John Hudson
RADIO & RELATED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
A.
Q1
Rules of the Air
If a glider and a balloon are on a collision course, which must give way.
a) The Balloon
b) The Glider
c) Both
d) None
Q2
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Two aircraft are approaching head on. What must occur.
a) Both turn left
b) Both slow down
c) Both turn right
d) Both do nothing.
Q3
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What is the minimum vertical and horizontal separation between
gliders in a thermal.
a) 200 Ft
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b) 250 Feet
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c) 300 Ft
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d) 350 Ft
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Q1
Visual Flight Rules
For glider pilots, what is the minimum flight visibility below 3000 Ft
AMSL.
a) 1 Km
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b) 3 Km
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c) 5 Km
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d) 9 Km
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Q2
a) What is the minimum vertical distance from cloud when flying below
3000 Ft AMSL.
a) No minimum
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b) 1000 Ft below
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c) 1500 Ft below
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d) 500 Ft below
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Q3
b) What is the minimum horizontal distance from cloud when flying
below 3000 Ft AMSL
a) 0.5 Km
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b) 1.0 Km
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c) 1.5 Km
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d) No minimum distance
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Q4
What is the minimum flight visibility below 10,000 Ft AMSL but above
3000 Ft AMSL
a) 3 Km
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b) 5 Km
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c) 7 Km
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d) 9 Km
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John Hudson
Q4
What is the minimum vertical distance from cloud when flying below
10,000 Ft, but above 3000 Ft AMSL.
a) 500 Ft above or below
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b) 1000 Ft above or below
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c) 1500 Ft above or below
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d) No specific distance
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Q5
What is the minimum vertical distance from cloud when flying above
10,000 Ft AMSL.
a) 500 Ft above or below
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b) 1000 Ft above or below
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c) 1500 Ft above or below
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d) No specific distance
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Q6
What is the minimum horizontal distance from cloud when flying below
10,000 Ft, but above 3000 Ft AMSL.
a) 500 Metres
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b) 1000 metres
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c) 1500 metres
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d) No specific distance
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Q7
What is the minimum horizontal distance from cloud when flying above
10,000 Ft AMSL.
a) 500 metres
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b) 1000 metres
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c) 1500 metres
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d) No specific distance
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Q8
Why is it important to remain clear of cloud in accordance with the
specified minimums.
a) To prevent disorientation
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b) To allow the glider to always be seen.
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c) To minimize the risk of collision
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d) None of the above.
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Q1
Altimetry
Define QNH
a) An Air Pressure Datum
b) A Barometric Pressure Datum
c) Ground Level
d) Sea Level
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What is the datum for the QNH Altimeter setting
a) Ground level
b) Aerodrome Reference Point
c) The highest hill in the vicinity
d) Mean Sea Level.
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Q2
John Hudson
Q3
Q4
Q5
Q6
Define QFE
a) An Air Pressure Datum
b) A Barometric Pressure Datum
c) Ground Level
d) Sea Level
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What is the datum for QFE Altimeter setting
a) Ground level
b) Aerodrome Reference Point
c) The highest hill in the vicinity
d) Mean Sea Level.
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How would you set QNH on the altimeter before take-off.
Set the altimeter to read
a) Zero
b) Aerodrome height (in feet) above sea level
c) 150 Ft
c) 1013.2 hPa.
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When would you set 1013.2 hPa on the subscale of the altimeter.
a) Before takeoff.
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b) When you don’t know the correct setting
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c) After takeoff
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d) When climbing above 10,000 Ft.
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Why ? ……………………………………………………………………..
Q7
If you are on the ground, and a pilot calls requesting QNH, how would
you obtain it.
a) Look at the weather forecast.
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b) Set airfield elevation on an altimeter and read
the subscale.
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c) Set the Altimeter to read zero and read
the subscale.
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d) Set 1013.2 hPa on the subscale and advise
the altitude reading.
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Q8
What altimeter setting is used when flying in or near Controlled
Airspace (A) below 10,000 Ft
(B) Above 10,000 Ft.
A – Below 10,000 Ft
a) Aerodrome elevation
b) QFE
c) QNH / Area QNH
d) 1013.2 hPa
B – Above 10,000 Ft
a) Aerodrome elevation
b) QFE
c) QNH / Area QNH
d) 1013.2 hPa
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Q9
In addition to knowing an aircrafts height, what additional information is
important when determining separation from another aircraft.
a) The time
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b) The datum used to measure the altitude
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c) QFE
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d) QNH
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D
Q1
Airspace Classification
What class of airspace will glider pilots spend most of their time in.
a) Class A
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b) Class G
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c) Class D
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d) Class E
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Q2
Is radio required to operate in Class G airspace
a) Yes, at all times
b) Yes, during daylight hours.
c) No, not at any time
d) Only if the aircraft is equipped.
