7.
M. Suckow, K. Stevens, and R. Wilson, editors, 2012 . The Laboratory Rabbit, Guinea
Pig, Hamster, and Other Rodents, 1 st
edition. Elsevier, Oxford, UK.
Chapter 5 Zoonosis and Occupational Health, pp. 141-163
QUESTIONS:
1. What is the mode of transmission for Hantavirus to humans? a. Horizontal transmission via aerosolization of urine, feces and saliva
2. b. c. d.
Via rodent bite
Person-to-person transmission
All of the above
Which animal biosafety level requires work involving inoculation of the
Hantavirus into P. maniculatus or other permissive species? a. Animal Biosafety level 2
3.
4.
5. b. c.
Animal Biosafety level 3
Animal Biosafety level 4 d. Animal Biosafety level 1
Which is the non-human host for Lassa Virus?
True or False : Infection with Lassa virus is transmitted through contact with feces and urine of infected rodents.
Which is the method to determine the prevalence of the Lassa virus in wild
6.
8.
9. rodent populations? a. ELISA antibody assay b. c.
PCR assay
IF assay d. Radioimmunoassay
Which species are the known reservoirs for Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis virus? a. b. c.
Mice and hamster
Mice and rats
Mice and ferrets d. Mice and rabbits
True or False: Intrauterine infections of human fetuses with Lymphocytic
Choriomeningitis can result in hydrocephalus, microencephaly, macroencephaly, intracranial calcification, mental retardation, seizures, and fetal death.
If an infection with LCMV is diagnosed in a rodent colony, what actions need to be taken? a. All animals will be euthanized b. c. d.
All animals will be treated
Only sick animals will be euthanized
All sick animals will be euthanized; clinically normal animals will be quarantined
What is the mode of transmission of rabies virus? a. b. c.
Bite of a rabid animal
Contamination of wound by saliva form an infected animal
Through direct contact of saliva with skin
d. a and b
10. Coxiella burnetti is the etiologic agent of a. Q-fever b. Hay-fever c. d.
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Rickettsial Pox
11. What is the most common mode of transmission for Coxiella burnetti Infection? a. Airborne b. c. d.
Vehicle-borne
Vector-borne
Transplacental
12. Chronic infected animals shed Coxiell burnetti persistently in a. Feces and urine b. Urine and placenta c. d.
Placenta and feces
Wool and urine
13. An important diagnostic tool for Coxiella burnetti is a. Serology b. c. d.
Cytology
Biopsy
Virology
14. What is the agent that causes Rickettsial pox? a. Rickettsia akari b. c.
Rickettsia rickettsii
Rickettsia asiatica d. Rickettsia rhipicephali
15. Which is the vector that transmits Rickettsial pox?
16. True or False: There are clinical signs associated with the infection of
Rickettsial pox in animals and humans causing a discrete maculopapular skin rash.
17. Which is the causative agent of the Rocky Mountain spotted fever? a. b. c. d.
Rickettsia akari
Rickettsia rickettsii
Rickettsia rhipicephali
Borrelia burgdorferi
18. Which are reservoirs for Rickettsia rickettsii ? a. Wild rodents and rabbits b. Dogs and cats c. d.
Foxes
Feral pigs
19. True or False: The disease of Rocky Mountain spotted fever is asymptomatic in animals.
20. What are the most common clinical signs in humans affected by Rickettsia rickettsii ? a. Fever, headache, rash on trunk, palms and soles b. Fever, headache, diarrhea
c. Fever, headache, muscle ache d. Fever, diarrhea, skin rash
21. Which are the reservoirs for Chlamydiophila caviae ? a. Guinea pigs b. c.
Rabbits
Wild mice d. Ferrets
22. Among which laboratory animals besides birds occur infections of
Chlamydophyla psittaci ? a. Mice, guinea pigs, and hamsters b. Rabbits, cats, ferrets and muskrats c. d.
Ruminants, swine and frogs
All of the above
23. Bordetella bronchiseptica is diagnosed through a. b. c. d.
Bacterial cultures
Serology
Cytology
Biopsy
24. Which is the vector which transmits Borrelia burgdorferi ? a. Deer tick b. Rabbit mite c. d.
Mouse louse
Guinea pig mite
25. What is the genus of the rabbit that presents the greatest hazard as reservoir for
Tularemia?
26. True or False: Animals are asymptomatic for leptospirosis and carry the organism in their renal tubules for year
27. True or False: Hamsters from pet stores or from pet distributors have been demonstrated to be a potential source of infection for humans, since most rodents from high-quality commercial vendors are free of Salmonella.
28. What is the name of disease, when humans become orally infected with
Streptobacillus moniliformis ?
29. What is the name of the disease in humans, when Streptobacillus moniliformis is transmitted via a bite wound or scratch?
30. Which is the agent that causes the disease known in Japan as sodoku?
31. Yersinia pestis disease in humans presents in how many distinctive forms: a. 3 b. 2 c. d.
4
1
32. True or False: Trichophyton mentagrophytes poses relatively limited concern when using feral or random source animals, however, laboratory animals may pose a greater risk of dermatophytosis to personnel handling such animals.
33. Which are the intermediate hosts for Rodentolepis nana , the tapeworm of a hamster? a. Mites and fleas
b. c. d.
Ants and fleas
No intermediate host
Flour beetles and fleas
34. Which are the reservoirs for Cheyletiella mites? a. b. c. d.
Rabbit, cat and dog
Ferret, cat and dog
Ferret, rabbit and cat
Rabbit, cat and dog
35. Allergic reaction to animals in humans are reported with the highest incidence when working with a. Rabbits b. c. d.
Rats
Hamsters
Guinea pigs
36. What is the most common symptom in humans associated with allergy to animals a. b.
Rhinitis
Dermatitis c. d.
Conjunctivitis
Stomatitis
37. Which of the following measurements help to control exposure of human
4.
5.
6.
7. workers to allergens as well as to zoonosis a. Personal protective equipment b. c.
Increasing humidity in animal rooms
Use of isolation cages d.
ANSWERS:
1.
2.
3. d c
All of the above
Mastomys natalensis
True a a
True
8.
9. a d
10. a
11. a
12. a
13. a
14. a
15. mite Liponyssoides sanguineus
16. False
17. b
18. a
19. True
20. a
21. a+b
22. d
23. a
24. a
25. Sylvilagus
26. a
27. True
28. Haverhill fever
29. Rat bite fever
30. Spirillum minus
31. a
32. True
33. d
34. a
35. b
36. a
37. d