TCS TALENT TEST 006
INSTRUCTIONS
Please read the following instructions and understand before starting to answer the TCS
Talent Test.
DO NOT start answering until you are told to do so.
The TCS Talent Test comprises THREE PARTS
PART I
PART II
PART III
-
Verbal Reasoning
Quantitative / Logical Reasoning
Critical Reasoning
TOTAL DURATION FOR THE TEST IS TWO HOURS.
Both SPEED and ACCURACY are important. Try to answer all questions - but do not
spend too much time on any one question if you have difficulty in answering it.
Write your answers against the Correct Question Numbers in the answer booklet
separately provided. For example, if you are not attempting Q12, write the answer to
Q13 correctly at the assigned place. If by mistake, you write the answer to Q13 against
Q12, everything from there onwards will go wrong and we can not help you.
Write the following on your Answer booklet:
1. Copy No. of the Question booklet printed at the top right corner of
the
cover page
2. Alphabetic symbol printed inside the hexagon on the left margin of
the
Question booklet cover page
3. Your name
4. The Admit Card Id
DO NOT WRITE OR MARK anything on the Question booklet.
disqualify you from the test.
Doing so will
Use the blank sheets attached to the Answer booklet for any rough work / calculations
etc. DO NOT detach these working sheets from the answer booklet. Doing so will
disqualify you from the test.
PLEASE WAIT TILL YOU ARE TOLD TO TURN TO THE NEXT PAGE.
PART I
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For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the answers, the word
that is closest in meaning:
(1)
GARRULOUS
(A) arid (B)hasty (C)sociable (D)quaint (E)talkative
(2)
GAUCHE
(A) rigid (B)swift (C)awkward (D)taciturn (E)needy
(3)
GAUDY
(A) holy (B)showy (C)sentimental (D)mild (E)whimsical
(4)
GAUNT
(A) victorious (B)tiny (C)stylish (D)haggard (E)nervous
(5)
GENUFLECT
(A) falsify (B)trick (C)project (D)bend the knee (E)pronounce correctly
(6)
GERMANE
(A) bacteriological (B)middle-European (C)prominent (D)war-like (E)relevant
(7)
GERMINAL
(A) creative (B)excused (C)sterilized (D)primitive (E)strategic
(8)
GIST
(A) chaff (B)summary (C)expostulation (D)expiation (E)chore
(9)
GLIB
(A) slippery (B)fashionable (C)antiquated (D)articulate (E)anticlimactic
(10)
GNOME
(A)fury (B)giant (C)dwarf (D)native (E)alien
For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the answers, the closest
word that has the opposite meaning:
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(11)
COMPOSE
(A) disturb (B)reveal (C)strengthen (D)isolate (E)prevent
(12)
OCCLUDE
(A) determine (B)transcend (C)surround (D)open (E)regulate
(13)
AMBIGUITY
(A) extent (B)success (C)clarity (D) normality (E)expression
(14)
AMELIORATION
(A) prevention (B)aggravation (C)distraction (D)indifference (E)dissuasion
(15)
CAVIL
(A) discern (B)disclose (C)introduce (D)flatter (E)commend
(16)
SKEPTICAL
(A) theoretical (B)indifferent (C)ready to believe (D)eager for change (E)lost in
thought
(17)
FLEDGLING
(A) experienced person (B)shy onlooker (C) social outcast (D)fugitive (E)adversary
(18)
CRASS
(A) boastful (B)temporary (C) cheerful (D)refined (E)extensive
(19)
RECALCITRANT
(A) tractable (B)erratic (C)intuitive (D)vigorous (E)rambling
(20)
PROTRACT
(A) defy (B)supplement (C)postpone (D)shorten (E)design
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Read the following text. The passage contains some blank spaces. Choose the
sentence from the list A – I, that best fits in each of the blank spaces. The numbers
in brackets refer to Question numbers.
In the art of Middle Ages, we never encounter the personality of the artist as an
individual; rather it is diffused through the artistic genius of centuries embodied in the
rules of religious art. __21_____. The circular halo placed vertically behind the head
signifies sainthood, while the halo impressed with a cross signifies divinity. By bare feet,
we recognize God, the angels, Jesus Christ and the apostles, but for an artist to have
depicted the Virgin Mary with bare feet would have been tantamount to heresy.
