cholinoblockers.


1139 Anaprylin, what group of remedies does it belong to?

A * beta-adrenoblockaters.

B alpha-adrenoblockaters.

C Alpha, betta-adrenoceptives.

D sympatholytics.

E alpha-adrenoceptives.

1140 Beta-blockers are used to treat which of the following disorders?

A * Hypertension.

B COPD.

C Bronchial asthma.

D Hypotonia.

E Insomnia.

1141 Beta-blockers are used to treat which of the following disorders?

A * Angina pectoris.

B COPD.

C Bronchial asthma.

D Hypotonia.

E Insomnia.

1142 Beta-blockers can be used?

A * Hypertension.

B Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

C Bronchial asthma.

D Hypotonia.

E Insomnis.

1143 Cardioselective beta-blocker includes:

A propranolol (Inderal)

B nadolol (Corgard)

C * tenolol (Tenormin)

D timolol (Timoptic)

E lidocaine (Xylocaine)

1144 Choose the main therapeutic effects of Epinephrine, as an adrenergic

(sympathomimetic) drug?


B Bronchial constriction.

C * Increased heart rate and contractility.

D Decreased intestinal motility.

E Increased intestinal motility.



B Sympatholitics.




1146 Epinephrine, as an adrenergic (sympathomimetic) drug, produces which of the following therapeutic effects?






1147 Ergot alkaloids such as ergotamine tartrate (Ergostat) exert a therapeutic effect by causing:

A * Vasoconstriction.

B Vasodilation.

C Blockade of the beta2-receptors.

D Simulation of the alpha-receptors.

E Blockade of the alpha-receptors.

1148 Identify the drug stimulate L2-adrenoreceptors?

A Carbacholinum.

B * Halazolinum.

C Proserine.

D Ephedrini hydrochloridum.

E Furosemidum.

1149 Indicate drugs belong to direct-acting L-B-adrenomimetics?

A * Noradrenalini hydrotartras.

B Gigronium.

C Proserine.


E Methacine.

1150 Indicate drugs belong to sympatholitics?

A Doxazosin.

B Cytitone.

C Atropine sulfate.

D * Octadinum.

E Isadrinum.

1151 Indicate of the drug blocking selective alpha2-adrenoceptors?

A * Doxazosin.

B Cytitone.

C Atropine sulfate.

D Tubocurarini chloridum.

E Isadrinum.

1152 Indicate the drug belong to non-selective beta1-beta2-adrenomimetics?

A Noradrenalini hydrotartras.

B * Isadrinum.

C Proserine.


E Atropinum sulfas.

1153 Indicate the drug belong to selective beta2-adrenomimetics?


B Isadrinum.

C Dobutamine.


E * Salbutamolum.

1154 Indicate the drugs belong to beta-adrenoblockers.

A * Labetalol

B Gigronium

C Proserine

D Cytitonum

E Methacine

1155 Indicate the drugs belong to beta-adrenoblockers.

A * Talinololum

B Gigronium

C Proserine

D Cytitonum

E Methacine

1156 Indicate the main therapeutic effects of Epinephrine, as an adrenergic







1157 Isadrinum can be used for treatment:


B Glaucoma.

C In anesthesia during surgery to skeletal muscles.


E * Bronchial asthma.


A Binding with adrenoreceptors.

B Block of COMT.

C * Increased quantity of neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft.

D Disturbance of noradrenaline synthesis.

E Block of anticholinesterase.

1159 Medical drug from group beta-adrenoblockers

A * Talinololum

B Gigronium

C Proserine

D Cytitonum

E Methacine

1160 Non- selective beta-adrenoblocker is:

A * Anaprilin.

B Metoprolol.

C

Аtenolol.

D Talinolol.

E Isadrine.

1161 Nonselective beta-blockers may be used to treat hypertension and:

A Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

B Heart failure.

C Heart block.

D * Supraventricular arrhythmia.

E Bronchial asthma.

1162 Patient teaching for a patient being discharged on a beta-blocker includes:

A * "If you take your pulse and it is.

B "If you become dizzy, do not take your medication for 2 days and then restart on the third day."

C "This medication may make you fatigued; increasing caffeine in your diet may help alleviate this problem."

D "Increase intake of green leafy vegetables to prevent bleeding problems that can be caused by this medication."

E "Decrase intake of green leafy vegetables to prevent bleeding problems that can be caused by this medication."

1163 Propranolol (Inderal) is an effective:

A Selective alpha-adrenergic antagonist.

B * Nonselective beta-adrenergic antagonist.

C Beta1-adrenergic antagonist.

D Beta2-adrenergic antagonist.

E Alpha1-adrenergic antagonist.

1164 Selective alpha1-adrenoblocker:

A Phentolamine.

B * Prazosine.

C

Мesatone.

D Noradrenaline.

E Anapliline.

1165 The correct statement about therapeutic effects of Epinephrine, as an adrenergic







1166 The doctor monitors a patient prescribed dicyclomine (Bentyl) for which therapeutic effect?

A * Decrease in GI motility.

B Decrease in urinary frequency.




1167 The doctor monitors a patient taking oxybutynin (Ditropan) for which therapeutic effect?

A Decrease in GI motility.

B * Decrease in urinary frequency.




1168 The drug of selective B2-adrenomimetics is:


B Isadrinum.

C Dobutamine.


E * Fenoterolum.


A Tachycardia.

B Hypertension.

C * Bronchial spasm.

D Hyper tonus of skeletal muscles.

E Hypo tonus of skeletal muscles.

1170 The name of the drug blocking selective alpha2-adrenoceptors?

A * Doxazosin.

B Cytitone.

C Atropine sulfate.

D Tubocurarini chloridum.

E Isadrinum.

1171 The name of the drug from group of beta-adrenoblockers.

A * Labetalol

B Gigronium

C Proserine

D Cytitonum

E Methacine

1172 The name of the drugs belongs to sympatholitics?

A Doxazosin.

B Cytitone.

C Atropine sulfate.

D * Octadinum.

E Isadrinum.

1173 The priority nursing diagnosis for a patient taking metoprolol (Lopressor) would be:

A Knowledge deficit regarding pharmacologic therapy.

B Fatigue related to side effects of medication.

C * Decreased cardiac output related to effects of medication.

D Risk for injury related to side effects of medication.

E Increased cardiac output related to effects of medication.

1174 This drug from B-adrenoblockers group is:

A * Labetalol

B Gigronium

C Proserine

D Cytitonum

E Methacine

1175 To note the drug belong to selective beta2-adrenomimetics?


B Isadrinum.

C Dobutamine.


E * Salbutamolum.

1176 What drug belongs to sympatholitics?

A Doxazosin.

B Cytitone.

C Atropine sulfate.

D * Octadinum.

E Isadrinum.

1177 To note the drugs from selective beta2-adrenomimetics?


B Isadrinum.

C Dobutamine.


E * Fenoterolum.

1178 What agent does belong to alpha, beta-adrenomimetics?

A Carbacholinum.

B Gigronium.

C * Noradrenalini hydrotartras.

D Aceclidine.

E Methacine.

1179 What agent does belong to alpha, beta-adrenomimetics?

A Carbacholinum.

B Gigronium.

C * Adrenalini hydrochloridum.

D Aceclidine.

E Methacine.

1180 What agent does belong to alpha2-adrenomimetics?

A Carbacholinum.

B * Naphthyzinum.

C Prazozinum.

D Aceclidine.

E Methacine.

1181 What agent has direct stimulating action on alpha1-, alpha 2-, beta 1-and beta2adrenoreceptors?

A Cytitonum.

B Anaprilinum.


D * Adrenalini chydrochloridum.

E Methacine.

1182 What agent is used in hypotensive conditions, rhinitis, for prolongation of local anaesthetics action?

A Proserinum.

B Gigronium.

C Arphonad.

D * Phethanolum.

E Atropine sulfate.

1183 What agent is used in hypotensive conditions, rhinitis, for prolongation of local anaesthetics action?

A Proserinum.

B Gigronium.

C Arphonad.

D * Mesatonum.

E Atropine sulfate.

1184 What are Beta-blockers used to treat which of the following disorders?

A * Cardiac dysrhythmias.

B COPD.

C Bronchial asthma.

D Hypotonia.

E Insomnia.

1185 What are therapeutic effects of Epinephrine, as an adrenergic (sympathomimetic) drug?






1186 What does the Adrenoblockers action mechanism consist in?

A Block cholinesterase.

B Activate of N-cholinoreceptors.


D * Block adrenoreceptors.

E Block of M-cholinoreceptors.

1187 What drug does belong to Cardioselective beta-blocker:

A propranolol (Inderal)

B nadolol (Corgard)

C * tenolol (Tenormin)

D timolol (Timoptic)

E lidocaine (Xylocaine)

1188 What drug is contraindication in bronchial asthma?

A Metoprolol.

B Gigronium.

C Proserine.

D Methacine.

E * Anaprilinum.

1189 What drugs belong to non-selective beta1 and beta2-adrenomimetics?


B * Isadrinum.

C Proserine.


E Atropinum sulfas.

1190 What drugs belong to sympatholitics?

A Doxazosin.

B Cytitone.

C Atropine sulfate.

D * Reserpine.

E Isadrinum.

1191 What group of agents Anaprilinum belongs to?

A * Adrenoblockers.

B М-cholinomimetics.


D

М-cholinoblockers.


1192 What is drug from group B-adrenoblockers

A * Talinololum

B Gigronium

C Proserine

D Cytitonum

E Methacine

1193 What is indication of Beta-blockers?

A * Hypertension.

B Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

C Bronchial asthma.

D Hypotonia.

E Insomnis.

1194 What is indication to application of Isadrinum?


B Glaucoma.

C In anesthesia during surgery to skeletal muscles.


E * Bronchial asthma.

1195 What is the effect of noradrenalin using?

A Vasodilating.

B * Vasoconstrictive.

C Bronchodilating.

D Bronchoconstrictive.

E Analeptic.

1196 What is the way of introduction of noradrenalin?

A * Intravenous.

B Intramuscular.

C Per oral.

D Subcutaneous.

E Intracutaneous.


A * Diaphragm muscles

B Muscles of fingers of hands and feet

C Muscles of face

D Trunk muscles

E Muscles of extremities

1198 What pharmacological group is Talinololum?

A * B-adrenoblockers

B B-adrenomimetics

C N-cholinoblockers

D M-cholinoblockers

E Local anesthetics

1199 What preparation belongs to the b-adrenoblocker remedies?

A * Phentholamin.

B Adrenalin.

C Octadin.

D Mezathon.

E Anaprylin.

1200 What preparation belongs to the b-adrenomimetics remedies?

A * Isadrin.

B Anaprylin.

C Adrenalin.

D Phentholamin.

E Reserpin.

1201 What preparation is used in case hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, angina pectoris, supraventricular and other arrhythmias, glaucoma?

A Salbutamolum.

B Gigronium.

C * Metoprolol.

D Naphthyzinum.

E Adrenalini hydrochloridum.

1202 What preparation is used in case hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, angina pectoris, supraventricular and other arrhythmias, glaucoma?

A Salbutamolum.

B * Anaprilinum.

C Nitrozepamum.

D Gigronium.

E Adrenalini hydrochloridum.

1203 What preparation is used in hypotensive conditions, anaphylactic shock, hypoglycemic coma, in case of myocardial conductivity disturbance, in heart arrest?

A Metoprolol.

B Gigronium.

C Octadinum.

D Anaprilinum.

E * Adrenalini hydrochloridum.

1204 What substance is a mediator in adrenogenic synapses?

A * Noradrenalin.

B Adrenalin.

C Acethylcholin.

D Mezathon.

E Dophamin.

1205 What the group of drugs selectively stimulate beta2-adrenoceptors?

A Anticholinesterase agents.

B * beta2-adrenomimetics.


D Adrenoblockers.

E М-cholinomimetics.

1206 What tubacurarine is used for?

A For the removal of bronchospasme


C * For myorelaxation

D For the removal of attacks of angina pectoris

E For the treatment of glaucoma

1207 When assessing for cardiovascular effects of an adrenergic (sympathomimetic) agent, the nurse understands that these drugs produce:

A * A positive inotropic, positive chronotropic and positive dromotropic effect.

B A positive inotropic, negative chronotropic and negative dromotropic effect.

C A negative inotropic, positive chronotropic and positive dromotropic effect.

D A negative inotropic, negative chronotropic and negative dromotropic effect.

E A negative inotropic, negative chronotropic and positive dromotropic effect.

1208 When is naphthysin used?

A * Rhinitis, sinusitis.

B Collapse.

C Bronchial asthma.

D For prolonged action of local anaesthetics.

E Cardiac arrest.

1209 When is reserpin used?

A * Hypertensive disease.

B Diabetes mellitus.

C Hypertonic crisis.

D Endarteritis.

E Arrhythmia.

1210 When teaching a patient about beta-blocking medications such as atenolol (Tenormin) and metoprolol (Lopressor), it is important to inform the patient that:

A These medications may be taken with antacids to minimize GI distress.

B Hot baths and showers will help enhance the therapeutic effects and are encouraged.

C Alcohol intake is encouraged for its vasodilating effects.

D * Abrupt medication withdrawal may lead to a rebound hypertensive crisis.

E It stimulates adrenoceptors.

1211 Which of the following drugs is classified as selective alpha – 1 antagonist?

A * Prasozine

B Anapryline

C Epinephrine

D Norepinephrine

E Isadrine

1212 Which of the following is broncholytic beta2 – adrenomimetics from the group:

A Ephedrine.

B * Salbutamole.

C Ipratropium.

D Euphylline.

E Adrenaline

1213

Аdrenergic agonist, used for prophylaxis of premature labor:

A * Phenoterole.

B Noradrenaline.

C Меsatone.

D Halazoline.

E Ephedrine.

1214 A patient is admitted to the emergency department with an overdose of a barbiturate.

The nurse immediately prepares to administer which of the following from the emergency drug cart?

A *naloxone HCl (Narcan)

B activated charcoal

C flumazenil (Romazicon)

D syrup

E None answer is correct

1215 A patient who is newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and beginning medication therapy asks the nurse, "How soon will improvement occur?" The nurse's best response is:

A "That varies from patient to patient."

B "You should discuss that with your physician."

C "You should notice a difference in a few days."

D *"It may take several weeks before you notice any degree of improvement."


1216 A postoperative craniotomy patient is received in the intensive care unit. The nurse makes sure which of the following drugs is readily available to treat seizure activity?

A gabapentin (Neurontin)

B *diazepam (Valium)

C ethosuximide (Zarontin)

D flumazenil (Romazicon)


1217 Antiepileptic drugs work by:

A *Decreasing seizure threshold

B Enhancing transmission of impulses from one nerve to another

C Decreasing nerve conduction

D Correcting electrolyte imbalances

E All answers are correct

1218 Janie has seizures characterized by temporary lapses in consciousness that last only a few seconds. Her teachers have said that she "daydreams too much." These types of seizures are:

A simple seizures.

B complex seizures.

C *partial seizures.

D generalized seizures.


1219 Mr. Ford, who is taking levodopa for Parkinson's disease, wants to take a vitamin supplement. What should he be told?

A Be sure to take a supplement that provides all vitamins and minerals.

B Be sure to take a supplement twice a day to ensure enough nutrients.

C Avoid supplements that contain vitamin B6 (pyridoxine).

D *Do not take more than the recommended amount of calcium with this medication.


1220 The nurse instructs a patient receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) to visit the dentist regularly and perform frequent oral hygiene based on the knowledge that a common side effect of this drug is:

A * Gingival hyperplasia

B Oral candidiasis

C Increased risk of dental abscesses

D Increased incidence of dental caries


1221 The patient asks the nurse to explain the difference between levodopa-carbidopa

(Sinemet) and ropinirole (Requip). The nurse's response is based on knowledge that:

A Ropinirole is a dopamine agonist that has fewer side effects than levodopa-carbidopa

B Levodopa-carbidopa is less effective than ropinirole in treating the symptoms of

Parkinson's disease

C Both drugs have the same pharmacodynamic and side effect profiles

D *Levodopa-carbidopa acts as a dopamine agonist, whereas ropinirole directly replaces dopamine


1222 The patient asks the nurse why she is receiving a different drug than her usual phenytoin (Dilantin). The patient is NPO (nothing by mouth) secondary to illness and is receiving intravenous fosphenytoin (Cerebyx). The nurse most accurately responds by:

A "Your serum phenytoin levels were not therapeutic, so your health care provider has changed your medication to a more effective drug."

B "Phenytoin is not effective while you are NPO, so your health care provider has changed your medication to a more effective drug.

C * "Fosphenytoin is a prodrug of phenytoin-it is converted to phenytoin once it is in your bloodstream. Since you are NPO, fosphenytoin is easier on your veins than phenytoin."

D "Since you are NPO, you cannot take phenytoin orally. Phenytoin does not come in an intravenous form. You will be transferred back to phenytoin after you recover from this illness."


1223 The patient receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) has a serum drug level drawn. The nurse notes that the level is therapeutic when it is reported to be:

A 8 mcg/mL

B 30 mcg/mL

C * 12 mcg/mL

D 6 mcg/mL

E none answer is correct

1224 The patient's chart notes the administration of dantrolene (Dantrium) immediately postoperatively. The nurse suspects that the patient experienced:

A Delirium tremens

B Malignant hyperthermia

C *A tonic-clonic seizure

D Respiratory arrest


1225 Which drug would be used for the treatment of status epilepticus?

A phenobarbital

B *diazepam

C valproic acid

D phenytoin


1226 Which of the following is a possible side/adverse effect of phenobarbital therapy?

A Constipation

B Gingival hyperplasia

C *Drowsiness

D Dysrhythmias


1227 While completing discharge activity for a patient prescribed an antiepileptic drug, the nurse instructs the patient that abruptly stopping this drug could cause:

A * Eradicating all seizure activity and then weaning off medication once the patient is seizure free for 3 months

B Reducing seizure occurrence to one per week

C Maximally reducing seizure activity while minimizing side effects of medication therapy

D Maximizing drug dosages to control seizure activity



A Status epilepticus

B *Acute withdrawal syndrome

C Hypotension

D Confusion and delirium



A * Eradicating all seizure activity and then weaning off medication once the patient is seizure free for 3 months






A Status epilepticus

B *Acute withdrawal syndrome

C Hypotension

D Confusion and delirium


1231 While obtaining a patient history, the nurse notes that the patient has been prescribed ethosuximide (Zarontin). The nurse suspects that this patient most likely experiences:

A Absence seizures

B Tonic-clonic seizures

C * Panic attacks

D Partial seizures


1232 While teaching a patient newly diagnosed with a seizure disorder, the nurse correctly states the goal of pharmacologic therapy as:

A *Eradicating all seizure activity and then weaning off medication once the patient is seizure free for 3 months





1233 Your patient with Parkinson's disease has difficulty performing voluntary movements.

This is known as:

A akinesia.

