Module 2 Special microbiology
Text test questions
1. Which of the following vaccines are prepared from live microbes?
A. diphtheria vaccine
B. Solk polio vaccine.
C. Influenza vaccine
D. DPT
E. *BCG and oral polio vaccines
2. Choose among these bacteria obligate anaerobes.
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Micrococcacae
C. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella melitensis
D. Shigella dysenteriae, Salmonella typhi
E. *Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulini
3. Which of the following bacteria don’t contain cell wall?
A. Klebsiella
B. Ricketsia
C. Slaphylococcus
D. Treponema
E. *Mycoplasma
4. Which from following microorganisms does contain sterols in the cytoplasmic membrane?
A. Bacillus
B. Clostridium
C. Proteus
D. Ricketsia
E. *Mycoplasma
5. Who did develop rabies vaccine for the first time in 1885?
A. Semple.
B. Edward Jenner
C. Paul Ehrlich.
D. Wasserman.
E. *Louis Pasteur.
6. Who did introduce the method of vaccination to prevent smallpox?
A. Louis Pasteur.
B. Paul Ehrlich.
C. John Hunter.
D. Antony van Leeuwenhoek.
E. *Edward Jenner.
7. Passive immunization is routinely administered to individuals exposed to certain microbial pathogens that
cause diseases, EXCEPT:
A. Botulism
B. Diphtheria
C. Hepatitis
D. Rabies
E. *Chicken pox
8. Vaccines are available for all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Tetanus
D. Measles
E. *Hepatitis C
9. Microorganisms capable of producing endospores include:
A. Escherichia species
B. Bacterium species
C. Leptospirae
D. Staphylococci
E. *Clostridium species
10. Endospore formation is a property of:
A. Escherichia coli
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. *Clostridium botulinum
11. A patient becomes infected with Salmonella enterica serotype typhi. Which condition would most strongly
favor development of a "chronic carrier state" with this organism?
A. Age over 70 years.
B. Infection via the respiratory route.
C. Presence of kidney stones.
D. Chronic pulmonary disease.
E. *Presence of gallstones.
12. Which phrase best describes typical infections by Campylobacter jejuni?
A. Non-inflammatory enteritis
B. Systemic infection
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Meningitis
E. *Inflammatory enteritis
13. A patient is diagnosed with Clostridium difficile colitis. Which item would represent a known risk factor
for such infections?
A. Consumed unpurified water.
B. Visited the southwestern United States.
C. Eaten undercooked fried rice.
D. Been in contact with livestock
E. *Been treated with antibiotics.
14. Why tetanus is now a rare disease. Which factors below has been most important in preventing it?
A. Vaccination of livestock, especially cattle, with a killed-organism vaccine
B. Antibiotic treatment of contacts of patients with C. tetani infections.
C. Eradication of the organism from the environment.
D. Sewage treatment and purification of water supplies.
E. *Immunization of humans with a toxoid-containing vaccine.
15. From which site is alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus isolate most likely to have spread in blood?
A. Anterior nares.
B. Lower respiratory tract.
C. Distal urethra.
D. Facial skin.
E. *Oropharynx.
16. A five-day-old child develops high fever and stiff neck. A spinal tap is performed. A Gram-stained smear
of cerebrospinal fluid reveals many neutrophils and short, thick, Gram-negative rods of uniform length.
This microbes can ferment lactose.Which organism below is most likely to have caused this infection?
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Streptococcus agalactiae
E. *Escherichia coli
17. It is necessary to check the peptolytic properties of enterobacteria. What nutrient medium will you
recommend?
A. MPA
B. Endo’s medium
C. Ru’s medium
D. 1 % alkaline peptone water
E. *MPB
18. It is necessary to study bacterial peptolytic properties. Indicate the proper medium:
A. Meat-peptone agar
B. Sugar MPA
C. Coagulated serum
D. gelatin
E. *Meat-peptone broth
19. Choose obligate aerobes among these microorganisms:
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulini
C. Shigella dysenteriae, Salmonella typhi
D. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella melitensis
E. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Micrococcus spp.
