Aurora Health Care
South Market EMS
EMT-Basic
Protocol Test 2012
*** Please highlight or bold the correct answers. ***
Name: ______________________________
Department: __________________________
E-mail Address: _______________________
1. It is necessary to contact Medical Control prior to initiating pre-hospital care to a patient
when:
A. A First Responder or EMT of any level determines it is necessary to deviate from
protocol.
B. The protocol states “at the discretion of Medical Control” and/or an
is
present in the protocol margin.
C. The EMT is uncertain of a drug dosage or specific protocol to be used for patient
care.
D. All the above.
2. All 12 leads obtained in the field should be transmitted to the ED for interpretation.
A. True
B. False
3. When circumstances allow, what should be your maximum on scene time with trauma
patients?
A.
B.
C.
D.
25 Minutes.
60 Minutes (Golden Hour).
10 Minutes.
30 Minutes.
4. EMS personnel may withhold resuscitative efforts when:
A. The health and safety of the crew is in jeopardy.
B. The patient has been declared dead by a fellow EMT.
C. The patient’s family tells you that the patient has a DNR order but they cannot
find it.
D. All the above.
Aurora Health Care
South Market EMS
EMT-Basic
Protocol Test 2012
5. EMT-Basics are allowed to give which patient assisted medications?
A.
B.
C.
D.
EPI-Pen, Albuterol Inhaler, Nitroglycerine, Oral Glucose.
Aspirin, Nitroglycerine Patch, Benadryl, O2.
Dextrose (D50), Atrovent, Nitroglycerine.
O2 only.
6. A motor vehicle has rear ended a parked vehicle. You suspect the driver of the moving
vehicle of being intoxicated. He tells you that he does not have any complaints of pain.
Per our Selective Spinal Immobilization- Appropriate Omission protocol, does this
person qualify for no spinal immobilization?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Yes, but only if all crew members agree.
No, due to the MOI.
No, due to the suspicion of intoxication.
Yes, providing you document your findings.
7. Your patient is in respiratory distress and you are monitoring his End Tidal CO2 output.
From your training, you know that:
A.
B.
C.
D.
An increased respiratory rate will decrease CO2.
An increased respiratory rate will increase CO2.
The normal range of exhaled CO2 is 25-35 mmHg.
The normal range of exhaled CO2 is 30-40 mmHg.
8. A patient you are treating reports he was stung by multiple bees and he tells you that he
has had an allergic reaction to bee stings in the past. He is complaining of increased
difficulty breathing, lightheadedness and itching all over his body. Based upon his
complaints, you believe he is having an anaphylactic reaction. You decide to administer a
medication for anaphylaxis. The correct drug, dose and route are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Narcan, 2.0 mg, IV
Albuterol, 2.5 mg, Hand-held Nebulizer
Epinephrine, 0.5mg, IM
D50, 25 mg, IV
9. Oral Glucose should be given for a Blood Glucose level of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Less than 60 mg/dl.
Less than 80 mg/dl.
Greater than 60 mg/dl.
Dextrose is not indicated for hypoglycemic patients.
Aurora Health Care
South Market EMS
EMT-Basic
Protocol Test 2012
10. Per our protocol, patients who have experienced the following may benefit from ALS
interventions:
A. A fall greater than 10 feet, High Speed MVA with trauma, STEMI patient.
B. Hypotension with Signs of Shock, Anaphylaxis, ALOC.
C. Drowning or Near Drowning, imminent cardiac arrest, imminent delivery of a
neonate.
D. All the above.
11. According to our protocol for Spinal Immobilization – Appropriate Omission, what are
four conditions that must be met before C-spine immobilization omission can occur?
1. No mind-altering drugs or evidence of intoxication
2. No distracting injuries
3. Conscious, cooperative and able to communicate
4. No midline, back or neck pain or tenderness upon palpation
a.
b.
c.
d.
1, 2 and 3
2, 3 and 4
1, 3 and 4
All of the above
12. CPAP is a tool that should be used for patients suffering from respiratory distress. What
disease(s)/condition(s) can we use CPAP for?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Asthma, Emphysema, Chronic Bronchitis.
Pulmonary Edema associated with Congestive Heart failure.
Pneumonia.
All of the above.
13. An altered level of consciousness can be caused by many different reasons. To assist the
EMT with treatment and possibly determining the cause, any patient with an altered level
of consciousness should receive?
a. Blood Sugar check, complete assessment of neurologic function, O2, Cardiac
monitor.
b. Oral Glucose, ASA, O2 and No Transport.
c. None of the above
d. Both A and B.
Aurora Health Care
South Market EMS
EMT-Basic
Protocol Test 2012
14. The Scope of Practice for the EMT - Basic allows:
1.
2.
3.
4.
CPAP, soft and rigid suctioning, Sellick maneuver, pulse oximetry.
Medication administration via IM, SQ, SL, and Hand Held Nebulizer (HHN).
Albuterol, ASA, Glucagon, Mark 1 Auto Injector.
Patient restraints, 12 lead (acquire and transmit) Manual Defibrillation, Endo-tracheal
intubation.
a. 1, 2, 3.
b. 2, 3, 4.
c. 1, 3, 4.
d. All the above.