B *dyskinesia.

C chorea.

D dystonia.


1234 Note the direct cerebral vasodilation:

A thiopental (Pentothal)

B etomidate (Amidate)

C * halothane (Fluothane)

D midazolam (Versed)

E propofol (Diprivan)

1235 Drug for general anesthesia with the widest range of narcotic action

A Nitrous oxide

B * Ether for anesthesia

C Sombrevinum

D Ethyl alcohol

E Thiopental

1236 A drug of choice in management of petit mal epilepsy:

A carbamazepine (Tegretol)

B primidone (Mysoline)

C * ethosuximide (Zarontin) *

D phenytoin (Dilantin)

1237 A hypnotic is an agent that:

A * produces sleep.

B slows the destruction of dopamine.

C prevents nausea and vomiting.

D relaxes the patient.


1238 A neuroprotective agent used to prevent the degradation of dopamine in the brain and thus slow the progression of Parkinson's disease is:

A *levodopa

B carbidopa

C selegiline

D diphenhydramine


1239 A primary goal in preanesthetic medication –

A reduction in the requirement for inhalational agents

B reduction in the acidity and volume of gastric contents

C * relief of preoperative pain

D reduction inside effects associated with some inhalational agents

1240 Accepted measure of anesthetic potency.

A lipid solubility

B Speed of induction.

C presence of a "second gas effect"

D * minimum alveolar concentration (MAC value)

1241 Adverse effect(s): opioids used in preanesthetic medication

A biliary spasm

B prolongation of awakening for general anesthesia

C respiratory depression resulting in increased ICP

D B & C

E * A, B & C

1242 Anesthetic most likely to cause seizure activity

A halothane (Fluothane)

B * enflurane (Ethrane)

C isoflurane (Forane)

D Lidocaine

1243 Anesthetic or anesthetic combination least likely to change cerebral blood flow or cause direct cerebral vasodilation:

A ketamine (Ketalar)

B propofol (Diprivan)

C * nitrous oxide + intravenous anesthetic

D nitrous oxide + volatile anesthetics

E nitrous oxide alone

1244 Antagonizes droperidol (Inapsine)-mediated extrapyramidal side effects

A L-DOPA

B phentolamine (Regitine)

C * benztropine (Cogentin)

D propranolol (Inderal)

E none of the above

1245 Anticholinergic agents administered during treatment of Parkinson's disease are given to control or minimize all the following symptoms except:

A Drooling.

B * Constipation.

C muscle rigidity,

D Tremors.


1246 Anticonvulsant medication and inhalational anesthetic use:

A Anticonvulsant medication should be slowly reduced in dosage and stopped several days before surgery

B * Phenobarbital (Luminal) may increase anesthetic agent metabolism

C Increased metabolism of volatile, halogenated anesthetics decrease organ toxicity risk

D the following surgery, anticonvulsant medication should be held until the patient is able to take the medication orally

1247 Antiepileptic drugs work by:

A Decreasing seizure threshold

B Enhancing transmission of impulses from one nerve to another

C * Decreasing nerve conduction

D Correcting electrolyte imbalances


1248 Apnea, non-reacted dilated pupils, circulatory failure, and hypertension are most likely associated with this stage of general anesthesia:

A amnesia/analgesia

B delirium

C surgical anesthesia

D * medullary depression

1249 Associated with malignant hyperthermia


B isoflurane (Forane)

C * both

D neither

1250 Benzodiazepines characteristic(s) that make these drugs useful as pre-anesthetics

A raise threshold for CNS toxicity of local anesthetics

B amnestic properties

C relatively little respiratory and cardiovascular depression

D B & C

E * A, B & C

1251 Benzodiazepines in anesthesia: may be used alone for procedures not requiring analgesic, including

A DC cardioversion

B some radiological procedures

C endoscopy

D cardiac catherization

E * all the above

1252 Benzodiazepines: Diazepam (Valium) pharmacology -

A advantage: combination with opioids do not result in significant cardiovascular depression

B Central nervous system depression can be reversed with naltrexone (ReVia)

C Effective analgesic

D * Associated with anterograde amnesia





D * Epilepsy treatment

E General anesthesia

1254 Cauntations for morphine use:

A Addison's disease

B acute asthma

C increased ICP

D acute ulcerative colitis

E * all the above

1255 Cautious use - benzodiazepines

A with impaired renal/hepatic function

B mental depression

C elderly

D drug abuse


1256 Central gaze, constricted pupils, regular aspirations, and the anesthetic depth is sufficient that noxious stimuli does not cause reflexes or excessive autonomic effects

A analgesia/amnesia

B delirium

C * surgical anesthesia

D medullary depression

1257 Characteristics of thiopental (Pentothal) administration:

A cough, laryngospasm, bronchospasm

B significant post-operative excitement or vomiting

C absolute contraindications in patients with acute intermittent porphyria or variegate porphyria

D * A & C

E A, B & C

1258 Clinical usage of narcotic analgetics

A relieves dyspnea in CHF

B reduces pulmonary edema and pain in myocardial infarction

C reduces preoperative pain

D none of above

E * All of above

1259 Clinical uses of morphine




D oncological patient for analgesia

E * All of above

1260 Clinical uses of diazepam (Valium):

A management of acute ethanol withdrawal

B termination of status epilepticus by high-dose oral administration

C reduction in amount of inhalational agent required

D * A & C

E B & C

1261 The clinical usage of diazepam (Valium) :



C insomnia

D * All of sbove

E None of above

1262 Clinical uses: morphine




D A & C

E * A, B & C

1263 Compared to morphine - fentanyl (Sublimaze)

A less amnestic

B more likely to provoke hypotensive responses

C increased duration of respiratory depression

D * none of the above

E All the above

1264 Component(s) of balanced anesthesia may include:

A muscle relaxants

B thiopental (Pentothal)

C midazolam (Versed)

D A & C

E * A, B & C

1265 Concerning measurement of anesthetic potency:

A anesthetic potency is determined by measuring brain anesthetic concentration

B * anesthetic potency is determined based on alveolar gas concentration

C both

D neither

1266 Considering enflurane (Ethrane), halothane (Fluothane), and isoflurane (Forane) - cardiac output is well maintained --

A enflurane (Ethrane)

B halothane (Fluothane)

C ketamine (Ketalar)

D * isoflurane (Forane)

1267 Contraindications for morphine use:

A Addison's disease

B acute asthma

C increased ICP


E * all the above

1268 Contraindications to diazepam (Valium) use:

A in children less than six months old (by tablet)

B acute narrow angle glaucoma

C untreated open angle glaucoma

D B & C

E * A, B & C

1269 Contraindications to the use of flumazenil (Romazicon)

A in seizure-prone individuals during labor and delivery

B in antidepressant overdosage

C * both

D neither

1270 Correct statement about Thiopental (Pentothal):

A excellent analgesic

B rapid recovery (20-30 minutes) due to rapid hepatic metabolism

C absence of respiratory depression

D * crosses the placental barrier, depressing the fetus

E significant cardiovascular effects, except in the presence of hypovolemia


A * Parkinson disease

B Pain

C Anesthesia

D Epilepsia

E Insomnia

1272 Desflurane (Suprane) anesthesia:

A * associated with laryngospasm and coughing

B relatively high solubility

C typically provides adequate muscle relaxation

D malignant hyperthermia may be a problem, as with enflurane (Ethrane)

E all the above


A Analeptical

B Narcotic

C * Anxiolytic

D Antipsychotic

E Anaesthetic


A * Thiopentalum

B Nitrous oxide


D Ketamin

E Sombrevin


A Levodopum

B Carbidopa

C * Cyclodolum

D Phenobarbital

E Nitrazepam

1276 Drug-drug interaction involving anticonvulsant agents and agents used in anesthesia protocols:

A phenytoin (Dilantin): may cause increased patient resistance to nondepolarizing muscle relaxant action

B Carbamazepine (Tegretol) because increased patient resistance to the action of nondepolarizing muscle relaxants

C * both

D neither

1277 During patient teaching, the nurse explains the difference between a sedative and hypnotic by stating:

A "Sedatives are much stronger than hypnotic drugs and should only be used for short periods of time."

B *"Sedative drugs induce sleep, whereas hypnotic drugs induce a state of hypnosis."

C "Most drugs produce sedation at low doses and sleep (the hypnotic effect) at higher doses."

D "There really is no difference; the terms are used interchangeably."



A * Antihypoxic

B Antipsychotic

C Analeptical

D Local anesthesia

E Psycho-motor stimulant


A * Pulmonary edema

B Insomnia

C Allergy

D Oppressing of breathing

E Cardiac arrhythmia

1280 Example(s) of benzodiazepines which may be useful as preoperative medication

A flumazenil (Romazicon)

B lorazepam (Ativan)


D * B & C

E A, B & C

1281 Example(s) of intravenous benzodiazepines used in anesthesia --

A diazepam (Valium)

B flumazenil (Romazicon)


D * A & C

E A, B & C

1282 Examples of intravenous opioids - used in anesthesia

A remifentanil (Ultiva)

B pentazocine (Talwain)

C alfentanil (Alfenta)

D * A & C

E A, B & C

1283 Halothane (Fluothane) -

A usually adequate analgesia

B Likely to provide adequate muscle relaxation

C commonly used in adults; less likely to be used in children

D * reversible reduction of GFR

1284 Inhalational agent least likely to increase heart rate in healthy individuals

A isoflurane (Forane)

B * halothane (Fluothane)

C desflurane (Suprane)

D sevoflurane (Sevorane, Ultane)

1285 Inhalational anesthetic most likely to cause EEG seizure activity

A sevoflurane (Sevorane, Ultane)

B desflurane (Suprane)

C * enflurane (Ethrane)

D isoflurane (Forane)

1286 Innovar --

A haloperidol (Haldol) + nitrous oxide

B chlorpromazine (Thorazine) + midazolam (Versed)

C droperidol (Inapsine) + nitrous oxide

D fentanyl (Sublimaze) + meperidine (Demerol)

E * fentanyl (Sublimaze) + droperidol (Inapsine)

1287 Isoflurane (Forane) anesthesia -

A rapid, smooth adjustment of depth of anesthesia with limited effects on pulse or respiration

B easily controlled depth of anesthesia

C significant renal toxicity

D * A & B

E A,B & C

1288 Isoflurane (Forane)-mediated increase in heart rate prevented by preoperative (just before induction) administration of:

A atropine

B fentanyl (Sublimaze)

C morphine

D * B & C

E A, B & C

1289 Isoflurane (Forane):

A minimal muscle relaxation

B * stimulates airway reflexes -- increasing secretions, coughing, and laryngospasm

C promotes uterine muscle contraction; desirable if uterine contraction is required to limit blood loss

D convulsive activity is associated with isoflurane (Forane), similar to enflurane

(Ethrane)

E all the above

1290 Least likely to produce a change in systemic blood pressure:


B enflurane (Ethrane)

C * nitrous oxide

D halothane (Fluothane)

E sevoflurane (Sevorane, Ultane)


A * Stimulation of dophaminergic processes in CNS

B Oppression of dophaminergic processes in CNS

C Stimulation of cholinergic processes in CNS

D Oppression of cholinergic processes in CNS

E Oppression of glutamatergic processes in CNS

1292 Mechanism BP reduction: isoflurane (Forane), desflurane (Suprane), sevoflurane

(Sevorane, Ultane):

A decreased heart rate

B decreased myocardial contractility

C decreased systemic vascular resistance

D * decreased cardiac output

1293 Metoclopramide (Reglan) --

A reduced efficacy if used following sodium citrate administration

B increased efficacy in reducing aspiration pneumonia risk if combined with ranitidine

(Zantac) before elective surgery

C both

D * neither

E All of the above

1294 Metoclopramide (Reglan):

A dopamine antagonist

B causes pylorus constriction

C causes duodenal constriction

D * increases gastroesophageal sphincter tone

E B & C

1295 Nitrous oxide advantages:

A excellent analgesia

B nonflammable

C very rapid onset and recovery

D A & C

E * A, B & C

1296 Nitrous oxide disadvantages

A no skeletal muscle relaxation

B weak anesthetic

C air pockets in closed spaces expand

D post-anesthesia hypoxia (diffusional hypoxia)


1297 Nitrous oxide:

A effective muscle relaxation

B * should not be used in the patient has occluded middle ear

C significant depression of myocardial contractility

D significant respiratory depression

E A, B & C

1298 Older adults who take long-acting sedatives or hypnotics are likely to experience:

A *Hallucinations

B Ataxia

C Alertness

D Dyspnea





C * Shortens the phase of rapid sleep

D Does not cause accumulation

E Does not activate microsomal enzyme system

1300 Phenothiazines as preanesthetic agents:

A antiemetic effects

B antiarrhythmic effects

C sedative effects

D A & C

E * A, B & C

1301 Postoperative nursing actions that will help the patient recover from the effects of anesthesia include:

A Ambulating once a day

B * Turning, coughing, and deep breathing every 2 hours

C Forcing fluids to 400 mL per shift

D Administering loperamide (Imodium) as needed


1302 Preoperative drug categories:

A histamine (H2) antagonists

B gastrokinetic agents

C opioids

D A & C

E * A, B & C

1303 Properties of inhalational anesthetics:

A More soluble in blood leads to more rapid induction.

B Anesthetic tension in the blood rises more rapidly for highly soluble drugs.

C * Brain concentration of nitrous oxide rises rapidly.

D Rate of pulmonary blood flow significantly affects time to anesthetic equilibrium.

E All the above


A Drying

B Anesthetic

C Irritating

D Disinfecting

E * Analgesic

1305 Propofol (Diprivan):

A similar to sufentanil (Sufenta)

B similar enflurane (Ethrane)

C * similar to thiopental (Pentothal)

D similar to ketamine (Ketalar)


A arrhythmogenic, due to reduced blood-pressure

B Rapid emergence with minimal postoperative confusion

C duration of anesthesia may be increased by combination with opioids

D * B & C

E A, B & C

1307 Rapid recovery time associated with remifentanil (Ultiva) use: Cause -

A fast renal excretion of unchanged drug

B rapid hepatic, cytochrome P450 metabolism

C * esterase-mediated inactivation

D A & C

E A, B & C

1308 Rationale for use of intravenous (fixed) anesthetic agents with inhalational agents:

A enhance or provide analgesia

B enable lower doses of inhalational agent to be used

C reduce visceral reflex responses

D B & C

E * A, B & C

1309 Reduction in mean arterial pressure following volatile anesthetic administration due to:

A direct pharmacological effects

B reduced sympathetic activation cause by preoperative anxiety

C * both

D neither

E all the above

1310 Relatively more effective in reducing secretions; less effective in preventing reflex bradycardia

A * scopolamine

B atropine

C both

D neither

E all the above

1311 The long-term phenobarbitale admininstration may cause

A Anaesthesia

B Tachyphylaxis

C * Material accumulation

D Blockade of microsomal enzymes

E Analgesia

1312 The cause of death from an overdose of barbiturates is:

A Tachycardia.

B Hypertension.

C Dyspnea.

D * Respiratory arrest.

E Constipation

1313 The drug Metoclopramide (Reglan) -




C both

D * neither


A Cyclodolum

B * Levodopum

C Difenin

D Karbamazepinum

E Phenobarbital


A * 3-5 min.

B 3-5 hours

C 20-30 min.

D 0,5-1 hours

E 20-30 sec.

1316 The goal of pharmacologic therapy in treating Parkinson's disease is to:

A Increase the amount of acetylcholine at the presynaptic neurons

B *Decrease the amount of dopamine available in the substantia nigra

C Balance cholinergic and dopaminergic activity in the brain

D Block dopamine receptors in both presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons


1317 The medicine for inhalation anesthesia is one of the following

A * Nitrous oxide

B Natrii oxybutyras

C Sombrevin

D Ketamin

E Propanidid

1318 The nurse administers phenytoin (Dilantin) intravenously at a rate no greater than:

A 10 mg/min

B 25 mg/min

C * 50 mg/min

D 100 mg/min


1319 The preparation for i.v. and i.m. anesthesia

A * Ketaminum

B Ether for anesthesia

C Nitrous oxide

D Phthorothanum

E Propanidid


A * Nitrous oxide

B Natrii oxybutyras

C Sombrevin

D Ketamin

E Propanidid


A Difenine

B Ethosuximidum

C * Nitrazepam

D Carbamazepine

E Ketaminum


A Phenobarbital

B Zopiclone

C * Dimedrolum

D Sibazone

E Nitrazepamum

1323 Thiopental (Pentothal):






1324 Typical effect, which develops during introduction to ether anesthesia

A * Protracted stage of excitation

B Does not irritate mucous membranes

C does not cause myorelaxation

D Rapid development of anesthesia

E Absence of sleep after narcosis


A Dryness

B Hypersalivation

C Stomatitis

D * Gingival hyperplasia

E Glossitis

1326 Unpredictable hepatitis occurrence has been one factor that reduce the use of this inhalational anesthetic:

A * halothane

B isoflurane

C enflurane

D desflurane

1327 Very brief anesthetic effects of this barbiturate is explained by "rapid redistribution":

A nitrous oxide

B halothane

C * thiopental

D fentanyl


A 70%

B * 96%

C 40%

D 76%

E 30%

1329 What is the drug for epilepsy treatment?

A Amitriptyline

B * Carbamazepine

C Magnesium sulfate

D Ketaminum

E Valerians

1330 When administering intravenous phenytoin (Dilantin), it is important to:

A Always use an infusion pump

B * Flush the line with 10 mL normal saline to prevent precipitation

C Administer through peripheral intravenous sites only

D Monitor for hypertension


1331 When assessing a patient for adverse effects related to morphine sulfate, which of the following would the nurse NOT expect

A Decreased peristalsis

B * Diarrhea

C Delayed gastric emptyin

D Common bile duct spasm


1332 When teaching a patient about levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet), the nurse responds based on knowledge that:

A *Carbidopa decreases levodopa's conversion in the periphery, increasing the levodopa available to cross the blood-brain barrier

B Carbidopa increases levodopa's conversion in the periphery, enhancing the amount of dopamine available to the brain

C Giving both drugs together minimizes side effects

D Carbidopa crosses the blood-brain barrier to increase the metabolism of levodopa to dopamine in the brain



A 96%

B * 70%

C 40%

D 30%

E 10%

1334 Which condition is a life-threatening emergency in which patients typically do not regain consciousness?

A * Status epileptics

B Tonic-clonic convulsions

C Epilepsy

D Primary epilepsy

E Hypertension.

1335 Which drug may be used early in the treatment of Parkinson's disease but eventually loses effectiveness and must be replaced by another agent?