20. Choose obligate anaerobes among these microbes:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Rickettsia spp.
D. Corynebacterium spp.
E. *Bacteroides spp.
21. . Choose obligate anaerobes:
A. Escherichia coli
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Proteus vulgaris
D. Brucella melitensis
E. *Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulinum
22. Indicate among these microbes obligate anaerobic bacteria:
A. Staphylococcus spp., Streptococcus spp.
B. Escherichia coli, Salmonella typhi
C. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella abortus
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae
E. *Clostridium perfringens, Bacteroides spp.
23. What microbes do belong to facultative anaerobes?
A. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium perfringens
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Vibrio cholerae
C. Brucella abortus
D. Lactobacillus acidophilus
E. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Salmonella typhi
24. All of bacteria belong to obligate aerobes, EXCEPT:
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Yersinia pestis
C. Micrococci spp.
D. Vibrio cholerae
E. *Clostridium tetani
25. Match the organism with its usual colonizing site - Coagulase negative Staphylococcus
A. Intestine
B. Vagina
C. Mouth
D. Conjuctiva
E. *Skin
26. Match the organism with its usual colonizing site -Lactobacillus spp
A. Intestine
B. Skin
C. Mouth
D. Conjuctiva
E. *Vagina
27. Match the organism with its usual colonizing site -Enterococcus faecalis
A. Skin
B. Vagina
C. Mouth
D. Conjuctiva
E. *Intestine
28. Streptococcus pneumoniae can be part of the normal flora of 5-40% of people. At what anatomic site can
it be found?
A. Conjunctiva
B. Colon
C. Urethra
D. Vagina
E. *Nasopharynx
29. Herpes simplex virus type 1 most commonly causes cold sores. The site of reactivation for this virus is the
A. vagus nerve
B. B lymphocyte
C. epidermal cell
D. eighth cranial nerve
E. *trigeminal nerve
30. Which of the following viruses cause/s genital infection?
A. Molluscum contagiosum.
B. Human papillomavirus type 6.
C. Herpes simplex virus type 2
D. adenovirus serotype 37
E. *All answers are correct
31. Which of the following viruses can cause prenatal infection?
A. Rubella
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Varicella-zoster.
D. none all of the above
E. *All of the above.
32. The term virus was first used by
A. Koch
B. van Leewuenhoek
C. Fleming
D. Redi
E. *Pasteur
33. Because the AIDS virus weakens the immune system:
A. people with AIDS are immune to all other diseases.
B. the AIDS virus is spread very easily.
C. the AIDS virus activates nonspecific resistance of organism
D. all answers are right
E. *people with AIDS are more vulnerable to other diseases.
34. What is the current recommendation for drug therapy for an AIDS patients
A. One nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
B. One protease inhibitor
C. Two protease inhibitors
D. Two protease inhibitors and г interferon
E. One protease inhibitor and two nucleoside inhibitor
35. An individual will be diagnosed with AIDS when they have a positive HIV test and:
A. A T-cell count of under 500 per milliliter.
B. Mononucleosis
C. A B-cell count of under 400 per milliliter.
D. None of the above.
E. *CD4-cell count of under 200 per milliliter of blood.
36. Which of the following is/are congenital diseases occured in childrens born to women infected with
rubella?