___22____. A tree, which is to say a single stalk with two or three stylized leaves,
informs us that the scene is laid on earth. _23_____; and should an angel be watching
from the battlements, that city is thereby identified as Jerusalem. Saint Peter is always
depicted with curly hair, a short beard and a tonsure, __24_____.
Through this system, even the most mediocre talent was elevated by the genius’ of
the centuries.__25____. When they are not outstanding, they are scarcely able to avoid
insignificance and banality in their religious works; and even when they are great
__26___.
A. An artist who faithfully followed the rules of religious obligation and was not
recognized during his lifetime.
B. Art of the Middle Ages is a sacred script, the symbols and meaning of which were
settled.
C. They are no more than the equal of the old masters who passively followed the
sacred rules.
D. Religious art has greater value than the secular art of the Renaissance.
E. While Saint Paul always has a baldhead and along beard.
F. Several concentric, wavy lines represent the sky, while parallel lines represent
water or the sea.
G. If there were no unemployment compensation, artists could be induced to accept
such unstable works
H. A tower with a window indicates a village.
I. The artists of the early Renaissance broke with tradition at their own peril.
Yet, while Darwinian theory extends its domain, some of its cherished postulates are
slipping, or atleast losing their generality. The “modern synthesis”, the contemporary
version of Darwinism that has reigned for thirty years, took the model of adaptive gene
substitution within local populations as an adequate account, by accumulation and
extension, of life’s entire history. The model may work well in its empirical domain of
minor, local, adaptive adjustment; populations of the moth Biston betularia did turn
black, by substitution of a single gene, as a selected response for decreased visibility on
trees that had been blackened by industrial soot. But is the origin of new species simply
this process extended to more genes and greater effect? Are larger evolutionary trends
within major lineages just a further accumulation of sequential adaptive changes?
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Many evolutionists (myself included) are beginning to challenge this synthesis and to
assert the hierarchical view that different levels of evolutionary change often reflect
different kinds of causes.
Minor adjustment within populations may be sequential and adaptive. But speciation
may occur by major chromosomal changes that establish sterility with other species for
reasons unrelated to adaptation. Evolutionary trends may represent a kind of higher-level
selection upon essentially static species themselves, not the slow and steady alteration of
a single large population through untold ages.
Before the modern synthesis, many biologists (see Bateson, 1922, in bibliography)
expressed confusion and depression because the proposed mechanisms of evolution at
different levels seemed contradictory enough to preclude a unified science. After the
modern synthesis, the notion spread (amounting almost to a dogma among its less
thoughtful lieutenants) that all evolution could be reduced to the basic Darwinism of
gradual, adaptive change within local populations. I think that we are now pursuing a
fruitful path between the anarchy of Batesons’s day and the restrictions of view imposed
by the modern synthesis. The modern synthesis work in its appropriate arena, but the
same Darwinian processes of mutation and selection may operate in strikingly different
ways at higher domains in a hierarchy of evolutionary levels. I think that we may hope
for uniformity of causal agents hence a single, general theory with a Darwinian core. But
we must reckon, with a multiplicity of mechanisms, that preclude the explanation of
higher level phenomena by the model of adaptive gene substitution favored for the lowest
level.
At the basis of all this ferment lies nature’s irreducible complexity. Organisms are not
billiard balls, propelled by simple and measurable external forces to predictable new
positions on life’s pool table. Sufficiently complex systems have greater richness.
Organisms have a history that constrains their future in myriad, subtle ways. Their
complexity of form entails a host of functions incidental to whatever pressures of natural
selection superintended the initial construction, their intricate and largely unknown
pathways of embryonic development guarantee that simple inputs(minor changes)in
timing, for example) may be translated into marked and surprising changes in output( the
adult organism)
Charles Darwin chose to close his great book with a striking comparison that
expresses this richness. He contrasted the simpler system of planetary motion, and its
result of endless, static cycling, with the complexity of life and its wondrous and
unpredictable change through the ages:
There us grandeur in this view of life, with its several powers, having been originally
breathed into a few forms or into one; and that, whilst this planet has gone cycling on
according to the fixed law of gravity, from so simple a beginning endless forms most
beautiful and most wonderful have been, and are being, evolved.