A amantadine

B *levodopa

C сselegiline

D tolcapone


1336 Which drug would be used for the treatment of status epilepticus?

A phenobarbital

B * diazepam

C valproic acid

D phenytoin

E tramadol

1337 Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for a patient who has received a sedativehypnotic agent?

A *Alteration in tissue perfusion

B Fluid volume excess

C Risk for injury

D Risk for infection


1338 Which of the following is a possible side/adverse effect of phenobarbital therapy?

A Constipation

B Gingival hyperplasia

C * Drowsiness

D Dysrhythmias

E Hypertension.

1339 Which of the following is not true about intravenous infusion of phenytoin (diphenin)?

A * It should be injected quickly.

B It should be injected slowly.

C It should be followed by an injection of sterile saline.

D Continuous infusion should be avoided.



A Phenitoin

B * Phenobarbital

C Zopiclone

D Gidasepam

E Bromide

1341 Which type of barbiturate is used as an anesthetic for short surgical procedures?

A * Ultrashort

B Short

C Intermediate

D Long


1342 While admitting a patient for treatment of an acetaminophen overdose, the nurse prepares to administer which of the following medications to prevent toxicity?

A naloxone (Narcan)

B * acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

C methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)

D vitamin K


1343 While completing preoperative patient teaching, the nurse explains that general anesthesia:

A * Produces deep muscle relaxation and loss of consciousness

B Results in moderate sedation in which the patient can follow commands but will not remember anything following the procedure

C Provides anesthesia to a specific region of the body and generalized sedation

D Typically is achieved using only one type of medication



A * Narrow therapeutic window and expressed stage of excitation

B Increases heat beating and renders a diuretic action

C Strong irritative action

D Absence of prolonged stage of analgesia

E Causes chronic intoxication

1345 A 23-year-old has been taken to the emergency room for a suspected overdose of morphine tablets. Which agent may be used to treat this overdose?

A Demerol

B *Naprosyn

C aspirin

D Narcan


1346 A patient is admitted to the psychiatric unit for treatment of narcotic addiction. The nurse would anticipate administration of which of the following medications

A morphine

B methadone

C meperidine

D naloxone *


1347 A patient needs to switch analgesic agents secondary to an adverse reaction to the present regimen. The patient is concerned that he will not receive an effective dose of a new agent to control pain. The nurse responds based on knowledge that potencies of analgesics are determined using an analgesic table comparing doses with that of

A meperidine

B *fentanyl

C codeine

D morphine


1348 As aspirin depresses cyclooxygenas activity as he has anti-inflammatory action. What biology active substance level will decrease in such case?

A Iodothyronines.

B Cathecholamines.

C Leukotrienes.

D * Prostaglandins.

E Biogenic amines.

1349 Massage therapy is ordered as adjunct treatment for a patient with musculoskeletal pain. The patient asks the nurse how "rubbing my muscles" will help the pain go away. The nurse responds based on the knowledge that:

A *Massaging muscles decreases the inflammatory response that initiates the painful stimuli

B Massaging muscles activates large sensory nerve fibers that send signals to the spinal cord to close the gate, thus blocking painful stimuli from reaching the brain

C Massaging muscles activates small sensory nerve fibers that send signals to the spinal cord to open the gate and allow endorphins to reach the muscles and relieve the pain

D Massaging muscles helps relax the contracted fibers and decrease painful stimuli


1350

Mother, whose child suffered from dry cough that didn’t let her to sleep at night, consulted a pediatrician. What preparation can’t be used in such case?

A * Codeine.

B Libexyn.

C Tusuprex.

D Bromhexyn.

E Acetylcistein.

1351 Mr. Verdi recently competed in a marathon. After running 16 miles, he had to drop out because of severe muscle spasms. This type of pain is classified as:

A chronic pain.

B *somatic pain.

C visceral pain.

D superficial pain.


1352 Patient in unconsciousness entered the admission office, P-60/minute, AP-110/65, the skin was cold and humid, the pupil was miotic, reflexes, except tendon reflexes, were absent, breathing was periodical. What preparation has to be used at first?

A * Naloxone.

B Naporphine.

C Pentazosyn.

D Lobelini hydrochloride.

E Bemegride.

1353 The nurse is preparing to administer an injection of morphine to a patient. Assessment notes a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. The nurse should:

A *Administer a smaller dose and record the findings

B Notify the physician and delay drug administration

C Administer the prescribed dose and notify the physician

D Hold the drug, record the assessment, and recheck in 1 hour


1354 The patient 50 years old suffered from arthritic pain and morning muscle weakness for a long time. The patient used anti-inflammatory medicine, Butadione, without doctor’s prescriptions for a long time. What accessory effects can cause this preparation?

A * Dyspeptic disorders.

B Central nervous system depression.

C Hypothermia.

D Hypotension.

E Allergic reactions.

1355 The patient with nephrolithiasis suffered from acute spastic pain. Some narcotic analgesic, which hasn’t spasmogenic effect, was introduced to the patient with atropine for the prevention of the pain shock. What preparation was introduced to the patient?

A * Promedol.

B Tramadol.

C Piritramid.

D Etylmorphine hydrochloride.

E Morphine hydrochloride.

1356 The patient with unoperative gastric carcinoma was prescribed promedol for pain syndrome reducing. In time decreasing anesthetic effect, short length of action and acute increasing of pain by the whole body were marked with the patient. The doctor explained that it was:

A * Addiction developing.

B Tachyphylaxis appearing.

C Psychic dependence.

D Promedol can accumulate.

E Decreased resorption of promedol in renal tubule.

1357 Note the direct cerebral vasodilation:

A thiopental (Pentothal)

B etomidate (Amidate)

C * halothane (Fluothane)

D midazolam (Versed)

E propofol (Diprivan)

1358 Drug for general anesthesia with the widest range of narcotic action

A Nitrous oxide

B * Ether for anesthesia

C Sombrevinum

D Ethyl alcohol

E Thiopental

1359 A drug of choice in management of petit mal epilepsy:

A carbamazepine (Tegretol)

B primidone (Mysoline)

C * ethosuximide (Zarontin)

D phenytoin (Dilantin)

1360 A patient receiving narcotic analgesics for chronic pain can minimize the gastrointestinal (GI) side effects by:

A Taking Lomotil with each dose

B *Eating foods high in lactobacilli

C Taking the medication on an empty stomach

D Increasing fluid and fiber in the diet


1361 A primary goal in preanesthetic medication --

A reduction in the requirement for inhalational agents

B reduction in the acidity and volume of gastric contents

C * relief of preoperative pain

D reduction inside effects associated with some inhalational agents

1362 Accepted measure of anesthetic potency.

A lipid solubility

B speed of induction.

C presence of a "second gas effect"

D * minimum alveolar concentration (MAC value)

1363 Adverse effect(s): opioids used in preanesthetic medication

A biliary spasm



D B & C

E * A, B & C

1364 An analgesic is given to:

A produce sleep.

B relieve nausea,

C *relieve pain.

D reduce the level of consciousness prior to surgery.


1365 Anesthetic most likely to cause seizure activity


B * enflurane (Ethrane)

C isoflurane (Forane)

D Lidocaine


1366 Anesthetic or anesthetic combination least likely to change cerebral blood flow or cause direct cerebral vasodilation:

A ketamine (Ketalar)

B propofol (Diprivan)

C * nitrous oxide + intravenous anesthetic

D nitrous oxide + volatile anesthetics

E nitrous oxide alone

1367 Antagonizes droperidol (Inapsine)-mediated extrapyramidal side effects

A L-DOPA

B phentolamine (Regitine)

C * benztropine (Cogentin)

D propranolol (Inderal)

E none of the above

1368 Anticonvulsant medication and inhalational anesthetic use:

A Anticonvulsant medication should be slowly reduced in dosage and stopped several days before surgery

B * Phenobarbital (Luminal) may increase anesthetic agent metabolism

C Increased metabolism of volatile, halogenated anesthetics decrease organ toxicity risk

D the following surgery, anticonvulsant medication should be held until the patient is able to take the medication orally

1369 Apnea, non-reacted dilated pupils, circulatory failure, and hypertension are most likely associated with this stage of general anesthesia:

A amnesia/analgesia

B delirium

C surgical anesthesia

D * medullary depression

E All the above

1370 What drug is associated with malignant hyperthermia?

A halothane (Fluothane) (A)

B isoflurane (Forane) (B)

C * A and B

D neither

E

Anaprilin ©

1371 Benzodiazepines characteristic(s) that make these drugs useful as pre-anesthetics

A raise threshold for CNS toxicity of local anesthetics

B amnestic properties

C relatively little respiratory and cardiovascular depression

D B & C

E * A, B & C

1372 Benzodiazepines in anesthesia: may be used alone for procedures not requiring analgesic, including

A DC cardioversion

B some radiological procedures

C endoscopy

D cardiac catherization

E * all the above

1373 Benzodiazepines: Diazepam (Valium) pharmacology --

A advantage: combination with opioids do not result in significant cardiovascular depression

B Central nervous system depression can be reversed with naltrexone (ReVia)

C Effective analgesic

D * Associated with anterograde amnesia





D * Epilepsy treatment

E General anesthesia

1375 Cauntations for morphine use:

A Addison's disease

B acute asthma

C increased ICP


E * all the above

1376 Cautious use - benzodiazepines

A with impaired renal/hepatic function

B mental depression

C elderly

D drug abuse


1377 Central gaze, constricted pupils, regular aspirations, and the anesthetic depth is sufficient that noxious stimuli does not cause reflexes or excessive autonomic effects

A analgesia/amnesia

B delirium

C * surgical anesthesia

D medullary depression

E all the above

1378 Characteristics of thiopental (Pentothal) administration:

A cough, laryngospasm, bronchospasm

B significant post-operative excitement or vomiting

C absolute contraindications in patients with acute intermittent porphyria or variegate porphyria

D * A & C

E A, B & C

1379 Clinical usage of narcotic analgetics




D none of above

E * All of above

1380 Clinical uses of morphine




D oncological patient for analgesia

E * All of above

1381 Clinical uses of diazepam (Valium):




D * A & C

E B & C

1382 Clinical uses: morphine




D A & C

E * A, B & C

1383 Compared to morphine -- fentanyl (Sublimaze)

A less amnestic

B more likely to provoke hypotensive responses

C increased duration of respiratory depression

D * none of the above


1384 Component(s) of balanced anesthesia may include:

A muscle relaxants

B thiopental (Pentothal)


D A & C

E * A, B & C

1385 Concerning measurement of anesthetic potency:

A anesthetic potency is determined by measuring brain anesthetic concentration

B * anesthetic potency is determined based on alveolar gas concentration

C both

D neither


1386 Considering enflurane (Ethrane), halothane (Fluothane), and isoflurane (Forane) - cardiac output is well maintained -

A enflurane (Ethrane)

B halothane (Fluothane)

C ketamine (Ketalar)

D * isoflurane (Forane)

1387 Contraindications for morphine use:

A Addison's disease

B acute asthma

C increased ICP


E * all the above

1388 Contraindications to diazepam (Valium) use:

A in children less than six months old (by tablet)

B acute narrow angle glaucoma

C untreated open angle glaucoma

D B & C

E * A, B & C

1389 Contraindications to the use of flumazenil (Romazicon)

A in seizure-prone individuals during labor and delivery

B in antidepressant overdosage

C * both

D neither


1390 Correct statement about Metoclopramide (Reglan):





E none

1391 Correct statement about Thiopental (Pentothal):







A * Parkinson disease

B Pain

C Anesthesia

D Epilepsia

E Insomnia

1393 Desflurane (Suprane) anesthesia:

A * associated with laryngospasm and coughing

B relatively high solubility

C typically provides adequate muscle relaxation

D malignant hyperthermia may be a problem, as with enflurane (Ethrane)



A Analeptical

B Narcotic

C * Anxiolytic

D Antipsychotic

E Anaesthetic

1395 Droperidol (Inapsine) + fentanyl (Sublimaze):

A * neuroleptic analgesia

B dissociative anesthesia

C both

D neither



A * Thiopentalum

B Nitrous oxide


D Ketamin

E Sombrevin


A Levodopum

B Carbidopa

C * Cyclodolum

D Phenobarbital

E Nitrazepam

1398 Drug-drug interaction involving anticonvulsant agents and agents used in anesthesia protocols:

A phenytoin (Dilantin): may cause increased patient resistance to nondepolarizing muscle relaxant action

B Carbamazepine (Tegretol) because increased patient resistance to the action of nondepolarizing muscle relaxants

C * both

D neither



A * Antihypoxic

B Antipsychotic

C Analeptical

D Local anesthesia

E Psycho-motor stimulant


A * Pulmonary edema

B Insomnia

C Allergy

D Oppressing of breathing

E Cardiac arrhythmia

1401 Example(s) of benzodiazepines which may be useful as preoperative medication

A flumazenil (Romazicon)

B lorazepam (Ativan)


D * B & C

E A, B & C

1402 Example(s) of intravenous benzodiazepines used in anesthesia -

A diazepam (Valium)

B flumazenil (Romazicon)


D * A & C

E A, B & C

1403 Halothane (Fluothane) -

A usually adequate analgesia

B Likely to provide adequate muscle relaxation

C commonly used in adults; less likely to be used in children

D * reversible reduction of GFR


1404 In developing a plan of care for a patient receiving morphine sulfate, which of the following nursing diagnoses is a priority?

A Alteration in comfort: acute pain

B Risk for injury related to central nervous system (CNS) side effects

C *Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory depression

D Constipation related to GI side effects


1405 In monitoring a patient for adverse effects related to morphine sulfate, the nurse assesses for stimulation of:

A Autonomic control over circulation

B Cough reflex center

C * Vomiting center

D Respiratory rate and depth


1406 Inhalational agent least likely to increase heart rate in healthy individuals


B * halothane (Fluothane)

C desflurane (Suprane)

D sevoflurane (Sevorane, Ultane)


1407 Inhalational anesthetic most likely to cause EEG seizure activity

A sevoflurane (Sevorane, Ultane)

B desflurane (Suprane)

C * enflurane (Ethrane)

D isoflurane (Forane)


1408 Innovar -

A haloperidol (Haldol) + nitrous oxide

B chlorpromazine (Thorazine) + midazolam (Versed)

C droperidol (Inapsine) + nitrous oxide

D fentanyl (Sublimaze) + meperidine (Demerol)

E * fentanyl (Sublimaze) + droperidol (Inapsine)

1409 Isoflurane (Forane) anesthesia --

A rapid, smooth adjustment of depth of anesthesia with limited effects on pulse or respiration

B easily controlled depth of anesthesia

C significant renal toxicity

D * A & B

E A,B & C

1410 Isoflurane (Forane)-mediated increase in heart rate prevented by preoperative (just before induction) administration of:

A atropine

B fentanyl (Sublimaze)

C morphine

D * B & C

E A, B & C

1411 Isoflurane (Forane):

A minimal muscle relaxation

B * stimulates airway reflexes -- increasing secretions, coughing, and laryngospasm

C promotes uterine muscle contraction; desirable if uterine contraction is required to limit blood loss

D convulsive activity is associated with isoflurane (Forane), similar to enflurane

(Ethrane)


1412 IV opioid - anesthesia:

A hypotension not associated opioid use

B * For certain procedures, large-dose morphine can be used to obtain anesthesia

C both

D neither


1413 Ketamine (Ketalar) -

A reduced muscle tone

B * significant amnesia

C minimal analgesia

D A & C

E A, B & C

1414 Ketamine (Ketalar) anesthesia:

A awakening may be associated with bad dreams and hallucinations

B cardiovascular system -- typically depressed due to reduced sympathetic outflow

C useful (with diazepam (Valium)) in management of emergency surgery and certain pediatric radiological procedures

D * A & C

E A, B & C

1415 Least likely to produce a change in systemic blood pressure:


B enflurane (Ethrane)

C * nitrous oxide

D halothane (Fluothane)

E sevoflurane (Sevorane, Ultane)


A * Stimulation of dophaminergic processes in CNS

B Oppression of dophaminergic processes in CNS

C Stimulation of cholinergic processes in CNS

D Oppression of cholinergic processes in CNS

E Oppression of glutamatergic processes in CNS

1417 Mechanism BP reduction: isoflurane (Forane), desflurane (Suprane), sevoflurane

(Sevorane, Ultane):

A decreased heart rate

B decreased myocardial contractility

C decreased systemic vascular resistance

D * decreased cardiac output

E All the above

1418 Metoclopramide (Reglan)

A stimulates upper gastrointestinal motility

B may be administered orally or parenterally

C increases the rated gastric emptying

D does not guarantee complete gastric emptying


1419 Metoclopramide (Reglan) --




C both

D * neither

1420 Metoclopramide (Reglan):





E B & C

1421 Moderate-to-severe pain is best treated with:

A Acetaminophen.

B Naloxone.

C * ketanov

D Morphine sulfate.


1422 More potent then fentanyl (Sublimaze):

A alfentanil (Alfenta)

B * sufentanil (Sufenta)

C both

D neither


1423 Narcotic analgetics are: 1. Morphine, 2. Promedol, 3. Butadion, 4. Acetylsalicylic acid.

A * Correct answers: 1,2

B Correct answers: 1,3

C Correct answers: 3,4

D Correct answers: 1,4

E Correct answers: 2,4

1424 Nitrous oxide advantages:

A excellent analgesia

B nonflammable

C very rapid onset and recovery

D A & C

E * A, B & C

1425 Nitrous oxide disadvantages

A no skeletal muscle relaxation

B weak anesthetic

C air pockets in closed spaces expand

D post-anesthesia hypoxia (diffusional hypoxia)


1426 Nitrous oxide is characterized by

A Proper myorelaxation

B Prolonged stage of excitation

C Mucous membrane irritation

D * Expressed analgesia

E Deep anesthesia

1427 Nitrous oxide:

A effective muscle relaxation

B * should not be used in the patient has occluded middle ear

C significant depression of myocardial contractility

D significant respiratory depression

E A, B & C

1428 Opioids as preanesthetic medication:

A to provide sedation

B to reduce the amount of general anesthesia required

C * both

D neither





C * Shortens the phase of rapid sleep

D Does not cause accumulation

E Does not activate microsomal enzyme system

1430 Phenothiazines as preanesthetic agents:

A antiemetic effects

B antiarrhythmic effects

C sedative effects

D A & C

E * A, B & C

1431 Premedication assessments prior to administering an opiate agonist include all of the following except:

A Rating the level of pain on a scale.

B *prior analgesic use (time, type, amount, and effectiveness).

C Allergies.

D Blood clotting times.


1432 Preoperative drug categories:

A histamine (H2) antagonists

B gastrokinetic agents

C opioids

D A & C

E * A, B & C

1433 Properties of inhalational anesthetics:

A More soluble in blood leads to more rapid induction.

