Module 2 Special bacteriology, virology.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Text test questions
What is true according to Rickettsia rickettsii
A. Normal flora of the oral cavity
B. DNA homology studies indicate that only a single Brucella species, Brucella melitensis, is
justified
C. Toxin can be chronically produced in infant's colon causing infant botulism.
D. Envelope consists of HBsAg
E. *Pathogenesis - vasculitis
Morbidity of Candida albicans is
A. Endocarditis
B. Pneumonia
C. Bronchopneumonia
D. Bladder carcinoma
E. *Systemic candidiasis
Herpes simplex virus type 1 most commonly causes cold sores. The site of reactivation for this virus
is the
A. vagus nerve
B. B lymphocyte
C. epidermal cell
D. eighth cranial nerve
E. *trigeminal nerve
A girl is infected with a paramyxovirus. The cytopathic effect for this virus is
A. major destruction of the tissue culture monolayer
B. intranuclear inclusion formation
C. Negri body formation
D. cellular degranulation
E. *syncytia formation
The term virus was first used by
A. Koch
B. van Leewuenhoek
C. Fleming
D. Redi
E. *Pasteur
Which of the following viruses cause/s genital infection?
A. Molluscum contagiosum.
B. Human papillomavirus type 6.
C. Herpes simplex virus type 2
D. adenovirus serotype 37
E. *All answers are correct
Which of the following viruses can cause prenatal infection?
A. Rubella
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Varicella-zoster.
D. none all of the above
E. *All of the above.
Morbidity of Klebsiella spp. is:
A. Rhinocerebral disease
B. Hemorrhagic cystitis
C. Enteritis
D. Cervicitis
E. *Urinary tract infections
9. Group of Bordetella pertussis is:
A. Protozoa
B. Viruses
C. Fungi
D. Helminths
E. *Bacteria
10. Phenotypic characteristic of Staphylococcus aureus is:
A. Enveloped
B. Motility "+"
C. ssRNAD. Oxidase "-"
E. *Coagulase "+"
11. Group of Candida albicans is:
A. Bacteria
B. Protozoa
C. Viruses
D. Helminths
E. *Fungi
12. Toxin of Chlamydia psittaci is:
A. Cholera toxin - activates adenylate cyclase
B. Exotoxin A - inhibits protein synthesis
C. Elastase - hemorrage
D. Hemolysin
E. *LPS
13. Mode of transmission of Herpes simplex virus is:
A. Mosquito bites
B. Perinatal
C. Droplet nuclei
D. Sexual
E. *Direct contact
14. Which of the following statements about bacterial endotoxins is true?
A. They usually act at a tissue site in the host that is removed from the site of bacterial growth
B. They typically have an enzymatic (specific) type of activity
C. They can be converted into toxoids.
D. none of the above
E. *They are nonantigenic.
15. Which of the following statements characterizes the mechanism of action of diphtheria toxin?
A. causes an increase in cAMP in cells resulting in severe edema
B. causes an increase in cAMP in cells leading to diarrhea
C. interferes with the transmission of neurotransmitters at stimulatory neuromuscular synapse
D. interferes with secretion of neurotransmitters at an inhibitory neural synapse in the central
nervous system
E. *inhibits protein synthesis in susceptible cells
16. Both the botulinum toxin and the tetanus toxin are
A. superantigens
B. enterotoxins
C. adenylate cyclase enzymes
D. none of the above
E. *protease enzymes
17. Mechanism of action of tetanofoxin?
A. up-regulate the production of cAMP in affected cells
B. cause the ADP ribosylation of neuron gangliosides
C. block protein synthesis in target cells
D. cleave neuraminic acid in the intercellular space
E. *block the release of neurotransmitters across a neural synapse
18. Both the cholera toxin and the E. coli LT toxin
A. have an A+B subunit arrangement
B. are ADP-ribosylating toxins
C. have an enzymatic mechanism of action
D. all of the above
E. *are identical in their primary structure
19. The portion of the bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) that is responsible for the toxicity of the
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
molecule is
A. lipoteichoic acid
B. O polysaccharide
C. Omp A
D. N-acetylglucosamine (NAG)
E. *lipid A
What bacterial structure or substance is primarily associated with antigenic variation in the Group A
streptococci?
A. outer membrane protein (omp)
B. streptokinase
C. hyaluronic acid capsule
D. M-protein
E. *Polysaccharide
A reason not to administer beta lactam antibiotics for a Gram-negative septicemia (blood-borne
infection), unless there is no other alternative, is
A. the antibiotic eliminates the normal flora
B. the lysis of bacterial cells increases the activity of bacterial LPS
C. Complement activation cannot occur in the presence of the antibiotic
D. the antibiotic suppresses the immune response necessary to eliminate the pathogen
E. *beta lactam antibiotics are ineffective against Gram-negative bacteria
Which of the following bacterial toxins behaves as a superantigen through its stimulation of a very
large fraction of the host T-cell population?
A. Streptococcal streptolysin
B. Salmonella LPS (endotoxin
C. Pseudomonas Exotoxin A
D. E. coli O157 H:7 shiga toxin
E. *Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome toxin
Passive immunity to tetanus in a susceptible host would be accomplished by
A. recovery from the disease tetanus
B. injection with tetanus toxin
C. injection with tetanus toxoid (as in the DPT vaccine
D. foxoid administration
E. *administration of donor’s antitetanus immunoglobulin
Active artificial immunity to diphtheria is accomplished by
A. diphththeria antitoxin (antiserum) administration
B. recovery from the disease diphtheria
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
E. *vaccination with diphtheria toxoid
An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcusaureus has occurred in the newborn nursery. Youare
called upon to investigate. According to yourknowledge of the normal flora, what is theMOST
likely source of the organism?
A. Colon
B. Nose
C. Vagina
D. Mouth
E. *Nose
26. Each of the following agents is a recognized cause of diarrhea EXCEPT
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Escherichia coli
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Streptococcus epidermidis
E. *Enterococcus faecalis
27. Each of the following organisms is an important cause of urinary tract infections EXCEPT:
A. Escherichia coli
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
E. *Bacteroides fragilis
28. Your patient is a 30-year-old woman with nonbloody diarrhea for the past 14 hours. Which one of the
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
following organisms is LEAST likely to cause this illness?
A. Clostridium difficile
B. Shigella dysenteriae
C. Salmonella enteritidis
D. Shigella boydii
E. *Streptococcus pyogenes
Each of the following statements concerning Mycobacterium tuberculosis is correct EXCEPT:
A. After being stained with carbolfuchsin, M. tuberculosis resists decolorization with acid alcohol
B. M. tuberculosis has a large amount of mycolic acid in its cell wall
C. M. tuberculosis appears as a red rod in acid-fast stained specimens
D. M. tuberculosis appears as a blue rod in acid-fast stained specimens
E. *M. tuberculosis appears as a red rod in Gram-stained specimens
Which one of the following diseases is BEST diagnosed by serologic means?
A. Pulmonary tuberculosis
B. Gonorrhea
C. Actinomycosis
D. Sepsis
E. *Q fever
Which of these statements is not true about the retroviridae?
A. they contain two copies of plus-sense RNA
B. they contain a reverse transcriptase
C. they contain an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
D. they incorporate into the host chromosome
E. *they contain one copy of plus-sense RNA
Which of the following has been linked to Kaposi's sarcoma?
A. Epstein-Barr virus
B. Human T-cell lymphotropic virus
C. Human immunodefficiency virus
D. Human papilloma virus
E. *Human herpes virus 8
The immune system protects the body from disease. Because the AIDS virus weakens the immune
system,
A. the AIDS virus is spread very easily.
B. people with AIDS are immune to all other diseases.
C. the AIDS virus activates nonspecific resistance of organism
D. all of the above.
E. *people with AIDS are more vulnerable to other diseases.
34. Because the AIDS virus weakens the immune system:
A. people with AIDS are immune to all other diseases.
B. the AIDS virus is spread very easily.
C. the AIDS virus activates nonspecific resistance of organism
D. all answers are right
E. *people with AIDS are more vulnerable to other diseases.
35. What is the current recommendation for drug therapy for an AIDS patients
A. One nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
B. One protease inhibitor
C. Two protease inhibitors
D. Two protease inhibitors and γ interferon
E. *One protease inhibitor and two nucleoside inhibitor
36. An individual will be diagnosed with AIDS when they have a positive HIV test and:
A. A T-cell count of under 500 per milliliter.
B. Mononucleosis
C. A B-cell count of under 400 per milliliter.
D. None of the above.
E. *CD4-cell count of under 200 per milliliter of blood.
37. We can make the conclusion that some person has AIDS when he has a positive HIV test and:
A. A T-cell count of under 500 per milliliter.
B. A B-cell count of under 400 per milliliter.
C. Mononucleosis.
D. None of the above
E. *CD4-cell count of under 200 per milliliter of blood.
38. Which of the following is/are congenital diseases occured in childrens born to women infected with
39.
40.
41.
42.
rubella?
A. Neurosensory deafness.
B. Congenital heart disease
C. Retinopathy
D. Hepatosplenomegaly
E. *All of the above.
Which of the following viral genera is/are not arthropod-borne?
A. Alphavirus
B. Flavivirus
C. Togavirus
D. All of the above
E. *Rubivirus
Which of the following viral genera is/are not transmited by insects?
A. Alphavirus
B. Alphavirus
C. Togavirus
D. All of the above.
E. *Rubivirus
Which of the following arthropodes act/s as vector for Japanese encephalitis virus?
A. flea
B. fly
C. tick
D. all answers are right
E. *mosquito.
Choose insect as vector for Japanese encephalitis virus?
A. flea.
B. fly
C. tick
D. All of the above.
E. *mosquito
43. Which of the following act as amplifying hosts of Japanese encephalitis virus?
A. Water birds and man.
B. Pigs and man.
C. Cows and goats
D. Cats and dogs.
E. *Water birds and pigs.
44. Which of the following are reservoir of Japanese encephalitis virus?
A. Cats and dogs.
B. Cows and goats.
C. Pigs and man.
D. Water birds and man.
E. *Water birds and pigs.
45. Which is the vector for West Nile virus?
A. flea
B. fly
C. louse
D. tick
E. *mosquito
46. Choose inside listed the vector for West Nile virus?
A. flea
B. fly
C. louse
D. batterfly
E. *mosquito
47. For specific prophylaxis of a tick-borne encephalitis is used:
A. immunoglobulin
B. toxoid
C. specific hyperimmune serum
D. live vaccine.
E. *formolated vaccine
48. Rabies can be acquired as a result of:
A. inhalation of aerosolized virus
B. a bite of a rabid animal
C. inoculation through mucous membranes
D. transplantation of infected tissue
E. *all of the above
49. Rabies can be happened in human as a result of:
A. a bite of an animal with rabies
B. inhalation of aerosolized virus
C. inoculation through mucous membranes
D. transplantation of infected tissue
E. *all answers are correct
50. What is the shape of rabies virus?
A. Spherical
B. Polygonal
C. Tubular
D. Stick-like
E. *Bullet-shaped.
51. The shape of rabies virus is:
A. Polygonal
Spherical
Stick-like
Tubular.
*Bullet-shaped
Which of the following clinical specimens can be used for the demonstration of rabies antigen by
direct immunofluorescence antemortem?
A. salivary smears.
B. corneal smears.
C. blood
D. hairs
E. *a and d corect
Where we can detect of rabies antigen by direct immunofluorescence antemortem?
A. hippocampal neuron
B. blood
C. hairs
D. brain
E. *corneal scrapings.
Match yellow fever virus (Arbovirus) with its family.
A. Reoviridae
B. Bunyaviridae
C. Togaviridae
D. Rhabdoviridae
E. *Flaviviridae
Choose among following Family of yellow fever virus
A. Bunyaviridae
B. Reoviridae
C. Rhabdoviridae
D. Togaviridae
E. *Flaviviridae
Negri bodies are found in cells infected with:
A. vaccinia virus
B. fowlpox virus.
C. paramyxoviruses.
D. measles virus
E. *rabies virus.
At which diseases we can detect Negri bodies?
A. herpes
B. smalpox
C. poliomyelitis
D. measles
E. *rabies
The prophylaxis of mumps is conducted by:
A. immunoglobulin
B. toxoid
C. the killed vaccine
D. antitoxic serum.
E. *live vaccine
Retrospective diagnostics of measles and mumps includes:
A. CFT with specific serums
B. HIT with specific serums
C. rhinocytoscopy
D. NT (colour test) with with paired serums
E. *HIT with paired serums
B.
C.
D.
E.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60. For serological diagnostics of mumps such material is used:
A. saliva
B. blood
C. urine
D. spinal liquid
E. *paired serums.
61. RS virus causes:
A. destruction of tissue culture
B. death of chicken embryo
C. hemagglutination of red cells
D. hemolysis
E. *formation of syncytio in tissue cultures
62. A respiratory disease spread by the droplet aerosol route during winter, causing severe headache,
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
cough, fever, malaise and congestion is most compatible with which of the following as an
etiological agent?
A. Mumps
B. Influenza C
C. Chicken pox
D. Hepatitis A Virus
E. *Influenza A virus
An acute respiratory disease spread by the droplet aerosol route during winter is most compatible
with which of the following as an etiological agent?
A. Chicken pox
B. Mumps
C. Influenza C
D. Hepatitis B Virus
E. *Influenza A
Which of the following statements best describes antigenic shift within the orthomyxoviruses?
A. A minor antigenic change of the envelope proteins
B. A medium antigenic change of the envelope proteins
C. A minor lipid change of the envelope proteins
D. A major lipid change of the envelope proteins
E. *A major antigenic change of the envelope proteins
Choose in the listed statements best describes antigenic shift within the orthomyxoviruses?
A. A major lipid change of the envelope proteins
B. A minor lipid change of the envelope proteins
C. A medium antigenic change of the envelope proteins
D. A minor antigenic change of the envelope proteins
E. *A major antigenic change of the envelope proteins
The vaccine for influenza has the following components:
A. Fusion protein
B. Viral RNA
C. Haemagglutinine
D. None of the above
E. *Haemagglutinin and neuramidase
The vaccine for influenza has the following components:
A. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza A,B, and C
B. Nucleoprotein and neuraminidase of influenza A,B, and C
C. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza B only
D. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza B and C
E. *Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza A and B
The vaccine for influenza consists of the following components:
A. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza B only
Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza A,B, and C
Nucleoprotein and neuraminidase of influenza A,B, and C
Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza B and C
*Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza A and B
The following characterizes the genome of the orthomyxoviruses:
A. Nonsegmented RNA genome
B. Nonsegmented DNA genome
C. Segmented DNA genome
D. Supercoiled double stranded DNA genome
E. *Segmented RNA genome
The genome of the orthomyxoviruses contain:
A. Nonsegmented RNA genome
B. Nonsegmented DNA genome
C. Segmented DNA genome
D. Supercoiled double stranded DNA genome
E. *Segmented RNA genome
Influenza viruses are predominantly transmitted by:
A. The aerosol route during the summer
B. Close physical contact during the summer
C. The fecal-oral route during the winter
D. sexual route in winter
E. *The aerosol route and close physical contact during the winter
During the epidemic of flu Influenza viruses are predominantly transmitted by:
A. The aerosol route during the summer
B. Close physical contact during the summer
C. The fecal-oral route during the winter
D. through the bites of flies
E. *The aerosol route and close physical contact during the winter
Which protein is predominantly responsible for attachment of the influenza virus to susceptible
epithelial cells located in the upper respiratory tract?
A. Neuraminidase
B. Matrix protein
C. Nucleoprotein
D. Fusion protein
E. *Hemagglutinin
By which protein the influenza virus can attach to mucous cells of the upper respiratory tract?
A. Fusion protein
B. Nucleoprotein
C. Matrix protein
D. Neuraminidase
E. *Hemagglutinin
Which proteins of influenza viruses are included in vaccine preparations?
A. Neuraminidase
B. Neuraminidase and fusion proteins
C. Hemagglutinin
D. Hemagglutinin, neuraminidase and fusion proteins
E. *Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
Which proteins of influenza viruses does flu vaccine contain ?
A. Hemagglutinin, neuraminidase and fusion proteins
B. Neuraminidase and fusion proteins
C. Hemagglutinin
D. Neuraminidase
E. *Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
B.
C.
D.
E.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77. If an influenza infection has been diagnosed within a family, which antiviral drug could be
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
administered to other family members as a prophylactic measure?
A. Acyclovir
B. Ganciclovir
C. Cyclosporin A
D. Foscarnet
E. *Amantadine
Which antiviral drug could be administered to other family members as a prophylactic measure if an
influenza infection has been diagnosed within a family?
A. Foscarnet
B. Ganciclovir
C. Cyclosporin A
D. Acyclovir
E. *Amantadine
Which of the following is true concerning the orthomyxoviruses?
A. Influenza A, B, and C cause epidemics
B. Neuraminidase and hemagglutinin are nucleocapsid proteins
C. The matrix protein is important for vaccine inclusion
D. Dogs are a reservoir of influenza hemagglutinin and neuraminidase subtypes
E. *The genome is segmented, composed of eight RNA units
Choose among listed a correct statement concerning the orthomyxoviruses?
A. Dogs are a reservoir of influenza hemagglutinin and neuraminidase subtypes
B. Influenza A, B, and C cause epidemics.
C. Neuraminidase and hemagglutinin are nucleocapsid proteins
D. The matrix protein is important for vaccine inclusion
E. *The genome is segmented, composed of eight RNA units
How do point mutations, responsible for antigenic drift, occur in the hemagglutinin and
neuraminidase of the orthomyxoviruses?
A. Gamma rays cause the mutations
B. Genetic reassortment occurs by two cells being coinfected by two different subtypes of influenza A
C. Prevailing winds drift the different naturally occurring mutants throughout the hemispheres
D. Change the number of RNA segments.
E. *Poor template copying by the RNA polymerase cause the mutations
Which of the following statements best describes antigenic shift within the orthomyxoviruses?
A. A minor antigenic change of the envelope proteins
B. A medium antigenic change of the envelope proteins
C. A minor lipid change of the envelope proteins
D. A major lipid change of the envelope proteins
E. *A major antigenic change of the envelope proteins
Choose among listed statements best describes antigenic shift within the orthomyxoviruses?
A. A major lipid change of the envelope proteins
B. A medium antigenic change of the envelope proteins
C. A minor lipid change of the envelope proteins
D. A minor antigenic change of the envelope proteins.
E. *A major antigenic change of the envelope proteins
The syncytial-forming capability that all members of the paramyxovirus family have in common is a
consequence of which of the following viral proteins?
A. hemagglutinin
B. neuraminidase
C. polymerase
D. thymidine kinase
E. *fusion protein
The syncytial-forming capability of the paramyxovirus is associated with:
thymidine kinase
polymerase
neuraminidase
hemagglutinin
*fusion protein
Antigenic drift of orthomyxoviruses is best characterized as:
A. A major change in the neuraminidase or hemagglutinin proteins
B. A major change in the matrix protein
C. A minor change in the matrix protein
D. A minor change in envelope
E. *A minor change in the neuraminidase or hemagglutinin proteins
Cause of antigenic drift of influenza A viruses is:
A. A major change in the hemagglutinin proteins
B. A major change in the matrix protein
C. A minor change in the matrix protein
D. A minor change in envelope
E. *A minor change in the neuraminidase or hemagglutinin proteins
Which of the following is/are true about the influenza vaccine?
A. The vaccine is recommended for health care workers, patients with cardiopulmonary
complications, and geriatric patients.
B. The constitution of the vaccine changes every year.
C. Both influenza A and B virus strains are included in the vaccine.
D. The viruses used in the vaccine are propagated in embryonated chicken eggs.
E. *All of the above answers.
Choose the correct statement about the influenza vaccine?
A. The viruses used in the vaccine are propagated in embryonated chicken eggs.
B. Both influenza A and B virus strains are included in the vaccine.
C. The constitution of the vaccine changes every year.
D. The vaccine is recommended for health care workers, patients with cardiopulmonary
complications, and geriatric patients.
E. *All of the above answers.
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is most associated with which of the following syndromes:
A. Bronchiolitis of young adults
B. Upper lobe infiltrates of young adults
C. Upper lobe infiltrates of young children
D. Lower lobe infiltrates of young adults
E. *Bronchiolitis of young infants
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) causes one of the following syndromes:
A. Bronchiolitis in adults
B. Upper lobe infiltrates of young adults
C. Upper lobe infiltrates of young children
D. Lower lobe infiltrates in adults
E. *Bronchiolitis in infants
An adenovirus:
A. has a neuraminidase
B. has a double shelled capsid
C. has an RNA genome
D. has an envelope
E. *has a hemagglutinin
The antiviral used for treatment of severe respiratory syncytial disease (RSV) infection is:
A. amantadine
B. acyclovir
C. immune globulin
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
D. AZT
E. *ribavirin
94. Which antiviral drug we can use for treatment of severe respiratory syncytial disease (RSV) infection :
A. acyclovir
B. amantadine
C. AZT
D. immune globulin
E. *ribavirin
95. An adenovirus contains:
A. a neuraminidase
B. fibrinolysisn
C. a double shelled capsid
D. an envelope
E. *a DNA genome
96. How can an eye infection by a specific serotype of adenovirus be diagnosed?
A. By monitoring the response of the infection to steroid therapy.
B. By detecting the presence of viral double stranded DNA.
C. By using electron microscopy to detect viral particles in an eye swab.
D. By detecting nuclear inclusions in infected cells collected in an eye swab.
E. *By using serotype antibody to test inhibition of hemagglutination.
97. Choose among following the method of detecting of a specific serotype of adenovirus which have
caused acute respiratory infection?
A. By detecting nuclear inclusions in infected cells collected in a throat swab.
B. By detecting the presence of viral double stranded DNA.
C. By monitoring the response of the infection to steroid therapy
D. By using electron microscopy to detect viral particles in a throat swab.
E. *By using serotype antibody to test inhibition of hemagglutination .
98. The hemagglutinin of adenovirus is found in which viral protein?
A. The core
B. The hexon
C. The M protein
D. The DNA protein
E. *The penton
99. In which component of adenovirus the hemagglutinin is found?
A. The core
B. The DNA protein
C. The hexon
D. The M protein
E. *The penton with fiber
100.
In addition to acute respiratory diseases, adenoviruses also cause:
A. Tumors in humans
B. Diabetes
C. Otitis media
D. Gastric ulcers
E. *Acute diarrhea in children
101.
Which family contains rubella virus and what group of individuals is most at risk for severe
sequelae from rubella infections?
A. Paramyxovirus family; grade school children
B. Paramyxovirus family; infants in utero during the first trimester
C. Togavirus family; grade school children
D. Togavirus family; middle age adults
E. *Togavirus family; infants in utero during the first trimester
102.
Choose family which contains rubella virus and what individuals have most risk for dangerous
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
complications from rubella infections?
A. Paramyxovirus family; grade school children
B. Paramyxovirus family; infants in utero during the first trimester
C. Togavirus family; grade school children
D. Togavirus family; middle age adults
E. *Togavirus family; infants in utero during the first trimester
Rubella infection causes long term serious sequelae in which of the following populations?
A. Women of childbearing age
B. Children infected during the first grade (age 6-7 yrs)
C. Children who have received the attenuated vaccine
D. Children who have received the interferon
E. *Children infected in the first trimester in utero
For whom rubella infection causes long term dangerous complications?
A. Children who have received the interferon
B. Children who have received the attenuated vaccine
C. Children infected during the first grade (age 6-7 yrs)
D. Women of childbearing age
E. *Children infected in the first trimester in utero
Which of the following statements accurately describes the envelope constituents of the
parainfluenza and mumps viruses?
A. Hemagglutinin, but no neuraminidase or fusion proteins present
B. Neuraminidase, but no hemagglutinin protein present
C. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase, but no fusion protein present
D. Fusion protein, but no hemagglutinin or neuraminidase present
E. *Hemagglutinin, neuraminidase and fusion proteins present
Which of the following proteins are present in the envelope of the parainfluenza and mumps
viruses?
A. Hemagglutinin, but no neuraminidase or fusion proteins present
B. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase, but no fusion protein present
C. Neuraminidase, but no hemagglutinin protein present
D. Fusion protein, but no hemagglutinin or neuraminidase present
E. *Hemagglutinin, neuraminidase and fusion proteins present
Measles is a member of the paramyxovirus family, but it differs from mumps and the
parainfluenza viruses structurally with respect to envelope proteins. How do they differ?
A. Measles has a neuraminidase but no hemagglutinin; mumps and parainfluenza have only
hemagglutinin
B. Measles has no hemagglutinin or neuraminidase, mumps and parainfluenza have only
neuraminidase
C. Measles has a neuraminidase but no hemagglutinin; mumps and parainfluenza have
hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
D. Measles has no hemagglutinin or neuraminidase, mumps and parainfluenza have
hemagglutinin and no neuraminidase
E. *Measles has a hemagglutinin but no neuraminidase; mumps and parainfluenza have
hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
Why is infection with HDV of concern:
A. HDV exacerbates HAV infection
B. HDV exacerbates HCV infection
C. HDV exacerbates HEV infection
D. HDV itself causes severe viral hepatitis
E. *HDV exacerbates HBV infection
Find the correct statement about envelope proteins of measles, mumps and the parainfluenza
viruses:
A. Measles has no hemagglutinin or neuraminidase, mumps and parainfluenza have only
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
neuraminidase
B. Measles has a neuraminidase but no hemagglutinin; mumps and parainfluenza have
hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
C. Measles has a neuraminidase but no hemagglutinin; mumps and parainfluenza have only
hemagglutinin
D. Measles has no hemagglutinin or neuraminidase, mumps and parainfluenza have
hemagglutinin and no neuraminidase
E. *Measles has a hemagglutinin but no neuraminidase; mumps and parainfluenza have
hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
When infection of HDV is most dangerous?
A. When HDV is together with HAV
B. When HDV is together with HEV
C. When HDV is together with HCV
D. When HDV itself causes severe viral hepatitis
E. *When HDV is together with HBV infection
The serological profile following HBV vaccination is:
A. Anti HBc positive
B. Anti HBe positive
C. Anti HBs and anti HBc positive
D. Anti HBs positive, anti HBc positive and anti HBe positive
E. *Anti HBs positive
After HBV vaccination the serological profile of the person is:
A. Anti HBc positive
B. Anti HBe positive
C. Anti HBs and anti HBc positive
D. Anti HBs positive, anti HBc positive and anti HBe positive
E. *Anti HBs positive
The presence of anti-HCV antibody in a person’s serum indicates:
A. Past infection, currently immune to HCV
B. Past vaccination status with HCV
C. Hepatitis B must be present as a helper virus in the hepatocytes
D. The patient’s blood is safe for transfusion
E. *Current or chronic infection with HCV
When we can indicate anti-HCV antibody in a person’s serum:
A. Hepatitis B must be present as a helper virus in the hepatocytes
B. Past vaccination status with HCV
C. Past infection, currently immune to HCV
D. The patient’s blood is safe for transfusion
E. *Current or chronic infection with HCV
What would be the serological status of a patient successfully immunized with the HBV vaccine?
A. HbsAg positive; anti-HBs positive
B. anti-HBc positive; anti-HBs positive
C. anti-HBc positive; HbsAg positive
D. anti-Hbe positive
E. *anti-HBc negative, anti-HBs positive
What can we detect in the patient’s serum after immunization with the HBV vaccine?
A. HbsAg positive
B. anti-HBc positive; anti-HBs positive
C. anti-HBc positive; HbsAg positive
D. anti-Hbe positive
E. *anti-HBc negative, anti-HBs positive
A chronic carrier of HBV and HDV may have the following serological status:
A. HBsAg negative, anti-HDV negative, anti-HBc negative
anti-HBs positive, anti-HDV negative, anti-HBc negative
HBsAg positive, anti-HDV negative, anti-HBc positive
HBsAg negative, anti-HDV negative, anti-HBc positive
*HBsAg positive, anti-HDV positive, anti-HBc positive
Choose in the following statements the correct serological status at chronic carrier of HBV and
HDV:
A. anti-HBs positive, anti-HDV negative, anti-HBc negative
B. HBsAg negative, anti-HDV negative, anti-HBc negative
C. HBsAg positive, anti-HDV negative, anti-HBc positive
D. HBsAg negative, anti-HDV negative, anti-HBc positive
E. *HBsAg positive, anti-HDV positive, anti-HBc positive
Select the predominant route of transmission for Hepatitis B, C, and D viruses.
A. airborne
B. fecal-oral
C. contaminated food
D. fomites
E. *parenteral
Choose in the listed the predominant route of transmission for Hepatitis B and C viruses.
A. fomites
B. contaminated food
C. fecal-oral
D. airborne
E. *parenteral
Identify the clinical status of a patient who has the following hepatitis B virus (HBV) serology
findings: anti-HBc positive, anti-HBs positive, HBsAg negative.
A. Current acute infection with HBV
B. No past exposure to HBV
C. Recent past infection with HBV
D. Concurrent chronic infection with HBV and hepatitis D virus
E. *Chronic infectIon with HBV
Which hepatitis viruses are predominantly transmitted by the fecal-oral route?
A. HAV, HBV, HEV
B. HAV, HBV
C. HBV, HCV, HDV
D. HBV, HDV, HEV
E. *HAV, HEV
Choose in the listed which hepatitis viruses are transmitted by the fecal-oral route?
A. HBV, HDV, HEV
B. HBV, HCV, HDV
C. HAV, HBV
D. HAV, HBV, HEV
E. *HAV, HEV
Which hepatitis viruses are predominantly transmitted by the parenteral route?
A. HAV, HBV, HEV
B. HAV, HBV
C. HAV, HEV
D. HBV, HDV, HEV
E. *HBV, HCV, HDV
Choose in the listed which hepatitis viruses are transmitted by the parenteral mechanism?
A. HAV, HBV, HEV
B. HAV, HBV
C. HAV, HEV
D. HBV, HDV, HEV
B.
C.
D.
E.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
E. *HBV, HCV, HDV
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
A patient with acute HBV infection may have the following serologic profile:
A. HBsAg negative, anti-HBs antibody positive, anti-HBc antibody positive
B. HBsAg positive, anti-HBs antibody positive, anti-HBc antibody positive
C. HBsAg negative, anti-HBs antibody negative, anti-HBc antibody positive
D. HBsAg negative, anti-HBs antibody positive, anti-HBc antibody negative
E. *HBsAg positive, anti-HBs antibody negative, anti-HBc antibody positive
Find among listed which serologic profile a patient with acute HBV infection may have:
A. HBsAg negative, anti-HBs antibody positive, anti-HBc antibody positive
B. HBsAg negative, anti-HBs antibody negative, anti-HBc antibody positive
C. HBsAg positive, anti-HBs antibody positive, anti-HBc antibody positive
D. HBsAg negative, anti-HBs antibody positive, anti-HBc antibody negative
E. *HBsAg positive, anti-HBs antibody negative, anti-HBc antibody positive.
Which of the following hepatitis viruses is classified as defective, (e.g. the virus will replicate
only in the presence of another different, replicating virus)?
A. Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
B. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
C. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
D. Hepatitis E virus (HEV)
E. *Hepatitis D virus (HDV)
Choose among the following hepatitis viruses which is defective:
A. Hepatitis E virus (HEV)
B. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
C. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
D. Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
E. *Hepatitis D virus (HDV)
All of the following are enteroviruses EXCEPT:
A. coxsackieviruses B
B. coxsackieviruses A
C. echoviruses
D. polioviruses
E. *rhinoviruses
Choose among listed viruses which are not enteroviruses:
A. coxsackieviruses
B. echoviruses
C. polioviruses I
D. polioviruses II
E. *Rhinoviruses
Identify the true statement cited below concerning the Sabin (live) polio vaccine.
A. Infectious progeny virus cannot be disseminated from the vaccinated individual.
B. Induction of lifelong immunity is not possible.
C. It can be given to immunodeficient individuals without reservation.
D. It is administered parenterally.
E. *The vaccine confers humoral and intestinal immunity.
Choose the true statement concerning the Sabin polio vaccine.
A. Induction of lifelong immunity is not possible.
B. Infectious progeny virus cannot be disseminated from the vaccinated individual.
C. It is administered parenterally.
D. It can be given to immunodeficient individuals without reservation.
E. *The vaccine confers humoral and intestinal immunity.
What characteristic is shared by the Salk and the Sabin vaccines?
A. Both are attenuated, active vaccines.
B. Both are administered by injection.
C. Both are capable of reversion to virulence
D. Both are shed in the feces of vaccinees.
E. *Both are composed of virus serotypes 1, 2, and 3.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
What characteristic is correct concerning the Salk and the Sabin vaccines?
A. Both are shed in the feces of vaccinees.
B. Both are capable of reversion to virulence
C. Both are administered by injection.
D. Both are killed, active vaccines.
E. *Both are composed of poliovirus serotypes 1, 2, and 3
Infection by these viruses is preventable with a licensed vaccine
A. Coxsackievirus A
B. Coxsackievirus B
C. Enterovirus 72
D. Rhinovirus
E. *Poliovirus
Which of the listed viruses are associated with hepatitits?
A. Coxsackievirus A
B. Coxsackievirus B
C. Poliovirus
D. Rhinovirus
E. *Enterovirus 72
From which viruses do vaccine obtain ?
A. Coxsackievirus A
B. Coxsackievirus B
C. Enterovirus 68
D. Rhinovirus
E. *Poliovirus
Which of the listed viruses are associated with common cold?
A. Coxsackievirus A
B. Coxsackievirus B
C. Enterovirus 72
D. Poliovirus
E. *Rhinovirus
Which of the following infects oropharynx, but not the intestine because the virus is sensitive to
low pH?
A. Poliovirus
B. Enterovirus 72
C. Coxsackievirus B
D. Coxsackievirus A
E. *Rhinovirus
Which of the following viruses are sensitive to low pH?
A. Coxsackievirus A
B. Coxsackievirus B
C. Poliovirus
D. Enterovirus 72
E. *Rhinovirus
Immunization of an infant with this vaccine causes shedding of vaccine strain virus in stool:
A. Salk vaccine
B. Measles
C. Influenza
D. Neither
E. *Sabin vaccine
After immunization of a children with this vaccine often we can find of vaccine strain virus in
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
stool:
A. Influenza
B. Measles
C. Salk vaccine
D. None of the above
E. *Sabin vaccine
Paralytic disease is a risk factor when using this vaccine.
A. Salk vaccine
B. Influenza
C. Measles
D. None of the above
E. *Sabin vaccine
Vaccine associated poliomyelitis is a risk factor when using this vaccine.
A. Salk vaccine
B. Influenza
C. Measles
D. All of the above
E. *Sabin vaccine
Diseases causally associated with Epstein-Barr virus include:
A. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
B. adult T-cell leukemia
C. genital warts
D. none of the above
E. *Burkitt’s Lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Choose among following diseases associated with Epstein-Barr virus:
A. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
B. T-cell leukemia
C. herpes zoster
D. all of the above
E. *Infectious mononucleosis
What is the specimen from which herpes simplex virus is most likely to be cultured:
A. saliva
B. spinal fluid.
C. swab from ulcer.
D. blood
E. *vesicle fluid.
At which specimen we can indicate herpes zoster virus more frequently?
A. blood
B. saliva
C. spinal fluid.
D. swab from ulce
E. *vesicle fluid.
What is the reactivation of herpez zoster virus in an adult called?
A. infectious mononucleosis.
B. aphthous stomatitis.
C. chronic fatigue syndrome.
D. neuritis
E. *shingles.
What does disease occur after contamination by varicella zoster virus in children?
A. aphthous stomatitis.
B. chronic fatigue syndrome
C. infectious mononucleosis.
D. neuritis
E. *varicella.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
Which herpesviruses cause mononucleosis?
A. VZV-1 and HSV-2
B. EBV and herpes B virus
C. CMV and VZV
D. HSV-1and HSV-2
E. *EBV and CMV
Which herpesvirus among listed does cause Burkitt’s lymphoma?
A. VZV
B. polyovirus
C. HSV-2
D. HSV-1
E. *EBV
The virus associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma is:
A. flue virus
B. HIV
C. VZV
D. HHV-6
E. *EBV
Approximately 5% of adults secrete this in saliva and urine:
A. HSV-2
B. VZV
C. EBV
D. HHV-6
E. *CMV
About 5% of adults secrete this virus in urine:
A. EBV
B. HSV-2
C. HHV-6
D. VZV
E. *CMV
The specimen from which varicella-zocter virus is most likely to be recovered is:
A. Swab from ulcer
B. Saliva
C. Spinal fluid
D. Serum
E. *Vesicle fluid
From which specimen herpes simplex virus type II is most likely to be recovered:
A. Saliva
B. Serum
C. Spinal fluid
D. Swab from ulcer
E. *Vesicle fluid
What is the BEST explanation for the selective action of acyclovir in herpes simplex virusinfected cells?
A. Acyclovir binds specifically to herpesvirus receptors on the cell surface
B. Acyclovir exhibits the RNA polymerase in the viral particle
C. Acyclovir blocks the matrix protein of the virus, thereby preventing release by budding
D. Acyclovir inhibits capsid formation
E. *Viral phosphokinase (thymidine kinase) phosphorylates acyclovir more efficiently than does
the host cell phosphokinase
What is the mechanism of the selective action of acyclovir in herpes simplex virus-infected cells?
A. Acyclovir binds specifically to herpesvirus receptors on the cell surface
Acyclovir blocks the matrix protein of the virus, thereby preventing release by budding
Acyclovir exhibits the RNA polymerase in the viral particle
Acyclovir inhibits capsid formation
*Viral phosphokinase (thymidine kinase) phosphorylates acyclovir more efficiently than does
the host cell phosphokinase
How are the herpes viruses classified?
A. Single stranded DNA, non enveloped
B. Positive stranded RNA, enveloped
C. Positive stranded RNA, non enveloped
D. Double stranded DNA, non enveloped
E. *Double stranded DNA, enveloped
Which viruses have tegument?
A. Polioviruses
B. Adenoviruses
C. Influenza viruses
D. Measels viruses
E. *Herpesviruses
Which one of the following is a common feature of infection by herpes simplex virus?
A. Rapid progression to encephalitis and death
B. Chronic progressive tissue damage for many years
C. Dissemination to many body sites, including trans-placental passage
D. Chronic progressive fatigue
E. *Spontaneous recovery with life-long latency
Choose among listed a most common feature of infection caused by herpes simplex virus?
A. Chronic progressive fatigue
B. Chronic progressive tissue damage for many years
C. Dissemination to many body sites, including trans-placental passage
D. Rapid progression to encephalitis and death
E. *Spontaneous recovery with life-long latency
Which one of the following is a common feature of infection by cytomegalovirus?
A. Rapid progression to encephalitis and death
B. Chronic progressive tissue damage for many years
C. Severe vesiculation of epithelium and mucous membranes
D. Spontaneous recovery with life-long latency
E. *Dissemination to many body sites, including trans-placental passage
Choose among listed a common feature of infection caused by cytomegalovirus?
A. Spontaneous recovery with life-long latency
B. Severe vesiculation of epithelium and mucous membranes
C. Rapid progression to encephalitis and death
D. Chronic progressive tissue damage for many years
E. *Dissemination to many body sites, including trans-placental passage
Latency is a feature of which group of viruses?
A. Polioviruses
B. Poxviruses
C. Paramyxoviruses
D. Hepatitis A Viruses
E. *Herpesviruses
The primary means of spread of varicella zoster virus is:
A. direct contact with lesions
B. saliva
C. fecal-oral route
D. direct contact with sick child
E. *respiratory droplets
B.
C.
D.
E.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
177.
Choose among listed which viruses don’t cause latency infection.
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Varicella-zoster virus
D. Ebstain-Barr virus
E. *Polioviruses
Choose among listed the primary means of spread of varicella zoster virus
A. saliva
B. fecal-oral route
C. direct contact with sick child
D. direct contact with lesions
E. *respiratory droplets
Which virus does cause congenital defects?
A. adenovirus
B. herpes simplex virus
C. measles virus
D. mumps virus
E. *rubivirus
Exanthem subitum (roseola) is caused by:
A. human herpes virus 7
B. measles virus
C. varicella zoster virus
D. cytomegalovirus
E. *human herpes virus 6
Which virus does cause gingivostomatitis?
A. cytomegalovirus
B. polyovirus
C. measles virus
D. mumps virus
E. *herpes simplex virus 1
Which virus does cause genital herpes?
A. Herpes simplex virus-1
B. cytomegalovirus
C. human herpes virus 6
D. human herpes virus 8
E. *Herpes simplex virus-2
For which of the following viruses is the presence of heterophile antibody diagnostic?
A. CMV
B. HSV-1
C. HHV-7
D. varicella zoster virus
E. *EBV
Which of the following viruses can stimulate production of the heterophile antibodies?
A. CMV
B. HSV-1
C. HHV-7
D. varicella zoster virus
E. *EBV
Which virus is most likely to infect B lymphocytes?
A. Human immunodeficiency virus
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. Human T cell leukemia virus
D. Hepatitis A virus
E. *Epstein Barr virus
178.
179.
180.
181.
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
Which of the following virus is associated with Kaposi’s sarkoma?
A. Adenovirus
B. Hepatitis A virus
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. Human T cell leukemia virus
E. *Human herpesvirus 8
Which of the following is NOT an effect of acyclovir?
A. Suppression of recurrent herpes infections, if taken daily in high doses
B. Activation by a viral enzyme inside infected cells
C. Active topically or orally or intravenously
D. Active for treatment all herpes infections
E. *Elimination of latent virus
What tested material should be taken for serologic diagnosis of viral infection?
A. saliva
B. swabs from a throat
C. blood
D. feces
E. *paired sera
The smallest known viruses are:
A. Adenovirus
B. Enterovirus
C. Orthomyxovirus
D. Paramyxovirus
E. *Picornavirus
Which viruses have bullet-shaped form?
A. Adenovirus
B. Orthomyxovirus
C. Paramyxovirus
D. Rotavirus
E. *Rhabdovirus
What is main component of all mammalian viruses?
A. an envelope
B. a polymerase
C. an icosahedral capsid
D. a lipid
E. *a nucleic acid
Retroviruses are unique among all viruses that infect humans because only retroviruses:
A. are associated with human cancers
B. are enveloped viruses
C. contain specific surface antigens
D. contain segmented RNA
E. *reverse transcriptase which transcribe their genetic material
Which HIV protein molecules do interact with CD4 receptors of lympocytes?
A. p 8
B. p 17
C. p 24
D. gp 41
E. *gp 120
Azidothymidine (AZT) inhibits retroviral replication by:
A. blocking proteolysis by the viral protease
B. inhibiting proteolysis by the cellular protease
C. binding the cell surface receptor and preventing viral entry
D. binding viral integrase protein to prevent integration into the host chromosome
E. *causing chain termination during reverse transcription
187.
188.
189.
190.
191.
192.
193.
194.
195.
What test is used for primary diagnosis of HIV carriers?
A. indirect haemagglutination test
B. complement fixation test
C. neutralization test
D. haemagglutination inhibition test
E. *ELISA
Which of the following viruses has oncogenic ability?
A. HIV-1
B. HSV-1
C. CMV
D. Neither
E. *HTLV-1
Choose viruses which have oncogenic properties:
A. CMV
B. HIV-1
C. HSV-1
D. Neither
E. *HTLV-2
Which of the following viruses can cause B cell lymphoma in humans?
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Human papilloma viruses
C. Human T-cell lymphotropic virus
D. Hepatitis B virus
E. *Epstein-Barr Virus
What test should be used for examination of Infleunza virus type?
A. Haemagglutination test
B. Haemagglutination inhibition test
C. Precipitation test
D. Neutralization test
E. *Complement fixation test
Which antiviral agent is commonly used to combat herpes simplex virus infections?
A. azidothymidine
B. foscarnet
C. idoxuridine
D. γ interferon
E. *acyclovir
Which of the following anti-viral drugs is used to prevent recurrent HSV infections?
A. amantidine
B. ribavirin
C. phosphonoformate
D. azidothymidine
E. *acyclovir
Each of the following pathogens is likely to establish chronic or latent infection EXEPT:
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. Herpes simplex virus I
D. Herpes simplex virus I I
E. *Hepatitis A virus
Each of the following clinical syndromes is associated with infection by picornaviruses EXCEPT:
A. myocarditis/pericarditis
B. hepatitis
C. minor febrile ilness
D. meningitis
E. *mononucleosis
196.
197.
198.
199.
200.
201.
202.
203.
204.
For indication of the viruses in tested material we can use all tests EXCEPT:
A. Haemagglutination test
B. Haemadsorption test
C. Inoculation of laboratory animal
D. Inoculation of chicken embryo
E. *Complement fixation test
There are such components of haemagglutination test:
A. Viruses, chicken red cells
B. Viruses, chicken red cells, specific serum
C. Viruses, chicken red cells, paired patient’s serums
D. Viruses, chicken red cells, viral diagnosticum, electrolyte
E. *Viruses, chicken red cells, electrolyte
Choose necessary components of haemagglutination inhibition test for virologic diagnosis:
A. Unknown viruses, erythrocytes, electrolyte, specific immune serum, complement
B. Patient’s paired serums, viral diagnosticum, erythrocytes, electrolyte
C. Patient’s paired serums, unknown viruses, erythrocytes, electrolyte
D. Known viruses, erythrocytes, electrolyte, specific immune serum
E. *Unknown viruses, erythrocytes, electrolyte, specific immune antiviral serum
Cytomegalovirus (CMV), all correct, except:
A. Primary infection is usually symptomatic
B. An infectious mononucleosis-like syndrome may occur during primary infection.
C. May cause severe infection in immunocompromised individuals
D. Is not teratogenic
E. *Causes parotitis
Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) is associated with all, except:
A. Infectious Mononucleosis
B. Burkitt's lymphoma
C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D. Oral leukoplakia
E. *Hepatitis B
HHV-6 is associated with
A. Burkitt's lymphoma
B. Kaposi's Sarcoma
C. Infectious Mononucleosis
D. Oral leukoplakia
E. *Roseala Infantum
Adenoviruses, all are correct, except:
A. May cause gastroenteritis
B. May cause conjunctivitis
C. May cause pneumonia
D. May cause urethritis
E. *Are associated with genital cancers
Human Papillomaviruses
A. HPV-6 and HPV-11 are associated with genital cancers
B. Warts caused by papillomaviruses may respond to antibiotics therapy
C. Papillomavirus infection is commonly diagnosed by viral culture
D. Are associated with progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy (PML)
E. *HPV-16 and HPV-18 are associated with genital cancers
Coxsackie B Virus is associated with the following
A. Paralytic illness
Myocarditis
Bornholm's disease
Meningitis
*All
Influenza A Virus, all are correct, except
A. May undergo antigenic shift and antigenic drift
B. May cause pandemics
C. Respond to rimantidine
D. Respond to neuraminidase inhibitors
E. *Vaccination confers lifelong protection
Paramyxoviruses may cause
A. Maculopapular rash
B. Gastritis
C. Hepatitis
D. Diarrhoea
E. *Croup
Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV), all are correct, except:
A. Has only F protein
B. May cause bronchiolitis
C. May cause croup
D. May cause pneumonia
E. *May be prevented by vaccination
Rubella Virus
A. Is teratogenic
B. Congenital rubella is charaterised by eye, ear and heart defects
C. Infants with congenital rubella poses a great infectious risk.
D. Congenital rubella is diagnosed by the finding of rubella-specific antibody in the cord blood
of infants
E. *All are correct
Human T-lymphotropic virus 1 (HTLV-1) is associated with
A. Burkitt's lymphoma
B. Kaposi's Sarcoma
C. Multiple Sclerosis
D. Hodgkin's lymphoma
E. *Adult T-cell lymphoma
HIV Infection may lead to
A. Dementia
B. Chronic Diarrhoea
C. CMV retinitis
D. Oesophageal candidiasis
E. *All are correct
A chronic carrier state may occur in the following:
A. Measles Infection
B. Hepatitis A
C. Hepatitis E
D. Smallpox Infection
E. *Hepatitis B
The following markers are usually present in a hepatitis B carrier with chronic active hepatitis,
except:
A. HbeAg
B. Anti-HBc IgG
C. HBV-DNA
D. HbsAg
B.
C.
D.
E.
205.
206.
207.
208.
209.
210.
211.
212.
E. *Anti-HBc IgM
213.
214.
215.
216.
217.
218.
219.
220.
221.
The following statements are true, except:
A. Chronic HBV infection may respond to interferon therapy
B. Chronic HCV infection may respond to interferon therapy
C. Chronic HCV infection may respond to ribavirin therapy
D. Hepatitis Delta infection may be prevented by vaccination against HBV
E. *Hepatitis E Infection may be prevented by vaccination
The following virus can be transmitted by fecal-oral way
A. HIV
B. HTLV-1
C. HBV
D. HCV
E. *HAV
Regarding viral infection of the central nervous system (CNS), all are correct, except;
A. Meningitis may occur together with encephalitis
B. Enteroviruses are one of the commonest causes of CNS infections in childhood
C. Measles encephalitis is a postinfectious encephalomyelitis
D. The detection of antibody in the CSF is a useful diagnostic marker
E. *Mosquitos are the vector of tick-born encephalitis viruses
One of the following viruses is associated with gastroenteritis
A. Measles viruses
B. RS- viruses
C. Herpes viruses
D. Poxviruses
E. *Rotaviruses
The following viruses are transmitted from animals to humans
A. Polioviruses
B. CMV
C. Measles Virus
D. Rotavirus
E. *Rabies Virus
The following is true of rabies virus
A. The majority of cases world-wide result from bat bites
B. Human Rabies vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine
C. The animal reservoir is the same in all country
D. May be diagnosed only postmortem
E. *Infection may be prevented by active and passive immunisation
Viruses may contain, except
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. Glycoprotein
D. Enzymes
E. *Cell wall
Viruses are
A. May divide by binary fission
B. Have their own metabolism
C. May contain plasmides
D. May have a peptidoglycan
E. *Obligate intracellular parasites
The following may be useful for prognostic purposes in HIV-infected individuals
A. HIV envelope antibody
B. HIV-p17 antigen
C. CD8 count
D. HIV viral ligase
E. *CD4 count
222.
223.
224.
225.
226.
227.
228.
229.
230.
The following markers are usually present in a hepatitis B carrier with chronic active hepatitis
A. Anti-HBsAg IgM
B. HBxAg
C. Anti-HBc IgM
D. HBcAg
E. *HBeAg
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
A. Primary infection is usually asymptomatic
B. An infectious mononucleosis-like syndrome may occur during primary infection
C. May cause severe infection in immunocompromised individuals
D. May cause congenital infection
E. *All are correct
HHV-8 is associated with
A. Fifth disease
B. Roseala Infantum
C. Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma
D. Oral leukoplakia
E. *Kaposi's Sarcoma
Respiratory Syncytial Virus
A. Cause disease mainly in adults
B. May be prevented by vaccination
C. May be treated by amantidine
D. May cause latent infections
E. *May cause bronchiolitis
HIV may respond to
A. Nucleoside analogues
B. Protease inhibitors
C. Azidothymidin
D. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
E. *All are correct
Hepatitis A infection
A. May result in chronic infection
B. May be prevented by acyclovir
C. Is highly infectious during the jaundice phase
D. May result in cirrhosis
E. *May be prevented by vaccination
Hepatitis B infection
A. May result in chronic infection
B. May result in cirrhosis of the liver
C. May result in hepatocellular carcinoma
D. Is highly infectious when positive for HBeAg
E. *All are correct
Choose incorrect statement about Hepatitis C virus
A. May be transmitted by blood
B. Is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma
C. May respond to interferon therapy
D. Can cause chronic infection
E. *Has one stable genotype only
Which of the following agents is the commonest cause of infective endocarditis?
A. . Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B. Candida spp.
C. Coliforms.
D. Rickettsia
E. *Viridans group of streptococci.
231.
232.
233.
234.
235.
236.
237.
238.
239.
Infective-toxic type of food poisoning is caused by:
A. Salmonella Enteritidis.
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Salmonella Dublin.
D. Yeasts
E. *Clostridium perfringens.
Relapses in relapsing fever occur due to:
A. increased toxin production by bacteria.
B. increased invasiveness of bacteria.
C. super infection with viruses.
D. increased fermentative activity of bacteria
E. *antigen variation in bacteria.
Human body louse is responsible for transmission of which of the following diseases?
A. Murine typhus
B. Rickettsialpox.
C. Q fever.
D. Typhi fever
E. *Epidemic typhus.
Sterols are present in the cytoplasmic membrane of:
A. Bacillus.
B. Clostridium.
C. Proteus.
D. Rickettsia
E. *Mycoplasma.
Which of the following bacteria can grow in alkaline pH?
A. Lactobacilli.
B. Salmonella.
C. Shigella.
D. Neisseria
E. *Vibrio cholerae.
The causative agent/s of gas gangrene is/are:
A. Clostridium perfringens.
B. C. novyi.
C. С. septicum.
D. C. histolyticum
E. *all of the above.
Which of the following properties is/are characteristic of tetanospasmin?
A. It is a heat-labile protein.
B. It is a neurotoxin.
C. It can be toxoided.
D. It is exotoxin
E. *All of the above.
Which of the following exotoxins resembles strychnine in its effect?
A. Botulinum toxin.
B. Diphtheria toxin.
C. None of the above.
D. All of the above.
E. *Tetanus toxin.
Which of the following bacteria most frequently cause tuberculosis in human?
A. M. bovis.
M. africanum.
M. kansasii
All answer are correct.
*Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
240. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is pathogenic for:
A. rabbits.
B. both of the above.
C. mice
D. rats
E. *guinea-pigs.
241.
Dysentery like disease may be caused by
A. enteropathogenic Escherichia colt.
B. enterotoxigenic E. coli.
C. verotoxigenic E. coli.
D. enteroaggregative E. coli.
E. *enteroinvasive E. coli.
242.
Which of the following bacteria is negative for fermentation of mannitol?
A. S. Flexneri.
B. S. boydii.
C. S. sonnei.
D. All of the above.
E. *Shigella dysenteriae.
243.
Which of the following specimens is/are most appropriate for culture of bacteria in first week of
enteric fever?
A. Urine.
B. Faeces.
C. CSF.
D. Bile
E. *Blood.
244.
In Widal test, the significant titre for О agglutinins is generally:
A. 1: 50 or more.
B. 1:200 or more.
C. 1:400 or more.
D. 1:800 or more.
E. *1:100 or more.
245.
Which of the following bacteria ferment mannitol anaerobically?
A. S. epidermidis.
B. S. saprophyticus.
C. S. canis
D. None of the above.
E. *Staphylococcus aureus.
246.
What is the colour of colonies of C. diphtheriae on blood tellurite agar medium?
A. White.
B. Cream.
C. Yellow.
D. Green
E. *Grey to black.
247. Which of the following properties is/are
1. shown by diphtheria toxin?
A. It is a heat-labile protein.
B. It inhibits protein synthesis.
C. It is produced by Corynebacterium diptheriae strains lysogenic for p phage.
D. It is exotoxin
B.
C.
D.
E.
E. *All are correct.
Ascoli's thermoprecipitin test helps in confirming the laboratory diagnosis of:
A. tetanus.
B. typhoid.
C. cholera.
D. pertussis
E. *anthrax.
249.
Bubonic plague is transmitted by:
A. inhalation.
B. ingestion.
C. . ticks
D. all of the above routes.
E. *. rat flea.
250.
The name 'black death' is given to which of
2. the following diseases?
A. Tuberculosis.
B. Diphtheria.
C. AIDS.
D. Cholera
E. *Plague.
251.
Which of the following tests can differentiate between classical and El Tor biotypes of Vibrio
cholerae?
A. Sensitivity to polymyxin B.
B. Agglutination of fowl RBCs.
C. Sensitivity to Mukerjee's group IV phage.
D. Antigenic structure
E. *All of the above.
252.
Ways of transmition of Brucellae to humans are:
A. direct contact with animal tissues.
B. ingestion of contaminated meat.
C. ingestion of raw infected milk.
D. direct contact with animal placenta
E. *all answers are correct.
253.
The causative agent/s of non-gonococcal urethritis is/are?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis.
B. Ureaplasmau urealyticum.
C. Mycoplasma hominis.
D. Herpes virus 2
E. *All of the above.
254.
A hard chancre is characteristic of:
A. secondary syphilis.
B. latent syphilis.
C. tertiary syphilis.
D. complication of syphilis
E. *primary syphilis.
255.
The coagulase test is used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from
A. streptococci
B. micrococci
C. enterococci
D. pneumococci
E. *other staphylococci
256.
The causative agent of Lyme disease is:
A. Borrelia recurrenlis.
248.
B. dutioni.
B. hermsii
B. persica
*B. burgdorferi.
Typical property of obligate anaerobes is, EXCEPT:
A. They grow best in the absence of air
B. They lack superoxide dismutase
C. They lack catalase
D. They grow in Kitt-Tarozi medium
E. *They generate energy by using the cytochrorne svstem
Which microbes can cause pus-inflamation process?
A. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Neisseria
E. *all of these
The symptoms in scarlet fever are due to
A. streptolysin
B. coagulase
C. alpha toxin
D. leucocidin
E. *pyrogenic toxin
The most severe streptococcal diseases are caused by
A. group B streptococci
B. group C streptococci
C. pneumococci
D. enterococci
E. *group A streptococci
Rheumatic fever damages the _______, and glomerulonephritis damages the______
A. skin, heart
B. oints, bone marrow
C. brain, kidney
D. heart, bone marrow
E. *heart valves, kidney
n effective vaccine exists to prevent crupouse pneumonia from
A. Staph, aureus
B. Strep. pyogenes
C. N. gonorrhoeae
D. N. meningitidis
E. *Strep. pneumoniae
Viridans streptococci commonly cause
A. pneumonia
B. meningitis
C. otitis media
D. arthritis
E. *subacute endocarditis
Which genus of bacteria has pathogens that can cause blindness in newborn?
A. Branhamella
B. Staphylococcus
C. Streptococcus
D. Shigella
E. *Neisseria
A complication of genital gonorrhea in both men and women is
B.
C.
D.
E.
257.
258.
259.
260.
261.
262.
263.
264.
265.
pelvic inflammatory disease
arthritis
blindness
urethritis
*infertility
The skin blotches in meningitis are due to
A. blood clots
B. erysipelas
C. exotoxin in skin
D. skin invasion by N. meningitidis
E. *endotoxins in the blood
. Which infectious agent of those covered in the chapter would most likely be acquired from a
contaminated doorknob?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. *Staphylococcus aureus
What is the usual habitat of endospore-forming bacteria that are agents of disease?
A. the intestine of animals
B. water
C. foods
D. dust
E. *soil
Most Bacillus species are
A. true pathogens
B. opportunistic pathogens
C. commensals
D. saprophyticus
E. *nonpathogens
Many clostridial diseases require a/an ______ conditions for their development.
A. aerobic
B. living tissue
C. low-pH
D. alkaline pH
E. *anaerobic
Clostridium perfringens causes
A. myonecrosis, food poisoning
B. enterocolitis, haemorrhagic syndrom
C. antibiotic-induced colitis
D. All of the above
E. *both a and b
The action of tetanus exotoxin is on the
A. neuromuscular junction
B. sensory neurons
C. nucleus of hypocamp
D. cerebral cortex
E. *spinal interneurons
An infection peculiar to swine causes _______ when transmitted to humans.
A. anthrax
B. diphtheria
C. plage
D. tuberculosis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
266.
267.
268.
269.
270.
271.
272.
273.
E. *erysipeloid
274.
275.
276.
277.
278.
279.
280.
281.
282.
Tuberculosis is spread by
A. contaminated fomites
B. food
C. vectors
D. urine
E. *respiratory droplets
Microbial diagnosis of tuberculosis is by
A. X ray
B. Mantoux test
C. acid-fast stain
D. pure culture
E. *both c and d
The form of leprosy associated with severe disfigurement of the face is
A. borderline
B. chronic
C. papular
D. tuberculoid
E. *lepromatous
Caseous lesions containing inflammatory white blood cells are
A. pseudomembranes
B. eschars
C. tubercles
D. papular
E. *lepromas
Which infectious agent cause pseudomembranous collitis?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Mycobacterium leprae
D. Shigella sonnei
E. *Clostridium difficile
Which infectious agents cause food poising?
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Clostridium tetani
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. all of these
E. *Clostridium perfringens
Which infection(s) would be categorized as a zoonosis?
A. gas gangrene
B. diphtheria
C. cholera
D. both a and b
E. *anthrax
A unique characteristic of many isolates of Pseudomonas useful in identification is
A. drug resistance
B. fecal odor
C. gram staining
D. motility
E. *green pigment
Human brucellosis is also known as
A. Fran's disease
B. Query fever
C. rabbit fever
D. relapsing fever
E. *undulant fever
283.
284.
285.
286.
287.
288.
289.
290.
291.
Francisella tularensis has no which portal of entry?
A. tick bite
B. intestinal
C. respiratory
D. only c and d
E. *sexual
A classic symptom of pertussis is
A. labored breathing
B. convulsions
C. headache
D. redish of skin
E. *paroxysmal coughing
The severe symptoms of pertussis are due to what effect?
A. irritation of the glottis by the microbe
B. pneumonia
C. blocked airways
D. heart disease
E. *damage of function of the respiratory epithelium
For Escherichia coli most impotent which antigens are?
A. capsular
B. flagellar
C. Vi
D. all of these
E. *somatic
Which of the following bacterium is causative agent of dysenteriae?
A. E. coli
B. Klebsiella
C. Proteus
D. Vibrio
E. *Shigella
Complications of typhoid fever are:
A. liver abscesses
B. meningitis
C. neurological damage
D. sepsis
E. *intestinal perforation
Which of the following represents a major difference between Salmonella and Shigella
infections?
A. incubation period
B. mode of transmission
C. presence/absence of fever and diarrhea
D. the portal of entry
E. *place of location in intestine
Shigella is transmitted by
A. flies
B. infected dust
C. air dropled
D. louse
E. *infected food and water
The bubo of bubonic plague is a/an
A. granuloma in the skin
infected sebaceous gland
tumor of lymph node
ulcer where the flea bite occurred
*enlarged lymph node
Haemophilus influenzae needs for growth.
A. blood
B. NAD
C. hemin
D. X factor
E. *all of the above
Formation of a gummas is
A. a damaged aorta
B. a damaged liver
C. the primary lesion of syphilis
D. the result of congenital syphilis
E. *a degenerative lesions
The treatment of choice for syphilis is:
A. antiserum
B. aurum drug
C. sulfa drugs
D. tetracycline
E. *penicillin
Which of the treponematoses are not veneral disease, except?
A. bejel
B. pinta
C. yaws
D. endemic syphilis
E. *syphilis
Lyme disease is caused by ______ and spread by ______.
A. Borrelia recurrentis, lice
B. Borrelia burgdorferi, chiggers
C. Borrelia hermsii, ticks
D. Borrelia recurrentis, ticks
E. *Borrelia burgdorferi, ticks
Epidemic Relapsing fever is spread by
A. ticks
B. flea
C. mosquites
D. animal urine
E. *lice
Endemic Relapsing fever is spread by
A. lice
B. flea
C. mosquites
D. animal urine
E. *ticks
The source of Vibrio cholerae is
A. mice
B. animals
C. natural waters
D. food
E. *carriers, sick person
The best treatment for cholera is
B.
C.
D.
E.
292.
293.
294.
295.
296.
297.
298.
299.
300.
antiserum injection
tetracycline
toxoid
vaccine
*rehydration therapy
Rickettsias and chlamydias are similar in being
A. carried by arthropod vectors
B. free of a cell wall
C. produce exotoxin
D. the cause of eye infections
E. *obligate intracellular bacteria
Which of the following is/are an arthropod vector of rickettsioses?
A. flea
B. louse
C. tick
D. mosquito
E. *all of the above
Chlamydia trachomatis can attacks which structure(s)?
A. eye
B. urethra
C. fallopian tubes
D. lungs
E. all of these
Ornithosis is a _____ infection associated with ______
A. rickettsial, parrots
B. chlamydial, mice
C. rickettsial, flies
D. chlamydial, rats
E. *chlamydial, birds
Mycoplasmas demage next structure of host cells.