Q3
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What is required before operating in Class A, Class C or Class D
airspace.
a) A map
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b) A weather Forecast
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c) A Flight Plan
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d) An Airways Clearance.
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Q4
Whose responsibility is it to obtain an Airways Clearance to operate in
Controlled Airspace.
a) The CFI
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b) The Instructor
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c) The Pilot
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d) The Air Traffic Controller.
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E
Q1
Broadcast Zones
What is required to be carried and used in an aircraft intending to
operate in a CTAF(R).
a) A Flight Plan
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b) A Map
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c) A Radio
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d) An Altimeter
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F
Q1
Common Traffic Advisory Frequency
What is the universal CTAF Freqency.
a) 122.7
b) 122.5
c) 123.4
d) 126.7
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John Hudson
Q2
What are the dimensions of a CTAF
a) 5nm radius, 3000 Ft
b) 5 nm radius, 5000 Ft
c) 3 nm radius, 3000 Ft
d) Dimensionless.
Q3
When operating in a CTAF zone, what radio calls are desirable.
a) When entering the circuit.
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b) When turning base.
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c) When turning final
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d) When vacating the runway.
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e) When entering a runway for takeoff.
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f) When overflying the airfield above 6000 Ft
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g) When departing the CTAF area.
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Restricted and Danger Areas
Q1
Are flights in Restricted Areas permitted.
a) Never
b) On weekends
c) With the Instructors approval
d) With an Airways Clearance.
Q2
Q3
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Q1
Q2
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Where can information about Restricted Airspace be obtained.
a) From WAC Charts
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b) From ATC
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c) From ERSA
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d) From most aviation Charts.
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When are flights in Danger area permitted.
a) Never
b) On Weekends
c) When active
d) Always
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Time
What timezone is used for "time" in aviation.
a) Local time
b) Universal Coordinated Time
c) Eastern Standard Time
d) Daylight Saving Time.
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Why is a common timezone so important for aviation.
a) To reduce time errors.
b) To reduce confusion.
c) So all aircraft use the same time
d) All of the above.
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John Hudson
I
Q1
Compass Directions
An aircraft is tracking "180 degrees". In what direction is it traveling.
a) North
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b) South
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c) West
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d) East.
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Q2
The wind speed and direction is described as 270/25. To which
direction is the wind blowing.
a) West
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b) South
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c) East
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d) North
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Q3
The aircraft in (a) above is influenced by the wind in (b), resulting in a
drift angle of 15 degrees. What heading must be flown by the aircraft to
maintain the 180 degree track.
a) 180
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b) 165
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c) 195
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d) 270
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J
Q1
Radio Transmission
What are the minimum requirements to use radio frequencies 122.5,
122.7 or 122.9.
a) A Logbook endorsement.
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b) Flight Radio Telephone Operators License.
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c) No requirements
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d) Know the phonetic alphabet.
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Q2
What is the approximate range of a VHF radio at 3000 Ft AGL
a) 70 Km
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b) 120 Km
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c) 160 Km
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d) 200 Km
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How should a radio call be structured.
a) An address, Initiators callsign, Message.
b) Initiators callsign, an address, Message.
c) All stations, the Initiators callsign, message.
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Q3
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Airways Clearance
What must be obtained before operating in Controlled Airspace.
a) A weather forecast
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b) Notams
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c) An Airways Clearance.
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d) A map.
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Q2
What action must a pilot take if a radio failure occurs while operating in
Controlled Airspace.
a) Continue to destination
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b) Fly in circles.
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c) Leave the Controlled Airspace by the most
feasible safe route.
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d) Operate as desired.
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Q3
After a Clearance is issued, what must a pilot do.
a) Operate as desired.
b) Comply with all aspects of the clearance
c) Proceed with caution.
d) Operate as planned.
Q4
L
Q1
Q2
What altimeter setting is used in Controlled Airspace,
A) Below 10,000 Ft
B) Above 10,000 Ft
a) Aerodrome elevation
a) Aerodrome elevation
b) QFE
b) QFE
c) QNH/Area QNH
c) QNH/Area QNH
d) 1013.2 hPa
d) 1013.2 hPa
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Commonly Used Frequencies
Where can radio frequency information be obtained.
a) Visual Flight Guide (VFG).
b) Relevant aeronautical maps.
c) ERSA
d) WAC Charts
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What is the International Distress Frequency.
a) 122.5
b) 122.7
c) 121.5
d) 123.4
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Q1
Radio Transmission, Readability & Signal Strength
If a received radio transmission is very difficult to understand, how
would you describe the transmission.
a) Readability 5
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b) Readability 4
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c) Readability 2
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d) Readability 1.