B Anesthetic tension in the blood rises more rapidly for highly soluble drugs.

C * Brain concentration of nitrous oxide rises rapidly.

D Rate of pulmonary blood flow significantly affects time to anesthetic equilibrium.



A Drying

B Anesthetic

C Irritating

D Disinfecting

E * Analgesic


A similar to sufentanil (Sufenta)

B similar enflurane (Ethrane)

C * similar to thiopental (Pentothal)

D similar to ketamine (Ketalar)



A arrhythmogenic, due to reduced blood-pressure

B Rapid emergence with minimal postoperative confusion

C duration of anesthesia may be increased by combination with opioids

D * B & C

E A, B & C

1437 Rapid recovery time associated with remifentanil (Ultiva) use: Cause -

A fast renal excretion of unchanged drug

B rapid hepatic, cytochrome P450 metabolism

C * esterase-mediated inactivation

D A & C

E A, B & C

1438 Rationale for use of intravenous (fixed) anesthetic agents with inhalational agents:

A enhance or provide analgesia

B enable lower doses of inhalational agent to be used

C reduce visceral reflex responses

D B & C

E * A, B & C

1439 Relatively more effective in reducing secretions; less effective in preventing reflex bradycardia

A * scopolamine

B atropine

C both

D neither


1440 Reverses respiratory depression cause by opioids:

A naloxone (Narcan)

B nalmefene (Revex)

C naltrexone (ReVia)

D A & C

E * A, B & C

1441 The long-term Phenobarbital administration may cause

A Anesthesia

B Tachyphylaxis

C * Material accumulation

D Blockade of microsomal enzymes

E Analgesia

1442 The adverse effect(s) of opioid used for preanesthetic medication is (are)

A biliary spasm



D None of above

E * All of above

1443 The drug Metoclopramide (Reglan) -




C both

D * neither



A Cyclodolum

B * Levodopum

C Difenin

D Karbamazepinum

E Phenobarbital


A * 3-5 min.

B 3-5 hours

C 20-30 min.

D 0,5-1 hours

E 20-30 sec.

1446 The medicine for inhalation anesthesia is one of the following

A * Nitrous oxide

B Natrii oxybutyras

C Sombrevin

D Ketamin

E Propanidid

1447 The nurse plans pharmacologic therapy for a patient with pain based on the knowledge that:

A *Narcotic analgesics should not be used for more than 24 hours secondary to the risk of addiction

B Analgesics should be administered as needed (prn) to minimize side effects

C Pain relief is best obtained by administering analgesics around the clock

D Patients should request analgesics when the pain level reaches a "6" on a scale of 1-10


1448 The nurse teaches a patient prescribed the fentanyl (Duragesic) transdermal delivery system to change the patch:

A When pain recurs`

B Every 24 hours

C * Every 72 hours

D Once a week


1449 The preparation for i.v. and i.m. anesthesia

A * Ketaminum

B Ether for anesthesia

C Nitrous oxide

D Phthorothanum

E Propanidid


A * Nitrous oxide

B Natrii oxybutyras

C Sombrevin

D Ketamin

E Propanidid


A Difenine

B Ethosuximidum

C * Nitrazepam

D Carbamazepine

E Ketaminum


A Phenobarbital

B Zopiclone

C * Dimedrolum

D Sibazone

E Nitrazepamum

1453 Thiopental (Pentothal):






1454 Typical effect, which develops during introduction to ether anesthesia

A * Protracted stage of excitation

B Does not irritate mucous membranes

C does not cause myorelaxation

D Rapid development of anesthesia

E Absence of sleep after narcosis


A Dryness

B Hypersalivation

C Stomatitis

D * Gingival hyperplasia

E Glossitis

1456 Unpredictable hepatitis occurrence has been one factor that reduce the use of this inhalational anesthetic:

A * halothane

B isoflurane

C enflurane

D desflurane


1457 Very brief anesthetic effects of this barbiturate is explained by "rapid redistribution":

A nitrous oxide

B halothane

C * thiopental

D fentanyl


1458 What belongs to narcotic analgesics?

A Acetylsalicylic acid.

B * Promedol

C Analgine.

D Paracetamol.

E Butadion.


A 70%

B * 96%

C 40%

D 76%

E 30%

1460 What group of preparations has to be combined with narcotic analgesics in case of neuroleptanalgesia?

A * Neuroleptics.

B Tranquilizers.

C Nonnarcotic analgesics.

D Barbiturates.

E Adrenergic antagonists.

1461 What is the analgesic action of morphine connected with?

A * Disorder of synaptic conduction on their pain-pathway to the central nervous system.

B Antipiretic activity.

C Inhibition of pain-mediators synthesis.

D Reduced manifestation of inflammation of peripheral tissue.

E Disorder of prostaglandin’s synthesis.

1462 What is the drug for epilepsia treatment?

A Amitryptilin

B * Carbamazepinum

C Magnesium sulfate

D Ketaminum

E Valeriana

1463 What medicine does belong to the narcotic analgesics?

A * Morphine.

B Acetylsalicylic acid.

C Analgin.

D Paracetamol.

E Butadion.

1464 What preparation does belong to the narcotic analgesics?

A * Morphine.

B Acetylsalicylic acid.

C Analgin.

D Paracetamol.

E Butadion.

1465 What preparation does belong to the nonnarcotic analgesics?

A * Paracetamol.

B Morphine.

C Omnopon.

D Promedol.

E Codeine phosphate.

1466 What preparation is an agonist-antagonist of opioid receptors?

A * Nalorphin.

B Morphine.

C Omnopon.

D Promedol.

E Phenthanil.

1467 What preparation is used for gastric lavage in case of morphine poisoning?

A * Potassium permanganate.

B Sodium permanganate.

C Sodium carbonate.

D Sodium hydrogen carbonate.

E Sodium chloride.

1468 What preparation is used for traumatic shock prevention?

A * Morphine.

B Codeine.

C Nalorphine.

D Paracetamol.

E Acetylsalicylic acid.

1469 What side effect is the most typical for acetylsalicylic acid?

A * Stomach ulcers.

B Hearing disorders.

C Renal toxicity.

D Liver toxicity.

E Edema.

1470 When assessing a patient for adverse effects related to morphine sulfate, which of the following would the nurse NOT expect

A *Decreased peristalsis

B Diarrhea

C Delayed gastric emptyin

D Common bile duct spasm


1471 When assessing for the most serious adverse reaction to a narcotic analgesic, the nurse is careful to monitor the patient's:

A *Respiratory rate

B Heart rate

C Blood pressure

D Mental status


1472 When is naloxon used?

A * Acute morphine poisoning.

B Chronic morphine poisoning.

C Atropin poisoning.

D POS poisoning.

E Barbiturate poisoning.

1473 When is narcotic analgesics used?

A Headache.

B * Oncological patients

C Neuralgia.

D Hyperemia.

E Toothache.

1474 When is nonnarcotic analgesics used?

A * Myalgia.

B Pain syndrome during myocardium infarction.

C Convulsions.

D Traumatic shock.

E Cough.


A 96%

B * 70%

C 40%

D 30%

E 10%

1476 Which of the following medications is used to treat a patient suffering from severe adverse effects of a narcotic analgesic?

A *naloxone (Narcan)

B acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)


D protamine sulfate



A Phenitoin

B * Phenobarbital

C Zopiclone

D Hidasepam

E Bromide

1478 Which preparation is effective for trigeminal neuralgia?

A Nitrazepam

B * Carbamazepine

C Sibazon

D Bromide

E Phenobarbital

1479 While admitting a patient for treatment of an acetaminophen overdose, the nurse prepares to administer which of the following medications to prevent toxicity?

A *naloxone (Narcan)

B acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)


D vitamin K



A * Narrow therapeutic window and expressed stage of excitation

B Increases heat beating and renders a diuretic action

C Strong irritative action

D Absence of prolonged stage of analgesia

E Causes chronic intoxication

1481 A child is noted to be taking imipramine (Tofranil), but the parents deny a history of depression. The nurse suspects that this child suffers from:

A Obsessive-compulsive disorder

B Absence seizures

C Manic episodes

D *Nocturnal enuresis


1482 A patient is admitted to the emergency department with an overdose of a benzodiazepine. The nurse immediately prepares to administer which of the following antidotes from the emergency drug cart?

A naloxone (Narcan)

B naltrexone (ReVia)

C nalmefene (Revex)

D * flumazenil (Romazicon)

E nitrous oxide

1483 A patient is admitted to the emergency department with an overdose of a benzodiazepine. The nurse immediately prepares to administer which of the following antidotes from the emergency drug cart

A naloxone (Narcan)

B *naltrexone (ReVia)

C nalmefene (Revex)

D flumazenil (Romazicon)


1484 A patient is admitted to the emergency department with an overdose of a barbiturate.

The nurse immediately prepares to administer which of the following from the emergency drug cart?

A naloxone HCl (Narcan)

B activated charcoal

C *flumazenil (Romazicon)

D ipecac syrup


1485 An elderly male with a history of coronary vascular disease (myocardial infarction and second degree heart block) presents with endogenous depression. Appropriate antidepressant medication would be:

A imipramine

B * fluoxetine

C phenelzine

D Amitriptyline

E All the above

1486 At the hands of nurse, working at the psychiatric unit during two years symptoms of neurodermatitis appears. What drug can cause such adverse effect?

A * Aminazine.

B Morphine.

C Paracetamole.

D Atropine.

E Diazepam.

1487 Leslie's husband Frank has been started on antidepressant therapy. She asks you, "How long will it take for him to feel better?" Your response should be:

A "Well, depression rarely responds to medication therapy."

B "He should be feeling better in a few days."

C *"It may take 4 to 6 weeks before you see an improvement."

D "You may not see any effects for several months."


1488 Patients taking antipsychotic medications may be periodically prescribed a "drug-free holiday." The nurse explains that the purpose of this is to help prevent:

A Noncompliance due to side effects

B Higher costs by decreasing amount of drug used

C Destructive behaviors by allowing patient to regain control

D *Tardif dyskinesia and other extrapyramidal reactions


1489 The mother of a child with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) wants to understand how a drug like methylphenidate (Ritalin), a CNS stimulant, can help her child who is hyperactive. The nurse's response is based on knowledge that:

A * Methylphenidate has a paradoxical effect in children

B Methylphenidate must be given along with a sedative-hypnotic for the treatment of

ADHD

C Amphetamines, in general, are not the drug of choice to treat ADHD

D Amphetamines decrease mental alertness and increase drowsiness, thus decreasing the

ADHD symptoms

E All of the above

1490 The nurse notes lithium on a patient's drug history upon admission. The nurse would suspect that this patient suffers from:

A Obsessive-compulsive disorder

B Absence seizures

C *Bipolar disorder

D Paranoid schizophrenia


1491 The patient instead aminasine was prescribed another neuroleptic. What drug belongs to this group?

A * Haloperidole.

B Phentanile.

C Paracetamol.

D Sibasone.

E Morphine.

1492 The patient's chart notes the administration of dantrolene (Dantrium) immediately postoperatively. The nurse suspects that the patient experienced:

A Delirium tremens

B * Malignant hyperthermia

C A tonic-clonic seizure

D Respiratory arrest

E Cardiac arrest

1493 Which of the following should the patient be cautioned against while taking an MAO inhibitor?

A Participating in a bowling league

B Sunbathing at the pool

C * Eating aged cheese

D Smoking a low-nicotine cigarette


1494 May induce a condition similar to endogenous depression:

A opioids

B corticosteroids

C * alcohol

D all of the above

E neither

1495 Administration of an MAO inhibitor would most likely cause changes in the CNS concentration of:

A acetylcholine

B histamine

C * norepinephrine

D serotonin

1496 After examining the patient was prescribed a remedy that is used in case of neurosis or neurosis-like situation, hyper excitability and irritability. What pharmacological group does this remedy belong to?

A Analgesics.

B * Anxiolytics.

C Analeptics.

D Antipsychotics.

E CNS stimulants

1497 All about levodopa-carbidopa is correct EXCEPT:

A used in combination to treat the symptoms of Parkinson's disease

B Take this medication with food

C Use this medication regularly to get the most benefit from it.

D * Carbidopa stimulate breakdown of levodopa in peripheral tissue

E All the above

1498 Aminazin, Droperidolum, Triphthasinum belong to

A Tranquilizers

B * Neuroleptics

C Antidepressants

D Analeptics

E Nootropic drugs

1499 An atypical antipsychotic medication useful for treatment of schizophrenia is:

A * Closapine.

B Morphine.

C Paracetamole.

D Atropine.

E Diasepame.

1500 An atypical antipsychotic medication useful for treatment of schizophrenia is:

A trazodone (Desyrel)

B phenelzine (Nardil)

C amoxapine (Asendin)

D * risperidone (Risperdal)


1501 Analeptics indication

A Psychical depression

B * Oppressing of breathing

C Postoperative atony of the intestine

D Hypertension crisis

E Insomnia

1502 Antidepressant therapeutic effects may not be seen for two to four weeks:

A serotonin-specific reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

B * tricyclic antidepressants

C both

D neither

E Nitrazepam

1503 Antidepressant used for treatment of endogenous depressions (schizophrenia, manicdepressive psychosis) is

A Proserine

B Caffeine

C * Amitriptyline

D Bemegridum

E Sibazon

1504 Antidepressant with relatively few cardiovascular side effects:

A phenelzine (Nardil)

B * paroxetine (Paxil)

C amitriptyline (Elavil, Endep)

D maprotiline (Ludiomil)

E protriptyline (Vivactil)

1505 Basic difference of neuroleptics from tranquilizers

A Anticonvulsant properties

B * Antipsychotic effect

C Do not affect the vegetative nervous system

D Do not intensify the action of anesthesia drugs

E Cause tachyphylaxis


A Antidepressive

B Anti cough

C * Breathing stimulation

D Dilation of vessels

E Memory increase


A * To provoke cramps and hypoxia of CNS

B To promote excitability of neurons of CNS

C To stimulate the centers of brain stem

D To promote arterial hypertension

E To stimulate breathing

1508 Benzodiazepine tranquilizers intensify the action

A Psychomotor stimulants

B * General anesthetics, analgesics, somnolents

C Analeptics

D Antidepressants

E Nootropic preparations

1509 Bupropion (Zyban), a second-generation antidepressant, is unique in that it is also used to:

A Treat orthostatic hypotension

B * Aid in smoking cessation

C Increase appetite in patients undergoing chemotherapy

D Treat nocturnal enuresis in children


1510 Buspirone:

A is effective in treating depression

B is cross-tolerant with benzodiazepines

C * does not produce significant levels of sedation

D is a benzodiazepine

E Has a rapid onset of action.

1511 Caffeine action caused by excitation of brain stem centers:

A Tranquilizer

B Improvement of memory


D Mental and physical capacity increase

E Tachycardia

1512 Caffeine is

A Analeptic and antidepressant

B * Analeptic and psychomotor stimulant

C Antidepressant and psychomotor stimulant

D Antidepressant and nootropic

E Analeptic and nootropic

1513 Caffeine is not used for cardiac insufficiency treatment due to its ability:

A * To increase oxygen consumption of myocardium

B To diminish oxygen consumption of myocardium

C To increase intensity of systole

D To diminish intensity of systole

E To cause bradycardia

1514 Characteristics of lithium toxicity:

A tremor

B diabetes insipidus

C * all of the above

D hypothyroidism

E changes in the electrocardiogram

1515 Characteristics of lithium toxicity:

A tremor

B diabetes insipidus

C * all of the above

D hypothyroidism

E changes in the electrocardiogram

1516 Dexamethasone-suppression test for depression: Correct statements about test results:

A The result is "positive" if plasma cortisol levels rise above 5 mg%

B False-positives occur in Cushing's disease.

C False-positives occur in Addison's disease.

D * A & B

E All of above

1517 Drug treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder in a patient with significant myocardial disease.

A clomipramine

B * fluvoxamine

C imipramine

D phenelzine

E none the above

1518 Drugs including the monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), tricyclic antidepressants

(TCAs), serotonin-specific reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), and serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are most

A * antidepressant

B CNS depressant

C analeptic

D none of above

E general anesthetics

1519 Drugs that affect plasma lithium levels:

A chlorothiazide

B indomethacin

C * both

D neither

E all of above

1520 Drugs that affect plasma lithium levels:

A chlorothiazide

B indomethacin

C amiodarone

D neither

E * A & B

1521 During patient teaching, the nurse explains the difference between a sedative and hypnotic by stating:

A "Sedatives are much stronger than hypnotic drugs and should only be used for short periods of time."

B "Sedative drugs induce sleep, whereas hypnotic drugs induce a state of hypnosis."

C * "Most drugs produce sedation at low doses and sleep (the hypnotic effect) at higher doses."

D "There really is no difference; the terms are used interchangeably."

E All of the above

1522 Effects associated with chronic lithium treatment:

A leukocytosis

B prerenal azeotemia

C lowered TSH serum levels

D * A & B

E All of above

1523 Extrapyramidal effects of drugs include all of the following except:

A spasmodic movement of limbs and the inability to sit still.

B * elation and a sense of well-being.

C parkinsonian-like symptoms (such as a mask-like facial expression),

D involuntary motor restlessness.