A. nucleus
B. cell walls
C. ribosomes
D. mitochondria
E. *cell membranes
A child develops pneumonia. The bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae is cultured from the
patient’s sputum. Cells of the cultured bacteria have thick polysaccharide capsules. How did the
presence of capsules promote development of serious disease?
A. Prevented binding of antibodies to the bacteria.
B. Prevented initiation of a humoral immune response
C. Prevented activation of helper T cells
D. Prevented mast-cell degranulation.
E. *Prevented phagocytosis by neutrophils.
Water to be used for parenteral injection must sterilized to kill living microbes and then further
purified to remove non-living bacterial components. Of those listed below,
A. Polysaccharides of capsules
B. Plasma-membrane lipids.
C. Proteins of the outer membrane.
D. Nucleic acids
E. *Lipopolysaccharide.
A child at-risk for Tetanus is treated with Tetanus immune globulin (human). What is a major
advantage of this method for immunization over the use of Tetanus toxoid?
A. Poses a reduced risk of serum sickness.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
301.
302.
303.
304.
305.
306.
307.
308.
Provides longer-lasting immunity
Results in higher antibody titer.
Also provides secretory IgA for mucosal immunity.
*Provides protection more rapidly.
309.
A child under treatment for leukemia is treated with Tetanus immune globulin (human). Which
phrase best describes the immunity that is produced?
A. Innate and specific.
B. Innate and humoral.
C. Innate and cell-mediated.
D. Acquired and cell-mediated.
E. *Acquired and humoral.
310.
A 20-year-old student has a deep laceration. He received the standard four-doses of DiphtheriaPertussis-Tetanus immunizations in infancy, and a booster at age 5, but has had no anti-Tetanus
immunization since. Which of the following would it be most appropriate to administer?
A. Tetanus anti-toxin (equine).
B. Tetanus toxoid.
C. Tetanus immune globulin (human).
D. Both Tetanus toxoid Tetanus anti-toxin (equine).
E. *Both Tetanus toxoid and Tetanus immune globulin (human).
311.
A ten-year-old girl has dirty, crushing, wounds, received when she fell from a motorcycle. She
has never been immunized against Tetanus. Which of the following should you administer?
A. Tetanus immune globulin (human)
B. Tetanus toxoid
C. Tetanus toxoid Tetanus immune globulin (human) mixed and administered as a single
injection.
D. No immunization
E. *Tetanus toxoid plus Tetanus immune globulin (human),
3. injected at separate sites.
312.
An elderly man develops pneumonia and septicemia. Gram stain of sputum contains many
neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci, in pairs. Blood and sputum cultures grow out a Grampositive coccus, α-hemolytic on sheep blood agar, and catalase-negative. Which organism below
is most likely?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Streptococcus pyogenes.
D. Streptococcus agalactiae.
E. *Streptococcus pneumoniae.
313.
Staphylococcus aureus is easily transmitted within the hospital environment. Which feature of
this bacterium is most largely responsible for its ease of spread?
A. Ability to colonize the digestive tract.
B. Presence of an outer membrane impermeable to most disinfectants.Production of extracellular
polysaccharide which allows it to adhere tightly to surfaces.
C. Ability to form spores which are resistant to disinfectants and easily dispersed.
D. none of the above
E. *Resistance to heat, cold, and drying.
314.
You suspect Chlamydia infection in a sexually-active young woman. Which test would be most
likely to provide results which would confirm this diagnosis?
A. Agglutination test for anti-cardiolipin antibodies.
B. Test of a blood sample for ‘cold agglutinins”.
C. Gram-stained smear of discharge from the cervix.
D. Culture of exudate from the cervix on Thayer-Martin agar.
E. *PCR test of nucleic acids present in a urine sample.
315.
A 23-year-old medical student had headache and fever one evening. By the next morning she had
B.
C.
D.
E.
316.
317.
318.
319.
320.
321.
become very ill, with high fever, severe headache, and stiff neck. She was admitted to the
hospital. Later that day she developed rash, at first petechial and then purpuric. Gram stain of
CSF showed many white cells and Gram-negative cocci, many in pairs. Which organism is most
likely to be the cause of her infection?
A. Escherichia coli.
B. Haemophilus influenzae.
C. Streptococcus agalactiae.
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
E. *Neisseria meningitidis.
A patient has cellulitis of the left arm, persistent fever, and a heart murmur. He is a habitual user
of illegal drugs, which he self-administers intravenously. An echocardiogram shows a bacterial
vegetation on the aortic valve. Three blood cultures all grow an α-hemolytic Gram-positive
coccus, catalasenegative. Which organism is most likely to have caused his infection?
A. Staphylococcus aureus.
B. Streptococcus pyogenes [Group A].
C. Streptococcus agalactiae [Group B].
D. Streptococcus bovis [Group D].
E. *A Viridans-group Streptococcus.
. Administration of which of the following vaccines would be contra-indicated in an patient with
impaired cell-mediated immunity?
A. Pneumococcal vaccine (pediatric).
B. Pneumococcal vaccine (adult).
C. Tetanus toxoid.
D. Acellular Pertussis vaccine.
E. *BCG vaccine against tuberculosis.
A sexually-active woman develops a urinary tract infection which ascends to the kidneys. Blood
culture yields a β-hemolytic Gram-negative rod. In this situation, which pathogen is most
common?
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae.
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C. Salmonella enteritidis.
D. Serratia marcescens.
E. *Escherichia coli.
A four-year-old boy was brought to the emergency room with a history of bloody diarrhea over
the preceding two days. A fecal smear contained numerous red cells and neutrophils. Stool
culture on Endo agar produced lactose-negative colonies amid colonies of ‘normal intestinal
flora’. Which of the organisms below is most likely to be the cause of his illness?
A. Enteropathogenic E. coli
B. Balantidium coli.
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Giardia lamblia.
E. *Shigella.
A child develops a “cold” which progresses to severe pharyngitis. Pharyngeal exudate forms a
tough ‘membrane’, difficult to remove without causing bleeding. Culture of a throat swab on
selective tellurite agar produces abundant black colonies. Other cultures produce only normal
flora. Which organism is most likely to have caused this infection?
A. Actinomyces israelii.
B. Bordetella pertussis.
C. Candida albicans.
D. Mycobacterium avium/intracellulare.
E. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
A patient has rapidly spreading soft-tissue infection with gas in infected tissue. Fluid from a
blister contains many large Gram-positive rods which grow on sheep blood agar anaerobically but
322.
323.
324.
325.
326.
327.
328.
not aerobically. Which pathogen is most consistent with these findings?
A. Bacillus anthracis.
B. Bacillus cereus.
C. Clostridium difficile.
D. Listeria monocytogenes.
E. *Clostridium perfringens.
A child is diagnosed with Pertussis. How was this infection most likely to have been acquired?
A. Bite of a dog or cat.
B. Consumption of dairy products made from unpasteurized milk
C. Contact with livestock or animal products such as leather or wool.
D. Release of oral flora into the bloodstream by dental work
E. *Inhalation of respiratory droplets of another human being.
Untreated pharyngitis produced by Group A streptococci can result in later development of Acute
rheumatic fever, created by cross-reaction of anti-streptococcal antibodies with heart tissue.
Which streptococcal antigen stimulates formation of these cross-reactive antibodies?
A. Group A carbohydrate.
B. Flagella.
C. Peptidoglycan.
D. Teichoic acid.
E. *M protein
A vacationer has “Traveler’s diarrhea” produced by enterotoxigenic E. coli. His profuse watery
diarrhea is produced by a protein exotoxin secreted by this bacterium. Which statement below
best describes the effect of this exotoxin?
A. Kills enterocytes and produces ulceration and inflammation.
B. Paralyzes phagocytosis by neutrophils.
C. Blocks adsorption of nutrients by enterocytes.
D. Causes rearrangement of the enterocyte cytoskeleton and disappearance of the brush border.
E. *Blocks adsorption of nutrients by enterocytes.Stimulates ion transport by enterocytes into the
intestinal lumen.
The severe diarrhea of cholera is produced by a protein exotoxin that acts on enterocytes. Which
statement below best describes the effect of Cholera toxin?
A. Alters the actin cytoskeleton.
B. Inactivates ribosomes.
C. Proteolytic cleavage of a specific cellular protein.
D. Stimulates guanyl cyclase.
E. *Stimulates adenyl cyclase.
. A medical student with a three-week history of respiratory illness is treated with erythromycin [a
macrolide]. Which phrase best describes the process inhibited by this drug?
A. Transcription by bacterial RNA polymerase.
B. Supercoiling of bacterial DNA.
C. Cross-linking of peptidoglycan.
D. Polymerization of peptidoglycan.
E. *Peptide bond formation by bacterial ribosomes.
An elderly resident of a nursing home develops pneumococcal pneumonia. This illness might
have been prevented had the patient been immunized against this organism. Which antigens of S.
pneumoniae are included in the adult vaccine?
A. M-proteins.
B. Intact heat-killed bacteria.
C. Toxoids produced from superantigen toxins.
D. Cell-associated (C) carbohydrates.
E. *Capsular polysaccharides.
Before the advent of immunization, outbreaks of meningococcal disease were frequent in military
camps. A factor in development of such outbreaks is the ability of Neisseria meningitidis to
establish an asymptomatic ‘carrier state’. What is the predominant site of carriage of Neisseria?
A. Urethral epithelium.
B. Gall bladder.
C. Large intestine.
D. Meninges and choroid plexus
E. *Nasopharynx.
329.
When Bacillus anthracis is cultured, the isolate is expected to have all of the following
characteristics EXCEPT:
A. Formation of large colonies, which retain their shape when manipulated.
B. Absence of hemolysis on sheep blood agar.
C. Lack of motility in soft-agar testing media.
D. Blue/purple color after Gram-staining.
E. *Inability to form spores.
330.
Antibiotic treatment is absolutely necessary in cutaneous anthrax, to:
A. Prevent progression from vesicle to eschar.
B. Limit the amount of edema surrounding the eschar.
C. Enable the quick healing of skin lesions.
D. Assure that no permanent scar is formed.
E. *Prevent progression to systemic illness.
331.
The spastic paralysis of Tetanus is the effect of a protein exotoxin. Which phrase below best
describes the process directly inhibited by Tetanus toxin?
A. Synthesis of neurotransmitter.
B. Transport of neurotransmitter into vesicles.
C. Calcium influx required for neurotransmitter release.
D. Binding of neurotransmitter molecules to their receptors
E. *Docking and fusion of neurotransmitter vesicles with the synaptic membrane.
332.
If you suspect Francisella infection, you should inform the lab when sending a specimen. What is
the predominant reason you need to do this?
A. Francisella requires culture in living human cells.
B. Francisella requires culture in living protozoa, such as amoebae.
C. Francisella although biologically Gram-negative, stains Gram-positive unless special
technique is used.
D. Francisella cannot be cultured on ‘standard media’.
E. *Francisella is readily transmitted to laboratory workers when cultured.
333.
Chlamydia trachomatis may be cultured on monolayers of human cells. If infected cells were
examined by staining and light microscopy, what would you be most likely to observe?
A. A membrane-bounded inclusion body, within the nucleus.
B. Rod shaped Gram-positive bacilli, free within the cytoplasm.
C. Gram-negative cocci, within the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum.
D. Cyst forms inside lysosomes.
E. *A membrane-bounded inclusion body, within the cytoplasm.
334.
An infant is brought to the emergency room, cyanotic and with poor muscle tone.
4. Which condition is most likely given these findings?
A. Antibiotic-associated colitis.
B. Diphtheria.
C. Anthrax.
D. Tetanus.
E. *Botulism.
335.
In what way do Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Streptococcus pneumoniae
most closely resemble each other?
A. Lipopolysaccharide in their outer membranes.
B. Teichoic acid in their envelopes.
C. Thick peptidoglycan in their cell walls.
D. Motility due to flagella.
E. *Polysaccharide capsules
336.
337.
338.
339.
340.
341.
342.
In August, a young man presents with a history of fever for 1 week and a red rash which extends
to the palms and soles. IgM titer to Rickettsia rickettsii is 1:640. From which vector was this
infection most likely to have been acquired?
A. Mosquito of the genus Anopheles.
B. Blood-sucking sandfly.
C. Flea.
D. Human body louse.
E. *Dog tick.
The cell tropism of the genus Rickettsia determines the type of disease produced. Which phrase
best describes Rickettsial disease?
A. Encephalitis
B. Meningitis.
C. Myocarditis
D. Myositis.
E. *Vasculitis.
Which characteristic of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is believed to be most essential to its
transmission?
A. Anti-phagocytic polysaccharide capsule.
B. Production of protein exotoxins.
C. Rapid growth.
D. Type III secretion system.
E. *Impermeable lipid-rich envelope.
In a patient with systemic febrile illness, which item in the history would indicate the highest risk
for Brucella infection?
A. Recent travel to China.
B. Chronic cardiopulmonary disease.
C. Age less than two years.
D. Drinking unpurified water from a river or stream.
E. *Contact with livestock or animal products.
A patient becomes infected with Salmonella enterica serotype typhi. Which condition would most
strongly favor development of a “chronic carrier state” with this organism?
A. Age over 70 years.
B. Infection via the respiratory route.
C. Kidney stones.
D. Chronic pulmonary disease.
E. *Gallstones.
A patient has an abscess from which Bacterioides fragilis is isolated. Which condition is most
likely to have facilitated infection by this organism?
A. Treatment with trimethoprim/sulfa.
B. Presence of neutrophils.
C. Antibiotic treatment for another bacterial infection.
D. Colonization of the large intestine with spores of this organism.
E. *Tissue ischemia.
A patient develops pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae. The predominant virulence
factor of this organism is a thick capsule . Which phrase best describes the role of this capsule in
virulence?
A. Aids in acquisition of iron.
B. Toxic to lung epithelial cells
C. Identical to human polysaccharide, so is non-immunogenic.
D. Inhibits activation of Complement.
E. *Reduces phagocytosis by neutrophils.
343.
344.
345.
346.
347.
348.
349.
350.
A patient has a peptic ulcer. Which organism is most likely to have created this lesion?
A. Campylobacter jejuni.
B. Enterococcus faecalis.
C. Escherichia coli.
D. Salmonella enteritidis.
E. *Helicobacter pylori
A 50-year-old woman was treated for cystitis [caused by E. coli] with an oral broad-spectrum
antibiotic. Three weeks later she developed abdominal pain and diarrhea. A stained smear of stool
contained many neutrophils. Cultures for bacterial pathogens were negative. A serological test of
stool for Clostridium difficile toxin was positive. Which of the following is most likely to have
been the immediately predisposing cause of this patient’s C. difficile infection?
A. Colonization of her large intestine by antibiotic-resistant E. coli.
B. An allergic response to her antibiotic treatment.Acquisition of an antibiotic-resistance plasmid
(R-Factor) by C. difficile.
C. Acquisition of an antibiotic-resistance plasmid (R-Factor) by C. difficile.
D. none of the above
E. *Alteration of her intestinal flora by antibiotic treatment.
Chancroid is caused by
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Treponema pertenua
C. Clostridium sp.
D. Mycoplasma
E. *Hemophilus ducreyi
Which of the following statements best describes Streptococcus pneumoniae?
A. bile soluble, gramnegative, optochin resistant
B. bile soluble, catalase positive, optochin sensitive
C. bile soluble, catalase negative, motily
D. bile soluble, catalase positive,
E. *bile soluble, capsulated
Which of the following is a pathogen of the oropharynx?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Streptococcus bovis
C. Streptococcus viridans
D. Streptococcus faecalis
E. *Streptococcus pyogenes
What do endotoxins and exotoxins have in common?
A. secreted into the medium
B. heat stable
C. heat resistent
D. contain polysaccharide
E. *cause damage to the host
Which virulence factor results in the symptoms of Staphylococcal food poisoning?
A. exfoliative exotoxin
B. hyaluronidase
C. endotoxin
D. neurotoxin
E. *enterotoxin
Which of the following best describes the pathogenesis of acute rheumatic fever?
A. due to an immunologic cross reaction between heart muscle and Staphylococcus aureus
B. involves B-hemolytic Streptococci growing in the heart
C. is a complication of Group A Streptococcal skin disease as well as pharyngitis
D. tonsilitis is first stage of development of rheumatic fever
E. *characterized by inflammation of the heart and/or the joints
351.
352.
353.
354.
355.
356.
357.
358.
359.
Which of the following statements about gonorrhea is true?
A. Men are frequently asymptomatic carriers.
B. Bacteremia is common.
C. Serologic diagnosis is more reliable than culture.
D. Penicillins are no longer recommended for treatment.
E. *Gonococci are within leucocytes in a sample
Gonococci are within leucocytes in a sample
A. growth in 6.5% NaCl
B. catalase negative
C. PYR positive
D. motility
E. *oxidase positive
Which of the following tests may be used to differentiate Salmonella typhi from Shigella species?
A. glucose fermentation
B. gas production from glucose
C. citrate utilization
D. color of colonies on Endo medium
E. *motility
Which of the following descriptions best fits a typical strain of Escherichia coli?
A. non-motile, aerogenic, lactose fermenting mucoid colony
B. motile, anaerogenic, non-lactose fermenting, indole positive
C. motile, aerogenic, non-lactose fermenting, citrate negative
D. non-motile, ferments lactose slowly, gramnegative
E. *motile, aerogenic, lactose fermenting, indole positive
Hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by which of the following bacterium?
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Helicobacter pylori
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Ureaplasma
E. *Escherichia coli 0157
What is the most common cause of urinary tract infections?
A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
B. Enterococcus fecalis
C. Streptococcus bovis
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
E. *Escherichia coli
Which of the following result(s) best describe(s) the listed organism?
A. Campylobacter jejuni - gram positive gull wings
B. Shigella Sonneii - mannitol negative H2S (wk)
C. Yersinia enterocolitica -sporulated, colony sick yellow
D. Clostridium perfringens - aerobes, sporulated
E. *E coli 0157 - lactose positive, indole positive
Syphilis is caused by which of the following?
A. Helicobacter pylori
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Serratia marcesans
D. Treponema Vincentii
E. *Treponema pallidum
What term refers to a disease that is always out there in low numbers in a given regional area?
A. pandemic
B. epidemic
C. hypodermic
D. case
E. *endemic
360.
361.
362.
363.
364.
365.
366.
367.
368.
Which of the following tests may be used to differentiate Salmonella paratyphi from Shigella
species?
A. Fermentation of glucose
B. gram staining
C. citrate utilization of Simmons’ citrate agar
D. shape
E. *gas production from glucose
Which of the following descriptions best fits a typical strain of Escherichia coli?
A. motile, aerogenic, non-lactose fermenting, citrate negative
B. non-motile, aerogenic, lactose fermenting mucoid colony
C. motile, anaerogenic, non-lactose fermenting, indole positive
D. motile, anaerogenic, lactose fermenting, sporulated
E. *motile, aerogenic, lactose fermenting, indole positive
Which one of the following enterobacteriaceae always are causative agents of enteric diseases?
A. Shigella
B. Salmonella
C. Klebsiella
D. Citrobacter
E. only a and b
Borellia burgdorferi causes which disease?
A. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
B. Hanta
C. Rabies
D. Relapsing fever
E. *Lyme's Disease
How is leptospirosis, caused by Leptospira interrogans, transmitted?
A. Tick bite
B. Undercooked meat
C. Inhaled aerosol
D. louse feces
E. *Contaminated urine in food or water
What is the most common human pathogen/opportunist?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Steptococcus pneumoniae
C. Escherichia coli
D. Enterococcus
E. *Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Brucella abortussis, a cause of undulant fever, is transmitted in all but which of the following
ways?
A. Direct contact with infected animals
B. Exposure to animal carcass
C. Drinking unpasteurized milk
D. none of the above
E. *Exposure to animal feces
Which of the following is NOT true about Bordetella pertussis?
A. Causes Whooping Cough
B. Attaches to ciliated cells with capsules
C. Complications can include pneumonia, brain damage and death
D. none of the above
E. *Gram negative anaerobe
Which of the following is NOT true of Neisseria gonorrhea?
A. Is a mucosal pathogen
Can disseminate in the immunosuppressed
Complications include ectopic pregnancy, PID and sterility
produces endotoxin
*Produces exotoxin
Which of the following is NOT true of Neisseria meningitidis?
A. Crosses the blood brain barrier
B. Colonizes nasopharynx
C. Predisposed groups include diabetics
D. none of the above
E. *Has 3 serotypes - A, B, Y
Helicobacter pylori, a cause of peptic ulcers and gastric carcinoma, is diagnosed by which of the
following methods?
A. Serology (serum) test
B. Biopsy (invasive)
C. Radioactive isotope C14 test
D. none of the above
E. *All of the above
What is the cause of food toxic poisoning?
A. Salmonella enteriditis
B. Escherichia coli
C. Campylobacter jejuni
D. Clostridium tetani
E. *Clostridium botulinum
Which of the following members of the Vibrio family cause severe dehydration?
A. Vibrio vulnificus
B. Vibrio parahaemolyticum
C. Vibrio alginolyticus
D. none of the above
E. *Virbrio cholerae
What is the incubation period for Shigella dysenteriae?
A. 6 to 8 hours
B. 24 to 48 hours
C. 1 to 2 weeks
D. none of the above
E. *2 to 4 days
Which of the following does not occur when an individual is infected with Salmonella enteriditis?
A. Endotoxins cause inflammation and fever
B. Enterotoxins cause diarrhea
C. Cytotoxins lyse endothelial cells lining the intestinal tract
D. all
E. *Proteolytic enzymes cause necrosis
Yersinia pestis causes both the Bubonic Plague and the more deadly Pneumonic Plague. How is
Pneumonic Plague transmitted?
A. The bite of a flea
B. Via rodents
C. Exchange of bodily fluids
D. The bite of lice
E. *Air-borne
Which of the following is NOT true about Mycoplasma hominis?
A. Synonymous with Ureaplasma urealyticum
B. More prevalent in late summer/early fall
C. Is endemic worldwide
D. none of the above
B.
C.
D.
E.
369.
370.
371.
372.
373.
374.
375.
376.
E. *Vaccine uses conjugated polysaccharide B
377.
378.
379.
380.
381.
382.
383.
384.
385.
Which of the following bacteria is cell wall deficient?
A. Treponema.
B. Slaphylococcus.
C. Klebsiella.
D. Salmonella
E. *Mycoplasma.
Antitoxic therapy is useful in:
A. gas gangrene.
B. diphtheria.
C. tetanus
D. botulism
E. *all of the above.
BCG vaccine is a:
A. killed vaccine
B. toxoid vaccine.
C. recombinant vaccine.
D. subcelullar vaccine.
E. *live attenuated vaccine
Which of the following bacteria belong/s to the family Enterobacteriaceae?
A. Shigella.
B. Salmonella.
C. Yersinia.
D. Proteus
E. *All answers are corect
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome is caused by:
A. enteropathogenic Escherichia coli
B. enterotoxigenic E. coli.
C. enteroinvasive E. coli
D. enteroaggregative E. coli.
E. *enterohaemorrhagic E. coli
Which of the following media is an enrichment medium for the isolation of Shigella?
A. Tetrathionate broth.
B. Alkaline peptone water
C. Taurocholate peptone transport and enrichment medium
D. Endo medium
E. *Selenite broth.
Which of the following bacteria is/are primarily human pathogens?
A. Salmonella typhi.
B. S. Paratyphi A.
C. S. Paratyphi B.
D. Shigella
E. *All answers are correct.
Which of the following media is/are used for blood culture in cases of enteric fever?
A. Tetrathionate broth.
B. Selenite-F broth.
C. Sugar broth.
D. All answers are correct.
E. *Bile broth.
For determining the serotype of infecting organism, detection of which agglutinins is more important in Widal test?
A. H.
B. Fimbrial.
C. M.
D. Vi
E. *O.
386.
387.
388.
389.
390.
391.
392.
393.
394.
Bipolar staining is characteristic of:
A. Proteus mirabilis.
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Bacillus anthracis
E. *Yersinia pestis.
Scalded skin syndrome is due to which toxin of Staphylococcus aureus?
A. Enterotoxin.
B. Leucocidin.
C. Haemolysin
D. Necrotoxin
E. *Epidermolytic toxin.
Isolation of pneumococci from clinical specimens may be attempted by intraperitoneal
inoculation
A. rabbits.
B. rats
C. sheeps.
D. horses
E. *mice.
Which biotype/s of Corynebacterium diphtheriae ferment/s starch and glycogen?
A. Intermedius.
B. Mitis
C. All of the above.
D. none of the above
E. *Gravis.
Diphtheria toxin has a special affinity for which of the following tissue/s?
A. Heart muscles.
B. Nerve endings.
C. Adrenal glands.
D. none of the above.
E. *All of the above.
“Medusa head” appearance of the colonies is characteristic of:
A. Proteus mirabilis.
B. Clostridium tetani.
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D. Clostridium botulini
E. *Bacillus anthracis.
Typical drumstick appearance of bacilli is observed in:
A. Clostridium perfringens.
B. C. diphtheriae
C. C. histolyticum.
D. C. difficilae
E. *С. tetani
Pneumonic plague can be transmitted from man to man by:
A. inoculation.
B. ingestion.
C. flea bite
D. all of the above routes.
E. *droplet infection.
Common reservoir host/s of Brucella melitensis is/are:
cattle.
pigs.
dogs
all of the above.
*sheep and goats.
395.
Which of the following organisms may lead to pseudomembrane formation in the throat?
A. Corynebaclerium diphtheriae
B. Treponema Vinsentii
C. Streptococcus pyogenes.
D. Candida albicans.
E. *All of the above.
396.
Which of the following bacteria can cause infective type of food poisoning?
A. Staphylococcus aureus.
B. Clostridium botulinum.
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. All of the above.
E. *Salmonella enteritidis.
397.
Which of the following staining techniques cannot be used for T. pallidum?
A. Giemsa staining.
B. Silver impregnation staining.
C. Imunofluorescence staining.
D. Burri staining.
E. *Gram staining.
398.
Louse-borne relapsing fever is caused by:
A. B. duttoni.
B. B. burgdorferi.
C. B. parkeri.
D. B. persica
E. *Borrelia recurrentis.
5. Bacterial genus/genera of medical importance which do not produce endospores is/are: .
A. Bacillus.
B. Clostridium.
C. both of the above.
D. none of the above
E. *Bacteroides
399.
Which of the following bacteria dies quickly after drying?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D. Bacillus anthracis
E. *Treponema pallidium
400.
Which of the following exotoxins is most toxic?
A. Tetanus toxin.
B. Diphtheria toxin.
C. Cholera toxin.
D. Shigella toxin
E. *Botulinum toxin.
401.
A person is considered non-immune if:
A. he has never had an injection of tetanus toxoid or if he had only one such injection.
B. more than 6 months have passed after a course of 2 injections.
C. five to 10 years have passed after the planned course of three injections.
D. more than 2 months have passed after one an injection of antitetanus serum
E. *all of the above.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
402.
403.
404.
405.
406.
407.
408.
409.
410.
A positive Mantoux test is indicated by an area of induration of:
A. 5-9 mm in diameter.
B. 3-4 mm in diameter.
C. 1-2 mm in diameter
D. none of the above.
E. *10 mm or more in diameter.
Traveller's diarrhoea is caused by:
A. enteropathogenic Escherichia coli.
B. enteroinvasive E. coli.
C. enterohaemorrhagic E. coli.
D. enteroaggregative E. coli.
E. *enterotoxigenic E. coli.
Which of the following bacteria is more resistant to adverse environmental conditions?
A. Shigella dysenteriae.
B. S. Flexneri.
C. S. sonnei.
D. Salmonella typhy
E. *S. boydii.
Most important complication/s of enteric fever is/are:
A. intestinal perforation.
B. haemorrhage.
C. circulatory collapse.
D. none of the above
E. *all of the above.
In enteric fever, Salmonella may be isolated from:
A. urine.
B. faeces.
C. blood.
D. bile
E. *all of the above.
Which of the following serotypes of Salmonella can cause gastroenteritis?
A. S. Enteritidis.
B. S. Newport.
C. S. Typhimurium.
D. S. cholerae suis
E. *All are correct.
Plague is transmitted by:
A. sandflies.
B. mites.
C. ticks.
D. louse
E. *rat fleas.
Bubonic plague can be diagnosed in the laboratory by:
A. demonstration of gram-negative coccobacilli.
B. culture on blood agar.
C. inoculation in guinea-pigs.
D. inoculation in rats
E. *all of the above.
Most strains of Staphylococcus aureus show:
A. β-haemolysis on sheep blood agar.
B. phosphatase production.
C. novobicin resistance
D. all of the above.
E. *a golden-yellow pigment.
411.
412.
413.
414.
415.
416.
417.
418.
Thin, slender and gram-positive bacilli possessing metachromatic granules and showing Chinese
letter arrangement are characteristic of:
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B. Bacillus anthracis.
C. Clostridium perfringens.
D. Bordetella pertussis
E. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
A positive Schick test implies that the person is:
A. immune and non-hypersensitive
B. immune and hypersensitive.
C. non-immune and hypersensitive.
D. healthy
E. *susceptible and non-hypersensitive.
Malignant pustule is characteristic of:
A. .relapsing fever
B. pulmonary plage
C. leptospirosis
D. all of the above.
E. *cutaneous anthrax
Cholera toxin resembles which of the following toxins?
A. Stable toxin of E. coli.
B. Diphtheria toxin.
C. Tetanus toxin.
D. Staphylococcus enterotoxin
E. *Labile toxin of Escherichia coli.
Which of the following Brucella spp. is most pathogenic for man?
A. B. abortus
B. B. suis.
C. B. canis.
D. B. ovis
E. *B. melitensis.
In which of the following sexually transmitted diseases, ulcer/s is/are painless?
A. Chancroid.
B. Herpes genitalis.
C. None of the above
D. All of the above.
E. *Syphilis.
A 35-year-old woman presents with a history of increasing respiratory distress and cough
productive of sputum. Chest X-ray shows evidence of bilateral pneumonia. Cultures of blood and
sputum on Chocolate agar grow out slender Gram-negative rods; cultures on standard sheep blood
agar are negative. Which bacterium is most likely to be the cause of her infection?
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
B. Chlamydia pneumoniae
C. Escherichia coli.
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. *Haemophilus influenzae.
A lactose-fermenting Gram-negative rod is isolated from the bloody stool of a young child.
Which pathogen is most likely?
A. Salmonella enterica
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. Clostridium difficile
E. *Escherichia coli.
A 13-year old boy develops pain and marked (10 cm.) swelling in his right inguinal lymph node
accompanied by fever of 104oF. He and his family have just returned from a vacation trip to
Arizona and New Mexico. Aspirate from the node contains Gram-negative rods. A direct
immunofluorescent assay on the aspirate provides a definitive diagnosis. The child is
(successfully) treated with streptomycin, and the aspirate is sent for culture to the CDC. Culture
yields pale colonies on MacConkey agar. What is the most probable pathogen?
A. Helicobacteri pylori.
B. Franciscella tularensis
C. Coxiella burnetii
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
E. *Yersinia pestis.
420.
A 15-year-old female presented with a three-day history of fever, headache and a non-productive
cough. Penicillin was prescribed and the patient was sent home. Her illness did not respond to this
antibiotic. Gram stain and culture of the patient's sputum and a throat swab revealed only 'normal
oral flora'. She was then successfully treated with erythromycin. Which organism below is most
likely to have caused her illness?
A. Haemophilus influenzae.
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
E. *Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
421.
Which organism below, if present in only one of three blood cultures from a single patient, is
most likely to represent contamination caused by poor antiseptic technique, rather than genuine
infection?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B. Escherichia coli.
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Haemophilus influenzae
E. *Staphylococcus epidermidis.
422.
Which of the following bacteria can be successfully cultured on cell-free medium?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Coxiella burnetii
C. Mycobacterium leprae
D. Rickettsia prowazekii.
E. *Mycoplasma pneumoniae
423.
. A post-surgical patient develops redness around the incision and a day later pus begins to ooze
from the wound. Culture of a swab of pus produces beta-hemolytic colonies on Sheep blood agar.
Gram stain shows that the bacteria are Gram-positive cocci. Catalase and coagulase tests are
positive. Which of the following organisms is most likely?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Streptococcus mitis
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
E. *Staphylococcus aureus
424.
A burn patient develops infection of the burn wound. Culture of exudate on Brain-Heart Infusion
agar produces numerous green-pigmented colonies of a Gram-negative rod. The organism grows
well aerobically on standard media but shows no evidence of acid production on differential
media such as MacConkey, Hektoen Enteric, or Triple-Sugar-Iron agars.
6. What is the most likely organism?
A. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Campylobacter fetus
C. Eschericahia coli
419.
D. Citrobacter spp.
E. *Pseudomonas aeruginosa
425.
426.
427.
428.
429.
430.
431.
A 75-year-old man reports malaise, headache, and
fever. On examination his neck is stiff. Gram stain of CSF reveals neutrophils and numerous
Gram-negative cocci, many in pairs.Which organism below is most probable?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E. *Neisseria meningitidis
An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the newborn nursery.
You are called upon to investigate. According to your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the
MOST likely source of the organism?
A. Colon
B. Throat
C. Vagina
D. All of the above
E. *Nose
Each of the following agents is a recognized cause of diarrhea EXCEPT:
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Escherichia coli
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. All of the above
E. *Enterococcus faecalis
Your patient is a 30-year-old woman with nonbloody diarrhea for the past 14 hours. Which one of
the following organisms is LEAST likely to cause this illness?
A. Clostridium difficile
B. Shigella dysenteriae
C. Salmonella enteritidis
D. All of the above
E. *Streptococcus pyogenes
Which one of the following diseases is BEST diagnosed by serologic means?
A. Pulmonary tuberculosis
B. Gonorrhea
C. Actinomycosis
D. All of the above
E. *Q fever
Your patient has subacute bacterial endocarditiscaused by a member of the viridans group
ofstreptococci. Which one of the following sites isMOST likely to be the source of the organism?
A. Skin
B. Colon
C. Urethra
D. All of the above
E. *Oropharynx
A culture of skin lesions from a patient with pyoderma (impetigo) shows numerous colonies surrounded by a zone of beta hemolysis on a blood agar plate. A Gram-stained smear shows grampositive cocci in chain. If you found the catalase test to be negative, which one of the following
organisms would you MOST probably have isolated?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. All of the above
E. *Streptococcus pyogenes
432.
433.
434.
435.
436.
437.
438.
439.
440.
The coagulase test, in which the bacteria causeplasma to clot, is used to distinguish
A. Streptococcus pyogenes from Enterococcus faecalis
B. Streptococcus pyogenes from Staphylococcus aureus
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis
D. All of the above
E. *Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
Which one of the following is considered a virulence factor for Staphylococcus aureus?
A. A heat-labile toxin that inhibits glycine release at the internuncial neuron
B. An oxygen-labile hemolysin
C. Resistance to novobiocin
D. All are correct
E. *Protein A that binds to the Fc portion of IgG
The MOST important protective function of theantibody stimulated by tetanus immunization is
A. To opsonize the pathogen (Clostridium tetani)
B. To prevent growth of the pathogen
C. To prevent formation of endotoxin by the pathogen
D. All of the above
E. *To neutralize the toxin of the pathogen
Five hours after eating fried rice at a restaurant, a24-year-old woman and her husband both developed nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Whichof the following organisms is the MOST likely tobe
involved?
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
C. Salmonella typhi
D. All of the above
E. *Bacillus cereus
The main carrier site on the human body for strains of potentially pathogenic Staphylococcus
aureus is the
A. oral cavity
B. nasal membranes
C. gastrointestinal tract
D. vagina
E. *throat (posterior nasopharynx)
The carrier site in humans for pathogenic Neisseria meningitidis is the
A. conjunctiva
B. urogenital tract
C. blood
D. meninges
E. *nasopharynx
Silver nitrate or an antibiotic is put into the eyes of newborn infants to prevent infection by
A. Doderlein's bacillus (Lactobacillus acidophilus)
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Chlamydia trachcomatis
D. two of the above
E. *Neisseria gonorrhoeae
A characteristic of Streptococcus mutans that allows it to initiate dental plaque and dental caries
is:
A. the ability to attach specifically to the pellicle of the tooth
B. the ability to utilize sucrose as a source of carbon and energy
C. the ability to produce a dextran capsule
D. all of the above
E. *the ability to produce lactic acid
The fimbriae of enterotoxigenic E. coli are essential to the bacterium when it causes disease
441.
442.
443.
444.
445.
446.
447.
because
A. they activate host adenylate cyclase enzymes leading to disruption of cellular permeability
B. they make the bacteria resistant to phagocytic killing and digestion by white blood cells
C. they convert GI tract components (bile) to substances which provoke symptoms of disease
D. they allow the bacteria to swim "upstream" against the peristaltic action of the GI tract
thereby remaining established in the GI tract
E. *they are needed for initial attachment of the bacteria to the gastrointestinal epithelium
The fibrin coat that can be formed by coagulase-positive staphylococci and the hyaluronic acid
capsule of Streptococcus pyogenes are pathogenic strategies to
A. promote colonization of a host
B. cause direct damage to host cells during pathogenesis
C. hide bacterial antigens from the host immune tissues
D. alter or change their surface antigens within the course of an infection
E. *survive as intracellular parasites
Leukocidins are
A. enzymes contained in the lysosomes of phagocytes to kill ingested bacteria
B. proteins produced by bacteria that kill closely-related bacteria
C. proteases produced by bacteria which destroy host immunoglobulins
D. enterotoxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus involved in food-borne disease
E. *substances produced by pyogenic bacteria that kill leucocytes
The streptococcal invasin which behaves as a "spreading factor" by breaking down the framework
of connective tissues is called
A. collagenase
B. streptokinase
C. streptolysin
D. erythrogenic toxin (pyogenic exotoxin
E. *hyaluronidase
. A primary determinant of virulence in Streptococcus pyogenes, which is involved in adherence,
resistance to phagocytosis and antigenic variation, is
A. streptokinase
B. lipopolysaccharide (endotoxin)
C. Protein A
D. coagulase
E. *M-protein
Which of the following statements that relate to bacterial exotoxins and endotoxins is true?
A. Exotoxins are typically structural (cell wall) components of Gram-positive bacteria
B. Endotoxins can never be released by the cells that produce them.
C. Endotoxins cause their toxicity through an enzymatic mechanism of action.
D. In the host, endotoxins are destroyed by the enzyme lysozyme.
E. *Exotoxins are proteins; endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides
The substrate for the enzymatic (A) component of diphtheria toxin is
A. NAD
B. cyclic AMP
C. the regulatory proteins of the eukaryotic adenylate cyclase complex
D. ATP
E. *elongation factor 2 (EF-2)
Why does the large volume of fluid lost by diarrhea during infection with Vibrio cholerae
A. is a consequence of fluid replacement during treatment of the disease and does not result
directly from activity of the cholera toxin
B. results from electrolytes binding to the intestinal enterocytes which upsets their water
retention capability
C. is caused when the vibrios bind to the intestinal epithelium and physically or mechanically
block the uptake of fluids by the gut epithelial cells
D. results from neurotoxic effects of the cholera toxin on the central nervous system
E. *follows activation of adenylate cyclase by cholera toxin and the subsequent effect of cyclic
448.
449.
450.
451.
452.
453.
454.
455.
AMP on water and salt balances of the host cells
The similarity between the toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST), the staph enterotoxins, and the
erythrogenic toxin (pyogenic exotoxin) is
A. they are all produced by Staphylococcus aureus
B. the pathology of the diseases that they cause is identical
C. they are all neurotoxins
D. they are the same (identical) toxin produced by three different organisms
E. *they stimulate the immune system in a similar manner as superantigens
Both the botulinum toxin and the tetanus toxin
A. are produced by Bacillus anthracis
B. act in the central nervous system
C. are Zn++ dependent protease enzymes
D. two of the above
E. *act in the peripheral nervous system
Which tissue in a human is free from colonization by microbes (normal flora) because the
organisms lack normal access to the tissue?
A. colon
B. stomach
C. lower respiratory tract
D. urinary tract (urethra)
E. *blood (vascular system)
Which tissue is normally free from colonization by microorganisms (normal flora) because of the
effectiveness of the host constitutive defenses?
A. upper respiratory tract (throat, pharynx)
B. upper gastrointestinal tract
C. lower gastrointestinal tract
D. vagina
E. *lower respiratory tract (lungs)
The predominant bacteria in the mouth, GI tract (colon), and skin, respectively, are
A. staphylococci, streptococci, and corynebacteria
B. streptococci, E. coli, and staphylococci
C. staphylococci, E. coli, and streptococci
D. neisseriae, enterococci, and clostridia
E. *lactic acid bacteria, Bacteroides, and staphylococci
The predominant bacterium in the GI tract of nursing infants, because mother's milk contains a
growth factor that enriches for bacterial growth, is
A. Enterococcus faecalis
B. Escherichia coli
C. Bacteroides fragilis
D. Lactobacillus acidophilus
E. *Bifidobacterium bifidum
The most important benefit that the human gastrointestinal flora provide for their host is
A. digestion of dietary cellulose
B. production of endotoxin that produces toxemia
C. production of dietary protein
D. production of antibodies
E. *antagonism against colonization by potential pathogens
The bacterial product that prevents colonization of the vagina by potentially pathogenic yeasts is
A. bacteriocin
B. peroxide
C. TSST toxin
D. lysozyme
E. *lactic acid
456.
457.
458.
459.
460.
461.
462.
463.
In the pathogenesis of Helicobacter pylori what is the colonization site in the host?
A. nasal sinuses
B. lower intestine
C. throat
D. respiratory tract
E. *stomach
What is the colonization site of Corynebacterium diphtheriae, the agent of diphtheria?
A. skin
B. urethra
C. eye
D. none of the above
E. *throat
Characteristics of Streptococcus mutans which allow it to initiate dental caries include
A. the ability to attach specifically to the pellicle of the tooth
B. the ability to form and grow in a biofilm on the enamel of the tooth
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
E. *the ability to produce lactic acid from sucrose, glucose and fructose
A determinant of virulence of Streptococcus pneumoniae which allows the bacteria to resist
engulfment by phagocytes is
A. fimbriae
B. production of TSST exotoxin
C. coagulase
D. neuraminidase
E. *a polysaccharide capsule
The fimbriae of pathogenic Neisseria gonorrhoeae are apparently essential to the bacterium when
it produces the disease gonorrhea because
A. they cause the production of pus which is characteristic of gonorrhea
B. they make the bacteria resistant to phagocytic killing and digestion by white blood cells
C. they convert urinary tract components (urine) to substances which provoke symptoms of
disease
D. they allow the bacteria to swim "upstream" against the flow of urine and thereby remain
established in the urinary tract
E. *they are responsible for initial attachment of the bacteria to the urethral or cervical
epithelium
Which bacterial invasin is mismatched with its activity in the host?
A. staphylokinase: degrades fibrin
B. coagulase: clots fibrin
C. streptolysin: lyses neutrophil membranes
D. none of the above
E. *hyaluronidase: degrades the ground substance of connective tissue
The clostridial invasin that dissolves the framework of muscle is
A. botulinum toxin
B. tetanus toxin
C. neuraminidase
D. collagenase
E. *hyaluronic acid
Why is the anthrax toxin EF (Edema Factor) considered both as an exotoxin and an invasin?
A. Although it is a protein, it is a part of the bacterial cell wall.
B. It is an extracellular protein toxin that acts locally at the early stages of infection (invasion).
C. It has an A+B subunit arrangement.
D. It acts at a site removed from the site of growth of the bacterium.
E. *It is only released upon lysis of the bacterial cells.
464.
465.
466.
467.
468.
469.
470.
471.
Corynebacterium diphtherive produces exofocxin if:
A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae grows in Loeffler’s medium
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae grows on tellurite agar
C. Cory
-lactame antibiotics
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae has volutin granules.
E. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae is lisogenie cultre
For which one of the following bacterial vaccines are toxic side effects an important concern?
A. The vaccine containing pneumococcal polysaccharide
B. The vaccine containing tetanus toxoid
C. The vaccine containing diphtheria toxoid
D. The vaccine containing botulinum toxoid
E. *The vaccine containing pneumococcal polysaccharide
Each of the following statements concerning Staphylococcus aureus is correct EXCEPT
A. Gram-positive cocci in grapelike clusters are seen on Gram-stained smear
B. The coagulase test is positive
C. Treatment should include a (3-lactamase-resistant penicillin
D. It produce exotoxins
E. *Endotoxin is an important pathogenetic factor
Your patient is a 70-year-old man who under went bowel surgery for colon cancer 3 days ago. He
now has a fever and abdominal pain. You are concerned that he may have peritonitis. Which one
of the following pairs of organisms is MOST likely to be the cause?
A. Bordetella pertussis and Salmonella enteritidis
B. Actinomyces israelii and Campylobacter jejuni
C. Clostridium botulinum and Shigella dysenteriae
D. Salmonella typhimuruim and Shigella boydii
E. *Bacteroides fragilis and Klebsiella pneumoniae
A 65-year-old man develops dysuria and hematuria. A Gram stain of a urine sample shows gramnegative rods. Culture of the urine on EMB agar reveals lactose-negative colonies with out
evidence of swarming motility. Which one of the following organisms is MOST likely to be the
cause of his urinary tract infection?
A. Enterococcusfaecalis
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Escherichia coli
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
E. *Proteus vulgaris
The MOST important contribution of the capsule of Streptococcus pneumoniae to virulence is
A. To prevent dehydration of the organisms on mucosal surfaces
B. To inhibit polymorphonuclear leukocyte chemo taxis
C. To accelerate tissue invasion by its collage-naselike activity
D. To survive in the environment
E. *To retard phagocytosis by polymorphonuclear leukocytes
The MOST important way the host circumvents the function of the pneumococcal polysaccharide
capsule is via
A. T lymphocytes sensitized to polysaccharide antigens
B. Polysaccharide-degrading enzymes
C. Activated macrophages
D. Activated B-lymphocytes
E. *Anticapsular antibody
Each of the following statements concerning Treponema is correct EXCEPT:
A. T. pallidum cannot be grown on conventional laboratory media
B. Treponemes are members of the normal flora of the human oropharynx
C. Patients infected with T. pallidum produce antibodies that react with beef heart cardiolipin
D. Treponema are motile
E. *T. pallidum produces an exotoxin that stimulates adenylate cyclase
Each of the following statements concerning Clostridia is correct EXCEPT:
A. Pathogenic Clostridia are found both in the soil and in the normal flora of the colon
B. Antibiotic-associated (pseudomembranous) colitis is due to a toxin produced by Clostridium
difficile
C. Botulism, which is caused by ingesting preformed toxin, can be prevented by boiling food
prior to eating
D. Clostridia are spore-forming bacteria
E. *Anaerobic conditions at the wound site are not required to cause tetanus, because spores will
form in the presence of oxygen
473.
Each of the following statements concerning Bacteroides fragilis is correct EXCEPT:
A. B. fragilis is a gram-negative rod that is a part of the normal flora of the colon
B. The capsule of B. fragilis is an important virulence factor
C. B. fragilis infections are characterized by foul-smelling pus
D. B. fragilis is anaerobic bacterium
E. *B. fragilis forms endospores, which allow it to survive in the soil
474.
Each of the following statements concerning staphylococci is correct EXCEPT:
A. S. aureus is differentiated from S. epidermidis by the production of coagulase
B. S. aureus infections are often associated with abscess formation
C. The majority of clinical isolates of S. aureus elaborate penicillinase; therefore, presump7. tive antibiotic therapy for S. aureus infections should not consist of penicillin G
D. Gram-positive cocci in grapelike clusters are seen on Gram-stained smear
E. *Scalded skin syndrome caused by S. aureus is due to enzymatic degradation of epidermal
desmosomes by catalase
475.
Each of the following statements concerning gram-negative rods is correct EXCEPT:
A. E. coli ferments lactose, whereas the enteric pathogens Shigella and Salmonella do not
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae, although a cause of pneumonia, is part of the normal flora of the
colon
C. Proteus species are highly motile organisms that are found in the human colon and cause
urinary tract infections
D. Salmonella typhi cause bactereamia
E. *Escherichia coli is part of the normal flora of the colon; therefore, it does not cause diarrhea
476.
Five days ago a 65-year-old woman with a lower urinary tract infection began taking ampicillin.
She now has a fever and severe diarrhea. Of the organisms listed, which one is MOST likely to be
the cause of the diarrhea?
A. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Bordetella pertussis
D. Vibrio cholerae
E. *Clostridium difficile
477.
The pathogenesis of which one of the following diseases does NOT involve an exotoxin?
A. Scarlet fever
B. Toxic shock syndrome
C. Botulism
D. Tetanus
E. *Typhoid fever
478.
Regarding the effect of benzylpenicillin (penicillin G) on bacteria, which one of the following
organisms is LEAST likely to be resistant?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Enterococcus faecalis
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
472.
D. Neisseria meningitidis
E. *Streptococcus pyogenes
479.
480.
481.
482.
483.
484.
485.
486.
Each of the following statements concerning chlamydial genital tract infections is correct
EXCEPT:
A. Infection can persist after administration of penicillin
B. Symptomatic infections can be associated with urethral or cervical discharge containing many
polymorphonuclear leukocytes
C. There is no vaccine against these infections
D. Chlamydiae aren‘t cultivated onto nutritient media
E. *Infection can be diagnosed by finding anti-chlamydial antibody in a serum specimen
Which one of the following is NOT an important characteristic of either Neisseria gonorrhoeae
or Neisseria meningitidis?
A. Polysaccharide capsule
B. IgA protease
C. Pili
D. Ferments glucose
E. *M protein
Which one of the following is NOT an important characteristic of Streptococcus pyogenes?
A. M protein
B. Beta-hemolysin
C. Polysaccharide group-specific substance
D. Produce exotoxins
E. *Protein A
Three organisms, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Haemophilus influenzae
cause the vast majority of cases of bacterial meningitis. What is the MOST important pathogenic
component they share?
A. Protein A
B. Endotoxin
C. β-Lactamase
D. Exotoxin
E. *Capsule
Each of the following statements concerning Chlamydia trachomatis is correct EXCEPT:
A. It is an important cause of nongonococcal urethritis
B. It is the cause of lymphogranuloma venereum
C. It is an important cause of conjunctivitis
D. There is no vaccine against these infections
E. *It is an important cause of subacute bacterial endocarditis
Which one of the following types of organisms is NOT an obligate intracellular parasite and there
fore can replicate on bacteriologic media?
A. Chlamydia
B. Adenovirus
C. Rickettsia
D. HIV
E. *Mycoplasma
The soil is the natural habitat for certain microorganisms of medical importance. Which one of
the following is LEAST likely to reside there?
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Mycobacterium intracellular
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Clostridium perfringens
E. *Chlamydia trachomatis
Of the organisms listed below, which one is the MOST frequent bacterial cause of pharyngitis?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis
Escherichia coli
*Streptococcus pyogenes
Each of the following statements concerning exotoxins is correct EXCEPT:
A. Some strains of Escherichia coli produce an enterotoxin that causes diarrhea
B. Cholera toxin acts by stimulating adenylate cyclase
C. Diphtheria is caused by an exotoxin that inhibits protein synthesis by inactivating an
elongation factor
D. Botulism, which is caused by ingesting preformed toxin, can be prevented by boiling food
prior to eating
E. *Botulism is caused by a toxin that hydrolyzes lecithin (lecithinase), thereby destroying nerve
cells
Each of the following statements concerning Corynebacterium diphtheriae is correct EXCEPT:
A. C. diphtheriae is a gram-positive rod that does not form spores
B. Toxin production is dependent on the organism's being lysogenized by a bacteriophage
C. Antitoxin should be used to treat patients with diphtheria
D. Toxoid is used for active prophylaxis
E. *Diphtheria toxoid should not be given to children under the age of 3 years because the
incidence of complications is too high
Each of the following statements concerning certain gram-negative rods is correct EXCEPT:
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes wound infections that are characterized by blue-green pus as
a result of pyocyanin production
B. Invasive disease caused by Haemophilus influenzae is most often due to strains possessing a
type b polysaccharide capsule
C. Legionella pneumophila infection is acquired by inhalation of aerosols from environmental
water sources
D. There are different serological types of pathogenic Escherichia coli
E. *Whooping cough, which is caused by Bordetella pertussis, is on the rise because changing
antigenicity has made the vaccine relatively ineffective
Each of the following statements concerning enterotoxins is correct EXCEPT:
A. Staphylococcus aureus produces an enterotoxin that causes vomiting and diarrhea
B. Vibrio cholerae causes cholera by producing an enterotoxin that activates adenylate cyclase
C. Escherichia coli enterotoxin mediates ADP-ribosylation of a G protein
D. Enterotoxins are protein substances
E. *Enterotoxins typically cause bloody diarrhea with leukocytes in the stool
Each of the following statements concerning plague is correct EXCEPT:
A. Plague is caused by a gram-negative rod that can be cultured on blood agar
B. Plague is transmitted to humans by flea bite
C. The main reservoirs in nature are small rodents
D. There are different clinical form of plague (bubonic, pneumonic, skin)
E. *Plague is caused by a gram-positive rod that can be cultured on blood agar
Which one of the following statements concerning the organisms that cause brucellosis is CORRECT?
A. Brucellae are transmitted primarily by tick bite
B. The principal reservoirs of brucellae are small rodents
C. Brucellae are obligate intracellular parasites that are usually identified by growth in human
cell culture
D. Brucellae are obligate intracellular parasites that are usually identified by growth in human
cell culture
E. *Brucellae are found in reticuloendothelial cells and often cause granulomatous lesions
Each of the following statements concerning epidemic typhus is correct EXCEPT:
A. The disease is characterized by a rash
B.
C.
D.
E.
487.
488.
489.
490.
491.
492.
493.
The Weil-Felix test can aid in diagnosis of the disease
The disease is caused by a rickettsia
Vaccine is used for specific prophylaxis
*The disease is caused by salmonella typhi
Which one of the following organisms causes diarrhea by producing an enterotoxin that activates
adenylate cyclase?
A. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Enterococcus faecalis
D. Costridium difficilae
E. *Escherichia coli
Each of the following statements concerning Clostridium perfringens is correct EXCEPT:
A. It causes gas gangrene
B. It causes food poisoning
C. It produces an exotoxin that degrades lecithin and causes necrosis and hemolysis
D. It causes experimental infection in animals
E. *It is a gram-negative rod that does not ferment lactose
Each of the following statements concerning Neisseria meningitidis is correct EXCEPT:
A. It is an oxidase-positive, gram-negative diplococcus
B. It contains endotoxin in its cell wall
C. It has a polysaccharide capsule that is antiphagocytic
D. It can utilize glucose and maltose
E. *It produces an exotoxin that stimulates adenylate cyclase
Each of the following statements concerning Clostridium tetani is correct EXCEPT:
A. It is a gram-positive, spore-forming rod
B. Pathogenesis is due to the production of an exotoxin that blocks inhibitory neurotransmitters
C. Its natural habitat is primarily the soil
D. It is motile rod
E. *It is a facultative organism; it will grow on a blood agar plate in the presence of room air
Each of the following statements concerning spirochetes is correct EXCEPT:
A. Species of Treponema are part of the normal flora of the mouth
B. Species of Borrelia cause a tick-borne disease called relapsing fever
C. Species of Treponema cause syphilis and yaws
D. Borrelia burgdorferi causes Lyma disease
E. *The species of Leptospira that cause leptospirosis grow primarily in humans and are usually
transmitted by human-to-human contact
Which one of the following statements concerning immunization against diseases caused by
Clostridia is CORRECT?
A. Antitoxin against tetanus protects against botulism as well, because the two toxins share
antigenic sites
B. Vaccines containing alpha toxin (lecithinase) are effective in protecting against gas gangrene
C. The toxoid vaccine against Clostridium difficile infection should be administered to immunocompromised patients
D. Attenuated vaccines are used for specific prophylaxis of infections, caused by Clostridia
E. *Immunization with tetanus toxoid induces effective protection against tetanus toxin
Each of the following statements concerning neisseriae is correct EXCEPT:
A. They are gram-negative diplococci
B. They produce IgA protease as a virulence factor
C. They are oxidase-positive
D. They have pili
E. *They grow best under anaerobic conditions
Which one of the following statements concern ing Legionella pneumophila is CORRECT?
A. It is part of the normal flora of the colon
B.
C.
D.
E.
494.
495.
496.
497.
498.
499.
500.
501.
It cannot be grown on laboratory media
It does not have a cell wall
Legionellosis is sexual transmitted disease
*It is an important cause of pneumonia in renal transplant patients
Each of the following statements concerning wound infections caused by Clostridium perfringens
is correct EXCEPT:
A. An exotoxin plays a role in pathogenesis
B. Gram-positive rods are found in the exudate
C. Anaerobic culture of the wound site should be ordered
D. The organism has capsule
E. *The organism grows only in human cell culture
Each of the following statements concerning infection with Chlamydia psittaci is correct
EXCEPT:
A. C psittaci can be isolated by growth in cell culture and will not grow in blood agar
B. The infection is more readily diagnosed by serologic tests than by isolation of the organism
C. The infection is more commonly acquired from a nonhuman source than from another human
D. C psittaci forms inclusion in the cells
E. *The organism appears purple in Gram-stained smears of sputum
Each of the following statements concerning pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae is
correct EXCEPT:
A. The disease is associated with a rise in the titer of cold agglutinins
B. The disease occurs primarily in immunocompetent individuals
C. The disease is one of the "atypical" pneumonias
D. Penicicllin is uneffective agains Mycoplasma
E. *The organism cannot be cultured in vitro because it has no cell wall
Each of the following statements concerning Q fever is correct EXCEPT:
A. It is transmitted by respiratory aerosol
B. Farm animals are an important reservoir
C. It is intracellular parazite
D. It is caused by Coxiella burnetii
E. *Rash is a prominent feature
Each of the following statements concerning Mycobacterium leprae is correct EXCEPT:
A. In lepromatous leprosy, large numbers of organisms are usually seen in acid-fast-stained
smears
B. Prolonged therapy (9 months or longer) is required to prevent recurrence
C. Skin tests for delayed hypersensitivity are useful diagnostically
D. Nine bandad armandrilo may be inoculated with lepra bacilli
E. *The organism will grow on bacteriologic media in 3-6 weeks
In the immune response to invasive infections by Streptococcus pneumoniae, antibodies are
required for effective defense. Antibodies to which antigen are most important?
A. Teichoic acid.
B. Peptidoglycan.
C. C-carbohydrate.
D. Type III secretion system.
E. *Polysaccharide capsule.
An elderly man develops pneumonia and septicemia. Gram stain of sputum contains many
neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci, in pairs. Blood and sputum cultures grow out a Grampositive coccus, alpha-hemolytic on sheep blood agar, and catalase-negative. Which organism
below is most likely?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Streptococcus agalactiae
B.
C.
D.
E.
502.
503.
504.
505.
506.
507.
508.
E. *Streptococcus pneumoniae
509.
510.
511.
512.
513.
514.
515.
Infections with Staphylococcus aureus are on average more severe than infections with other
Staphylococci. What test result distinguishes S. aureus from other members of this genus?
A. Blackening of a bile-esculin slant.
B. Beta-hemolysis on sheep blood agar.
C. Blackening of an oxidase-test disc placed on a colony.
D. Resistance to bacitracin.
E. *Coagulation of citrate-treated plasma.
Residents of an assisted-living facility are immunized against Streptococcus pneumoniae. What is
the antigenic component of the vaccine?
A. A protein toxoid.
B. Killed whole bacteria.
C. Purified toxin.
D. Live bacteria of attenuated virulence
E. *Purified capsular polysaccharides.
Staphylococcus aureus is easily transmitted within the hospital environment.Which feature of this
bacterium is most largely responsible for its ease of spread?
A. Ability to colonize the digestive tract.
B. Presence of an outer membrane impermeable to most disinfectants.
C. Production of extracellular polysaccharide which allows bacteria toadhere tightly to surfaces.
D. Formation of spores which are resistant to disinfectants and easily dispersed.
E. *Resistance to heat, cold, and drying.
A beta-hemolytic streptococcus is isolated from an infected neonate. Such isolates are often
members of Lancefield Group B. The antigenic structure of which bacterial component defines
Lancefield Groups?
A. Capsule polysaccharide.
B. Wall and membrane teichoic acids.
C. Beta-hemolysins.
D. Filamentous proteins of the cell envelope.
E. *Cell-associated or C-carbohydrate.
An important virulence factor of coagulase-positive staphylococci is Protein A. How does Protein
A aid in virulence?
A. Hydrolyzes secretory IgA.
B. Binds Factor H, prevents activation of complement.
C. Extracts iron from plasma proteins.
D. Promotes tight binding of bacteria to extracellular matrix.
E. *Binds the Fc region of IgG, decreases opsonization.
A post-surgical patient develops fever and there is redness and swelling around the surgical
incision. A day later pus begins to flow from the incision; Gram stain of pus shows large numbers
of neutrophils and many Gram-positive cocci, some in clusters. The organism is beta-hemolytic
on blood agar, and is coagulase- and catalase-positive.Which organism is most likely?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
C. Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. *Staphylococcus aureus
A 20-year-old women presents at a local clinic with fever and abdominal tenderness. She reports
having had unprotected sexual intercourse a few weeks earlier. Gram-negative diplococci are seen
in a Gram stain of vaginal secretions; many of the bacteria are inside polymorphonuclear
leukocytes. Which virulence factor is most important in aiding this bacterium to initiate infection?
A. Ability to invade cells.
B. Anti-phagocytic capsule.
C. Endotoxin.
D. Flagella.
E. *Adhesive pili.
516.
517.
518.
519.
520.
521.
522.
Heavily-encapsulated strains of Neisseria meningitidis are far more virulent than nonencapsulated isolates. How does a capsule enhance virulence?
A. Binds to the Fc region of some subclasses of human IgG.
B. Prevents activation of complement by the classical pathway.
C. Enables bacteria to adhere tightly to mammalian cells.
D. Reduces access of antibiotics to the bacterial membrane.
E. *Inhibits phagocytosis by neutrophils
Before the advent of immunization, outbreaks of meningococcal disease were frequent in military
camps. A factor in development of such outbreaks is the ability of Neisseria meningitidis to
establish an asymptomatic 'carrier state'. What is the predominant site of carriage of
meningococci?
A. Urethral epithelium.
B. Gall bladder.
C. Large intestine.
D. Meninges and choroid plexus.
E. *Nasopharynx.
A patient with septicemia goes into septic shock. Blood cultures later show the pathogen to be
Neisseria meningitidis. Which component of the bacteria was most likely to be responsible for
producing shock?
A. Teichoic acid.
B. A superantigen toxin.
C. Capsular polysaccharide.
D. Plasma membrane lipids.
E. *Lipopolysaccharide [LPS].
A stool sample is plated on standard MacConkey-agar plates. After overnight incubation some of
the colonies are dark pink in color, others are pale, nearly colorless. What can you conclude about
the bacteria that produced dark- pink colonies?
A. Gram-positive.
B. Not likely to be 'normal flora'.
C. Non-motile.
D. Produce capsules.
E. *Ferment lactose.
A strain of bacteria produced colorless colonies when cultured on standard MacConkey agar. It
was then used to inoculate a Sugar-Iron Agar slant. After overnight incubation, the tube was
entirely yellow and there were numerous bubbles inside the agar. There is no black precipitate.
Which of the following descriptions most accurately describes the metabolic reasons for these
observations?
A. Produces H2S and gas
B. Ferments lactose and produces gas
C. Ferments sucrose and produces gas.
D. Ferments glucose only
E. *Ferments neither lactose nor sucrose.
The classic cause of epidemic cholera is Vibrio cholerae O1. The designation "O1" refers to the
antigenic structure of an important component of the bacterial envelope. What is this component?
A. Capsule.
B. Flagella
C. Pili.
D. Teichoic acid.
E. *Carbohydrate chains of LPS.
A common serotype of enterohemorrhagic E. coli is O157:H7.To which bacterial structure does
the "H7" correspond?
Pili.
Capsule.
LPS core polysaccharide.
Porins.
*Flagella.
523.