(27)
According to the author, many contemporary evolutionists find the Darwinian
synthesis
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(A) Wholly unfounded
(B) Overly restrictive
(C) Essentially contradictory
(D) Sadly confusing
(E) Strikingly productive
(28)
In asserting the complexity of nature, the author refers to billiard balls on life’s
pool table
(A) an illustration of the unpredictable changes of nature
(B) an instance of confusion and mobility
(C) an example of a relatively uncomplicated system
(D) an application of the fixed law of gravity
(E) an accurate model of genetic change.
(29)
It can be inferred that the paragraph immediately preceding this passage most
likely discussed
(A) the absence of a unified theory of evolution
(B) individuals challenging the Darwinian synthesis
(C) the expansion of evolutionary theory into new realms
(D) experimental methods of genetic substitution
(E) the place of genetics in the study of natural history.
(30)
With which of the following statements regarding Charles Darwin would the
author be most likely to agree.
I.
Darwin left his early successors in some confusion as to the
universal applicability of his evolutionary theory.
II
Darwin experienced a period of despondency caused by the
thoughtlessness of his lieutenants
III
Darwin contrasted the simplicity and cal-culpability of planetary
cycles favorably to the diversity and unpredictability of living
creatures.
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I,II, and III
(31)
The author does all of the following EXCEPT
(A) Denounce an adversary
(B) Pose a question
(C) Provide an example
(D) Use a metaphor
(E) Refer to an authority
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(32)
Which of the following phrases from the passage nest categorizes the
Transformation undergone by certain members of Biston betularia ?
(A) “Larger evolutionary trends within major lineages”
(B) “minor adjustment within populations”
(C) “irreducible complexity”
(D) “endless, static cycling “
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PART II
Q1.
Fill in the missing number in the sequence
7
9
13
??
27
37
(a) 15 (b) 21 (c) 19 (d) 18 (e)24
Q2.
In the following series, how many Ys are there such that each Y is followed by an
L next to it if the L is not followed by a P next to it.
Y
L Y
P
Q
Y
L Q
Y
L P
(a)3
(b)2
(c)1
M
Y
L P
L Y
(d)4
A
M
L Y
M L Y
L L Y
Q
M
Y
L M
(e)6
Q3.
If VKHOWHU is coded as SHELTER how will PLQG be coded?
(a) TRIAL
(b) ALERT (c) MIND
(d) BRAVE (e) GAIN
Q4.
Suppose the first and second letters in the word PROPORTIONAL were
interchanged, also the third and fourth letters, the fifth and sixth etc. Print the
letter that would then be the eighth letter counting from the right.
(a) T
(b) I
(c) R
(d) O
(e) P
Q5.
How would the decimal number 242 be represented in a base -5 number System?
(a) 1234
(b) 1542
(c) 1432
(d)1654
(e)1876
Q6.
What is the largest prime number that can be stored in an 9-bit word computer?
(a) 509
(b) 511
(c) 519
(d) 409
(e) 479
Q7.
If n = 10 x 18 x 38, which of the following is NOT an integer?
(a)
(d)
Q8.
n / 95
n / 76
(b)
(e)
n / 156
n / 40
(c)
n / 45
c.
3225
Which of the following is a power of 5?
a.
d.
3125
3525
b.
e.
3575
3625
Pick the odd one out
Q9.
(a)
(d)
UNIX
MVS
(b)
(e)
WINDOWS NT
LINUX
(c)
ORACLE
Q10.
(a)
(d)
BAAN
SMTP
(b)
(e)
HTTP
ARP
(c)
WAP
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Q11.
The three numbers in brackets represent the angles of a triangle. Which of these
does not represent a proper triangle?
(a)
(50º,51º,79º) (b)
(60º,90º,30º) (c)
(73º,67º,40º)
(d)
(100º,60º,20º) (e)
(70º,34º,56º)
Q12.