1524 Helpful in treating endogenous depression:

A tranylcypromine (Parnate)

B amitriptyline (Elavil, Endep)

C fluoxetine (Prozac)

D imipramine (Tofranil)


1525 Helpful in treating endogenous depression:


B amitriptyline (Elavil, Endep)

C fluoxetine (Prozac)



1526 How do we mark the neuroleptics effect of removing delirium and hallucinations

A * Antipsychotic

B Antivomiting

C Sedation

D Hypothermal

E Myorelaxation

1527 In order to reduce the GI side effects of orlistat (Xenical), the nurse encourages the patient to:

A Take the medication with an antacid

B * Limit dietary intake of fat to

C Supplement diet with fat-soluble vitamins

D Increase fluid and fiber in the diet

E All of the above

1528 Indicate the agents used in psychical depression:

A Aminazinum

B * Amitriptylline

C Piracetam

D Cavinton

E Diazepam

1529 Indicate the agents which belong to the analeptics:

A Coffeinum

B Piracetam

C * Cordiaminum

D Bemithylum

E Tinctura Ginseng

1530 Indicate the agents which belong to the analeptics:

A Coffeinum

B Piracetam

C Cavinton

D * Camphora

E Tinctura Ginseng

1531 Indicate the agents which belong to the psychostimulants:

A * Coffeinum

B Piracetam

C Cavinton

D Imizinum

E Tinctura Ginseng

1532 Indicate the analeptic with mixed type of action:

A * Camphora

B Bemegridum

C Cytitonum

D Lobelinum

E Coffeinum

1533 Indicate the application for use of analeptics:

A Arterial hypertension

B Bronchial asthma

C * Respiratory failure in shock

D Mental insufficiency

E Insomnia

1534 Indicate the application for use of piracetamum

A Bronchial asthma

B Hypertensive crisis

C Cardiac weakness

D * Mental insufficiency

E Insomnia

1535 Indicate the drug which non-selective inhibitor MAO:

A Fluoxetinum

B Moclobemide

C Imizinum

D * Nialamidum

E Maprotiline

1536 Indicate the drug which non-selectively inhibit neuronal reuptake of serotonine and noradrenaline in the CNS:

A Fluoxetinum

B Moclobemide

C * Imizinum

D Nialamidum

E Maprotiline

1537 Indicate the drug which selective inhibitor MAO-A:

A Fluoxetinum

B * Moclobemide

C Imizinum

D Nialamidum

E Maprotiline

1538 Indicate the drug which selectively inhibit neuronal reuptake of serotonine in the CNS:

A * Fluoxetinum

B Amitriptylline

C Imizinum

D Nialamidum

E Moclobemide

1539 Indicate the drug which selectively inhibit neuronal reuptake of noradrenaline in the

CNS:

A Fluoxetinum

B Amitriptylline

C Imizinum

D Nialamidum

E * Maprotiline

1540 Indicate the mechanism of action of coffeinum

A Blockade of monoaminoxidase(MAO)

B Activation of monoaminoxidase(MAO)

C Blockade of neuronal reuptake of serotonin and noradrenaline

D * Inhibition of phosphodiesterase

E Blockade of GABA-receptors

1541 Indicate the mechanism of action of imizine:

A Blockade of monoaminoxidase(MAO)

B Activation of noradrenaline

C * Blockade of neuronal reuptake of serotonin and noradrenaline

D Blockade of GABA-receptors

E Stimulation of adenosine receptors

1542 Indicate the properties of camphora:

A Sedative action

B Anesthetic action

C Cardiotonic action

D * Analeptic action

E Diuretic action

1543 Indicate the psychostimulants:

A * Coffeinum

B Piracetam

C Cavinton

D Imizinum

E Tinctura Ginseng

1544 Least likely to cause orthostatic hypotension:

A desipramine (Norpramin)

B * sertraline (Zoloft)

C doxepin (Sinequan)

D tranylcypromine (Parnate)

E amitriptyline (Elavil, Endep)

1545 Lithium in managing bipolar disorder in pregnancy:

A Due to changes in renal function during pregnancy, lithium clearance would decrease, necessitating an increase in dosage.

B A restricted salt diet will help insure safe lithium levels.

C

* Lithium can cross the placental barrier and cause Epstein’s anomaly in the newborn.

D B & C

E All the above

1546 Low potential for anticholinergic side effects:

A amitriptyline (Elavil, Endep)

B amoxapine (Asendin)

C desipramine (Norpramin)


E * sertraline (Zoloft)

1547 Mechanism of antipsychotic action of neuroleptics

A Blockade of cholinoreceptors in CNS

B * Blockade of dopamine D2-receptors in CNS

C Blockade of adenosine receptors in CNS

D Blockade of histamine receptors in CNS

E Activating of GABA-receptors in CNS

1548 Mechanism of myorelaxation of tranquilizers

A * Oppress the central mechanisms of muscular tonus

B Oppress an acetylcholinesterase

C Block M-cholinoreceptors of smooth muscles

D Block N-cholinoreceptors of skeletal muscles

E Direct influence on myofibrils of skeletal muscles

1549 Most likely to be effective in treating obsessive-compulsive disorder:

A imipramine (Tofranil)

B doxepin (Sinequan)

C * clomipramine (Anafranil)

D amitriptyline (Elavil, Endep)

E phenelzine (Nardil)

1550 Most likely to be prescribed first for management of mild to moderate depression:

A imipramine

B amoxapine

C * sertraline

D phenelzine

1551 Most likely to be prescribed first for management of mild to moderate depression:

A imipramine

B amoxapine

C * sertraline

D phenelzine

E dipheninum

1552 Musculoskeletal relaxants are most effective when used in conjunction with:

A Benzodiazepines.

B Bed rest.

C *physical therapy,

D Aspirin.


1553 Neuroleptic which rarely causes Parkinson syndrome due to its M-cholinoblocking activity

A Aminazine

B Rezerpine

C Haloperidolum

D * Clozapinum

E Etaperazin

1554 Neuroleptic, used for neuroleptanalgesia

A Aminazin

B Triftazin

C Levomepromazinum

D Haloperidolum

E * Droperidolum

1555 Neuroleptics are administered for:

A * Psychoses

B Neuroses

C Hyperkinesis

D Collapse

E Parkinson’s disease

1556 Nootropic drug (neurometabolic cerebroprotector)

A Caffeine

B Noradrenalinum

C * Piracetam

D Proserinum

E Cordiaminum


A Hallucinations

B * Ataxia

C Alertness

D Dyspnea

E Nausea and vomiting


A Hallucinations

B *Ataxia

C Alertness

D Dyspnea


1559 Pharmacological management of hypertensive crisis secondary to ingestion of typramine-containing foods by a patient treated with phenelzine:

A nitroprusside

B phentolamine

C * both

D neither

1560 Pharmacological management of hypertensive crisis secondary to ingestion of typramine-containing foods by a patient treated with phenelzine:

A nitroprusside

B phentolamine

C amiodarone

D neither

E * A, B

1561 Physiological effects associated with lithium treatment:

A fine hand tremor

B G.I. upset

C muscle weakness

D * all of the above

E neither

1562 Physiological effects associated with lithium treatment:

A fine hand tremor

B G.I. upset

C muscle weakness

D * all of the above

E neither

1563 Piracetamum nootropic activity reveals in

A Delirium and hallucinations

B Fear

C * Improvement of studying and memory

D Fatigue

E Depression

1564 Polyuria associated with lithium caused by:

A lithium-induced osmotic diuresis, similar to mannitor

B lithium inhibits sodium exchange in the ascending loop of Henle

C lithium activates carbonic anhydrase

D * Lithium inhibits ADH receptor.

E All of the above


A Proserinum

B Lidocaine


D * Bemegridum

E Ketamini hydrochloridum


A Piracetam

B Sydnocarb

C Natrii oxybutyras

D * Cordiaminum

E Amitriptyline

1567 Primary agent used in chronic management of mania in bipolar disorder:

A sufentanil (Sufenta)

B * lithium

C valproic acid (Depakene, Depakote)


E paroxetine (Paxil)

1568 Primary use of fluoxetine (Prozac):

A treating obsessive-compulsive disorder

B management of morbid obesity

C * treating endogenous depression

D management of alcohol withdrawal

E treating anxiety

1569 Prolonged administration of tranquilizers is limited due to their ability to cause:

A * Drug dependence

B Myorelaxation of central genesis

C Intensifying of analgesics action

D Somnolent effect

E Anticonvulsant effect

1570 Psychomotor stimulant

A Aethimizolum

B Bemegridum

C * Caffeine

D Cordiaminum

E Camphora

1571 Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) both function by:

A Blocking the reuptake of neurotransmitters at nerve endings

B Increasing alertness levels in the brain

C *Decreasing levels of epinephrine and serotonin at nerve endings

D Increasing the placebo effect


1572 Serotonin agonists are newer CNS stimulants used to treat:

A *ADHD.

B hypertension.

C с migraine headaches,

D narcolepsy.


1573 Side effects of this antidepressant include nausea, vomiting, and insomnia:


B * fluoxetine (Prozac)

C imipramine (Tofranil)

D amitriptyline (Elavil, Endep)

E doxepin (Sinequan)

1574 Significant atropine-like effects:

A paroxetine (Paxil)

B * imipramine (Tofranil)

C both

D neither


A * For medulla centers activation

B For endogenous depression

C For rheumatism

D For arterial hypertension

E For tachyarrhythmias

1576 The main complication after neuroleptics administration

A * Extrapyramidal disorders

B Arterial pressure increase

C Bradycardia

D Drug dependence

E Euphoria

1577 The doctor explains to a patient using caffeine that the following disease process/condition may be exacerbated by this drug:

A Myelin degeneration

B * Cardiac dysrhythmias

C Constipation

D Heart block

E Diarea

1578 The drug which after long-term administration causes phenomenon of bromism

A * Sodium bromide

B Sodium hydrocarbonate

C Sodium sulfate

D Sodium citrate

E EDTA (Trilonum B)

1579 The effect of Diazepam

A * Anxyolitic

B Antipsychotic

C Antivomiting

D Hypothermal

E M-cholinoblocking

1580 The effect of Ethaperazine

A Psychostimulative

B Provokes vomiting

C * Antivomiting

D Hypertensive

E Spasmolytic

1581 The excitation of benzodiazepine receptors is accompanied with:

A * Anxiolytic effect

B Antipsychotic effect

C Antivomiting effect

D Arterial pressure increase

E Arterial pressure decrease

1582 The mechanism of action of sodium bromide

A Excitation of M-cholinoreceptors in the brain

B * Intensifying processes of depression in the brain

C Intensifying processes of excitation in CNS

D Blockade of the histamine receptors in CNS

E Blockade of dopamine receptors in CNS

1583 The nurse monitors a patient taking an antipsychotic medication for extrapyramidal side effects, including:

A * Dystonia

B Orthostatic hypotension

C Dry mouth and constipation

D Neuroleptic malignant syndrome


1584 The patient on MAOI therapy must be taught to avoid tyramine-containing foods in order to prevent which medical emergency?

A Gastric hemorrhage

B Toxic shock

C Cardiac arrest

D * Severe hypertensive crisis


1585 The physician monitors a patient taking an antipsychotic medication for side effects, including:

A Hyper salivation

B Hypetension

C Diarrhea

D * Extrapyramidal syndrome

E Cramps

1586 The plant with sedative action

A * Valeriana

B Lemon

C Thermopsis

D Foxglove

E Strophanthus


A Paracetamole

B Proserine

C Amitriptyline

D * Caffeine

E Morphine

1588 The preparation, applied at neuroses

A Adrenaline

B Isadrine

C * Sibazon

D Cordiamine

E Atropine

1589 The symptoms of bromism (side effect of long-term bromides administration)

A * Acne rashes, somnolence, rhino rhea

B Excitation of CNS, dryness of mucous membranes

C Constipation, stomach-ache

D Tachycardia, insomnia

E Nausea, vomiting

1590 The tranquilizer is:

A Aminazin

B Morphinum

C * Sibazon

D Droperidolum

E Fentanil

1591 The tranquilizer, applied for premedication before an operation

A Nitrazepamum

B Haloperidolum

C * Diazepamum

D Droperidolum

E Aminazin

1592 The typical complication, developing after long-term administration of Aminasinum and other neuroleptics

A Euphoria

B Increase of arterial pressure

C Vomiting

D * Parkinsonism

E Bradycardia

1593 The typical complication, developing after prolonged usage of Diazepam and other tranquilizers

A * Drug dependence

B Extrapyramidal disorders

C Gastritis

D Bronchial asthma

E Arterial pressure increase

1594 The typical effect for all neuroleptics:

A * Antipsychotic

B Anti cough

C Expectorant

D Nootropic

E Psychostimulative

1595 The typical effect of tranquilizers of benzodiazepine row:

A Antipsychotic

B * Anxyolitic

C Hypothermal

D Antivomiting

E M-cholinoblocking

1596 Therapeutic index similar to that of digitalis:

A fluoxetine (Prozac)

B paroxetine (Paxil)

C * lithium

D sertraline (Zoloft)

E diazepam (Valium)

1597 Therapeutic use(s) of antidepressants include(s):

A severe anxiety disorder

B post-traumatic stress disorder

C panic-agoraphobia

D endogenous depression


1598 Therapeutic use(s) of antidepressants include(s):

A severe anxiety disorder

B post-traumatic stress disorder

C panic-agoraphobia

D endogenous depression


1599 Therapeutic uses of lithium salts:

A * Prophylaxis and treatment of bipolar disorders (manic-depressive disorder)

B Asthenia

C Insomnia

D Cardiac arrhythmia

E Epilepsy

1600 Tranquilizer with the expressed somnolent action

A Codeine

B Aminazin

C * Nitrazepamum

D Dimedrolum

E Ephedrine

1601 Treatment of anxiety not secondary to depression or other illness.

A fluoxetine

B * lorazepam

C triazolam

D all of the above

1602 Valerian and Motherwort preparations belong to the group

A Tranquilizers

B Neuroleptics

C * Sedative preparations

D Sleeping-pills

E Anticonvulsant preparations

1603 What medicine belongs to antipsychotics’?

A * Aminazine.

B Anaprilin.

C Sibazon.

D Sodium bromide.

E Caffeine.

1604 What medicine belongs to tranquilizers?

A Aminazine.

B * Sibazon.

C Haloperidol.

D Sodium bromide.

E Tincture of Valeriana.

1605 What preparation does belong to the sedative remedies?

A * Tincture of Valeriana.

B Aminasine.

C Haloperydole

D Sibazone.

E Chlozepide.

1606 What statement about Flumazenil is correct:

A * has been used as an antidote in the treatment of benzodiazepine overdoses

B Drugs that act as agonists of GABA receptors

C mediate many of the same symptoms as barbiturates

D sleeping medication and has a high index of toxicity

E it is anti-emetic

1607 When assessing for side effects expected in a patient taking analeptics, the nurse would monitor for:

A Bradycardia

B Hypotension

C Decreased mental alertness

D * Nervousness

E Diarrhea

1608 When giving hydroxyzine intramuscularly, what measures should be taken?

A * Use the Z-track method.

B Use a large-gauge needle.

C Apply an ice-pack to the site for 20 minutes,

D Divide the dose into two injections.


1609 Which diagnosis is appropriate for a patient who has received a sedative-hypnotic agent?

A Alteration in tissue perfusion


C * Risk for injury


E The risk of constipation

1610 Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for a patient who has received a sedativehypnotic agent?

A Alteration in tissue perfusion


C Risk for injury



1611 Which of the following is antidepressant

A * fluoxetin

B Cordiamine

C caffeine

D Aminazine

E diffenine

1612 Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored frequently to assess for a potential life-threatening adverse reaction to clozapine (Clozaril)?

A Renal panel

B * Complete blood count

C Liver function tests

D Immunoglobulin levels


1613 Which of the following statements correctly identifies the pharmacodynamics of central nervous system stimulants?

A CNS stimulants decrease the production of excitatory neurotransmitters

B * CNS stimulants increase the presynaptic amount of neurotransmitter

C CNS stimulants block the activity of inhibitory neurons

D CNS stimulants enhance the effects of phosphodiesterase and subsequent breakdown of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)

E All of the above

1614 Which of the following statements made by a patient demonstrates a lack of understanding of patient teaching regarding phenothiazine drug therapy?

A "I need to change positions slowly to prevent dizziness."

B "I will need to wear sunscreen and protective clothing when outdoors."

C * "It is okay to take this drug with a small glass of wine to help relax me."

D "I should call my doctor if I notice any uncontrollable movements of my tongue."


1615 Which of the following statements made by the patient reflects understanding of patient education?

A "I can just stop taking my Elavil and start taking the Celexa as ordered."

B * "I can expect fewer cardiovascular side effects such as orthostatic hypotension with the Celexa."

C "The doctor is switching me to this medication because it is less expensive but just as effective."

D "I will need to limit my intake of cheese when taking Celexa to prevent a rise in my blood pressure."


1616 Which preparation belongs to neuroleptics

A Chlozepid

B * Aminazinum

C Sibazon

D Phenazepamum

E Nitrazepamum

1617 Some asthmatic patients exhibit aspirin sensitivity (and sensitivity to other NSAIDS).

Daily administration of aspirin causes desensitization not only to aspirin also to other

NSAIDS. This phenomenon is:

A the placebo effect

B * cross-tolerance

C efficacy

D potency

E neither

1618 A patient suffers on the bronchial asthma during 10 years. Concomitant diseases are cardiac arrhythmias, tachycardia. What adrenomimetic is expediently to prescribe for the removal of bronchospasm taking into account the concomitant diseases?

A Salbutamol

B Ephedrine

C Noradrenalin hydrotartrate

D *Isadrin

E Adrenalin hydrohlorid

1619 A patient with the chronic bronchitis took mixture cough up which improve expectoration for a long time. However, in due course the cold (rhinitis), increasing secretion of tears, itching of skin appeared at him. What the mixture’s components could cause indicated side effects?

A Potassium iodidum

B Sodium hydrocarbonat

C *Potassium bromidum

D Acetycystein

E Terpihydrat

1620 A thirty-eight year old asthmatic that has been using beta adrenergic agonists for several years began to experience arrhythmias, premature atrial contractions. In order to suppress the arrhythmias, high-dose metoprolol therapy was started. Suggest a likely consequence:

A *The cardioselective beta-blocker, metoprolol, alleviated the arrhythmia and did not affect the patient's asthma symptoms

B Since metoprolol is a beta agonist, the patient's arrhythmias worsened, but symptoms of asthma improved.

C The expiratory component of the patient's flow/volume curve was shortened.

D Metoprolol increased airway obstruction, worsening the patient's asthma, but improved the cardiac rhythm disorder


1621 During treatment by cardiac glycosides the intoxication symptoms appeared. The doctor prescribed Unitiole. Which mechanism of action of Unitiole during intoxication by cardiac glycosides?

A Combining with ions Са2+

B Rise of concentration Na+ in myocardium

C

Rise of activity of АТP-аse

D * Combining of glycosides in complex

E Rise of potassium permeability

1622 For preventing an attack of bronchial asthma, the doctor prescribed to the patient sodium cromolyn. What is characteristic for this drug?

A *Stabilize of mast cells membranes

B Bind of free histamine,

C Blockade of histamine receptors

D Decreasing of immunoglobulin concentration

E Inactivation of histamine

1623 In patient, that suffers on the chronic cardio-vascular insufficiency in the process of digitalization the following symptoms appeared: head pain, fatigue, nausea, violation of coloured sight (the surrounding objects perceive in the green colour). Sinus bradycardia appeared on ЕCG and signs of violation of atrio-venrical conducting. Which medicine is it possible to apply for reduction of intoxication symptoms?

A *Unitiole

B Naloxone

C Bemegride

D Dipiroxime

E Atropine sulfate

1624 Patient complains on weakness, shortness of breath, edema of lower extremities.

Diagnosis — chronic cardiac insufficiency. Which medicine is it necessary to sick in the first turn?

A Adrenaline

B *Digitoxine

C Caffeine

D Raunatine

E Papaverine

1625 Patient got in the cardiologic department with phenomena of acute cardiac insufficiency. What is it necessary to apply in this case?