An engineer recently returned from visiting his family in India develops severe diarrhea. He in
fact has cholera. His diarrhea is produced by a protein exotoxin secreted by Vibrio cholerae. How
does this toxin act?
A. ADP-ribosylates a chloride transporter.
B. Inhibits a G protein that inhibits adenyl cyclase.
C. Stimulates guanyl cyclase.
D. Inhibits guanyl cyclase.
E. *Stimulates a G protein that activates adenyl cyclase.
524.
A sexually-active woman develops a urinary tract infection which ascends to the kidneys
(pyelonephritis). Blood culture yields a beta-hemolytic Gram-negative rod. In this situation,
which pathogen below is most common?
A. Salmonella enteritidis.
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C. Serratia marcescens.
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae.
E. *Escherichia coli.
525.
Outbreaks of diarrhea caused by species of Shigella are common in day-care centers for children
and other similar settings. What property of Shigella most enhances its spread between children?
A. Frequent presence in the upper respiratory tracts of children who are not ill.
B. Ability to ferment lactose and grow in refrigerated milk.
C. Possession of an envelope resistant to disinfectants.
D. Carriage by common classroom pets such as hamsters and gerbils
E. *Resistance to stomach acid and low infectious dose.
526.
A patient becomes infected with Salmonella enterica serotype typhi. Which condition would most
strongly favor development of a "chronic carrier state" with this organism?
A. Age over 70 years.
B. Infection via the respiratory route.
C. Presence of kidney stones.
D. Chronic pulmonary disease.
E. *Presence of gallstones.
527.
Which phrase best describes typical infections by Campylobacter jejuni?
A. Non-inflammatory enteritis
B. Systemic infection
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Meningitis
E. *Inflammatory enteritis
528.
A patient has chronic gastritis. Which of the following organisms is most likely?
A. Campylobacter fetus.
B. Campylobacter jejuni.
C. Escherichia coli.
D. A non-cholera Vibrio.
E. *Helicobacter pylori.
529.
Gastroscopy reveals that a patient with stomach pain has a large ulceration of his gastric mucosa.
During the procedure a biopsy of the stomach epithelium is obtained.
8. Which observation would suggest Helicobacter pylori as the cause of illness?
A. Biopsy shows infiltration of gastric epithelium by lymphocytes.
B. pH of stomach fluid is equal to 1 (normal), rather than decreased.
C. Ingested isotope-labeled nitrate is converted to nitrite in the stomach.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
D. Bacteria are found in stomach fluid, but not in contact with the gastric epithelium
E. *Curved or spiral bacteria are seen in the biopsy after silver staining.
A child has Pertussis. How was this infection most likely to have been acquired?
A. Release of oral flora into the bloodstream by dental work.
B. Bite of a dog or cat.
C. Contact with livestock, or animal products such as leather or wool.
D. Consumption of dairy products made from unpasteurized milk
E. *Inhalation of respiratory droplets from another person.
531.
A patient with systemic febrile illness is found to have an infection with Brucella abortus. Which
item in his history represents a known risk factor for such infections?
A. Recently visited Grand Canyon National Park.
B. Keeps numerous pet reptiles including two pythons and an alligator.
C. Has two young children who attend day care.
D. Has an acquarium at home, with numerous tropical fish.
E. *Works as a butcher for a supermarket chain.
532.
A patient is diagnosed with Clostridium difficile colitis. Which item would represent a known risk
factor for such infections?
A. Consumed unpurified water.
B. Visited the southwestern United States.
C. Eaten undercooked fried rice.
D. Been in contact with livestock
E. *Been treated with antibiotics.
533.
A 22-year-old develops an abscess in his
peritoneum following rupture of his appendix. Gram stain of exudate from his foul-smelling
abscess reveals numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes, Gram-positive cocci, Gram-positive
rods, and Gram-negative rods. Aerobic culture of the exudate at 37oC on blood and MacConkey
agar yields only Enterococci..Which of the bacteria below is most likely to be the Gram-negative
rods seen in the stained smear?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B. Proteus mirabilis.
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Prevotella melaninogenica.
E. *Bacteroides fragilis.
534.
When ampicillin was first introduced, most E. coli isolates were clinically sensitive. Many
isolates are now ampicillin-resistant because they produce β-lactamases. Which phrase below
most accurately describes these enzymes?
A. . Although they are produced by many isolates of E. coli, such β-lactamases are not produced
by other Gram-negative rods.
B. They inactivate all β-lactam antibiotics
C. They cause resistance to aminoglycosides as well as b-lactams
D. They have spread from Gram-negatives like E. coli to Gram-positive pathogens like
9. Staphylococcus aureus.
E. *Genes which encode them are often present on conjugative plasmids
535.
Many isolates of E. coli are now ampicillin-resistant because they produce β-lactamases. Which
sentence below most accurately describes these enzymes?
A. They inactivate all β-lactam antibiotics.
B. Although they are produced by many isolates of E. coli, such β-lactamases are not produced
by other Gram-negative rods.
C. They cause resistance to aminoglycosides as well as b-lactams.
D. They have spread from Gram-negatives like E. coli to Gram-positive pathogens like
10. Staphylococcus aureus.
E. *. Genes which encode them are often present on conjugative plasmids
536.
In Europe human Tetanus is now a rare disease. Which measure below has been most important
530.
537.
538.
539.
540.
541.
542.
543.
in preventing it?
A. Vaccination of livestock, especially cattle, with a killed-organism vaccine
B. Eradication of the organism from the environment.
C. Sewage treatment and purification of water supplies.
D. Antibiotic treatment of contacts of patients with C. tetani infections.
E. *Immunization of humans with a toxoid-containing vaccine.
Why tetanus is now a rare disease. Which factors below has been most important in preventing it?
A. Vaccination of livestock, especially cattle, with a killed-organism vaccine
B. Antibiotic treatment of contacts of patients with C. tetani infections.
C. Eradication of the organism from the environment.
D. Sewage treatment and purification of water supplies.
E. *Immunization of humans with a toxoid-containing vaccine.
A patient complains of abdominal pain and you suspect gastritis caused by Helicobacter pylori.
Of the tests below, which would it be best to order, to confirm your diagnosis?
A. Sputum culture.
B. Blood culture on special selective medium.
C. Measurement of urea concentration in exhaled breath.
D. Measurement of urea concentration in a stool sample.
E. *Conversion of 14C-labeled urea to carbon dioxide.
A man suffers many month from gastritis caused by Helicobacter pylori . Of the tests below,
which would it be best to order, to confirm your diagnosis?
A. Blood culture on special selective medium.
B. Sputum culture.
C. Measurement of urea concentration in exhaled breath.
D. Measurement of urea concentration in a stool sample.
E. *Conversion of 14C-labeled urea to carbon dioxide.
Epidemiologists (using the Kauffman-White classification) report that an outbreak has been
caused by Salmonella enterica, serotype Newport. Structure of which pair of antigens determined
the serotype as Newport?
A. Heat-labile and heat-stable enterotoxins.
B. Pili and capsular polysaccharide.
C. . Peptidoglycan and teichoic acid.
D. Hemolysin and cell-wall-associated carbohydrate
E. *Flagella and O-antigen.
A patient with a bacterial infection is treated with a bacteriostatic inhibitor of 70S
ribosomes.Which drug below best fits this description?
A. Rifampin.
B. A fluoroquinolone.
C. . An aminoglycoside.
D. Erythromycin.
E. *Tetracycline.
The young man was injuring in car accident. The affected area of the leg is painful, red, and
swollen. During the next 12 hours the swelling increases markedly, the skin of the leg becomes
discolored, and fluid-filled blisters appear on the skin. Gram stain of fluid aspirated from a blister
reveals large Gram-positive rods. Which organism below is most likely to have caused this
infection?
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium difficile.
C. Clostridium tetani.
D. Listeria monocytogenes
E. *Clostridium perfringens.
Group A b-hemolytic streptococci are cultured from a throat swab of a febrile child with severe
purulent pharyngitis. Structure of which antigen determined that the bacteria belonged to
544.
545.
546.
547.
548.
549.
550.
Lancefield group A?
A. . Capsular polysaccharide
B. Side chains of peptidoglycan.
C. Fimbrae proteins
D. Streptolysin O.
E. *Cell-wall-associated with carbohydrate
Structure of which antigen b-hemolytic streptococci determined that the bacteria belonged to
Lancefield group A?
A. Side chains of peptidoglycan.
B. Fimbrae proteins
C. Capsular polysaccharide.
D. Streptolysin O.
E. *Cell-wall-associated with carbohydrate.
An a-hemolytic Gram-positive coccus is isolated from two blood cultures of a patient with
septicemia. The bacteria are catalase-negative and blacken bile-esculin slants. Which lab test
would best distinguish Enterococci from Group D Streptococci?
A. Sensitivity or resistance to optochin
B. Sensitivity to bacitracin.
C. Growth in the presence of elevated CO2.
D. Ability to produce catalase.
E. *Growth in the presence of 6.5% NaCl.
Residents of an assisted-living facility are offered immunization against Streptococcus
pneumoniae. What is the antigenic constituent of this vaccine?
A. Killed whole cells.
B. Live cells of an attenuated bacterium.
C. Proteins produced by genetic engineering.
D. A toxoid (formaldehyde-inactivated toxin).
E. *Purified capsular polysaccharides.
Which statement below most accurately describes the role of M protein in virulence of Group A
Streptococci [Streptococcus pyogenes]?
A. Shows no antigenic variation, so is not a target for antibodies.
B. Is a ‘superantigen toxin’ which stimulates TH cells.
C. Binds Fc regions of Immunoglobulin G molecules.
D. Inhibit phagocytosis
E. *Stimulates synthesis of antibodies that cross-reacts with heart tissue
A child develops ‘strep throat’ (pharyngitis caused by Streptococcus pyogenes). The pediatrician
explains to the child’s mother that the pharyngitis normally resolves spontaneously but
nevertheless it is important the patient take a full course of Penicillin G. Why is this antibiotic
treatment recommended in this situation?
A. Shortens the course of the infection.
B. Prevents spread of the infection to adjacent sites.
C. Stimulates development of protective immunity
D. Prevents spread of the infection to others.
E. *Prevents sequellae such as acute rheumatic fever.
A patient has endocarditis produced by an a-hemolytic Streptococcus. This usually reflects spread
of normal flora to the bloodstream. From which site is this isolate most likely to have spread?
A. Anterior nares.
B. Facial skin.
C. Lower respiratory tract.
D. Distal urethra.
E. *Oropharynx.
From which site is a-hemolytic Streptococcus isolate most likely to have spread in blood?
A. Anterior nares.
Lower respiratory tract.
Distal urethra.
Facial skin.
*Oropharynx.
A nine years-old child develops high fever and stiff neck. A spinal tap is performed. A Gramstained smear of cerebrospinal fluid reveals many neutrophils and Gram-negative cocci that
resemble paired kidney beans within leucocytes. Which organism below is most likely to have
caused this infection?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Streptococcus agalactiae
E. *Neisseria meningitidis
Gram stain of CSF sediment from a patient with meningitis contains Gram-negative cocci, many
in pairs. Which organism below is most probable?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Escherichia coli
E. *Neisseria meningitidis
After Gram stain of spinal fluid sample from a patient with meningitis Medical personal during
microscopy examination detected Gram-negative cocci, many in pairs. Which organism below is
most probable?
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Escherichia coli
E. *Neisseria meningitidis
Which test below would best distinguish S. aureus from one of the less-virulent staphylococci?
A. Production of catalase
B. Colony color when grown on BHI agar
C. Ability to grow on MacConkey agar.
D. Type of hemolysis on sheep blood agar.
E. *Production of coagulase.
How we can distinguish S. aureus from staphylococci epidermidis?
A. Production of catalase.
B. Colony color when grown on BHI agar.
C. Ability to grow on MacConkey agar.
D. Type of hemolysis on sheep blood agar.
E. *Production of coagulase.
Which line below correctly pairs a bacterial group or species with an antibiotic that currently
inhibits enough of its members to be used against it, before results of sensitivity testing are
received? The majority is...
A. . Enterobacteriaceae Penicillin G
B. Staphylococcus aureus Penicillin G
C. Obligate anaerobes Aminoglycosides
D. Obligate aerobes Metronidazole
E. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis Isoniazid
_____ The laboratory informs you that an isolate of Staphylococcus aureus is ‘methicillinresistant’. Which phrase below best describes such isolates?
A. Although resistant to methicillin, nearly all are sensitive to cephalosporins.
B. They are seldom resistant to antibiotics other than β-lactams.
C. They produce a β-lactamase active on both cephalosporins and penicillins.
B.
C.
D.
E.
551.
552.
553.
554.
555.
556.
557.
D. The ‘methicillin-resistance’ gene also confers resistance to vancomycin.
E. *They are resistant to both ‘anti-staph’ penicillins and cephalosporins.
558.
559.
560.
561.
562.
563.
564.
565.
A young man has a large pus-filled abscess on his upper arm but does not go to a doctor. Several
days later he is brought to the Emergency Room with fever, hypotension, and multiple organ
failure. Which of the following is most likely to be responsible?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes Erythrogenic toxin.
B. Clostridium perfringens α-toxin.
C. Shigella dysenteriae Shiga Toxin.
D. Escherichia coli Heat-labile Toxin (ST).
E. *Staphylococcus aureus Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin-1.
In cervical specimens of 21-year-old woman presents gram-negative diplococci within
leucocytes. Which bacterium is most likely to be the cause of this infection?
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Nocardia asteroides
E. *Neisseria gonorrhoeae
You suspect that a patient might have latent Syphilis. Which test below would most reliably
detect it?
A. Physical exam to detect characteristic neurological symptoms
B. Dark field microscopy of CSF.
C. Culture of the organism from blood and CSF.
D. Gram stain of material from a skin lesion.
E. *Tests for ‘non-treponemal’ and ‘anti-treponemal’ antibodies in serum.
Which test you can use for detect in patient latent Syphilis?
A. Physical exam to detect characteristic neurological symptoms.
B. . Dark field microscopy of CSF.
C. Gram stain of material from a skin lesion.
D. Culture of the organism from blood and CSF.
E. *Tests for ‘non-treponemal’ and ‘anti-treponemal’ antibodies in serum.
A bacillus cultured from stool produces dark pink colonies on Endo agar. Which of the following
organisms is most likely?
A. Salmonella enterica
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Shigella sonnei
D. Shigella dysenteriae
E. *Escherichia coli
Which bacteria can produce on Endo’s medium dark pink colonies?
A. Salmonella enterica
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Shigella sonnei
D. Shigella dysenteriae
E. *Escherichia coli
A patient is diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), you suspect caused by Chlamydia
trachomatis. If you wished to confirm C. trachomatis, which test below should you use?
A. Culture of urine on broth-based agar at 20єC.
B. Culture of cervical exudate on chocolate agar in elevated CO2.
C. Microscopic examination of a stained smear of peripheral blood.
D. Gram stain of exudate from the cervix.
E. *PCR-based nucleic-acid amplification test of a cervical swab.
A patient has a positive tuberculin test. What is the immunological basis of this reaction?
A. Polyvalent antigens in tuberculin trigger local mast cell degranulation, causing increased
vascular permeability and local edema.
B. Antibodies react with tuberculin and cause local inflammation.
C. TH cells respond to mycobacterial antigens, secrete cytokines and chemokines, and cause
566.
567.
568.
569.
570.
571.
infiltration of the site by lymphocytes and monocytes.
D. Mycobacteria injected into the dermis multiply and cause local inflammation.
E. *TH cells respond to mycobacterial antigens, secrete cytokines and chemokines, and cause
infiltration of the site by lymphocytes and monocytes.
An HIV-positive patient develops mycobacterial infection. Two likely possibilities are
Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare and Mycobacterium tuberculosis. How would these bacteria
be best distinguished in the laboratory?
A. One is Gram-positive, the other is acid-fast.
B. One is a rod, the other is a coccus.
C. One grows on Jensen-Lowenstein agar, the other does not
D. One grows in the BACTEC system, the other does not.
E. *Nucleic acid from one hybridizes to a specific DNA probe, nucleic acid from the other does
not.
An 18-year-old high school student has a large pus-filled lesion on the left forearm, tender, red,
and swollen. It is incised, drained, washed, and bandaged. A smear of the pus is Gram-stained.
Many neutrophils are seen, also many Gram-positive cocci, most in large clusters. The organism
is b-hemolytic on sheep blood agar. Colonies are pale-yellow, opaque, and shiny, with neat round
outlines. Of the bacteria listed below, which is most likely to have produced the abscess?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Streptococcus mitis
C. Enterococcus faecalis
D. Streptococcus bovis
E. *Staphylococcus aureus
A workman has a large pus-filled lesion on the left forearm, tender, red, and swollen. It is incised.
A smear of the pus is Gram-stained. Many neutrophils are seen, also many Gram-positive cocci,
most in large clusters. The organism is b-hemolytic on sheep blood agar. Colonies are paleyellow, opaque, and shiny, with neat round outlines. Of the bacteria listed below, which is most
likely to have produced the abscess?
A. Streptococcus bovis
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus mitis
D. Enterococcus faecalis
E. *Stafilococcus aureus
A patient with upper respiratory disease is observed to have a thick grey ‘pseudomembrane’
lining the upper respiratory tract. Which organism below is most likely in this case?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Nocardia asteroids
C. Legionella pneumophilia.
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae
In the upper respiratory tract of patient doctor observed thick grey ‘pseudomembrane’ formation.
Which organism can cause this symptoms?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Legionella pneumophilia.
C. Streptococcus mitis
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae
An epidemic of Typhus occurs in a refugee camp. What vectors spread the infections?
A. Rat fleas.
B. Dog ticks.
C. Deer ticks.
D. Mosquitos.
E. *Human body lice.
572.
573.
574.
575.
576.
577.
578.
A cyanotic, listless, infant with extremely poor muscle tone is brought to the Emergency Room.
Which condition is most likely, given this presentation?
A. Tetanus
B. Lyme Disease
C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
D. Rheumatic fever
E. *Botulism
What vectors are spread an epidemic typhus?
A. Rat fleas.
B. Dog ticks.
C. Mosquitos.
D. Deer ticks.
E. *Human body lice.
Bacteroides fragilis is isolated from an abdominal abscess. Which phrase is the most appropriate?
A. Initiated by ingestion of spores.
B. Can be successfully treated with aminoglycosides alone.
C. Contracted by the respiratory route.
D. Sexually-transmitted.
E. *Other species of bacteria are also often present.
A patient has a skin ulcer you suspect is caused by Bacillus anthracis. If your hypothesis is true,
which of the following would you expect to see in a Gram-stained smear of exudate from the
wound?
A. Slender spirochetes.
B. Small Gram-positive cocci, in pairs.
C. Gram-negative rods of variable length.
D. Gram-negative coccobacilli.
E. *Large Gram-positive rods.
A patient has a large carbuncles you suspect is caused by Bacillus anthracis. In this case, which
of the following would you expect to see in a Gram-stained smear of pus from the carbuncles?
A. Slender spirochetes.
B. Small Gram-positive cocci, in pairs.
C. Gram-negative rods of variable length.
D. Gram-negative coccobacilli.
E. *Large Gram-positive rods.
A patient with urethritis is treated with tetracycline. A direct fluorescent antibody test of a smear
of exudate is equivocal. Titer of Complement-fixing (CF) antibody to Chlamydia trachomatis, in
a serum sample taken on the day on which treatment was initiated, is 1:32. A second CF titer,
taken two weeks later, is 1:640. Which conclusion below best follows from the antibody titers?
A. The patient is not infected with C. trachomatis.
B. Although the patient’s condition may appear to be improving, in fact his infection is getting
worse.
C. The patient has made a Type I hypersensitivity response to C. trachomatis antigens.
D. The patient’s C. trachomatis isolate was resistant to tetracyclines
E. *The patient’s urethritis was caused by C. trachomatis.
Bacteroides fragilis is isolated from an operative wound. Which sentence below best describes
such infection?
A. Can be successfully treated with aminoglycosides alone
B. Initiated by ingestion of spores.
C. Contracted by the respiratory route.
D. Sexually-transmitted.
E. *Can be successfully treated with metronidazole alone.
579.
580.
581.
582.
583.
584.
585.
A young man has urethritis. Titer of Complement-fixing (CF) antibody to Chlamydia
trachomatis, in a serum sample taken on the day on which treatment was initiated, is 1:64. A
second CF titer, taken two weeks later, is 1:640. Which conclusion below best follows from the
antibody titers?
A. Although the patient’s condition may appear to be improving, in fact his infection is getting
worse.
B. The patient is not infected with C. trachomatis.
C. The patient has made a Type I hypersensitivity response to C. trachomatis antigens.
D. The patient’s C. trachomatis isolate was resistant to tetracyclines
E. *The patient’s urethritis was caused by C. trachomatis
Clostridium tetani produces disease by the production of a protein exotoxin. How does this toxin
act?
A. Stimulates adenyl cyclase.
B. Inhibits guanyl cyclase.
C. Cleaves ribosomal RNA.
D. Stimulates production of cytokines.
E. *Blocks synaptic transmission.
Tetanus is very dangerous disease because Clostridium tetani produces exotoxin-tetanospasmin.
How does this toxin act?
A. Stimulates adenyl cyclase.
B. Inhibits guanyl cyclase
C. Cleaves ribosomal RNA.
D. Stimulates production of cytokines.
E. *Blocks synaptic transmission.
Which antibiotic below should you expect to be most effective for therapy Mycoplasma
pneumoniae respiratory infection?
A. . Penicillin G.
B. Vancomycin.
C. A third-generation cephalosporin.
D. An ‘extended-spectrum’ penicillin.
E. *Erythromycin.
You suspect that a patient’s respiratory illness may be due to infection by Mycoplasma
pneumoniae. If this is true, which antibiotic below should you expect to be most effective?
A. Penicillin G.
B. Vancomycin.
C. A third-generation cephalosporin.
D. An ‘extended-spectrum’ penicillin.
E. *Erythromycin.
In October a young man comes to your office with two ulcers on his right hand. His history
includes the fact that he is an avid hunter, and has been rabbit hunting in southern New Jersey
every weekend for the last several months. Which organism should his hobby cause you to add to
the list of possible causes of his illness?
A. Yersinia pestis.
B. Coxiella burnetii.
C. Listeria monocytogenes.
D. A member of the genus Brucella.
E. *Francisella tularensis.
A 17-year-old sexually-active male presents with a four-day history of pain on urination and
profuse purulent discharge from his urethral opening. Gram stain of the discharge revealed large
numbers of neutrophils. A small fraction of neutrophils contained Gram-negative cocci, mostly in
pairs. Which bacterium is most likely to have caused his infection?
A. Mycoplasma hominis
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Ureaplasma urealyticum
E. *Neisseria gonorrhoeae
586.
587.
588.
589.
590.
591.
592.
593.
Bordetella pertussis is:
A. Gram "+"
B. Modified acid fast "+"
C. Acid fast "+"
D. Urease "+"
E. *Gram "-"
Morbidity of Rickettsia tsutsugamushi is:
A. Toxic shock syndrome
B. Reiter's syndrome
C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D. Pneumonia
E. *Scrub typhus
Phenotypic properties of Streptococcus pyogenes is:
A. Urease "+"
B. dsDNA
C. H2S "-"
D. Coagulase "-"
E. *Catalase "-"
Rickettsia typhi is:
A. Helminths
B. Protozoa
C. Fungi
D. Viruses
E. *Bacteria
Which of the following are true according to Streptococcus agalactiae
A. Botulism symptoms include descending paralysis, dry mouth, constipation, and urinary
retention.
B. Yeast form - in tissues; hyphae and pseudohyphae - both in tissues and in nature
(temperature/nutrition dependent)
C. N. asteroides & N. caviae - pulmonary infections; N. brasiliensis - skin infections. Rare in
immunocompetent.
D. Exposure to antibiotics - major risk factor.
E. *Normal vaginal flora
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
A. Fungi
B. Helminths
C. Viruses
D. Protozoa
E. *Bacteria
Oxygen requirements of Staphylococcus epidermidis is:
A. Aerobic
B. Obligate anaerobe
C. Microaerophilic
D. Facultative Aerobic
E. *Facultative anaerobe
Staphylococcus epidermidis is:
A. Aerobic
B. Facultative anaerobe
C. Microaerophilic
D. Obligate aerobic
E. *Obligate anaerobe
594.
595.
596.
597.
598.
599.
600.
601.
602.
Which of the following statements refers to Coxiella burnetii :
A. Masseter muscles are often the first to be affected producing trismus (lockjaw).
B. Strains A-C: trachoma. Strains D-K: genital infections. Strains L1-L3: lymphogranuloma
venereum.
C. Receptor - CD21 (complement receptor type 2)
D. Disease is mostly caused by O1 Classic and El Tor strains; recently also O139
E. *May include pneumonia, hepatitis, and endocarditis.
What is correct according Coxiella burnetii
A. Masseter muscles are often the first to be affected producing trismus (lockjaw)
B. Strains A-C: trachoma. Strains D-K: genital infections. Strains L1-L3: lymphogranuloma
venereum
C. Disease is mostly caused by O1 Classic and El Tor strains; recently also O139
D. Can be transmitted by the bites of foxes
E. *May include pneumonia, hepatitis, and endocarditis
Morbidity of Pseudomonas aeruginosa is:
A. Lymphogranuloma venereum
B. Enteric fever
C. Necrotising faciitis
D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
E. *Sepsis
What disease can cause Pseudomonas aeruginosa is:
A. Lymphogranuloma venereum
B. Necrotising faciitis
C. Enteric fever
D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
E. *Sepsis
Morphology of Treponema pallidum is:
A. Mold
B. Vibrio
C. Rod
D. Yeast
E. *Spiral-shaped
Helicobacter pylori is:
A. Vibrio
B. Mold
C. Rod
D. Yeast
E. *Spiral-shaped
Therapy of Candida albicans is:
A. Antitoxin
B. Cefotetan
C. Ketoconazole
D. Penicillin
E. *Nystatin
What medicine is use for therapy of Candida albicans infection
A. Antitoxin
B. Cefotetan
C. Penicillin
D. Ketoconazole
E. *Nystatin
Morbidity of Clostridium tetani is:
A. Cholera gravis
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Parotitis
Wound infection
*Tetanus
Clostridium tetani is сausative agent of:
A. Cholera gravis
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease
C. Wound infection
D. Parotitis
E. *Tetanus
Which of the following statements refers to Clostridium botulinum
A. Includes S. typhimurium, S. dublin, S. enteritidis, S. hadar - enteritis; S. typhi, S. paratyphi enteric fever, possible intracellular infection.
B. Group is determined base on polysaccharide C; type - based on M-protein; strain - based on T
antigen.
C. Toxins: Stx - EHEC; ShET2 - EIEC.
D. Exposure to antibiotics - major risk factor
E. *Botulism symptoms include descending paralysis, dry mouth, constipation, and urinary
retention.
Find the correct sentence according to Clostridium botulinum
A. Includes S. typhimurium, S. dublin, S. enteritidis, S. hadar - enteritis; S. typhi, S. paratyphi enteric fever, possible intracellular infection.
B. Group is determined base on polysaccharide C; type - based on M-protein; strain - based on T
antigen.
C. Exposure to antibiotics - major risk factor.
D. . Produce endotoxin and coagulase.
E. *Botulism symptoms include descending paralysis, dry mouth, constipation, and urinary
retention
Phenotypic characteristic of Chlamydia pneumoniae is:
A. ssDNA
B. ssRNA ambisense
C. Coagulase "+"
D. Urease "+"
E. *Obligate intracellular parasite
Chlamydia pneumoniae is:
A. ssDNA
B. It grows onto nutrient media
C. Coagulase "+"
D. Acid fast "+"
E. *Obligate intracellular parasite
Toxin of Vibrio cholerae is:
A. LPS
B. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
C. Enterotoxins
D. Hemolysins
E. *Toxin - activates adenylate cyclase
Toxicogenity of Vibrio cholerae is accociated with:
A. LPS
B. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
C. Enterotoxins
D. Hemolysins
E. *Toxin - activates adenylate cyclase
Phenotypic characteristic of Staphylococcus epidermidis is:
B.
C.
D.
E.
603.
604.
605.
606.
607.
608.
609.
610.
Optochin sensitive
Non-enveloped
Motility "+"
Oxidase "+"
*Coagulase "-"
One of the phenotypic characteristic of Staphylococcus epidermidis is:
A. Optochin sensitive
B. Non-enveloped
C. Oxidase "+"
D. Motility "+"
E. *Coagulase "-"
Morphology of Yersinia enterocolitica is:
A. Mold
B. Cocci in chains
C. Cocci in clusters
D. Branching beaded rods
E. *Rod
Morphology of Pneumococcus is:
A. Rod
B. Cocci in chains
C. Cyst
D. Spiral-shaped
E. *Diplococci
Morbidity of troponema pallium is:
A. Meningitis
B. Enteritis
C. Hepatitis
D. Food poisoning
E. *Syphilis
Morbidity of Escherichia coli is:
A. Myocarditis
B. Fe deficiency anemia
C. Carbuncles
D. Pharyngitis
E. *Sepsis
Group of Rickettsia prowazekii is:
A. Protozoa
B. Helminths
C. Fungi
D. Viruses
E. *Bacteria
Group of Klebsiella spp is:
A. Helminths
B. Protozoa
C. Fungi
D. Viruses
E. *Bacteria
Stain of Shigella spp. is:
A. Gram "+"
B. Modified acid fast "+"
C. Acid fast "+"
D. Hinse
E. *Gram "-"
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
611.
612.
613.
614.
615.
616.
617.
618.
619.
620.
621.
622.
623.
624.
625.
626.
Group of Clostridium botulinum is:
A. Protozoa
B. Fungi
C. Helminths
D. Viruses
E. *Bacteria
Which of the following statements refers to Rickettsia rickettsii
A. Normal flora of the oral cavity
B. DNA homology studies indicate that only a single Brucella species, Brucella melitensis, is
justified, but the names Brucella abortus and Brucella suis (now considered biovars) are
still in use.
C. Envelope consists of HBsAg
D. Toxin can be chronically produced in infant's colon causing infant botulism.
E. *Pathogenesis - vasculitis
Hemolysis is the partial lysis of red blood cells due to bacterial hemolysins.
A. * Alpha
B. Beta
C. Gamma
D. Delta
E. Epsilon
______ is probably the most important characteristic for classification of viruses in eucaryotes.
A. Host preference
B. Morphology
C. Physical nature of virion constituents
D. *Chemical nature of virion constituents
E. Genetic relatedness
A beta-hemolytic streptococcus is isolated from an infected neonate. Such isolates are often
members of Lancefield Group B. The antigenic structure of which bacterial component defines
Lancefield Groups?
A. Capsule polysaccharide.
B. *Cell-associated or C-carbohydrate.
C. Wall and membrane teichoic acids.
D. Beta-hemolysins.
E. Filamentous proteins of the cell envelope.
A child develops pneumonia. The bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae is cultured from the
patient’s sputum. Cells of the cultured bacteria have thick polysaccharide capsules. How did the
presence of capsules promote development of serious disease?
A. Prevented binding of antibodies to the bacteria.
B. Prevented initiation of a humoral immune response.
C. Prevented activation of helper T cells.
D. *Prevented phagocytosis by neutrophils.
E. Prevented mast-cell degranulation.
A complication of genital gonorrhea in both men and women is
A. *infertility
B. pelvic inflammatory disease
C. arthritis
D. blindness
E. E. urethritis
A culture of skin lesions from a patient with pyoderma (impetigo) shows numerous colonies
surrounded by a zone of beta hemolysis on a blood agar plate. A Gram-stained smear shows
gram-positive cocci. If you found the catalase test to be negative, which one of the following
organisms would you MOST probably have isolated?
A. *Streptococcus pyogenes
Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
All of the above
A individual may have repeated infections with Neisseria gonorrhoeae, despite the fact that each
infection gives rise to an immune response. By which mechanism does the gonococcus evade
protective immunity?
A. Thick capsule prevents binding of antibodies to the cell surface.
B. Pili adhere to epithelial cells despite binding of antibodies.
C. Capsular polysaccharide is identical to polysaccharides of mammalian cells.
D. Outer membrane lacks any antigenic components.
E. *The surface antigens present change continually, as a result of pre-programmed changes in
DNA.
A neonate develops septicemia. Blood cultures produce a ?-hemolytic Gram-positive coccus. It is
catalase negative. Which test would best confirm the identity of the pathogen as a Group B
Streptococcus?
A. *Synergy of hemolysin with the hemolysin of Staphylococcus aureus [CAMP test].
B. Bile-esculin test.
C. Bacitracin sensitivity.
D. Optochin sensitivity.
E. Novobiocin sensitivity.
A patient has common cold, cough, catarrhal phenomena, fever, and weakness. There may be
viral infection. What test can we use for indication of viruses in pathological material?
A. *Haemagglutination test
B. Indirect haemagglutination test
C. CFT
D. Neutralization test
E. All answers are correct
A positive Schick test implies that the person is:
A. immune and non-hypersensitive.
B. *susceptible and non-hypersensitive.
C. immune and hypersensitive.
D. non-immune and hypersensitive.
E. healthy
A post-surgical patient develops fever and there is redness and swelling around the surgical
incision. A day later pus begins to flow from the incision; Gram stain of pus shows large numbers
of neutrophils and many Gram-positive cocci, some in clusters. The organism is beta-hemolytic
on blood agar, and is coagulase- and catalase-positive. Which organism is most likely?
A. *Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
D. Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
A primary determinant of virulence in Streptococcus pyogenes, which is involved in adherence,
resistance to phagocytosis and antigenic variation, is
A. streptokinase
B. lipopolysaccharide (endotoxin)
C. *M-protein
D. Protein A
E. coagulase
A young man complaines on pain on urination and profuse purulent discharge from his urethral
opening. Gram stain of the discharge revealed large numbers Gram-negative cocci, mostly in
pairs within neutrophils. Which bacterium is most likely to have caused his infection?
B.
C.
D.
E.
627.
628.
629.
630.
631.
632.
633.
Mycoplasma hominis
Chlamydia trachomatis
*Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Ureaplasma urealyticum
Treponema pallidum
A young man has a large pus-filled abscess on his upper arm but does not go to a doctor. Several
days later he is brought to the Emergency Room with fever, hypotension, and multiple organ
failure. Which of the following is most likely to be responsible?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes Erythrogenic toxin.
B. Clostridium perfringens ?-toxin.
C. *Staphylococcus aureus Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin-1.
D. Shigella dysenteriae Shiga Toxin.
E. Escherichia coli Heat-labile Toxin (ST).
A/an _______ is specifically able to have a long-term relationship with the host known as
lysogeny.
A. *Temperate virus
B. Adsorbed virus
C. Virion
D. RNA phage
E. DNA phage
After Gram stain of spinal fluid sample from a patient with meningitis Medical personal during
microscopy examination detected Gram-negative cocci, many in pairs. Which organism below is
most likely?
A. *Neisseria meningitidis
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Escherichia coli
After identification of viruses in pathological material viruses from Orthomyxoviridae were
revealed. What virus from this family may be found in this tested material?
A. Poliovirus
B. *Influenza virus
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
After inoculation of cell culture with viral material it is necessity for the indication of virus in
there. We can use such test:
A. Presence of cytophathic effect
B. Haemagglutination test
C. Haemadsorption test
D. "colour test"
E. *All answers are corrects
After inoculation of chicken embryo with tested material from a patient with initial diagnosis of
Flu it is necessary to detect the presence of viruses in there. What test of indication may be used?
A. neutralization test in the cell culture
B. plaques formation phenomenon in gel
C. neutralization test in laboratory animals
D. precipitation test
E. *haemagglutination test
All of the following viral genomes are replicated in the cytoplasm EXCEPT:
A. poxviruses
B. reoviruses
C. picornaviruses
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
634.
635.
636.
637.
638.
639.
640.
D. *herpesviruses
E. paramyxoviruses
641.
642.
643.
644.
645.
646.
647.
648.
All of the following viruses are replicated in the nucleus EXCEPT:
A. *poxviruses
B. papovaviruses
C. adenoviruses
D. herpesviruses
E. parvoviruses
All of the following viruses contain lipid EXCEPT:
A. herpesviruses
B. *papillomaviruses
C. poxviruses
D. togaviruses
E. paramyxoviruses
All viruses according to their structure are divided into naked and complex. Complex ones
contain an envelope. What RNA-containing viruses do have envelope?
A. picornaviruses
B. *togaviruses
C. reoviruses
D. caliciviruses
E. All answers are correct
All viruses may do any of the following but not
A. Inhibit host cell DNA synthesis
B. Inhibit host cell RNA synthesis
C. Inhibit host cell protein synthesis
D. *Stimulate host cell macromolecule synthesis
E. Degrade host cell DNA
Among reactions, which are widely applied for indication of viruses haemagglutination test, is
used. What is haemagglutination unit?
A. Maximal dilution of viruses, which causes complete agglutination of red cells.
B. *Minimum dilution of viruses, which causes complete agglutination of red cells.
C. Maximal dilution of red cells suspension, where their agglutination is present.
D. Minimum dilution of red cells suspension, where their agglutination is present.
E. No correct answer.
An effective vaccine exists to prevent infections from
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. *Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. Streptococcus epidermidis
An elderly man develops pneumonia and septicemia. Gram stain of sputum contains many
neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci, in pairs. Blood and sputum cultures grow out a Grampositive coccus, ?-hemolytic on sheep blood agar, and catalase-negative. Which organism below
is most likely?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. *Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D. Streptococcus pyogenes.
E. Streptococcus agalactiae.
An elderly resident of a nursing home develops pneumococcal pneumonia. This illness might
have been prevented had the patient been immunized against this organism. Which antigens of S.
pneumoniae are included in the adult vaccine?
A. M-proteins.
Intact heat-killed bacteria.
Toxoids produced from superantigen toxins.
*Capsular polysaccharides.
Cell-associated (C) carbohydrates.
An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps?
A. penetration
B. lysis
C. synthesis
D. *release
E. assembly
An important test for identifying Neisseria is
A. *production of oxidase
B. production of catalase
C. sugar fermentation
D. beta-hemolysis
E. alfa- hemolysis
An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the newborn nursery.
You are called upon to investigate. According to your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the
MOST likely source of the organism?
A. Colon
B. *Nose
C. Throat
D. Vagina
E. Smalll intestine
Areas of dead host cells evident on an agar plate are:
A. pocks
B. cytopathic effects
C. cell lines
D. *plaques
E. primary cell cultures
Before making Complement fixation test patients serum must be heated at 56 °С for 30 min. Why
should we done it?
A. For elimination of heterophilic antibodies
B. For diminution of properdin activity
C. For decrease of lysozyme activity
D. *For elimination of complement
E. For suppression of normal antibodies
Before the advent of immunization, outbreaks of meningococcal disease were frequent in military
camps. A factor in development of such outbreaks is the ability of Neisseria meningitidis to
establish an asymptomatic ‘carrier state’. What is the predominant site of carriage of Neisseria?
A. Urethral epithelium.
B. Gall bladder.
C. Large intestine.
D. *Nasopharynx.
E. Meninges and choroid plexus
Characteristics of Streptococcus mutans which allow it to initiate dental caries include
A. the ability to attach specifically to the pellicle of the tooth
B. *the ability to produce lactic acid from sucrose, glucose and fructose
C. the ability to form and grow in a biofilm on the enamel of the tooth
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
?Choose faithful composition of yolk salt agar
A. *MPA, yolk, 9 % of sodium chloride
B.
C.
D.
E.
649.
650.
651.
652.
653.
654.
655.
656.
MPA, ram’s , 9 % of sodium chloride
MPA, rabbit’s red cells, 9 % of sodium chloride
MPA, horse’s red cells , 9 % of sodium chloride
MPA, glucose, 9 % chloride of sodium
Each of the following statements concerning gonorrhea is correct EXCEPT:
A. Infection in men is more frequently symptomatic tY\an in women
B. A presumptive diagnosis can be made by finding gram-negative kidney-bean-shaped
diplococci within neutrophils in a urethral discharge
C. *The definitive diagnosis can be made by detecting at least a 4-fold rise in antibody to
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Gonococcal conjunctivitis of the newborn rarely occurs in the United States, because silver
nitrate or erythromycin is commonly used as prophylaxis
E. All of the above
Each of the following statements concerning neisseriae is correct EXCEPT:
A. They are gram-negative diplococci
B. They produce IgA protease as a virulence factor
C. They are oxidase-positive
D. *They grow best under anaerobic conditions
E. All of the above
Each of the following statements concerning Neisseria meningitidis is correct EXCEPT:
A. It is an oxidase-positive, gram-negative diplo-coccus
B. It contains endotoxin in its cell wall
C. *It produces an exotoxin that stimulates adenylate cyclase
D. It has a polysaccharide capsule that is antiphagocytic
E. All of the above
Each of the following statements concerning Staphylococcus aureus is correct EXCEPT:
A. Gram-positive cocci in grapelike clusters are seen on Gram-stained smear
B. The coagulase test is positive
C. Treatment should include a (3-lactamase-resistant penicillin
D. *Endotoxin is an important pathogenetic factor
E. All of the above
Each of the following statements concerning staphylococci is correct EXCEPT:
A. S. aureus is differentiated from S. epidermidis by the production of coagulase
B. S. aureus infections are often associated with abscess formation
C. The majority of clinical isolates of S. aureus elaborate penicillinase; therefore, presumptive
antibiotic therapy for S. aureus infections should not consist of penicillin G
D. *Scalded skin syndrome caused by S. aureus is due to enzymatic degradation of epidermal
desmosomes by catalase
E. All of the above
Each of the statements about the classification of streptococci is correct EXCEPT:
A. Pneumococci {Streptococcus pneumoniae) are alpha-hemolytic and can be serotyped on the
basis of their polysaccharide capsules
B. Enterococci are group D streptococci and can be classified by their ability to grow in 6.5%
sodium chloride
C. Although pneumococci and the viridans streptococci are alpha-hemolytic, they can be
differentiated by the bile solubility test and their susceptibility to optochin
D. *Viridans streptococci are identified by Lance-field grouping, which is based on the C
carbohydrate in the cell wall
E. All of the above
Ecsherichia coli and Neisseria meningitidis isolated from blood cultures often have transport
systems (for acquiring metal ions from the environment) lacking in their less-virulent relatives.
Which metal is acquired by the majority of these systems?
A. Copper
B.
C.
D.
E.
657.
658.
659.
660.
661.
662.
663.
Sodium
Potassium
Magnesium
*Iron
Edward Jenner began inoculating humans with material from _______ lesions.
A. Smallpox
B. Avianpox
C. *Cowpox
D. Chickenpox
E. Dogpox
Enveloped viruses have a ______ shape
A. Icosahedral
B. Helical
C. Hexagonal
D. *Roughly spherical
E. Complex
Five young men suffer acute attacks of nausea and vomiting a few hours after returning from a
student’s party, at which they ate hamburgers, potato salad, and custard pie. By morning all are
feeling better. Which bacterial toxin is most likely to have caused their symptoms?
A. *Staphylococcus aureus Enterotoxin.
B. Escherichia coli Labile Toxin
C. Escherichia coli Stable Toxin.
D. Clostridium difficile Cytotoxin.
E. Helicobacteri pylori Cytotoxin.
From which site is a-hemolytic Streptococcus isolate most likely to have spread in blood?
A. Anterior nares.
B. *Oropharynx.
C. Lower respiratory tract.
D. Distal urethra.
E. Facial skin.
Gram stain of CSF sediment from a patient with meningitis contains Gram-negative cocci, many
in pairs. Which organism below is most likely?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. *Neisseria meningitidis
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Escherichia coli
Heavily-encapsulated strains of Neisseria meningitidis are far more virulent than nonencapsulated isolates. How does a capsule enhance virulence?
A. Binds to the Fc region of some subclasses of human IgG.
B. Prevents activation of complement by the classical pathway.
C. Enables bacteria to adhere tightly to mammalian cells.
D. Reduces access of antibiotics to the bacterial membrane.
E. *Inhibits phagocytosis by neutrophils
Holes produced in bacterial “lawns” by viruses are called
A. Colonies
B. *Plaques
C. Patches
D. Lysis
E. Clearance
How does Protein A aid in virulence?
A. *Binds the Fc region of IgG, decreases opsonization.
B. Hydrolyzes secretory IgA.
B.
C.
D.
E.
664.
665.
666.
667.
668.
669.
670.
671.
C. Binds Factor H, prevents activation of complement.
D. Extracts iron from plasma proteins.
E. Promotes tight binding of bacteria to extracellular matrix.
672.
673.
674.
675.
676.
677.
678.
679.
How we can distinguish S. aureus from staphylococci epidermidis?
A. Production of catalase.
B. Colony color when grown on BHI agar.
C. Ability to grow on MacConkey agar.
D. Type of hemolysis on sheep blood agar.
E. *Production of coagulase.
Icosachedral viruses have ……… sides
A. 6
B. 10
C. 12
D. *20
E. 48
In cervical specimens of 21-year-old woman presents gram-negative diplococci within
leucocytes. Which bacterium is most likely to be the cause of this infection?
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. *Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Nocardia asteroides
In the immune response to invasive infections by Streptococcus pneumoniae, antibodies are
required for effective defense. Antibodies to which antigen are most important?
A. Teichoic acid.
B. Peptidoglycan.
C. C-carbohydrate.
D. Type III secretion system.
E. *Polysaccharide capsule.
Intracellular structures formed during many viral infections, called __________, which can
directly disrupt cell structure.
A. Procaryotes
B. Chromosomal disruptions
C. *Inclusion bodies
D. Cytocidal bodies
E. All of the above
Isolation of pneumococci from clinical specimens may be attempted by intraperitoneal
inoculation
A. rabbits.
B. rats.
C. *mice.
D. sheep.
E. Mice
Most strains of Staphylococcus aureus show:
A. *a golden-yellow pigment.
B. ?-haemolysis on sheep blood agar.
C. phosphatase production.
D. novobicin resistance
E. all of the above.
Of the organisms listed below, which one is the MOST frequent bacterial cause of pharyngitis?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. *Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Neisseria meningitidis
E. All of the above
680.
681.
682.
683.
684.
685.
686.
687.
Parvovirus genome:
A. dsDNA, small, complex symmetry
B. *ssDNA, small, icosahedral symmetry
C. ssDNA, small, helical symmetry
D. ssRNA, large, helical symmetry
E. dsRNA, middle-sized, icosahedral symmetry
Penicillin-resistant Staphylococcus can be treated with ______ without sensitivity testing.
A. ampicillin
B. erythromycin
C. C. methicillin
D. amoxycillin
E. *no antibiotic
Regarding the effect of benzylpenicillin (penicillin G) on bacteria, which one of the following
organisms is LEAST likely to be resistant?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Enterococcus faecalis
C. *Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E. All of the above
Residents of an assisted-living facility are immunized against Streptococcus pneumoniae. What is
the antigenic component of the vaccine?
A. A protein toxoid.
B. Killed whole bacteria.
C. Purified toxin.
D. *Purified capsular polysaccharides.
E. Live bacteria of attenuated virulence
Retrospective diagnostics of measles and mumps includes:
A. *HIT with paire serums;
B. CFT with pair serums;
C. HIT with specific serums;
D. rhinocytoscopy
E. ELISA
Revertase is encoded on the genomes of:
A. all viruses
B. all DNA viruses
C. all RNA viruses
D. *all retroviruses
E. all bacteriophages
RS virus causes:
A. destruction of tissue culture
B. *formation of syncytio in tissue cultures
C. death of chicken embryo
D. hemagglutination of red cells
E. hemolysis.
Scalded skin syndrome is due to which toxin of Staphylococcus aureus?
A. *Epidermolytic toxin.
B. Enterotoxin.
C. Leucocidin.
D. Haemolysin
E. Necrotoxin
688.
689.
690.
691.
692.
693.
694.
695.
696.
Staphylococcus aureus is easily transmitted within the hospital environment. Which feature of
this bacterium is most largely responsible for its ease of spread?
A. *Resistance to heat, cold, and drying.
B. Ability to colonize the digestive tract.
C. Presence of an outer membrane impermeable to most disinfectants.
D. Production of extracellular polysaccharide which allows it to adhere tightly to surfaces.
E. Ability to form spores which are resistant to disinfectants and easily dispersed.
The _____ of the influenza-enveloped virus appear to be involved in attachment to the host cell
receptor site.
A. Pili
B. Fimbriae
C. Flagellae
D. *Hemagluttinin
E. Neuraminidase
The appearance of a group of viruses under the light micoscope within cells is termed the :
A. *inclusion
B. viroid
C. colony
D. cytopathic effect
E. plaque
The carrier site in humans for pathogenic Neisseria meningitidis is the
A. conjunctiva
B. *nasopharynx
C. urogenital tract
D. blood
E. meninges
The characteristic cytophatologic effect (CPE) that viruses cause in cells include:
A. vacuolation
B. necrosis
C. cell lysis
D. syncytia formation
E. *all of the above
The coagulase test is used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from
A. other staphylococci
B. *streptococci
C. micrococci
D. enterococci
E. pneumococci
The enzyme that enhances the respiratory penetration on the orthomyxovirus is:
A. hemagglutinin
B. hemolysin
C. lipoprotein
D. *neuraminidase
E. hyaluronidase
The fibrin coat that can be formed by coagulase-positive staphylococci and the hyaluronic acid
capsule of Streptococcus pyogenes are pathogenic strategies to
A. promote colonization of a host
B. cause direct damage to host cells during pathogenesis
C. hide bacterial antigens from the host immune tissues
D. *survive as intracellular parasites !!!!
E. alter or change their surface antigens within the course of an infection
The following test determines the presence of infectious virus in a sample:
A. Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI)
*Immunofluoresence or Fluorescence assays (IF or FA)
Neutralization Tests (NT)
Complement Fixation Test (CF)
ELISA
The following test reveals the intracellular location of viral antigens:
A. Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI)
B. *Immunofluoresence or Fluorescence assays (IF or FA)
C. Neutralization Tests (NT)
D. Complement Fixation Test (CF)
E. ELISA
The following test uses a solid phase coated with antibody (or antigen) to capture antigen (or
antibody) from the patient's specimen:
A. Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI)
B. Immunofluoresence or Fluorescence assays (IF or FA)
C. Neutralization Tests (NT)
D. Complement Fixation Test (CF)
E. *ELISA
The function/s of a viral capsid is/are:
A. it protects the viral genome from physical and enzymatic destruction.
B. it provides binding sites that enable the virus to attach to specific receptor sites on the host
cell.
C. it serves as a vehicle of transmission from one host to another.
D. It consists of proteins
E. *all of the above.
The laboratory informs you that an isolate of Staphylococcus aureus is ‘methicillin-resistant’.
Which phrase below best describes such isolates?
A. Although resistant to methicillin, nearly all are sensitive to cephalosporins.
B. *They are resistant to both ‘anti-staph’ penicillins and cephalosporins.
C. They are seldom resistant to antibiotics other than ?-lactams.
D. They produce a ?-lactamase active on both cephalosporins and penicillins.
E. The ‘methicillin-resistance’ gene also confers resistance to vancomycin.
The main carrier site on the human body for strains of potentially pathogenic Neisseria
meningitidis is the
A. nasal membranes
B. *throat (posterior nasopharynx)
C. oral cavity
D. gastrointestinal tract
E. vagina
The main component of all viruses is
A. the envelope
B. the polymerase
C. the icosahedral capsid
D. the lipid
E. *the nucleic acid
The main use of embryonated eggs in virology is the:
A. detection of cytopathic effect
B. production of interferon
C. production of vaccines
D. *observation of viral growth
E. production of lysozym
The MOST important contribution of the capsule of Streptococcus pneumoniae to virulence is
A. To prevent dehydration of the organisms on mucosal surfaces
B. *To retard phagocytosis by polymorphonuclear leukocytes
B.
C.
D.
E.
697.
698.
699.
700.
701.
702.
703.
704.
C. To inhibit polymorphonuclear leukocyte chemo taxis
D. To accelerate tissue invasion by its collage-naselike activity
E. All of the above
705.
706.
707.
708.
709.
710.
711.
712.
713.
The MOST important way the host circumvents the function of the pneumococcal polysaccharide
capsule is via
A. T lymphocytes sensitized to polysaccharide antigens
B. Polysaccharide-degrading enzymes
C. *Anticapsular antibody
D. Activated macrophages
E. All of the above
The most popular indirect method of counting virus particles is
A. Microscopically
B. By hemagglutination assay
C. By plaque-assay
D. *By counting plaque-forming units
E. By colony counting
The nucleocapsid refers to:
A. *the complete viral particle
B. the viral genetic material
C. the viral proteins only
D. the viral genetic material and associated lipids
E. the viral genetic material and associated proteins
The process by which phage reproduction is initiatied in lysogenized culture is called
A. Infection
B. Integration
C. Repression
D. *Induction
E. Enhancement
The protein coat that envelopes the viral genetic material is known as a:
A. Virion
B. Case
C. Viroid
D. *Capsid
E. Spikes
The release of animal viruses from their host occur in:
A. assembly
B. endocytosis
C. maturation
D. *exocytosis
E. eclipse
The role of the 'early genes' of a mammalian virus?
A. initiation and regulation of virus replication
B. maintenance of the virus outside the cell
C. coding for the structural proteins of the virus
D. determining the group specific antigens of the virus
E. coding for the lipid components of the viral envelope
The skin blotches in meningitis are due to
A. blood clots
B. *endotoxins in the blood
C. erysipelas
D. exotoxin in skin
E. E. skin invasion by N. meningitidis
The smallest known viruses are the:
*Picornavirus
Adenovirus
Enterovirus
Orthomyxovirus
Paramyxovirus
Three organisms, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Haemophilus
influenzae cause the vast majority of cases of bacterial meningitis. What is the MOST important
pathogenic component they share?
A. Protein A
B. *Capsule
C. Endotoxin
D. beta-Lactamase
E. All of the above
Untreated pharyngitis produced by Group A streptococci can result in later development of Acute
rheumatic fever, created by cross-reaction of anti-streptococcal antibodies with heart tissue.
Which streptococcal antigen stimulates formation of these cross-reactive antibodies?
A. A.Group A carbohydrate.
B. Flagella.
C. *M protein
D. Peptidoglycan.
E. Teichoic acid.
Viral DNA is replicated in the host cell
A. Cytoplasmic matrix
B. *Nucleus
C. Wall
D. Mitochondria
E. Lysozomes
Viral RNA is replicated in the host cell
A. *Cytoplasmic matrix
B. Nucleus
C. Wall
D. Mitochondria
E. Lysozomes
Viridans streptococci commonly cause
A. pneumonia
B. meningitis
C. *subacute endocarditis
D. otitis media
E. arthritis
Virulent and nonvirulent viruses may do any of the following but not
A. Inhibit host cell DNA synthesis
B. Inhibit host cell RNA synthesis
C. Inhibit host cell protein synthesis
D. *Stimulate host cell macromolecule synthesis
E. Degrade host cell DNA
Viruses are intracellular obligate parasites, which means that they cannot reproduce or express
their genes without
A. enzymes
B. *a host cell
C. another virus
D. a cell wall
E. nutrience media
Viruses can be effectively deactivated in blood transfusion preparation treated with
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
714.
715.
716.
717.
718.
719.
720.
721.
heat
interferon
ampicillin
acyclovir
*radiation
Viruses require ______ for growth.
A. Plants
B. Animals
C. Bacteria
D. *Living cells
E. Fungi
What is a virus that infects bacteria called?
A. Virophage
B. *Bacteriophage
C. T Cell
D. B Cell
E. Macrophage
What is always required for a successful first step in viral infection of an eucaryotic cell?
A. the presence of the correct viral polymerase
B. *the presence of the correct virus receptor
C. the presence of a nucleus in the eucaryotic cell
D. the presence of cellular polyribosomes
E. the presence of the correct number of viral genome segments
What is one component of all mammalian viruses?
A. the envelope
B. the polymerase
C. the icosahedral capsid
D. the lipid
E. *the nucleic acid
What is the role of the 'early genes' of a mammalian virus?
A. *initiation and regulation of virus replication
B. maintenance of the virus outside the cell
C. coding for the structural proteins of the virus
D. determining the group specific antigens of the virus
E. coding for the lipid components of the viral envelope
What kind of embryo is often used for viral assays?
A. Mouse
B. Rat
C. Cat
D. Dog
E. *Chicken
What structure of the influenza-enveloped virus appear to be involved in attachment to the host
cell receptor site.
A. Pili
B. Fimbriae
C. Flagellae
D. *Hemagluttinin
E. Neuraminidase
What was the first virus shown to cause disease?
A. Polio
B. Hepatitis
C. Tobacco mosaic virus
D. Potato blight
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
722.
723.
724.
725.
726.
727.
728.
729.
E. Influenza
730.
731.
732.
733.
734.
735.
736.
737.
738.
When an animal virus becomes integrated into the host's chromosome it is then called a
A. prophage
B. *provirus
C. vegetative virus
D. temperate virus
E. temperate phage.
When antibody titers are used in the laboratory diagnosis of viral infections, the diagnosis can be
made only if
A. the acute titer is less than 10
B. the convalescent titcr is greater than 20
C. there is a twofold rise in titer
D. *there is a fourfold rise in titer
E. there is no change in titer
Which is not true of virions?
A. Contain DNA
B. Contain RNA
C. Are extracellular
D. Reproduce independently
E. *Induce host metabolism
Which of the following are pyogenic cocci:
A. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Neisseria
E. *all of these
Which of the following host proteins is the first to rise to high titer, in response to viral infection?
A. Immunoglobulin
B. Complement
C. *Interferon
D. Anti-idiotype antibody
E. Interleukin 1
Which of the following is caused by a viral infection?
A. Botulism
B. Salmonellosis
C. Anthrax
D. *Chicken Pox
E. Tetanus
Which of the following is not a single-stranded RNA virus?
A. *Herpes
B. Rhinovirus
C. Influenza
D. Rabies Virus
E. echovirus
Which of the following is not found in all viruses
A. protein
B. enzymes
C. nucleic acid
D. *a capsid
E. an envelope
Which of the following is NOT true of Neisseria gonorrhea?
A. Is a mucosal pathogen
B. *Requires a vaginal pH of 5 or more to grow
C. Can disseminate in the immunosuppressed
D. Complications include ectopic pregnancy, PID and sterility
E. Gram-negative diplococci
739.
740.
741.
742.
743.
744.
745.
746.
747.
Which of the following is NOT true of Neisseria meningitidis?
A. Crosses the blood brain barrier
B. *Has 3 serotypes - A, B, Y
C. Colonizes nasopharynx
D. Predisposed groups include diabetics
E. Has peptidoglycan
Which of the following is semi-continuous (diploid) cell line?
A. *WI-38.
B. HeLa.
C. HEp-2.
D. KB.
E. Detroid 5
Which of the following is/are continuous cell line/s?
A. HeLa.
B. HEp-2.
C. KB.
D. Detroit 5
E. *All of the above
Which of the following is/are synthesized from late mRNA?
A. Phage structural proteins
B. Proteins that help with phage assembly without becoming part of the virion structure
C. Proteins involved in cell lysis and phage release
D. *All of the above
E. None of the above
Which of the following viruses can incorporate the molecule serving as mRNA into its capsid?
A. herpesvirus
B. rhabdovirus
C. poxvirus
D. *picornavirus
E. measles
Which of the following viruses makes mRNA from an RNA template?
A. poxvirus
B. retrovirus
C. *picornavirus
D. herpesvirus
E. adenovirus
Which of these diseases is not caused by a virus?
A. AIDS
B. Measles
C. *Flesh Eating Bacteria
D. Rabies
E. Mumps
Which one of the following is considered a virulence factor for Staphylococcus aureus?
A. A heat-labile toxin that inhibits glycine release at the internuncial neuron
B. An oxygen-labile hemolysin
C. Resistance to novobiocin
D. *Protein A that binds to the Fc portion of IgG
E. All of the above
Which one of the following is NOT an important characteristic of either Neisseria gonorrhoeae or
Neisseria meningitidis?
Polysaccharide capsule
IgA protease
*M protein
Pili
All of the above
Which one of the following is NOT an important characteristic of Streptococcus pyogenes?
A. *Protein A
B. M protein
C. Beta-hemolysin
D. Polysaccharide group-specific substance
E. All of the above
Which one of the viral components is smallest?
A. *capsomers
B. capsid
C. nucleocapsid
D. virion
E. envelope
Which statement below most accurately describes the role of M protein in virulence of Group A
Streptococci [Streptococcus pyogenes]?
A. Shows no antigenic variation, so is not a target for antibodies.
B. Is a ‘superantigen toxin’ which stimulates TH cells.
C. *Stimulates synthesis of antibodies that cross-reacts with heart tissue.
D. Binds Fc regions of Immunoglobulin G molecules.
E. Inhibit phagocytosis
Which structure of viruses is synthesized from late mRNA?
A. *Phage structural proteins
B. DNA polymerase
C. Early proteins
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Which test below would best distinguish S. aureus from one of the less-virulent staphylococci?
A. Production of catalase.
B. Colony color when grown on BHI agar.
C. Ability to grow on MacConkey agar.
D. *Production of coagulase.
E. Type of hemolysis on sheep blood agar.
Which test result would rule out an Enterococcus isolate?
A. growth in 6.5% NaCl
B. *oxidase positive
C. catalase negative
D. PYR positive
E. motility
Which virulence factor results in the symptoms of Staphylococcal food poisoning?
A. exfoliative exotoxin
B. hyaluronidase
C. endotoxin
D. *enterotoxin
E. neurotoxin
Which viruses are least accurate?
A. Temperate virus
B. Naked virus
C. Virion
D. *RNA phage
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
748.
749.
750.
751.
752.
753.
754.
755.
E. DNA phage
756.
757.
758.
759.
760.
761.
762.
763.
Which viruses replicate in the nucleus?
A. Poxviruses
B. Paramyxoviruses
C. Picornaviruses
D. *Parvoviridae
E. Orthomyxoviruses
?Which viruses replicate in the nucleus?
A. *Poxviruses
B. Paramyxoviruses
C. Picornaviruses
D. Parvoviridae
E. Rhabdoviruses
Which wirus has a naked nucleocapsid?
A. herpes virus
B. mumps
C. influenza
D. chicken pox
E. *picorna virus
A common serotype of enterohemorrhagic E. coli is O157:H7. To which bacterial structure does
the "H7" correspond?
A. *Flagella.
B. Pili.
C. Capsule.
D. LPS core polysaccharide.
E. Porins.
A lactose-fermenting Gram-negative rod is isolated from the bloody stool of a young child.
Which pathogen is most likely?
A. Salmonella enterica.
B. *Escherichia coli.
C. Vibrio cholerae.
D. Shigella dysenteriae.
E. Clostridium difficile.
A vacationer develops watery diarrhea but not chills or fever. In this setting which of the
following pathogens is the most common?
A. Salmonella enterica
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Campylobacter jejuni
E. Helicobacter pylori
A young woman has a urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. By what route are such infections
most commonly acquired?
A. Respiratory route, followed by spread from the anterior nares.
B. Respiratory route, followed by spread from the oro-pharyngeal region.
C. *Fecal-oral route, followed by colonization of the intestine and then the perineum.
D. Intestinal infection, followed by spread of bacteria to the urethra via the bloodstream.
E. Direct contact route
An old man has a urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. By what route are such infections most
commonly acquired?
A. *Fecal-oral route, followed by colonization of the intestine and then the perineum.
B. Respiratory route, followed by spread from the oro-pharyngeal region.
C. Respiratory route, followed by spread from the anterior nares.
D. Intestinal infection, followed by spread of bacteria to the urethra via the bloodstream.
E. E. coli spreads from skin
764.
765.
766.
767.
768.
769.
770.
771.
772.
Both the cholera toxin and the E. coli LT toxin
A. have an A+B subunit arrangement
B. are identical in their primary structure
C. are ADP-ribosylating toxins
D. have an enzymatic mechanism of action
E. *all of the above
Cholera toxin resembles which of the following toxins?