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Q2
If a received radio transmission is very strong and easy to understand,
how would you describe the transmission.
a) Strength 1, Readability 1
b) Strength 2, Readability 2
c) Strength 4, Readability 4
d) Strength 5, Readability 5
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John Hudson
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Q1
Radio Calls
What would be your radio call, joining downwind, using Runway 16, if
you were flying VH-ABC into Balaklava Airfield.
a) All traffic Balaklava, glider ABC, joining downwind,
runway 16, Balaklava.
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b) Balaklava traffic, ABC, runway 16, joining downwind.
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c) All traffic Balaklava, ABC joining downwind, Runway 16. (
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d) Traffic Balaklava, glider ABC, joining downwind,
Runway 16, Balaklava.
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Q2
What should a pilot do before making a radio call.
a) Compose the message, keeping it short and concise.
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b) Ensure the radio is correctly setup – switched "on",
volume, squelch & frequency set.
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c) Listen on the frequency to ensure no other transmissions
are occurring.
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What elements of an "Airways Clearance" must a pilot read back
a) Assigned altitude
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b) QNH
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c) Any changes from the request.
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d) Clearance limits
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e) Any specific instruction.
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Q3
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P
Q1
In Flight Emergencies
What is the radio terminology used to pre-fix an inflight "breakdown"
situation.
a) Mayday
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b) Help
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c) Pan, Pan, Pan
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d) Emergency
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Q2
On which frequency should the "Pan" call be made.
a) International Distress Frequency
b) A Gliding frequency.
c) CTAF Frequency
d) Area Frequency.
Q3
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If no response is received to a breakdown call, what should the pilot
do.
a) Repeat the call until a response is received.
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b) Change to a frequency known to be used
by aircraft.
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c) Change to the International Distress Frequency.
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d) Change to the Pie-cart Frequency.
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John Hudson
Q4
Q5
What is the terminology used to describe a "severe in-flight
emergency".
a) Mayday, Mayday, Mayday
b) Help
c) Pan, Pan, Pan
d) Emergency
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On which frequency should the "Mayday" call be made.
a) International Distress Frequency
b) A Gliding frequency.
c) CTAF Frequency
d) Area Frequency.
Q5
If no response is received to a severe emergency call, what should the
pilot do.
a) Repeat the call until a response is received.
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b) Change to a frequency known to be
used by aircraft.
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c) Change to the International Distress Frequency.
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d) Change to the Pie-cart Frequency.
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Q6
How many phases of Search & Rescue (SAR) are there.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
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Q7
For gliding operations, when must the first phase of SAR be initiated for
an overdue glider.
a) 1 hour after last light.
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b) at or before 2100 Hrs local time.
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c) 0600 Hrs the following morning.
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d) When doubt exists about the safety of the
glider or the pilot.
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Q8
What is the first phase of SAR.
a) Emergency Phase
b) Uncertainty Phase
c) Distress Phase
d) Alert Phase
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What is the second phase of SAR.
a) Emergency Phase
b) Uncertainty Phase
c) Distress Phase
d) Alert Phase
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Q9
John Hudson
Q10
Q11
What is the third phase of SAR.
a) Emergency Phase
b) Uncertainty Phase
c) Distress Phase
d) Alert Phase
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Which agency will determine who co-ordinates a SAR response for an
overdue glider.
a) The Gliding Club
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b) Local SES
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c) Local Police
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d) The national SAR Centre.
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John Hudson.
April 2006.
John Hudson
DEFINITIONS
AGL
Above Ground Level
AMSL
Above Mean Sea Level
ATC
Air Traffic Control
CTAF
Common Traffic Advisory Frequency.
ERSA
Enroute Supplement (AirServices publication).
FT
Feet
MAYDAY
The prefix for a severe inflight emergency radio call
NOTAM
Notice To Airmen
PAN
The prefix for an inflight breakdown call.
QFE
Ground level datum for altitude measurement.
QNH
Sea level datum for altitude measurement.
SAR
Search and Rescue
SES
State Emergency Service
VFG
Visual Flight Guide.
VFR
Visual Flight Rules.
VMC
Visual Meteorological Condition
VNC
Visual Navigation Chart
WAC
World Aeronautical Chart.
John Hudson
April 2006.