15. What levels of PEEP are EMT-Basic’s allowed to use when utilizing CPAP?
a.
b.
c.
d.
5cm of H2O Pressure.
10cm of H2O Pressure.
Unlimited H2O Pressure.
All the above.
16. A patient has been pulled from his burning motor vehicle and has extensive burns to his
anterior chest and abdomen and anterior surfaces of both legs (upper and lower). What
percentage of body surface area is burned?
a.
b.
c.
d.
18%
27%
36%
45%
17. A patient is complaining of difficulty breathing. You have decided to administer a
breathing treatment of Albuterol and Atrovent. You have administered your initial dose
and your patient tells you that it helped some but is still complaining of distress. What
should you do next?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0.3cc of 1:1000 Epinephrine SQ.
1mg Glucagon IM.
Administer a second dose of Albuterol.
CPAP with inline Albuterol treatment.
18. What would be the appropriate treatment for a patient you found unconscious with a
blood glucose reading of 28 mg/dl?
a.
b.
c.
d.
O2 and Albuterol treatment.
O2 and Glucagon 1 mg IM.
Expedited transport only.
None of the above.
Aurora Health Care
South Market EMS
EMT-Basic
Protocol Test 2012
19. End Tidal CO2 should be monitored during CPR because:
a.
b.
c.
d.
It can be used as a predictor of survivability.
May indicate inadequate compressions and/or hyperventilation.
It is a good indicator of Return of Spontaneous Circulation (ROSC).
All of the above.
20. All of the following are considered to be indications of high risk pregnancy except:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Lack of prenatal care.
Previous C-Section.
Multiple Fetuses.
Patient’s first child.
21. What is a contraindication to using CPAP?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Respiratory rate greater than 25/min
Capillary refill greater than 2 seconds.
Unable to follow verbal commands.
SPO2 less than 94%.
22. Anaphylaxis is a true life threatening emergency. What is the indicator that a patient is
having an anaphylaxis reaction as opposed to an allergic reaction?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Difficulty Swallowing.
Lightheadedness.
Unconsciousness.
Systolic BP below 90 mg/hg.
23. A pregnant patient has been involved in a motor vehicle crash and has sustained injury.
You have assessed her vital signs and find them to be normal. You have now secured her
to your long board and she is complaining of feeling as if she is going to pass out. You
take her blood pressure and it is hypotensive. What is the first thing you should do?
a. Have your IV Technician start two large bore IV’s and administer a fluid bolus.
b. Remove her from the long board.
c. Tilt the long board/patient onto her left side by raising the right side of the board
several inches.
d. Elevate the head end of the long board several inches.
Aurora Health Care
South Market EMS
EMT-Basic
Protocol Test 2012
24. What steps are appropriate for the care of a patient who is experiencing an unstable –
hypertensive crisis?
a. Elevate the head of the cot 15-30 degrees, transport and monitor the patient.
b. Initial Medical Care, consider ALS intercept, elevate the head of the cot 15-30
degrees, obtain 12 lead EKG, (at the discretion of Medical Control).
c. Treat for shock and elevate the patient’s legs.
d. None of the above.
25. You are preparing to assist a patient administer Nitroglycerine due to his complaint of
chest pain. The patient states he used a “performance enhancing” medication 12 hours
ago. What is the significance of this?
a. No significance.
b. The combination of performance enhancing medications and Nitroglycerine may
cause profound hypotension.
c. You should double the dose of Nitroglycerine.
d. All the above.
26. In addition to oxygen, what are the correct medication(s) and dose(s) to give to a patient
experiencing an asthma attack?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Albuterol 0.5 mg, Atrovent 2.5 mg
Glucagon 1mg
Albuterol 1.0 mg, Atrovent 1.0 mg
Albuterol 2.5 mg, Atrovent 0.5 mg
27. During a patient assessment, your patient responds only to your voice, uses inappropriate
words when communicating and localizes pain. What is their GCS?
a.
b.
c.
d.
7
9
11
13
28. You are treating a patient who reports feeling weak and has been experiencing slurred
speech and limited movement on the right side. The patient is exhibiting signs and
symptoms of what?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Heart Attack.
Dehydration.
Heat Stroke.
Stroke.
29. When dealing with a patient who we believe may be suffering from a stroke, we want to
determine when the signs and symptoms started. Why are we interested in that
information?
Aurora Health Care
South Market EMS
EMT-Basic
Protocol Test 2012
a.
b.
c.
d.
Certain interventions have “windows of opportunity” to be most effective
Some treatments must be started within so many hours of onset of symptoms
Hospital destination may be determined by this information
All of the above
30. A patient that was involved in a MVA has a severe laceration to his left leg. That is his
only injury. The patient is alert and oriented x 4 (person, place, time and event). You are
eventually able to control the bleeding with trauma dressings but his pants are completely
soaked with blood. The patient has become diaphoretic and now constantly asks “what
happened?”. What is the most likely cause of the change in his mental status?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Head injury.
Compensated Shock.
Stroke.
Decompensated Shock.