A. *Labile toxin of Escherichia coli.
B. Stable toxin of E. coli.
C. Diphtheria toxin.
D. Tetanus toxin.
E. Staphylococcal enterotoxin
Complications of typhoid fever are:
A. *intestinal perforation
B. liver abscesses
C. both a and b
D. neurological damage
E. sepsis
Dysentery like disease may be caused by
A. enteropathogenic Escherichia colt.
B. enterotoxigenic E. coli.
C. *enteroinvasive E. coli.
D. verotoxigenic E. coli.
E. enteroaggregative E. coli.
Each of the following statements concerning enterotoxins is correct EXCEPT:
A. *Enterotoxins typically cause bloody diarrhea with leukocytes in the stool
B. Staphylococcus aureus produces an enterotoxin that causes vomiting and diarrhea
C. Vibrio cholerae causes cholera by producing an enterotoxin that activates adenylate cyclase
D. Escherichia coli enterotoxin mediates ADP-ribosylation of a G protein
E. All of the above
Each of the following statements concerning gram-negative rods is correct EXCEPT:
A. *Escherichia coli is part of the normal flora of the colon; therefore, it does not cause diarrhea
B. E. coli ferments lactose, whereas the enteric pathogens Shigella and Salmonella do not
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae, although a cause of pneumonia, is part of the normal flora of the
colon
D. Proteus species are highly motile organisms that are found in the human colon and cause
urinary tract infections
E. Escherichia coli enterotoxin mediates ADP-ribosylation of a G protein
Endotoxin:
A. is produced by Gram-positive bacteria.
B. *has profound biological effects due to the Lipid A moiety.
C. has important enzymatic activities.
D. is composed of protein.
E. is usually found in secreted rather than cell-associated form.
Escherichia, Salmonella, Yersinia, and Shigella are put together in Bergey's Manual because they
are all
A. pathogens
B. *gram-negative facultatively anaerobic rods
C. gram-positive aerobic cocci
D. fermentative
E. none of the above
For detection of carriers in enteric fever, which of the following specimens is most important?
*Faeces,
Urine.
Blood.
Sputum.
CSF.
For determining the serotype of infecting organism, detection of which agglutinins is more
important in Widal test?
A. *O.
B. H.
C. Fimbrial.
D. M.
E. Vi
For Escherichia coli most impotent which antigens?
A. capsular
B. *somatic
C. flagellar
D. Vi
E. all of these
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome is caused by:
A. enteropathogenic Escherichia coli.
B. enterotoxigenic E. coli.
C. enteroinvasive
D. *verotoxigenic E. coli.
E. enteroaggregative E. coli.
Hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by which of the following bacterium?
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. *Escherichia coli 0157
C. Helicobacter pylori
D. Salmonella typhi
E. Ureaplasma
Humans acquire shigellosis from:
A. dogs
B. cats
C. swine
D. chickens
E. *humans
In enteric fever, Salmonella may be isolated from:
A. urine.
B. faeces.
C. blood.
D. bile
E. *all of the above.
In Widal test, the significant titre for О agglutinins is generally:
A. 1: 50 or more.
B. *1:100 or more.
C. 1:200 or more.
D. 1:400 or more.
E. 1:800 or more.
Infection with which organism is most likely to result in septicemia?
A. EIEC
B. Shigella flexnerii
C. *Salmonella enteritidis
D. EAggEC
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
773.
774.
775.
776.
777.
778.
779.
780.
E. Shigella boydi
781.
782.
783.
784.
785.
786.
787.
788.
789.
Most important complication/s of enteric fever is/are:
A. intestinal perforation.
B. haemorrhage.
C. circulatory collapse.
D. *all of the above.
E. none of the above
One common cause of community-acquired pneumonia is:
A. Salmonella typhimurium
B. Escherichia coli
C. Enterobacter
D. Shigella flexneri
E. *Klebsiella pneumoniae
Only recently have Campylobacter and Helicobacter been identified as the causative agents for
certain infections. This is because the clinical laboratories now routinely test for organisms with
the following characteristic:
A. *inability to ferment carbohydrates
B. single polar flagellum
C. microaerophilic nature
D. small size
E. oxydase-positive
Proper cooking of beef products can help reduce the risk of what kind of infections?
A. Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)
B. Enterotoxigenic E. Coli (ETEC)
C. *Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
D. Enteroinvasive E. Coli (EIEC)
E. Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
Shigella is transmitted by
A. *infected food and water
B. ticks
C. direct contact
D. air dropled
E. louse
symptoms of disease
A. they are needed for initial attachment of the bacteria to the gastrointestinal epithelium
B. they activate host adenylate cyclase enzymes leading to disruption of cellular permeability
C. they make the bacteria resistant to phagocytic killing and digestion by white blood cells
D. they convert GI tract components (bile) to substances which provoke
E. they allow the bacteria to swim "upstream" against the peristaltic action of the GI tract
thereby remaining established in the GI tract
The best treatment for cholera is
A. antiserum injection
B. *rehydration therapy
C. tetracycline
D. toxoid
E. vaccine
The colonies of Vibrio cholerae and V. parahaemolyticus can be differentiated on:
A. *thiosulphate-citrate-bile-sucrose agar.
B. alkaline bile salt agar.
C. MacConkey medium.
D. alkaline peptone water
E. all of the above media
The common substrate of cholera toxin (ctx) and diphtheria toxin (dtx) is
NAD
cyclic AMP
*ADP ribose
ATP
elongation factor 2 (EF-2)
The DNA coding for the production of cholera toxin in Vibrio cholerae is on the:
A. Plasmid
B. *Chromosome
C. Virulent phage
D. Temperate phage
E. Transposon
The following occurs during the course of disease due to Vibrio cholerae infection, except one:
A. Patients show signs of disease at 8 to 72 hrs after ingestion of contaminated food or water.
B. *Patients sustain considerable damage to their intestines.
C. Patients experience nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping, and diarrhea.
D. Patients sometimes lose between 10 to 20 liters of fluid/day.
E. “Rice-water” stool presents
The hallmark of therapy for severe cases of cholera is:
A. antimicrobial therapy
B. vaccination
C. *replacement of electrolytes
D. outpatient treatment
E. serotherapy
The main effect of E. coli and Vibrio cholerae enterotoxin on host cells of the gastrointestinal
tract that leads to the pathology of the diseases, is to
A. inhibit protein synthesis
B. *cause fluid and electrolyte imbalance
C. cleave host cell membranes
D. act as superantigens to trigger an overwhelming immunological reaction
E. initiate a localized inflammatory response in the intestine
The pathogenesis of which one of the following organisms is MOST likely to involve invasion of
the intestinal mucosa?
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. *Shigella sonnei
C. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
D. Clostridium botulinum
E. All of the above
The pathogenic mechanisms that make Helicobacter pylori the causative agent of gastritis include
the following except:
A. *invasive abilities
B. urease production
C. catalase production
D. microaerophilism
E. motility
The portion of lipopolysaccharide (endotoxin) molecule that is responsible for a bacterium’s
antigenic specificity, as well as the existence of multiple serotypes (serovars) among Gramnegative pathogens, is
A. lipid A
B. KDO
C. *O polysaccharide
D. R antigen
E. H antigen
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
790.
791.
792.
793.
794.
795.
796.
797.
798.
799.
800.
801.
802.
803.
804.
805.
The portion of the bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) that is responsible for the toxicity of the
molecule is
A. *lipid A
B. lipoteichoic acid
C. O polysaccharide
D. Omp A
E. N-acetylglucosamine (NAG)
The reservoir of Salmonella typhi is:
A. dogs
B. cats
C. turtles
D. pigs
E. *humans
There roseolas formanion on the skin is clinical sign of:
A. Gonorrhoea
B. Blenorrhoea
C. Meningitis
D. *Enteric fever
E. No correct answer
This bacterium, although usually not considered as normal flora, frequently colonizes the stomach
and is thought to be the cause of gastric and duodenal ulcers.
A. Lactobacillus acidophilus
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Escherichia coli
D. Vibrio cholerae
E. *Helicobacter pylori
To determine to which species the infectious agent belongs, the microbiologist performs some
tests on colonies cultured from stool samples. These tests include the following EXCEPT:
A. growth on thiosulfate-citrate-bile-sucrose (TCBS) agar
B. fermentation of sucrose
C. growth at different NaCl concentrations
D. *serotyping based on H antigens
E. serotyping based on O antigens
?Toxin of Escherichia coli that is very similar to the shiga toxin of Shigella dysenteriae is:
A. heat-labile enterotoxin
B. heat-stable enterotoxin
C. adherence-promoting toxin
D. verotoxin
E. exfoliative toxin
Toxin of Salmonella spp. is:
A. Leukocidin
B. Hemolysins
C. Toxin A - enterotoxin
D. *LPS
E. Elastase - hemorrage
Traveller's diarrhoea is caused by:
A. enterotoxigenic E. coli.
B. enteropathogenic Escherichia coli.
C. enteroinvasive E. coli.
D. *verotoxigenic E. coli.
E. enteroaggregative E. coli.
Verotoxin is produced by
A. *Shigella dysenterie serotype I
S. dysenterie serotype 2
S. dysenterie serotype 4
S.dysenterie serotype 8
S.dysenterie serotype I0
What do endotoxins and exotoxins have in common?
A. secreted into the medium
B. *cause damage to the host
C. heat stable
D. heat resistent
E. contain polysaccharide
What is the cause of food poisoning?
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Salmonella enteriditis
C. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
D. Clostridium botulinum
E. *All of the above
What is the incubation period for cholerae?
A. 6 to 8 hours
B. 12 to 24 hours
C. *48 to 72 hours
D. 2 to 4 days
E. 1 to 2 weeks
What is the incubation period for Shigella dysenteriae?
A. 6 to 8 hours
B. 12-18 hours
C. *24 to 48 hours
D. 2 to 4 days
E. 1 to 2 weeks
Which bacteria can produce on Endo’s medium dark pink colonies?
A. Salmonella enterica
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Shigella sonnei
E. Shigella dysenteriae
Which of the following bacterium is causative agent of dysenteriae?
A. E. coli
B. Klebsiella
C. Proteus
D. Vibrio
E. *Shigella
Which of the following bacteria belong/s to the family Enterobacteriaceae?
A. Shigella.
B. Salmonella.
C. Yersinia.
D. *All of the above
E. Escherichia
Which of the following bacteria can cause infective type of food poisoning?
A. *Salmonella enteritidis.
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Clostridium botulinum.
D. Clostridium perfringens
E. All of the above.
Which of the following bacteria can grow in alkaline pH?
B.
C.
D.
E.
806.
807.
808.
809.
810.
811.
812.
813.
814.
Lactobacilli.
*Vibrio cholerae.
Salmonella.
Shigella.
Neisseria
Which of the following bacteria is more resistant to adverse environmental conditions?
A. Shigella dysenteriae.
B. S. Flexneri.
C. *S. boydii.
D. S. sonnei.
E. Salmonella typhy
Which of the following bacteria is negative for fermentation of mannitol?
A. *Shigella dysenteriae.
B. S. Flexneri.
C. S. boydii.
D. S. sonnei.
E. All of the above.
Which of the following bacteria is/are always indole negative?
A. Shigella dysenterie serotype I
B. S. flexneri serotype 6
C. S. sonnei
D. Salmonella typhi
E. *All of the above
Which of the following bacteria is/are associated with food poisoning due to consumption of sea
fish?
A. *Vibrio parahaemolyticus.
B. V. alginolyticus.
C. V. vulnificus.
D. V. cholerae non-O1
E. All of the above
Which of the following bacteria is/are non- halophilic?
A. Vibrio parahaemolyticus.
B. *V. cholerae.
C. V. vulnificus.
D. V. alginolyticus
E. All of the above.
Which of the following bacteria is/are primarily human pathogens?
A. Salmonella Typhi.
B. S. Paratyphi A.
C. S. Paratyphi B.
D. Shigella
E. *All of the above.
Which of the following bacterium is causative agent of dysenteriae?
A. E. coli
B. Klebsiella
C. Proteus
D. Vibrio
E. *Shigella
Which of the following best describes a lysogen, such as the
A. coli bacteriophage lambda?
B. Causes the host cell to lyse
C. Causes the bacteriophage to lyse
D. *Integrates into the host without killing the host
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
815.
816.
817.
818.
819.
820.
821.
822.
E. Integrates into the host and starts a programmed death cycle
823.
824.
825.
826.
827.
828.
829.
830.
Which of the following best describes Gram-negative bacteria?
A. Thick layer of peptidoglycan and no outer membrane
B. Thick layer of peptidoglycan and an outer membrane
C. Thin layer of peptidoglycan and no outer membrane
D. *Thin layer of peptidoglycan and an outer membrane
E. Teichoic acids, lipoteichoic acids, and porins
Which of the following descriptions best fits a typical strain of Escherichia coli?
A. motile, aerogenic, non-lactose fermenting, citrate negative
B. non-motile, aerogenic, lactose fermenting mucoid colony
C. motile, anaerogenic, non-lactose fermenting, indole positive
D. *motile, aerogenic, lactose fermenting, indole positive
E. motile, anaerogenic, lactose fermenting, sporulated
Which of the following does NOT apply to the endotoxin of the enteric organisms
A. derives from 0-antigen
B. derives from lipid A
C. pyrogenic in humans
D. *secreted by Enterobacteriaceae members
E. presents in cell wall
Which of the following does not occur when an individual is infected with Salmonella enteriditis?
A. Endotoxins cause inflammation and fever
B. Enterotoxins cause diarrhea
C. Cytotoxins lyse endothelial cells lining the intestinal tract
D. *Proteolytic enzymes cause necrosis
E. All of the above
Which of the following features is/are characteristic of infection with Shigella dysenterie?
A. Abdominal pain
B. Tenesmus
C. Pyrexia
D. Bloody diarrhoea
E. *All of the above
Which of the following Gram-negative rods in the lactose fermentation MacConkey test, what
color would indicate a positive test?
A. Black
B. *Pink
C. Blue
D. Purple
E. Green
Which of the following has pathogenesis mediated by cytotoxic Shiga toxins as opposed to
plasmid-mediated?
A. Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)
B. Enterotoxigenic E. Coli (ETEC)
C. *Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
D. Enteroinvasive E. Coli (EIEC)
E. Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
Which of the following is an important cause of hemorrhagic colitis (HC) and hemolytic uremic
syndrome (HUS) in the United States?
A. Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)
B. Enterotoxigenic E. Coli (ETEC)
C. *Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
D. Enteroinvasive E. Coli (EIEC)
E. Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
831.
832.
833.
834.
835.
836.
837.
838.
839.
Which of the following is an important cause of hemorrhagic colitis (HC) and hemolytic uremic
syndrome (HUS) in the United States?
A. Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)
B. Enterotoxigenic E. Coli (ETEC)
C. *Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
D. Enteroinvasive E. Coli (EIEC)
E. Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
Which of the following is associated with dysentery with leukocytes in stool, similar to
shingellosis?
A. Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)
B. Enterotoxigenic E. Coli (ETEC)
C. Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
D. Enteroinvasive E. Coli (EIEC)
E. Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
Which of the following is likely to have played largest role in this reaction?
A. A humoral immune response to bacterial surface antigens.
B. A cell-mediated immune response to bacteria.
C. *Secretion of cytokines by monocytes in response to stimulation by LPS [endotoxin].
D. Release of granule contents by mast cells and basophils.
E. Secretion of a bacterial superantigen toxin that activates TH cells.
Which of the following is not true about the bacterium classified as Vibrio cholerae (V. cholerae
01):
A. invades the small intestine
B. *is often associated with marine environments
C. causes disease only through the production of an enterotoxin
D. reacts with group 1 antiserum against the lipopolysaccharide (0) antigens
E. arabinose is not fermented
Which of the following is the least accurate statement regarding Shigella dysenteriae.
A. The organism produces a toxin which inhibits protein synthesis.
B. The toxin produced by this organism is a single polypeptide.
C. A large plasmid is associated with invasiveness.
D. The organism multiplies directly in the host cell cytoplasm.
E. *Most infections are passed by the oral-fecal route.
Which of the following media is an enrichment medium for the isolation of Shigella?
A. *Selenite F broth.
B. Tetrathionate broth.
C. Alkaline peptone water.
D. Taurocholate peptone transport and enrichment medium.
E. Endo medium
Which of the following media is/are used for blood culture in cases of enteric fever?
A. *Bile broth.
B. Tetrathionate broth.
C. Selenite-F broth.
D. Sugar broth.
E. All of the above.
Which of the following organisms is most likely?
A. *Escherichia coli
B. Salmonella enterica
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Shigella sonnei
E. Shigella dysenteriae
Which of the following represents a major difference between Salmonella and Shigella
infections?
incubation period
mode of transmission
*place of location in intestine
presence/absence of fever and diarrhea
the portal of entry
Which of the following result(s) best describe(s) the listed organism?
A. Campylobacter jejuni - gram positive gull wings
B. Shigella Sonneii – mannitol negative H2S (wk)
C. *E coli 0157 – lactose positive, indole positive
D. Yersinia enterocolitica –sporulated, colony sick yellow
E. Clostridium perfringens – aerobes, sporulated
Which of the following result(s) best describe(s) the listed organism?
A. Campylobacter jejuni - gram positive gull wings
B. Shigella Sonneii – mannitol negative H2S (wk)
C. *E coli 0157 – lactose positive, indole positive
D. Yersinia enterocolitica –sporulated, colony sick yellow
E. Clostridium perfringens – aerobes, sporulated
Which of the following serotypes of Salmonella can cause gastroenteritis?
A. S. enteritidis.
B. S. newport.
C. S. typhimurium.
D. Salmonella enterica
E. *All of the above
Which of the following specimens is/are most appropriate for culture of bacteria in first week of
enteric fever?
A. *Blood.
B. Urine.
C. Faeces.
D. CSF.
E. all of the above
Which of the following statements about bacterial endotoxins is true?
A. They usually act at a tissue site in the host that is removed from the site of bacterial growth.
B. *They are nonantigenic.
C. They typically have an enzymatic (specific) type of activity.
D. They can be converted into toxoids.
E. none of the above
Which of the following statements is true about the toxin produced by Vibrio cholera?
A. It has its own adenylate cyclase activity.
B. *The A1 subunit indirectly stimulates the host adenylate cyclase.
C. The B subunit directly stimulates the host adenylate cyclase.
D. The toxin blocks the host adenylate cyclase.
E. The toxin is lypopolisaccharide
Which of the following tests can be used for the assay of cholera toxin?
A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay.
B. Radioimmunoassay.
C. Morphological changes in Chinese hamster ovary cells.
D. *All of the above.
E. Non of the above
Which of the following tests can differentiate between classical and El Tor biotypes of Vibrio
cholerae?
A. Sensitivity to polymyxin B.
B. Agglutination of fowl RBCs.
C. Sensitivity to Mukerjee's group IV phage.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
840.
841.
842.
843.
844.
845.
846.
847.
D. *All of the above.
E. Antigenic structure
848.
849.
850.
851.
852.
853.
854.
855.
Which of the following tests may be used to differentiate Salmonella paratyphi from Shigella
species?
A. Fermentation of glucose
B. *gas production from glucose
C. gram staining
D. citrate utilization of Simmons’ citrate agar
E. shape
Which of the following tests would not differentiate Vibrio cholera non O1 from Vibrio
parahaemolyticus?
A. oxidase activity.
B. *Growth on TCBS agar
C. Growth on special blood agar
D. Growth on salt-free and salt-containing agar.
E. Production of enterotoxin
Which of the following vaccines can be used for prophylaxis against enteric fever?
A. Killed whole cell vaccine.
B. Purified Vi antigen vaccine.
C. Oral vaccine.
D. TABTe
E. *All of the above.
Which of the following vaccines can be used for prophylaxis against enteric fever?
A. Killed whole cell vaccine.
B. Purified Vi antigen vaccine.
C. Oral vaccine.
D. TABTe
E. *All of the above.
Which of the following vaccines is/are available for prophylaxis against cholera?
A. Killed whole organism vaccine.
B. Non-living oral В subunit-whole cell vaccine.
C. Live vaccine
D. Recombinant vaccine
E. *All of the above.
Which of the following would be found in Gram-negative bacteria? (best answer)
A. Teichoic acids and lipoteichoic acids
B. Periplasmic space and LPS
C. Teichoic acids and porins
D. Teichoic acids, lipoteichoic acids, and porins
E. *Periplasmic space, LPS, and porins
Which one of the following enterobacteriaceae always are causative agents of enteric diseases?
A. Shigella
B. Salmonella
C. Klebsiella
D. Citrobacter
E. *only a and b
Which one of the following illnesses is NOT zoonosis?
A. *Typhoid fever
B. Q fever
C. Tularemia
D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
E. All of the above
856.
857.
858.
859.
860.
861.
862.
863.
864.
Which one of the following organisms causes diarrhea by producing an enterotoxin that activates
adenylate cyclase?
A. *Escherichia coli
B. Bacteroides fragilis
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Enterococcus faecalis
E. All of the above
Which one of the following organisms that in fects the gastrointestinal tract is the MOST frequent
cause of bacteremia?
A. Shigella flexneri
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. *Salmonella typhi
E. Helicobacter pylori
Which phrase best describes typical infections by Campylobacter jejuni?
A. Non-inflammatory enteritis
B. *Inflammatory enteritis
C. Systemic infection
D. Urinary tract infection
E. Meningitis
A patient has a positive tuberculin test. What is the immunological basis of this reaction?
A. Polyvalent antigens in tuberculin trigger local mast cell degranulation, causing increased
vascular permeability and local edema.
B. Antibodies react with tuberculin and cause local inflammation.
C. Immune complexes form in the dermis and activate Complement.
D. *TH cells respond to mycobacterial antigens, secrete cytokines and chemokines, and cause
infiltration of the site by lymphocytes and monocytes.
E. Mycobacteria injected into the dermis multiply and cause local inflammation.
A positive Mantoux test is indicated by an area of induration of:
A. *10 mm or more in diameter.
B. 5-9 mm in diameter.
C. 3-4 mm in diameter.
D. 1-2 mm in diameter
E. None of the above.
According to growth signs there are such biovars of Corynebacterium diphtheriae:
A. *Gravis, mitis, intermedius, belfantii
B. Minima, maxima, intermedia
C. Mitis, Ohava, Inaba
D. Gravis, Hikojima, Inaba, intermedius
E. all answers are correct
Acid fast microbes are resistante to acid because they contain in cell wall:
A. lipopolysaccharides
B. *waxes, fatty acid
C. acetylglucosamine
D. diaminopimelic acid
E. polyphosphates
Acid fastness of tubercle bacilli is attributed to:
A. Presence of mycolic acid
B. Integrity of cell wall
C. Presence of tuberculostearinic acid
D. *All are correct
E. No correct answer
Acid resistance and alcohol-resistance of tuberculosis bacilli is related to the presence of:
capsules
teichoic acids
peptidoglycan
*lipids, fatty acids, waxes
granules of volutin
Administration of which of the following vaccines would be contra-indicated in an patient with
impaired cell-mediated immunity?
A. Pneumococcal vaccine (pediatric)
B. Pneumococcal vaccine (adult)
C. *BCG vaccine against tuberculosis
D. Tetanus toxoid
E. Acellular Pertussis vaccine
All are true about Mycobacterium tuberculosis except
A. *Morphologically visible colonies in Lovenstein-Jensen medium within a week
B. Niacin positive
C. Pasteurisation kills the organism
D. Aerobe
E. 20 % sulphuric acid does not decolourise them
All statements about tuberculin tests are correct, EXCEPT FOR:
A. A test is considered positive when there is papule more then 10 мм in diameter
B. Mantoux’s intracutaneous test is used in most cases
C. *The repeated injection of tuberculin is able to cause conversion of negative test in positive
one
D. Negative result is not a fact which specifies an absence of tuberculosis process
E. A test has anymore epidemiological, than diagnostic value
An important property of the cell envelope of acid-fast bacteria is:
A. *the abundance of mycolic acid in the cell wall
B. the presence of porins in the outer membrane
C. the lack of oxidative phosphorylation enzymes
D. the absence of a peptidoglycan layer
E. the accumulation of dipicolinic acid in the periplasmic space
Babes-Ernest granules are found in
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Anthrax bacilli
C. *Cornybacterium diphtheriae
D. Clostridium welchii
E. Yersinia pestis
Battey bacillus or Mycobacterium intracellularis is:
A. Photochromogen
B. Scotochromogen
C. *Non-chromogen
D. Rapid grower
E. No correct answer
BCG vaccination is immunisation
A. Passive
B. *Active
C. Perinatal
D. Combined
E. No correct answer
BCG vaccine is a:
A. *live attenuated preparation.
B. killed preparation.
C. toxoid preparation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
865.
866.
867.
868.
869.
870.
871.
872.
D. recombinant preparation.
E. subcelullar preparation
873.
874.
875.
876.
877.
878.
879.
880.
881.
Bordetella pathogenic properties related to:
A. *Exotoxin production
B. Endotoxin production
C. Capsule formation
D. Volutin granules presence
E. Fimbriae presence
Buruli Ulcer is caused by
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Spirillum minus
C. *M. ulcerans
D. Brucella canis
E. Corynebacterium xerosis
Caseous lesions containing inflammatory white blood cells are
A. lepromas
B. pseudomembranes
C. eschars
D. *tubercles
E. No correct answer
Choose correct statement about resistance of Corynebacterium diphtheriae in external
environment.
A. Not resistant, perish during 1-2 hours, on a coagulated serum they survive during 1 day
B. Under the influence of low temperatures they remain viable during 1-2 years
C. *Resistant, on a coagulated serum they remain viable during 1 year, at a room temperature to
2 months
D. Resistant, perish at the action of 40 RС and 1 % phenol in 5 minutes
E. All answers are incorrect
Commonest mycobacterial infection is AIDS patient is tropical countries
A. M. Leprae
B. M. avium intracellulare
C. *M. tuberculosis
D. M. Kansasi
E. M. ulcerans
Corynebacterium diphtheriae properties related to:
A. *Exotoxin production
B. Endotoxin production
C. Capsule formation
D. Volutin granules presence
E. Fimbriae presence
Culture medium for corynebacierium diphtheria
A. *Loefflers aerum slope
B. McConkey
C. Sabarauds agar
D. Lowenstein Jensen medium
E. Slant agar
Daisy head colonies are seen with
A. S. aureus
B. *Corynebaterium diptherine
C. S. pyogenes
D. Anthrax
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Describe colonies, which form causative agent of tuberculosis on solid nutrient media?
Smooth, bright colonies with even edges
*Rough colonies with wrinkled surface and unequal edges
Flat round colonies with even edges, red color with metallic brightness
The edges of colonies are not equal, a surface is rough, blue color
The edges of colonies are not equal, a surface is rough, green color
Diphtheria toxin acts by
A. Inhibiting Acetyl Choline release
B. Inhibiting glucose transport
C. Increasing levels of Cyclic AMP
D. *Inhibiting protein systhesis
E. Inhibiting phage production
Diphtheria toxin has a special affinity for which of the following tissue/s?
A. Heart muscles.
B. Nerve endings.
C. Adrenal glands.
D. *All of the above.
E. None of the above.
Dorset's egg medium is used for cultivation of:
A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Gonococcus
D. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. Escherichia
Each of the following statements concerning Mycobacterium tuberculosis is correct EXCEPT:
A. Some strains isolated from individuals with previously untreated cases of tuberculosis are
resistant to isoniazid
B. *M. tuberculosis contains a small amount of lipid in its cell wall and therefore stains poorly
with the Gram stain
C. The organism grows slowly, often requiring 3-6 weeks before colonies appear
D. The antigen in the skin test is a protein extracted from the organism
E. All of the above
Each of the following statements concerning Mycobacterium leprae is correct EXCEPT:
A. In lepromatous leprosy, large numbers of organisms are usually seen in acid-fast-stained
smears
B. *The organism will grow on bacteriologic media in 3-6 weeks
C. Prolonged therapy (9 months or longer) is required to prevent recurrence
D. Skin tests for delayed hypersensitivity are useful diagnostically
E. All of the above
Elecks gel precipitation test is for
A. gonococcus
B. *diphtheria
C. H.influenza
D. anthrax.
E. Enteric fever
Erythrasma is caused by
A. S. Pyogenes
B. S. aureus
C. *Corynebacterium minutissimum
D. Ricketessia
E. Mycoplasma
Fastest microbiocidal agent against M. leprae
A. Clofazimine
B. Dapsone
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
882.
883.
884.
885.
886.
887.
888.
889.
C. *Rifampicin
D. Minocycline
E. Ampicillin
890.
891.
892.
893.
894.
895.
896.
897.
Following are acid fast bacilli except
A. Actinomycetes
B. *Mycobacterium avium intracellularae
C. Mycobacterium leprae
D. Nocardia
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
For Corynebacterium diptheria all are true except
A. *Toxin responsible for local infection
B. Iron in surrounding is essential for growth
C. Phage is essential for toxin production
D. Protein synthesis affected by group A chain
E. Toxin consists of protein
For creation of active immunity in human numerous vaccines are utilized. Show bacterial live
attenuated vaccine?
A. Vaccine against hepatitis A
B. Vaccine against pertussis-diphtheria-tetanus
C. Solk’s vaccine
D. TABte vaccine
E. *BCG vaccine
For cultivation of Mycobacteria such nutrient media may be used except:
A. Loewenstein-Yensen’s
B. Finn’s
C. *Klauberg’s
D. Petrangnani’s
E. Soton’s
For pathogenic properties of causative agent of tuberculosis ….. is/are responsible:
A. capsule
B. spores
C. exotoxin
D. *endotoxin
E. granules of volutin
Generation time of tuberculous bacillus is:
A. 20 days
B. 20 minutes
C. *48 hours
D. 4 weeks
E. 6 weeks
Histoid Hansens is a variety
A. tuberculoid leprosy
B. boderline tuberculoid
C. boderline lepromatous
D. *lepromatous leprosy
E. None of the above
In a person with intact immunity, which of the following is most likely to be followed by
development of active tuberculosis [with viable mycobacteria in sputum]?
A. *Re-activation of previously-dormant bacteria in the lung.
B. Brief exposure to a person with active tuberculosis.
C. Immunization with BCG [Bacillus of Calmette and Guerin] vaccine.
D. Treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics, which reduce competition by ‘normal flora’.
E. No correct answer
898.
899.
900.
901.
902.
903.
904.
905.
906.
In which type of Cutaneous TB, caseation is most commonly seen
A. *Papulonecrotic
B. Scrofuloderma
C. Lupus Vulgaris
D. Erythema nodosum
E. No correct answer
Incubation period of Diptheria is
A. *2 - 6 days
B. 2 - 6 hrs
C. 2 - 6 weeks
D. 2-6 months
E. 2-6 years
Johne's bacillus is:
A. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
B. *M. paratuberculosis
C. H. aegipticus
D. K. pneumoniae
E. M. ulcerans
Lepra bacilli are best Cultivated in
A. Guinea pgis
B. Armadillos
C. *Mouso foot pad
D. Nutrient agar
E. Nutrient broth
Lepra celts found in lepromatous leprosy are
A. neutrophils
B. lymphocytes
C. *macrophages
D. plasma cells.
E. Red cells
Leprosy Bacilli can be grown in
A. *foot pad of nine banded armadilo
B. tail of guinea pig
C. Testes of albino rats
D. testes of guinea pig
E. Hansens media
Leprosy bacilli is transmitted from person to person by all except
A. discharge from nasal mucosa
B. from open sore
C. through intact skin
D. *through breast milk
E. None of the above
Leprosy spreads by
A. skin to skin contact
B. blood transfusion
C. *dropiet spread
D. ingestion.
E. sexual way
Louis Pasteur is not associated with
A. Introduction of Complex media
B. Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
C. *Discovery of M. tuberculosis
D. Disproved spontaneous regression theory
E. Discovery of Anthrax Vaccine
907.
908.
909.
910.
911.
912.
913.
914.
915.
Lysogenic bacteria are:
A. Mycoplasma
B. C. welchii
C. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Brucella abortus
E. Bordetella pertussis
Lysogenic becteria are:
A. Mycoplasma
B. Clostridium welchii
C. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Brucella abortus
E. Francisella tularensis
Mantoux‘s test is applied for everything, except:
A. examination of infection of population by Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. selection of persons which need vaccination
C. revealing of the vaccination efficiency
D. evaluation of antymycobacterial immunity
E. *creation of active immunity
Material for microbiological diagnosis of tuberculosis:
A. Sputum, pus
B. Liquor, pleura exudate
C. Urine
D. Feces
E. *All answers are correct
Microbial diagnosis of tuberculosis is by
A. X ray
B. Mantoux test
C. acid-fast stain
D. pure culture
E. *both c and d
Microorganism that does not obey Koch's postulates
A. M. tubercubsis
B. Poliovirus
C. *M. leprae
D. Streptococcus
E. Vibrio
Morbidity of Mycobacterium avium complex is:
A. Urinary tract infections
B. Esophagitis
C. Leprosy
D. Scrub typhus
E. *Disseminated infection
Morphological features of Bordetella:
A. *Small oval-shaped rods
B. monococci
C. vibrios
D. spiral-shaped bacteria
E. large polymorphic rods
Morphological features of Mycobacterium tuberculosis:
A. *Slender, straight rods
B. Large, straight rods
C. Little, оval-shaped rods
D. Large rods with bulges at the ends
E. Curved thick rods
916.
917.
918.
919.
920.
921.
922.
923.
924.
Most common X-ray finding of'pulmonary TB in AIDS is
A. Upper zone haziness
B. *Diffuse infiltrates
C. Multiple cavities
D. Pneumonic patch
E. Enteric patch
mycobacteria?
A. Photochromogens
B. *Scotochromogens
C. Non – photochromogens
D. Rapid growers
E. None of the above
Mycobacterium tuberculosis can be differentiated from other mycobacterium by
A. *Production of niacin
B. Barylsulphate test
C. Coagulase test
D. Bile solubility test
E. Lecithinase test
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is pathogenic for:
A. rabbits.
B. *guinea-pigs.
C. both of the above.
D. mice
E. Rats
Mycobacterium tuberculosis:
A. Penetrates the alveoli when inhaled
B. Destroys tissue in the lymph system
C. Forms lesions around which granulomas form
D. *All of the above
E. None of the above
Neurological involvement is pronounced in which type of leprosy?
A. *Tuberculoid
B. Lepromatous
C. Borderline
D. Lucio leprosy
E. No correct answer
Niacin is required for growth of
A. *M. tubercolosis
B. M. kansasi
C. M. scrofuloderma
D. M. avium
E. M. smegmatis
One of the following is not type III hypersensitivity reaction
A. *Tuberculin type
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. SLE
D. arthus reaction.
E. Serum sickness
positive for acid fast bacilli which of the following is the peripheral form of defense by which his
body fights this infection
A. Antlbody
Cell mediated hypersensitivity
*Ig A mediated hypersensitivity
Ig E mediated hypersensitivity
Ig D mediated hypersensitivity
Positive tuberculin test indicates
A. exposure to TB
B. sensitivity to tuberculin protein
C. *tuberculous infection
D. fulminant tuberculosis
E. No correct answer
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with:
A. Ziel-Neelsen
B. Kin young stain
C. *Auramine-Rhodamine stain
D. Giemsa stain
E. Gram stain
Reinfection tuberculosis is almost exclusively a disease of the
A. *Lungs
B. Bones
C. Joints
D. Brain
E. Intestine
Reinfection tuberculosis is almost excusively a disease of the
A. Joints
B. Bones
C. *Lungs
D. Brain
E. Saliva glands
Schick's test is used to determine
A. *susceptibility of the patient to Diphtheria
B. Immunity acquired against C. diphtheria
C. Hypersensitivity to C.diphtheriae
D. None of the above
E. All answers are correct
Show correct statement about properties of diphtherial toxin?
A. A toxin consists of two components
B. tоx+ gene encodes its production
C. It is еxotoxin
D. *All answers are correct
E. All answers are incorrect
Show elective nutrient media for causative agents of tuberculosis:
A. Coagulated blood serum, glycerin agar, 1% alkaline peptone water, Loewenstain- Yensen’s
medium
B. Loewenstain- Yensen’s medium, coagulated blood serum, Endo’s medium, glycerin broth,
egg’s media
C. *Loewenstain- Yensen’s medium, glycerin agar, egg’s media
D. Kitt-Tarozzi medium, Roux’s medium, Loewenstain-Yensen’s medium
E. Kitt-Tarozzi medium, Roux’s medium, Loewenstain-Yensen’s medium, chocolate agar
Show preparations of tuberculin?
A. Old Koch’s tuberculin
B. New Koch’s tuberculin
C. Tuberculin from Mycobacterium bovis
D. PPD (purified proteinum derivatum)
B.
C.
D.
E.
925.
926.
927.
928.
929.
930.
931.
932.
E. *All answers are correct.
933.
934.
935.
936.
937.
938.
939.
940.
941.
Specify a disease when antitoxin may be used:
A. Typhoid fever
B. Nocardiosis
C. Erysipelas
D. *Diphtheria
E. Tuberculosis
Tellurite stimulates growth of
A. E. coli
B. C. tetani
C. *Corynebacterium diphtherias
D. S. typhi
E. Haemophylus dukreyi
Test for differentiating Tubercle bacilli from Atypical mycobacteria
A. Aryl Sulphate Test
B. *NiacinTest
C. Tellurite reduction
D. Growth on Mac Conkey Agar
E. Sugar utilization
The animal model frquentjy used for mycobacterium leprae is
A. *mice
B. guinea pigs
C. rabbits
D. golden hamsters.
E. Rats
The bacteria frequently used as an immunomodulator is :
A. *Corynebacterium parvum
B. Mycobacterium marinum
C. Chromobacterium violasium
D. Flavobacterium meningo septicum
E. Mycobacterium smegmae
The factor which promotes virulence of M.tuberculosis
A. wax D
B. *Cord factor
C. Muramyl dipeptide
D. Mycolic acid
E. Tuberculostearinic acid
The following pathogen does not satisfy "Koch's postulates"
A. Bacillus Antrax
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Clostridum tetani
D. *lepra bacilli
E. Bordetella pertussis
The form of leprosy associated with severe disfigurement of the face is
A. borderline
B. chronic
C. *lepromatous
D. papular
E. tuberculoid
The local lesion in BCG is maximum in
A. 2 days
B. 7 days
C. *28 days
D. Two months
E. One year
942.
943.
944.
945.
946.
947.
948.
949.
950.
The main factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae virulence is toxin production. What toxins does
the causative agents of diphtheria produce?
A. *Hystotoxin, necrotoxin, hemotoxin
B. Hemolysines, lethal toxin
C. Endotoxin
D. Neurotoxin
E. Leukocydine, exfoliative toxin
The main way of tuberculosis transmission:
A. *Air-born way
B. Food-born
C. Parenteral
D. Through the bites of insecta
E. Contact
The most rapidly bactericidal drug for M-Leprae is
A. Dapsone
B. Clofazimine
C. Ethionamide
D. *Rifampicin
E. Penicillin
The prophylaxis of tuberculosis includes for itself:
A. Early diagnosis
B. Timely revealing of patients
C. Prophylactic medical examination of human population
D. Vaccination
E. *All answers are correct
The single most common cause of pyrexia of unknown origin is:
A. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B. Salmonella typhi.
C. Brucella sp.
D. Salmonella paratyphi A.
E. Staphylococcus aureus
The substrate for the enzymatic (A) component of diphtheria toxin is
A. NAD
B. cyclic AMP
C. the regulatory proteins of the eukaryotic adenylate cyclase complex
D. ATP
E. *elongation factor 2 (EF-2)
The tuberculous bacilli was discovered by
A. *Robert Koch
B. Edward Jenner
C. Louis Pateur
D. Jonas Salk
E. Illya Metchnikov
The type of Diphtheria with highest mortality is
A. Pharyngeal
B. Nasal
C. *Laryngeal
D. Conjunctival
E. Skin
There is Lowenstein-Jensen medium. We can use it for cultivation of:
A. Escherichia coli
Salmonella typhi
Vibrio cholerae
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
*Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Thin, slender and gram-positive bacilli possessing metachromatic granules and showing Chinese
letter arrangement are characteristic of:
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C. Bacillus anthracis.
D. Clostridium perfringens.
E. Bordetella pertussis
This test was used for examination of diphtherial toxin production/ What tes is it?
A. Agglutination test
B. Complement fixation test
C. Immunofluorescence test
D. ELISA
E. *Precipitation test in gel
True about corynebacterium diptheriae are all except
A. Iron is require for toxin production
B. *Toxin production is responsible for local reaction
C. Non sporing, non capsulated and non motile
D. toxin production by lysogenic conversion
E. Toxin may be turned inti toxoid
Tuberculin Mantoux’s test is a specific diagnostic test. It is applied for:
A. Examination of infected by tuberculosis bacilli population
B. For selection of persons which need revaccination
C. For diagnosis of tuberculosis
D. *All answer are correct
E. All answer are wrong
Tuberculin test positivity is dependent on
A. Erythema
B. Nodule formation
C. lnduration
D. Ulcerative change
E. No correct answer
Tuberculosis is spread by
A. contaminated fomites
B. food
C. *respiratory droplets
D. vectors
E. urine
Tuberculous Infection most common in AIDS
A. *M. avium intracellulare
B. M. scrofulaceum
C. M. uIcerans
D. M. tuberculosis
E. M. bovis
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is
A. Serum sickness
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Arthus reaction
D. *Granuloma
E. Atopy
B.
C.
D.
E.
951.
952.
953.
954.
955.
956.
957.
958.
959.
960.
961.
962.
963.
964.
965.
966.
967.
Upon staining by Ziehl-Neelsen’s method after treating with sulphuric acid the preparation is
necessary ussing
A. Ziehl’s phenol fuchsine
B. Alcohol
C. Меthylene blue
D. *Washing with water
E. iodine solution
Viable but not cultivable state is seen in which of the following organisms?
A. *M. leprae
B. M. tuberculosis
C. V. cholera
D. S. aureus
E. S. pyogens
What basic method of diagnosis of diphtheria?
A. biological
B. allergic
C. serological
D. *bacteriological
E. bacterioscopy
What color has mycobacterim tuberculosis after staining by Ziehl-Neelsen technique
A. blue
B. violet
C. *red
D. brown
E. green
What conditions of Mycobacterium tuberculosis cultivation?
A. Anaerobic conditions, optimum temperature of 38-39 AС, neutral pH of medium
B. Aerobic conditions, optimum temperature of 38-40 AС, neutral pH of medium
C. Aerobic conditions, optimum temperature of their growth of 40 AС, acid pH of medium
D. *Aerobic conditions, optimum temperature of their growth of 37 AС, acid pH of medium
E. Anaerobic condition, optimum temperature of their growth of 39 AС, neutral pH of medium
What growth signs do belong to the causative agent of tuberculosis?
A. Fast growth on nutrient media, acid fastness
B. Fast growth on nutrient media, susceptibility to acids
C. *Slow growth on nutrient media, acid fastness.
D. Slow growth on nutrient media, resistance to alkali
E. Slow growth on nutrient media, resistant to the oxidants
What immunity does develop after diphtheriae?
A. passive, natural, acquired, antitoxic
B. active, artificial, acquired, antibacterial
C. passive, artificial, acquired, antibacterial
D. *active, natural, acquired, antitoxic
E. active, non-sterile
What immunity does develop after vaccination with BCG vaccine?
A. passive, natural, acquired, antitoxic
B. *active, artificial, acquired, antibacterial
C. passive, artificial, acquired, antibacterial
D. active, artificial, acquired, antitoxic
E. active, sterile
What is main way of whooping-cough transmission?
A. Parenteral
B. Alimentary
C. *Air-born
D. Fecal-oral
E. Through the bites of insecta
968.
969.
970.
971.
972.
973.
974.
975.
976.
What is predefine antituberculosis immunity?
A. antibodies production
B. complement system activation
C. phagocytosis activation
D. *T-cell activation
E. ?-lysine activation
What is the colonization site of Corynebacterium diphtheriae, the agent of diphtheria?
A. Skin
B. B. urethra
C. C. eye
D. *D. throat
E. E. none of the above
What is the colour of colonies of C. diphtheriae on blood tellurite agar medium?
A. White.
B. *Grey to black.
C. Cream.
D. Yellow.
E. Green
What laboratory test is main for differentiation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis from other
Mycobacteria?
A. Erithrole fermentation
B. Hydrolysis of mycolic acid
C. Pigment formation
D. *Niacin formation
E. Staining by Ziehl-Neelsen’s technique
What material may be used for isolation of pure culture of causative agent of whooping cough?
A. sputum
B. blood serum
C. *mucus from stomatopharynx
D. urine
E. liquor
What mechanism does cause antituberculosis immunity?
A. Antibodies production.
B. Activation of complement system
C. Activation of phagocytosis
D. *Activation of Т-lymphocytes
E. Activation of В-lysines
What method is better to use for staining of causative agents of diphtheria?
A. Gram’s
B. Anjesky’s
C. Ziehl-Neelsen’
D. *Neisser’s
E. Romanovsky-Giemza’s
What method may be used for volutin granules staining of causative agents of diphtheria?
A. Gram’s
B. Anjesky’s
C. Ziehl-Neelsen’
D. Morozov’s
E. *Loeffler’s
What method of staining is utilized for the revealing of the causative agents of tuberculosis?
A. Gram’s.
*Ziehl-Neelsen’s
Loeffler’s
Anjesky’s
Romanovsky-Giemsa’s
What nutrient media may be used for cultivation of Bordetella?
A. MPA, MPB
B. Endo’s, Loewenstain-Yensen’s
C. *Blood-potato-glycerol agar, casein-charcoal agar
D. Yolk salt agar, mannitol salt agar
E. Ploskirev’s, Levin’s
What preparations are used for specific prophylaxis of diphtheria?
A. TABte vaccine
B. BCG vaccine
C. STI vaccine
D. Solk’s vaccine
E. *Pertussis-diphtheria-tetanus vaccine
What preparations are utilized for specific treatment of diphtheria?
A. antibiotics
B. sulfonamides
C. toxoid
D. *antitoxic serum
E. detoxication drugs
What preparations are utilized for the specific prophylaxis of whooping cough?
A. *Pertussis-diphtheria-tetanus vaccine
B. BCG vaccine
C. STI vaccine
D. TABte vaccine
E. EV vaccine
What serological tests may be used for diagnostics of tuberculosis?
A. Neutralization test
B. Lysis test
C. *CFT, indirect haemagglutination test
D. None of them
E. All answers are correct
What species of tuberculosis bacteria can cause a disease in human?
A. M. tuberculosis
B. M. bovis
C. M. avium
D. M. paratuberculosis
E. *A and B are correct
What tested material may be examined for diagnosis of diphtheria?
A. Patient’s blood
B. Patient’s serum
C. *Diphtheritic films, secretions of the involved mucosal membrane of the fauces, nose
D. Sputum
E. Pus
What toxins can Mycobacterium tuberculosis produce?
A. *Endotoxin
B. Exotoxin
C. Does not product toxins
D. Endotoxin and Exotoxin
E. Exfoliative toxin
What’s next step of staining by Ziehl-Neelsen’s method after using sulphuric acid?
B.
C.
D.
E.
977.
978.
979.
980.
981.
982.
983.
984.
985.
Staining by ziehl’s phenol fuchsine
Using alcohol
Staining by mеthylene blue
*Washing with water
Using iodine solution
When do we utillize diphtherial antitoxin and antydiphtherial immunoglobulin?
A. For diagnostics of disease
B. *For treatment of diphtheria
C. For Shick’s test
D. For active prophylaxis of diphtheria
E. All answers are correct
Which biotype/s of Corynebacterium diphtheriae ferment/s starch and glycogen?
A. *Gravis.
B. Intermedius.
C. Mitis.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
Which characteristic of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is believed to be most essential to its
transmission?
A. Anti-phagocytic polysaccharide capsule.
B. *Impermeable lipid-rich envelope.
C. Production of protein exotoxins.
D. Rapid growth.
E. Type III secretion system.
?Which is a live attenuated vaccine
A. Rabies
B. *BCG
C. Hepatitis B
D. Cholera
E. Tick borne encephalitis
Which is a live attenuated Vaccine
A. Rabies
B. *BCG
C. Hepatitis B
D. Cholera
E. Whooping cough
Which of the following bacteria most frequently cause tuberculosis in man?
A. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B. M. bovis.
C. M. africanum.
D. M. kansasii
E. All of the above.
Which of the following can be stained by the acid fast method
A. Mycobacteria
B. Nocardia
C. Actinomyces
D. Spermatic head
E. *All answers are correct
Which of the following describes bacteria that are acid-fast?
A. Are decolorized with acidic solutions
B. Are decolorized with basic solutions
C. Cannot be decolorized with acidic solutions
D. *Cannot be decolorized with basic solutions
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
986.
987.
988.
989.
990.
991.
992.
993.
E. No correct answer
Which of the following is NOT a major symptom of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
A. Formation of a leathery pseudomembrane
B. Lesions on tonsils
C. *Flat, pink rash on abdomen
D. Inflammation of heart and nervous system
E. No correct answer
995.
Which of the following is not a pathogenic mycobacteria
A. M. kansasii,
B. M. scrofulaceum
C. M. cheoleni
D. *M. smegmatis
E. M. africanum
996.
Which of the following is photochromogenic
A. *M. kansasii
B. M. scrofulorum
C. M. intracellulare
D. M. avium
E. M. xenopi
997.
Which of the following is Scotochromogen
A. *M. scrofulaceum
B. M. ulcerans
C. M. kansasii
D. M. fortuitum
E. M. tuberculosis
998.
Which of the following is the natural habitat for mycobacteria? (best answer)
A. Food
B. Plants
C. Infected animals
D. *Water
E. Soil
999.
Which of the following properties is/are shown by diphtheria toxin?
A. It is a heat-labile protein.
B. It inhibits protein synthesis.
C. It is produced by Corynebacterium diptheriae strains lysogenic for p phage.
D. It is exotoxin
E. *All of the above.
1000. Which of the following statements characterizes the mechanism of action of diphtheria toxin?
A. *inhibits protein synthesis in susceptible cells
B. causes an increase in cAMP in cells resulting in severe edema
C. causes an increase in cAMP in cells leading to diarrhea
D. interferes with the transmission of neurotransmitters at stimulatory neuromuscular synapse
E. interferes with secretion of neurotransmitters at an inhibitory neural synapse in the central
nervous system
1001. Which of the following would have diffuse infiltration of the skin by multiple nodules of varying
size, each with many bacteria? (weak immune response)
A. *Lepromatous leprosy
B. Tuberculoid leprosy
C. Tuberculosis
D. Herpes simplex virus type 2
E. MRSA skin infection
1002. Which of the following would have lesions characterized by anesthetic macules with
hypopigmentation (strong immune response)?
994.
Lepromatous leprosy
*Tuberculoid leprosy
Tuberculosis
Herpes simplex virus type 2
MRSA skin infection
Which one of the following statements MOST accurately depicts the ability of the organism to be
cultured in the laboratory?
A. Treponema pallidum from a chancre can be grown on a special artificial medium
supplemented with cholesterol
B. *Mycobacterium leprae can be grown in the armadillo and the mouse footpad but not on any
artificial media
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can be grown on enriched artificial media and produces visibfc
colonies in 48-96 hours
D. Atypical mycobacteria are found widely in soil and water but cannot be cultured on artificial
media in the laboratory
E. All of the above
Who did describe the Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
A. *R.Koch
B. L. Pasteur
C. I. Mechnikov
D. S. Vinogradsky
E. Sh. Kitazato
Animals involved in the normal life cycle of the Lyme disease spirochete include:
A. Bats
B. Mosquitoes
C. *Deer tick
D. House flies
E. all anwers are correct
Antigenic variation in relapsing fever Borrelia species is due to:
A. changes in the chromosomal DNA
B. post-translational modifications of proteins
C. conjugative transfer of plasmids
D. *switching of genes from a storage plasmid to an expression plasmid
E. lousy gene transcription (different gene expression in lice and humans).
Appearance of a hard chancre is characteristic of:
A. *primary syphilis.
B. secondary syphilis.
C. latent syphilis.
D. tertiary syphilis.
E. complication of syphilis
Borellia burgdorferi causes which disease?
A. *Lyme's Disease
B. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
C. Hanta
D. Rabies
E. Relapsing fever
Borrelia is classified with the spirochetes because it
A. is aerobic
B. *possesses an axial filament
C. is a rod
D. is a pathogen
E. none of the above
?Chlamidia trachomatis would iodine stain ____ and Giemsa stain ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1003.
1004.
1005.
1006.
1007.
1008.
1009.
1010.
*Positive; Positive
Positive; Negative
Negative; Negative
Negative; Positive
No correct answer
Chlamydia can be recognized by the following laboratory procedures EXCEPT:
A. Microscopic examination of Giemsa-stained scrapings from infected tissues
B. Culture in tissue culture cells sensitive to Chlamydia.
C. *Culture on agar medium.
D. Polymerase chain reaction.
E. ELISA.
Chlamydia pneumoniae is the etiological agent of:
A. Inclusion conjunctivitis
B. Lymphogranuloma venereum
C. Hyperendemic, blinding trachoma
D. All answeres are corrected
E. *All answeres are incorrected
Chlamydia trachomatis can attacks which structure(s)?
A. eye
B. urethra
C. fallopian tubes
D. lungs
E. *all of these
Chlamydia trachomatis may be cultured on monolayers of human cells. If infected cells were
examined by staining and light microscopy, what would you be most likely to observe?
A. *A membrane-bounded inclusion body, within the nucleus.
B. A membrane-bounded inclusion body, within the cytoplasm.
C. Rod shaped Gram-positive bacilli, free within the cytoplasm.
D. Gram-negative cocci, within the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum.
E. Cyst forms inside lysosomes.
Chlamydia uses ATP for energy in order to construct DNA and proteins as well as encoding their
own ribosomes. This makes Clamydia which of the following?
A. Extracellular pathogen
B. *Obligate intracellular parasite
C. Obligate extracellular parasite
D. Facultative intracellular parasite
E. No correct answer
Congenital syphilis infection:
A. Is virtually nonexistent in the United States
B. *Can be effectively prevented by proper screening of expectant mothers
C. Does not result in any long-term effects past the first year of life
D. Occurs most commonly in infants born to mothers who have been infected for more than one
year
E. Is never life-threatening
Each of the following statements concerning chlamydiae is correct EXCEPT:
A. Chlamydiae are strict intracellular parasites because they cannot synthesize sufficient ATP
B. Chlamydiae possess both DNA and RNA and are bounded by a cell wall
C. trachomatis has multiple serotypes, but C psittaci has only one serotype
D. *Most chlamydiae are transmitted by arthropods
E. All of the above
Each of the following statements concerning chlamydial genital tract infections is correct
EXCEPT:
A. *Infection can be diagnosed by finding anti-chlamydial antibody in a serum specimen
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1011.
1012.
1013.
1014.
1015.
1016.
1017.
1018.
B. Infection can persist after administration of penicillin
C. Symptomatic infections can be associated with urethral or cervical discharge containing many
1019.
1020.
1021.
1022.
1023.
1024.
1025.
1026.
polymorphonuclear leukocytes
D. There is no vaccine against these infections
E. All of the above
Each of the following statements concerning Chlamydia trachomatis is correct EXCEPT:
A. It is an important cause of nongonococcal urethritis
B. It is the cause of lymphogranuloma venereum
C. *It is an important cause of subacute bacterial endocarditis
D. It is an important cause of conjunctivitis
E. All of the above
Each of the following statements concerning epidemic typhus is correct EXCEPT:
A. The disease is characterized by a rash
B. The Weil-Felix test can aid in diagnosis of the disease
C. The disease is caused by a rickettsia
D. *The causative organism is transmitted from rodents to humans by a tick
E. All of the above
Each of the following statements concerning infection with Chlamydia psittaci is correct
EXCEPT:
A. C psittaci can be isolated by growth in cell culture and will not grow in blood agar
B. The organism appears purple in Gram-stained smears of sputum
C. The infection is more readily diagnosed by serologic tests than by isolation of the organism
D. The infection is more commonly acquired from a nonhuman source than from another human
E. All of the above
Each of the following statements concerning pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae is
correct EXCEPT:
A. The disease is associated with a rise in the titer of cold agglutinins
B. The disease occurs primarily in immunocompetent individuals
C. The disease is one of the "atypical" pneumonias
D. The organism cannot be cultured in vitro because it has no cell wall
E. All of the above
Each of the following statements concerning Q fever is correct EXCEPT:
A. *Rash is a prominent feature
B. It is transmitted by respiratory aerosol
C. Farm animals are an important reservoir
D. It is caused by Coxiella burnetii
E. All of the above
Each of the following statements concerning spirochetes is correct EXCEPT:
A. Species of Treponema are part of the normal flora of the mouth
B. Species of Borrelia cause a tick-borne disease called relapsing fever
C. The species of Leptospira that cause lep-tospirosis grow primarily in humans and are usually
transmitted by human-to-human contact
D. Species of Treponema cause syphilis and yaws
E. All of the above
Each of the following statements concerning the VDRL test for syphilis is correct EXCEPT:
A. *The antigen is composed of inactivated Tr-ponema pallidum
B. The test is usually positive in secondary syphilis
C. False-positive results are more frequent than with the FTA-ABS test
D. The antibody titer declines with adequate therapy
E. All of the above
Each of the following statements concerning Treponema is correct EXCEPT:
A. *T. pallidum produces an exotoxin that stimulates adenylate cyclase
B. T. pallidum cannot be grown on conventional laboratory media
C. Treponemes are members of the normal flora of the human oropharynx
D. Patients infected with T. pallidum produce antibodies that react with beef heart cardiolipin
E. All of the above
1027.
1028.
1029.
1030.
1031.
1032.
1033.
1034.
Endemic Relapsing fever is spread by
A. lice
B. *ticks
C. flea
D. mosquites
E. animal urine
Epidemic Relapsing fever is spread by
A. *lice
B. ticks
C. flea
D. mosquites
E. animal urine
Erythema chronicum migrans is observed in:
A. *Lyme disease.
B. relapsing fever.
C. Weil's disease.
D. syphilis.
E. pinta
Features that Borrelia burgdorferi and Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum have in common
include:
A. mode of transmission.
B. arthritis as a late manifestation.
C. *local, disseminated, and chronic (persistent) stages of infection.
D. ease of in vitro culture in artificial medium.
E. diagnosis of infection through detection of anticardiolipin antibodies.
Following antibiotic therapy Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may be observed in:
A. syphilis.
B. relapsing fever.
C. Lyme disease.
D. *all anwers are correct
E. all anwers are incorrect
fore can replicate on bacteriologic media?
A. Chlamydia
B. *Mycoplasma
C. Adenovirus
D. Rickettsia
E. All of the above
Formation of a gumma is
A. a damaged aorta
B. a damaged liver
C. *a syphilitic tumor
D. the primary lesion of syphilis
E. the result of congenital syphilis
General characteristics of Rickettsia include which of the following?
A. A life cycle involving extracellular replication but cyst formation within eukaryotic cells
B. rapid (24-48 hours) culture from clinical specimens on routine sheep blood agar
C. single gram positive cocci surrounded by a capsule visualized in tissue specimens
D. *entry into cells by endocytosis with replication in the cytoplasm or in vacuoles in eukaryotic
cells
E. All answeres are corrected
1035.
1036.
1037.
1038.
1039.
1040.
1041.
1042.
1043.
Group-specific antigen of Treponema is chemically a:
A. *protein.
B. polysaccharide.
C. lipid.
D. nucleic acid.
E. lipopolysaccharide
How is leptospirosis, caused by Leptospira interrogans, transmitted?
A. Tick bite
B. *Contaminated urine in food or water
C. Undercooked meat
D. Inhaled aerosol
E. louse feces
Human ehrlichiosis is:
A. Transmitted to humans via the rat flea
B. Characterized by fever, headache, and a classic papulovesicular rash
C. Best treated with intravenous penicillin
D. *Often accompanied by decreased white blood cell counts and platelet counts
E. All answeres are corrected
In the life cycle of Chlamydiaceae, ____ bind to cell receptors triggering endocytosis. ____
inhibit lysosome fusion and form ___, which replicate by binary fission and form ____ that cause
the cell to lyse.
A. *EBs; EBs; RBs; EBs;
B. EBs; RBs; RBs; EBs;
C. RBs; EBs; EBs; RBs;
D. RBs; RBs; EBs; RBs;
E. RBs; RBs; EBs; EBs;
In which of the following sexually transmitted diseases, ulcer/s is/are painless?
A. *Syphilis.
B. Chancroid.
C. Herpes genitalis.
D. All of the above.
E. No correct answer
Indicate disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi:
A. Weil syndrome (icterohemorrhagic fever), canicola fever
B. Endemic relapsing fever
C. *Lyme disease
D. Syphilis
E. Enteric fever
Indicate disease caused by Borrelia recurrentis:
A. Weil syndrome (icterohemorrhagic fever), canicola fever
B. *Endemic relapsing fever
C. Lyme disease
D. Syphilis
E. Enteric fever
Indicate disease caused by Leptospira interrogans:
A. *Weil syndrome (icterohemorrhagic fever), canicola fever
B. Endemic relapsing fever
C. Lyme disease
D. Syphilis
E. Enteric fever
Indicate disease caused by Treponema pallidum:
A. Weil syndrome (icterohemorrhagic fever), canicola fever
B. Endemic relapsing fever
C. Lyme disease
D. *Syphilis
E. Enteric fever
1044.
1045.
1046.
1047.
1048.
1049.
1050.
1051.
1052.
Indicate micribe which has sexual mode of transmission:
A. *Treponema pallidum
B. Borrelia recurrentis
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Leptospiras interrogans
E. Treponema vincentii
Indicate micribe which uses human-to-human for mode of transmission:
A. Treponema pallidum
B. *Borrelia recurrentis
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Leptospiras interrogans
E. Treponema vincentii
Indicate micribe which uses rodents, dogs, fish, birds for mode of transmission:
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Borrelia recurrentis
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. *Leptospiras interrogans
E. Treponema vincentii
Indicate micribe which uses ticks for mode of transmission:
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Borrelia recurrentis
C. *Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Leptospiras interrogans
E. Treponema vincentii
Leptospira infection each year?
A. Minnesota
B. Pennsylvania
C. New York
D. Wisconsin
E. *Hawaii
Louse-borne relapsing fever is caused by:
A. *Borrelia recurrentis.
B. duttoni.
C. burgdorferi.
D. B. parkeri.
E. Treponema carateum
Lyme disease is caused by ______ and spread by ______.
A. Borrelia recurrentis, lice
B. *Borrelia burgdorferi, ticks
C. Borrelia burgdorferi, chiggers
D. Borrelia hermsii, ticks
E. Borrelia recurrentis, ticks
Lyme disease is caused by a
A. Chlamydiae
B. Rickettsiae
C. *a spirochete
D. enteric bacteria
E. none of the above
Lyme disease is caused by:
A. Borrelia recurrenlis.
B. dutioni.
*B. burgdorferi.
B. hermsii
B. persica
Lyme disease:
A. is most commonly found in the southern United States.
B. is transmitted by lice.
C. is caused by Leptospira interrogans.
D. *is most prevalent in forested areas with high deer populations.
E. is caused by an obligate parasite of humans.
Manifestations of tertiary (late) syphilis can include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. aortic aneurism.
B. *multiple skin lesions containing numerous organisms.
C. infection of the brain.
D. formation of granulomatous lesions anywhere in the body.
E. loss of sensory and motor function in the lower extremities.
Match Coxiella burnetii with the vector:
A. *Cattle, sheep, goats
B. Flying squirrels, louse
C. Dogs, rodents, wood/dog tick
D. Chiggers, red mites
E. No correct answer
Match Orientia tsutsugamushi with the vector:
A. Cattle, sheep, goats
B. Flying squirrels, louse
C. Dogs, rodents, wood/dog tick
D. *Chiggers, red mites
E. No correct answer
Match Rickettsia prowazekii with the vector:
A. Cattle, sheep, goats
B. *Flying squirrels, louse
C. Dogs, rodents, wood/dog tick
D. Chiggers, red mites
E. No correct answer
Match Rickettsia rickettsii with the vector:
A. Cattle, sheep, goats
B. Flying squirrels, louse
C. *Dogs, rodents, wood/dog tick
D. Chiggers, red mites
E. No correct answer
Match the Epidemic typhus (Worldwide) with Rickettsia:
A. Orientia tsutsugamushi
B. Coxiella burnetii
C. Rickettsia rickettsii
D. *Rickettsia prowazekii
E. No correct answer
Match the following vector – cattle, sheep, goats – with Rickettsia
A. Orientia tsutsugamushi
B. *Coxiella burnetii
C. Rickettsia rickettsii
D. Rickettsia prowazekii
E. Bartonella quintana
Match the following vector – chiggers, red mites – with Rickettsia
B.