The three numbers in brackets in each of the following options represents the
number of edges , the number of faces and the number of vertices respectively.
Find out which of these represents a solid planar cube?
(a) (12,8,6) (b) (8,6,12)
(c) (8,12,4) (d) (8,6,8) (e) (12,6,8)
Q13.
Which set of data exhibits a higher Standard Deviation?
(a)
8, 0, -8, 8, 0, -8
(b)
8, 8, 8, 0, 8, 8 (c)
(d)
8, 8, 8, 8, 8, 8
(e)
8, -8, 8, -8, 8, -8
-8, -8, -8, -8, -8, -8
The three circles below represent the number of students passing in Physics, Math
and English. Answer the next three questions based on the diagram
14
49
45
English
Physics
12
16
13
51
Math
Q14.
How many more (or less) students passed in Physics than students who passed in
English?
(a)2 (b)3 (c)1 (d)4 (e)5
Q15.
What percentage of students passing in Math also pass in English but not in
Physics.
(a)16 (b)18 (c)17.4 (d)20 (e)15
Q16. What percentage of total passed in all three subjects.
(a)4 (b)5 (c)6 (d)8 (e)9
The figure on the left represents number of distributors for a Company and the
figure on the right depicts region-wise distribution for 1998
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140
120
North
12%
100
East
8%
80
Distributors (in "00s) 60
South
55%
West
25%
40
20
0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Q17.
Which year has registered the maximum percentage growth in distributors?
(a)1998
(b)1996
(c)1994
(d)1686
(e) 1888
Q18.
What is the average number of distributors for 1995-1999?
(a) 7700
(b) 6800
(c)8800
(d)4800
(e) 7800
Q19.
If 10% of distributors in 1998 left the Company, how many fresh distributors
were made in 1999?
(a) 4500
(b) 4900
(c) 4600
(d) 4400
(e) 5400
Q20.
A hypothetical physical quantity is defined as:
(Energy X Velocity)
(Mass X Acceleration)
In what fundamental units would this quantity be expressed?
(a)Time
(b) Power
(c) Distance (d) Velocity (e) None
Q21.
A work twice as fast as B . If B can complete a piece of work independently in 12
days, then the number of days taken by A and B together to finish the work is :
(a)6 (b)4 (c)8 (d)12 (e)16
Q22.
Which of these matrices is singular
12
3
9
2
A=
(a)A
Q23.
2
3
-4
6
B=
(b)B
(c)C
0
0
4
C=
(d)D
(e) None
Match the following relationships:
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4
21
15
7
5
D=
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Female – Girl
Basmati – Wheat
Snake – Reptile
Roof – Building
(a) i-3,ii-1,iii-4,iv-2
(d) i-3,ii-2,iii-1,iv-4
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(b) i-4,ii-1,iii-3,iv-2
(e) i-1,ii-4,iii-3,iv-2
Not a type of
Part of
A type of
Superset of
(c)i-4,ii-1,iii-2,iv-3
Q24.
If * stands for squaring and > stands for change of sign what is the value of
* > * (4) - > * > (4)?
(a)260 (b)278 (c) 272 (d)264 (e)268
Q25.
A sequence is defined recursively as
g(0) = 1
g(n) = g(n-1) * n2, where * stands for multiplication
What will be the value of g(4)?
(a)546 (b)576 (c)564 (d)588 (e)512
Q26.
What curve best suits the following data:
Y
X
0.99
10.04
99.98
1000
9990
0.00001
1.02
1.997
3.0
4.004
(a) y = logn x (b) y = log10 x (c) y = ex (d) y = -log10 x (e) y = - ex
Q27.
A Two-dimensional array X(7,9) is stored linearly column-wise in a computer's
memory. Each element requires 2 bytes for storage of the value. If the first byte
address of X (1,1) is 3000, what would be the last byte address of X (2,3)?
(a)3211
(b)3451
(c)3031
(d)3241
(e)3445
Q28.
Of the four straight lines A, B, C,D find out which pair forms an orthogonal set?
A: 5x+4y-7 = 0, B: y = -x, C: 4x = 5y+5, D: y = 7x+3
(a)AC (b) AD (c) BC (d) BD (e)AB
Q29.