A Strophantin

B Amiodarone

C Adrenalin

D Digitoxine

E *Digoxine

1626 The physician orders ipratropium bromide (Atrovent), albuterol (Proventil), and beclomethasone (Vanceril) inhalers for your patient. The doctor should:

A Question the order; three inhalers should not be given at one time

B * Administer the bronchodilator first, wait 5 minutes, and administer the anticholinergic, followed by the corticosteroid several minutes later

C Administer each inhaler at 30-minute intervals

D Do none of the above

E All of the above

1627 The violations of cardiac rhythm, violation of sleep, delay of urination, arose up in patient with the cardiac insufficiency after the Digitoxine treatment. What is it necessary to use for renewal of activity Na+-K+-АТP-аse?

A *Unitiole

B

МАО

C Na- АТP

D Retabolile

E Аscorutine

1628 To the patient with acute bronchitis was prescribed a drug coughing up, after taking of what the vomiting arose up. What drug could cause the similar action?

A *Extract of Thermopsis

B Bromhexin

C Potassium iodidum

D Sodium hydrocarbonat

E Terpihydrate

1629 To the patient with acute bronchitis was prescribed an extract of Thermopsis for expectoration, after reception of what the vomiting arose up. What is the mechanism of expectorating action of this drug?

A *Reflex stimulate of vomiting centre

B Direct action on the vomiting centre

C Direct action on the coughing centre

D Destruction of molecule of sputum

E Increasing of motive activity of bronchial epithelium

1630 To the patient with chronic bronchitis are given inhalations of remedy that contains a sulfhydral group, and is able to renew the disulfide connections of glycoproteids and cause depolymerisation of albuminous components of sputum. What remedy is used?

A *Acetycystein

B Tripsin crystalline

C Rybonucleasa

D Sodium hydrocarbonat

E Salbutamol

1631 Unitiole is appointed to patient with the intoxication signs by cardiac glycosides.

Which mechanism of medical action of medicine in this situation?

A *Connection of glycoside with sulphhydril groups

B In. Combining with ions Са2+

C Increase of penetration К+ myocardiocytes

D Increase of concentration Na+ in myocardium

E Activate of membrane АТP-аse


A Proserinum

B Lidocaine


D * Bemegridum

E Ketamini hydrochloridum


A * Chronic bronchitis


C Gastritis

D Angina pectoris

E Arrhythmias

1634 Anti-asthma agent that acts in part by activating pulmonary beta-receptors thus increasing cAMP

A ipratropium

B * terbutaline

C cromolyn

D methoxamine

E Anaprillin

1635 Antihistaminic most likely to exhibit anticholinergic activity:

A * dimenhydrinate (Dramamine)

B astemizole (Hismanal)

C fexofenadine (Allegra)

D terfenadine (Seldane)

E loratidine (Claritin)


A Noradrenalinum

B * Salbutamolum

C Mesatonum

D Anaprilinum

E Reserpine

1637 Common side effect of first-generation H1 antagonists:

A Tachycardia

B pulmonary hypertension

C cholecystitis

D * sedation

E intraperitoneal fibroplasia

1638 Complications, arising up at codeine application as an antitussive mean

A * Constipation, medicinal dependence

B Tachycardia

C Tachypnoe

D Artery pressure increase

E Dryness in the mouth cavity

1639 Cordiamine is used at

A * Collapse

B Bronchial asthma

C Hypertensive disease

D Bronchitis

E Gastritis

1640 Correct drug: property combination

A theophylline: hepatic oxidation and demethylation

B albuterol: beta2 adrenergic blocker

C ipratropium bromide: well-absorbed quaternary anticholinergic; associated with dry mouth

D * Beclomethasone: enhances release of chemical mediators of bronchospasm which diminishes effectiveness of beta-2 adrenergic agonists.

E all

1641 Corticosteroids and the treatment of asthma:

A Corticosteroids relax smooth muscle

B * Corticosteroids inhibit the inflammatory response.

C Corticosteroids reduce patient responsiveness to beta agonists

D In acute asthma, corticosteroids increase airway obstruction; therefore corticosteroids should only be used for chronic treatment.

E all

1642 Cromolinum-natrium mechanism of action

A Blockage of adenosine A1- receptors in the bronchi

B * Mast cell membrane stabilization preventing allergy mediator release

C Stimulation of bata 2 - adrenoreceptors of the bronchi

D Blockage of bata 2 - adrenoreceptors of the bronchi

E

Blockage of м – cholinoreceptors of the bronchi




C Stimulation of beta2 - adrenoreceptors of the bronchi

D Blockage of beta 2 - adrenoreceptors of the bronchi

E Blockage of м – cholinoreceptors of the bronchi

1644 Drug treatment for hyperprolactinemia:

A bromocriptine (Parlodel)

B pergolide (Permax)

C * A, B

D insulinum

E neither

1645 Example of second-generation antihistamine:

A cyclizine (Marezine)

B diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

C * astemizole (Hismanal)

D cyproheptadine (Periactin)

E doxylamine


A * Beclometazoni dipropionat

B Dexametasonum

C Triamcinolonum

D Euphyllinum

E Cromolinum-natrium



B Dexametasonum

C Triamcinolonum

D Euphyllinum


1648 H2 blocker most likely to cause gynecomastia:

A ranitidine (Zantac)

B famotidine (Pepcid)

C * cimetidine (Tagamet)

D nizatidine (Axid)

E clonidine (Catapres)

1649 H2 Blocker most likely to inhibit P450 drug metabolizing system:

A ranitidine (Zantac)

B * cimetidine (Tagamet)

C famotidine (Pepcid)

D nizatidine (Axid)

E all inhibit equally

1650 Identify Phosphodiesterase-inhibitor used in asthma therapy:

A ipratropium bromide

B * aminophylline

C metaproterenol

D cyclosporine

E insulinum

1651 Identify type mediating urinary retention associated with first-generation H1 antagonists:

A adrenergic

B * cholinergic

C serotonergic

D GABA-ergic

E all of the above


A Bronchoectasis disease treatment

B * Bronchial asthma attack prevention

C Pneumonia treatment

D Gastritis treatment

E Angina pectoris treatment



B * Antitussive drugs

C Non-narcotic analgesics

D Mucolytics agents

E Stimulating breathing

1654 May precipitate acute asthma:

A exercise

B aspirin

C respiratory infection

D * A, B, C

E neither

1655 Indicate the mechanism of Salbutamol bronchodilation action

A Stimulation betta1 – adrenoreceptors of the bronchi

B * Stimulation betta2 - adrenoreceptors of the bronchi

C

Excitation of м – cholinoreceptors of the bronchi

D

Blockage of м-cholinoreceptors of the bronchi

E Blockage betta2 - adrenoreceptors of the bronchi

1656 Most likely to be effective and used in current therapy for duodenal ulcer

A atropine

B scopolamine

C * famotidine (Pepcid)

D cyproheptadine (Periactin)

E diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

1657 Non-neuronal site(s) of histamine storage and release:

A basophils

B enterochromaffin-like cells

C mast cells

D A & C

E * A, B & C

1658 Phosphodiesterase-inhibitor used in asthma therapy:


B * aminophylline

C metaproterenol

D cyclosporine

E insulinum

1659 Prophylactic antiasthmatic drug probably acts by preventing release of bronchoconstrictive mediators from mast cells:

A beclomethasone

B * cromolyn

C metaproterenol

D albuterol

E Anaprilin

1660 Receptor type mediating urinary retention associated with first-generation H1 antagonists:

A adrenergic

B * cholinergic

C serotonergic

D GABA-ergic

E all

1661 The expectorant medicine of reflexive action

A * Thermopsis preparations

B Acetylcysteine

C Trypsinum

D Natrii hydrocarbonate

E Ribonucleasa

1662 The most important pathophysiologic mechanism of mast cell and basophile histamine release:

A chemical (i.e. morphine)

B mechanical cell injury

C * immunologic

D all

E neither

1663 What are indication for treatment of Ketotifenum


B * Bronchial asthma attack prevention




1664 What is the mechanism of action of Cromolinum-natrium



C Stimulation of beta 2 - adrenoreceptors of the bronchi

D Blockage of beta 2 - adrenoreceptors of the bronchi

E Blockage of м – cholinoreceptors of the bronchi

1665 What is the most important pathophysiologic mechanism of mast cell and basophil histamine release:

A chemical (i.e. morphine)

B mechanical cell injury

C * immunologic

D all

E neither

1666 Which from medicines of cardiac glycosides has sedative action?

A *Infuse of Adonis vernalis grass

B Strophantin

C Celanide

D Digoxine

E Corglycone

1667 What are indication for treatment of Cordiamine

A * Collapse

B Bronchial asthma

C Hypertensive disease

D Bronchitis

E Gastritis

1668 What are common side effect of first-generation H1 antagonists

A Tachycardia

B pulmonary hypertension

C cholecystitis

D * sedation

E intraperitoneal fibroplasia


A * Chronic bronchitis


C Gastritis

D Angina pectoris

E Arrhythmias

1670 Adrenergic agonists include all EXCEPT:

A adrenaline

B noradrenaline

C Salbutamol

D Isadrine

E * digitoxine

1671 Adverse effects of beta2-adrenergic bronchodilators include all of the following

EXCEPT:

A Nervousness

B Headache

C Tachycardia

D * Bronchial spasm

E Tremulousness


A Antidepressive

B Anti cough


D Dilation of vessels

E Memory increase

1673 Bemegridum belongs to the group of



C * Analeptics

D Antidepressants

E Psychostimulant


A * To provoke cramps and hypoxia of CNS

B To promote excitability of neurons of CNS

C To stimulate the centers of brain stem

D To promote arterial hypertension

E To stimulate breathing



B * Mucolytics agents

C Non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs

D Antitussive preparations

E Analeptics



B *Mucolytics agents

C Non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs

D Antitussive preparations

E Analeptics


A Noradrenalinum

B * Salbutamol

C Mesatonum

D Anaprilin

E Reserpine

1678 Complication, arising at the overdose of the Thermopsis herb extract

A * Vomiting

B Bronchial asthma

C Arrhythmia

D Bradycardia

E Dryness in the mouth cavity




C Stimulation of beta2 - adrenoreceptors of the bronchi

D Blockage of beta2 - adrenoreceptors of the bronchi

E Blockage of M – cholinoreceptors of the bronchi

1680 Determine the indication for Potassium chloride administration

A * Acute poisoning with cardiac glycosides

B Bradycardia

C Prolonged Spironolactone administration

D Atrio-ventricular blockade

E Diabetes mellitus

1681 Discharge teaching to a patient receiving a beta-agonist bronchodilator should emphasize reporting which of the following side effects?

A * Tachycardia

B Nonproductive cough

C Hypoglycemia

D Sedation

E Hyperglycemia



B Dexametasonum

C Triamcinolonum

D Euphyllinum


1683 How can the cardiac glycosides influence the conducting system of the heart?

A *They decrease the conducting of the impulses

B They accelerate the conducting of the impulses

C They shorten the interval between auricle and ventricle contraction

D They increase the heart automatism

E They diminish the ion Ca2+ in the myocardium cells

1684 Indicate a route of Strophantin introduction.

A *Intravenously

B Intramuscular

C Hypodermic

D Per os

E Inhalation

1685 Indicate drug of cardiac glycosides with the longest latent period.

A *Digoxine

B Strophanthine

C Corglycone

D Celanide

E Infuse of Adonis vernalis grass

1686 Indicate the peculiarity of Furosemide action

A Slow effect development

B * Fast effect development

C The duration of action (10-14 days)

D Low diuretic activity

E It doesn’t influence K concentration in the blood

1687 Indicate the route of introduction of Strophantin

A Intramuscular

B Per os

C Hypodermic

D *Intravenously

E Inhalation

1688 Indicate, which from kinds of action of cardiac glycosides is basic?

A *Strengthening a retractive myocardium function

B Increase of diuresis and reduction of edema

C Increase of minute volume of heart

D Increase of shock volume of heart

E Appearance of extrasystolia

1689 Ipratropium bromide is

A analgesic

B * M -cholinoblocker, bronchodilator

C analeptic

D antifoam

E cardiac glycoside



B *Bronchial asthma attack prevention






B *Antitussive drugs

C Non-narcotic analgesics

D Mucolytics agents

E Stimulating breathing

1692 Manifestations of theophylline toxicity may include all of the following EXCEPT:

A tremors

B seizures

C tachyarrhythmias

D vomiting

E * hyperkalemia

1693 Mast cell stabilizers are most effective in treating bronchoconstriction associated with:

A Emphysema

B Exposure to cold

C * Allergens

D Infection

E Tachycardia

1694 Mechanism of Cordiamine stimulant influence on breathing


B Reflex action on a respiratory center

C *Mixed action on a respiratory center

D Intensive contraction of all the respiratory muscles

E Intensive contraction of the diaphragm

1695 Mechanism of Cytitone stimulant influence on breathing


B *Reflex action on a respiratory center

C Mixed action on a respiratory center

D Intensive contraction of the intercostals muscles

E Intensive contraction of the diaphragm

1696 Mechanism of Salbutamol bronchodilator action

A Stimulation of beta 1 – adrenoreceptors of the bronchi

B *Stimulation of beta 2 - adrenoreceptors of the bronchi

C Excitation of м – cholinoreceptors of the bronchi

D

Blockage of м-cholinoreceptors of the bronchi

E Blockage of beta2 - adrenoreceptors of the bronchi

1697 Myotropic bronchodilator

A adrenaline

B norepinephrine

C * teophylline

D all of above

E none of above

1698 Phosphodiesterase-inhibitor used in asthma therapy:


B *aminophylline

C metaproterenol

D cyclosporine



A Piracetam

B Sydnocarb

C Natrii oxybutyras

D * Cordiaminum

E Amitriptyline

1700 Prophylactic antiasthmatic drug probably acts by preventing release of bronchoconstrictive mediators from mast cells:

A beclomethasone

B *cromolyn

C metaproterenol

D albuterol


1701 Regarding its actions, cromolyn is best described as:

A bronchoconstrictor

B anticholinergic

C beta agonist

D *inhibitor of mast cell degranulation

E glucocorticoid


A * For medulla centers activation

B For endogenous depression

C For rheumatism

D For arterial hypertension

E For tachyarrhythmia

1703 The cardiotonic (positive inotropic, systolic) action of the cardiac glycosides is explained by

A Its effect on the central nervous system

B The reflector action of the carotid sinuses

C *The direct action on the Na-K pump of the membrane cardiomyocytes

D The excitation of the vagus nerve

E The oppression of myocardium adrenoreceptors

1704 The cardiotonic agent oppressing phosphordiesterase

A Adrenaline

B *Milrinone

C Dophaminum

D Dobutaminum

E Diazoline

1705 The cumulation of the cardiac glycosides depends on

A The solubility of the cardiac glycosides in fats

B The speed of the cardiac glycosides absorption

C *Fast interaction with the blood plasma proteins

D Solubility of the cardiac glycosides in water

E All mentioned above


A * Thermopsis preparations

B Acetylcysteinum

C Trypsinum


E Ribonucleasa


A *Thermopsis preparations

B Acetylcysteinum

C Trypsinum


E Ribonucleasa

1708 The non-glycoside cardiotonic drug

A Corglyconum

B *Dobutaminum

C Digoxinum

D Celanidum

E Strophanthinum K


A Paracetamole

B Proserine

C Amitriptyline

D * Caffeine

E Morphine

1710 Theophylline, ethacrynic acid, and furosemide:

A don’t influence on diuresis

B *increase urine volume

C are not effective in the treatment of congestive heart failure

D decrease PS

E have antianginal activity

1711 To choose antitussive drugs of central action from group of narcotic analgesics

A Libexine

B Glauvent

C *Codeine

D Mucaltin

E Pertussin

1712 To indicate a drug of myotropic action for the medical treatment of bronchial asthma

A Atropine sulfate

B *Euphylline

C Salbutamol

D Isadrine

E Berotec

1713 To indicate a drug, the antifoam production action of which uses for edema of lungs

A *Alcohol ethyl

B Euphylline

C Salbutamol

D Ephedrine

E Isadrine

1714 To indicate a reflex action drug of coughing up (expectoration)

A Potassium iodidum

B Tripsin

C Dezoxyrybonucleasa

D Sodium hydrobromidum

E *Extract of Thermopsis

1715 To indicate a stimulator of breathing which acts reflex

A Cordiamin

B Bemegrid

C *Lobelin

D Caffeine

E Camphor

1716 To indicate drug of cardiac glycosides with the shortest latent period.

A *Strophantin

B Digoxine

C Digitoxine

D Infuse of Adonis vernalis grass

E Celanide

1717 To indicate the ways of Salbutamol introduction for the removal of bronchospasm

A Hypodermic

B *Inhalation

C Intravenously

D Intramuscular

E Per rectum

1718 To indicate, which from drugs is antidote during intoxication by cardiac glycosides?

A *Unitiole

B Nalorophine

C Sodium chloride

D Tannin

E Atropine sulfate

1719 To mark a drug which can provoke bronchospasm and that is why it is contraindicated in patients with bronchial asthma

A Salbutamol

B *Anaprilin

C Isadrine

D Ephedrine

E Euphylline

1720 To name medicine to potassium which is used in case of poisoning cardiac glycosides?

A Potassium bromide

B Potassium permanganate

C Potassium iodine

D Potassium acetate

E * Potassium chloride

1721 To name medicine to potassium which is used in case of poisoning cardiac glycosides?

A Potassium bromide

B Potassium permanganate

C Potassium iodine

D Potassium acetate

E *Potassium chloride

1722 To note antifoam drug used for lung edema treatment

A Anaprilin

B Diphenine

C * Alcohol

D epinephrine

E digitoxin

1723 To note antifoam drug used for lung edema treatment

A Anaprilin

B Diphenine

C * Alcohol

D epinephrine

E digitoxin

1724 What drug from group of cardiac glycosides is not used for the acute cardiac insufficiency?

A *Digitoxine

B Digoxine

C Strophanthine

D Celanide

E Corglycone

1725 What effect can be observed at the prolonged cardiac glycosides administration?

A Tachyphylaxis

B *Material accumulation

C Drug dependence

D Oppression of the CNS

E Violation of liver functioning

1726 What is the basic mechanism of the fluid excretion from the organism and of the edema reduction caused by the cardiac glycosides at cardiac insufficiency?