C.
D.
E.
1053.
1054.
1055.
1056.
1057.
1058.
1059.
1060.
1061.
*Orientia tsutsugamushi
Coxiella burnetii
Rickettsia rickettsii
Rickettsia prowazekii
Bartonella quintana
Match the following vector – dogs, rodents, wood/dog tick – with Rickettsia
A. Orientia tsutsugamushi
B. Coxiella burnetii
C. *Rickettsia rickettsii
D. Rickettsia prowazekii
E. Bartonella quintana
Match the following vector – flying squirrels, louse – with Rickettsia
A. Orientia tsutsugamushi
B. Coxiella burnetii
C. Rickettsia rickettsii
D. *Rickettsia prowazekii
E. Bartonella quintana
Match the Q fever (Worldwide) with Rickettsia:
A. Orientia tsutsugamushi
B. *Coxiella burnetii
C. Rickettsia rickettsii
D. Rickettsia prowazekii
E. No correct answer
Match the Scrub typhus (Asia, Oceania) with Rickettsia:
A. *Orientia tsutsugamushi
B. Coxiella burnetii
C. Rickettsia rickettsii
D. Rickettsia prowazekii
E. No correct answer
Match the with Rickettsia: Rocky Mountain spotted fever (Western hemisphere)
A. Orientia tsutsugamushi
B. Coxiella burnetii
C. *Rickettsia rickettsii
D. Rickettsia prowazekii
E. No correct answer
Microscopic examination of clinical specimens from patients with suspected chlamydial
infections is effective only in:
A. Ornithosis
B. Lymphogranuloma venereum
C. Primary Atypical Pneumonia
D. Urethritis
E. *None of the above
Mycoplasma pneumoniae (Eaton agent) are unique among bacteria because their cell membrane
contains sterols and they do not have which of the following?
A. ?-lactam antibiotic resistance
B. Flagella
C. Endotoxin
D. Capsule
E. *Cell wall
Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a common cause of atypical pneumonia (walking pneumonia) and
chest x-ray often looks worse than symptoms suggest. Which of the following groups of people is
the most commonly affected?
A. Elderly
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1062.
1063.
1064.
1065.
1066.
1067.
1068.
1069.
Middle-aged adults
*School-age children
Neonates
Pregnant mothers
Mycoplasmas demage next structure of host cells.
A. nucleus
B. cell walls
C. ribosomes
D. *cell membranes
E. mitochondria
Of the following organisms that can cross the placenta, which of the following is associated with
congenital CN VIII deafness, mulberry molars, saddle nose, blindness, deafness, and
cardiovascular problems?
A. Toxoplasma gondii
B. Rubella
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Herpes, HIV
E. *Syphilis
of which of the following diseases?
A. *Epidemic typhus.
B. Murine typhus.
C. C.Rickettsialpox.
D. Q fever.
E. Typhi fever
One characteristic that distinguishes the elementary body from the reticulate body cell type of
Chlamydia is that only the elementary body:
A. *is infectious.
B. is capable of cell division.
C. is osmotically fragile.
D. contains ribosomes.
E. is bacterial in origin.
F. diagnosed primarily in large urban cities in the northeastern United States
G. *usually transmitted by inhalation or ingestion of organisms, not by a vector
H. manifested by a characteristic rash with vesicles (blisters) beginning on the face and spreading
to the trunk
I. caused by Bartonella/ Rochalimaea henselae
Relapses in relapsing fever occur due to:
A. *antigen variation in bacteria.
B. increased toxin production by bacteria.
C. increased invasiveness of bacteria.
D. super infection with viruses.
E. all anwers are correct
Relapsing Fever and Lyme disease:
A. are caused by members of the genus Leptospira.
B. *are transmitted by arthropods.
C. are most commonly acquired in urban areas.
D. do not stimulate host antibody responses.
E. are not found in the United States.
Rickettsia rickettsii causes Rocky Mountain Spotted fever when transmitted by tick bite. When
transmitted by lice, it causes:
A. *Epidemic typhus
B. Scarlet fever
C. Hydrocephalus
B.
C.
D.
E.
1070.
1071.
1072.
1073.
1074.
1075.
1076.
D. Rheumatic fever
E. No correct answer
1077.
1078.
1079.
1080.
1081.
1082.
1083.
1084.
1085.
Rickettsia, an aerobic Gram-negative rod, is which of the following?
A. Extracellular pathogen
B. *Obligate intracellular parasite
C. Obligate extracellular parasite
D. Facultative intracellular parasite
E. No correct answer
Rickettsia:
A. can only be successfully cultured in anaerobic conditions
B. exhibit rapid growth (24-48 hours) on routine blood agar plates
C. *can be cultured in fertile eggs and in some tissue cultures
D. can not be cultured in vitro
E. All answeres are corrected
Similarities between syphilis and Lyme disease include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. *Mode of transmission.
B. Progress from local to systemic disease.
C. Occurrence of persistent infection.
D. Spirochetal etiology.
E. Occurrence of cardiovascular manifestations
Species-specific antigen of Treponema pallidum is chemically a:
A. protein.
B. *polysaccharide.
C. lipid.
D. nucleic acid.
E. lipopolysaccharide
Spirochaetes exhibit:
A. flexion and extension motility.
B. corkscrew-like rotatory movement.
C. translatory motion.
D. *all anwers are correct
E. all anwers are incorrect
Sterols are present in the cytoplasmic membrane of:
A. *A.Mycoplasma.
B. Bacillus.
C. Clostridium.
D. Proteus.
E. Rickettsia
Syphilis is caused by which of the following?
A. Helicobacter pylori
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. *Treponema pallidum
D. Serratia marcesans
E. Treponema Vincentii
Syphilis:
A. has an annual incidence of less than 10,000 reported cases in the U.S.
B. can not be transmitted transplacentally.
C. is characterized by a primary lesion called a gumma.
D. is never asymptomatic.
E. *can cause neurologic symptoms
The antigenic changes occurring during relapsing fever:
A. *result from the switching of unexpressed Variable Major Protein (VMP) genes into an
expression site.
do not affect the course of the disease.
result in multiple relapses involving organisms with the exact same VMP protein.
result from changes at the transcriptional level (not genotypic changes).
all anwers are correct
The cell tropism of the genus Rickettsia determines the type of disease produced. Which phrase
best describes Rickettsial disease?
A. Encephalitis
B. Meningitis.
C. Myocarditis.
D. Myositis.
E. *Vasculitis.
The Chlamydiaceae life cycle has elemental bodies (EBs) that are ____ and reticulate bodies
(RBs) that are ____.
A. Metabolically active and infection; Metabolically inactive and noninfectious
B. *Metabolically inactive and infection; Metabolically active and noninfectious
C. Metabolically active and noninfection; Metabolically inactive and infectious
D. Metabolically inactive and noninfection; Metabolically active and infectious
E. No correct answer
The disease Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is:
A. confined to the northern Rocky Mountain region in the United States
B. *often diagnosed by a classic rash beginning on the wrists and ankles,quickly spreading to the
trunk, and involving the palms and soles
C. transmitted by the rat flea
D. treated with penicillin plus supportive care
E. All answeres are corrected
The etiologic agent of Cat Scratch disease is thought to be:
A. *Bartonella (Rochalimaea) henselae
B. Rickettsia akari
C. Ureaplasma urealyticum
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
The etiologic agent of epidemic typhus (louse-borne typhus) is:
A. Coxiella burnetii
B. Rickettsia typhi
C. Rickettsia akari
D. *Rickettsia prowazekii
E. All answeres are corrected
The infectious stage of the chlamydial life cycle is the:
A. Lysosome
B. *Elementary body
C. Reticulate body
D. Cytoadsorption body
E. Exocytic particle
The metabolically active stage in the chlamydial life cycle is the:
A. reticulate body
B. exocytic particle
C. elementary body
D. cytoadsorption body
E. it does not form any body
The organism which produces the most common, sexually transmitted disease in the United
States is:
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Ureplasma urealyticum
B.
C.
D.
E.
1086.
1087.
1088.
1089.
1090.
1091.
1092.
1093.
D. *Chlamydia trachomatis
E. Chlamydia psittaci
1094.
1095.
1096.
1097.
1098.
1099.
1100.
1101.
1102.
The preliminary diagnosis is put patient A. Leptospirosis. Is sick 2 weeks. What tests from given
it is necessary to use for acknowledgement of the diagnosis:
A. Revealing specific antibodies
B. Revealing originators by a microscopy
C. Biologichal assay on rabbits
D. Abjection of a hemoculture
E. *Abjection urinoculture
The soil is the natural habitat for certain microorganisms of medical importance. Which one of
the following is LEAST likely to reside there?
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Mycobacterium intracellular
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. *Chlamydia trachomatis
E. All of the above
The symptom of secondary syphilis is
A. neurological problems
B. giant lesions affecting many internal organs
C. a hard-based, painless chancre
D. *a rash covering all parts of the body
E. A and B only
The tissue destruction and lesions observed in syphilis are primarily a consequence of which of
the following?
A. Bacterial capsule
B. Bacterial endoflagellum
C. Bacterial overgrowth
D. Bacterial hyaluronidase
E. *Host immune response
Ticks are vectors for the transmission of each of the following diseases EXCEPT:
A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
B. *epidemic typhus
C. tularemia
D. Lyme disease
E. All of the above
Treponema pallidum cannot be demonstrated by microscopy in:
A. primary syphilis.
B. secondary syphilis.
C. *latent syphilis.
D. all of the above.
Treponema pallidum is cultured in/on
A. blood agar
B. eggs
C. horse serum
D. *rabit testis
E. serum broth
What basic path of infestation of the person by leptospirae?
A. Through punctures of sticks and lice
B. Through the use of infected nutrition
C. *At contacts to urine of an ill animal
D. Through punctures hexapods
E. all anwers are correct
What disease does Coxiella burnetii cause?
Rocky Mountain spotted fever (Western hemisphere)
Epidemic typhus (Worldwide)
Scrub typhus (Asia, Oceania)
*Q fever (Worldwide)
Scarlet fever
What disease does Orientia tsutsugamushi cause?
A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever (Western hemisphere)
B. Epidemic typhus (Worldwide)
C. Scrub typhus (Asia, Oceania)
D. Q fever (Worldwide)
E. Enteric fever
What disease does Rickettsia prowazekii cause?
A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever (Western hemisphere)
B. *Epidemic typhus (Worldwide)
C. Scrub typhus (Asia, Oceania)
D. Q fever (Worldwide)
E. Relapsing fever
What disease does Rickettsia rickettsii cause?
A. *Rocky Mountain spotted fever (Western hemisphere)
B. Epidemic typhus (Worldwide)
C. Scrub typhus (Asia, Oceania)
D. Q fever (Worldwide)
E. Relapsing fever
What is characteristic of primary syphilis?
A. Painful chancre
B. *Painless chancre
C. Several painful ulcers in genital region
D. Several painless ulcers in genital region
E. Disseminating rash on entire body, soles, and palms
What is the first symptom of Treponema pallidum?
A. *Chancre at infection site
B. Bullseye rash
C. Butterfly rash
D. Vaginal discharge
E. No correct answer
What stage of syphilis is characterized by disseminating rash, alopecia, lymphadenopathy, and
flulike symptoms.
A. Primary
B. *Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Congenital
E. No correct answer
Which of the following bacteria dies quickly after drying?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D. Bacillus anthracis
E. *Treponema pallidium
Which of the following bacteria has/have been blamed to cause Vincent's angina?
A. Treponema vincenlii.
B. Leptotrichia buccalis.
C. Bacteroides melaninogenicus.
D. *all anwers are correct
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1103.
1104.
1105.
1106.
1107.
1108.
1109.
1110.
E. all anwers are incorrect
1111.
1112.
1113.
1114.
1115.
1116.
1117.
1118.
1119.
Which of the following bacteria is/are implicated as causative agent/s of non-gonococcal
urethritis?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis.
B. Ureaplasmau urealyticum.
C. Mycoplasma hominis.
D. Herpes virus 2
E. *All of the above
Which of the following bacteria is/are pathogenic?
A. *Leptospira interrogans.
B. L biflexa.
C. L. parva.
D. all anwers are correct
E. all anwers are incorrect
Which of the following diseases is/are nonvenereal?
A. Endemic syphilis.
B. Yaws.
C. Pinta.
D. *all anwers are correct
E. all anwers are incorrect
Which of the following features is/are characteristic of secondary syphilis?
A. Mucous patches in oropharynx.
B. Condylomata at mucocutaneous junctions.
C. Diffuse erythematous cutaneous lesions.
D. *All of the above.
E. Non of the above
Which of the following genera does not belong to family Spirochaetaceae?
A. Leptospira.
B. *Spirochaeta.
C. Treponema.
D. Borrelia.
E. all anwers are correct
?Which of the following genus/genera belong/s to family Spirochaetaceae?
A. Leptospira.
B. Treponema.
C. Borrelia.
D. *all anwers are correct
E. all anwers are incorrect
Which of the following groups of people is most at risk for contracting T. pallidum?
A. Pregnant mothers
B. Cystic fibrosis patients
C. *Sexually active patients
D. Elderly patients
E. Anyone (spread through contact with inanimate objects, such as toilet seats)
Which of the following is an early clinical sign of Lyme Disease and not a late sign?
A. Musculoskeletal disease (e.g. migratory myalgias, transient arthritis)
B. Nervous system disease (e.g. Bell palsy, encephalopathy)
C. Cardiovascular involvement (e.g. AV nodal block)
D. *Erythema chronicum migrans (ECM)
E. Acrodermatitis chronicum atrophicans (ACA)
Which of the following is an organism that prefers to live inside a host cell but may live outside a
host cell?
A. Extracellular pathogen
Intracellular pathogen
Obligate intracellular parasite
Obligate extracellular parasite
*Facultative intracellular parasite
Which of the following is associated with Ureaplasma?
A. *Genitourinary tract infection
B. Atypical pneumonia
C. Tracheobronchitis
D. Influenza-like illness
E. Upper respiratory tract infection
Which of the following is NOT true about Mycoplasma hominis?
A. Synonymous with Ureaplasma urealyticum
B. More prevalent in late summer/early fall
C. *Vaccine uses conjugated polysaccharide B
D. Is endemic worldwide
E. No correct answer
Which of the following is NOT used for laboratory diagnosis of C. trachomatis?
A. Microscopy of Gram-negative rods with no peptidoglycan cell wall
B. Molecular amplification (e.g. PCR)
C. Cell culture using certain cell lines (e.g. nonciliated columnar, cuboidal)
D. Antigen test (e.g. ELISA, fluorescence)
E. *Vaginal specimen cytology
Which of the following is the least accurate statement regarding Bartonella/ Rochalimaea ?
A. B/R. henselae is associated with cat scratch disease.
B. Lysis-centrifugation tubes are used for isolation from blood.
C. *All species can be grown readily in the clinical laboratory.
D. All species possess a trilaminar cell wall and are difficult to Gram-stain
E. All answeres are corrected
Which of the following is the most likely causative agent of neonatal inclusion conjunctivitis?
A. *C. trachomatis
B. C. psittaci
C. C. pneumoniae
D. All answeres are corrected
E. All answeres are incorrected
Which of the following is true about Chlamydia and separates them from Rickettsia?
A. Chlamydia can be grown on artificial media
B. Chlamydia synthesize their own ATP
C. *Chlamydia have a unique developmental cycle
D. Chlamydia contain cytochromes
Which of the following is true for visualizing spirochete?
A. They can be viewed without significant magnification (e.g. 10x)
B. They can be viewed with Gram stain
C. They can be viewed with Giemsa stain
D. *They require special analysis such as dark field illumination or silver stain
E. They are eucaryotes
Which of the following is/are an arthropod vector of rickettsioses?
A. flea
B. louse
C. tick
D. *all of the above
E. no correct answer
Which of the following is/are transmitted by an arthropod vector?
A. Typhus fever
B.
C.
D.
E.
1120.
1121.
1122.
1123.
1124.
1125.
1126.
1127.
1128.
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Endemic Typhus
*All of the above
None of the above
Which of the following is/are used to confirm nontreponemal assays?
A. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test
B. Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test
C. Fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorption (FTA-ABS) test
D. Treponema pallidum particle agglutination (TP-PA) test
E. *C & D
Which of the following organisms is transmitted directly by human to human contact?
A. Borrelia hermsii
B. Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum
C. Leptospira interrogans
D. *Spirillum minor
E. Borrelia burgdorferi
Which of the following serological tests is based upon the use of Treponema pallidum extract?
A. TPA test.
B. TPIA test.
C. *ТРНА test.
D. TPI test.
E. all anwers are correct
Which of the following serovars of Leptospira interrogans is/are responsible for causing Weil's
disease?
A. *Icterohaemorrhagiae.
B. Andamana.
C. Austral is.
D. all anwers are correct
E. all anwers are incorrect
Which of the following spirocheta has/have caused Vincent's angina?
A. *Treponema vincenlii.
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Treponema endemicum
D. Treponema carateum
E. Treponema oralis
Which of the following staining techniques cannot be used for T. pallidum?
A. Gram staining.
B. Giemsa staining.
C. Silver impregnation staining.
D. Imunofluorescence staining.
E. Burri staining.
Which of the following staining techniques cannot be used for T. pallidum?
A. *Gram staining.
B. Giemsa staining.
C. Silver impregnation staining.
D. Immunofluorescence staining.
E. all anwers are correct
Which of the following statements is true about Chlamydia?
A. Chlamydia can produce colonies on artificial media
B. Chlamydia synthesize their own ATP
C. Chlamydia contain cytochromes
D. *Chlamydia have a unique developmental cycle
E. Chlamydia are bacterial cells
B.
C.
D.
E.
1129.
1130.
1131.
1132.
1133.
1134.
1135.
1136.
1137.
1138.
1139.
1140.
1141.
1142.
1143.
1144.
1145.
Which of the following statements regarding syphilis is TRUE?
A. Asymptomatic infection is rare.
B. Houston is a low incidence area.
C. Gummatous syphilis is caused by the rapid outgrowth of large numbers of organisms, which
directly damage the surrounding tissue.
D. The disease is not transmissible at the secondary stage.
E. *Congenital syphilis is preventable with appropriate screening
Which of the following statements regarding Treponema pallidum is FALSE?
A. *It is routinely cultured from early lesions by clinical laboratories.
B. It is too thin to be observed by standard light microscopy.
C. It has several subspecies that cause different diseases.
D. It ranges from 6 to 20 micrometers in length.
E. It is an obligate parasite of humans
Which of the following techniques can be used for inactivation of Treponema pallidum?
A. Heating at 41.5°C for 1 hour.
B. Storing at 5°C for 5 days.
C. Lyophilization.
D. *All of the above.
E. Non of the above
Which of the following techniques is/are suitable for motility demonstration of Treponema
pallidum in exudates?
A. *Dark-ground microscopy.
B. Directrect fluorescent-antibody staining for Treponema pallidum.
C. Light microscope
D. There is no any technique
E. all anwers are correct
Which of the following tests can be performed for the serodiagnosis of leptospirosis?
A. Macroscopic agglutination test.
B. Microscopic agglutination test.
C. Complement fixation test.
D. *all anwers are correct
E. all anwers are incorrect
Which of the following tests is performed most often for the serodiagnosis of syphilis?
A. *VDRL test.
B. Kahn test.
C. Wassermann reaction.
D. Reiter protein complement fixation test.
E. all anwers are correct
Which of the following tests is performed to demonstrate congenital syphilis?
A. FTA-ABS test.
B. *IgM FTA-ABS test.
C. TPI test.
D. TPHA test.
E. all anwers are correct
Which of the following tests is the most useful currently as an initial laboratory test, has about
65% sensitivity, and has specificity that cross-reacts to other organisms (e.g., Epstein-Barr virus,
cytomegalovirus, adenovirus)?
A. Microscopy
B. Molecular diagnosis
C. Complement fixation
D. Enzyme immunoassays
E. *Cold hemagglutination
Which of the treponematoses are not veneral disease?
bejel
pinta
yaws
syphilis
*Three first
Which one of the following diseases is BEST diagnosed by serologic means?
A. *Q fever
B. Pulmonary tuberculosis
C. Gonorrhea
D. Actinomycosis
E. All of the above
Which one of the following organisms principally infects vascular endothelial cells?
A. Salmonella typhi
B. *Rickettsia typhi
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Coxiella burnetii
E. All of the above
You suspect Chlamydia infection in a sexually-active young woman. Which test would be most
likely to provide results which would confirm this diagnosis?
A. Agglutination test for anti-cardiolipin antibodies.
B. *PCR test of nucleic acids present in a urine sample.
C. Test of a blood sample for ‘cold agglutinins”.
D. Gram-stained smear of discharge from the cervix.
E. Culture of exudate from the cervix on Thayer-Martin agar.
All of the following are enteroviruses EXCEPT:
A. hepatitis A virus
B. *rhinoviruses
C. coxsackieviruses
D. echoviruses
E. polioviruses
All viruses belong to complex ones, except:
A. Herpesviruses
B. Flu viruses
C. Small pox viruses
D. *Polioviruses
E. HIV
An indication of Influenza viruses there is:
A. Examination of viral families
B. Examination of viral genes
C. Examination of viral species
D. Examination of viral serovar
E. *Examination of viral presence in tested material
Antigenic drift of orthomyxoviruses is best characterized as:
A. A major change in the neuraminidase or hemagglutinin proteins
B. A major change in the matrix protein
C. *A minor change in the neuraminidase or hemagglutinin proteins
D. A minor change in the matrix protein
E. A major change in the matrix protein and hemagglutinin
Choose among listed combinations components for making haemagglutination test:
A. *Viral material, chicken red cells, electrolyte
B. Viral material, sheep’s white cells, electrolyte
C. Antiviral antibodies, antigen, red cells, electrolyte
D. Patient’s serum, viral diagnosticum, electrolyte
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1146.
1147.
1148.
1149.
1150.
1151.
1152.
1153.
E. Viral diagnosticum, specific serum, chicken red cells, electrolyte
1154.
1155.
1156.
1157.
1158.
1159.
1160.
1161.
?Choose among listed viruses causative agents, which have a spherical shape:
A. Tobacco mosaic disease viruses
B. Poxviruses
C. Rhabdoviruses
D. *Influenza viruses
E. Ebola virus
Choose the correct characteristics of the Salk's vaccine:
A. *inactivated vaccine
B. after immunization local and general immunity will be created
C. the route of administration is per oral;
D. it consists of one type of the polioviruses
E. it is used for immunization of the children 3 months old
Choose the uncorrect characteristics of the Sabin::Choose the uncorrect characteristics of the
Sabin's vaccine:
A. live vaccine
B. *inactivated vaccine
C. after immunization local and general immunity will be created
D. the route of administration is per oral
E. it consists of three types of the polioviruses
Degenerative changes in the cell culture under the influence of Influenza viruses are called:
A. Cytotoxic action
B. *Cytopathic action
C. Hystotoxic action
D. Hemolytic action
E. Proliferative action
Diagnostic test of Parainfluenza viruses is:
A. Skin test
B. Ab testing
C. Antibody detection
D. Weil-Felix reaction
E. *Direct antibody staining
Each of the following statements concerning measles virus is correct EXCEPT:
A. *Latent infection by measles virus can be explained by the integration of provirus into the
host cell DNA
B. One of the important complications of measles is encephalitis
C. The initial site of measles virus replication is the upper respiratory tract, from which it spreads
via the blood to the skin
D. Measles virus is an enveloped virus with a single-stranded RNA genome
E. Koplik’s spots are characteristic of measles
Each of the following statements concerning mumps is correct EXCEPT:
A. Mumps virus is a paramyxovirus and hence has a single-stranded RNA genome
B. Meningitis is a recognized complication of mumps
C. Mumps orchitis in boys can causes sterility
D. During mumps, the virus spreads through the bloodstream (viremia) to various internal organs
E. *Mumps virus has not hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
Each of the following statements concerning measles vaccine is correct EXCEPT:
A. *The vaccine should not be given in conjunction with other viral vaccines because
interference can occur
B. The vaccine contains live, attenuated virus
C. Virus in the vaccine contains only one serotype
D. The vaccine should not be given prior to 15 months of age because maternal antibodies can
prevent an immune response
E. Measles vaccine is in MMR vaccine
1162.
1163.
1164.
1165.
1166.
1167.
1168.
1169.
Each of the following clinical syndromes is associated with infection by picornaviruses EXCEPT:
A. Myocarditis/pericarditis
B. Hepatitis
C. *Mononucleosis
D. Meningitis
E. Herpangina
Each of the following statements concerning influenza is correct EXCEPT:
A. *The antigenic changes that occur with antigenic drift are due to reassortment of the multiple
pieces of the influenza virus genome
B. Major epidemics of the disease are caused by influenza A viruses rather than influenza B and
C viruses
C. Likely sources of new antigens for influenza A viruses are the viruses that cause influenza in
animals
D. Major antigenic changes (shifts) of viral surface proteins are seen primarily in influenza A
viruses rather than in influenza B and C viruses
E. The point mutations of the influenza virus genome are due to minor antigenic changes (drift)
Each of the following statements concerning the antigenicity of influenza A virus is correct
EXCEPT:
A. Antigenic shifts affect both the hemagglutinin and the neuraminidase
B. *The protein involved in antigenic drift is primarily the internal ribonucleoprotein
C. The worldwide epidemics caused by influenza A virus are due to antigenic shifts
D. Antigenic shifts, which represent major changes in antigenicity, occur infrequently and are
due to the recombination (reassortment) of segments of the viral genome
E. Antibodies against hemagglutinin can prevent influenza A
Each of the following statements concerning the prevention and treatment of influenza is correct
EXCEPT:
A. *As with all live vaccines, the influenza vaccine should not be given to pregnant women
B. Booster doses of the vaccine are recommended because the duration of immunity is only a
year
C. Amantadine is an effective prophylactic drug only against influenza A viruses
D. The major antigen in the vaccine is the hemagglutinin
E. Tamiflu is effective drug against influenza A and B viruses
Each of the following statements regarding poliovirus and its vaccine is correct EXCEPT:
A. Poliovirus is transmitted by the fecal-oral route
B. *Pathogenesis by poliovirus primarily involves the death of sensory neurons
C. The live, attenuated vaccine contains all three serotypes of poliovirus
D. An unimmunized adult traveling to underdeveloped countries should receive the inactivated
vaccine
E. Poliovirus early multiplicates in oropharynx and intestinal mucosa
Early methods of diagnosis of Influenza are used for examination of:
A. presence of antibodies
B. toxin production
C. *family and species of viruses
D. increase of antibodies titer in the patient’s serum
E. All answers are correct
Family of Measles virus is:
A. *Paramyxoviridae
B. Flaviviridae
C. Parvoviridae
D. Filoviridae
E. Herpesviridae
Family Picornaviridae includes viruses with following morphology:
*naked viruses;
enveloped viruses;
genome is positive double -stranded RNA;
genome is negative single -stranded RNA;
virus containing double-stranded DNA.
For cultivating of Influenza viruses virologist utilize the cell cultures. What is continuous cell
line?
A. RD
B. Vero
C. Hep-2
D. HeLa
E. *All answers are correct
For establishment of type of virus, which causes of Influenza disease such test is utilized:
A. Agglutination test
B. Indirect haemagglutination test
C. *Hemagglutination inhibition test
D. Haemagglutination test
E. Hemadsorption test
For isolation of neurotropic viruses it is necessary to make _______ inoculation:
A. enteral
B. intravenous
C. *intracerebral
D. intranasal
E. intramuscular
For the indication of Epidemic parotitis viruses in tested material such test may be used:
A. Latex-agglutination test
B. CFT
C. Indirect haemagglutination test
D. Coagglutination test
E. *Inoculation of cell culture
For the indication of Influenza viruses in tested material such test may be used:
A. Latex-agglutination test
B. CFT
C. Coagglutination test
D. *Inoculation of chicken embryos
E. Agglutination test
For the indication of Parainfluenza viruses in tested material such test may be used:
A. Latex-agglutination test
B. CFT
C. *Hemadsorbtion test
D. Coagglutination test
E. Agglutination test
For the indication of Polioviruses in tested material such test may be used:
A. *Inoculation of laboratory animal
B. CFT
C. IHAT
D. Coagglutination test
E. Agglutination test
For the isolation of Influenza viruses in chicken we can inject the tested material into/on:
A. Chorioallantoic membrane
B. Amniotic cavity
C. Allantoic cavity
D. *All answers are correct
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1170.
1171.
1172.
1173.
1174.
1175.
1176.
1177.
E. No correct answer
1178.
1179.
1180.
1181.
1182.
1183.
1184.
1185.
1186.
For which of following diseases we can put diagnosis in prodromal stage?
A. Flu
B. Mumps
C. Parainflluenza
D. *Measles
E. RS-bronchiolitis
Genom of influenza virus A consists of:
A. 2 segments
B. 4 segments
C. 6 segments
D. *8 segments
E. 10 segments
Genom of influenza virus B consists of:
A. 2 segments
B. 4 segments
C. 6 segments
D. *8 segments
E. 10 segments
Genus of Measles virus is:
A. Varicellovirus
B. Simplexvirus
C. Lentivirus
D. Pneumovirus
E. *Morbillivirus
Genus of RS virus is:
A. Varicellovirus
B. Simplexvirus
C. Lentivirus
D. *Pneumovirus
E. Morbillivirus
Given an influenza virus A/Bangkok/1/79/H3N2/, what does 1/79 stand for?
A. The type of influenza virus
B. The location it was originally isolated
C. *The date it was originally isolated (January, 1979)
D. The virulence ration (one person can infect 79 others)
E. The antigen present
Given an influenza virus A/Bangkok/1/79/H3N2/, what does (H3N2) stand for?
A. The type of influenza virus
B. The location it was originally isolated
C. The date it was originally isolated
D. The virulence ration
E. *The antigen present
Hemadsorption test is used in virology of diagnosis of Parainfluenza. It is necessary to have such
ingredients for this test:
A. Antiviral antibodies, cell cultures, red cells
B. Sheep’s red cells, virus, cell cultures
C. Cell cultures, antiviral antibodies, electrolyte
D. *Virus, cell cultures, chicken red cells, electrolyte
E. Red cells, viral diagnosticum, cell cultures
How is influenza transmitted?
A. Aerosols from cold, dry air such as outdoors in the winter
B. *Aerosols from person-to-person such as from coughiting
C. Fecal-oral such as from a cook that does not wash their hands
D. Vector-borne such as from lice
E. Water –borne such as from drinking contaminated fluids
1187.
1188.
1189.
1190.
1191.
1192.
1193.
1194.
1195.
How many segments of RNA has influenza virus A:
A. 2 segments
B. 4 segments
C. 6 segments
D. *8 segments
E. 10 segments
Identify the true statement cited below concerning the Sabin (live) polio vaccine.
A. Infectious progeny virus cannot be disseminated from the vaccinated individual.
B. *The vaccine confers humoral and intestinal immunity.
C. Induction of lifelong immunity is not possible.
D. It can be given to immunodeficient individuals without reservation.
E. It is administered parenterally.
Immunization of an infant with this vaccine causes shedding of vaccine strain virus in stool
A. *Sabin vaccine
B. Salk vaccine
C. Both
D. Neither
E. Subunity vaccine
Immunologic tests, which need the presence of antibodies, are utilized in virology for:
A. Examination of antibodies titer in paired patient’s sera
B. Examination of unknown viruses
C. Examination of antiviral antibodies
D. Identification of virus
E. *All answers are correct
In a sick woman the doctor suspected measles. What family does Measles virus belong to?
A. *Paramyxoviridae
B. Orthomyxoviridae
C. Rhabdoviridae
D. Picornaviridae
E. No correct answer
In the cell culture there may be cytopathic effect under the influence of Parainfluenza viruses.
Show such effect:
A. *Syncitium formation
B. Protoplasts formation
C. Heteroplasts formation
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
Infection by these viruses is preventable with a licensed vaccine
A. Coxsackievirus A
B. Coxsackievirus B
C. Enterovirus 72
D. *Poliovirus
E. Rhinovirus
Influenza viruses are predominantly transmitted by:
A. The aerosol route during the summer
B. Close physical contact during the summer
C. The fecal-oral route during the winter
D. *The aerosol route and close physical contact during the winter
E. The fecal-oral route during the spring and summer
Influenza viruses:
*Have a helical nucleocapsid with a core of single-stranded RNA
Lack a lipid envelope
Have an icosahedral nucleocapsid with a core of double-stranded DNA
Have an icosahedral nucleocapsid with a core of double-stranded RNA
Have a helical nucleocapsid with a core of single-stranded DNA
Last year’s influenza A vaccine is unlikely to be effective today because influenza A virus
A. *Undergoes genetic variation
B. Has a heavy polysaccharide coat
C. Immunosuppresses the host
D. Kills lymphocytes
E. Resists inactivation by complement
Match Measles, Mumps, and Rubella with the vaccine types licensed and available for prevention
of the disease:
A. killed virus vaccine (but not a subunit vaccine)
B. killed virus vaccine (but not a subunit vaccine) AND live virus vaccines
C. viral subunit vaccine
D. *live virus vaccine
E. no virus vaccine is licensed and available
Measles virus. All are correct, except
A. Infection may result in pneumonia
B. Infection may result in encephalitis
C. *Undergo antigenic drift
D. Koplik’s spots present on oral mucose
E. May be prevented by vaccination
Paralytic disease is a risk factor when using this vaccine
A. *Sabin vaccine
B. Salk vaccine
C. Both
D. Neither
E. Subunity vaccine
Polymerases are encoded on the genomes of:
A. All viruses
B. All DNA viruses
C. *All RNA viruses
D. Only the largest viruses (ex. Herpesviruses, Paramyxoviruses, Rhabdoviruses, and
Poxviruses)
E. No viruses, because viruses do not encode polymerases
Polyoviruses have a (an)
A. is icosahedral and contains double-stranded RNA
B. bullet-shaped and contains RNA
C. has a lipid envelope and contains double-stranded DNA
D. is icosahedral and contains single-stranded DNA
E. *is icosahedral and contains single-stranded RNA
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is most associated with which of the following syndromes:
A. Bronchiolitis of young adults
B. *Bronchiolitis of young infants
C. Upper lobe infiltrates of young adults
D. Upper lobe infiltrates of young children
E. Lower lobe infiltrates of young adults
Select the correct answer:
A. *The Sabin vaccine is administered orally
B. The Salk vaccine consist of live attenuated poliovirus strains
C. The Sabin vaccine consist of killed poliovirus strains
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1196.
1197.
1198.
1199.
1200.
1201.
1202.
1203.
D. The Salk vaccine can stimulate production of intestinal secretory antibodies
E. The Sabin vaccine consist of one type of the polioviruses
1204.
1205.
1206.
1207.
1208.
1209.
1210.
1211.
1212.
Show the components of haemadsorption test of diagnosis of Parainfluenza:
A. Serum of patient, sheep’s red cells, electrolyte
B. *Viral material, tissue culture, chicken red cells, electrolyte
C. Specific antibodies, viral material, cell cultures, electrolyte
D. Viral material, chicken red cells, electrolyte
E. Cell cultures, sheep’s red cells, patient’s serum, electrolyte
Show the viruses, which are susceptible to low concentration of hydrogen ions (acidic рН)?
A. *Rhinoviruses
B. Hepatitis A viruses
C. Polioviruses
D. ECHO viruses
E. Coxsackie viruses
Specify inside following drugs, which can ihibit all types and subtypes of influenza viruses
A. Amantadin
B. Remantadin
C. Riboverin
D. *Tamiflu
E. Acyclovir
Specify the source of formation of Hep-2 cell culture:
A. Carcinoma of oral cavity
B. *Carcinoma of human larynx
C. Carcinoma of the neck of the uterus
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
E. Myelogenic cells
The _____ of the influenza-enveloped virus appear to be involved in attachment to the host cell
receptor site.
A. Pili
B. Fimbriae
C. Flagellae
D. *Hemagluttinin
E. Neuraminidase
The antibody induced by which ot the following parts of the influenza virus is most protective?
A. envelope
B. neuraminidase
C. *hemagglutinin
D. nucleic acid
E. internal protein
The antiviral used for treatment of severe respiratory syncytial disease (RSV) infection is:
A. amantadine
B. acyclovir
C. *ribavirin
D. immune globulin
E. AZT
The best drug for therapy influenza is:
A. *Tamiflu
B. Interferon alpha
C. Imipenem
D. Amantadine
E. Acyclovir
The chicken embryos are most frequently utilized for cultivation of viruses. Show the age of such
ones:
1-7 days
*5-14 days
5-6 weeks
7-8 weeks
9-10 days
The following characterizes the genome of the orthomyxoviruses:
A. Nonsegmented RNA genome
B. *Segmented RNA genome
C. Nonsegmented DNA genome
D. Segmented DNA genome
E. Supercoiled double stranded DNA genome
The following is true of influenza viruses:
A. Both influenza A and B viruses have antigenic shift and drift
B. Neither influenza A nor B viruses have antigenic shift or drift
C. Influenza A and B viruses have antigenic shift; only influenza A has antigenic drift
D. Influenza A and B viruses have antigenic drift; only influenza B has antigenic shift
E. *Influenza A and B viruses have antigenic drift; only influenza A has antigenic shift
The most practical test for the diagnosis of influenza A virus
A. *hemagglutination inhibition test
B. demonstration of the virus in urine
C. demonstration of virus in sputum by electron microscopy
D. demonstration of antibodies to viral neuraminidase
E. detection of viral antigens in spinal fluid
The periodic occurrence of influenza pandemics is attributable to:
A. *The ineffectiveness of antibodies against one viral subtype to protect against new subtypes
B. The long time it takes for the virus to spread around the word and return to its starting point
C. A periodic change in the host for the virus
D. The tendency of the virus to attack only elderly people
E. The periodic disappearance of the virus for years at a time.
The principal reservoir for the antigenic shift variants of influenza virus appears to be
A. Birds and insecta
B. People in isolated communities such as the Arctic
C. Soil, especially in the tropics
D. Sewage
E. *Animals, specifically pigs, horses, and fowl
The vaccine for measles is best characterized as a
A. Bacterin
B. Killed virus vaccine
C. Inactivated virus vaccine
D. *Live virus vaccine
E. Recombinant viral vaccine
The virus that caused the swelling of the parotid glands of the boy contains
A. reverse transcriptase
B. DNA polymerase
C. *neuraminidase
D. pyrophosphatase
E. phosphorylase
Therapy of Influenza virus is:
A. Cefotaxime
B. Interferon alpha
C. Imipenem
D. *Amantadine
E. Acyclovir
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1213.
1214.
1215.
1216.
1217.
1218.
1219.
1220.
1221.
1222.
1223.
1224.
1225.
1226.
1227.
1228.
1229.
There are such serologic (late) methods of laboratory diagnosis of Influenza:
A. *Complement fixation test with paired sera
B. Neutralization test, color test
C. Haemagglutination test with paired sera
D. Hemadsorption test
E. Indirect haemagglutination test, haemagglutination inhibition test
There are such viruses, which are included into Picornaviridae:
A. *Polioviruses
B. Parainfluenza viruses
C. Rubella viruses
D. Hepatitis C
E. Sindbis virus
There may be such way/s of laboratory animal inoculation for isolation of viruses:
A. enteric
B. intravenously
C. intracerebral
D. intranasal
E. *All answers are correct
This vaccines are available, and used, in the most countries for prevention of poliomyelitis.
A. Sabin vaccine
B. Salk vaccine
C. *Sabin and Salk vaccines
D. Subunity vaccine
E. Neither
Under the bentonit coverage there may be such phenomenon in consequence of viral action of
Polyoviruses:
A. *Plaques formation
B. Ring formation
C. Cluster formation
D. Haemagglutination
E. All answers are correct
We can make identification of unknown Polioviruses when we use:
A. *neutralization test
B. haemadsorption test
C. haemagglutination test
D. agglutination test
E. No correct answer
We can use virologic (early) methods of diagnosis of Influenza for examination of:
A. *presence of viruses
B. a presence of antibodies against the viruses
C. increase of antibodies titer in patients serum
D. presence of viral toxins
E. All answers are correct
What disease has this boy? (fig. 2)
A. Flu
B. Parainfluenza
C. Measles
D. *Mumps
E. Aseptic meningitis
What is cytopathic action of Influenza viruses?
A. The changes of biological properties of viruses after their penetration in a cell.
B. *Any degenerative changes of cells under the influence of viruses.
C. The changes of biological properties of viruses after their release from a cell.
D. Formation of multinuclear cells as a result of viral penetration.
E. Formation of intranuclear or intracytoplasm bodies in the cell after viral penetration.
1230.
1231.
1232.
1233.
1234.
1235.
1236.
1237.
1238.
What is productive type of viral infection?
A. Integration of viruses into cell genome.
B. *Reproduction of viruses in a cell with formation of new generation of virulent viruses.
C. A blockade of reproduction of viruses in a cell.
D. Ability of viruses to attach to the cell surface.
E. Features of reproduction of viral nucleic acids.
What is the function of “F” viral protein of Parainfluenza viruses?
A. *Provides fusion of viral shell with the cell.
B. Provides replication of DNA.
C. Provides replication of RNA.
D. Provides the release of viruses from a cell.
E. Provides translation.
What is the origin of HeLa cell culture?
A. Carcinoma of oral cavity
B. Carcinoma of human larynx
C. *Carcinoma of the neck of the uterus
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
E. Myelogenic cells
What viruses are a spherical shape?
A. *Epidemic parotitis virus
B. Tobacco mosaic disease viruses
C. Herpes virus
D. Adenovirus
E. Hepatitis C virus
What viruses do cause haemagglutination of red cells?
A. Influenza viruses
B. Epidemic parotitis viruses
C. Parainfluenza viruses
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
What viruses do have haemagglutinin and neuramonidase?
A. *Influenza viruses
B. Polioviruses
C. Human immunodeficiency viruses
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
Which influenza virus has caused pandemi in 1916-1919 years
A. Influenza B virus
B. *H1 N1 virus
C. H2 N2 virus
D. H3 N2 virus
E. Influenza C virus
Which of the following has been associated with hepatitits?
A. Coxsackievirus A
B. Coxsackievirus B
C. *Enterovirus 72
D. Poliovirus
E. Rhinovirus
Which of the following infects oropharynx, but not the intestine because the virus is sensitive to
low pH?
A. Coxsackievirus A
Coxsackievirus B
Enterovirus 72
Poliovirus
*Rhinovirus
Which of the following is known to exist in only one major antigenic type EXCEPT:
A. Measles
B. Rubella
C. Mumps
D. Rabies
E. *Influenza A
Which of the following is not true for influenza viruses?
A. Enveope contains hemagglutinins
B. Enveope contains neuraminidase
C. Enveope lined with two M proteins
D. Capsid symmetry is pleomorphic (spherical or tubular)
E. *Influenza A,B and C have 8 genomic segments
Which of the following is the least likely clinical syndrome associated with influenza viral
infection?
A. “Seal bark” cough in children (croup)
B. Fever persisting for 3-8 days
C. *Otitis media in children
D. Malaise, headache, and myalgia
E. Secondary bacterial pneumonia
Which of the following is true concerning a RS-viruses?
A. The genome is segmented
B. Neuraminidase and hemagglutinin are envelope proteins
C. *It has fussion protein
D. RS-virus is resistent to ether
E. RS-virus causes water diarrhoea
Which of the following is true concerning the orthomyxoviruses?
A. Influenza A, B, and C cause epidemics
B. B.Neuraminidase and hemagglutinin are nucleocapsid proteins
C. *The genome is segmented, composed of eight RNA units
D. The matrix protein is important for vaccine inclusion
E. Dogs are a reservoir of influenza hemagglutinin and neuraminidase subtypes
Which of the following is true concerning the orthomyxoviruses?
A. Influenza A, B, and C cause epidemics
B. Neuraminidase and hemagglutinin are nucleocapsid proteins
C. *The genome is segmented, composed of eight RNA units
D. The matrix protein is important for vaccine inclusion
E. Dogs are a reservoir of influenza hemagglutinin and neuraminidase subtypes
Which of the following is true for influenza viruses?
A. Double-stranded DNA
B. Double-stranded RNA
C. Single-stranded positive sense RNA
D. *Single-stranded negative sense RNA
E. Not a DNA or RNA virus
Which of the following is true regarding the drugs amantadine and rimantadine?
A. *Inhibit an uncoating step of the influenza A virus but do not affect influenza B and C viruses
B. Inhibit influenza A as enzyme inhibitors of neuraminidase, preventing virus release but does
not affect influenza B and C viruses
C. Inhibit both influenza A and B as enzymes inhibitors of neuraminidase, preventing virus
release.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1239.
1240.
1241.
1242.
1243.
1244.
1245.
1246.
D. Inhibit an uncoating step both influenza A and B viruses but do not affect the influenza B and
C viruses
E. Inhibit an uncoating step only influenza C viruses
1247.
1248.
1249.
1250.
1251.
1252.
1253.
1254.
Which of the following is true regarding the drugs zanamivir and oseltmivir?
A. Inhibit an uncoating step of the influenza A virus but do not affect influenza B and C viruses
B. Inhibit influenza A as enzyme inhibitors of neuraminidase, preventing virus release but does
not affect influenza B and C viruses
C. *Inhibit both influenza A and B as enzymes inhibitors of neuraminidase, preventing virus
release.
D. Inhibit an uncoating step both influenza A and B viruses but do not affect the influenza B and
C viruses
E. Inhibit an uncoating step only influenza C viruses
Which of the following is/are continuous cell line/s?
A. HeLa.
B. HEp-2.
C. KB.
D. Detroit 5
E. *All of the above
Which of the following is/are true about the influenza vaccine?
A. The vaccine is recommended for health care workers, patients with cardiopulmonary
complications, and geriatric patients.
B. The constitution of the vaccine changes every year.
C. Both influenza A and B virus strains are included in the vaccine.
D. The viruses used in the vaccine are propagated in embryonated chicken eggs.
E. *All of the above answers.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the envelope constituents of the
parainfluenza and mumps viruses?
A. Hemagglutinin, but no neuraminidase or fusion proteins present
B. Neuraminidase, but no hemagglutinin protein present
C. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase, but no fusion protein present
D. *Hemagglutinin, neuraminidase and fusion proteins present
E. Fusion protein, but no hemagglutinin or neuraminidase present
Which of the following statements best describes antigenic shift within the orthomyxoviruses?
A. A minor antigenic change of the envelope proteins
B. *A major antigenic change of the envelope proteins
C. A medium antigenic change of the envelope proteins
D. A minor lipid change of the envelope proteins
E. A major lipid change of the envelope proteins
Which of the following statements best describes antigenic shift within the orthomyxoviruses?
A. A minor antigenic change of the envelope proteins
B. *A major antigenic change of the envelope proteins
C. A medium antigenic change of the envelope proteins
D. A minor lipid change of the envelope proteins
E. A major lipid change of the envelope proteins
Which of the following viruses can incorporate the molecule serving as mRNA into its capsid?
A. herpesvirus
B. rhabdovirus
C. poxvirus
D. *picornavirus
E. measles
Which of the following viruses is classified as a paramyxovirus?
A. poliovirus
B. *measles virus
C. ECHO virus
D. influenza A virus
E. influenza B virus
1255.
1256.
1257.
1258.
1259.
1260.
1261.
1262.
1263.
Which of the following viruses is classified as an orthomyxovirus?
A. mumps virus
B. measles virus
C. RSV
D. parainfluenza virus
E. *influenza B virus
Which of the following viruses makes mRNA from an RNA template?
A. poxvirus
B. retrovirus
C. *picornavirus
D. herpesvirus
E. adenovirus
Which one of the following statements concerning poliovirus infection is CORRECT?
A. Congenital infection of the fetus is an important complication
B. *The virus replicates extensively in the gastrointestinal tract
C. A skin test is available to determine prior exposure to the virus
D. Amantadine is an effective preventive agent
E. Polioviruses are transmited by vector (ticks)
Which one of the following strategies is MOST likely to induce lasting intestinal mucosal
immunity to poliovirus?
A. Parenteral (intramuscular) vaccination with inactivated vaccine
B. Oral administration of poliovirus immune globulin
C. Parenteral vaccination with live vaccine
D. *Oral vaccination with live vaccine
E. Oral administration only one serotype of inactivated poliovirus
Which proteins of influenza viruses are included in vaccine preparations?
A. Neuraminidase
B. Neuraminidase and fusion proteins
C. Hemagglutinin
D. *Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
E. Hemagglutinin, neuraminidase and fusion proteins
Which test can we use for detect type of infiuenza virus?
A. Hemagglutination
B. Hemagglutination ihibition
C. Neutralisation
D. *Complement fixation
E. ELISA
Which virus has a naked nucleocapsid?
A. herpesvirus
B. mumps
C. influenza
D. chicken pox
E. *picornavirus
A vaccine (live attenuated) only currently exists for which of the following?
A. Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
B. Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)
C. *Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
D. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
E. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
About 5% of adults secrete this virus in urine:
*CMV
EBV
HSV-2
HHV-6
VZV
An adenovirus contains:
A. a neuraminidase
B. fibrinolysisn
C. a double shelled capsid
D. *D.DNA genome
E. an envelope
An adenovirus:
A. has a neuraminidase
B. *has a hemagglutinin
C. has a double shelled capsid
D. has an RNA genome
E. has an envelope
Approximately 5% of adults secrete this in saliva and urine:
A. HSV-2
B. *CMV
C. VZV
D. EBV
E. HHV-6
At which diseases we can detect Negri bodies?
A. herpes
B. *rabies
C. smalpox
D. poliomyelitis
E. measles
At which specimen we can indicate herpes zoster virus ?
A. blood
B. saliva.
C. spinal fluid.
D. swab from ulcer bed.
E. *vesicle fluid.
Choose among following diseases associated with Epstein-Barr virus:
A. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
B. T-cell leukemia
C. *Infectious mononucleosis
D. herpes zoster
E. all of the above
Choose among following Family of yellow fever virus:
A. Bunyaviridae
B. *Flaviviridae
C. Reoviridae
D. Rhabdoviridae
E. Togaviridae
Choose among listed a common feature of infection caused by cytomegalovirus?
A. Chronic progressive tissue damage for many years
B. Dissemination to many body sites, including trans-placental passage
C. Rapid progression to encephalitis and death
D. *Severe vesiculation of epithelium and mucous membranes
E. Spontaneous recovery with life-long latency
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1264.
1265.
1266.
1267.
1268.
1269.
1270.
1271.
1272.
1273.
1274.
1275.
1276.
1277.
1278.
1279.
1280.
Choose among listed a most common feature of infection caused by herpes simplex virus?
A. Chronic progressive fatigue
B. Chronic progressive tissue damage for many years
C. Dissemination to many body sites, including trans-placental passage
D. Rapid progression to encephalitis and death
E. *Spontaneous recovery with life-long latency
Choose among listed the primary means of spread of varicella zoster virus:
A. direct contact with lesions
B. direct contact with sick child
C. fecal-oral route
D. *respiratory droplets
E. saliva
Choose among listed which viruses don’t cause latency infection.
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Varicella-zoster virus
D. *Polioviruses
E. Ebstain-Barr virus
Choose insect as vector for Japanese encephalitis virus?
A. *mosquito.
B. flea.
C. C..fly
D. tick
E. All of the above.
Choose inside listed the vector for West Nile virus?
A. flea
B. fly
C. louse
D. *mosquito
E. batterfly.
Exanthem subitum (roseola) is caused by:
A. *human herpes virus 6
B. human herpes virus 7
C. measles virus
D. varicella zoster virus
E. cytomegalovirus
For specific prophylaxis of a tick-borne encephalitis is used:
A. immunoglobulin
B. *formolated vaccine
C. toxoid
D. specific hyperimmune serum
E. live vaccine.
For which of the following viruses is the presence of heterophile antibody diagnostic?
A. *EBV
B. CMV
C. HSV-1
D. HHV-7
E. varicella zoster virus
For whom rubella infection causes long term dangerous complications?
A. Women of childbearing age
B. *Children infected in the first trimester in utero
C. Children infected during the first grade (age 6-7 yrs)
D. Children who have received the attenuated vaccine
E. Children who have received the interferon
1281.
1282.
1283.
1284.
1285.
1286.
1287.
1288.
1289.
From which specimen herpes simplex virus type II is most likely to be recovered:
A. Saliva
B. Serum
C. Spinal fluid
D. Swab from ulcer
E. *Vesicle fluid
How are the herpes viruses classified?
A. Single stranded DNA, non enveloped
B. *Double stranded DNA, enveloped
C. Positive stranded RNA, enveloped
D. Positive stranded RNA, non enveloped
E. Double stranded DNA, non enveloped
How can an eye infection by a specific serotype of adenovirus be diagnosed?
A. By monitoring the response of the infection to steroid therapy.
B. *By using serotype antibody to test inhibition of hemagglutination.
C. By detecting the presence of viral double stranded DNA.
D. By using electron microscopy to detect viral particles in an eye swab.
E. By detecting nuclear inclusions in infected cells collected in an eye swab.
In addition to acute respiratory diseases, adenoviruses also cause:
A. Tumors in humans
B. *Acute diarrhea in children
C. Diabetes
D. Otitis media
E. Gastric ulcers
In which component of adenovirus the hemagglutinin is found?
A. The core
B. The DNA protein
C. The hexon
D. The M protein
E. *The penton with fiber
In which of the following do T cells appear as atypical lymphocytes (Downey cells)?
A. *Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
B. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
D. Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
E. Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)
Latency is a feature of which group of viruses?
A. Polioviruses
B. Poxviruses
C. *Herpesviruses
D. Paramyxoviruses
E. Hepatitis A Viruses
Match yellow fever virus (Arbovirus) with its family.
A. Reoviridae
B. *Flaviviridae
C. Bunyaviridae
D. Togaviridae
E. Rhabdoviridae
Negri bodies are found in cells infected with:
A. *rabies virus.
B. vaccinia virus.
C. fowlpox virus.
D. paramyxoviruses.
E. measles virus
1290.
1291.
1292.
1293.
1294.
1295.
1296.
1297.
1298.
Rabies can be acquired as a result of:
A. inhalation of aerosolized virus
B. a bite of a rabid animal
C. inoculation through mucous membranes
D. transplantation of infected tissue
E. *all of the above
Rabies can be happened in human as a result of:
A. a bite of an animal with rabies
B. inhalation of aerosolized virus
C. inoculation through mucous membranes
D. transplantation of infected tissue
E. *all of the above
Regarding laboratory tests for rubella
A. Rubella virus doesn’t cause haemagglutination
B. CFT is commonly used for the diagnosis of acute infection
C. *IgM antibody is usually detectable after the onset of rash
D. Rubella virus cannot be cultured
E. Pre-natal diagnosis of rubella in a foetus is simple and reliable
Rubella infection causes long term serious sequelae in which of the following populations?
A. Women of childbearing age
B. *Children infected in the first trimester in utero
C. Children infected during the first grade (age 6-7 yrs)
D. Children who have received the attenuated vaccine
E. Children who have received the interferon
Rubella infection. Choose noncorrect answer
A. Can be asymptomatic
B. May be indistinguishable from parvovirus B19
C. *Can have serious side effects when occurring in a woman in the third trimester of pregnancy
D. Is usually preventable by vaccination
E. May be acquired by having close contact with an infant with congenital rubella syndrome
Rubella Virus
A. Is teratogenic
B. Congenital rubella is charaterised by eye, ear and heart defects
C. Congenital rubella is diagnosed by the finding of rubella-specific antibody in the cord blood
of infants
D. Infants with congenital rubella poses a great infectious risk.
E. *All are correct
The following are viral zoonoses, except
A. *Rubella
B. Rabies
C. Hantaviruses
D. Lassa Fever
E. Japanese Encephalitis
The following is true of rabies virus, except one:
A. Negri-bodies inclusions are present
B. Infection may be prevented by active and passive immunisation
C. *Human Rabies vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine
D. The animal reservoir differ from country to country
E. May be diagnosed by serology
?The following statements are true, except one:
A. Dengue virus infection result from bites by Aedes mosquitoes
B. Cases of dengue haemorrhagic fever usually result from reinfection by a different serotype of
dengue virus
C. *Pigs act as the reservoir for dengue virus
D. Yellow fever may be prevented by vaccination
E. Yellow fever infection result from bites by mosquitoes
1299.
1300.
1301.
1302.
1303.
1304.
1305.
1306.
The hemagglutinin of adenovirus is found in which viral protein?
A. The core
B. The hexon
C. *The penton
D. The M protein
E. The DNA protein
The most common viral cause of congenital defects is:
A. *cytomegalovirus
B. mumps virus
C. measles virus
D. herpes simplex virus
E. adenovirus
The primary means of spread of varicella zoster virus is:
A. direct contact with lesions
B. *respiratory droplets
C. saliva
D. fecal-oral route
E. direct contact with sick child
The shape of rabies virus is:
A. *Bullet-shaped
B. Polygonal.
C. Spherical
D. Stick-like
E. Tubular.
The specimen from which varicella-zocter virus is most likely to be recovered is:
A. Swab from ulcer
B. Saliva
C. *Vesicle fluid
D. Spinal fluid
E. Serum
The virus associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma is:
A. *EBV
B. flue virus
C. HIV
D. VZV
E. HHV-6
Viruses that routinely establish latent infections in human sensory ganglia include
A. Herpes Simplex Virus type 1
B. Varicella-Zoster Virus
C. Herpes Simplex Virus type 2
D. *All of the above
E. There are not correct answers
What does disease occur after contamination by varicella zoster virus in children?
A. aphthous stomatitis.
B. chronic fatigue syndrome
C. infectious mononucleosis.
D. *varicella.
E. neuritis
1307.
1308.
1309.
1310.
1311.
1312.
1313.
1314.
1315.
What is the reactivation of herpez zoster virus in an adult called?
A. infectious mononucleosis.
B. *shingles.
C. aphthous stomatitis.
D. chronic fatigue syndrome.
E. neuritis
What is the shape of rabies virus?
A. Spherical.
B. Polygonal.
C. *Bullet-shaped.
D. Tubular.
E. Stick-like
What is the specimen from which herpes simplex virus is most likely to be cultured:
A. saliva.
B. spinal fluid.
C. *vesicle fluid.
D. swab from ulcer.
E. blood
What viruses spread between animals and humans.
A. horses often spread chicken pox to children
B. all colds are spread from cats to people.
C. *a dog infected with rabies can infect people by biting them.
D. a cows infected with measles will infect anyone who walks near it.
E. flu is spread from pigs to people.
Where we can detect of rabies antigen by direct immunofluorescence antemortem?
A. hippocampal neuron
B. *corneal scrapings.
C. blood
D. hairs
E. brain
Which antiviral agent is commonly used to combat herpes simplex virus infections?
A. azidothymidine
B. *acyclovir
C. foscarnet
D. idoxuridine
E. ? interferon
Which antiviral drug is used to cure simplex virus infections?
A. *acyclovir
B. azidothymidine
C. foscarnet
D. idoxuridine
E. ? interferon
Which antiviral drug is used to prevent recurrent HSV infections?
A. *acyclovir
B. amantidine
C. azidothymidine
D. phosphonoformate
E. ribavirin
Which herpesvirus among listed does cause Burkitt’s lymphomamononucleosis?
A. VZV
B. *EBV
C. polyovirus
D. HSV-2
E. HSV-1
1316.
1317.
1318.
1319.
1320.
1321.
1322.
1323.
1324.
Which herpesviruses cause mononucleosis?
A. VZV-1 and HSV-2
B. *EBV and CMV
C. EBV and herpes B virus
D. CMV and VZV
E. HSV-1and HSV-2
Which is the vector for West Nile virus?
A. flea
B. fly
C. louse
D. *mosquito
E. tick.
Which of the following act as amplifying hosts of Japanese encephalitis virus?
A. Water birds and man.
B. Pigs and man.
C. *Water birds and pigs.
D. Cows and goats.
E. Cats and dogs.
Which of the following anti-viral drugs is used to prevent recurrent HSV infections?
A. amantidine
B. ribavirin
C. phosphonoformate
D. *acyclovir
E. azidothymidine
Which of the following are reservoir of Japanese encephalitis virus?
A. Cats and dogs.
B. Cows and goats.
C. Pigs and man.
D. Water birds and man.
E. *Water birds and pigs.
Which of the following arthropodes act/s as vector for Japanese encephalitis virus?
A. *mosquito.
B. flea.
C. fly
D. tick
E. All of the above.
Which of the following describes the structure of herpes viruses?
A. *Double-stranded DNA, icosahedral 162 capsid, enveloped
B. Double-stranded DNA, icosahedral 162 capsid, non-enveloped
C. Single-stranded DNA, icosahedral 162 capsid, enveloped
D. Single-stranded DNA, icosahedral 162 capsid, non-enveloped
E. Single-stranded RNA, icosahedral 162 capsid, enveloped
Which of the following has been linked to Kaposi's sarcoma?
A. Epstein-Barr virus
B. Human T-cell lymphotropic virus
C. Human immunodefficiency virus
D. Human papilloma virus
E. *Human herpes virus 8
Which of the following is NOT an effect of acyclovir?
A. *Elimination of latent virus
B. Suppression of recurrent herpes infections, if taken daily in high doses
C. Activation by a viral enzyme inside infected cells
D. Active topically or orally or intravenously
E. Active for treatment all herpes infections
1325.
1326.
1327.
1328.
1329.
1330.
1331.
1332.
1333.
Which of the following is not teratogenic in humans?
A. rubella virus
B. herpes simplex virus type 2
C. cytomegalovirus
D. herpes simplex virus type 1
E. *phage T4
Which of the following is not true about latency?
A. is a universal property of herpes viruses
B. has the ability to remain in host cells for long periods
C. retains the ability to replicate
D. is reactivated as a result of psychological or physical factors
E. *usually remains in nephrons
Which of the following viral genera is/are not arthropod-borne?
A. Alphavirus.
B. Flavivirus.
C. *Rubivirus
D. Togavirus
E. All of the above.
Which of the following viral genera is/are not transmited by insects?
A. Alphavirus.
B. Alphavirus.
C. Togavirus
D. *Rubivirus.
E. All of the above.
Which of the following virus is associated with Kaposi’s sarkoma?
A. Epstein Barr virus
B. Hepatitis A virus
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. Human T cell leukemia virus
E. *Human herpesvirus 8
Which of the following viruses can cause B cell lymphoma in humans?
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Human papilloma viruses
C. *Epstein-Barr Virus
D. Human T-cell lymphotropic virus
E. Hepatitis B virus
Which of the following viruses can cause prenatal infection?
A. Rubella.
B. Cytomegalovirus.
C. Varicella-zoster.
D. *All of the above.
E. none all of the above
Which of the following viruses can stimulate production of the heterophile antibodies?
A. CMV
B. *EBV
C. HSV-1
D. HHV-7
E. varicella zoster virus
Which of the following viruses cause/s genital infection?
A. Molluscum contagiosum.
B. Human papillomavirus type 6.
C. Herpes simplex virus type 2.
D. adenovirus serotype 37
E. *all of the above.
1334.
1335.
1336.
1337.
1338.
1339.
1340.
1341.
1342.
Which one of the following is a common feature of infection by herpes simplex virus?
A. Rapid progression to encephalitis and death
B. Chronic progressive tissue damage for many years
C. Dissemination to many body sites, including trans-placental passage
D. *Spontaneous recovery with life-long latency
E. Chronic progressive fatigue
Which one of the following is a common feature of infection by cytomegalovirus?
A. Rapid progression to encephalitis and death
B. Chronic progressive tissue damage for many years
C. *Dissemination to many body sites, including trans-placental passage
D. Severe vesiculation of epithelium and mucous membranes
E. Spontaneous recovery with life-long latency
Which virus does cause congenital defects?