Evaluate the expression:
M(735,11) + R(5.8) + T(7.7) - R(3.4) where
M stands for Modulo arithmetic, R stands for Round-off operation and T stands
for Truncation Operation
(a)15 (b)17 (c) 19 (d)12 (e)14
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Q30.
Three independent strategies A, B and C have been initiated for cost cutting in a
company producing respectively 30%, 40% and 10% savings. Assuming that they
operate independently, what is the net saving achieved?
(a) 56%
(b) 64%
(c) 62.2%
(d) 68%
(e) 61%
Q31.
The hourly declination of moon for a given day is as follows:
Hour
Declination
2
8o 6’ 43.5”
3
7o 59’ 54.8”
Find the declination of the moon at hour 4.
(a) 7o 53’ 6.1” (b) 7o 56’ 54.5” (c) 9o 46’ 33.5” (d) 7o16’ 12.5” (e) 8o 39’ 28.7”
Q32.
What equation best describes the curve shown below:
Y
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
0
-0.2
X
2
4
6
-0.4
-0.6
-0.8
(a)y = tan x
(b) y + 3 = x (c)y + x = 0
(d) y = log10 x (e) y = Cos x
Q33.
The temperature at Kolkata is given by the function: -t2/6+4t+12 where t is the
elapsed time since noon. What is the percentage rise (or fall) in temperature
between 3.00 PM and 9.00 PM?
(a) 53%
(b) 52%
(c) 48%
(d) 50%
(e) 58.6%
Q34.
An aircraft takes off from A (89o N Lat, 40o E Long) at 2.00 AM local time to B
(32o N Lat, 40o W Long). If the flying time is 9 hours what is the local time of
landing at B?
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(a)6.40 AM
(b) 4.00 AM (c) 5.40 AM
(d) 7.00AM
(e) 8.00AM
Q35.
Fill in the last row of the following Truth Table:
A
0
0
0
0
1
1
1
1
B
0
0
1
1
0
0
1
1
C
0
1
0
1
0
1
0
1
(A C )  B
Interpret the resulting bit pattern as an integer in an 8-bit computer and write the
decimal value.
(a)12 (b)15 (c)17 (d)18 (e) 19
Q36.
A file is transferred from one location to another in 'buckets'. The size of the
bucket is 10 kilobytes. The bucket gets filled at the rate of 0.0001 kilobytes per
millisecond. The transmission time from sender to receiver is 10 milliseconds per
bucket. After the receipt of the bucket the receiver sends an acknowledgement
that reaches sender in 100 milliseconds. Assuming no error during transmission,
write a formula to calculate the time taken in seconds to successfully complete the
transfer of a file of size N kilobytes.
(a) 10.11 N (b) 11.011 N (c) 11.01 N (d) 10.101 N (e) 10.011 N
Q37.
The productivity of a team of engineers is given by the function
P (N) = 4000 √N, where N is the total strength. Find the percentage change in
productivity if the strength of the team is increased by 1%.
(a) 0.5%
(b) 0.25%
(c) 0.75%
(d) 1%
(e) 2%
Q38. An optical cable is to be run from a junction point on the bank of a river 900
meters wide to an office that is located 3000 meters downstream on the opposite
bank. If the cost of laying cable under water is Rs. 5 per meter and that of laying
overhead on land is Rs. 4 per meter, find the point downstream where the cable is to
cut across the river.
(a) 450
(b) 1800
(c) 3900
(d) 2100
END OF PART II
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(e) 2700
PART III
Read the following passages and answer questions under each passage
(1) John is undecided which of the 4 popular novels to buy. He is considering a spy thriller,
a murder mystery, a Gothis romance and a science fiction novel. The books are written by
Rothko, Gorky, Burchfield and Hopper, not necessarily in that order and published by
Heron, Pigeon, Bluejay and Sparrow, not necessarily in that order.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The book by Rothko is published by Sparrow.
The spy thriller is published by Herono
The science fiction novel is by Buchfield and is not published by Bluejay
The Gothic romance is by Hopper.