A. Neurosensory deafness.
B. Congenital heart disease
C. Retinopathy
D. Hepatosplenomegaly
E. *All are correct.
37. Which of the following arboviruses is/are not arthropod-borne?
A. JE virus
B. Yellow fever virus
C. Dengue virus
D. West Nile virus
E. *Rubella
38. Which of the following microorganism genera is/are not transmited by insects?
A. Alphavirus
B. Rickettsia spp.
C. Togavirus
D. Borrelia
E. *Rubivirus
39. Which of the following arthropodes act/s as vector for Japanese encephalitis virus?
A. flea
B. fly
C. tick
D. Lice
E. *mosquito.
40. Choose insect that can serve as vector for Japanese encephalitis virus?
A. flea.
B. fly
C. tick
D. Lice
E. *mosquito
41. Which of the following act as hosts of Japanese encephalitis virus?
A. Water birds and man.
B. Pigs and man.
C. Cows and goats
D. Cats and dogs.
E. *Water birds and pigs.
42. Which of the following are reservoir of Japanese encephalitis virus?
A. Cats and dogs.
B. Cows and goats.
C. Pigs and man.
D. Water birds and man.
E. *Water birds and pigs.
43. Which is the vector for West Nile virus?
A. flea
B. fly
C. louse
D. tick
E. *mosquito
44. Choose among listed the vector for West Nile virus?
A. flea
B. fly
C. louse
D. batterfly
E. *mosquito
45. For specific prophylaxis of a tick-borne encephalitis is used:
A. immunoglobulin
B. toxoid
C. specific hyperimmune serum
D. live vaccine.
E. *formolated vaccine
46. Rabies can be acquired as a result of:
A. inhalation of aerosolized virus
B. a bite of a rabid animal
C. inoculation through mucous membranes
D. transplantation of infected tissue
E. all are correct
47. What is the shape of rabies virus?
A. Spherical
B. Polygonal
C. Tubular
D. Stick-like
E. *Bullet-shaped.
48. The shape of rabies virus is:
A. Polygonal
B. Spherical
C. Stick-like
D. Tubular.
E. *Bullet-shaped
49. Which of the following clinical specimens can be used for the demonstration of rabies antigen by direct
immunofluorescence antemortem?
A. skin smears.
B. blood
C. liquor smear
D. feces
E. *corneal smears.
50. Where we can detect rabies antigen by direct immunofluorescence antemortem?
A. hippocampal neuron
B. blood
C. hairs
D. brain
E. *corneal scrapings.
51. Match yellow fever virus (Arbovirus) with its family.
A. Reoviridae
B. Bunyaviridae
C. Togaviridae
D. Rhabdoviridae
E. *Flaviviridae
52. Choose among following the yellow fever virus family.
A. Bunyaviridae
B. Reoviridae
C. Rhabdoviridae
D. Togaviridae
E. *Flaviviridae
53. Negri bodies are found in cells infected with:
A. vaccinia virus
B. fowlpox virus.
C. paramyxoviruses.
D. measles virus
E. *rabies virus.
54. At which diseases we can detect Negri bodies?
A. herpes
B. smalpox
C. poliomyelitis
D. measles
E. *rabies
55. Retrospective diagnostics of measles and mumps includes:
A. CFT with specific serums
B. HIT with specific serums
C. rhinocytoscopy
D. NT (colour test) with paired serums
E. *HIT with paired serums
56. What sample is used for serological diagnostics of mumps?
A. saliva
B. blood
C. urine
D. spinal liquid
E. *paired serums.
57. A respiratory disease spread by the droplet aerosol route during winter, causing severe headache, cough,
fever, malaise and congestion is most compatible with which of the following as an etiological agent?
A. Mumps
B. Influenza C
C. Chicken pox
D. Hepatitis A Virus
E. *Influenza A virus
58. An acute respiratory disease spread by the droplet aerosol route during winter is most compatible with
which of the following as an etiological agent?
