Haz Mat Ops Unit 4 FVCC Fire Science 2
Name:
Match to their definitions terms regarding scene perimeters and hazard
control zones. Write the correct letters on the blanks. (1 pt. each, 9/11)
_______ 1. Area where personnel and equipment awaiting assignment to
the incident are held, minimizing confusion and freelancing
at the scene; located at an isolated spot in the cold zone where
occupants cannot interfere with ongoing operations
_______ 2. Downwind distance for which protective actions should be
considered
_______ 3. Area located in the warm zone where contaminated clothing,
people, and equipment can be cleaned or secured
_______ 4. Outer boundary of an incident that is controlled to prevent
entrance by the public or unauthorized persons
_______ 5. Area where victims of an incident are brought for medical
assessment and stabilization; located in the cold zone unless a
patient is contaminated, then it would have to be the warm
zone
_______ 6. Zones dividing the levels of hazard of an incident (hot, warm,
or cold), with the hot zone representing the highest degree of
hazard; also called site work zones or scene-control zones
_______ 7. Safe location where emergency personnel can rest, sit or lie
down, have food and drink, and have medical conditions
evaluated; located in the cold zone
_______ 8. Distance within which all persons should be considered for
evacuation in all directions from the actual spill/leak source,
according to the ERG
_______ 9. Primarily an area serving as a safe place to wait for
evacuation assistance in the event of fire when building
elevators are normally inaccessible; used in the haz mat
world as a safe location (or locations) where evacuated
persons are directed to gather while potential emergencies are
assessed, decisions are made, and mitigating activities are
begun
_______10. Circular zone (with a radius equivalent to the initial isolation
distance) within which persons may be exposed to dangerous
concentrations upwind of the source and may be exposed to
life-threatening concentrations downwind of the source
______11. Area immediately adjacent to and downwind from
the initial isolation zone, which is in imminent
danger of being contaminated by airborne vapors
within 30 minutes of material release; see the ERG
green-bordered pages
A. Isolation perimeter
B. Initial isolation
distance
C. Initial-isolation zone
D. Protective action
distance
E. Protective-action zone
F. Hazard-control zones
G. Isolation zone
H. Decontamination zone
I. Area of safe refuge
J. Staging area
K. Rehabilitation area
L. Triage/treatment area
Select from a list factors affecting the ability of personnel to perform a
rescue. Write an "X" on the blank before each correct factor. (1 pt. each, 4/6)
_______ 1. Nature of the hazardous material and incident severity
_______ 2. Availability of appropriate personal protective equipment
_______ 3. Availability of additional help
_______ 4. Availability of monitoring equipment
_______ 5. Available escape routes and safe havens
_______ 6. Number of victims and their condition
_______ 7. Possibilities of explosions or sudden material releases
_______ 8. Time needed (including a safety margin) to complete the rescue
_______ 9. Tools, equipment, and other devices needed to achieve the rescue
Match to the DOT hazard classes the rescue risks associated with each
class. Write the correct letters on the blanks. (1 pt. each, 7/9)
_______ 1. Thermal and radiological harm from alpha, beta, and neutron
particles, and gamma rays
_______ 2. Thermal hazards from forceful explosions, heat, and fire;
chemical and mechanical injuries from explosions
_______ 3. Thermal, asphyxiant, chemical, or mechanical hazard due to
violent rupture of pressurized containers; thermal harm due to
extremely cold temperatures; asphyxiation due to chemical
vapors in a confined space
_______ 4. Chemical and thermal hazards associated with the
disintegration of contacted tissues; mechanical harm from
corrosive chemicals, which can weaken structural elements
_______ 5. Thermal injury, due to heat generated by the detonation,
mechanical injury from the shock, blast overpressure,
fragmentation, shrapnel, or structural damage; chemical
injuries from associated contamination; etiological harm from
contact with blood or other bodily fluids; asphyxiation due to
depletion of oxygen
_______ 6. Chemical harm due to toxicity by inhalation, ingestion, and
skin and eye contact; etiological harm from disease-causing
organisms; thermal injuries due to flammability
_______ 7. Thermal harm from heat and flammability; mechanical harm
from slip, trip, and fall hazards; chemical harm from water
reactive, toxic, and/or corrosive materials
_______ 8. Could encompass a multitude of potential hazards
_______ 9. Thermal, chemical, and mechanical harm due to sensitivity to
heat, shock, friction, and contamination
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
H.