A The speeding of the cardiac rate

B The stimulating of the kidney secretion

C The reduction of potassium ion reabsorbing in kidneys

D *The liquidation of the venous congestion

E The reduction of the speed of bloodstream

1727 What is the characteristic feature of the cardiac glycosides positive inotropic effect?

A *Increase of the cardiac contraction

B Increase of systole duration

C Reduction of diastole duration

D Reduction of the cardiac contraction

E

Acceleration of conducting impulses on Hiss’s bundle

1728 What percent of Strophantin elimination?

A * 60%

B 20%

C 30%

D 80%

E 100%

1729 When assessing for a therapeutic effect of acetylcysteine (Mucomyst), the nurse would expect to find:

A Decreased cough reflex

B Decreased nasal secretions

C * Liquefying and loosening of bronchial secretions

D Relief of bronchospasms

E Decreased cough reflex and nasal secretions

1730 When teaching a patient about cromolyn sodium, the doctor stresses that:

A Cromolyn can only be given at bedtime secondary to sedating side effects

B The capsule should not be opened when administered orally

C They can expect a therapeutic response within 12 hours

D * Cromolyn is not effective in treating an acute asthma attack

E Do none of the above

1731 What coefficient of Digitoxine elimination?

A *10%

B 30%

C 50%

D 80%

E 100%

1732 Which drug is administered at the cardiac insufficiency (systole form):

A *Digoxinum

B Diazepam

C Cordiamine

D Dimedrol

E Adrenalin

1733 Which effect does exist in case of application of cardiac glycosides?

A *Strengthening and shorten of systole

B Tachycardia

C Reduction of diuresis

D Rise of vein pressure

E Increase of edema

1734 Which extracardiac action is character for cardiac glycosides?

A *Diuretic

B Somnolent

C Antibacterial

D Choleretic

E Psychostimulant

1735 Which from medicines of cardiac glycosides are used only at the chronic cardiac insufficiency?

A Norepinephrine

B Corglycone

C Strophanthine

D *Digoxine

E Celanide

1736 Which of the following drug for intravenous injection is used at the acute cardiac insufficiency for immediate cure effect:

A Diazolinum

B Caffeine

C *Strophanthinum K

D Adonisidum

E Unithiolum

1737 Which of the following drug-mechanism of action pairs is properly matched?

A * digoxin - inhibits Na+ - K+ ATPase pump

B dobutamine - inhibits MAO

C amrinone - inhibits ACE

D dopamine - inhibits ACE

E acebutolol - stimulate beta 2 adrenergic receptors

1738 Which of the following is a common side effect of antitussive medications?

A * Drowsiness and dizziness

B Diarrhoea and abdominal cramping

C Tremors and anxiety

D Headache and hypertension

E Hypotension

1739 Which of the following is antifoam drug used in case of lung edema?

A aspirin

B Diphenine

C * Alcohol

D epinephrine

E digitoxin

1740 Which of the following over-the-counter products, when taken with theophylline, can decrease theophylline's serum drug levels?

A Caffeine

B diphenhydramine

C * St. John's wort

D echinacea

E Furosemid

1741 Which of the following over-the-counter products, when taken with theophylline, can decrease theophylline's serum drug levels?

A Caffeine

B Diphenhydramine

C * St. John's worth

D Echinacea

E Furosemide

1742 Which of the following pharmacologic agents antagonize adenosine?

A *theophylline

B Glucocorticoid

C cromolyn sodium

D propranolol

E atropine

1743 Which of the following statements would be included when teaching a patient about the proper use of metered-dose inhalers?

A "After you inhale the medication once, repeat until you obtain relief."

B "Make sure that you puff out air repeatedly after you inhale the medication."

C * "Hold your breath for 10 seconds if you can after you inhale the medication."

D "Hold the inhaler in your mouth, take a deep breath, and then compress the inhaler."

E All of the above

1744 Which of the following work through cholinergic receptor antagonism?

A Isadrine

B Cromolyn

C Ephedrine

D *Ipratropium

E Salbutamol

1745 Which phenomenon does develop in case of repeated application of cardiac glycosides?

A *Cumulating

B Tachyphylaxis

C Tolerance

D Medical dependence

E Sensibilisation

1746 Why cannot be taken the codeine for reduction of cough for a long time?

A The phenomenon of tachyphylaxis arises up

B *Cause a narcotic dependence

C Diminishes efficiency

D Has nephrotoxic action

E Has hepatotoxic action

1747 With what aim do we use an alcohol ethyl at oedema of lungs?

A *For stopping foam production

B For reduction of circulatory blood volume

C For the removal of bronchospasm

D For stimulating a respiratory centre


1748 Beta2-adrenomimetics include:

A *Isadrinum

B Adrenalini hydrochloridum

C Salbutamolum

D Atropini sulfas

E Methacinum

Text Test Questions (pictures)

1 This information should be written in the box (Fig. 16) “The name of the medication you are being prescribed. The dosage or strength of the medication. The amount or quantity of medication to be dispersed.”

A G

B A

C E

D C*

E D

2 Abbreviation that is used in prescription for the following medical form is (Fig. 1)

A supp. *

B susp.

C tab.

D p.o.

E syr.

3 Route of the following medical form administration is (are) (Fig. 1)

A rectal and vaginal*

B only rectal

C parenterally

D only vaginal

E orally

4 All about this form is correct EXCEPT (Fig. 4)

A soft medicinal products for local application

B is intended for application to skin and its appendages, wounds, ulcers, certain mucous membranes

C can be divided for external application, nasal, ear, eye, rectal, vaginal, ointment for inhalations

D Depending on a base can be hydrophobic (carbohydrate basis — Vaseline, Vaseline oil, paraffin etc.), hydrophilic (a water-soluble basis).

E soft medicinal products for local application, which contain up to 2 % of hard substances.*

5 All about this pharmaceutical form is correct EXCEPT (Fig. 6)

A the solid pharmaceutical form with a soft or hard coating

B contains one doze of one or more acting substances

C The ground mass of them is intended for per oral applications

D Their coating is made of gelatin or other substances

E The firm pharmaceutical form used for local application*

6 Capsules is marked by number (Fig. 24)

A 1

B 2*

C 5

D 3

E 4

7 Correct statement about this pharmaceutical form is (Fig. 10)

A pharmaceutical form, which consists of solid, dry, sufficiently strong aggregates of powder particles

B Liquid pharmaceutical form, consisting of a solvent (water, extracts of plant raw material, alcohol, glycerin, etc.)

C liquid pharmaceutical form, which consists of natural juice with or without addition of medicinal substances

D soft medicinal products for local application, in the form of suspensions containing a significant amount (usually above 25 %) of solid dispersion phase distributed in a base

E soft medicinal products for local application, contains one or more active substances and excipients which form a simple or complex base *

8 Correct statement about pharmaceutical form on the Fig. 13

A Concentrated preparations of liquid, solid and dense consistence, usually obtained from dried plant and animal raw material.

B Pharmaceutical forms of a liquid, astringent consistence from the natural, purified honey with addition of medicinal substances or extracts from plant raw material.

C The soft pharmaceutical form, cylinder-shaped with pointed or rounded end.

D Soft medicinal products for local application, contains one or more active substances and excipients which form a simple or complex base.

E The solid pharmaceutical form, containing a doze of one or more acting substances.

The majority of them are intended for oral applications. *

9 Everything about noted form is correct EXCEPT (Fig. 9)

A The dosed pharmaceutical form

B Solid at room temperature

C Are dissolved or melted at a body temperature

D They contain one or more acting substances, dispersed or soluble in a simple or complex basis which can be dissolved, dispersed, melted at body temperature

E Pharmaceutical form, which consists of solid, dry, sufficiently strong aggregates of powder particles*

10 Everything about this form is correct EXCEPT (Fig. 7)

A The solid pharmaceutical form, containing a dozen of one or more acting substances

B The majority are intended for per oral applications

C This form for direct per oral application can be divided into those without modified release (regular, gastric release) or with modified release (enteric-release tablets, i.e. resistant to the effect of gastric juice owing to coating or excipients', prolonged release

— the tablets intended to control rate or site of release)

D Added to this firm composition may be excipients, which have different functions, dyes, flavors, etc.

E Is intended only for local application. *

11 Noted in the picture medical form of the drug is (Fig. 19)

A soft

B solid

C firm

D liquid *

E none of above

12 Noted in the picture medical form of the drug is (Fig. 19)

A Solution for injection

B Solution for external usage

C Suspension

D Tincture *

E none of above

13 Noted in the picture medical form of the drug is dosed by (Fig. 19)

A table spoon

B gram

C milligram

D drop *

E none of above

14 Note correct statement about pharmaceutical form in the picture (Fig. 2)

A are intended for nasal, ear application (by inflation), and also for inhalations

B the pharmaceutical form which is a mix of several kinds cut, large-grinded or solid pharmaceutical plant raw material, sometimes with addition of salts, ether oils or other medicinal substances

C are intended for external application

D solid pharmaceutical form prepared as sweets and looks like bar

E the solid pharmaceutical form with a soft or hard coating, contains one doze of one or more acting substances, its coating is made of gelatin or other substances *

15 Note the correct statement about this pharmaceutical form (Fig. 19)

A liquid pharmaceutical form, which is alcoholic or hydroalcoholic extracts from pharmaceutical plant or animal raw material *

B liquid pharmaceutical form, representing solutions, suspensions or emulsions which contain one or more acting substances in similar solvents

C is intended for external, internal, parenteral application, etc.

D soft medicinal products for local application which are one, two- or multiphase dispersion systems

E the pharmaceutical form, consisting of a cylinder, valve-spraying system and contents of varying consistence

16 Number 1 in the picture Fig. 11 is

A soft gelatin capsule *

B tablets

C ointment

D hard gelatin capsule

E inhaler


A hard gelatin capsule *

B tablets

C ointment

D soft gelatin capsule

E Inhaler


A Capsule

B Tablets *

C Ointment

D Solution for oral usage

E Inhaler


A Capsule

B Tablets

C ointment

D Solution for oral usage*

E Inhaler


A Capsule

B Tablets

C ointment


E Ampoule *


A Capsule

B Tablets

C ointment


E Inhaler*

22 Pharmaceutical form of the drug is (Fig. 7)

A coated tablets *

B Pastilles

C Films (inserts

D Powders

E Spansules

23 This medical form in LATIN is (Fig. 1)

A Suppositorium *

B Infusion

C Suspension

D Pulvis

E Liquor

24 To note the pharmaceutical form (Fig. 6)

A soft

B indifferent

C solid *

D Para pharmaceutical

E additional

25 To note the pharmaceutical form (Fig. 6)

A coated tablets

B tablets for solution for external application

C tablets for disinfection solution

D Capsule*

E Granules

26 The pharmaceutical forms in the picture is (Fig. 17)

A Galen

B New-Galen

C Firm (solid) *

D Soft

E Liquid

27 The pharmaceutical forms in the picture is (Fig. 14)

A Solid*

B soft

C liquid

D indifferent

E non-specific

28 To note the pharmaceutical form of the drug (Fig. 5)

A tincture

B tablets for solution for external application

C tablets for disinfection solution

D Dragee *

E Granules

29 What is in the picture? (Fig.8)

A Tablets *

B coated tablets

C vaginal tablets

D chewing tablets

E none of above


A Tablet*

B capsule

C suppository

D Pastilles

E Powder

31 What pharmaceutical forms are on the picture (Fig. 14)?

A tablets, capsules, pills *

B Collections, briquettes, plasters

C Suppositories, spangles, chewing tablets

D Powders, pastilles

E All of above


A Tablet*

B capsule

C suppository

D Patch

E Powder


A Tablet

B Capsule

C Ointment

D Patch *

E Powder


A Tablet

B Capsule

C Ointment*

D Patch

E Powder

35 Ampoule is marked by number (Fig. 11)

A 1

B 2

C 3

D 4

E 5*

36 Inhaler is marked by number (Fig. 11)

A 1

B 2

C 3

D 4

E 6*

37 Hard gelatin capsule is marked by number (Fig. 11)

A 1

B 2*

C 3

D 4

E 5

38 Soft gelatin capsule is marked by number (Fig. 11)

A 1*

B 2

C 3

D 4

E 5

39 Tablet is marked by number (Fig. 11)

A 1

B 2

C 3*

D 4

E 5

40 Solution for internal usage is marked by number (Fig. 11)

A 2

B 3

C 1

D 4*

E 6


A Solutions for parenteral administration should be sterile.*

B This pharmaceutical form, presenting a mixture of medicinal product with concentrated solution of sugar or any other sweetener.

C This liquid pharmaceutical form, containing different kinds of plant mucilage in form of solution or suspension

D This liquid pharmaceutical form, which contains as a disperse phase one or more active substances dissolved or dispersed in the appropriate solvent.

E None of above

42 In the box A (Fig. 16) it is necessary to write

A The doctor's name and contact information*

B Patient name, address, date of birth (or age).

C The name of the medication you are being prescribed. The dosage or strength of the medication. The amount or quantity of medication to be dispersed.

D The directions for taking the medication

E The physician's signature.

43 In the box B (Fig. 16) it is necessary to write

A The doctor's name and contact information

B Patient name, address, date of birth (or age).*

C The name of the medication you are being prescribed. The dosage or strength of the medication. The amount or quantity of medication to be dispersed.


E The physician's signature

44 In the box C (Fig. 16) it is necessary to write

A The doctor's name and contact information

B Patient name, address, date of birth (or age).

C The name of the medication you are being prescribed. The dosage or strength of the medication. The amount or quantity of medication to be dispersed.*


E The physician's signature

45 The doctor's name and contact information.

This information should be write in the box (Fig. 16)

A G

B A *

C B

D C

E D

46 The directions for taking the medication. This information should be write in the box (Fig.

16)

A G

B E *

C B

D C

E D

47 Patient name, address, date of birth (or age). It is important to note that a prescription is only prescribed for only one person, the person named on the prescription

This information should be write in the box (Fig. 16)

A G

B A *

C B

D C

E D

48 What medicinal form is it? (Fig. 22)

A Ampoule*

B bottle

C Controlled-release pharmaceutical formulation

D Transdermal parch

E Nebulizer

49 What medicinal form is it? (Fig. 23)

A eye drops*

B bottle

C Controlled-release pharmaceutical formulation

D solution for external use

E Nebulizer

50 Number 1 in the picture (Fig. 24) is

A tablets *

B hard capsules

C coated tablets

D granules

E Syrups


A tablets

B hard capsules *

C coated tablets

D granules

E Syrups


A tablets

B hard capsules

C coated tablets*

D granules

E Syrups


A tablets

B hard capsules

C coated tablets

D granules *

E Syrups


A tablets

B hard capsules

C coated tablets

D granules

E Syrups*


A It is solutions for parenteral administration and should be sterile.

B This liquid pharmaceutical form, which is alcoholic or hydroalcoholic extracts from pharmaceutical plant or animal raw material

C This liquid pharmaceutical form, containing different kinds of plant mucilage in form of solution or suspension

D This liquid pharmaceutical form, which contains as a disperse phase one or more active substances dissolved or dispersed in the appropriate solvent.*

E None of above

56 All statements about this agent are correct EXCEPT (Fig. 35)

A Intravenous form of drug can be used as a tocolytic to relax the uterine smooth muscle to delay premature labor

B It is a short-acting beta2-adrenergic receptor agonist used for the relief of

bronchospasm in conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

C The most common side effects are of fine tremor, nervousness, headache, muscle cramps, dry mouth, and palpitation.

D It is used to treat hypertension (high blood pressure) and benign prostatic hyperplasia

(enlarged prostate).*

E It is usually given by the inhaled route for direct effect on bronchial smooth muscle

57 All statements about this antihypertensive agent are correct EXCEPT (Fig. 28)

A a higher degree of beta-1-selectivity compared to other beta-1-selective beta-blockers

B It has a stronger antihypertensive effect than propranolol.

C It is recommended to use in patients with a history of asthma or bronchospasm

D Side effects - fatigue, coldness of the extremities, sleep disturbances with nightmares*

E It has been shown to be cardioprotective



B It has a strong antihypertensive effect

C It is recommended to use in patients with bradycardia

D Side effects - fatigue, coldness of the extremities, sleep disturbances with nightmares*

E It has been shown to be cardioprotective



*

B It is in a group of drugs called alpha-adrenergic blockers.

C It causes the blood vessels (veins and arteries) to relax and expand, improving blood flow.

D It is used to treat hypertension (high blood pressure) and benign prostatic hyperplasia

(enlarged prostate), sleep disturbances with nightmares

E Patient may feel very dizzy when you first wake up. Be careful when standing or sitting up from a lying position

60 All statements regarding this agent are correct EXCEPT (Fig. 33)

A is a catecholamine with dual roles as a hormone and a neurotransmitter.

B Norepinephrine is released when a host of physiological changes are activated by a stressful event.

C It is recommended to use in patients with a history of hypertension *

D Norepinephrine is mainly used to treat patients in vasodilator shock states such as septic shock and neurogenic shock

E It performs its action by being released into the synaptic cleft, where it acts on adrenergic receptors, followed by the signal termination, either by degradation of norepinephrine, or by uptake by surrounding cells.

61 Clinical use of this drug (Fig. 29) is

A hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). *

B ventrical tachycardia

C hypotension

D Gout

E lung edema

62 Correct statement(s) about following drug (Fig. 35) is (are)

A a short-acting beta2-adrenergic receptor agonist used for the relief of bronchospasm

B The most common side effects are of fine tremor, nervousness, headache, muscle

cramps, dry mouth, and palpitation

C Can be aerosolized with a nebulizer for patients

D It is also finds use in obstetrics

E All above statements are correct *

63 Explain the process or structure of the synapse in Fig. 30 Site 1

A Uptake of choline (active transport, potential site for the design of cognition enhancers) *

B Biosynthesis of acetylcholine (ACh)

C Release of ACh

D Postsynaptic receptors (main target for drug action).

E Metabolism of ACh by acetylcholinesterase (AchE).

64 Explain the process or structure of the synapse in Fig. 30 in Site 2

A Uptake of choline (active transport, potential site for the design of cognition enhancers)

B Biosynthesis of acetylcholine (ACh) *

C Release of ACh






C Release of ACh *






C Release of ACh

D Postsynaptic receptors (main target for drug action). *





C Release of ACh


E Metabolism of ACh by acetylcholinesterase (AchE).*

68 Pharmacological group of the drug in the Fig. 32

A Beta adrenergic agonist

B Beta adrenergic antagonist

C Alpha, Beta adrenergic agonist *

D Sympatholytic

E Sympathomimetic

69 Possible routes of this drug (Fig. 33) administration

A only IV *

B IV, IM

C IV, IM,SC

D orally

E only IM

70 The following drug (Fig. 25) is used for

A skeletal muscle relaxation during surgical operation*

B treatment of shock

C decreasing of AP

D Asthma treatment

E None of above

71 This drug (Fig. 32), produces which of the following therapeutic effects

A Urinary retention


C Increased heart rate and contractility *

D Decreased intestinal motility

E All of above

72 This drug (Fig. 33), produces which of the following therapeutic effects

A Urinary retention


C Contraction of the vessels, increasing of AP *

D Decreased intestinal motility

E All of above

73 This drug (Fig. 29) may be used to treat hypertension and:

A Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

B Heart failure

C Heart block

D Supraventricular arrhythmias

E Benign prostatic adenoma *

74 To note pharmacological group of the following drug (Fig. 26)

A beta1 receptor selective antagonist*

B beta2 receptor selective antagonist

C alpha1 receptor selective agonist

D alpha1 receptor selective agonist

E beta receptor non selective antagonist


A beta1 receptor selective antagonist*

B beta2 receptor selective antagonist

C alpha1 receptor selective agonist

D alpha2 receptor selective agonist

E alpha receptor non selective antagonist


A beta1 receptor selective antagonist

B beta 2 receptor selective antagonist

C beta 1 receptor selective agonist

D alpha 1 receptor selective agonist

E beta receptor non selective antagonist*

77 To note the pharmacological group of the drug (Fig. 25)

A beta adrenoblocker

B adrenergic stimulant

C sympathomimetic

D None of above *

E alpha adrenoblocker

78 To the patient (men) with hypertension following drug (Fig. 29) was prescribed. Which of the following statements the most suitable explain this choice?