A. Chicken pox
B. Mumps
C. Influenza C
D. Hepatitis B Virus
E. *Influenza A
59. Choose in the listed statements best describes antigenic shift within the orthomyxoviruses?
A. A major lipid change of the envelope proteins
B. A minor lipid change of the envelope proteins
C. A medium antigenic change of the envelope proteins
D. A minor antigenic change of the envelope proteins
E. *A major antigenic change of the envelope proteins
60. The vaccine for influenza has the following components:
A. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza A,B, and C
B. Nucleoprotein and neuraminidase of influenza A,B, and C
C. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza B only
D. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza B and C
E. *Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza A and B
61. The vaccine for influenza consists of the following components:
A. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza B only
B. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza A,B, and C
C. Nucleoprotein and neuraminidase of influenza A,B, and C
D. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza B and C
E. *Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza A and B
62. The following characterizes the genome of the orthomyxoviruses:
A. Nonsegmented RNA genome
B. Nonsegmented DNA genome
C. Segmented DNA genome
D. Supercoiled double stranded DNA genome
E. *Segmented RNA genome
63. The genome of the orthomyxoviruses contain:
A. Nonsegmented RNA genome
B. Nonsegmented DNA genome
C. Segmented DNA genome
D. Supercoiled double stranded DNA genome
E. *Segmented RNA genome
64. Influenza viruses are predominantly transmitted by:
A. The aerosol route during the summer
B. Close physical contact during the summer
C. The fecal-oral route during the winter
D. sexual route in winter
E. *The aerosol route and close physical contact during the winter
65. During the epidemic of flu Influenza viruses are predominantly transmitted by:
A. The aerosol route during the summer
B. Close physical contact during the summer
C. The fecal-oral route during the winter
D. through the bites of flies
E. *The aerosol route and close physical contact during the winter
66. Which protein is predominantly responsible for attachment of the influenza virus to susceptible epithelial
cells located in the upper respiratory tract?
A. Neuraminidase
B. Matrix protein
C. Nucleoprotein
D. Fusion protein
E. *Hemagglutinin
67. By which protein the influenza virus can attach to mucous cells of the upper respiratory tract?
A. Fusion protein
B. Nucleoprotein
C. Matrix protein
D. Neuraminidase
E. *Hemagglutinin
68. Which proteins of influenza viruses does flu vaccine contain ?
A. Hemagglutinin, neuraminidase and fusion proteins
B. Neuraminidase and fusion proteins
C. Hemagglutinin
D. Neuraminidase
E. *Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
69. Which antiviral drug could be administered to other family members as a prophylactic measure if an
influenza infection has been diagnosed within a family?
A. Foscarnet
B. Ganciclovir
C. Cyclosporin A
D. Acyclovir
E. *Amantadine
70. Choose among listed a correct statement concerning the orthomyxoviruses?
A. Dogs are a reservoir of influenza hemagglutinin and neuraminidase subtypes
B. Influenza A, B, and C cause epidemics.
C. Neuraminidase and hemagglutinin are nucleocapsid proteins
D. The matrix protein is important for vaccine inclusion
E. *The genome is segmented, composed of eight RNA units
71. Which of the following statements best describes antigenic shift within the orthomyxoviruses?
A. A minor antigenic change of the envelope proteins
B. A medium antigenic change of the envelope proteins
C. A minor lipid change of the envelope proteins
D. A major lipid change of the envelope proteins
E. *A major antigenic change of the envelope proteins
72. Choose among listed statements best describes antigenic shift within the orthomyxoviruses?
A. A major lipid change of the envelope proteins
B. A medium antigenic change of the envelope proteins
C. A minor lipid change of the envelope proteins
D. A minor antigenic change of the envelope proteins.
E. *A major antigenic change of the envelope proteins
73. The syncytial-forming capability that all members of the paramyxovirus family have in common is a
consequence of which of the following viral proteins?
A. hemagglutinin
B. neuraminidase
C. polymerase
D. thymidine kinase
E. *fusion protein
74. The syncytial-forming capability of the paramyxovirus is associated with:
A. thymidine kinase
B. polymerase
C. neuraminidase
D. hemagglutinin
E. *fusion protein
75. Cause of antigenic drift of influenza A viruses is:
A. A major change in the hemagglutinin proteins
B. A major change in the matrix protein
C. A minor change in the matrix protein
D. A minor change in envelope
E. *A minor change in the neuraminidase or hemagglutinin proteins
76. Which of the following is/are true about the influenza vaccine?
A. The vaccine is recommended for health care workers, patients with cardiopulmonary
complications, and geriatric patients.