A. adenovirus
B. *rubivirus
C. herpes simplex virus
D. measles virus
E. mumps virus
Which virus does cause genital herpes?
A. *Herpes simplex virus-1
B. Herpes simplex virus-2
C. cytomegalovirus
D. human herpes virus 6
E. human herpes virus 8
Which virus does cause gingivostomatitis?
A. cytomegalovirus
B. polyovirus
C. *herpes simplex virus 1
D. measles virus
E. mumps virus
Which virus is most likely to infect B lymphocytes?
A. Human immunodeficiency virus
B. *Epstein Barr virus
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. Human T cell leukemia virus
E. Hepatitis A virus
Which viruses have bullet-shaped form?
A. Adenovirus
B. Orthomyxovirus
C. Paramyxovirus
D. *Rhabdovirus
E. Rotavirus
Which viruses have tegument?
A. A.Polioviruses
B. *Herpesviruses
C. Adenoviruses
D. Influenzaviruses
E. Measels viruses
A basic factor of transmission of hepatitis G:
A. saliva
sperm
*blood
drugs
vaginal secret
A Dane’s particle is virus with such property:
A. *DNA-containing
B. RNA-containing
C. naked
D. defective
E. has haemagglutinin
A HIV can infect:
A. CD4+ Т lymphocytes.
B. Monocytes.
C. Cells of microglia.
D. *Correct all.
E. Does not infect the cells of immune system.
A HIV is cultivated in vitro:
A. in chicken embryos
B. in the suckling mice
C. in CD8+-cells
D. *in CD4+-cells
E. not cultivated
A main way of transmission for hepatitis D:
A. blood transfusion
B. *injection
C. sexual
D. during pregnancy
E. intravenous injection of drugs
A person infected with (HIV):
A. may live for many years after infection
B. should have symptoms
C. ultimately dies because of AIDS
D. can be treated and completely cured
E. *(A) and (C)
Active specific prophylaxis of hepatitis A:
A. *killed vaccines (Havrix et al/)
B. personal and public hygiene
C. donor’s immunoglobulin
D. current and final disinfection
E. improvement of sanitary-hygienic condition of life
After-infection immunity of Hepatitis A virus is:
A. No protection
B. *Complete protection
C. Protection against symptomatic disease
D. Protective against severe disease
E. Near complete protection
AIDS-indicative illness. Correct all, except:
A. Pneumocystis pneumonia
B. histoplasmosis
C. coccidioidosis
D. toxoplasmosis
E. *hepatitis B
All are correct for hepatitis Е, except:
B.
C.
D.
E.
1343.
1344.
1345.
1346.
1347.
1348.
1349.
1350.
1351.
a source of infection is patients
*a source of infection is patients and viral carriers
transfers, mainly, through the water
adults are ill more frequent
a risk group is pregnant persons
All are typical for pathogenesis of hepatitis B, except:
A. *extrahepatic replication of virus
B. direct CPE of virus on a hepatocyte
C. virogeny
D. immunopathological character of hepatocyte damage
E. vermeil
All features of HIV are correct, except for:
A. *it needs a virus-helper
B. it has tropism to CD4+-cells
C. presence of reverse transcriptase
D. conical or cylinder pear-shaped core /nucleocapsid
E. high antigen changeability
All of the viruses have an envelope, except:
A. *Virus of hepatitis A.
B. Virus of hepatitis B.
C. Virus of hepatitis С.
D. Virus of hepatitis D.
E. All of viruses are naked
All viruses are RNA-containing, except:
A. Virus of hepatitis A.
B. *Virus of hepatitis B.
C. Virus of hepatitis E .
D. Virus of hepatitis G .
E. None of them
Antigens of HIV. Correct all, except:
A. р 17
B. р 24
C. *CD 4+
D. gр 120
E. gр 41
Antigens of hepatitis B virus (correct all, except):
A. HBx- Ag
B. *HD-core-Ag
C. HBs-Ag
D. HBc-Ag
E. HBe-Ag
Azidotimidin is:
A. *Dideoxinucleoside analogue.
B. Non-nucleoside inhibitor.
C. inhibitor of protease.
D. inhibitor of integrase.
E. Stimulator of synthesis of anti-viral protein.
Basis of laboratory diagnostics of HIV-infection is:
A. isolation of virus in vitro
B. *examination of antibodies
C. examination of RNA of virus
D. examination of delayed allergic reaction
E. examination of antigens of virus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1352.
1353.
1354.
1355.
1356.
1357.
1358.
1359.
1360.
1361.
1362.
1363.
1364.
1365.
1366.
1367.
1368.
Cell-target for HIV. Correct all, except:
A. CD4+ T-cell
B. *CD8+ T-cell
C. monocytes / macrophages
D. CNS cells
E. Cells of rectum mucus
Cell-targets for HIV (correct all, except):
A. CD4+ T-cell
B. *CD8+ T-cell
C. monocytes / macrophages
D. glial cells
E. Langengarce’s cells
Classification is HIV (correct all, except):
A. Retroviridae
B. *subfamily Oncovirinae
C. subfamily Lentivirinae
D. species HIV
E. species HIV-2
Classification of hepatitis D viruses:
A. *Non-classified
B. Caliciviridae, Hepacivirus genus
C. Picornaviridae, Hepatovirus genus
D. Picornaviridae, Enterovirus genus
E. Togaviridae, Deltavirus genus
Classification of hepatitis virus B:
A. Picornaviridae, Enterovirus genus
B. *Hepadnaviridae, Orthohepadnavirus genus
C. Picornaviridae, Hepatovirus genus
D. Non-classified
E. Togaviridae, Deltavirus genus
?Classification of virus of hepatitis A:
A. Hepadnaviridae, Orthohepadvirus genus
B. Picornaviridae, Hepatovirus genus
C. *Picornaviridae, Enterovirus genus
D. Togaviridae, Deltavirus genus
E. Caliciviridae, Hepacivirus genus
Classification of virus of hepatitis of G:
A. Hepadnaviridae, Orthohepadnavirus genus
B. Flaviviridae, Flavivirus genus
C. Togaviridae, Deltavirus genus
D. *Flaviviridae, Hepacivirus genus
E. Picornaviridae, Hepatovirus genus
Core HIV contains all, except for:
A. protein р17
B. two strands of +RNA
C. protein р7, р9
D. reverse transcriptase
E. *gp 120
Cultivation of hepatitis A virus in vitro:
A. *diploid cells of human MRS-5
B. rabbit
C. suckling mice
D. not cultivated
E. liver meat peptone broth
1369.
1370.
1371.
1372.
1373.
1374.
1375.
1376.
1377.
Diagnostic test of Hepatitis B virus is:
A. Direct antibody staining
B. *Antibody detection
C. PCR
D. Culture
E. Weil-Felix reaction
Discoverers of HIV:
A. Myullis Keri. (1983)
B. *R. Gallo, L. Montangue (1983)
C. M. Rizetto (1977)
D. Z. Feystoun (1973)
E. M. S. Balayan (1983)
Epidemiology of hepatitis Е is similar to:
A. *hepatitis A.
B. hepatitis B.
C. hepatitis С.
D. hepatitis D.
E. hepatitis G
Factors of transmission of HIV. Correct all, except:
A. vaginal secret
B. *tears
C. blood
D. sperm
E. breast milk
Family of Hepatitis C virus is:
A. Paramyxoviridae
B. Filoviridae
C. Adenoviridae
D. *Flaviviridae
E. Arenaviridae
Family of Kaposi sarcoma herpes virus is:
A. Caliciviridae
B. Picornaviridae
C. *Herpesviridae
D. Retroviridae
E. Filoviridae
Feature of hepatitis C virus:
A. *has RNA
B. does not have envelope
C. has tegument
D. has a spiral type of symmetry
E. defective
Feature of hepatitis C viruses:
A. *RNA
B. Has HBs-Ag
C. naked
D. has helical symmetry
E. helper of hepatitis D viruses
Feature of pathogenesis of hepatitis D:
A. formation of immunity when there is monoinfection
B. polyorganotropism
C. extrahepatic reproduction of virus
D. *damage of hepatocytes by the hepatotropic viruses D and B
E. damage of hepatocytes by the hepatotropic viruses D and С
1378.
1379.
1380.
1381.
1382.
1383.
1384.
1385.
1386.
Features of hepatitis A pathogenesis:
A. *direct CPE of virus according to hepatocyte
B. formation of viral carriage
C. formation of chronic of disease
D. permanent viremia
E. virogeny
Features of hepatitis B pathogenesis (correct all, except):
A. antigen modification of CPM of hepatocytes by viral proteins
B. *damage of CD4+ cells by virus
C. autoimmune process
D. formation of chronic disease
E. suppression of immunity (HBe-Ag)
Features of hepatitis B virus (correct all, except):
A. do not need a helper virus
B. defective DNA
C. virogeny
D. *extrahepatic replication
E. thermoresistance
Features of hepatitis C pathogenesis (correct all, except):
A. direct CPE concerning hepatocytes
B. *virogeny
C. persistent infection
D. mainly chronic disease
E. high probability of complications: cirrhosis and liver carcinoma
Features of hepatitis D virus. Correct all, except:
A. defective virus
B. inability to cause a monoinfection
C. reproduction in the presence of HBV
D. *reproduction in the presence of HCV
E. HBS-Ag is envelope of HDV
Features of pathogenesis of HIV-infection (correct all, except):
A. Prolonged persistence of virus
B. *Oncogenic transformation of cells
C. diminishing amount of CD4+-cells
D. severe second immunodeficiency
E. development of opportunistic infections
For an indication of HIV in cellular cultures such test is utilized:
A. examination of the intranuclear inclusions
B. CPD as formation of syncytium
C. Hemadsorbtion test
D. formation of plaques
E. *examination of reverse transcriptase presence
For confirmation of HIV-carriage such test is used:
A. ELISA.
B. *Immune blotting.
C. Complement fixation test.
D. Indirect haemagglutination test.
E. Neutralization test.
For diagnostics of AIDS sometimes virologic method is utilized. Where do HIV cultivate?
A. *in normal lymphocytes
B. in chicken embryos;
C. in the organism of white mice
D. in HeLa culture
E. in the Vero culture
1387.
1388.
1389.
1390.
1391.
1392.
1393.
1394.
1395.
For expert research of HIV-infection such test is utilized:
A. ELISA
B. *method of immune blotting
C. immune electron microscopy (IEM)
D. isolation of virus
E. examination of immune status
For laboratory diagnosis HIV-infection such tests are utilized, except:
A. examination of virus specific antibodies
B. examination of virus specific antigens
C. examination of viral RNA
D. isolation of virus in vitro
E. *skin-allergic test with HIV antigen
For laboratory diagnostics of hepatitis B such tests are utilized, except:
A. examination of viral HBcAg
B. examination of viral HBsAg
C. examination of specific antibodies
D. *examination of HBxAg
E. examination viral DNA (Chain polymerase reaction)
For scrinning examination of serum markers of viral hepatitis C such test is utilized:
A. CFT
B. *ELISA
C. HAIT
D. CPT
E. Immunoblotting
For treatment of hepatitis B is utilized:
A. antibiotics
B. interferon
C. recombinant vaccines
D. autovaccines
E. *immunoglobulin
For what viral infection there is may be chronic carriage?
A. hepatitis B.
B. hepatitis C.
C. hepatitis D.
D. *Correct all.
E. There is no correct answer.
From the early days of the epidemic there have been:
A. scare stories.
B. misreporting.
C. panic reactions.
D. discriminatory policies.
E. *all of the above.
Genome of which virus is represented in this figure? (5)
A. HAV
B. *HBV
C. HCV
D. HDV
E. HEV
Genome of which virus is represented in this figure? (7)
A. *HAV
HBV
HCV
HDV
HEV
Genus of Human immunodeficiency virus is:
A. Pneumovirus
B. *Lentivirus
C. Simplexvirus
D. Varicellovirus
E. Rubulavirus
Hepatitis A Virus (correct all, except):
A. resistant in environment
B. is inactivated in a stomach
C. resistant against chlorine
D. resistant to рН 3-10
E. *relatively heat-resistant
Hepatitis A virus has all properties, except:
A. hepatotropism
B. naked
C. little
D. *DNA-containing
E. RNA-containing
Hepatitis A Virus:
A. has DNA
B. complex
C. has –RNA
D. has a spiral type of symmetry
E. *has +RNA
Hepatitis of D develops as a result:
A. monoinfections of HDV
B. simultaneous infection with HGV (coinfection)
C. simultaneous infection with HCV (coinfection)
D. infection by HDV a patient with acute hepatitis A (superinfection)
E. *infection by HDV a patient with chronic hepatitis B (superinfection)
Hepatitis Е (correct all, except for):
A. it is rarely in Europe
B. adults are mainly ill
C. *ubiquities infection
D. a hyperendemic infection for territories of tropical and subtropical zones
E. a risk group – pregnant women
Hepatitis Е in pregnant women:
A. *especially dangerous at the beginning of pregnancy
B. especially dangerous in the late term of pregnancy
C. does not influence on pregnancy
D. has chronic character
E. self-limiting infection
High probability of transmission of HBV during pregnancy certify:
A. HBs-Ag and anti-HBc
B. anti-HBs and anti-HBcs
C. *HBsAg and HBeAg
D. anti-HBs
E. anti-HBc and anti-HBe
HIV belongs to Retroviridae family. What subfamily does this virus belong to?
B.
C.
D.
E.
1396.
1397.
1398.
1399.
1400.
1401.
1402.
1403.
1404.
Oncovirinae.
*Lentivirinae.
Spumavirinae.
Hepatovirinae.
No correct answer.
HIV can infect:
A. CD8-lymphocytes.
B. T- killers.
C. *CD4-lymphocytes.
D. Macrophages.
E. Neutrophils.
HIV has an enzyme:
A. *revertase
B. deoxiribonuclease
C. transferase
D. RNA-polymerase
E. DNA-polymerase
HIV/AIDS can be prevented through:
A. the use of good quality condom in every sexual intercourse
B. the use of protective gloves when handling blood or body fluids
C. use of uncontaminated skin-piercing equipment
D. following “Universal Precautions” when handling blood
E. *all of the above
HIV/AIDS is not transmitted by:
A. blood transfusions
B. organ or tissue transplant
C. use of contaminated injection
D. *sharing toilets or wasting facilities
E. homosexual unprotected sexual intercourse
HIV/AIDS is transmitted by:
A. kissing
B. hugging
C. shaking hands
D. mosquito or insect bites
E. *unprotected sexual intercourse
HIV/AIDS is:
A. creating orphans.
B. leading to increased child labour.
C. increasing drop out of schools.
D. reducing populations.
E. *all of the above.
How many serotypes does Hepatovirus genus include?
A. *One.
B. Two.
C. Five.
D. Seven.
E. Thirteen
In genus Hepatovirus such virus is included:
A. *virus of hepatitis A
B. virus of hepatitis B
C. virus of hepatitis С
D. virus of hepatitis Е
E. all of them
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1405.
1406.
1407.
1408.
1409.
1410.
1411.
1412.
1413.
1414.
1415.
1416.
1417.
1418.
1419.
1420.
1421.
Markers of hepatitis A virus in the incubation period of disease (correct all, except):
A. HAV-Ag
B. RNA of virus
C. IgM
D. *IgG
E. antigen of virus
Most frequent result of viral hepatitis A:
A. lethal
B. *reconvalescence
C. acute hepatic insufficiency
D. cirrhosis of liver
E. cholelithiasis
Name viral hepatites with enteric mechanism of transmission:
A. hepatitis B, hepatitis C
B. hepatitis C, hepatitis G
C. hepatitis B, hepatitis D
D. *hepatitis A, hepatitis Е
E. hepatitis Е, hepatitis B
Non-specific prophylaxis of parenteral hepatites (correct all, except):
A. diminishing the cases of direct blood transfusion
B. verification of donor’s blood
C. *vaccination
D. high-quality sterilization
E. fight against narcomania
Parenteral viral hepatites:
A. *antroponoze infections
B. registered as epidemic
C. children are ill only
D. adults are ill only
E. one of principal reasons of sterileness
Parenteral viral hepatitis are characterized, except:
A. brief viremia
B. *permanent viremia
C. viral carriage
D. disease may be chronic
E. complications: cirrhosis and primary liver carcinoma
Patient S. with viral hepatitis A was admitted to the hospital. What antibodies will be synthesized
first?
A. IgA.
B. IgG.
C. *IgM.
D. IgD.
E. IgE
Patient with hepatitis A is most dangerous:
A. at once after an infection
B. at the end of incubation period, in a pre-icteric period
C. *in pre-icteric, icteric periods
D. in a period reconvalescence
E. during all period of disease
Phenotypic characteristic of Hepatitis C virus is:
A. Lancefield group A
B. H2S "-"
C. Enveloped
D. Triple-layered
E. Non-enveloped
1422.
1423.
1424.
1425.
1426.
1427.
1428.
1429.
1430.
Postinfection immunity of hepatitis B. Correct all, except:
A. *not formed
B. humoral
C. cellular
D. high grade
E. determines immunity concerning hepatitis D
Postinfection immunity of hepatitis A (correct all, except):
A. sterile
B. lifelong
C. *cellular
D. humoral
E. not formed
Primary signs of HIV-infection. Correct all, except:
A. Pneumocystis pneumonia
B. Generalized cytomegaloviral infection
C. Atypical mycobacteriosis
D. Generalized limphadenopathy
E. *Flue
Principal reason of death in AIDS patients:
A. weight loss.
B. increase of lymphatic nodes.
C. temperature reaction.
D. *any opportunistic infections.
E. diarrhea.
problem of young people infection with HIV is by:
A. reaching especially vulnerable young people, such as injecting drug users
B. special messages delivered to young workers sensitively, with the right language and relevant
to their age, by young people
C. right education provided in the workplace for parent workers to teach their children, grand
children, or younger siblings on how to protect themselves
D. teaching their parent workers not to avoid discussing with them issues such as sex or drug use
E. *all of the above
Properties of hepatitis D virus:
A. naked
B. prion
C. DNA-containing
D. *RNA-containing
E. Has no envelope
Prophylaxis of hepatitis of D:
A. Private hygiene and sanitation
B. *vaccination against hepatitis B
C. vaccination against hepatitis A
D. interferon
E. immunoglobulin
Prophylaxis of hepatitis Е:
A. safe sex
B. syringes for single use
C. *personal hygiene and sanitation
D. vaccination of pregnant women
E. phage prophylaxis in endemic foci
Receptor of cell-targets for HIV:
CD 22
CD 19
CD 8
*CD 4
CD 3
Reliable control above spread of hepatitis B provides:
A. vaccination of teenagers
B. vaccination of babies
C. vaccination of risk groups
D. protected sex
E. single use syringes
Risk groups concerning HIV-infection. Correct all, except:
A. medical personal (doctors of haemodialysis departments, surgeons et al.)
B. drug abusers which inject them intravenously
C. persons which have commercial sex
D. recipients of blood and its components
E. *donors of blood
Scrinning examination of HIV-infection includes:
A. examination of antigens
B. *examination of antibodies
C. examination of RNA of virus
D. diagnosis of opportunistic infections
E. estimation of immune status
Serum marker of active replication of hepatitis B virus:
A. HBsAg
B. HBcAg
C. *аnti-HBe
D. HBeAg
E. аnti-HBs
Serum markers of hepatitis B (correct all, except):
A. *aminotransferases (ALT, AST)
B. HBe-Ag
C. anti-HBs
D. Viral DNA
E. HBsAg
Serum markers of hepatitis D virus (correct all, except):
A. anti-HDV of IgM
B. anti-HDV of IgG
C. viral RNA
D. HBsAg
E. *anti-HDV total
Serum markers of hepatitis of C (correct all, except):
A. antibodies against core antigen of HCV
B. *antibodies against RNA
C. Viral RNA
D. antibodies against non-structural proteins of HCV
E. antibodies against E1/E2 antigens of HCV
Sources of infection for AIDS:
A. blood, sperm
B. breast milk
C. *patients, viral carriers
D. viral carriers, reconvalescent persons
E. sweat, saliva
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1431.
1432.
1433.
1434.
1435.
1436.
1437.
1438.
1439.
1440.
1441.
1442.
1443.
1444.
1445.
1446.
1447.
Sources of infection for hepatitis C:
A. formites
B. *patients, viral carriers
C. drug users
D. blood
E. red cells
Sources of infection of hepatitis B:
A. blood
B. sperm
C. blood serum
D. *viral carriers, sick persons
E. saliva
Specific prophylaxis of hepatitis of C:
A. plasma vaccines
B. recombinant vaccines
C. *not developed
D. interferon
E. inductors of interferon
Specify etiology of pneumonia most characteristic for HIV-infection:
A. staphylococcal
B. pneumococcal
C. *pneumocystic
D. herpesviral
E. adenoviral
Symptoms of HIV-infection in the oral cavity (correct all, except):
A. candida stomatitis
B. Kaposi’s sarcoma
C. herpetic gingivostomatitis
D. *croupous pneumonia
E. hairy leukoplakia
The causative agents of parenteral hepatitis belong to (correct all, except):
A. Non-classified delta-virus
B. Hepadnaviridae
C. Togaviridae
D. Flaviviridae
E. *Herpesviridae
The decrease of amount of CD4+-cells at HIV-infection takes place as a result (correct all,
except):
A. direct CPD of virus
B. *virogeny
C. formation of syncytium
D. apoptosis
E. cells lysis under the influence of antibodies
The diagnosis of AIDS is confirmed by positive result of :
A. clinical blood test
B. ELISA
C. agglutination test
D. *immunoblotting
E. complement fixation test
The feature of pathogenesis of HIV-infection is a selective defeat of cells:
A. CD3+
B. *CD4+
C. CD8+
D. CD16+
E. CD18+
1448.
1449.
1450.
1451.
1452.
1453.
1454.
1455.
1456.
The features of hepatitis D virus:
A. Envelope with haemagglutinin
B. Reversed transcriptase
C. *Envelope with HBsAg
D. Fragmented genome
E. Absence of envelope
The HIV belongs to:
A. reoviruses
B. rhinoviruses
C. *retroviruses
D. rotaviruses
E. rhabdoviruses
The markers of hepatitis E virus and methods of their examination. Correct all, except:
A. HЕV-Ag (ELISA)
B. *Autoantibodies (ELISA)
C. IgM (ELISA)
D. IgG (ELISA)
E. Viral RNA (CPT)
The method of immune blotting foresees examination:
A. superficial and core antigens
B. *antibodies against superficial and core antigens
C. RNA of virus
D. reverse trancriptase
E. provirus
The most effective preparation for treatment of AIDS:
A. *zydovudin.
B. interleukin 2.
C. interferon.
D. Timosinum.
E. vaccine.
The only way to stop the spread of HIV infection is through:
A. regular treatment of infected persons
B. isolation of infected persons
C. *prevention
D. avoiding direct contact with infected person
E. all the above
The presence of antibodies in the patient’s serum is investigated by:
A. Neutralization test.
B. Complement fixation test.
C. Haemadsorbtion test.
D. Indirect haemagglutination test.
E. *ELISA.
The prophylaxis of hepatitis of C includes all, except:
A. *no smoking
B. propagandas of healthy way of life (in the first turn, giving drugs up)
C. high-quality sterilization
D. verifications of donor blood
E. use of single syringes
The tested material for serologic diagnosis of hepatitis Е:
A. blood
B. urine
C. *blood serum
D. amniotic fluid
E. feces
1457.
1458.
1459.
1460.
1461.
1462.
1463.
1464.
1465.
The virus of AIDS will mainly strike:
A. T-suppressor-cell
B. T- killers
C. *T- helpers
D. macrophages
E. neutrophils
The virus of hepatitis of G is transmitted by:
A. Parenteral way.
B. Sexual way.
C. From mother to child.
D. *Correct all.
E. By none of this way.
The НIV belongs to Retroviridae. What enzyme is in this virus?
A. RNA-dependent RNA-polymerase
B. *RNA-dependent DNA-polymerase
C. DNA-dependent RNA-polymerase
D. DNA-dependent DNA-polymerase
E. proteinkinase
There are such factors of transmission for parenteral hepatites, except:
A. blood
B. *infected water
C. sperm
D. vaginal secret
E. infected surgical instrument
There are such viral hepatites with parenteral mechanism of transmission, except:
A. hepatitis G
B. hepatitis B
C. hepatitis D
D. *hepatitis A
E. hepatitis C
To prevent the spread of HIV infection it is vital to:
A. know the ways by which HIV is spread
B. combat the superstitions and taboos related to sexual orientation
C. contradict the persisting myths about HIV and AIDS
D. promote and support behaviour change
E. *all of the above
Vaccine against hepatitis B:
A. live attenuated vaccine
B. inactivated vaccine
C. split-vaccine
D. *gene engineering yeast vaccine
E. subunit vaccine
Vaccines against hepatitis B provide protection against (correct all, except):
A. hepatitis B
B. hepatitis of D
C. *hepatitis of C
D. cancer of liver
E. cirrhosis of liver
Viral a delta-hepatitis develops on a background of:
A. *hepatitis B
hepatitis A
hepatitis С
HIV infection
Herpesviral infection
Virus of hepatitis G:
A. *RNA-containing
B. Has revertase
C. Naked
D. Has haemagglutinin
E. Has lysozyme
Viruses of hepatitis A and Е are similar concerning all signs, except:
A. structures of virion
B. nature of natural reservoir (human)
C. mechanism of transmission
D. ability to induce strained immunity
E. *virulence concerning pregnant women
Ways of deviation of hepatitis B virus from immune control (correct all, except for):
A. virogeny
B. *antigen changeability
C. replication of virus in monocytes
D. suppression of interferon production
E. active autonomous replication of virus
Ways of HIV deviation from an immune supervision (correct all, except):
A. *rapid change of host
B. virogeny
C. a presence of envelope from the membranes of macroorganism
D. antigen changeability
E. replication in monocytes / macrophages
Ways of transmission hepatitis of C (correct all, except for):
A. *food borne
B. parenteral treatment and diagnosis manipulations
C. intravenous injections of drugs
D. sexual
E. transplacental
Ways of transmission of hepatitis A virus (correct all, except):
A. through the formites
B. through dirty hands
C. *during pregnancy
D. through infected food stuffs
E. through infected water
Ways of transmission of HIV. Correct all, except:
A. sexual
B. during pregnancy from mother to fetus
C. through breast milk
D. through intravenous injections of drugs
E. *by using common table dishes
What virus is in figure? (1)
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. *HCV
D. HDV
E. HEV
What virus is in figure? (2)
B.
C.
D.
E.
1466.
1467.
1468.
1469.
1470.
1471.
1472.
1473.
1474.
HAV
HBV
HCV
*HDV
HEV
What virus is in figure? (3)
A. HAV
B. *HIV
C. Herpesvirus
D. Adenovirus
E. HEV
What virus is in figure? (4)
A. *HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HDV
E. HEV
What virus is in figure? (6)
A. HEV
B. HDV
C. HCV
D. *HBV
E. HAV
What bacterial infection more frequently does take place in patient with HIV infection?
A. *Mycobacterial infection.
B. Salmonella infection.
C. Bartonella infection.
D. Klebsiella infection.
E. Cholera
What changes are characterized immune status of HIV-infected person:
A. Decrease of amount of T-cell
B. Decrease of amount of Т-killers and T-suppressors
C. Decrease of CD8:CD4 correlation lymphocytes
D. *Decrease of CD4:CD8 lymphocytes correlation
E. Decrease of amount of B-lymphocytes
What does it mean AIDS?
A. Acute immunodeficiency syndrome
B. Adult immunodeficiency syndrome
C. Acquired immunodeficiency symptom
D. Adult acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
E. *Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
What family does the hepatitis E virus belong to?
A. Picornaviridae
B. Togaviridae
C. Flaviviridae
D. *Caliciviridae
E. not classified
What family does virus of hepatitis G belong to:
A. Caliciviridae.
B. *Flaviviridae.
C. Hepadnaviridae.
D. Coronaviridae.
E. Picornaviridae.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1475.
1476.
1477.
1478.
1479.
1480.
1481.
1482.
1483.
1484.
1485.
1486.
1487.
1488.
1489.
1490.
1491.
What family of viruses does contain RNA-dependent DNA-polymerase as part of virion:
A. Adenoviruses
B. Orthomyxoviruses
C. Rabdoviruses
D. Reoviruses
E. *Retroviruses
What feature about postinfection immunity is not correct for hepatitis A?
A. natural
B. acquired
C. is predefined by IgM, IgG, sIgA
D. *is predefined by T-cell
E. reinfection is absent practically
What for hepatitis E virus is not correct?
A. RNA-containing
B. does not have envelope
C. *has envelope
D. naked
E. has a icosahedral type of symmetry
What from next infection is most dangerous?
A. Infection only by HBV.
B. Coinfection of virus of hepatitis B and virus of hepatitis D.
C. *Superinfection by HDV of carriers of HBsAg.
D. Infection only by HDV.
E. All answers are correct.
What from the resulted descriptions does not answer properties HIV?
A. Susceptible against disinfectants
B. Resistant according to UV light
C. Susceptible to ether
D. Susceptible to high temperatures
E. *well saved in external environment
What fungal infections are more frequently observed in patients with HIV?
A. candidiasis
B. cryptococcosis
C. aspergillosis
D. *Correct all
E. No correct answer
What is AIDS?
A. bacteria
B. virus
C. fungus
D. *disease
E. symptom
What is an antigen of HIV-1 spike?
A. *gpl20.
B. gp140.
C. gp41.
D. gp36.
E. gp9.
What is incubation period of development of AIDS?
A. One year.
B. 5-7 years
C. *10-12 years.
D. 15-20 years.
E. 30 days.
1492.
1493.
1494.
1495.
1496.
1497.
1498.
1499.
1500.
What is morphology of HIV?
A. a virus contains single-stranded RNA, capsid, envelope;
B. a virus contains double-stranded RNA, capsid, envelope;
C. *a virus contains two identical molecules of RNA, capsid, envelope;
D. a virus contains single-stranded DNA, capsid, envelope;
E. a virus contains two identical copies of DNA, capsid, envelope.
What is most frequent way of HIV transmission?
A. *sexual
B. parenteral
C. perinatal
D. fecal-oral
E. Air-born way
What is pathogenesis mechanism of HIV infection?
A. Viral cytolysis of CD4+Т cells.
B. Formation of syncytium between infected and non-infected CD4+ Т cells.
C. Immune cytolysis of CD4+ Т-cells.
D. *Correct all
E. No correct answer.
What is reason of deaths in patient with AIDS?
A. Opportunistic infections.
B. Tumors.
C. Cachexia.
D. *Correct all.
E. No correct answer.
What is transmembrane antigen of spikes’ basis of HIV-1?
A. gpl20.
B. gp140.
C. *gp41.
D. gp36.
E. gp19.
What laboratory test can confirm the diagnosis of HIV-infection?
A. clinical blood test
B. ELISA
C. Т-helper and T-suppressor correlation
D. *Western-blott
E. Complement fixation test
What method is the method of choice for diagnosis of hepatitis A?
A. Ratio of aminotransferases.
B. Examination of virus in feces by immune electronic microscopy.
C. Examination of IgG anti-HAV by ELISA.
D. *Examination of IgM anti-HAV by ELISA.
E. Examination of С-reactive protein
What method may be used for examination of provirus presence in lymphocytes?
A. *Molecular hybridization with the use of radioactive probes
B. Isolation of viruc in lymphocytes cell culture
C. Cellular hybridization is with the use of lymphocytes culture
D. ELISA
E. Examination of antibodies against viruses by immunofluorescence test
What method must be utilized for confirmation of positive ELISA?
A. *Immunoblotting
B. Electrophoresis in gel
C. Immunofluorescence test
D. Molecular hybridization
E. Radioimunoassays
1501.
1502.
1503.
1504.
1505.
1506.
1507.
1508.
1509.
What oncogenic viruses were described first?
A. Herpes simplex virus type 2.
B. Epstein-Barr virus.
C. *Virus Raus’ sarcoma.
D. Human Т-lymphotropic virus.
E. Adenovirus type 14.
What preparation is utilized for the active specific prophylaxis of hepatitis B:
A. lamivudin
B. interferon
C. *recombinant vaccines (Engerix B and other)
D. attenuated vaccines
E. immunoglobulin
What protozoa infections are more frequently observed in patients with HIV infection:
A. isosporiasis.
B. toxoplasmosis.
C. cryptosporidiosis.
D. *Correct all.
E. No correct answer.
What results of Immunoblotting do do do testify HIV-infection?
A. presence of antibodies to gр 160, р 55
B. presence of antibodies to р55, р 52
C. *presence of antibodies to gр 120, gр 41, р 24
D. presence of antibodies to gр 120, р 66
E. presence of antibodies to gр 41, р 24
What serological type does hepatitis A virus belong to?
A. 68
B. 69
C. 70
D. 71
E. *72
What serum marker is present in the high-infectious carriers of HBV?
A. HBeAg.
B. HBsAg.
C. DNA polymerase.
D. *All answers are correct.
E. No correct answers.
What tests are used for diagnosis of HIV infection?
A. ELISA.
B. Examination of viral RNA.
C. Immunoblotting.
D. *Correct all.
E. Diagnostics is not elaborated.
What tests do confirm HIV infection?
A. Isolation of virus.
B. Revealing p24 antigen .
C. Revealing viral nucleic acid.
D. *Correct all.
E. No correct answer.
What type of nucleic acid is in HBV?
A. Single-stranded DNA.
B. *Double-stranded DNA.
C. Single-stranded RNA.
D. Double-stranded RNA.
E. Segmented RNA.
What viral antigen is present in envelope?
A. *HBsAg.
B. HBcAg.
C. HBeAg.
D. HBxAg.
E. No correct answer
1511. What viral infections are more frequently observed in patient with HIV infection?
A. herpes simplex.
B. varicella-zoster.
C. cytomegaloviral.
D. *Correct all.
E. No correct answer
1512. What virus is satellite one?
A. HBV.
B. HCV.
C. *HDV.
D. HEV.
E. HIV.
1513. What viruses have parenteral way of transmission?
A. Virus of hepatitis B.
B. Virus of hepatitis C.
C. Virus of hepatitis D.
D. *Correct all.
E. There is no correct answer.
1514. When ELISA was used for examination of the blood HBs-Ag was revealed. At what disease does
this antigen may be found?
A. Syphilis
B. Viral hepatitis A.
C. AIDS.
D. Tuberculosis.
E. *Viral hepatitis B.
1515. Which CD-receptor can interact with HIV surface antigens gp 120?.
A. CD 3.
B. *CD 4.
C. CD 8.
D. CD 19.
E. CD 28.
1516. Which of the following statements refers to Hepatitis D virus:
A. HSV-1 - labial; HSV-2 - genital.
B. Strains A-C: trachoma. Strains D-K: genital infections. Strains L1-L3: lymphogranuloma
venereum.
C. Eggs -> miracidia -> snail -> cercaria -> human: adult -> eggs
D. Primary infection is usually asymptomatic. Congenital infection results in cytomegalic
inclusion disease.
E. *Envelope consists of HBsAg
Situation tasks
1. A patient with hepatitis B was admitted to the hospital. For diagnosis of disease serologic test which
is based on co-operating of antigen with an antibody, chemically bound with peroxydase or
alkaline phosphatase was carried out. What is the name of this test?
A. *ELISA
1510.
Radioimmune assay
Immunofluorescence test
Complement fixation test
Immobilisation test
Choose the components of Haemagglutination inhibition test for serologic diagnosis of viral
infection.
A. Specific sera, viral antigen, chicken red cells, electrolyte
B. Viral diagnosticum, serum of patient, sheep’s red cells, electrolyte
C. *Paired patient’s sera, viral diagnosticum, chicken red cells, electrolyte
D. Viral antigen, specific sera, sheep’s red cells, electrolyte
E. Specific serum, viral diagnosticum, paired sera, electrolyte
For identification of viruses it is possible to utilize reverse indirect haemagglutination test. What are
components of this test?
A. Red cell diagnosticum and serum of patient, electrolyte
B. *Diagnosticum from red cells, which are covered with known antibodies, unknown antigen,
electrolyte
C. Red cells, unknown virus, specific serum, electrolyte
D. Red cells, serum of patient, specific antigen, electrolyte
E. White cells, unknown virus, electrolyte,
For making of indirect haemagglutination test for serologic diagnosis of infectious disease, the
followings components are needed:
A. *Paired patient’s sera, erythrocytes viral diagnosticum, electrolyte
B. Specific serum, viral diagnosticum from red cells, electrolyte
C. Viral material, patient’s serum, chicken red cells
D. Virus, specific serum, chicken red cells, electrolyte
E. Patient’s serum, erythrocytes viral diagnosticum, electrolyte
For serologic diagnosis of poliomyelitis neutralization test in cell culture is used. Show the positive
result of this test when we use paired patient’s sera?
A. Increase of antibodies titer in 2 times
B. *Increase of antibodies titer in 4 times
C. Decrease of antibodies titer in 2 times
D. Decrease of antibodies titer in 4 times
E. No correct answer
or the indication of viruses in the tested material haemagglutination test is utilized. There are such
components of haemagglutination test:
A. specific serum, sheep’s red cells
B. *Viral material, chicken red cells, electrolyte
C. Unknown antibodies, red cells of hen, electrolyte
D. Virus, sheep’s red cells
E. Paired patient’s sera, viral diagnosticum, chicken red cells
For the specific prophylaxis of some infectious diseases utilize bacteriophages are utilized. Show
disease, where bacteriophages may be used:
A. tuberculosis and brucellosis
B. *shigellosis and typhoid fever
C. Tetanus and botulism
D. Tularemia and anthrax
E. gas gangrene and plague
For virologic (early) diagnosis of viral infections haemagglutination inhibition test is utillized. What
are components of this test?
A. electrolyte, virus-containing material, chicken red cells, cell cultures
B. electrolyte, virus-containing material, chicken red cells
C. electrolyte, virus-containing material, chicken red cells, chicken embryos
D. electrolyte, serum of patient, virus-containing material, chicken red cells, complement
B.
C.
D.
E.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
E. *electrolyte, virus-containing material, specific sera, chicken red cells.
9. In laboratory practice cultivation of viruses in cell cultures is widely utilized. What is first stage of
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
co-operation of viruses and susceptible?
A. *Adsorption
B. Penetration
C. Liberation of nucleic acid
D. integration of viral DNA in the genome of cell
E. Assembly
In the patient N. with a viral infection in 7 days after beginning of disease a cough with sputum, rale
in the lungs appeared. After X-ray examination diagnosis of pneumonia was confirmed. Why
there may be secondary bacterial infection in patients with viral diseases?
A. viruses cause the death of mucus membrane cells in respiratory tract
B. viruses alter the cilia epithelium
C. viruses decrease the immune reactivity of the body
D. viruses are favorable for penetration of secondary microflora
E. *All answers are correct
One test, which is utilized in virology, does not need antigens and antibodies. Find it among listed
tests.
A. *Haemagglutination test
B. Complement fixation test
C. Haemagglutination inhibition test
D. Indirect haemagglutination test
E. ELISA
Show components which are needed for the examination of viral antigen in patient’s tested material
by ELISA.
A. Patient’s serum, viral antigen, antiglobulin serum serum, substrate
B. *Specific antibodies, tested viral antigen, antiglobulin serum, conjugated with an enzyme,
substrate
C. Tested virus, antigen, antispecies serum with an enzyme, substrate
D. Viral antigen, patient’s serum, specific serum with an enzyme, substrate
E. Antispecies serum, specific serum, enzyme, substrate
Show necessary components for carrying out direct immunofluorescence test for examination of
viruses:
A. unknown antibody and antigen marked with fluorochrome
B. specific serum, antigen, dye
C. *unknown virus, a specific serum, which is bound with fluorochrome
D. antigen, specific serum, antiglobulin fluorescent serum
E. unknown virus, serum of patient, antiglobulin fluorescent serum
Show the sequence of early stages of viral reproductions: 1. Synthesis of protein. 2. Penetration. 3.
Attachment of viruses to the cell surface. 4. Synthesis of nucleic acids. 5. Uncoating.
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 3, 4
C. 3, 2, 4, 5
D. 4, 2, 3, 5
E. *3, 2, 5
Sometime it is necessary to make express Diagnosis of viral disease. What express methods could
you propose?
A. Inoculation of chicken embryos
B. Inoculation of laboratory animals
C. Inoculation of cell culture
D. *Immunofluorescence test, Chain polymerase reaction
E. All answers are correct
16. Taking into consideration the features of viral structure, they can be susceptible or non-susceptible to
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
an ether. What viruses are susceptible to ether:
A. naked ones
B. *complex ones
C. viruses with a cubic type of symmetry
D. bacteriophages
E. No correct answer
There are such methods of viral cultivation: 1. On nutrient media; 2. In chicken embryos; 3. In
laboratory animals; 4. In cell cultures. Choose correct combination of answers:
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 2,3
C. *2, 3, 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 4
E. All of answers are incorrect
There was a necessity to examine the presence of antibodies against Hepatitis B virus in the patient’s
serum. ELISA was utilized. Show necessary components:
A. Serum of patient, conjugated with an enzyme, specific antigen
B. Specific serum, virus, antigen, antiglobulin serum
C. Virus, antigen in the wells, specific serum, substrate
D. *Viral antigen in the wells, patient’s serum, antiglobulin serum conjugated with an enzyme,
substrate
E. Patient’s serum, viral antigen, antiprotein serum, conjugated with an enzyme
Virologist can cultivate viruses in the cell cultures, chicken embryos, and in the laboratory animals.
Choose the most accessible and cheap type of their cultivation:.
A. *In chicken embryos
B. In cell culture
C. In laboratory animals
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
23-year-old woman comes to your office because, for 3 days, she has experienced burning with
urination, increased frequency of urination, and a continual feeling that she needs to urinate. She
does not have vaginal discharge, fever, or flank pain. Rapid 'dipstick' urine tests are consistent
with uncomplicated cystitis. Culture of urine on standard media produces a lactose-fermenting
Gram-negative rod. In situations such as this, what is the most likely pathogen?
A. Enterobacter faecium
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Proteus vulgaris
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A 20-year-old college student goes to the student health center because of dysuna, frequency, and
urgency on urination for 24 hours. She has recently become sexually active. On urmalysis, many
polymorphonuclear cells are seen. The most likely organism responsible for these symptoms and
signs is
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Gardnerella vaginalis
D. Lactobacillus species
E. *Escherichia coli
A 23-year-old woman has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections, including at least one episode
of pyelonephritis. Blood typing shows the P blood group antigen. Which of the following is likely
to be the primary cause of her infections7
A. Escherichia coli that produce heat-stable toxin
B. Escherichia coli with K1 (capsular type 1) antigen
C. Escherichia coli O139 (lipopolysaccharide O antigen 139)
D. *Escherichia coli with P-pili (fimbriae)
E. Escherichia coli O157 H7 (lipopolysaccharide O antigen 157, flagellar antigen
23. A 27 year-old woman is admitted to the hospital because of fever, with increasing anorexia,
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
headache, weakness, and altered mental status of 2 days'duration. She works for an airline as a
cabin attendant, flying between the Indian subconti nent and other places in Southeast Asia and
the West Coast of the USA. Ten days prior to admission she had a diarrheal illness that lasted for
about 36 hours. She has been constipated forthe last 3 days. Her temperature is 39 °C, heart rate
68/min, blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, and respirations 18/mm. She knows who she is and where
she is but does not know the date. She is picking at the bed clothes. Rose spots are seen on the
trunk. The remainder of the physical examination is normal. Blood cultures are done and an
intravenous line is placed. The most likely cause of her illness is
A. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
B. Shigella sonnei
C. Salmonella enterica subspecies enterica serotype Typhimunum (Salmonella Typhimurium)
D. *Salmonella enterica subspecies enterica serotypeTyphi (SalmonellfaTyphi)
E. Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC)
A 60-year old man was admitted to the hospital 2 weeks previously because of head trauma and other
injuries that resulted from an automobile accident. A urinary tract catheter was inserted at
admission and remains in place. The man develops a urinary tract infection with a gram negative
bacillus. The probable cause of this patients infection is
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Providenaa rettgeri
C. Escherichia coli
D. Morganella morgana
E. *Indeterminable without culture and identification testing
A common serotype of enterohemorrhagic E. coli is O157:H7. To which bacterial structure does the
"H7" correspond?
A. *Flagella.
B. Pili.
C. Capsule.
D. LPS core polysaccharide.
E. Porins.
A five-day-old child develops high fever and stiff neck. A spinal tap is performed. A Gram-stained
smear of cerebrospinal fluid reveals many neutrophils and short, thick, Gram-negative rods of
uniform length. This microbes can ferment lactose.Which organism below is most likely to have
caused this infection?
A. *Escherichia coli
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitidis
E. Streptococcus agalactiae
A patient with septicemia goes into septic shock. Blood cultures later showed the pathogen to be
Escherichia coli. Which component of the bacteria was most likely to have produced shock?
A. Capsular polysaccharide.
B. Teichoic acid.
C. A superantigen toxin.
D. *Lipopolysaccharide [LPS].
E. Plasma membrane lipids.
A sexually-active woman develops a urinary tract infection which ascends to the kidneys. Blood
culture yields a ?-hemolytic Gram-negative rod. In this situation, which pathogen is most
common?
A. Escherichia coli.
Klebsiella pneumoniae.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Salmonella enteritidis.
Serratia marcescens
A stool sample is plated on standard Endo-agar plates. After overnight incubation some of the
colonies are dark pink in color, others are pale, nearly colorless. What can you conclude about the
bacteria that produced dark-pink colonies?
A. Gram-positive.
B. *Ferment lactose.
C. Not likely to be ‘normal flora’.
D. Non-motile.
E. Produce capsules
A strain of bacteria produced colorless colonies when cultured on standard MacConkey agar. It was
then used to inoculate a Sugar-Iron Agar slant. After overnight incubation, the tube was entirely
yellow and there were numerous bubbles inside the agar. There is no black precipitate. Which of
the following descriptions most accurately describes the metabolic reasons for these
observations?
A. Produces H2S and gas
B. Ferments lactose and produces gas
C. Ferments sucrose and produces gas.
D. Ferments neither lactose nor sucrose
E. *Ferments glucose only
A urease-positive, spiral-shaped gram-negative rod is found in gastric washings from a 29-year-old
stressed-out medical student with gastritis. Which of the following is most likely tobe this
organism?
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. *Helicobacter pylori
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Providencia rettgeri
E. Vibrio cholerae
A vacationer develops watery diarrhea but not chills or fever. In this setting which of the following
pathogens is the most common?
A. Salmonella enterica
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Campylobacter jejuni
E. Helicobacter pylori
A vacationing couple both develop severe watery diarrhea which lasts three days. Which organism is
the most common etiologic agent of such infections?
A. Shigella sonnei.
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Salmonella typhi.
D. Campylobacter jejuni.
E. *Escherichia coli.
A young woman develops urgency, frequency, and dysuria. Two days later she develops fever, chills,
and costovertebral angle tenderness. Tests of urine for leukocyte esterase and nitrate reductase are
positive. Urine culture yields a beta-hemolytic Gram-negative rod which forms dark-pink
colonies on MacConkey agar. Which of the following organisms is most likely?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Klebsiellla pneumoniae
C. *Escherichia coli
D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
E. Enterobacter, sp
B.
C.
D.
E.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35. A young woman has a urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. By what route are such infections
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
most commonly acquired?
A. Respiratory route, followed by spread from the anterior nares.
B. Respiratory route, followed by spread from the oro-pharyngeal region.
C. *Fecal-oral route, followed by colonization of the intestine and then the perineum.
D. Intestinal infection, followed by spread of bacteria to the urethra via the bloodstream.
E. Direct contact route
An old man has a urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. By what route are such infections most
commonly acquired?
A. *Fecal-oral route, followed by colonization of the intestine and then the perineum.
B. Respiratory route, followed by spread from the oro-pharyngeal region.
C. Respiratory route, followed by spread from the anterior nares.
D. Intestinal infection, followed by spread of bacteria to the urethra via the bloodstream.
E. E. coli spreads from skin
An uncommon serotype of Salmonella enterica subspecies enterica was found by laboratories in the
health departments of adjacent states. The isolates were all from a small geographic area on either
side of the border between the states, suggesting a common source for the isolates (All the
isolates were from otherwise healthy young adults who smoked marijuana the same salmo nella
was isolated from a specimen of the marijuana). By what method did the laboratories determine
that these isolates were the same?
A. Capsular (K antigen) typing
B. *O antigen and H antigen typing
C. DNA sequencing
D. Sugar fermentation pattern determination
E. Decarboxylase reaction pattern determination
Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins both share this property.
A. They are proteins
B. They are structural components of the bacterial cell wall.
C. They have an enzymatic type of activity
D. They are toxic to animals
E. none of the above
Bacteriologists (using the Kauffman-White classification) made conclusion that outbreak has been
caused by Salmonella enterica, serotype Anatum. Structure of which pair of antigens determined
the serotype as Anatum?
A. Heat-labile and heat-stable enterotoxins.
B. Peptidoglycan and teichoic acid.
C. Pili and capsular polysaccharide.
D. *Flagella and O-antigen.
E. Hemolysin and cell-wall-associated carbohydrate.
Blood cultures from the patient in Question 2 grow a non lactose fermenting gram negative bacillus.
Which of the following is likely to be a constituent of this organism?
A. O antigen 157, H antigen 7 (0157 H7)
B. *Vi antigen (capsule, virulence antigen)
C. O antigen 139(0139)
D. Urease
E. K1 (capsular type l)
Campylobacter jejuni gastroenteritis is associated with consumption of contaminated water or foods
which include the following EXCEPT:
A. milk
B. chicken
C. clams
D. *hamburger
E. poultry
42. During a vacation at a Caribbean resort, a 26-year-old executive develops profuse watery diarrhea. If
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
his illness is produced by E. coli, which virulence factor of this organism is most likely to be
responsible for the diarrhea?
A. A conjugative plasmid that contains antibiotic-resistance transposons.
B. *A plasmid-borne gene which encodes a heat-stable peptide toxin that stimulates guanyl
cyclase.
C. A pathogenicity island which enables E. coli to invade mammalian cells.
D. An iron-transport system more efficient than that present in non-pathogenic E. coli.
E. A toxin that cleaves ribosomal RNA's.
Escherichia coli and Neisseria meningitidis isolated from blood cultures often have transport systems
(for acquiring metal ions from the environment) lacking in their less-virulent relatives. Which
metal is acquired by the majority of these systems?
A. Copper
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Magnesium
E. *Iron
Escherichia, Salmonella, Yersinia, and Shigella are put together in Bergey's Manual because they are
all
A. pathogens
B. *gram-negative facultatively anaerobic rods
C. gram-positive aerobic cocci
D. fermentative
E. none of the above
For determining the serotype of infecting organism, detection of which agglutinins is more important
in Widal test?
A. *O.
B. H.
C. Fimbrial.
D. M.
E. Vi
For which one of the following enteric illnesses is a chronic carrier state MOST likely to develop?
A. Campylobacter enterocolitis
B. Shigella enterocolitis
C. Cholera
D. *Typhoid fever
E. All of the above
In the pathogenesis of Helicobacter pylori what is the colonization site in the host?
A. nasal sinuses
B. *stomach
C. lower intestine
D. throat
E. respiratory tract
Infections with Salmonella enterica, serotype typhi, spread throughout the body. A key to the ability
of serotype typhi to spread systemically is its ability to multiply intracellularly. Multiplication in
which cell type(s) is principally responsible for systemic spread?
A. *Monocytes/macrophages.
B. Basophils.
C. Enterocytes.
D. Erythrocytes.
E. Neutrophils
Klebsiella pneumoniae exhibits which distinguishing virulence characteristic?
A. abscess formation
*presence of a capsule
a characteristic toxin
strongly invasive property
presence of leukocydine
Many isolates of E. coli are now ampicillin-resistant because they produce ?-lactamases. Which
sentence below most accurately describes these enzymes?
A. They inactivate all ?-lactam antibiotics.
B. Although they are produced by many isolates of E. coli, such ?-lactamases are not produced
by other Gram-negative rods.
C. *Genes which encode them are often present on conjugative plasmids.
D. They cause resistance to aminoglycosides as well as b-lactams.
E. They have spread from Gram-negatives like E. coli to Gram-positive pathogens like
One of the following measures does not prevent Vibrio parahaemolyticus infections:
A. cook seafood for the appropriate time
B. never return cooked seafood to the original container
C. *consume alcohol along with raw seafood
D. proper refrigeration
E. vaccination
Several medical students go to Cancun over spring break. One evening, at a local bar, they drink
several pitchers of Margaritas made with crushed ice. They spend the next two days in their hotel
room with severe watery diarrhea, but no chills or fever. By the third day they recover
completely. Which organism is most likely to have been the cause of their illness?
A. Non-typhoidal Salmonella
B. Helicobacter pylori.
C. Campylobacter jejuni.
D. *Enterotoxigenic E. coli.
E. Non-cholera Vibrio.
Some of the pathogenic members of the family Enterobacteriaceae require a small number of cells to
infect humans because:
A. Nutrient requirements of the different organisms
B. *Greater ability to survive an acid environment
C. There are more species present in nature than the less infective organisms
D. These bacteria produce more flagella than other members of this family
E. They have endotoxin
The large volume of fluid lost by diarrhea during infection with Vibrio cholerae
A. is a consequence of fluid replacement during treatment of the disease and does not result
directly from activity of the cholera toxin
B. results from electrolytes binding to the intestinal enterocytes which upsets their water
retention capability
C. is caused when the vibrios bind to the intestinal epithelium and physically or mechanically
block the uptake of fluids by the gut epithelial cells
D. *follows activation of adenylate cyclase by cholera toxin and the subsequent effect of cyclic
AMP on water and salt balances of the host cells
E. results from neurotoxic effects of the cholera toxin on the central nervous system
The main effect of E. coli and Vibrio cholerae enterotoxin on host cells of the gastrointestinal tract
that leads to the pathology of the diseases, is to
A. inhibit protein synthesis
B. *cause fluid and electrolyte imbalance
C. cleave host cell membranes
D. act as superantigens to trigger an overwhelming immunological reaction
E. initiate a localized inflammatory response in the intestine
The portion of the bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) that is responsible for the toxicity of the
molecule is
B.
C.
D.
E.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
lipid A
lipoteichoic acid
O polysaccharide
Omp A
N-acetylglucosamine (NAG)
To determine to which species of vibrios infectious agent belongs, the microbiologist performs some
tests on colonies cultured from stool samples. These tests include the following EXCEPT:
A. growth on thiosulfate-citrate-bile-sucrose (TCBS) agar
B. fermentation of sucrose
C. growth at different NaCl concentrations
D. *serotyping based on H antigens
E. phagotyping
To test a stool specimen for Campylobacter, all of the following measures would be used except:
A. *Passing the samples through 0.45 micron filters
B. Plating on agar containing glucose or sucrose
C. Plating on Campy blood agar containing 5 antibiotics
D. Incubating the plates in an atmosphere of 5% O2, 10% CO2
E. Incubating the plates at 42° C
Water to be used for parenteral injection must sterilized to kill living microbes and then further
purified to remove non-living bacterial components. Of those listed below, which is the most
toxic?
A. *Lipopolysaccharide.
B. Polysaccharides of capsules.
C. Plasma-membrane lipids.
D. Proteins of the outer membrane.
E. Nucleic acids
What is the most common outcome of infection with Helicobacter pylori?
A. *Peptic ulcers or gastric cancer
B. Severe diarrhea
C. No clinical manifestations
D. Bacteremia
E. Hepatitis
What virulence factor of E. coli is associated with adhesion in the urinary and gastrointestinal tracts
and also binds to a blood group antigen?
A. Colonizing factor antigens
B. Aggregative adherence fimbriae
C. *P. pili
D. Intimin
E. Ipa protein
When ampicillin was first introduced, most E. coli isolates were clinically sensitive. Many isolates
are now ampicillin-resistant because they produce ?-lactamases. Which phrase below most
accurately describes these enzymes?
A. *Genes which encode them are often present on conjugative plasmids.
B. Although they are produced by many isolates of E. coli, such ?-lactamases are not produced
by other Gram-negative rods.
C. They inactivate all ?-lactam antibiotics.
D. They cause resistance to aminoglycosides as well as b-lactams.
E. They have spread from Gram-negatives like E. coli to Gram-positive pathogens like
Which Escherichia coli type is most like Shigella in its virulence plasmid and mode of infection:
A. EHEC
B. EPEC
C. EAggEC
D. ETEC
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
E. *EIEC
64. Which of the following complications can be associated with Shigella dysenteriae serotype I
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
infection?
A. Arthritis
B. Haemolytic uraemic syndrom
C. Toxic neuritis
D. Conjuctivitis
E. *All of the above
Which of the following expresses a Shiga toxin which disrupts protein synthesis, leading to
destruction of intestinal villus and decreased absorption with an increase in fluid secretion?
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. *EHEC
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. ETEC
E. EIEC
Which of the following expresses a Shiga toxin which disrupts protein synthesis, leading to
destruction of intestinal villus and decreased absorption with an increase in fluid secretion?
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. *EHEC
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. ETEC
E. EIEC
Which of the following Gram-negative rods ferments glucose, is oxidase negative, ferments lactose,
and is indole positive (tryptophan metabolizing)?
A. *E.coli
B. Shigella
C. K. pneumoniae
D. Salmonella
E. P. vulgaris
Which of the following Gram-negative rods ferments glucose, is oxidase negative, ferments lactose,
and is indole positive (tryptophan metabolizing)?
A. *E.coli
B. Shigella
C. K. pneumoniae
D. Salmonella
E. P. vulgaris
Which of the following interacts with G proteins that control adenylate cyclase, leading to the
catabolic conversion of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to cyclic adenosine monophosphate
(cAMP), resulting in a hypersecretion of water and electrolytes?
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. *EIEC
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. ETEC
E. EHEC
Which of the following interacts with G proteins that control adenylate cyclase, leading to the
catabolic conversion of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to cyclic adenosine monophosphate
(cAMP), resulting in a hypersecretion of water and electrolytes?
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. *EIEC
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. ETEC
E. EHEC
71. Which of the following is an important cause of hemorrhagic colitis (HC) and hemolytic uremic
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
syndrome (HUS) in the United States?
A. Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)
B. Enterotoxigenic E. Coli (ETEC)
C. *Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
D. Enteroinvasive E. Coli (EIEC)
E. Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
Which of the following is most associated with infant diarrhea in underdeveloped countries; watery
diarrhea and vomiting, and non-bloody stools?
A. *Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)
B. Enterotoxigenic E. Coli (ETEC)
C. Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
D. Enteroinvasive E. Coli (EIEC)
E. Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
Which of the following is most associated with infant diarrhea in underdeveloped countries; watery
diarrhea and vomiting, and non-bloody stools?
A. *Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)
B. Enterotoxigenic E. Coli (ETEC)
C. Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
D. Enteroinvasive E. Coli (EIEC)
E. Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
Which of the following is most associated with Traveler diarrhea; infant diarrhea in developing
countries; watery diarrhea, vomiting, cramps, nausea, and low-grade fever?
A. Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)
B. *Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
C. Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
D. Enteroinvasive E. Coli (EIEC)
E. Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
Which of the following is most associated with Traveler diarrhea; infant diarrhea in developing
countries; watery diarrhea, vomiting, cramps, nausea, and low-grade fever?
A. Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)
B. *Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
C. Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
D. Enteroinvasive E. Coli (EIEC)
E. Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
Which of the following produces heat-labile (LT-I and LT-II) and heat-stabile (STa and STb)
enterotoxins that stimulate hypersecretion of fluids and electrolytes?
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. EHEC
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. *ETEC
E. EIEC
Which of the following produces heat-labile (LT-I and LT-II) and heat-stabile (STa and STb)
enterotoxins that stimulate hypersecretion of fluids and electrolytes?
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. EHEC
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. *ETEC
E. EIEC
Which one of the following organisms causes diarrhea by producing an enterotoxin that activates
adenylate cyclase?
A. *Escherichia coli
B. Bacteroides fragilis
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Enterococcus faecalis
E. All of the above
79. Your patient is a 70-year-old man who under went bowel surgery for colon cancer 3 days ago. He
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
now has a fever and abdominal pain. You are concerned that he may have peritonitis. Which one
of the following pairs of organisms is MOST likely to be the cause?
A. *Bacteroides fragilis and Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Bordetella pertussis and Salmonella enteritidis
C. Actinomyces israelii and Campylobacter jejuni
D. Clostridium botulinum and Shigella dysente-riae
E. All of the above
Your patient is a 70-year-old man who under went bowel surgery for colon cancer 3 days ago. He
now has a fever and abdominal pain. You are concerned that he may have peritonitis. Which one
of the following pairs of organisms is MOST likely to be the cause?
A. *Bacteroides fragilis and Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Bordetella pertussis and Salmonella enteritidis
C. Actinomyces israelii and Campylobacter jejuni
D. Clostridium botulinum and Shigella dysente-riae
E. All of the above
6 years old child, who goes to primary school, has a whooping cough. What preparations are utilized
for the prophylaxis of whooping cough for children?
A. TABTte
B. ADT
C. AD
D. *Pertussis-diphtheria-tetanus vaccine
E. Human immunoglobulin
7 years old child is in the infectious department with a diagnosis of diphtheria of pharynx. Material,
which was taken from greyish film on tonsils, was inoculated Klauberg’s medium. In 2 days there
were typical colonies of С. diphtheriae. What next stage of examination must be done?
A. To examine biochemical properties of microbes
B. To examine toxigenic properties of microbes
C. *To examine bacterial toxigenicity and examine cystinase production
D. To examine the production of urease, nitrate reductase
E. To stain microbes by Ziehl-Neelsen technique
A 2 year old child presented with a membrane in the mouth. Within 24 hrs a culture report is needed.
The preferred medium is
A. Blood agar
B. *Loeffler's slope
C. Lowenstein-Jensen
D. Tellurite
E. Sugar agar
A 55-year-old man has a two month history of fever and weight loss. He has recently begun to cough
up yellow-green sputum, sometimes with blood in it. X-rays show evidence of lung inflammation
and damage. He is given a PPD skin test. Which statement below about the results of PPD testing
is most accurate?
A. A positive PPD test indicates active tuberculosis.
B. A PPD test may yield a false-positive result in a person with advanced disease [who may be
anergic].
C. A PPD test can cause a person (previously un-exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis) to
covert to PPD-positive status, and so can be performed only once on a patient.
D. *A PPD test may produce a false-negative (or weakly-positive) result if the patient has
impaired cell-mediated immunity.
E. A positive PPD test indicates high level of immunity.
85. A 6 years old child has paroxysmal cough during 3 days. Whooping cough was diagnosed. What
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
tested material for examination is it needed to take first to confirm a diagnosis?
A. Patient’s blood
B. *Smear from the posterior wall of the throat
C. Pus
D. Patient’s serum
E. Vomiting masses
A baby was born in a maternity hospital. What vaccine does it follow to inject to him before
discharge from a hospital?
A. Vaccine against whooping cough, diphtheria, and tetanus
B. *BCG
C. Attenuated poliomyelitis vaccine
D. EV 76 vaccine
E. Attenuated influenza vaccine
A child develops a "cold" which progresses to severe pharyngitis. Pharyngeal exudate forms a tough
'membrane', difficult to remove without causing bleeding. Culture of a throat swab on selective
tellurite agar produces abundant black colonies. Other cultures produce only normal flora. Which
organism below is most likely to have caused this infection?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B. Haemophilus influenzae.
C. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
D. Bordetella pertussis.
E. Mycobacterium avium/intracellulare
A girl, 7 years of old was admitted to the hospital with the high temperature, throat pain general
weakness. A doctor suspected diphtheria and took material from pharynx for isolation of pure
culture of Corynebacterium. What test can confirm the diagnosis of diphtheria?
A. Examination of volutin granules
B. *Examination of bacterial toxigenicity
C. Examination of cystinase production
D. Examination of hemolytic properties
E. Susceptibility to phages
A growth of tuberculosis bacteria on nutrient media takes a place in 3 weeks, sometimes in 2-3
months. But express technique for there cultivation, Price’s and Shkolnikov’s methods may be
used. In what time is it possible to get growth of tuberculosis microcultures?