I.
J.
Class 1
Class 2
Class 3
Class 4
Class 5
Class 6
Class 7
Class 8
Class 9
Class 10
Select from a list Operational-Level rescue actions. Write an "X" on the blank
before those actions that refer ONLY to the Operational-Level first responder (1 pt. each,
4/6)
_______ 1. Conducting searches during reconnaissance or defensive activities
_______ 2. Directing people to an area of safe refuge or evacuation point located in a safe place upwind
and uphill of the hazard area
_______ 3. Instructing victims to move to an area that is less dangerous before moving them to an area
that offers complete safety
_______ 4. Conducting searches on the edge of the hot zone
_______ 5. Directing contaminated or potentially contaminated victims to an isolation point, safe refuge
area, safety shower, eyewash facility, or decontamination area
_______ 6. Directing victims to the decontamination area
_______ 7. Assisting with decontamination while not coming into contact with the hazardous material
itself
_______ 8. Assisting with the identification of victims
______ 9. Giving instructions to a large number of people for mass decontamination
Select facts about typical confinement tactics, their purpose, and
procedures for use. Write the correct letters on the blanks. (1 pt. each, 4/5)
_______ 1. Which confinement tactic is "covering the surface of the spill to prevent dispersion of
materials"?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Absorption
Adsorption
Blanketing/covering
Vapor suppression
_______ 2. Which confinement tactic includes constructing curbs that direct or divert the flow away from
gutters, drains, storm sewers, flood-control channels, and outfalls?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Absorption
Blanketing/covering
Vapor suppression
Dam, dike, diversion, and retention
_______ 3. Which confinement tactic may include the use of fire-fighting foams?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Adsorption
Vapor suppression
Blanketing/covering
Dam, dike, diversion, and retention
_______ 4. In which confinement tactic is one material retained in the other?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Absorption
Adsorption
Blanketing/covering
Vapor suppression
______ 5. Which confinement tactic(s) is defined as "the molecules of the hazardous
material physically adhere to the material"?
A. Absorption B. Adsorption
C. Vapor suppression
D. Dam, dike, diversion, and retention
Match to their definitions other types of spill-control tactics, their purpose,
and procedures for use. Write the correct letters on the blanks. (1 pt. each, 4/5)
_______ 1. The breaking up or dispersing of a hazardous material that
has spilled on a solid or liquid surface
_______ 2. Controlling the movement of air by natural or mechanical
means
_______ 3. The application of water to a water-soluble material to reduce
the hazard; is not typically used for spill control, but during
decontamination operations; may be used when very small
amounts of corrosive materials are involved
_______ 4. The process of dissolving a gas in water
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
Ventilation
Vapor dispersion
Dispersion
Vapor dilution
Dilution
Dissolution
Neutralization
_______ 5. The action taken to direct or influence the course of airborne
hazardous materials; procedure includes using pressurized
streams of water from handlines or unmanned master streams
______ 6. The process of raising or lowering the pH of corrosive
materials to render them neutral
Select facts about foam principles, terms, and proportioning. Write the correct
letters on the blanks. (1 pt. each, 4/5)
_______ 1. All foams must be proportioned and aerated before they can be used.
A. True
B. False
_______ 2. What term means to be mixed with water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Aerated
Cooled
Separated
Proportioned
_______ 3. Which foam method means to "create a barrier between the fuel and burning vapors"?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cooling
Separating
Suppressing
Proportioning
_______ 4. Which of the following is not a concentrate of foam?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1%
3%
5%
6%
_______ 5. What type of device mixes foam concentrate in the proper ratio with water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Foam concentrator
Foam proportioner
Foam solution device
Finished foam applicator
Recognize characteristics of specific foam concentrates. Write the correct
letters on the blanks. (1 point each, 14/20)
_______ 1. Which of the following foam concentrates is used for application in concealed spaces such as
shipboard compartments, basements, and coal mines?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fluoroprotein foam
High-expansion foam
Regular protein foam
Aqueous film forming foam
_______ 2. Which of the following foam concentrates is virtually nonexistent in today’s fire service?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fluoroprotein foam
High-expansion foam
Regular protein foam
Alcohol-resistant AFFF
_______ 3. Which of the following foam concentrate's performance can be affected by freezing and
thawing?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Regular protein foam
Fluoroprotein foam
High-expansion foam
Film forming fluoroprotein foam
_______ 4. Which of the following foam concentrates has poor heat resistance because the air-to-water
ratio is very high?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Regular protein foam
Fluoroprotein foam
High-expansion foam
Film forming fluoroprotein foam
_______ 5. Which of the following foam concentrates is not compatible with dry-chemical extinguishing
agents and is only used on hydrocarbon fuels?