A It is a drug of choice for man with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and hypertension *

B It is effective in treating persons with pulmonary congestion

C It is effective in treating persons with renal insufficiency

D Evaluate the patient for other symptoms of doxazozin toxicity

E

It doesn’t have serious adverse effects

79 When assessing for cardiovascular effects of this agent (Fig. 32), the physician understands that these drugs produce

A positive inotropic, positive chronotropic, and positive dromotropic effect*

B positive inotropic, negative chronotropic, and negative dromotropic effect

C negative inotropic, negative chronotropic, and negative dromotropic effect

D negative inotropic, positive chronotropic, and positive dromotropic effect

E negative inotropic, negative chronotropic, negative dromotropic, effect negative bathmotropic effect

80 When teaching a patient about the following drug (Fig. 26), it is important to inform the patient that:

A This medication may be taken with antacids to minimize GI distress

B Hot baths and showers will help enhance the therapeutic effects and are encouraged

C Alcohol intake is encouraged for its vasodilating effects

D Abrupt medication withdrawal may lead to a rebound hypertensive crisis *

E It is used only for young people with symptomatic hypertension

81 To note the pharmacological group of the drug (Fig. 31)

A beta adrenoblocker

B M- cholinoblocker*

C adrenergic stimulant

D Ganglion blocker

E None of above

82 Adverse effects of the following drug (Fig.31) are

A hypotension, palpitations

B tachycardia, constipation

C Mydriasis

D All of above*

E None of above

83 Pharmacological group of the following drug (Fig.31) is

A M cholinergic antagonist*

B Beta 2 antagonist

C Ganglion blocker

D Beta 2 agonist

E Beta 1,2 antagonist

84 All about following drug (Fig.47) is correct EXCEPT

A It decreases bronchiole secretions.

B It is a tropane alkaloid extracted from deadly nightshade (Atropa belladonna), jimsonweed (Datura stramonium), mandrake (Mandragora officinarum) and other

plants of the family Solanaceae.

C It increases firing of the sinoatrial node (SA) and conduction through the atrioventricular node (AV) of the heart, opposes the actions of the vagus nerve

D It is not antidote for organophosphate poisoning*

E Atropine is contraindicated in patients pre-disposed to narrow angle glaucoma.

85 All about following drug (Fig.47) is correct EXCEPT

A It has anticholinergic properties

B is a tropane alkaloid drug

C It acts as a competitive antagonist at muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, specifically

M1 receptors;

D It is used only orally *

E Due to its effectiveness against sea-sickness it has become commonly used by scuba divers

86 Common side effects of this drug (Fig. 49) are

A ventricular fibrillation, supraventricular or ventricular tachycardia

B dizziness, dry mouth, blurred vision, loss of balance

C dilated pupils, photophobia

D extreme dissociative hallucinations, and excitation

E all of above *

87 Common side effects of this drug (Fig. 49) are all of above EXCEPT

A ventricular fibrillation, supraventricular or ventricular tachycardia

B dizziness, dry mouth, blurred vision, loss of balance

C dilated pupils, photophobia

D extreme dissociative hallucinations, and excitation

E bronchoconstriction, increased salivation, miosis *

88 Following drug (Fig. 48) is used for all mentioned EXCEPT

A Treatment of nausea and motion sickness

B Treatment of intestinal cramping

C As a preanesthetic agent

D It is used in eye drops to induce mydriasis (pupillary dilation) and cycloplegia

(paralysis of the eye focusing muscle), primarily in the treatment of eye disorders that benefit from its prolonged effect, e.g. uveitis, iritis, iridocyclitis, etc.

E It is used for glaucoma treatment*

89 Following drug (Fig. 48) is used for

A Treatment of nausea and motion sickness

B Treatment of intestinal cramping

C As a preanesthetic agent

D Is used in eye drops to induce mydriasis (pupillary dilation) and cycloplegia (paralysis of the eye focusing muscle), primarily in the treatment of eye disorders that benefit from its prolonged effect, e.g. uveitis, iritis, iridocyclitis, etc.

E All of above *

90 For the treatment of the noted (Fig. 50) disease can be used

A galantamine *

B atropine

C scopolamine

D acethylcholine

E cholinesetrase

91 Indication(s) to the following drug (Fig. 47) is (are)

A As an antidote for inadvertent overdose of cholinergic drugs or for cholinesterase poisoning such as from organophosphate insecticides

B As an antisialogogue when reduction of secretions of the respiratory tract are thought to be needed;

C To temporarily increase heart rate or decrease AV-block until definitive intervention can take place, when bradycardia or AV-block are judged to be hemodynamically significant

D As an antidote for the "rapid type of mushroom poisoning due to the presence of the alkaloid muscarine, in certain species of fungus such as Amanita muscaria

E All of above *

92 Mechanism of action of what drug is in the picture (Fig. 51)?

A xycaine

B atropine *

C acethylcholine

D proserine

E tanin

93 Mechanism of action of what group drugs is in the picture (Fig. 51)?

A local anaesthetic

B m -cholino antagonist *

C m -cholino agonist

D indirect action cholinergic stimulants

E sympathomimetic agents

94 Neurotransmitter receptors in the picture (Fig. 52) is number

A 1

B 2

C 3 *

D 4

E none

95 Neurotransmitter in the picture (Fig. 52) is number

A 1

B 2*

C 3

D 4

E none


A neurotransmitter *

B synaptic cleft

C neurotransmitter vesicle

D receptor

E presynaptic receptor


A neurotransmitter *

B synaptic cleft


D Post synaptic receptor



A neurotransmitter

B synaptic cleft


D Post synaptic receptor*



A neurotransmitter

B synaptic cleft *


D post synaptic receptor


100 Synaptic cleft in the picture (Fig. 52) is number

A 1

B 2

C 3

D 4 *

E none

101 Synaptic vesicle in the picture (Fig. 52) is number

A 1 *

B 2

C 3

D 4

E none

102 The patient with asthma was prescribed the following drug (Fig.31)

Correct statement about is

A It is an anticholinergic bronchodilator *

B It is an adrenergic bronchodilator

C it is used as local anesthetic

D it is cholinergic agonist

E None of above

103 The patient with myasthenia gravis the following drug (Fig. 53) was prescribed.

A It inhibits acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft, thus slowing down the hydrolysis of acetylcholine in somatic nerves *

B Neurotransmitters are endogenous chemicals which relay, amplify, and modulate signals between a neuron and another cell.

C One of the most important features of chemical synapses is that they are the site of action for the majority of psychoactive drugs

D Acetylcholine is distinguished as the transmitter at the neuromuscular junction connecting motor nerves to muscles

E ACh is always used as the transmitter within the autonomic ganglion.

104 The pharmacological group of the drug (Fig. 54) is

A cholinesterase inhibitor *

B M cholinergic agonist

C cholinergic antagonist

D myorelaxant

E ganglioblocker

105 The pharmacological group of the drug (Fig. 48) is

A cholinesterase inhibitor

B M cholinergic agonist

C M cholinergic antagonist *

D myorelaxant

E ganglion blocker

106 All statements about the following drug (Fig. 41) are correct EXCEPT

A It belongs to the group of medicines known as benzodiazepines

B It can be used to relieve a wide range of conditions including anxiety (worry), convulsions (fits) caused by epilepsy or fever, sleep problems, muscle spasms and sedation before surgery.

C It works by affecting activity in the part of the brain that controls emotion and also by relaxing muscles.

D It is available in tablet, oral solution and injection.

E It belongs to the group of medicines known as narcotic analgesics.*

107 All statements concerning this medicine (Fig. 72) are correct EXCEPT

A It has been shown, especially at its low therapeutic dose, selectively to inhibit COX-2 over COX-1.

B It is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug of the oxicam class, used to relieve the symptoms of arthritis, primary dysmenorrhea, and fever; and as an analgesic, especially where there is an inflammatory component.

C Its use can result in gastrointestinal toxicity and bleeding, tinnitus, headache, rash, very dark or black stool (sign of intestinal bleeding).

D The risk of adverse side effects is higher than with piroxicam, diclofenac, or naproxen.*

E It does inhibit thromboxane A, it does not appear to do so at levels that would interfere with platelet function.

108 All statements about this drug (Fig. 36) are correct EXCEPT

A It is a highly selective COX-2 inhibitor

B It contains a sulfonamide moiety and may cause allergic reactions in those allergic to other sulfonamide-containing drugs

C It inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2*

D It increased risk for heart attack and stroke

E It is used in the treatment of osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, acute pain, painful menstruation and menstrual symptoms

109 Clinical uses of (Fig 41):

A termination of status epilepticus

B management of acute ethanol withdrawal


D All of above *

E None of above

110 Clinical uses (Fig 44):




D None of above

E All of above*

111 Contraindication(s) and caution(s) to this drug is (are) (Fig 39):

A concurrent peptic ulcer, or history of ulcer disease

B children under 2 years of age

C severe pre-existing renal and liver damage

D Parkinson's disease, epilepsy, psychotic disorders

E All of above *

112 Correct statement about pharmacology of the following drug (Fig 72) is

A It has been shown, especially at its low therapeutic dose, selectively to inhibit COX-2 over COX-1*

B directly targets COX-2, an enzyme responsible for inflammation and pain

C irreversible inactivation of the cyclooxygenase (COX) enzyme

D It is considered a non-selective COX inhibitor

E It is considered a selective COX-1 inhibitor

113 Correct statement about this drug pharmacology (Fig 43) is (Thiopental sodium)

A It is an ultra-short-acting barbiturate and has been used commonly in general anesthesia *

B It is a psychoactive drug whose core chemical structure is the fusion of a benzene ring and a diazepam ring.

C It is prescribed for acute psychosis or mania

D It is effective as premedication given a couple of hours before surgery to relieve anxiety

E It has strong hypertensive effect

114 Correct statement(s) about the following drug (Fig 41):

A It belongs to the group of medicines known as benzodiazepines

B It can be used to relieve a wide range of conditions including anxiety (worry), convulsions (fits) caused by epilepsy or fever, sleep problems, muscle spasms and sedation before surgery.

C It works by affecting activity in the part of the brain that controls emotion and also by relaxing muscles.

D It is available in tablet, oral solution and injection.

E All of above are correct *

115 For the patient with osteoarthritis injection of the following drug was prescribed. All information about this medicine (Fig 40) is correct EXCEPT

A It is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)

B It is taken to reduce inflammation and as an analgesic reducing pain in conditions such as arthritis or acute injury.

C It can also be used to reduce menstrual pain, dysmenorrhoea.

D It has anti-inflammatory, antipyretic , analgesic actions

E It is recommended to the patient with ulcer disease or ulcerative colitis *

116 For the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis patient was prescribed noted drug (Fig 36).

All information which physician explain patient is correct EXCEPT

A It is licensed for use in osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, acute pain, painful menstruation and menstrual symptoms etc.

B It is a highly selective COX-2 inhibitor

C It contains a sulfonamide moiety and may cause allergic reactions in those allergic to other sulfonamide-containing drugs

D possibility of increased risk for heart attack and stroke in users of it

E high risk of stomach ulceration and GI bleeding in users of it*

117 Indication to the following drug (Fig. 43) is

A General anesthesia *

B Local anesthesia

C Hypertension

D Parkinson syndrome

E Headache

118 Most common side-effects include (Fig. 41)

A All of above *

B Somnolence, depression

C Impaired motor function: Impaired coordination, Impaired balance, Dizziness and nausea

D Anterograde amnesia, impaired learning

E None of above

119 Note the indication of drug (Fig. 37)

A Parkinson disease*

B Parkinson syndrome

C Epilepsy

D Hypertension

E Ischemic heart disease

120 Side (adverse) effects of this drug (Fig. 43) Thiopental sodium usage include

A cardiovascular and respiratory depression *

B cardiovascular and respiratory activation

C hypertension, excitation

D Reye syndrome

E All of above

121 The patient with ankylosing spondylitis was prescribed such medicine (Fig. 40). All information about its pharmacological activity is correct EXCEPT

A it has anti-inflammatory, antipyretic , analgesic action

B It is used to treat chronic pain particularly if inflammation is also present

C As long-term use of drug predisposes for peptic ulcer

D It can also be used to reduce menstrual pain, dysmenorrhea

E Gastrointestinal complaints are not noted *

122 This drug can be used for the treatment of (Fig. 41)

A anxiety, panic attacks, and states of agitation

B status epilepticus, adjunctive treatment of other forms of epilepsy

C the symptoms of alcohol, opiate and benzodiazepine withdrawal

D tetanus, together with other measures of intensive-treatment

E All of above*

123 This drug may be characterized best by which of the following statements (Fig. 44):

A It is classified as mixed agonist-antagonist drug

B It is used medically to inhibit withdrawal symptoms in person who are depend on heroin

C At high doses it causes death by respiratory depression

D It is synthetic opioid antagonist *

E It has an addiction potential equal that of codeine

124 When this drug (Fig. 42) is used?

A Headache.

B Oncological patients *

C Neuralgia.

D Hyperemia.

E Toothache.

125 This drug (Fig. 38) may be characterized best by which of the following statements:

A It is classified as mixed agonist-antagonist opiod drug

B It is used medically in the treatment of epilepsy

C It is primarily used for the induction and maintenance of general anaesthesia, usually in combination with some sedative drug. *

D It is synthetic opioid antagonist

E It has an addiction potential equal that of codeine


A It acts as an antagonist (blocking agent) on different postsynaptic receptors: dopamine receptors (subtypes D1, D2, D3 and D4), serotonin receptors (5-HT1 and 5-HT2), histamine receptors (H1 receptors), alpha 1- and alpha 2-adrenergic receptors , M1 and

M2 muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

B The main side effects of CHLORPROMAZINE are due to its anticholinergic properties; these effects overshadow and counteract, to some extent, the extrapyramidal side effects typical of many early generation antipsychotics

C Under the influence of the drug Appetite may be increased with resultant weight gain,

Glucose tolerance may be impaired

D It effectively treats schizophrenia, severe mania in people with bipolar disorder, and uncontrollable hiccups

E It can produce hypertension, excitation and insomnia*


A It is an antidepressant of the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class

B It is primarily used to treat major depression in adult outpatients as well as obsessive– compulsive, panic, and social anxiety disorders in both adults and children

C

The efficacy of it’s for depression is similar to that of older tricyclic antidepressants, but its side effects are much less pronounced.

D It effectively treats Parkinson disease*

E It is contraindicated in individuals taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors

128 Common side effects of the following drug (Fig.90) are

A All of above*

B Extrapyramidal side effects: slurred speech, dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention

C Hypersensitivity reaction, contact dermatitis, and photosensitivity.

D lowering of blood pressure, reflex tachycardia,

E dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation

129 Indication to the following drug (Fig. 90) include

A treatment of psychosis (e.g. schizophrenia) and depression*

B treatment of Parkinson disease

C prophylactic of Parkinson syndrome

D hyperthermia

E Epilepsy

130 Indication to the following drug (Fig. 90)

A Antipsychotic.*

B hypnotic

C Tranquilizer

D Antidepressant

E Narcotic analgesics

131 Indication(s) to the following drug (Fig. 46) is (are)

A posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

B obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

C major depression

D All of above*

E panic disorder and social phobia

132 Mechanism of antidepressant action of the following drug (Fig. 46)

A selective serotonin reuptake inhibition (SSRI)*

B blocking of serotonin receptors (5-HT1 and 5-HT2)

C blocking of histamine receptors (H1 receptors)

D blocking of alpha1- and alpha2-adrenergic receptors

E blocking of M1 and M2 muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

133 Mechanism of antipsychotic action of the following drug (Fig. 45)

A blocking of dopamine receptors (subtypes D1, D2, D3 and D4)*

B activating of serotonin receptors (5-HT1 and 5-HT2)

C blocking of histamine receptors (H2 receptors)

D blocking of histamine receptors (H1 receptors)

E activating of M1 and M2 muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

134 Pharmacological group of the following drug (Fig. 41) is

A Tranquilizer*

B Antipyretic

C Analgesics

D General Anesthetic

E none of above

135 Serious side effects of the following agent (Fig. 46) include

A Akathisia—that is, "inner tension, restlessness, and the inability to stay still"

B sexual side effects, including arousal disorder and difficulty achieving orgasm

C Suicidal ideation

D withdrawal or discontinuation syndrome

E All of above*

136 Pharmacological group of the following drug (Fig. 42) is

A Tranquilizer

B Antipyretic

C Narcotic analgesics*

D General Anesthetic

E None of above

137 Indication to the following drug (Fig. 37) include

A treatment of psychosis (e.g. schizophrenia) and depression

B treatment of Parkinson disease*

C prophylactic of Parkinson syndrome

D hyperthermia

E Epilepsy

138 Mechanism of anti-inflammatory action of the following drug (Fig. 39)

A blocking of COG (cylooxygenase) *

B activating of Ig E and Ig G synthesis

C blocking of acethylcholinesterase



139 Mechanism of of the following drug action is (Fig. 40)

A blocking of COG (cylooxygenase) *

B activating of Ig E and Ig G synthesis

C blocking of acethylcholinesterase



140 The following drug has such pharmacological effect(s) (Fig. 40)

A All of above *

B None of above

C Anti-inflammatory

D Analgesics

E Antipyretic

141 The following drug has such pharmacological effect(s) (Fig. 39)

A All of above *

B None of above

C Anti-inflammatory

D Analgesics

E Antipyretic

142 Common side (adverse) effect(s) for the following drug is (are) (Fig. 40)

A All of above *

B None of above

C Ulcer of GIT

D Hepatotoxicity

E Bone marrow depression

143 Common side (adverse) effect(s) for the following drug is (are) (Fig. 39)

A All of above *

B None of above

C Ulcer of GIT

D Hepatotoxicity

E Bone marrow depression

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