A. 3-4 days
B. *7-10 days
C. 20-30 days
D. over 40 days
E. over 50 days
A man, 40 years old has chronic kidneys infection. During examination of urine acids fast rod-shaped
microbes were revealed. They did not grow on simple nutrient media, but on Loewenstain-Jensen
medium in a few weeks they formed dry yellowish colonies. What group of microorganisms
could cause his disease?
A. Chlamidia
B. Mycoplasma
C. *Mycobacteria
D. Trichomonas
E. Gardnerella
A microbiologist put a few drops of 1% Ziehl’s phenol fuchsine on a paper which covers a smear
from patients’ sputum, heat it until steam rose. He repeated this procedure three times. Then took
off a paper, put a smear in 5 % sulphuric acid, washed with a water and stained by methylene
blue. What microbes can be examined by this technique?
A. S. aureus
S. pneumoniae
S. viridans
K. pneumoniae
*M. tuberculosis
A mother with a 5 years old girl, who has a cough and flu-like state during 2 weeks, visited the
doctor. Last time a cough increased, paroxysmal cough appeared. A doctor diagnosed “whoopingcough”. What factors do determine virulence of Bordetella pertussis?
A. Exotoxin
B. Pili
C. Histamin-sensitizing factor
D. *Thermolabile toxin
E. Hyaluronidaze
A patient has cough with discharges of sputum. During microscopic examination after staining this
smear by Ziehl-Neelsen’s technique dark blue cocci, which form irregular clasters and rod-shaped
red bacteria were revealed. What microorganisms may be a reason of disease?
A. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Actinomyces bovis
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. E.coli
E. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
A sick child was tested by Mantoux’s test. In 24 hours there were tumidity, hyperemia and
painfulness in the place of allergen injection. What basic mechanisms do provide this reaction of
a body?
A. Granulocytes, T- lymphocytes, and Ig G.
B. Plasma cells, T-cell, and lymphokines
C. B-lymphocytes, IgM
D. *Mononuclear cells, T-cell, and lymphokines
E. Macrophages, B-lymphocytes, and monocytes
According to epidemiological indication in preschool it is necessary to make vaccination against a
whooping cough. What preparation may be used?
A. live attenuated pertussis vaccine
B. BCG vaccine .
C. *Pertussis-diphtheria-tetanus vaccine
D. Human immunoglobulin
E. Killed pertussis vaccine
After making Mantoux’s test in a child of 4 years old in 72 hours a reddening of the skin in the place
of injection of tuberculin is not observed. What does this result testify?
A. *A child is not vaccinated against tuberculosis
B. A child has tuberculosis
C. A child is vaccinated against tuberculosis
D. A child is a carrier of tuberculosis bacteria
E. A child is infected by tuberculosis bacteria
After staining of patient’s sputum by Ziehl-Neelsen technique red rod-shaped bacteria were revealed.
The first signs of bacterial growth appeared in 17 days. What bacteria may be there in the smear?
A. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis.
B. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Histoplasma dubrosii
D. Klеbsiella rhinoscleromanis
E. Coxiella burnetii
After vaccination of babies by BCG vaccine immunity to tuberculosis lasts until there are living
bacteria of vaccine strain in an organism. What is correct name of such type of immunity?
A. Type specific
B. Humoral
B.
C.
D.
E.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
C. *Non-sterile
D. Species inherited
E. Natural
99. Bacteriological laboratory urine from a patient with an initial diagnosis of kidneys’ tuberculosis must
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
be investigated in bacteriological laboratory. What method of diagnosis is it better to utilize?
A. Bacteriological
B. Bacterioscopy
C. *Biological
D. Serological
E. Allergic
Bordet’s nutrient medium is utilized for isolation of causative agent of whooping cough from
clinical material. What component is necessarily included in its composition?
A. Glycerol
B. Potato starch
C. Blood
D. Х-factor
E. *A, B, and C are correct
Boy, 9 years old has diphtheria of pharynx. What was the way of diphtheria transmission?
A. Fecal-oral
B. *Air born
C. Sexual
D. Contact
E. None of them
Diphtheria was diagnosed in 4 years old child. What preparation is it necessary to inject first of
all?
A. TABTe.
B. Diphtherial toxoid
C. Vaccine against whooping cough, diphtheria, and tetanus
D. Vaccine against diphtheria and tetanus
E. *Diphtherial antiserum.
During examination of bacterial carriers in the kindergarten one nurse showed the presence of
Corynebacterium in her throat. The production of toxin by Corynebacterium diphtheriae was
checked. It did not produce exotoxin. What test was used for examination of toxigenicity?
A. Agglutination test
B. Ring precipitation test
C. *Precipitation test in gel
D. Complement fixation test
E. Immunofluorescence test
During examination of patient’s sputum, which was inoculated by Price’s technique, rod-shaped
bacteria appear as plaits. What substance from tuberculosis bacilli does form such pictures?
A. Tuberculin.
B. *Cord-factor
C. Phtionic acid (phosphatide).
D. Fatty acids.
E. PPD.
During examination of patient’s sputum, which was stained by Ziehl-Neelsen, method
microbiologist saw red thin, long rods appeared as plaits. What method of cultivation was
utilized?
A. Loefller’s
B. Drygalsky’s
C. *Price’s
D. Mantoux’
E. Kalmett-Guerin
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
During the examination child 6 years of old a doctor noticed greyish film on the surface of
tonsils. During the attempt of its deleting moderate bleeding appeared. During bacterioscopy after
Neisser’s staining: rods display club-shaped swellings, volutin granules. What symptoms will
appear in a child in the nearest days, if specific treatment will not be prescribed?
A. Oedema of lungs
B. *Toxic lesion of cardiac muscle and kidneys
C. Paroxysmal cough
D. Papular rashes on a skin
E. Disorders of digestion
Every year pediatricians use Mantoux’s allergic for checking of the children and teenagers. What
is the aim of this test?
A. Treatment of tuberculosis
B. Prophylaxis of tuberculosis
C. Vaccination
D. *A selection of children for revaccination by BCG vaccine
E. No correct answer
Five days old boy has planned immunization with BCG vaccine. In 7 years doctor prescribed
repeated immunization with the same vaccine. What examination was the basis of such doctor’s
decision?
A. Examination of antimycobacterial antibodies
B. *Skin allergic test
C. Medical and genetic examination
D. Bacterioscopy of child’s sputum
E. X-ray examination of the lungs
Five years old child was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of diphtheria of pharynx.
Material, which was taken from greyish film on tonsils, was inoculated Klauberg’s medium.
What are there properties of Corynebacterium colonies on this medium?
A. Colonies are convex, with even edges, colorless
B. Colonies are rounded, concave in a center, white
C. Colonies are protuberant, viscid, remind a shagreen skin, grey
D. Colonies are rosette-like, a surface is knobby, yellow
E. *Colonies are grey, round, rosette-like
For a patient with suspicion of diphtheria microbiologist found rod-shaped bacteria with granules
of volutin? What method might be used for staining?
A. Ziehl-Neelsen’s
B. Gram’s.
C. Burry-Gins’s
D. Anjesky’s.
E. *Neisser’s
For diagnosis of tuberculosis infection among schoolboys it is necessary to make allergic
intracutaneous Mantoux’s test. What preparation may be used for the test?
A. *Tuberculin
B. BCG vaccine.
C. STI vaccine.
D. Anthraxin.
E. Brucellin
For examination of Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxigenicity these microbes were inoculated on
the agar and paper strip impregnated with antitoxic serum was put on the surface of gel. After
incubation precipitation lines between the bacterial plaques and paper strip appeared in agar.
What serologic test was used?
A. *Precipitation test in gel
B. Kumbs’s test
C. Agglutination’s test
D. Ring precipitation test
E. Opsonization test
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
For rapid cultivation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis Pryce’s and Shkolnikova’s methods are
used. What factor of virulence may be revealed by this technique?
A. Lecithinase
B. Capsule formation
C. *Cord-factor
D. Neuraminidase
E. DNA-ase
From nasal part of pharynx of child of 4 years old rod-shaped microorganisms were isolated.
According to their morphological and biochemical properties they were identical to
Corynebacterium diphtheriae, but did not produce exotoxin. By what way can this microorganism
become toxigenic?
A. Chromosomal mutation.
B. Cultivation on a tellurate medium
C. Passages through the organism of susceptible animals
D. Cultivation in a presence of antitoxic serum.
E. *Phage conversion
In 1874 G. Hansen described the causative agent of serious human infectious chronic disease,
which has very long incubation. Specific infiltrates – lepromas are formed in patients. What
family does the causative agent of disease belong to?
A. Corynebacteriaceae
B. Enterobacteriaceae
C. Actinomycetaceae
D. *Mycobacteriaceae
E. Rickettsiaceae
In 6 years old child with paroxysmal cough mucous from oropharynx was taken. This material
was inoculated on glycerin-potatoes agar. In 72 hrs of cultivation at 37 C there were small greyish
convex, and glistening, resembling globules of mercury appeared. What causative agent did cause
this disease?
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. *Bordetella pertussis
E. Mycobacteria tuberculosis
In 8 years old child active tuberculosis process was suspected. Diagnostic Mantoux’s reaction
was made. In 30 minutes after the injection there was an insignificant erubescence in the place of
injection. In 24 hours the phenomenon of dermahemia disappeared. What does the result of
reaction testify to?
A. Postvaccinal immunity
B. Active tubercular process.
C. *A reaction is negative
D. A tuberculosis process is occult
E. A reaction is positive
In a 6 years old child active tuberculosis process was suspected. Diagnostic Mantoux’s reaction
was made. What immunobiological preparation was used?
A. Pertussis-diphtheria-tetanus vaccine.
B. BCG vaccine.
C. *Tuberculin.
D. Tulyarin.
E. No correct answer
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
In a child with the suspicion of diphtheria a swab from the mucus membrane of pharynx was
taken. After staining by Loeffer’s method dark-blue granules of volutin were revealed in bacteria.
What value does their examination have?
A. *Diagnostic
B. Treatment
C. Prophylactic
D. None of them
E. All answer are correct
In a maternity hospital it follows newborn to execute an inoculation against tuberculosis. What
preparation must be here utilized?
A. Vaccine of EV.
B. Vaccine of STI
C. *Vaccine of BCZH
D. Vaccine of AKDP
E. Tuberculin
In a smear from a patient’s tonsils with suspicion of diphtheria blue rod-shaped bacteria display
terminal club-shaped swellings, which stained more intensely at their end were revealed. What
method of staining was utilized?
A. Gram’s
B. Burry’s
C. Giemsa’s
D. *Loeffler’s
E. Neisser’s
?In an infectious department there is a girl, 10 years of old with a diagnosis “diphtheria of
pharynx”. Toxigenic strain of Corynebacterium diphtheriae was isolated. How can you examine
the strain toxigenicity?
A. By agglutination test
B. By complement fixation test
C. *By precipitation test in a gel
D. By indirect haemagglutination test
E. By flocculation test
In kindergarten whooping cough was diagnosed in 3 children. In what clinical periods of
whooping cough they may be most contagious?
A. Latent period
B. Paroxysmal period
C. *Catarrhal period
D. Regenerative period
E. Period of reconvalescence
In tonsil’s smear yellow brown rod-shaped bacteria with dark blue granules of volutin were
revealed. What method of staining was utilized?
A. Gram’s
B. Anjesky’s
C. Loeffler’s
D. *Neisser’s
E. Ziehl-Neelsen’s
Leprosy was suspected in a patient. What skin-allergic test can confirm this diagnosis?
A. Dick’s
B. Moloni’s
C. *Mitsuda’s
D. Kumbs’s
E. Shick’s
Mantoux’s allergic test was made in young man of 16. Test was negative. What is the most
rational tactics of doctor?
*To make vaccination by BCG vaccine
To repeat a test in month
To make serologic diagnosis of tuberculosis
Quickly to isolate this young man from a collective
To make rapid diagnosis of tuberculosis by Price’s method
Mantoux’s test is a specific diagnostic test. The results of allergic test we estimate in 72 hours.
What is positive result?
A. *diameter of papule 5 mm and more
B. diameter of hyperemia 5-10 mm
C. diameter of papule 3-7 mm
D. diameter of hyperemia 7-15 mm
E. diameter of hyperemia 8-14 mm
On the tonsils of boy of 12 which got the planned vaccination by pertussis-diphtheria-tetanus
vaccine the microorganisms identical to Corynebacterium diphtheriae according to their
morphological and biochemical signs were isolated. The precipitation test in gel with an antitoxic
serum gave positive result. What form of infectious process can this causative agent cause?
A. *Asymptomic bacterial carriage
B. Ligh non toxic form of disease
C. Toxic complicated form of disease
D. Chronic disease with lesion of internal organs
E. Persisting infection
Pathogenesis of considerable part of infectious diseases is related to the action of bacterial protein
toxins, which have selective action on different organs and tissues of the body. Show, what toxins
is the strongest cellular poison and blocks the synthesis of protein:
A. Staphylococcal toxin
B. *Diphtherial histotoxin
C. Tetanospasmin
D. Botulinum neurotoxin
E. Cholerae enterotoxin
Patient has initial diagnosis of lung tuberculosis. What nutrient medium may be used for isolation
of mycobacteria:
A. glycerin-potatoes agar
B. *Loewenstein-Jensen medium
C. salt-salt agar
D. blood agar
E. Ploskirev’s medium
Patient’s sputum was sent to a laboratory. What method of staining does it follow to utilize for the
examination of causative agents of tuberculosis?
A. Gram’s
B. Giemza-Romanovsky’s
C. Gins-Burry’s
D. *Ziehl-Neelsen
E. Neisser’s
Seven years old child has fever and paroxysmal cough. Similar symptoms were observed in a
senior brother month ago. There may be whooping cough. What method is it possible to use for
retrospective diagnosis of this disease?
A. *Serological
B. Bacteriological
C. Biological
D. Morphological
E. Allergic
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
The child has diagnosis of diphtheria of pharynx. The clinical diagnosis is confirmed by
bacteriologic examinations: toxigenic Corynebacterium diphtheria was isolated. What
preparations do apply for specific treatment?
A. Antibiotics
B. Sulfonamides
C. Toxoid
D. *Antitoxic serum
E. NO correct answer
The presence of lipid cord factor in a cell wall of tuberculosis bacilli leads to that this
microorganism is absorbed by phagocytes, but do not kill. What term does determine this
property of microorganism most exactly?
A. Pathogenicity
B. Invasiveness
C. *Aggressiveness
D. Colonisational resistance
E. Toxigenicity
The toxigenicity of causative agents of diphtheriae is directly associated with determinants of
toxigenicity (tox+-genes). Where do these genes localize?
A. *In DNA of temperate phages
B. In Hly plasmids
C. In Ent plasmids
D. In DNA of causative agents
E. In transposones
There is 7 years old child with a diagnosis of diphtheria of pharynx. What tested material must be
taken for isolation of causative agent and confirmation of diagnosis?
A. Patient’s blood
B. Patient’s serum
C. *Swab from the pharynx
D. Sputum
E. Pus
There is a bacteriological method for laboratory diagnosis of diphtheria. For cultivation of С.
diphtheriae it is necessary to know the some bacterial properties. According to the type of
respiration is С. diphtheriae:
A. Obligate aerobe
B. *Facultative anaerobe
C. Obligate anaerobe
D. Microaerophilic bacterium
E. Capneic bacterium
There is a bacteriological method for laboratory diagnosis of diphtheria. For cultivation of С.
diphtheriae it is necessary to know the some bacterial properties. What nutrient media it is
necessary to use for cultivation of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
A. Serum agar
B. *blood agar, blood tellurite agar
C. sugar MPB, sugar MPA
D. yolk-salt agar
E. Endo’s, Ploskirev’s
When doctor examined a child of 6 years old he revealed the greyish film on the tonsils. He took
this film, stained by Neisser's technique. What morphological feature was most substantial for
confirmation that these microbes are Corynebacteria?
A. Localization of microbes in macrophages
B. *The presence of volutin granules at the ends of microbes
C. Presence of spores, their diameter is more then diameter of the cell
D. Presence of flagella
E. Presence of capsule
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
Which line below correctly pairs a bacterial group or species with an antibiotic that currently
inhibits enough of its members to be used against it, before results of sensitivity testing are
received? Many Bacteria are sensitive to
A. Enterobacteriaceae, Penicillin G
B. Staphylococcus aureus, Penicillin G
C. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Isoniazid
D. Obligate anaerobes, Aminoglycosides
E. Obligate aerobes, Metronidazole
Which of the following is spread by close person-to-person contact through the inhalation of
infectious aerosols and infects a third of the world’s population according to the World Health
Organization (WHO)?
A. M. leprae
B. M. avium-intracellulare
C. *M. tuberculosis
D. coli
E. S. paratyphi A
Which of the following is spread by person-to-person contact, has fallen in prevalence by almost
90% since 1985, and is endemic in armadillos?
A. *M. leprae
B. M. avium-intracellulare
C. M. tuberculosis
D. M. paratuberculosis
E. M. scrofulaceum
Which of the following primarily affects immunocompromised patients, has not shown person-toperson transmission, is acquired through ingestion of contaminated water or food, is seen most
commonly in countries where tuberculosis is less common?
A. M. leprae
B. *M. avium-intracellulare
C. M. Tuberculosis
D. M. paratuberculosis
E. M. scrofulaceum
Whooping cough is acute mainly child's infectious disease which is characterized by catarrhal
inflammation of respiratory tracts and attacks of paroxysmal cough. Virulence of Bordetella
pertussis is determined by all the factors, EXCEPT:
A. Pertussis thermolabile exotoxin
B. Pili
C. Histamin-sensitizing factor
D. Endotoxin
E. *Capsule formation
A 7-year-old girl has a rash, fever, and severe headache that began several days ago. The rash
began on his palms and soles and has now spread to his trunk. His pediatrician also notes
conjunctival redness, and lab studies show proteinuria. The boy’s history is significant for a hike
in the woods a week ago. The child is given tetracycline and his diagnosis is confirmed by a
Weil-Felix test. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Orientia tsutsugamushi
B. Coxiella burnetii
C. *Rickettsia rickettsii
D. Rickettsia prowazekii
E. Rickettsia acari
A 16-year-old boy has a skin lesion on his back. It is 20 cm in diameter, with a red inflamed
border and a red center, with a paler ring between the red areas. He says it has expanded rapidly
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
over the last few days after tick bite. Which of the following would be most likely to cause such a
lesion?
A. Rickettsia rickettsii
B. *Borrelia burgdorferi
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Chlamydia psittaci
E. Streptococcus pyogenes
A 16-year-old, sexually active patient comes to your office because of a circular, 1-cm lesion in
the groin area which is ulcerated but not painful. A Rapid Plasma Reagin test is performed and is
reactive with a titer of 1:16. Culture and Gram stain results from an exudate of the lesion are
negative. The most likely cause of this lesion is:
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. *Treponema pallidum
E. Haemophilus ducreyi
A 22-year old homosexual man feeling feverish and anorexic for the past few days presents with
generalized lymphadenopathy. A diffuse maculopa-pular rash is present over his hand, neck,
palms and soles. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause of the disease?
A. Human immunodeficiency virus.
B. Neisseria meningitidis.
C. *Treponema pallidum.
D. Coxiella burnetii.
E. Leptospira interrogans.
A 22-year-old student presents with a nonproductive cough, fever, and sore throat. CXR
demonstrates diffuse interstitial infiltrate. Sputum Gram stain shows many PMNs but no
organism, and a Giemsa stain reveals intracytoplasmic inclusions in epithelial cells. Doxycycline
treatment is begun. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Chlamydia psittaci
B. Clamydia trachomatis
C. *Clamydia pneumoniae
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
A 25-year-old female presented with a three-day history of fever, headache and a non-productive
cough. X-rays show bilateral diffuse lung infiltrates. Culture of a throat swab (on sheep blood and
chocolate agars) revealed only “normal oral flora”. Penicillin G was prescribed and the patient
sent home. Her illness did not respond to this antibiotic. She was then successfully treated with
erythromycin. Which organism is most likely to have caused her illness?
A. *Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
B. Haemophilus influenzae.
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D. Streptococcus pyogenes.
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
A 25-year-old man complains of a urethral discharge. You perform a Gram stain on a specimen of
the discharge and see neutrophils but no bacteria. Of the organisms listed, the one MOST likely to
cause the discharge is
A. Treponema pallidum
B. *Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Candida albicans
D. Coxiella burnetii
E. All of the above
A 25-year-old woman develops fever, sorethroat, headache, and generalized lymphadenopathy, a
macular nonpruritic rash over the trunk and limbs, flat papular lesions on her inner thighs. Initial
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
serological tests are positive for Treponema species. Which of the following represents the
diagnosis for this condition?
A. condylomata lata
B. primary syphilis
C. secondary syphilis
D. tertiary syphilis
E. yaws
A 26 year old woman visits her physician because of an unusual vaginal discharge. On
examination the physician observes a thin, homogeneous, white-gray discharge that adheres to the
vaginal wall. The pH of the discharge is 5 5 (normal < 4,3). On Gram stain, many epithelial cells
covered with gram-variable rods are seen. Bacterial vaginosis is diagnosed. Which one of the
following normal genital flora microorganisms is present in greatly decreased numbers in
bacterial vaginosis?
A. Corynebactenum species
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Prevotella species
D. Candida albicans
E. *Lactobacillus species
A 26-year-old, sexually active man comes to the doctor because of a circular, 1-cm lesion in the
groin area which is ulcerated but not painful. A Rapid Plasma Reagin test is performed and is
reactive with a titer of 1:16. Culture and Gram stain results from an exudate of the lesion are
negative. The most likely cause of this lesion is:
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. *Treponema pallidum
E. Haemophilus ducreyi
A 30-year old man has generalized lymphadenopathy, anorexia, hight temperature. A diffuse
maculopapular rash is present over his hand, neck, palms and soles. He is homosexual. Which of
the following organisms is the most likely cause of the disease?
A. Human immunodeficiency virus.
B. Neisseria meningitidis.
C. *Treponema pallidum.
D. Coxiella burnetii.
E. Leptospira interrogans.
A 33-year-old male who practices veterinary medicine in Fresno (central California) is seen in the
emergency room with chills, high fever,persistent unproductive cough, and generalized malaise.
Physical examination reveals no evidence of pharyngitis, sinusitis, or otitis media. The patient
does not have a rash and vehemently proclaims that he has not been bitten by any vectors. On his
10-acre farm, he raises sheep, chickens, turkeys, ostriches, andemus. A complement fixation
assay for Coxiellais negative. Given the PE and history, which of the following is the most likely
etiologic agent?
A. C. pneumoniae
B. *C. psittaci
C. C. trachomatis
D. Ehrlichia canis
E. Rickettsia typhi
A 70-year-old man with a history of diverticulosis of the sigmoid colon experiences a sudden
onset of severe left lower quadrant abdominal pain. Fever develops. The severe pain gradually
subsides and is replaced by a constant aching pain and marked abdominal tenderness. A diagnosis
of probable ruptured diverticulum is made and the patient is taken to the operating room. The
diagnosis of ruptured diverticulum is confirmed and an abscess next to the sigmoid colon is found
The most likely bacteria to be found in the abscess are
*Mixed normal gastrointestinal flora
Bacteroides fragilis alone
Escherichia coli alone
Clostndium perfrmgens alone
Enterococcus species alone
A 9-year-old girl develops fever and severe pain on the right side of her throat. On examination,
redness and swelling in the right peritonsillar area are seen A peritonsillar abscess is diagnosed.
The most likely organisms to be cultured from this abscess are
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pneumomae
C. Corynebactenum species and Prevotella melanmogenica
D. *Normal oral nasal flora
E. Vindans streptococci and Candida albicans
A bird shop owner visits his doctor complaining of a headache, fever, and dry cough that has
worsened over the last few days. The patient also complains of a sore throat and muscle aches. A
physical exam reveals bilateral rales upon auscultation and mild splenomegaly. The doctor orders
a CXR that reveals a patchy pneumonitis. Diagnosis is confirmed with serological tests. The
patient is administered tetracycline and the fever diminishes within 2 days. Which of the
following is the most likely cause?
A. *Chlamydia psittaci
B. Clamydia trachomatis
C. Clamydia pneumoniae
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
A Boy Scout troop camped for 1week in the woods in the New England area. After arriving
home, two experienced an insect bite lesion that was characterized by a clear center surrounded
by a flat reddened area that expanded. They also had fever, chills, fatigue, and headache.Which
disease listed below was diagnosed?
A. epidemic typhus
B. Lyme disease
C. Q fever
D. rickettsial pox
E. trench feve
A cattle farmer goes to the doctor complaining of mild cough and fever. He says that the fever
began abruptly several days ago. His occupation as cattle slaughterer leads the doctor towards a
diagnosis, and tetracycline is administered. The diagnosis is confirmed by serology and a negative
Weil-Felix test. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Orientia tsutsugamushi
B. *Coxiella burnetii
C. Rickettsia rickettsii
D. Rickettsia prowazekii
E. Rickettsia sibirica
A child comes to your office with a headache, malaise, mild fever, and a rash developing on the
trunk of the body. The mother tells you that the family recently returned from South America,
where each member had picked up a body louse infestation. A possible cause of this disease is:
A. Rickettsia akari
B. Coxiella burnetti
C. Rickettsia typhi
D. Rickettsia rickettsii
E. *Rickettsia prowazekii
A clinical sings such as a headache, malaise, mild fever, and a rash developing on the trunk of the
body. The mother tells you that the family recently returned from South America, where each
member had picked up a body louse infestation. A possible cause of this disease is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
Rickettsia akari
Coxiella burnetti
Rickettsia typhi
Rickettsia rickettsii
*Rickettsia prowazekii
A farmer comes to the ER with a 1-week history of flu-like symptoms with photophobia. His
severe headache, cough, and myalgias suggest to the physician some kind of respiratory infection.
However, more careful physical exam reveals conjunctival suffusion and macular rash. Lab
findings include elevated serum bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, aminotransferase, and creatine
phosphokinase. With this clinical picture and lab results, the physician prescribes penicillin G
immediately. His suspicions are confirmed later when a spirochete is isolated from the patient’s
blood. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Treponema pallidum
B. *Leptospira interrogans
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Borrelia recurrentis
E. Treponema vincentii
A Kosovo refugee sees a volunteer camp doctor complaining of a rash spreading outward from
his trunk but sparing his palms and soles. Two days ago, he experiences abrupt onset of fever,
headaches, and confusion. On physical exam, the doctor discovers lice in the man’s hair. The
doctor treats with a delousing regimen and tetracycline. Were he at a hospital, he might confirm
the diagnosis with a Weil-Felix test. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Orientia tsutsugamushi
B. Coxiella burnetii
C. Rickettsia rickettsii
D. *Rickettsia prowazekii
E. Bartonella quintana
A medical student was bitten by infected ticks. In a week, he developed a high fever, headache,
muscular aches, nausea, and splenomegaly. Five days later his symptoms subsided. However, 1
week later all his previous symptoms returned. During the next 9 days he went through a recovery
and another relapse followed by a final recovery. Which of the following is the most likely
etiological agent?
A. Borrelia burgdorferi
B. *B. recurrentis
C. Leptospira interrogans
D. T. carateum
E. T. pertenue
A mother brings her 12-year-old son to your office because he has a skin lesion on his back. It is
20 cm in diameter, with a red inflamed border and a red center, with a paler ring between the red
areas. The mother says it has expanded rapidly over the last few days. Which of the following
would be most likely to cause such a lesion?
A. Rickettsia rickettsii
B. Treponema pallidum
C. *Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Chlamydia psittaci
E. Streptococcus pyogenes
A mother is worried that the child may have contracted Lyme disease. Which finding would most
strongly suggest that she is correct?
A. A disseminated rash, with small papular erythematous lesions.
B. An ulcer and edema at the site of the tick bite.
C. A lesion at the site of the tick bite that develops a thick, black, crusted, scab.
D. *A “bull’s-eye” lesion with erythematous periphery and central clearing.
E. A sparse red macular rash, on the palms and soles only.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
A patient has a positive Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test for ‘non-treponemal antibodies’. A test
for specific anti-treponemal antibodies is positive but the patient has no rash, genital lesions,
inflammation, or discharge. Which conclusion best follows from these findings?
A. The patient does not require antibiotic treatment; absence of symptoms indicates that the
positive RPR is a ‘biological false positive”.
B. The patient has Syphilis, but does not require antibiotic treatment, because infections with
Treponema pallidum normally resolve spontaneously.
C. The patient has Syphilis, but the diagnosis should be confirmed by culture before
antibiotictreatment is started.
D. *The patient has Syphilis, and should be treated with Penicillin G
E. No correct answer
A patient in a rural area of New York had a 5 cm red rash with an expanding margin, on his back,
that lasted for about a month and then went away. Later, the patient had episodes of partial facial
paralysis and painful joints. Which of the following is the most likely infectious agent in this
case?
A. Borrelia hermsii
B. *Borrelia burgdorferi
C. Leptospira interrogans
D. Treponema pallidum subsp. Pallidum
E. Spirillum minor
A woman is brought to the ER complaining of vaginal discharge and RUQ abdominal pain. On
history, the patient reports having many sexual partners. Pelvic exam reveals cervical motion
tenderness, and labs of vaginal discharge detect numerous PMNs but no organisms on Gram
stain. The doctor makes a diagnosis based on these findings and administers doxycycline and
ceftriaxone. Later, surgeons, concerned about the patient’s abdominal pain, rule out cholecystitis
by imaging, but laparoscopy reveals adhesions around the patient’s liver capsule. Which of the
following is the most likely cause?
A. Chlamydia psittaci
B. *Clamydia trachomatis
C. Clamydia pneumoniae
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
Although rickettsial infections are often diagnosed clinically, confirmation of the diagnosis is
usually by:
A. *serology
B. culture of the organism from blood samples
C. culture of the organism from endothelial cells
D. PCR (polymerase chain reaction) of circulating blood cells
E. All answeres are corrected
An 8-year-old boy living in a wooded area of Virginia suddenly developed fever, headache, and
myalgia. On physical exam, a rash was noted on his limbs and trunk. Lesions of the rash were red
and a few mm in diameter. No organisms were isolated from several blood cultures. The child
was treated with tetracycline and recovered. Serological tests of acute and convalescent serum
samples from the child are most likely to reveal an increase in antibody titer to...
A. Borrelia burgdorferi.
B. Chlamydia pneumoniae.
C. Franciscella tularensis.
D. Yersinia pestis.
E. *Rickettsia rickettsii.
An eight-year old male from Oklahoma presents with a three day history of fever, headache, and
muscle aches. A rash first noted this morning on his ankles and wrists, has now spread to include
his trunk. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Q Fever
Ehrlichiosis
*Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Cat Scratch Disease
Leptororosis
Antimicrobial therapy can decrease the amount of susceptible bowel flora and allow prolifera tion
of relatively resistant colonic bacteria. Which one of the following species can proliferate and
produce a toxin that causes diarrhea?
A. Enterococcus species
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. *Clostridium difficile
E. Bacteroides fragilis
Children born with congenital syphilis often exhibit Hutchinson Triad, which includes deafness,
blindness, and centrally notched teeth. If the mother has been exposed to Chlamydia, syphilis, or
gonorrhea, the newborn may receive a prophylactic antibiotic for their:
A. Ears
B. *Eyes
C. Nose
D. Mouth
E. Systemic antibiotic (via IV)
Doctor differs syphilis and Lyme disease. Similarities between syphilis and Lyme disease include
all of the following EXCEPT:
A. *Mode of transmission.
B. Progress from local to systemic disease.
C. Occurrence of persistent infection.
D. Spirochetal etiology.
E. Occurrence of cardiovascular manifestations
During 2 week a patient with relapsing fever has some periods of high or normal temperature of
his body. Relapses in relapsing fever occur due to:
A. *antigen variation in bacteria.
B. increased toxin production by bacteria.
C. increased invasiveness of bacteria.
D. super infection with viruses.
E. all anwers are correct
During last three days 9 year old boy has fever, headache, and muscle aches. A rash first noted
this morning on his ankles and wrists, has now spread to include his trunk. The most likely
diagnosis is:
A. Q Fever
B. Ehrlichiosis
C. *Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
D. Cat Scratch Disease
E. Leptororosis
It is important to confirm clinical diagnosis of chlamydial infections. Microscopic examination of
clinical specimens from patients with suspected chlamydial infections is effective only in:
A. Ornithosis
B. Lymphogranuloma venereum
C. Primary Atypical Pneumonia
D. Urethritis
E. *None of the above
Lyme disease is one type of borreliosis. It causes by:
A. Borrelia recurrenlis.
B. B. dutioni.
C. *B. burgdorferi.
B.
C.
D.
E.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.
181.
D. B. hermsii.
E. B. parkeri
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
189.
often rickettsial infections are diagnosed clinically, confirmation of the diagnosis is usually by:
A. *serology
B. culture of the organism from blood samples
C. culture of the organism from endothelial cells
D. PCR (polymerase chain reaction) of circulating blood cells
E. All answeres are corrected
On the membrane filter after through it have filtered 2 l waters, 4 grey and 6 red colonies have
grown. Calculate a coli - subtypes and coli- index. Choose the true answer.
A. 50 and 20
B. 125 and 8
C. 250 and 4
D. 330 and 3
E. 500 and 2
Patient has Lyme disease. Some kind of animals are sourse of disease. Animals involved in the
normal life cycle of the Lyme disease spirochete include:
A. Bats
B. Mosquitoes
C. *Deer tick
D. House flies
E. all anwers are correct
Rickettsia are pathogenic microbes. General characteristics of Rickettsia include which of the
following?
A. A life cycle involving extracellular replication but cyst formation within eukaryotic cells
B. rapid (24-48 hours) culture from clinical specimens on routine sheep blood agar
C. single gram positive cocci surrounded by a capsule visualized in tissue specimens
D. *entry into cells by endocytosis with replication in the cytoplasm or in vacuoles in eukaryotic
cells
E. All answeres are corrected
The 78 years old patient has late syphilis. Manifestations of tertiary (late) syphilis can include all
of the following EXCEPT:
A. aortic aneurism.
B. *multiple skin lesions containing numerous organisms.
C. infection of the brain.
D. formation of granulomatous lesions anywhere in the body.
E. loss of sensory and motor function in the lower extremities.
The doctor did differntial diagnosis of relapsing fever in hospital. Louse-borne relapsing fever is
caused by:
A. *Borrelia recurrentis.
B. duttoni.
C. burgdorferi.
D. B. parkeri.
E. Treponema carateum
The doctor put on presumptive diagnosis "clamidiosis". Chlamydia can be recognized by the
following laboratory procedures EXCEPT:
A. Microscopic examination of Giemsa-stained scrapings from infected tissues
B. Culture in tissue culture cells sensitive to Chlamydia.
C. *Culture on agar medium.
D. Polymerase chain reaction.
E. ELISA.
The etiologic agent of Cat Scratch disease is thought to be:
A. *Bartonella (Rochalimaea) henselae
B. Rickettsia akari
C. Ureaplasma urealyticum
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
190.
191.
192.
193.
194.
195.
196.
197.
The etiologic agent of epidemic typhus (louse-borne typhus) is:
A. Coxiella burnetii
B. Rickettsia typhi
C. Rickettsia akari
D. *Rickettsia prowazekii
E. All answeres are corrected
The infectious stage of the chlamydial life cycle is the:
A. Lysosome
B. *Elementary body
C. Reticulate body
D. Cytoadsorption body
E. Exocytic particle
The patient had episodes of partial facial paralysis and painful joints. befor that he founded in a
rural area of New York had a 5 cm red rash with an expanding margin, on his back, that lasted for
about a month and then went away. Later, Which of the following is the most likely infectious
agent in this case?
A. Borrelia hermsii
B. *Borrelia burgdorferi
C. Leptospira interrogans
D. Treponema pallidum subsp. Pallidum
E. Spirillum minor
The patient has erythema chronicum migrans. Clinical symtoms of what disease is it?
A. *Lyme disease.
B. relapsing fever.
C. Weil's disease.
D. syphilis.
E. pinta
The patient has hard chancre. Appearance of a hard chancre is characteristic of:
A. *primary syphilis.
B. secondary syphilis.
C. latent syphilis.
D. tertiary syphilis.
E. It is not symptom of syphilis
The pregnance woman has syphilis. Congenital syphilis infection:
A. Is virtually nonexistent in the United States
B. *Can be effectively prevented by proper screening of expectant mothers
C. Does not result in any long-term effects past the first year of life
D. Occurs most commonly in infants born to mothers who have been infected for more than one
year
E. Is never life-threatening
The preliminary diagnosis is put patient A. Leptospirosis. Is sick 2 weeks. What tests from given
it is necessary to use for acknowledgement of the diagnosis:
A. Revealing specific antibodies
B. Revealing originators by a microscopy
C. Biologichal assay on rabbits
D. Abjection of a hemoculture
E. *Abjection urinoculture
To a hospital 3 patients entered with Q fever. Q fever is a disease which is:
A. diagnosed primarily in large urban cities in the northeastern United States
B. *usually transmitted by inhalation or ingestion of organisms, not by a vector
C. manifested by a characteristic rash with vesicles (blisters) beginning on the face and spreading
to the trunk
D. caused by Bartonella/ Rochalimaea henselae
198.
199.
200.
201.
202.
203.
204.
205.
206.
Transovarian passage of an obligate intracellular agent is associated with which of the following
rickettsial diseases?
A. Brill-Zinsser disease
B. Epidemic typhus
C. Human monocytic ehlichiosis
D. Q fever
E. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Treponema pallidum cannot be demonstrated by microscopy in:
A. primary syphilis.
B. secondary syphilis.
C. *latent syphilis.
D. all of the above.
Which of the following diseases is/are nonvenereal?
A. Endemic syphilis.
B. Yaws.
C. Pinta.
D. *all anwers are correct
E. all anwers are incorrect
Which of the following is true about Chlamydia and separates them from Rickettsia?
A. Chlamydia can be grown on artificial media
B. Chlamydia synthesize their own ATP
C. *Chlamydia have a unique developmental cycle
D. Chlamydia contain cytochromes
Which of the following organisms is transmitted directly by human to human contact?
A. Borrelia hermsii
B. Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum
C. Leptospira interrogans
D. *Spirillum minor
E. Borrelia burgdorferi
Which of the following serological tests is based upon the use of Treponema pallidum extract?
A. TPA test.
B. TPIA test.
C. *ТРНА test.
D. TPI test.
E. all anwers are correct
Which of the following serovars of Leptospira interrogans is/are responsible for causing Weil's
disease?
A. *Icterohaemorrhagiae.
B. Andamana.
C. Austral is.
D. all anwers are correct
E. all anwers are incorrect
Which of the following staining techniques cannot be used for T. pallidum?
A. *Gram staining.
B. Giemsa staining.
C. Silver impregnation staining.
D. Immunofluorescence staining.
E. all anwers are correct
Which of the following statements regarding syphilis is TRUE?
A. Asymptomatic infection is rare.
B. Houston is a low incidence area.
C. Gummatous syphilis is caused by the rapid outgrowth of large numbers of organisms, which
207.
208.
209.
210.
211.
212.
213.
214.
directly damage the surrounding tissue.
D. The disease is not transmissible at the secondary stage.
E. *Congenital syphilis is preventable with appropriate screening
Which of the following techniques can be used for inactivation of Treponema pallidum?
A. Heating at 41.5°C for 1 hour.
B. Storing at 5°C for 5 days.
C. Lyophilization.
D. *All of the above.
E. Non of the above
Which of the following tests can be performed for the serodiagnosis of leptospirosis?
A. Macroscopic agglutination test.
B. Microscopic agglutination test.
C. Complement fixation test.
D. *all anwers are correct
E. all anwers are incorrect
Which of the following tests is performed most often for the serodiagnosis of syphilis?
A. *VDRL test.
B. Kahn test.
C. Wassermann reaction.
D. Reiter protein complement fixation test.
E. all anwers are correct
The haemagglutination test is utilized for the indication of virus. What does testify the positive
haemagglutination test?
A. Absence of sedimentation of red cells
B. Haemolysis of red cells
C. *Umbrella-shaped sediment of red cells
D. adsorption of red cells on the cell culture
E. absence of adsorption of red cells is on the cell culture
The immunofluorescence test is widely utilized for express diagnosis of a lot of viral infections.
Choose a necessary condition for reading the results of this test:
A. presence of light microscope
B. presence of electron microscope
C. *presence of ultraviolet microscope
D. presence of phase-contrast microscope
E. a presence of light microscope is with dark field illumination
The most practical test for the diagnosis of influenza A virus
A. *hemagglutination inhibition test
B. demonstration of the virus in urine
C. demonstration of virus in sputum by electron microscopy
D. demonstration of antibodies to viral neuraminidase
E. detection of viral antigens in spinal fluid
The neutralization test in cell culture is used for identification of Polioviruses. Show the sequence
of necessary ingredients for making this test( V - virus, PS – patient’s serum, SS - specific serum,
CC – cell culture).
A. CC + PS to wait + SS
B. CC + V to wait + CC
C. *V + SS to wait + CC
D. SS + CC to wait + V
E. CC + PS + SS to wait + V
?The nucleoprotein of the orthomyxoviruses is responsible for assignment of
A. *Type classification
Subtype classification
Hemagglutinin classification
Neuraminidase classification
RNA polymerase classification
The nucleoprotein of the orthomyxoviruses is responsible for assignment of:
A. *Type classification
B. Subtype classification
C. Hemagglutinin classification
D. Neuraminidase classification
E. RNA polymerase classification
The periodic occurrence of influenza pandemics is attributable to:
A. *The ineffectiveness of antibodies against one viral subtype to protect against new subtypes
B. The long time it takes for the virus to spread around the word and return to its starting point
C. A periodic change in the host for the virus
D. The tendency of the virus to attack only elderly people
E. The periodic disappearance of the virus for years at a time.
The positive result of neutralization test in cell culture (colour test) for serologic diagnosis of
poliomyelitis is:
A. Sedimenta in wells
B. *Liquid of yellow color in the experimental test tubes
C. Sediment of red cells in test tubes
D. Liquid of pink color in the experimental test tubes
E. Presence of cytopathic effect
The principal reservoir for the antigenic shift variants of influenza virus appears to be
A. Birds and insecta
B. People in isolated communities such as the Arctic
C. Soil, especially in the tropics
D. Sewage
E. *Animals, specifically pigs, horses, and fowl
The role of the 'early genes' of a mammalian virus?
A. Initiation and regulation of virus replication
B. Maintenance of the virus outside the cell
C. Coding for the structural proteins of the virus
D. Determining the group specific antigens of the virus
E. Coding for the lipid components of the viral envelope
The smallest known viruses are the:
A. *Picornavirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Enterovirus
D. Orthomyxovirus
E. Paramyxovirus
The soil is the natural habitat for certain microorganisms of medical importance. Which one of
the following is LEAST likely to reside there?
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Mycobacterium intracellular
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. *Chlamydia trachomatis
E. All of the above
The strategy of viral genome includes: 1. Synthesis of protein, 2. Penetration, 3. Release of
viruses from the cell, 4. Synthesis of nucleic acids, 5. Deproteinization:
A. 1, 2, 5
B. *4, 1
C. 2, 3, 4, 5
B.
C.
D.
E.
215.
216.
217.
218.
219.
220.
221.
222.
D. 2, 3, 5
E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
223.
224.
225.
226.
227.
228.
229.
230.
The tissue destruction and lesions observed in syphilis are primarily a consequence of which of
the following?
A. Bacterial capsule
B. Bacterial endoflagellum
C. Bacterial overgrowth
D. Bacterial hyaluronidase
E. *Host immune response
The vaccine for influenza has the following components:
A. *Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza A and B
B. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza A,B, and C
C. Nucleoprotein and neuraminidase of influenza A,B, and C
D. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza B only
E. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza B and C
The vaccine for measles is best characterized as a
A. Bacterin
B. Killed virus vaccine
C. Inactivated virus vaccine
D. *Live virus vaccine
E. Recombinant viral vaccine
The virus that caused the swelling of the parotid glands of the boy contains
A. reverse transcriptase
B. DNA polymerase
C. *neuraminidase
D. pyrophosphatase
E. phosphorylase
Therapy of Influenza virus is:
A. Cefotaxime
B. Interferon alpha
C. Imipenem
D. *Amantadine
E. Acyclovir
There are such early stages of viral reproductions: 1. Synthesis of protein, 2. Penetration, 3.
Attachment of viruses to the surface of the cell, 4. Synthesis of nucleic acids, 5. Uncoating
A. 1, 2, 5
B. 1, 2, 3, 4
C. 2, 3, 4, 5
D. *2, 3, 5
E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
There are such serologic (late) methods of laboratory diagnosis of Influenza:
A. *Complement fixation test with paired sera
B. Neutralization test, color test
C. Haemagglutination test with paired sera
D. Hemadsorption test
E. Indirect haemagglutination test, haemagglutination inhibition test
There are such viruses, which are included into Picornaviridae:
A. *Polioviruses
B. Parainfluenza viruses
C. Rubella viruses
D. Hepatitis C
E. Sindbis virus
231.
232.
233.
234.
235.
236.
237.
238.
There is tested material in virologic laboratory with minimum concentration of viral particles.
What modern method may be used for examination of this tested material?
A. Polymerase chain reaction
B. ELISA
C. A method is with the use of monoclonal antibodies
D. Radioimmune assay
E. *All answers are correct
There may be such way/s of laboratory animal inoculation for isolation of viruses:
A. enteric
B. intravenously
C. intracerebral
D. intranasal
E. *All answers are correct
This vaccines are available, and used, in the most countries for prevention of poliomyelitis.
A. Sabin vaccine
B. Salk vaccine
C. *Sabin and Salk vaccines
D. Subunity vaccine
E. Neither
Treponema pallidum can be cultivated in:
A. *rabbit testes.
B. blood agar medium.
C. chocolate agar medium.
D. Thayer-Martin medium.
E. Kitt-Tarozi medium
Under the bentonit coverage there may be such phenomenon in consequence of viral action of
Polyoviruses:
A. *Plaques formation
B. Ring formation
C. Cluster formation
D. Haemagglutination
E. All answers are correct
Virologist infected cell cultures by tested material from the patient. What changes may appear in
the cells?
A. Symplast formation
B. Syncitia formation
C. Intracellular bodies formation
D. Complete degeneration of the cells
E. *All answers are correct
Viruses have various ways of entering the human body and producing disease. Which of the
following descriptions accurately describe the route and mechanism for the virus indicated?
A. Coronaviruses enter the gastrointestinal tract through the mouth and move into the stomach,
where they proliferate within mucosal cells to produce peptic ulcers.
B. *Enteroviruses enter through the mouth, replicate in the pharynx and bowel, and move via the
blood to distant target organs (central nervous system).
C. HIV is directly injected into the bloodstream by insects requiring blood for egg development.
D. Influenza viruses enter through the respiratory tract, replicate within lymphocytes in the lung,
and move via the lymphatic vessels to joints and the central nervous system to produce
muscle aches, stiff joints, and fever.
E. Mumps virus enters through abraded skin in the genital area and moves into the testicles of
males to produce swelling and sterility.
We can make identification of unknown Polioviruses when we use:
A. *neutralization test
haemadsorption test
haemagglutination test
agglutination test
No correct answer
We can not use for cultivation of Influenza viruses nutrient media. We can utilize cell cultures.
What diploid cell line do you know?
A. *WI-38
B. HeLa
C. Hep-2
D. KB
E. BNK-32
We can use virologic (early) methods of diagnosis of Influenza for examination of:
A. *presence of viruses
B. a presence of antibodies against the viruses
C. increase of antibodies titer in patients serum
D. presence of viral toxins
E. All answers are correct
What disease does Coxiella burnetii cause?
A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever (Western hemisphere)
B. Epidemic typhus (Worldwide)
C. Scrub typhus (Asia, Oceania)
D. *Q fever (Worldwide)
E. Scarlet fever
What disease does Orientia tsutsugamushi cause?
A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever (Western hemisphere)
B. Epidemic typhus (Worldwide)
C. Scrub typhus (Asia, Oceania)
D. Q fever (Worldwide)
E. Enteric fever
What disease does Rickettsia prowazekii cause?
A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever (Western hemisphere)
B. *Epidemic typhus (Worldwide)
C. Scrub typhus (Asia, Oceania)
D. Q fever (Worldwide)
E. Relapsing fever
What disease does Rickettsia rickettsii cause?
A. *Rocky Mountain spotted fever (Western hemisphere)
B. Epidemic typhus (Worldwide)
C. Scrub typhus (Asia, Oceania)
D. Q fever (Worldwide)
E. Relapsing fever
What disease has this boy? (fig. 2)
A. Flu
B. Parainfluenza
C. Measles
D. *Mumps
E. Aseptic meningitis
What is characteristic of primary syphilis?
A. Painful chancre
B. *Painless chancre
C. Several painful ulcers in genital region
D. Several painless ulcers in genital region
E. Disseminating rash on entire body, soles, and palms
B.
C.
D.
E.
239.
240.
241.
242.
243.
244.
245.
246.
247.
248.
249.
250.
251.
252.
253.
254.
255.
What is cytopathic action of Influenza viruses?
A. The changes of biological properties of viruses after their penetration in a cell.
B. *Any degenerative changes of cells under the influence of viruses.
C. The changes of biological properties of viruses after their release from a cell.
D. Formation of multinuclear cells as a result of viral penetration.
E. Formation of intranuclear or intracytoplasm bodies in the cell after viral penetration.
What is productive type of viral infection?
A. Integration of viruses into cell genome.
B. *Reproduction of viruses in a cell with formation of new generation of virulent viruses.
C. A blockade of reproduction of viruses in a cell.
D. Ability of viruses to attach to the cell surface.
E. Features of reproduction of viral nucleic acids.
What is the first symptom of Treponema pallidum?
A. *Chancre at infection site
B. Bullseye rash
C. Butterfly rash
D. Vaginal discharge
E. No correct answer
What is the function of “F” viral protein of Parainfluenza viruses?
A. *Provides fusion of viral shell with the cell.
B. Provides replication of DNA.
C. Provides replication of RNA.
D. Provides the release of viruses from a cell.
E. Provides translation.
What is the origin of HeLa cell culture?
A. Carcinoma of oral cavity
B. Carcinoma of human larynx
C. *Carcinoma of the neck of the uterus
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
E. Myelogenic cells
What stage of syphilis is characterized by disseminating rash, alopecia, lymphadenopathy, and
flulike symptoms.
A. Primary
B. *Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Congenital
E. No correct answer
What structure of the influenza-enveloped virus appear to be involved in attachment to the host
cell receptor site.
A. Pili
B. Fimbriae
C. Flagellae
D. *Hemagluttinin
E. Neuraminidase
What viruses are a spherical shape?
A. *Epidemic parotitis virus
B. Tobacco mosaic disease viruses
C. Herpes virus
D. Adenovirus
E. Hepatitis C virus
What viruses do cause haemagglutination of red cells?
A. Influenza viruses
B. Epidemic parotitis viruses
C. Parainfluenza viruses
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
256.
257.
258.
259.
260.
261.
262.
263.
What viruses do have haemagglutinin and neuramonidase?
A. *Influenza viruses
B. Polioviruses
C. Human immunodeficiency viruses
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
When antibody titers are used in the laboratory diagnosis of viral infections, the diagnosis can be
made only if
A. the acute titer is less than 10
B. the convalescent titcr is greater than 20
C. there is a twofold rise in titer
D. *there is a fourfold rise in titer
E. there is no change in titer
When we want to carry out Complement fixation test for serologic diagnosis of disease it is
necessary to make some preparatory stages. What preparatory stages do we do?
A. Diminution of activity of precipitating antibodies
B. *Titration of components of hemolytic system and complement
C. Oppression of activity of heterophilic antibodies
D. Diminution of activity of antistreptolysins
E. Oppression of activity of transferrin.
Which influenza virus has caused pandemi in 1916-1919 years
A. Influenza B virus
B. *H1 N1 virus
C. H2 N2 virus
D. H3 N2 virus
E. Influenza C virus
Which of the following bacteria can be successfully cultured on cell-free medium?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis.
B. Coxiella burnetii.
C. Mycobacterium leprae.
D. *Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
E. Rickettsia prowazekii.
Which of the following bacteria dies quickly after drying?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D. Bacillus anthracis
E. *Treponema pallidium
Which of the following bacteria is/are implicated as causative agent/s of non-gonococcal
urethritis?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis.
B. Ureaplasmau urealyticum.
C. Mycoplasma hominis.
D. Herpes virus 2
E. *All of the above
Which of the following groups of people is most at risk for contracting T. pallidum?
A. Pregnant mothers
B. Cystic fibrosis patients
C. *Sexually active patients
D. Elderly patients
E. Anyone (spread through contact with inanimate objects, such as toilet seats)
264.
265.
266.
267.
268.
269.
270.
271.
272.
Which of the following has been associated with hepatitits?
A. Coxsackievirus A
B. Coxsackievirus B
C. *Enterovirus 72
D. Poliovirus
E. Rhinovirus
Which of the following increases the risk of Reye syndrome, which is acute encephalitis
affectimg childrwen after acute febrile viral infections?
A. *Aspirin
B. Tylenol
C. Ibuprofen
D. Antibiotics
E. Influenza vaccination
Which of the following infects oropharynx, but not the intestine because the virus is sensitive to
low pH?
A. Coxsackievirus A
B. Coxsackievirus B
C. Enterovirus 72
D. Poliovirus
E. *Rhinovirus
Which of the following is known to exist in only one major antigenic type EXCEPT:
A. Measles
B. Rubella
C. Mumps
D. Rabies
E. *Influenza A
Which of the following is an early clinical sign of Lyme Disease and not a late sign?
A. Musculoskeletal disease (e.g. migratory myalgias, transient arthritis)
B. Nervous system disease (e.g. Bell palsy, encephalopathy)
C. Cardiovascular involvement (e.g. AV nodal block)
D. *Erythema chronicum migrans (ECM)
E. Acrodermatitis chronicum atrophicans (ACA)
Which of the following is an organism that prefers to live inside a host cell but may live outside a
host cell?
A. Extracellular pathogen
B. Intracellular pathogen
C. Obligate intracellular parasite
D. Obligate extracellular parasite
E. *Facultative intracellular parasite
Which of the following is associated with Ureaplasma?
A. *Genitourinary tract infection
B. Atypical pneumonia
C. Tracheobronchitis
D. Influenza-like illness
E. Upper respiratory tract infection
Which of the following is NOT true about Mycoplasma hominis?
A. Synonymous with Ureaplasma urealyticum
B. More prevalent in late summer/early fall
C. *Vaccine uses conjugated polysaccharide B
D. Is endemic worldwide
E. No correct answer
Which of the following is not true for influenza viruses?
Enveope contains hemagglutinins
Enveope contains neuraminidase
Enveope lined with two M proteins
Capsid symmetry is pleomorphic (spherical or tubular)
*Influenza A,B and C have 8 genomic segments
Which of the following is NOT used for laboratory diagnosis of C. trachomatis?
A. Microscopy of Gram-negative rods with no peptidoglycan cell wall
B. Molecular amplification (e.g. PCR)
C. Cell culture using certain cell lines (e.g. nonciliated columnar, cuboidal)
D. Antigen test (e.g. ELISA, fluorescence)
E. *Vaginal specimen cytology
Which of the following is the least likely clinical syndrome associated with influenza viral
infection?
A. “Seal bark” cough in children (croup)
B. Fever persisting for 3-8 days
C. *Otitis media in children
D. Malaise, headache, and myalgia
E. Secondary bacterial pneumonia
Which of the following is true concerning a RS-viruses?
A. The genome is segmented
B. Neuraminidase and hemagglutinin are envelope proteins
C. *It has fussion protein
D. RS-virus is resistent to ether
E. RS-virus causes water diarrhoea
Which of the following is true concerning the orthomyxoviruses?
A. Influenza A, B, and C cause epidemics
B. B.Neuraminidase and hemagglutinin are nucleocapsid proteins
C. *The genome is segmented, composed of eight RNA units
D. The matrix protein is important for vaccine inclusion
E. Dogs are a reservoir of influenza hemagglutinin and neuraminidase subtypes
Which of the following is true concerning the orthomyxoviruses?
A. Influenza A, B, and C cause epidemics
B. Neuraminidase and hemagglutinin are nucleocapsid proteins
C. *The genome is segmented, composed of eight RNA units
D. The matrix protein is important for vaccine inclusion
E. Dogs are a reservoir of influenza hemagglutinin and neuraminidase subtypes
Which of the following is true for influenza viruses?
A. Double-stranded DNA
B. Double-stranded RNA
C. Single-stranded positive sense RNA
D. *Single-stranded negative sense RNA
E. Not a DNA or RNA virus
Which of the following is true for visualizing spirochete?
A. They can be viewed without significant magnification (e.g. 10x)
B. They can be viewed with Gram stain
C. They can be viewed with Giemsa stain
D. *They require special analysis such as dark field illumination or silver stain
E. They are eucaryotes
Which of the following is true regarding the drugs amantadine and rimantadine?
A. *Inhibit an uncoating step of the influenza A virus but do not affect influenza B and C viruses
B. Inhibit influenza A as enzyme inhibitors of neuraminidase, preventing virus release but does
not affect influenza B and C viruses
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
273.
274.
275.
276.
277.
278.
279.
280.
C. Inhibit both influenza A and B as enzymes inhibitors of neuraminidase, preventing virus
release.
D. Inhibit an uncoating step both influenza A and B viruses but do not affect the influenza B and
C viruses
E. Inhibit an uncoating step only influenza C viruses
281.
282.
283.
284.
285.
286.
287.
288.
Which of the following is true regarding the drugs zanamivir and oseltmivir?
A. Inhibit an uncoating step of the influenza A virus but do not affect influenza B and C viruses
B. Inhibit influenza A as enzyme inhibitors of neuraminidase, preventing virus release but does
not affect influenza B and C viruses
C. *Inhibit both influenza A and B as enzymes inhibitors of neuraminidase, preventing virus
release.
D. Inhibit an uncoating step both influenza A and B viruses but do not affect the influenza B and
C viruses
E. Inhibit an uncoating step only influenza C viruses
Which of the following is/are an arthropod vector of rickettsioses?
A. flea
B. louse
C. tick
D. *all of the above
E. no correct answer
Which of the following is/are continuous cell line/s?
A. HeLa.
B. HEp-2.
C. KB.
D. Detroit 5
E. *All of the above
Which of the following is/are true about the influenza vaccine?
A. The vaccine is recommended for health care workers, patients with cardiopulmonary
complications, and geriatric patients.
B. The constitution of the vaccine changes every year.
C. Both influenza A and B virus strains are included in the vaccine.
D. The viruses used in the vaccine are propagated in embryonated chicken eggs.
E. *All of the above answers.
Which of the following is/are used to confirm nontreponemal assays?
A. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test
B. Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test
C. Fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorption (FTA-ABS) test
D. Treponema pallidum particle agglutination (TP-PA) test
E. *C & D
Which of the following staining techniques cannot be used for T. pallidum?
A. Gram staining.
B. Giemsa staining.
C. Silver impregnation staining.
D. Imunofluorescence staining.
E. Burri staining.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the envelope constituents of the
parainfluenza and mumps viruses?
A. Hemagglutinin, but no neuraminidase or fusion proteins present
B. Neuraminidase, but no hemagglutinin protein present
C. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase, but no fusion protein present
D. *Hemagglutinin, neuraminidase and fusion proteins present
E. Fusion protein, but no hemagglutinin or neuraminidase present
Which of the following statements best describes antigenic shift within the orthomyxoviruses?
A minor antigenic change of the envelope proteins
*A major antigenic change of the envelope proteins
A medium antigenic change of the envelope proteins
A minor lipid change of the envelope proteins
A major lipid change of the envelope proteins
Which of the following statements best describes antigenic shift within the orthomyxoviruses?
A. A minor antigenic change of the envelope proteins
B. *A major antigenic change of the envelope proteins
C. A medium antigenic change of the envelope proteins
D. A minor lipid change of the envelope proteins
E. A major lipid change of the envelope proteins
Which of the following statements best describes interferon’s suspected mode of action in
producing resistance to viral infection?
A. It alters the permeability of the cell membrane so that viruses cannot enter the cell
B. It stimulates a cell-mediated immunity.
C. It stimulates humoral immunity.
D. *Its action is related to the synthesis of a protein that inhibits mRNA function.
E. Its direct antiviral action is related to the suppression of messenger RNA formation.
Which of the following tests is the most useful currently as an initial laboratory test, has about
65% sensitivity, and has specificity that cross-reacts to other organisms (e.g., Epstein-Barr virus,
cytomegalovirus, adenovirus)?
A. Microscopy
B. Molecular diagnosis
C. Complement fixation
D. Enzyme immunoassays
E. *Cold hemagglutination
Which of the following viruses can incorporate the molecule serving as mRNA into its capsid?
A. herpesvirus
B. rhabdovirus
C. poxvirus
D. *picornavirus
E. measles
Which of the following viruses is classified as a paramyxovirus?
A. poliovirus
B. *measles virus
C. ECHO virus
D. influenza A virus
E. influenza B virus
Which of the following viruses is classified as an orthomyxovirus?
A. mumps virus
B. measles virus
C. RSV
D. parainfluenza virus
E. *influenza B virus
Which of the following viruses makes mRNA from an RNA template?
A. poxvirus
B. retrovirus
C. *picornavirus
D. herpesvirus
E. adenovirus
Which of the treponematoses are not veneral disease?
A. bejel
B. pinta
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
289.
290.
291.
292.
293.
294.
295.
296.
C. yaws
D. syphilis
E. *Three first
297.
298.
299.
300.
301.
302.
303.
304.
Which one of the following diseases is BEST diagnosed by serologic means?
A. *Q fever
B. Pulmonary tuberculosis
C. Gonorrhea
D. Actinomycosis
E. All of the above
Which one of the following is the BEST evidence on which to base a decisive diagnosis of acute
mumps disease?
A. A history of exposure to a child with mumps
B. A positive skin test
C. *A 4-fold rise in antibody titer to mumps surface antigen
D. Orchitis in young adult male
E. Koplik’s spots are main clinical symptoms
Which one of the following organisms principally infects vascular endothelial cells?
A. Salmonella typhi
B. *Rickettsia typhi
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Coxiella burnetii
E. All of the above
Which one of the following statements concerning poliovirus infection is CORRECT?
A. Congenital infection of the fetus is an important complication
B. *The virus replicates extensively in the gastrointestinal tract
C. A skin test is available to determine prior exposure to the virus
D. Amantadine is an effective preventive agent
E. Polioviruses are transmited by vector (ticks)
Which one of the following strategies is MOST likely to induce lasting intestinal mucosal
immunity to poliovirus?
A. Parenteral (intramuscular) vaccination with inactivated vaccine
B. Oral administration of poliovirus immune globulin
C. Parenteral vaccination with live vaccine
D. *Oral vaccination with live vaccine
E. Oral administration only one serotype of inactivated poliovirus
Which protein is predominantly responsible for attachment of the influenza virus to susceptible
epithelial cells located in the upper respiratory tract?
A. Neuraminidase
B. *Hemagglutinin
C. Matrix protein
D. Nucleoprotein
E. Fusion protein
Which protein is predominantly responsible for attachment of the influenza virus to susceptible
epithelial cells located in the upper respiratory tract?
A. Neuraminidase
B. *Hemagglutinin
C. Matrix protein
D. Nucleoprotein
E. Fusion protein
Which proteins of influenza viruses are included in vaccine preparations?
A. Neuraminidase
B. Neuraminidase and fusion proteins
C. Hemagglutinin
D. *Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
E. Hemagglutinin, neuraminidase and fusion proteins
305.
306.
307.
308.
309.
310.
311.
312.
Which test can we use for detect type of infiuenza virus?
A. Hemagglutination
B. Hemagglutination ihibition
C. Neutralisation
D. *Complement fixation
E. ELISA
Which virus has a naked nucleocapsid?
A. herpesvirus
B. mumps
C. influenza
D. chicken pox
E. *picornavirus
You suspect Chlamydia infection in a sexually-active young woman. Which test would be most
likely to provide results which would confirm this diagnosis?