1. Pigeon publishes:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
The murder mystery
The science fiction novel
The spy thriller
The Gothic romance
The novel by Rothko
2. The novel by Gorky is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
A science fiction novel published by Bluejay
A Gothic romance published by Bluejay
published by Heron and is a murder mystery
published by Pigeon and is a Gothic romance
published by Heron and is a spy thriller
3. John purchases books by the 2 authors whose names come first and third in
alphabetical order. He does not buy:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
the murder mystery
the book published by Pigeon
A science fiction novel
the book published by Bluejay
the Gothic romance
4. On the basis of the first paragraphs and statements (2), (3), and (4) only , it is possible
to deduce that
I.
II.
III.
Rothko wrote the murder mystery or the spy thriller
Sparrow published the murder mystery or the spy thriller
The book by Burchfield is published by Sparrow or Pigeon
(A)
(B)
I only
II only
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(C)
(D)
(E)
III only
I and III only
I, II and III
(2) On Sunday, December 23, four ships were berthed at the New York City Municipal Pier
at West 55 Street. All four ships were beginning their series of winter cruises to various
ports in the Atlantic and the Caribbean.
Ship W left at 4 p.m. on Sunday, December 23, for a series of 8 day cruises to Bermuda
and Nassau.
Ship X left at 4:30 p.m. on Sunday, December 23, for a series of alternating 11 and 13 day
cruises.
Ship Y sailed at 5 p.m. on Sunday, December 23, for a series of 5 day cruises to Bermuda
Ship Z sailed on Monday, December 24, for a series of 7 day cruises to Nassau.
Each cruise officially begins on the day after the departure. Each ship is scheduled to return
to New York City early in the morning after the last day of the cruise and leave again late
in the afternoon of the same day.
1. On December 31, which ships will be sailing from New York on a New Year’s Eve
cruise?
(A) W and X
(B) X and Y
(C) W and Z
(D) X and Z
(E) X, Y and Z
2. On how many occasions between Dec. 24 and Feb. 28 will 3 ships be moored at the pier?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 4
3. On which day of the week will these four ships make most of their departures?
(A) Sunday
(B) Monday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Thursday
(E) Saturday
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4.On which days of the week in the period between Dec.24 and Feb. 28 will the pier be
least crowded?
(A) Tuesday and Friday
(B) Tuesday and Thursday
(C) Friday and Saturday
(D) Wednesday and Thursday
(E) Thursday and Saturday
(3) Observance of Memorial Day, which falls on Saturday this year will be as follows for
the tristate area (New Albion, New Shetland, New Wales):
Banks and government departments which are normally open on Saturdays will close.
Those normally closed on Saturdays will close as follows:
Banks will close Friday in Wales and Monday in New Shetland.
State government offices will close Friday in New Albion and New Shetland.
Sanitation pick up in Monday-Wednesday-Friday pick up areas will be cancelled Friday in
New Albion and New Shetland, and Monday in New Wales; pick up in Tuesday-ThursdaySaturday in all three states.
The post office and other federal offices, normally open Monday through Saturday, will be
closed Saturday but open Friday and Monday in all three states.
(Banks are normally open Saturday only in New Albion; state government offices are
normally open Saturday only in Wales.
1. Which is not available Friday, Saturday, or Monday in New Wales?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Banking services
State government office services
Sanitation pickup in some areas
Postal services
Federal government office services.
2. Mrs. Semkow goes to the post office, the bank and the state income tax bureau on
Monday. She mat live in:
I. New Albion
II. New Shetland
III. New Wales
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
I only
II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II or III
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3. Mr. Rudolph find all but one of the listed services available Friday. He lives in:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
New Albion or New Shetland
A Monday-Wednesday-Friday pick up area in New Wales
Any new area in New Albion or New Wales
A Tuesday-Thursday-Saturday pick up area in any of the other three states
A Monday-Wednesday-Friday area in New Albion
4. In which area(s) is there no deviation from normal service on Monday for any of the
services listed?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
All of New Albion
Monday-Wednesday-Friday pick up areas in New Albion and New Wales
Tuesday-Thursday-Saturday pick up areas in New Shetland and New Wales
All of New Wales
Monday-Wednesday-Friday areas in New Shetland
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