BTEC 3301 Exam 1 Sample only ( Chapter 1 & 3only) Marks: 100 points Time : 1hr Section A: Multiple choice (2 points each) 1. What is the minimum time required for denaturation in rapid-cycle PCR? A. One minute. C. Less than one second. B. 30 seconds. D. One hour 2. Pulse-field gel electrophoresis is used for: A. separating small proteins of similar charge B. separating fragments of DNA from proteins C. separating very large (>20 kb) fragments of DNA D. separating plasmid DNA from chromosomal DNA E. sequencing. 3. The Polymerase Chain Reaction, or PCR, absolutely requires A. a single oligonucleotide synthesis primer and a DNA template. B. at least two oligonucleotide synthesis primers and a DNA template. C. a single oligonucleotide synthesis primer and a DNA or RNA template. D. at least two oligonucleotide synthesis primers and a DNA or RNA template 3. One of the great powers of PCR for the isolation of DNA fragments is that A. the desired fragment can be readily detected when present at an extremely low level in a mixture of DNA molecules. B. no nucleotide sequence information about the desired DNA fragment must be known prior to PCR. C. oligonucleotide PCR primers can be designed to add essentially any desired nucleotide sequences to the flanking regions of the amplified DNA. D. the amplification reaction is always so specific that it yields only the desired DNA fragment. 4. The gel electrophoresis DNA patterns known as DNA fingerprints generated either by restriction enzymes or by PCR A. are based on the examination of very different aspects of DNA structure. B. can always be distinguished from one another because of the simple band pattern of the PCR fingerprint. C. are similar in that they provide a limited amount of information about the nucleotide sequences examined. D. None of the above 5. Restriction enzymes A. Were discovered during study of bacterial resistance to some phage infections. B. May leave "sticky" or "blunt" ends in DNA. C. Are used to map DNA. D. Recognize palindromic sequences. E. All of the above. 5. A thermostable polymerase is A. reverse transcriptase. B. Taq polymerase. C. Klenow fragment of DNA polymerase I. D. DNA polymerase III. 6. The number of primers required for conventional Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is/are---------. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 7. DNA polymerase capable of using an RNA template is A. reverse transcriptase. B. Taq polymerase. C. Klenow fragment of DNA polymerase I. D. DNA polymerase III. 8. In recombinant methods, the term "vector" refers to --------. A. the enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments B. the "sticky" ends of a DNA fragment C. restriction fragment a plasmid or other agent used to transfer DNA into a living cell D. DNA probe used to locate a particular gene E. plasmid or other agent used to transfer DNA into a living cell 9. Which one of the following enzymes could create a bond between the adjacent, unjoined nucleotides? A. DNA ligase B. reverse transcriptase C. restriction enzyme D. DNA polymerase 10. Which of the following would be considered a transgenic organism? A. a bacterium that has received genes via conjugation B. a rat with rabbit hemoglobin genes C. a human given a blood transfusion. D. a human treated with insulin produced by E. coli bacteria E. a fern grown in cell culture from a single fern root cell SECTION 2: Short questions ( 5 point each). 11. Define the term Biotechnology. 12 . How would you compare a DNA strand with a “sticky end” from that of a “blunt end”? 13. Differentiate between Cloning, Recombinant DNA technology and Genetic Engineering. 14. What are Taq polymerase? SECTION 3: Short notes (5 points each). Describe briefly the following: 15 Applications of Biotechnology 16. How would you set an experiment for antibiotic selection? SECTION 4: Essay (10 points). Describe in detail one of the following .Illustrate your answer with well labeled diagrams. 17. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). 18 Southern Blot (In situ Hybridization).