A. Agglutination test for anti-cardiolipin antibodies.
B. *PCR test of nucleic acids present in a urine sample.
C. Test of a blood sample for ‘cold agglutinins”.
D. Gram-stained smear of discharge from the cervix.
E. Culture of exudate from the cervix on Thayer-Martin agar.
After identification of viruses in pathological material viruses from Orthomyxoviridae were
revealed. What virus from this family may be found in this tested material?
A. Poliovirus
B. *Influenza virus
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
After inoculation of cell culture with viral material it is necessity for the indication of virus in
there. We can use such test:
A. Presence of cytophathic effect
B. Haemagglutination test
C. Haemadsorption test
D. "colour test"
E. *All answers are corrects
After inoculation of chicken embryo with tested material from a patient with initial diagnosis of
Flu it is necessary to detect the presence of viruses in there. What test of indication may be used?
A. neutralization test in the cell culture
B. plaques formation phenomenon in gel
C. neutralization test in laboratory animals
D. precipitation test
E. *haemagglutination test
All viruses according to their structure are divided into naked and complex. Complex ones
contain an envelope. What RNA-containing viruses do have envelope?
A. picornaviruses
B. *togaviruses
C. reoviruses
D. caliciviruses
E. All answers are correct
Among reactions, which are widely applied for indication of viruses haemagglutination test, is
used. What is haemagglutination unit?
A. Maximal dilution of viruses, which causes complete agglutination of red cells.
B. *Minimum dilution of viruses, which causes complete agglutination of red cells.
C. Maximal dilution of red cells suspension, where their agglutination is present.
D. Minimum dilution of red cells suspension, where their agglutination is present.
E. No correct answer.
313.
314.
315.
316.
317.
318.
319.
Before making Complement fixation test patients serum must be heated at 56 °С for 30 min. Why
should we done it?
A. For elimination of heterophilic antibodies
B. For diminution of properdin activity
C. For decrease of lysozyme activity
D. *For elimination of complement
E. For suppression of normal antibodies
Chicken embryos were inoculated with patients throat swab. How is it possible to find viruses in
an embryo?
A. Haemadsorption inhibition test
B. Haemagglutination inhibition test
C. *Haemagglutination test
D. Agglutination test
E. RIA
Complement fixation test was utilized for serologic diagnosis of measles. Show sequence of
necessary components among listed ones:
A. Complement, specific serum, chicken red cells, virus
B. Hemolytic system, serum of patient, complement
C. Complement, hemolytic system, specific serum, viral diagnosticum
D. *Paired patient’s sera, viral diagnosticum, complement, hemolytic system
E. Paired patient’s sera, viral material, complement, specific serum, hemolytic system.
For identification of viruses it is possible to utilize reverse indirect haemagglutination test. What
are components of this test?
A. Red cell diagnosticum and serum of patient, electrolyte
B. *Diagnosticum from red cells, which are covered with known antibodies, unknown antigen,
electrolyte
C. Red cells, unknown virus, specific serum, electrolyte
D. Red cells, serum of patient, specific antigen, electrolyte
E. White cells, unknown virus, electrolyte,
For serologic diagnosis of viral infection Haemagglutination inhibition test is utilized. Choose
useless component of this test
A. Patient’s serum at the beginning of disease
B. *Medium 199
C. Patient’s serum which was is taken in 2 weeks of disease
D. Chicken red cells
E. Viral diagnosticum
For the examination of viruses in the sections of tissues immunologic methods are utilized.
Choose such method among listed ones:
A. RIA
B. ELISA
C. CFT
D. *IFT
E. Haemagglutination inhibition test
For the indication of virus haemagglutination test is utilized. What are the components of this
test?
A. *electrolyte, virus-containing material, chicken red cells
B. electrolyte, virus-containing material, cell cultures, chicken red cells
C. electrolyte, virus-containing material, specific antiviral serum, chicken red cells
D. electrolyte, virus-containing material, cell cultures, specific antiviral serum, chicken red cells
E. electrolyte, serum of patient, virus-containing material, chicken red cells
320.
321.
322.
323.
324.
325.
326.
327.
For the indication of viruses in the tested material haemagglutination test is utilized. There are
such components of haemagglutination test:
A. specific serum, sheep’s red cells
B. *Viral material, chicken red cells, electrolyte
C. Unknown antibodies, red cells of hen, electrolyte
D. Virus, sheep’s red cells
E. Paired patient’s sera, viral diagnosticum, chicken red cells
For the specific prophylaxis of some infectious diseases utilize bacteriophages are utilized. Show
disease, where bacteriophages may be used:
A. tuberculosis and brucellosis
B. *shigellosis and typhoid fever
C. Tetanus and botulism
D. Tularemia and anthrax
E. gas gangrene and plague
For virologic (early) diagnosis of viral infections haemagglutination inhibition test is utillized.
What are components of this test?
A. electrolyte, virus-containing material, chicken red cells, cell cultures
B. electrolyte, virus-containing material, chicken red cells
C. electrolyte, virus-containing material, chicken red cells, chicken embryos
D. electrolyte, serum of patient, virus-containing material, chicken red cells, complement
E. *electrolyte, virus-containing material, specific sera, chicken red cells.
From a sick dog saliva was taken for virologic examination and isolation of viruses. What virus
does represent Rhabdoviridae?
A. Hepatitis A virus
B. Influenza virus
C. *Rabies virus
D. Epidemic parotitis virus
E. Rubella virus
Identification of Influenza virus was made in a virologic laboratory. In the first well the culture of
virus mixed with type A specific serum, in the second – with type B diagnostic serum. After
incubation there were two types of sediment: "umbrella-shaped" and "button-shaped". What
immune reaction was used?
A. *Haemagglutination inhibition test
B. Indirect haemagglutination test
C. Complement fixation test
D. Neutralization test
E. ELISA
Immune reactions are widely utilized in laboratory practice. When do we use theses methods in
virology?
A. For authentication of virus
B. For serologic diagnosis
C. For the examination of antiviral antibodies
D. All answers are correct
E. *No correct answer
In a child D., 7 years old there are signs of intoxication, fever 39 IС, catarrhal phenomena
oropharynx. A doctor diagnosed flu. What family does Influenza virus include?
A. Paramyxoviridae
B. *Orthomyxoviridae
C. Rhabdoviridae
D. Picornaviridae
E. Togaviridae
In a sick dog there are salivation, anxiety, causeless excitation. A veterinary doctor suspected
hydrophobia (rabies) in it. Specify what family do rabies virus belong to:
Paramyxoviridae
Orthomyxoviridae
*Rhabdoviridae
Picornaviridae
No correct answer
In a virologic laboratory there is swab from the nose of the patient with flu. It is necessary to
examine strain specificity of the viruses. What test may be used?
A. Rhinocytoscopy
B. According to character of cytopathic effect of viruses
C. *Haemagglutination inhibition test with specific sera
D. Haemagglutination test
E. Hemadsorbtion test
It is known that viruses have a different susceptibility to the action of environment factors.
Specify what does it influence to the susceptibility viruses to X-ray and ultraviolet radiation first
of all?
A. *size of viral genome
B. presence of envelope
C. size of virus
D. the presence of lipoproteins
E. All answers are correct
Orthomyxoviridae can cause the most frequent disease of viral etiology in human. Show the
viruses, which belong to this family:
A. *Influenza virus
B. Poliovirus
C. Rabies virus
D. HIV
E. Herpesvirus
Pathological material (discharges of mucus membranes from the nose) from patient P. was
transported to the laboratory. What express method may be used for examination of specific viral
antigen in this tested material?
A. Direct and indirect ELYSA
B. Haemagglutination inhibition test
C. *Direct and indirect immune fluorescence tests
D. Reversed indirect haemagglutination test
E. Agglutination test
Patient A. was admitted to the clinic during the first days of illness with diagnosis of Influenza.
What can we examine by the early methods of virologic diagnosis?
A. toxins of viruses
B. presence of antibodies against the viruses
C. increase of antibodies titer in patient’ serum
D. *presence of viral antigens
E. All answers are correct
Prions are differed from viruses according to their morphology and biological signs. Causative
agents of what diseases are prions?
A. Kuru
B. Scrapie
C. Creutzfeld-Jakob disease
D. Fatal familial insomnia
E. *All answers are correct
Proteins are represented in the viruses. Show the main groups of proteins according to their
localization and function:
A. *structural and non-structural
B. internal and external
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
328.
329.
330.
331.
332.
333.
334.
C. complex and simple
D. pathogenic and non-pathogenic
E. All answers are correct
335.
336.
337.
338.
339.
340.
341.
Specify the components of Complement fixation test for serologic diagnosis of viral infection:
A. Serum of patient, viral material, complement, sheep’s red cells, electrolyte
B. *Paired patient’s sera, viral diagnosticum, complement, hemolytic system, electrolyte
C. Viral diagnosticum, paired patient’s sera, complement, hemolytic system, electrolyte
D. Virus, specific serum, complement, sheep’s red cells, electrolyte
E. Specific serum, viral diagnosticum, hemolytic system, electrolyte
Student H. has to describe during final lesson a virus from Paramyxoviridae. What viruses do
belong this family to?
A. Rhabdoviruses
B. *Measles virus
C. Yellow fever viruses
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
The neutralization test in cell culture is used for identification of viruses. Show the sequence of
necessary ingredients for making this test( V - virus, PS – patient’s serum, SS - specific serum,
CC – cell culture).
A. CC + PS to wait + SS
B. CC + V to wait + CC
C. *V + SS to wait + CC
D. SS + CC to wait + V
E. CC + PS + SS to wait + V
The phenomenon of cells lysis by bacteriophages is widely utilized in clinical practice. Who did
describe the bacteriophages first?
A. L. Pasteur and R. Koch
B. *M. Gamaliya and F. D’Herelle
C. F. Twort and Roux
D. D. Ivanovsky and E. Jenner
E. S. Vinogradsky and J. Schoenlein
The positive result of neutralization test in cell culture (colour test) for serologic diagnosis of viral
infection is:
A. Sedimenta in wells
B. **Liquid of yellow color in the experimental test tubes
C. Sediment of red cells in test tubes
D. Liquid of pink color in the experimental test tubes
E. Presence of cytopathic effect
The viruses of flu are cultivated in 10-11 daily chicken embryos. What is the best way of there
inoculation?
A. on chorioallantoic membrane
B. in аmniotic cavity
C. in yolk sac
D. in the body of embryo
E. *in allantoic cavity
There are head, shrunken sheath of the process, basal plate, core and fibrils in structures of the
phage. A There is such important enzyme in the phages:
A. phosphatase
B. lipase
C. *lisozyme
D. proteases
E. revertase
342.
343.
344.
345.
346.
347.
348.
349.
There are less according to their sizes as compared with viruses pathogens in nature. Choose them
among listed causative agents:
A. *Viroid and prions
B. Bacteroids and vibrios
C. Plasmids and transposones
D. Erhlichia and plasmids
E. All answers are correct
There are such methods of viral cultivation: 1. On nutrient media; 2. In chicken embryos; 3. In
laboratory animals; 4. In cell cultures. Choose correct combination of answers:
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 2,3
C. *2, 3, 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 4
E. All of answers are incorrect
There are viruses with RNA”+” genome. They execute all the followings functions during
reproduction of viruses, except:
A. This mRNA causes synthesis of structural proteins
B. This RNA “+” is matrix for RNA “-“ synthesis
C. They are packed in a capsid during formation of new viral particles
D. This RNA “+” causes translation
E. *It is a matrix for the synthesis of mRNA
Viruses without haemagglutination activity were isolated from a patient. What test can be utilized
for identification of virus?
A. Haemagglutination test
B. Kumbs’s test
C. *Complement fixation test
D. Haemagglutination inhibition test
E. Indirect haemagglutination test
Viruses, which have availability to penetrate into bacteria cells, and reproduce inside them
causing their lysis are:
A. lysins
B. *bacteriophages
C. macrophages
D. phagosomes
E. lysosomes
We can not use for cultivation of viruses nutrient media. We can utilize cell cultures. What
diploid cell line do you know?
A. *WI-38
B. HeLa
C. Hep-2
D. KB
E. BNK-32
When virologist makes titration of viruses (quantitative examination of viruses in the tested
material) he examines:
A. In cells – Cytopathic dose 50 (CPD50)
B. In animals – Lethal dose (LD50)
C. In chicken embryos – the number of haemagglutination units (HAU)
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
When we want to carry out Complement fixation test for serologic diagnosis of disease it is
necessary to make some preparatory stages. What preparatory stages do we do?
A. Diminution of activity of precipitating antibodies
B. *Titration of components of hemolytic system and complement
C. Oppression of activity of heterophilic antibodies
D. Diminution of activity of antistreptolysins
E. Oppression of activity of transferrin.
350.
351.
352.
353.
354.
355.
356.
A doctor suspected AIDS in patient D. with generalized lymphadenopathy, loss of weight, and
subfebrile temperature. What is a causative agent of AIDS?
A. Human T-Lymphotropic virus-I;
B. Human T-Lymphotropic virus-II;
C. Human polyovirus;
D. *Human immunodificiency virus;
E. Lymphotropic choriomeningitis virus.
A patient has severe hepatitis B. It is necessary to make examination for the presence of
accompanying virus which complicates the disease. Show this agent.
A. НВs-Ag.
B. Virus of hepatitis С.
C. Virus of hepatitis G.
D. Virus of hepatitis Е.
E. *Virus of hepatitis D (Delta-virus).
A patient has suspicion on HIV infection. What method may be used for primary diagnosis?
A. *ELISA
B. Indirect hemagglutination test
C. Coagglutination test
D. Precipitation test
E. Radioimmune assay
A patient was hospitalized with a provisional diagnosis of hepatitis B. For diagnosis of disease
serologic test, which is based on interaction of antigens with antibodies in the presence of
peroxidase or alkaline phosphatase, was carried out. What name does the utilized test have?
A. *Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISA)
B. Radioimunoassays
C. Immunofluorescence test
D. Complement fixation test
E. Immobilization test
A patient with AIDS was admitted to the hospital with generalized lymphadenopathy and white
spots on the surface of oral cavity. In the smear there are oval cells. Inoculation on Sabourou
medium was made. What microorganisms were found out?
A. Citomegalovirus
B. Virus of simple herpes, 1 type
C. *Candida yeasts
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Actynomycetes spp.
A receptor of HIV, which provides co-operating with cell-target:
A. р17
B. р7
C. *gр120
D. р24
E. р9
A sick man of 20 years old has jaundice of the skin and sclerotic coats of the eyes, acholic feces
complaints about jaundice of skin and sclera, acholic stool, dull abdominal pain in liver region.
He might be infected by:
A. Bite of insects
B. Bite of mice
C. Bite of dogs
D. *Food stuffs
E. Sterile syringes
357.
358.
359.
360.
361.
362.
363.
364.
After examination of sick person a doctor made diagnosis of hepatitis D. What result of
laboratory investigation can confirm this diagnosis?
A. *Determination of markers of hepatitis B and D in blood
B. Determination of markers of hepatitis A and B in blood
C. Determination of markers of hepatitis Е and D in blood
D. Determination of markers of hepatitis С and D in blood
E. Determination of markers of hepatitis G and D in blood
AIDS is characterized by next correlation of CD4+Т lymphocytes/ CD8+Т lymphocytes:
A. 1,9
B. 2,4
C. 1,8
D. 2,3
E. *0,2
All are characteristically for the hepatitis A virus, except:
A. Hepatrotropism
B. Presence the only serovar
C. *Polytropism
D. High immunogenicity
E. Cultivation in vitro
Causative agents of hepatitis D (delta-virus) is defective virus, which can replicate only in cells,
which are already infected one of viruses. Show this virus?
A. HIV.
B. HAV.
C. HEV.
D. Epstein-Barr virus.
E. *HBV.
Concerning what subpopulation of lymphocytes does HIV have a tropism?
A. *Т-helpers
B. T-suppressors
C. T-killers
D. B-lymphocytes
E. NK-cells
Correct all according to hepatitis A virus, except:
A. *bilirubin
B. anti-HAV
C. proper IgM, IgG
D. HAV-Ag
E. Viral RNA
During a primary investigation of a patient by ELISA antibodies against HIV were found. What is
it necessary to do then?
A. *To continue diagnosis by immunoblotting;
B. To appoint antiretroviral therapy;
C. To repeat examination in 1 year;
D. To isolate virus in cell culture;
E. To identify virus in haemagglutination test;
During carrying out special test gpl20 was revealed in patient’s blood. What disease can show the
presence of this antigen?
A. Viral hepatitis B.
B. *HIV-infection.
C. Tuberculosis.
D. Syphilis.
E. Poliomyelitis.
365.
366.
367.
368.
369.
370.
371.
372.
During laboratory examination of patient with signs of immunodeficiency antibodies against
gpl20 and gp41 were found. What infection does this result confirm?
A. TORCH-infection.
B. HLTV-1-іnfection.
C. *HIV-infection.
D. HBV- infection.
E. ЕСНО-infection.
During operative procedure blood transfusion was made to the patient. Concerning what antigen
(viruses) is it necessary to verify this blood?
A. Adenoviruses.
B. HAV.
C. HEV.
D. Enteroviruses.
E. *HBV.
During verification of donors’ blood in one person antibodies against HIV were found. What test
could you propose for confirming the diagnosis of HIV-infection?
A. Complement fixation test
B. Electron microscopy
C. *Western blotting)
D. Immunofluorescence test
E. Radioimmune assays
For laboratory diagnosis of hepatitis B last years some test is used for detection of presence of
viral DNA in the blood of patient. Which test is utilized?
A. Complement fixation test.
B. Indirect haemagglutination test.
C. *Chain polymerase reaction.
D. ELISA.
E. Haemagglutination inhibition test.
For laboratory diagnosis of hepatitis Е such methods are utilized:
A. cellular cultures
B. laboratory animals
C. skin-allergic tests
D. *ELISA, Chain polymerase test
E. Agglutination test, CFT
For scrinning examination at serodiagnosis of HIV-infection such test is utilized:
A. immune electron microscopy (IEM)
B. Haemagglutination inhibition test
C. Chain polymerase reaction
D. *ELISA
E. Western-blott
For specific prophylaxis of viral hepatitis B a vaccination is widely used today. What method is
utilized for obtaining this vaccine?
A. From virus of hepatitis B. killed with formalin
B. *By gene engineering methods.
C. From the sheep’s liver, infected with hepatitis B virus.
D. From HBs-Ag, obtained from blood HBV carriers.
E. From HBV, cultivated in the cell culture.
For studying y of immune status in patients with AIDS it is necessary to examine the level of Тhelpers. What test may be used?
A. *Immunofluorescence test with the labeled monoclonal antibodies
B. Rosette-formation test with sheep’s red cells
C. Rosette-formation test with red cells bound with C3 faction of complement
D. Rosette-formation test with red cells bound with IgG
E. Immunofluorescence test with antilymphocytes immunoglobulins
373.
374.
375.
376.
377.
378.
379.
380.
For the diagnosis HIV-infection patient’s serum is examined by Immune blotting test or ELISA.
What enzimelabeled antibodies are utilized?
A. Against the gр14.
B. Against р24.
C. Against gр120.
D. Against gр17.
E. *Against the human immunoglobulins.
For verification of donors’ blood for the presence of antigens of hepatitis B virus it is necessary to
apply highly sensitive methods. What method could you purpose?
A. *Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISA)
B. Immunoelectrophoresis
C. Indirect haemagglutination test
D. Complement fixation test
E. Indirect immunofluorescence test
From the infected mother to the child HIV is transferred (correct all, except):
A. during intrauterine period of development
B. during delivery
C. through breast milk
D. *through dirty hands
E. during blood transfusion
Give the most exact characteristics of hepatitis E virus:
A. “-“RNA
B. *“+” RNA
C. DNA
D. spiral type of symmetry
E. complex virus
Hepatitis A was diagnosed in patient M. What tested material is it necessary to send to the
laboratory for serum diagnosis?
A. feces
B. urine
C. blood
D. *blood serum
E. bile
HIV infection of cell-target includes all, except:
A. receptor endocytosis
B. synthesis of proviral RNA
C. integrations of viral RNA into cell genome
D. formation of provirus
E. *transcriptions of proviral DNA with formation of RNA
HIV-infected person periodically is examined evaluation of signs of process activating. Show the
most substantial sign, which specifies the passing of HIV-infection into AIDS.
A. Decrease of amount of neutrophils.
B. *Kaposi’s sarcoma. The amount of Т-helper is lower then critical level.
C. Increase of amount of T-suppressor-cells.
D. Amount of Т-helpers lower then critical level.
E. Antibodies against gр41 in blood.
Human immunodeficiency virus. Correct all, except:
A. RNA-containing
B. *DNA-containing
C. enveloped
D. has gp 160
E. has reverse transcriptase
381.
382.
383.
384.
385.
386.
387.
In 2,5 months after operation concerning acute ileus the jaundice of skin was appeared in patient
viral hepatitis. It was known from anamnesis of disease, that the patient was a recipient of donor’s
blood. What disease may be developed in patient?
A. Citomegaloviral infection
B. Hepatitis A
C. Hepatitis of D
D. *Hepatitis B
E. Hepatitis Е
In 4 months after treatment in the surgical department in four patients viral hepatitis has been
developed. A clinical picture was characterized by the jaundice of the skin, scleras. It was
revealed that all these patients were recipients of the only donor’s blood during treatment. What
form of viral hepatitis did develop in patients?
A. Hepatitis B and A
B. Hepatitis С and A
C. Hepatitis A and E
D. Hepatitis D and E
E. *Hepatites B or C
In a patient with fever and jaundice viral hepatitis A was suspected. What tested material must be
sent to laboratory?
A. Swabs from oropharynx
B. *feces
C. urine
D. liquor
E. lymph nodes
In a period of clinical signs of hepatitis A there are such markers of virus:
A. HAV-Ag
B. Viral RNA
C. IgM, IgG
D. HAV-Ag, IgG
E. *HAV-Ag, IgM, IgG, anti-HAV
In an infectious department patient F., stomatologist, with liver damages was admitted. What
methods of laboratory diagnosis must be appointed for diagnosis of viral hepatitis B?
A. *Examination of НВs-Ag in the blood serum.
B. Virologic examination of feces.
C. Virologic examination of urine.
D. Determination of functional tests of liver (bilirubin, cholesterol of blood).
E. Examination of enzymes activity (transaminases).
In city M. there is epidemic of hepatitis of A. What characteristic does not belong to this viral
hepatitis?
A. anthroponoze infection
B. food-borne mechanism of contamination
C. intestinal infection
D. illness of «dirty hands»
E. *especially dangerous infection
In patient with the fever of non-clear etiology, immunodeficient status, lesions of nervous and
digestive systems AIDS was diagnosed. What methods of diagnosis must be utilized for
confirmation of diagnosis?
A. Complement fixation test.
B. *Chain polymerase test, ELISA, immune blotting.
C. Agglutination. test
D. Haemadsorbtion test.
E. Haemagglutination test.
388.
389.
390.
391.
392.
393.
394.
395.
In the specialized clinic to the patient preparation which inhibits reproduction of HIV was
prescribed. What group does this preparation belong to?
A. Interleukin.
B. Antibiotics of wide spectrum of action.
C. *Analogues of nucleotides.
D. Sulfonamides.
E. Disinfectants.
In what tested material, taken from a patient with hepatitis, there may be HBV?
A. blood.
B. sperm.
C. breast milk.
D. *All answers are correct.
E. No correct answers.
It is known that HIV belongs to the family of Retroviridae. Specify a basic sign, which
characterizes this family.
A. *Presence of reversed transcriptase
B. Contain minus-RNA
C. Naked viruses which infect only human
D. Nucleic acid does not integrate into host genome
E. Contain DNA
It is known that the hepatitis D virus is defective one and can reproduce in the host cells only in
the presence of other hepatitis virus . What name does this virus have?
A. *Virus of hepatitis B
B. Virus of hepatitis A
C. Virus of hepatitis С
D. Virus of hepatitis Е
E. Virus of hepatitis G
It is necessary to check HIV-carriage in young donor V. What test could you propose?
A. Haemagglutination inhibition test;
B. Hemadsorbtion inhibition test;
C. Neutralization test;
D. *ELISA;
E. Immunodiffusion test.
It is necessary to confirm the positive result of scrinning examination of HIV-infection in patient.
What result of immune blotting will testify HIV-infection:
A. presence of antibodies against gр 120
B. presence of antibodies against gр 41
C. presence of antibodies against gр 120, gр 41
D. presence of antibodies against gр 120, р 66
E. *presence of antibodies against gр 41, р 24
It is necessary to make immunization against hepatitis B in stomatologist. What preparation must
be utilized for a vaccination?
A. *Recombinant vaccine
B. Killed vaccine
C. Attenuated vaccine
D. Toxoid
E. Chemical vaccine
It is necessary to make vaccination of the dentists against hepatitis B for creation of artificial
active immunity. What preparation does it follow to apply?
A. Inactivated virus, cultivated in chicken embryo.
B. Donor’s gamma globulin.
C. Specific immunoglobulin.
D. Monoclonal antibodies.
E. *Recombinant vaccine from viral antigen.
396.
397.
398.
399.
400.
401.
402.
403.
It was outbreak of hepatitis in the villige, which was connected with water factor. What virus
could cause this outbreak?
A. HGV.
B. HCV.
C. HDV.
D. *HAV.
E. HBV.
Laboratory diagnosis of HIV-infection in children, born from the HIV-infected mothers, includes
the use:
A. *ELISA, immunoblotting (examination of antibodies)
B. ELISA (examination of р 24)
C. CPR (determination of HIV RNA)
D. Isolation of HIV
E. all is listed above
Laboratory diagnostics of HIV-infection in children, born from the HIV-infected mothers,
includes:
A. ELISA, Immunoblotting (examination of antibodies)
B. ELISA (examination of р 24)
C. CPT (examination of RNA of HIV)
D. Isolation of HIV
E. *Correct all
Morbidity of Pneumocystis carinii is:
A. Conjunctivitis
B. Abscess
C. *Pneumonia
D. Bronchopneumonia
E. Systemic infection of reticuloendothelial system
Patient A, 20 years of old has diagnosis of HIV-infection. What populations of cells are most
susceptible to the HIV?
A. *Т-helpers
B. Hepatocytes
C. Endotheliocytes
D. Epiteliocytes
E. B-lymphocytes
Patient H., 25 years old, has numerous of skin pustules, which are caused by Staphylococcus
aureus in association with an epidermal staphylococci. In the sputum Pnеumocystis carinii was
discovered, in feces there were – criptosporidium, Proteus vulgaris, and Candida. What disease
may be accompanied by such plural infection by pathogenic microorganisms?
A. Disbacteriosis.
B. Diabetes mellitus.
C. Sepsis.
D. *AIDS.
E. Medicinal agranulocytosis.
Patient has jaundice of skin and sclerotic coats of the eyes, acholic feces, and dull abdominal ache
in the region of liver. There may be hepatitis of C. What serum markers for hepatitis C virus?
A. RNA-polymerase
B. RNA of virus, anti-HGV IgM
C. DNA of virus, anti-HGV IgM
D. *anti-HCV
E. anti-HBs
Patient has jaundice, fever, and absence of appetite, enlarged liver. What serum test may be
utilized for differential diagnosis.
*ELISA for examination of HBs-Ag
Widal’s test
Weygl’s test
Wassermann’s test
IHA test with chlamidial diagnosticum
Patient M, 18 years of old has generalized lymphadenopathy, subfebrile temperature, and
candidiasis of oral cavity. Specify the most reliable method of laboratory research which will
confirm the diagnose of HIV-infection.
A. *Western blotting
B. Radioimmune assays
C. ELISA for examination of antibodies
D. Immunofluorescence test
E. ELISA for examination of antigens
Reproduction of what viruses does foresee integration of their genomes in cell genome
A. *Retroviruses
B. Herpes viruses
C. Adenoviruses
D. Papovaviruses
E. Hepatoviruses
Risk groups concerning to parenteral hepatitis (correct all, except):
A. *donors of blood
B. persons which have commercial sex
C. medical personal
D. patients with hemophilia
E. drug users which inject drugs intravenously
Sick person M., 37 years of old, has complaints about the increase of temperature, diarrhea, loss
of bodies weight, generalized lymphadenopathy. In anamnesis there is a duty journey to GuineaBissau 4 years ago, and hospitalization in connection with an autotrauma. A doctor made the
previous diagnosis of AIDS. What ratio index of CD4-lymphocytes/CD8-lymphocytes may be
during AIDS?
A. 1,9.
B. 2,4.
C. 1,8.
D. 2,3.
E. *0,2.
Sick woman, 22 years old was hospitalized in a clinic with complaints of weight loss, general
weakness, increase of lymphatic nodes. During last few months suffers from diarrhea. Laboratory
tests showed leucopenia, there were a lot of Cryptosporidium in feces. Diagnosis of AIDS was
made. What test can confirm this diagnose?
A. *Absolute decrease of amount of Т-helpers
B. Activity of complement system is quit low
C. Lymphopenia
D. Polyclonal activating of B-lymphocytes
E. Change of correlation between T- and B- lymphocytes
Sign methods for diagnosis of hepatitis B: 1) isolation of viruses in cell cultures; 2) inoculation of
laboratory animal; 3) examination of circulating antibodies against viruses in blood serum; 4)
examination of viral antigens in tested material; 5) skins allergic tests. Choose the only
combination of correct answers:
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. *3,4
D. 4,5
E. 1,5
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
404.
405.
406.
407.
408.
409.
410.
411.
412.
413.
414.
415.
416.
417.
The 22-years-old woman during last two days had an increase of temperature to 38 °С, absence
of appetite. An icterus appeared in the morning. Objectively: enlarged liver, but soft. General
bilirubin – 5 mg/dL (normal < 1), there is increase of transaminase activity. Two years ago she
was immunized with a vaccine against hepatitis B, but not against hepatitis A. Results of
serologic examination: HAV-IgM – negative, HAV-IgG – positive, HB-sAg – negative, HBsAb –
positive, HBcAb – negative, HCV – Ab-positive. What postulate is more correct?
A. Possibly, she has hepatitis of A. She is not infected with HBV, however, possibly, she had
hepatitis C.
B. Possibly, she has hepatitis of A. Possibly, she was infected with HBV, and had hepatitis C
C. *She was infected with HAV, she is not infected with HBV, and, possibly, she has hepatitis C
D. She was infected with HAV, possibly, she has hepatitis B, and, she was ill with hepatitis C in
the past
E. She has carcinoma of liver
Virologic laboratory provide the examination for the HIV-carriage. What tested material from
human must be taken?
A. blood for the examination of the presence of HIV;
B. sperm for the examination of the presence of HIV;
C. *blood serum for the examination of the presence of antibodies against HIV;
D. feces for the examination of the presence of HIV;
E. saliva for the examination of the presence of HIV;
What anti-viral medicine is most widely used for inhibition of HIV replication?
A. *Azidothymidine.
B. Zintevir.
C. Nevirapine.
D. Indinavir.
E. Amantadin.
What gene is included into yeasts for obtaining recombinant vaccine against hepatitis B?
A. *Gene of HBsAg.
B. Gene of HBcAg .
C. Gene of HBeAg .
D. All genes.
E. There is no such vaccine.
What is a way for transmission of hepatitis E?
A. *Through contaminated water.
B. Through contaminated syringes and needles.
C. Sexual way.
D. Correct all.
E. No correct answer
What is efficiency of transmission is HIV during blood transfusion?
A. *>90%.
B. 13-40%.
C. 2.5%.
D. 0.5-1%.
E. 50 %.
What viral hepatitis is more frequent accompanied with chronic process and development of
cirrhosis?
A. viral hepatitis A
B. *viral hepatites of B, C
C. viral hepatitis of D
D. viral hepatitis of Е
E. viral hepatites A and E
What virus can be utilized for obtaining hybrid vaccine against hepatitis B?
A. *Vaccinia virus.
Adenovirus.
Herpes simplex virus, I type.
Papillomavirus.
Virus of hepatitis A.
418.
Which viruses are passed by parenteral and sexual way?
A. Virus of hepatitis B.
B. Virus of hepatitis С.
C. Virus of hepatitis G.
D. *All of them.
E. None of them.
Test’s questions to figures
1. What microbes are shown in the figure? Fig.1
A.*Micrococci
B. Staphylococci
C. Streptococci
D.Vibrios
E. Pneumococci
2. What microbes are shown in the figure? Fig. 2
A. Micrococci
B. *Diplococci
C. Staphylococci
D. Streptococci
E. Tetracocci
3. What microbes are shown in the figure? Fig. 3
A. Micrococci
B. Diplococci
C. Staphylococci
D. Streptococci
E. *Tetracocci
4. What microbes are shown in the figure? Fig. 4
A. Micrococci
B. Diplococci
C. *Staphylococci
D. Streptococci
E. Tetracocci
5. What microbes are shown in the figure? Fig. 5
A. Micrococci
B. Diplococci
C. Staphylococci
D. *Streptococci
E. Tetracocci
6. What method is shown in figure? Fig. 6
A. inoculation by a spatula
B. *inoculation by streaks technique
C. inoculation by serial dilution in solid nutrient media
D. inoculation by a tampon
E. none of the offered
7. Which properties of bacteria can we examine? Fig. 7
A. Sugarlytic
B. Coagulase activity
C. DNA-aze activity
D. Peptolytic
E. *Hemolytic
B.
C.
D.
E.
8. Are there any signs of Staphylococci growth in these test tubes? Fig. 8
A. there is a growth in the right test tube
B. there is no growth in the left test tube
C. there is no growth in the right test tube
D. *there is a growth in the left test tube
E. growth is present in both test tubes
9. What is a sign of Staphylococci growth in the left test tube? Fig. 8
A. formation of sediment
B. formation of pellicle
C. *formation of diffuse turbidity
D. absence of growth in the left test tube
E. formation of «stalactites»
10. What properties of Staphylococci are tested on this medium? Fig. 9
A. sugarlytic
B. lipolytic
C. proteolytic
D. *hemolytic
E. reductive
11. What properties of Streptococci are tested on this medium? Fig. 9
A. saccharolytic
B. alfa-hemolytic
C. proteolytic
D. gamma-hemolytic
E. *beta-hemolytic
12. There is a yolk agar in the figure. What property of bacteria is it possible to verify? Fig.10
A. proteolytic
B. hemolytic
C. *lecithinase production
D. gelatin hydrolysis
E. saccharolytic
13. There are colonies of Staphylococcus spp. in the yolk agar. Are these bacteria pathogenic or not? Fig.
10.
A. yes, because they have proteolytic properties
B. yes, because they have hemolytic properties
C. *yes, because they have lecithinase activity
D. yes, because gelatin hydrolysis occurs
E. yes, because they have saccharolytic properties
14. Tested material from the patient’s nose was inoculated into yolk agar. Does the microbe have
lecithinase activity? What is the microbe? Fig. 10
A. *It does. Staphylococcus aureus.
B. It does. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
C. It does not. Staphylococcus aureus.
D. It does not. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
E. Yes. Streptococcus pyogenes.
15. What microbes are present in the tissue? Fig. 11
A. Neisseria
B. Tetracocci
C. Pneumococci
D. *Staphylococci
E. Streptococci
16. What kind of test is it? Fig. 12
A. Examination of hyaluronidaze
B. *Examination of plasmocoagulase
C. Examination of phosphatase
D. Examination of nitrate reductaze
E. Examination of peptolytic properties
17. Bacteriophages were used for identification of bacteria. Phages against Staphylococcus aureus were
added. Make conclusion: was Staphylococcus aureus identified or not? Fig. 13
A. *Yes
B. No
C. Test is doubtful
D. It is impossible to make correct conclusion
E. Staphylococcus epidermidis was identified
18. Within the outbreak of hospital infection in the surgical clinic, it was necessary to reveal the source
of infection. What method of investigation was used? Fig. 13
A. Biochemical
B. Serological
C. *Phagotyping?
D. According to growth signs
E. According to toxigenic properties
19. What microbe antigen structure is shown in the figure? Fig. 14
A. Micrococcus
B. *Salmonella
C. Staphylococcus
D. Streptococcus
E. Tetracoccus
20. A stool sample is inoculated on standard Mac-Conkey medium plates. After the overnight- incubation
some of the colonies are red, others are pale, almost colorless. What can you conclude about the
bacteria which colonies are red? Fig. 15
A. Gram-positive.
B. *They ferment lactose.
C. They are unlikely to be a ‘normal flora’.
D. Non-motile.
E. They produce capsules
21. A stool sample is plated on standard Mac Conkey medium plates. After overnight -incubation some
of the colonies are red, others are pale, almost colorless. What can you conclude about the bacteria
which colonies are pale? Fig. 15
A. Gram-positive.
B. They ferment lactose.
C. *They don’t ferment lactose
D. Non-motile.
E. They produce capsules
22. Which bacteria can produce dark- red colonies on Mac Conkey medium? Fig. 15
A. Salmonella enterica
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Shigella sonnei
E. Shigella dysenteriae
23. All of the represented bacteria can produce on Mac Conkey medium colourless colonies, except: Fig.
15
A. Salmonella enterica
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Shigella sonnei
D. Shigella dysenteriae
E. Salmonella typhi
24. Which of the following bacteria can’t produce colourless colonies on Mac Conkey medium? Fig. 15
A. Salmonella enterica
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Shigella sonnei
E. Shigella dysenteriae
25. Which of the following bacteria is peritrichous? Fig.16
A. Staphylococcus aureus.
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. *E. coli
E. All of the above.
26. Which method of separate colonies obtaining is demonstration in the figure? Fig. 17
A. Koch’s technique
B. *Drigalsky’s technique
C. Streaks’ technique
D. Pasteur’s technique
E. There is no correct answer
27. What method of mechanical separation of bacteria is shown in the figure? Fig. 18
A. Koch’s technique
B. Drigalsky’s technique
C. *Streaks’ technique sowing
D. Pasteur’s technique
E. There is no correct answer
28. What test is represented in the figure? Fig.19
A. Examination of motility of bacteria
B. Examination of susceptibility to bacteriophages
C. *Agglutination test
D. Chain polymerase reaction
E. Gelatin hydrolysis
29. What equipment is shown in figure? Fig. 20
A. *autoclave
B. serum coagulator
C. thermostat
D. sterilizer
E. dry-heat closet
30. How can we use this test-system? Fig. 21
A. for sterilization control in a heat oven
B. *for sterilization control in autoclave
C. for sterilization control of mechanical sterilization
D. for gas method sterilization control
E. for sterilization control by ultraviolet rays
31. Do these microbes have hemolytic properties? Fig. 22
A. do not have
B. it is hard to determine
C. they do
D. the minority of bacteria –does have, but the majority- doesn’t
E. *the majority of bacteria – have, the minority – no
32. Are there any signs of growth of bacteria in these test tubes? Fig. 23
A. there is a growth in the right test tube
B. there is no growth in the left test tube
C. there is no growth in the right test tube
D. *there is a growth in the left test tube
E. growth is present in both test tubes
33. What microorganisms can grow on the Endo medium and form dark- pink colonies? Fig. 24
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Salmonella paratyphi A
E. *Escherichia coli
34. What properties of bacteria can be examined on the Endo medium? Fig. 24
A. fermentation of proteins
B. fermentation of sucrose
C. *fermentation of lactose
D. fermentation of mannit
E. fermentation of sterol
35. Which bacteria can produce dark -pink colonies on Endo medium? Fig. 24
A. Salmonella enterica
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Shigella sonnei
E. Shigella dysenteriae
36. A 65-year-old patient F has diarrhea. The feces specimen is sent to bacteriologic examination
A. *Staphylococcus aureus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Salmonella enteritidis
D. Proteus vulgaris
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
37. Which method is used for obtaining isolated colonies of enterobacteria? Fig. 26
A. Koch’s technique
B. Drigalsky’s technique
C. *Streaks’ technique
D. Pasteur’s technique
E. There is no correct answer
38. This test is used for identification of microorganisms. What is the method? Fig. 27
A. Precipitation test
B. *Agglutination test
C. Indirect hemagglutination test
D. Hemagglutination inhibition test
E. Immunofluorescense test
39. Roseola formation is a clinical symptom of the following disease: Fig. 28
A. Gonorrhea
B. Leprosy
C. Meningitis
D. *Typhoid fever
E. Anthrax
40. This test is used for serological diagnosis of infection disease. What is this method? Fig. 29
A. Precipitation test
B. Agglutination test
C. *Indirect hemagglutination test
D. Hemagglutination inhibition test
E. Immunofluorescense test
41. Which of the following nutritient media is shown in the figure? Fig. 30
A. Mac-Conkey agar
B. MPA
C. *TCBS
D. EMB (eosin-methylene blue agar)
E. blood agar
42. Which test is used for Shigella detection? Fig. 31
A. Precipitation test
B. *Agglutination test
C. Indirect hemahlutination test
D. Hemagglutination inhibition test
E. Immunofluorescense test
43. Which bacteria are shown in the figure? Fig. 32
A. Escherichia
B. Salmonella
C. Shigella
D. *Vibrio
E. Campylobacter
44. Which bacteria are shown in the figure? Fig. 33
A. Escherichia
B. Salmonella
C. Shigella
D. Vibrio
E. *Helicobacter
45. Which bacteria are shown in the figure? Fig. 34
A. Escherichia
B. Salmonella
C. Shigella
D. Vibrio
E. *Campylobacter
46. Which colonies on Endo’s medium do belong to Shigella? Fig. 35
A. Red
B. *White
C. Both of them
D. None of them
E. Shigella can’t grow on solid nutrient media
47. A stool sample is plated on Mac-Conkey agar plates. After overnight -incubation some of the
colonies are dark -pink in colour, others are pale, almost colourless. What can you conclude about the
bacteria that produce dark-pink colonies? Fig. 35
A. Gram-positive.
B. *They ferment lactose.
C. They are not likely to be a ‘normal flora’.
D. Non-motile.
E. They produce capsules
48. Morphologically these bacteria belong to the following genus: Fig. 36
A. Vibrio
B. *Shigella
C. Helicobacter
D. Staphylococcus
E. None of them
49. What is shown in the figure? Fig. 37
A. E. coli
B. C. diphtheriae phage with tox+ -genes
C. *M. tuberculosis
D. C. diphtheriae
E. M. smegmatis
50. What disease clinical symptoms are shown in the figure? Fig. 38
A. Whooping cough
B. *Diphtheria
C. Tuberculosis
D. Leprosy
E. No correct answer
51. What is shown in the figure? Fig. 39
A. Growth of C. diphtheriae in liquid nutient medium
B. *Growth of M. tuberculosis in liquid nutient medium
C. Examination of M. tuberculosis antibiotic sensitivity
D. Examination of M. tuberculosis niacin production
E. No correct answer
52. What microbes are shown in the figure? Fig. 40
A. *Mycobacterium leprae
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. M. smegmatis
D. Bordetella pertussis
E. Vibrio cholerae
53. What disease clinical symptoms are shown in the figure? Fig. 41
A. Whooping cough
B. Skin diphtheria
C. Skin tuberculosis
D. *Leprosy
E. No correct answer
54. What test was used for the examination of diphtheria toxin production? Fig. 42
A. Agglutination test
B. Complement fixation test
C. Immunofluorescence test
D. ELISA
E. *Precipitation test in gel
55. There is a yolk agar in the figure. What property of bacteria is examined on it? Fig. 43
A. proteolytic
B. hemolytic
C. *lecithinase production
D. gelatin hydrolysis
E. saccharolytic
56. What microbes demonstrate the lecitinase activity on the YSA? Fig. 43
A. *Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D. Sreptococcus pyogenes
E. Micrococcus luteus
57. Which test is demonstrated in the figure? Fig. 43
A. glucose fermentation
B. manitiol fermentation
C. coagulase production
D. citrate utilization
E. *lecitinase production
58. What microbes are shown in the figure? Fig. 44
A. M. tuberculosis
B. *C. tetani
C. C. botulinum
D. S. typhi
E. No correct answer
59. What properties of bacteria are tested on this medium? Fig. 45
A. saccharolytic
B. lipolytic
C. *proteolytic
D. hemolytic
E. reductive
60. What microbes are shown in the figure? Fig. 46
A. M. tuberculosis
B. *C. tetani
C. C. botulinum
D. S. typhi
E. No correct answer
61. What microbes are shown in the figure? Fig. 47
A. Mycobacteria tuberculosis
B. Clostridia botulinum
C. *Clostridium tetani
D. Salmonella typhi
E. Brucella abortus.
62. What microbes are shown in the figure? Fig. 48
A. Streptobacilli
B. *Monobacilli
C. Streptobacteria
D. Diplobacteria
E. Monobacteria
63. What microbes are shown in the figure? Fig. 49
A. *Streptobacilli
B. Streptobacteria
C. Diplobacteria
D. Monobacilli
E. Monobacteria
64. What microbes are shown in the figure? Fig. 50
A. M. tuberculosis
B. C. tetani
C. *C. botulinum
D. S. typhi
E. No correct answer
65. How can we use this test-system? Fig. 51
A. for the verification of sterilization
B. for the identification of bacteria
C. for the phagotyping
D. for the bacteria staining
E. *for the creation of anaerobic condition
66. Clinical signs of the following disease are represented in the figure: Fig. 52
A. Brucellosis
B. *Tetanus
C. Tularemia
D. Anthrax
E. Gas anerobic infection
67. How can we use this jar? Fig. 53
A. for cultivation of aerobic bacteria
B. *for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria
C. for cultivation of facultative anaerobic bacteria
D. for sterilization of Petry’s plate with microbes
E. for cultivation of aerotolerant bacteria
68. What microbes are there? Fig. 54
A. B. anthracis
B. C. tetani
C. C. novyi
D. C. perfringens
E. *Y. pestis
69. There are clinical signs of such a disease: Fig. 55
A. Brucellosis
B. Plague
C. Tularemia
D. Anthrax
E. *Gas anerobic infection
70. Colonies of the following microbe are shown in the figure: Fig. 56
A. C. tetani
B. *B. anthracis
C. C. novyi
D. C. perfringens
E. E. pestis
71. Colonies of the following microbe are shown in the figure: Fig. 57
A. C. tetani
B. B. anthracis
C. C. novyi
D. C. perfringens
E. *Y. pestis
72. There is a labolatory animal which was infected by: Fig. 58
A. C. botulinum
B. C. septicum
C. C. perfringens
D. C. difficile
E. *C. tetani
73. This patient has tonic spasms of the jaw muscles (trismus) and face muscles (risus sardonicus). What
disease does he have? Fig. 59
A. Brucellosis
B. Plague
C. *Tetanus
D. Anthrax
E. Gas anerobic infection
74. Patient N. has opisthotonus. What disease does he have? Fig.60.
A. Brucellosis
B. Plague
C. Anthrax
D. *Tetanus
E. Gas anerobic infection
75. What microbes are there in the figure? Fig. 61
A. B. anthracis
B. C. perfringens
C. S. mutans
D. *C. botulinum
E. B. abortus
76. Guinea pig is injected with tested material. What disease does this animal develop? Fig. 62
A. Brucellosis
B. Plague
C. Anthrax
D. Tetanus
E. *Botulism
77. Which method of enterobacteria isolated colonies obtaining is shown in the figure? Fig. 63
A. Koch’s technique
B. Drigalsky’s technique
C. *Streaks’ technique
D. Pasteur’s technique
E. There is no correct answer
78. What test is used for tularemia diagnostics? Fig. 64
A. Agglutination test
B. Precipitation test
C. *Blood-drop agglutination reaction
D. CFT
E. ELISA
79. What microbes are there in the figure? Fig. 65
A. *B. anthracis
B. S. mutans
C. Y. pestis
D. B. abortus
E. F. tularensis
80. What microbes are there in the smear? Fig. 66
A. S. mutans
B. Y. pestis
C. B. abortus
D. *B. anthracis
E. F. tularensis
81. What specific feature of B. anthracis is there in this figure? Fig. 66
A. Cell wall formation
B. *Capsule formation
C. Protoplasts formation
D. Spheroplasts formation
E. No correct answer
82. What is there in the figure? Fig. 67
A. Clinical manifectation of brucellosis
B. Clinical manifectation of plague
C. Clinical manifectation of tularemia
D. *Clinical manifectation of anthrax
E. Clinical manifectation of tetanus
83. What microbes are shown in the figure? Fig. 68
A. Treponema
B. *Borrelia
C. Leptospira
D. Spirilla
E. Vibrio
84. What microbes are shown in the figure? Fig. 69
A. Treponema
B. Borrelia
C. *Leptospira
D. Spirilla
E. Vibrio
85. What microbes are shown in the figure? Fig. 70
A. *Treponema
B. Borrelia
C. Leptospira
D. Spirilla
E. Vibrio
86. What disease clinical signs are shown in the figure? Fig. 71
A. Primary syphilis
B. *Secondary syphilis
C. Tertiary syphilis
D. Tuberculosis
E. Leprosy
87. What disease clinical signs are shown in the figure? Fig. 72
A. Primary syphilis
B. *Secondary syphilis
C. Tertiary syphilis
D. Tuberculosis
E. Leprosy
88. What disease clinical signs are shown in the figure? Fig. 73
A. *Primary syphilis
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Tertiary syphilis
D. Tuberculosis
E. Leprosy
89. What disease clinical signs are shown in the figure? Fig. 74
A. Primary syphilis
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Tertiary syphilis
D. *Congenital syphilis
E. Leprosy
90. What disease clinical signs are shown in the figure? Fig. 75
A. Primary syphilis
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Tertiary syphilis
D. Leprosy
E. *Congenital syphilis
91. What virus is shown in the figure: Fig. 76
A. *Herpes simplex virus
B. Adenovirus
C. Picornavirus
D. Bunyavirus
E. Rabdovirus
92. What virus is shown in the figure: Fig. 77
A. *Rabdovirus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Adenovirus
D. Picornavirus
E. Bunyavirus
93. What virus is shown in the figure: Fig. 78
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. *Adenovirus
C. Picornavirus
D. Bunyavirus
E. Rabdovirus
94. What disease clinical signs are shown in the figure? Fig. 79
A. *Frambesia
B. Pinta
C. Congenital syphilis
D. Primary syphilis
E. Secondary syphilis
95. What microbes are shown in the figure? Fig. 80
A. Treponema
B. Borrelia
C. *Leptospira
D. Spirilla
E. Vibrio
96. What microbes are shown in the figure? Fig. 81
A. Spirilla
B. Vibrio
C. Treponema
D. *Borrelia
E. Leptospira
97. The patient demonstrates annular skin lesions with elevated extensive reddened borders and central
clearing. What disease clinical signs are shown in the figure? Fig. 82
A. Frambesia
B. Pinta
C. Primary syphilis
D. Secondary syphilis
E. *Lyme disease
98. What microorganisms are located inside the cells? Fig. 83
A. Staphylococci
B. Streptococci
C. Micrococci
D. *Rickettsia
E. Vibrios
99. Patient’s sputum has been inoculated into special nutrient medium. In a few days some colonies have
grown. What microbes can form such a type of colonies? Fig. 84
A. Rickettsia
B. Chlamidia
C. Bacilli
D. *Mycoplasma
E. Micrococci
100.
What virus is shown the figure? Fig. 85
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Herpes zoster
D. *Adenovirus
E. Coxsackievirus
101.
What virus is shown in the figure? Fig. 86
A. HAV
B. HIV
C. *Herpesvirus
D. Adenovirus
E. HEV
102.
What virus is shown in the figure? Fig. 87
A. HAV
B. HIV
C. Herpesvirus
D. *Adenovirus
E. HEV
103.
Which viral disease symptoms are observed in the child? Fig. 88
A. *Mumps disease
B. Measles
C. RSV-bronchopneumonia
D. Rotaviruses enteritis
E. Herpes simplex 1
104.
Which viral disease symptoms are observed in the child? Fig. 89
A. Mumps
B. *Measles
C. RSV-bronchopneumonia
D. Rotaviruses enteritis
E. Herpes simplex 1
105.
Which virus can cause such a disease? Fig. 90
A. Influenza virus
B. Rubella virus
C. *Herpes simplex virus
D. Adenovirus
E. Picornavirus
106.
What virus can cause gingivostomatitis? Fig. 90
A. *Herpes simplex virus type 1
B. Herpes simplex virus type 2
C. Varicella zoster virus
D. Epstain-Bar virus
E. Cytomegalovirus
107.
Which virus can cause such a disease? Fig. 91
A. ytomegalovirus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. *Herpes zoster
D. Adenovirus
E. Coxsackievirus
108.
The child’s symptoms are: swollen peripheral lymph nodes, fever, malaise, tonsillitis. The
tentative diagnosis is infectious mononucleosis. What kind of virus causes it? Fig. 92
A. Herpes simplex virus type 1
B. Herpes simplex virus type 2
C. Varicella zoster virus
D. *Epstain-Bar virus
E. Cytomegalovirus
109.
What microorganisms are the causative agents of thrush? Fig. 95
A. *Candida
B. Staphylococcus
C. Streptococcus
D. Treponema
E. Toxoplasma
110.
Which disease symptoms are represented in the figure? Fig. 93
A. Candidiasis
B. *Herpes infection
C. Avitaminosis
D. Periodontosis
E. Dysbacteriosis
111.
What virus is shown in the figure? Fig. 94
A. HAV
B. *HIV
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
C. Herpesvirus
D. Adenovirus
E. HEV
What disease clinical signs are shown in the figure? Fig. 95
A. Herpes infection
B. Adenoviral infection
C. Kaposi’s sarcoma
D. Small pox
E. *Candidiasis
What disease clinical signs are shown in the figure? Fig. 96
A. Herpetic infection
B. Adenoviral infection
C. Hemorrhagic fever
D. Smallpox
E. *Kaposi’s sarcoma
What test is used for initial diagnosis of AIDS? Fig. 97
A. Hemagglutination test
B. Hemagglutination inhibition test
C. Neutralization test
D. *ELISA
E. Western-blot test
Which viral disease symptoms are observed in the child? Fig. 98
A. Mumps disease
B. Measles
C. *RSV-bronchopneumonia
D. Rotaviruses enteritis
E. Herpes simplex 1
What viral diseases is this symptom pathognomonic for? Fig. 99
A. Mumps
B. *Measles
C. Influenza
D. Varicella
E. Herpes simplex 1
Which virus is carried by this insect? Fig. 100.
A. *Japanese encephalitis
B. Omsk hemorrhagic fever
C. Tick-borne encephalitis
D. Influenza virus
E. Crimea-Congo hemorrhagic fever
What bacteria can be in figure? (Рис. Fig. 01)
A. Staphylococci
B. *Micrococci
C. Vibrios
D. Pneumococci
E. Streptococci
What bacteria can be in figure? (Рис. Fig. 02)
A. Micrococci
B. Staphylococci
C. Streptococci
D. *Diplococci
E. Tetracocci
What process is shown in figure? (Рис. Fig. 02)
A. Complete phagocytosis
B.
C.
D.
E.
121.
A.
B.
C.
D.
122.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
123.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
124.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
125.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
126.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
127.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
128.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
129.
A.
Absorbtion of bacteria by leucocytes
Digestion of bacteria by leucocytes
*Incomplete phagocytosis
Diplococci and leucocytes
According to this figure what disease can be in patient in your opinion? (Рис. Fig. 02)
Tuberculosis
Cholera
*Gonorrheae
Diphtheria
Such bacterioscopic picture is typical for: (Рис. Fig. 02)
Tuberculosis
*Gonorrheae
Cholera
Candidosis
Diphtheria
Choose among listed which disease can cause these microbes (Рис. Fig. 04)
*Abscesses
Scarlet fever
Cholera
Candidosis
Diphtheria
Choose among listed which protein is specific for these microbes (Рис. Fig. 04)
Protein M
Outer membrane protein
IgA protease
K antigen
*Protein A
Choose among listed which protein is specific for these microbes (Рис. Fig. 05)
*Protein M
Outer membrane protein
IgA protease
K antigen
E.Protein A
What test is it? (Рис. Fig. 13)
A.Examination of lecytinaze activity
Examination of hemolytic properties
*Phage typing
D.Toxin production
E.Susceptibility to antibiotics
What test is it? (Рис. Fig. 10)
*A.Examination of lecytinaze activity
Examination of hemolytic properties
Phage typing
D.Toxin production
E.Susceptibility to antibiotics
What is shown in this figure? (Рис. Fig. 14)
*Antigen structure of salmonella
Antigen structure of escherichia
Antigen structure of shigella
Antigen structure of vibrio
Antigen structure of klebsiella
Which test is there in the figure? (Рис. Fig. 31)
Precipitation test
B.
C.
D.
E.
*Presumption slide agglutination test
Hemagglutination inhibition test
Immunofluorescense test
Widal agglutination test
130.
Which disease can cause this bacteria? (Рис. Fig. 32)
A. Escherichiosis
B. Salmonellosis
C. Shigellosis
D. Campylobacteriosis
E. *Cholera
131.
Which disease can cause this bacteria? (Рис. Fig. 34)
A. Escherichiosis
B. *Stomach ulcer
C. Shigellosis
D. Colitis
E. Cholera
132.
Which properties of C.diphtheria is carried by this agent? (Рис. Fig. 37)
A. Hyaluronidaze activity
B. Hemolysin production
C. *Toxin production
D. Resistance to antibiotic
133.
Which properties of C.diphtheria will be abcent if this agent will not present inside the cell?
(Рис. Fig. 37)
A. Hyaluronidaze activity
B. Hemolysin production
C. *Toxin production
D. Resistance to antibiotic
134.
What drug must we use for treatment this disease? (Рис. Fig. 38)
A. Tetracyclin
B. *Antitoxic serum
C. Toxoid
D. Acyclovir
E. Immunoglobilin
135.
What drug must we use for treatment disease caused by this microbes? (Рис. Fig. 46)
A. Tetracyclin
B. *Antitoxic serum
C. Toxoid
D. Acyclovir
E. Immunoglobilin
136.
What drug must we use for treatment disease caused by this microbes? (Рис. Fig. 50)
A. Tetracyclin
B. *Antitoxic serum
C. Toxoid
D. Acyclovir
E. Immunoglobilin
137.
Which disease can cause these microbes? (Рис. Fig. 54)
A. Brucellosis
B. *Plague
C. Tularemia
D. Anthrax
E. Gas anerobic infection
138.
Which bacteria can form such colony? (Рис. Fig. 56)
A. C. tetani
B.
C.
D.
E.
C. novyi
C. perfringens
E. pestis
*B. anthracis
139.
Which bacteria can form such colony (Рис. Fig. 57)
A. C. tetani
B. B. anthracis
C. C. novyi
D. C. perfringens
E. *Y. pestis
140.
Symptom of which disease is shown in this figure? (Рис. Fig. 60)
A. Brucellosis
B. Plague
C. *Tetanus
D. Gas anerobic infection
E. Anthrax
141.
To which family does belong this virus? Fig. 76
A. *Herpesviridae
B. Аdenoviridae
C. Bunyaviridae
D. Picornaviridae
E. Rabdoviridae
142.
Which disease can cause this virus ? Fig. 77
A. Flu
B. Measles
C. *Rabies
D. Haemorrhagic fever with kidney syndrome
E. Yellow fever
143.
Which disease can cause this virus ? Fig. 85
A. Flu
B. Tick-borne encephalitis
C. *Herpes
D. Yellow fever
E. Crime-Congo Haemorrhagic fever
144.
What virus is shown on the figure? Fig. 85
A. *Herpesvirus
B. Аdenovirus
C. Picornavirus
D. Bunyavirus
E. Rabdovirus
145.
This figure you see during microscopy the smear of patient’s discharge. Your conclusion
about disease. Fig 2
A. Dysentery
B. Cholera
C. *Gonorrhoeae
D. Tuberculosis
E. Salmonellosis
146.
About what disease you can think if you see such picture under the microscope? Fig. 2
A. Dysentery
B. *Gonorrhoeae
C. Cholera
D. Tuberculosis
E. Salmonellosis
147.
Causative agent of what disease is shown on this figure? Fig .2
A. Dysentery
B. *Gonorrhoeae
C. Cholera
D. Tuberculosis
E. Salmonellosis
148.
What microbes are there? Fig. 2
A. Micrococci
B. *Diplococci
C. Staphylococci
D. Streptococci
E. Tetracocci
149.
What microbes are there? Fig. 4
A. Micrococci
B. Diplococci
C. *Staphylococci
D. Streptococci
E. Tetracocci
150.
Which disease can cause this microbe? Fig 4
A. Enteric fever
B. Gonorrhoeae
C. *Absces
D. Brucellosis
E. Scarlet fever
151.
Which disease can cause this microbe? Fig .5
A. Enteric fever
B. Gonorrhoeae
C. Brucellosis
D. *Tuberculosis
E. Scarlet fever
152.
Which disease can cause this microbe? Fig .5
A. Enteric fever
B. Gonorrhoeae
C. Brucellosis
D. Tuberculosis
E. *Scarlet fever
153.
?Which properties of Clostridium perfringens are usually checked on this medium? Fig.22
A. Biochemical
B. Formatiin of lecithinase
C. *Haemolysin
D. Formation of coagulase
E. No correct answer
154.
By what agent was the laboratory animal infected? Fig.58
A. C. botulinum
B. C. septicum
C. C. perfringens
D. C. novyi
E. *C. tetani
155.
This patient has restorative jaw myotinias (trismus) passing into the risus sardinicus. Which
illness does he have? Fig.59
A. Brucellosis
B. Plague
C. *Tetanus
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
D. Anthrax
E. Anaerobic gas infection
Patient N. has opisthotonus. Which illness does he have? Fig.60
A. Brucellosis
B. Plague
C. Anthrax
D. *Tetanus
E. Anaerobic gas infection
Which microbes are represented in the figure? Fig.61
A. B. anthracis
B. C. perfringens
C. S. mutans
D. *C. botulinum
E. B. abortus
Guinea pig was infected by tested material. Which illness does develop in an animal? Fig.62
A. Brucellosis
B. Plague
C. Anthrax
D. Tetanus
E. *Botulism
Which microorganism forms such colonies? Fig.57
A. B. anthracis
B. S. mutans
C. C. botulinum
D. *Y. pestis
E. B. abortus
Which microbes are represented in the figure? Fig.54
A. B. anthracis
B. C. perfringens
C. S. mutans
D. C. botulinum
E. *Y. enterocolitica
Which microbes are represented in the figure? Fig.54
A. B. anthracis
B. F. tularensis
C. Y. enterocolitica
D. *Y. pestis
E. B. abortus
Which microorganism does form such colonies: Fig.56
A. *B. anthracis
B. S. mutans
C. F. tularensis
D. Y. pestis
E. B. abortus
Which microorganism forms such colonies: Fig.63
A. B. anthracis
B. S. mutans
C. Y. pestis
D. B. abortus
E. *F. tularensis
What test is specific for diagnosis of tularemia? Fig.64
A. Agglutination test
B. Precipitation test
165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
C. *Blood-agglutination test
D. CFT
E. ELISA
Which microbes are represented in the figure? Fig.53
A. Mycobacteria spp.
B. Clostridia spp.
C. *Yersinia spp.
D. Salmonella spp.
E. Brucella spp.
Which microorganism forms such colonies? Fig.84
A. Mycobacteria spp.
B. Clostridia spp.
C. Yersinia spp.
D. *Mycoplasma spp.
E. Salmonella spp.
Which microbes are represented in the figure? Fig.49
A. *B. anthracis
B. S. mutans
C. Y. pestis
D. B. abortus
E. F. tularensis
Which microbes are represented in the figure? Fig.49
A. S. mutans
B. Y. pestis
C. B. abortus
D. *B. anthracis
E. F. tularensis
Which properties of B. anthracis are represented in the figure? Fig.66
A. Spores formation
B. *Capsule formation
C. Protoplasts formation
D. Sphaeroplasts formation
E. No correct answer
Which microorganism does form such colonies? Fig.56
A. B. abortus
B. S. mutans
C. F. tularensis
D. Y. pestis
E. *B. anthracis
Which microorganism does cause such clinical symptoms? Fig.67
A. B. abortus
B. S. mutans
C. F. tularensis
D. *B. anthracis
E. Y. pestis