A.
B.
C.
D.
High-expansion foam
Regular protein foam
Fluoroprotein foam
Alcohol-resistant AFFF
_______ 6. Which of the following temperature ranges are suitable for storage of foam concentrates?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5º to 77º F (-15ºC to 25ºC)
32º to 68º F (0º C to 20º C)
35º to 120º F (2ºC to 49ºC)
50º to 160º F (10ºC to 71º C)
_______ 7. Which of the following foam concentrates is delivered through air-aspirating equipment and
is also suitable for use on gasoline that has been blended with oxygen additives?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fluoroprotein foam
Regular protein foam
High-expansion foam
Alcohol-resistant AFFF
_______ 8. Which of the following can be used to freeze-protect foam concentrates?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Foam concentrate additives
Freeze-proof liquid solution
Nonflammable antifreeze solution
Manufacturer’s freeze kit
_______ 9. Which of the following foam concentrates has excellent water-retention capabilities, high heat
resistance, and is available in 3- and 6- percent concentrations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fluoroprotein foam
Regular protein foam
High-expansion foam
Alcohol-resistant AFFF
_______10. Which of the following foam concentrates is used for Class A fire applications and fixedextinguishing systems for specific industrial uses?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Regular protein foam
Alcohol-resistant AFFF
High-expansion foam
Aqueous film forming foam
_______11. Which of the following would be expansion ratios for high-expansion foam in high-expansion
uses?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10:1 to 100:1
50:1 to 200:1
100:1 to 500:1
200:1 to 1,000:1
_______12. Which of the following foam concentrates is compatible with simultaneous application of drychemical extinguishing agents and is premixable for short periods of time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Regular protein foam
Fluoroprotein foam
Alcohol-resistant AFFF
High-expansion foam
_______13. Which of the following foam concentrates is compatible with simultaneous application of drychemical fire-fighting agents and uses either freshwater or saltwater?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Regular protein foam
Fluoroprotein foam
Film forming fluoroprotein foam
High-expansion foam
_______14. Which of the following concentrations are foam concentrates often available in?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1- and 5- percent concentrations
3- and 6- percent concentrations
6- and 10- percent concentrations
10- and 20- percent concentrations
_______15. Which of the following foam concentrates creates a membrane rather than a film over the
fuel, separating the water in the foam blanket from the attack of the solvent?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Regular protein foam
High-expansion foam
Aqueous film forming foam
Alcohol-resistant AFFF
_______16. Which of the following foam concentrates may be used in subsurface injection applications on
certain light hydrocarbons such as gasoline and kerosene?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Regular protein foam
High-expansion foam
Fluoroprotein foam
Alcohol-resistant AFFF
_______17. Alcohol-resistant AFFF that is referred to as 3 by 6 concentrates is proportioned with what
percentage of fuels?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3 percent hydrocarbon fuels and 6 percent polar solvent fuels
3 percent polar solvent fuels and 6 percent hydrocarbon fuels
3 percent polar solvent fuels, 3 percent hydrocarbon fuels, 3 percent other
6 percent hydrocarbon fuels and 6 percent polar solvent fuels
_______18. Which of the following foam concentrates uses either freshwater or saltwater, has good lowtemperature viscosity, and is fast draining?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Regular protein foam
High-expansion foam
Aqueous film forming foam
Alcohol-resistant AFFF
_______19. Which of the following foam concentrates is premixable in portable fire extinguishers and
apparatus water tanks, is suitable for subsurface injection, and is compatible with drychemical extinguishing agents?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Regular protein foam
High-expansion foam
Aqueous film forming foam
Alcohol-resistant AFFF
_______20. Which of the following foam concentrates will have the film-forming characteristics
adversely affected by fuels in excess of 140º F (60º C) and oxygen additives?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Regular protein foam
High-expansion foam
Aqueous film forming foam
Alcohol-resistant AFFF