B. The constitution of the vaccine changes every year.
C. Both influenza A and B virus strains are included in the vaccine.
D. The viruses used in the vaccine are propagated in embryonated chicken eggs.
E. *All are true.
77. Choose the correct statement about the influenza vaccine?
A. The viruses used in the vaccine are propagated in embryonated chicken eggs.
B. Both influenza A and B virus strains are included in the vaccine.
C. The constitution of the vaccine changes every year.
D. The vaccine is recommended for health care workers, patients with cardiopulmonary
complications, and geriatric patients.
E. All are true.
78. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is most associated with which of the following syndromes:
A. Bronchiolitis of young adults
B. Upper lobe infiltrates of young adults
C. Upper lobe infiltrates of young children
D. Lower lobe infiltrates of young adults
E. *Bronchiolitis of young infants
79. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) causes one of the following syndromes:
A. Bronchiolitis in adults
B. Upper lobe infiltrates of young adults
C. Upper lobe infiltrates of young children
D. Lower lobe infiltrates in adults
E. *Bronchiolitis in infants
80. The antiviral drug used for treatment of severe respiratory syncytial disease (RSV) infection is:
A. amantadine
B. acyclovir
C. immune globulin
D. AZT
E. *ribavirin
81. Which antiviral drug can be used for treatment of severe respiratory syncytial disease (RSV) infection :
A. acyclovir
B. amantadine
C. AZT
D. immune globulin
E. ribavirin
82. An adenovirus:
A. has a neuraminidase
B. has a double shelled capsid
C. has an RNA genome
D. has an envelope
E. *has a hemagglutinin
83. An adenovirus contains:
A. a neuraminidase
B. fibrinolysisn
C. a double shelled capsid
D. an envelope
E. *a DNA genome
84. How can an eye infection by a specific serotype of adenovirus be diagnosed?
A. By monitoring the response of the infection to steroid therapy.
B. By detecting the presence of viral double stranded DNA.
C. By using electron microscopy to detect viral particles in an eye swab.
D. By precipitation test.
E. *By inhibition hemagglutination test
85. Choose among following the method of detecting of a specific serotype of adenovirus which have caused
acute respiratory infection?
A. By detecting nuclear inclusions in infected cells collected in a throat swab.
B. By detecting the presence of viral double stranded DNA.
C. By monitoring the response of the infection to steroid therapy
D. By using electron microscopy to detect viral particles in a throat swab.
E. *By using serotype antibody to test inhibition of hemagglutination .
86. Which viral protein is the hemagglutination of adenovirus found in?
A. The core
B. The hexon
C. The M protein
D. The DNA protein
E. *The penton
87. Which family contains rubella virus and what group of individuals is most at risk for severe sequelae from
rubella infections?
A. Paramyxovirus family; grade school children
B. Paramyxovirus family; infants in utero during the first trimester
C. Togavirus family; grade school children
D. Togavirus family; middle age adults
E. *Togavirus family; infants in utero during the first trimester
88. Choose family which contains rubella virus and what individuals have most risk for dangerous
complications from rubella infections?
A. Paramyxovirus family; grade school children
B. Paramyxovirus family; infants in utero during the first trimester
C. Togavirus family; grade school children
D. Togavirus family; middle age adults
E. *Togavirus family; infants in utero during the first trimester
89. Rubella infection causes long term serious sequelae in which of the following populations?
A. Women of childbearing age
B. Children infected during the first grade (age 6-7 yrs)
C. Children who have received the attenuated vaccine
D. Children who have received the interferon
E. *Children infected in the first trimester in utero
90. For whom rubella infection causes long term dangerous complications?
A. Children who have received the interferon
B. Children who have received the attenuated vaccine
C. Children infected during the first grade (age 6-7 yrs)
D. Women of childbearing age
E. *Children infected in the first trimester in utero
91. Which of the following proteins are present in the envelope of the parainfluenza and mumps viruses?
A. Hemagglutinin, but no neuraminidase or fusion proteins present
B. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase, but no fusion protein present
C. Neuraminidase, but no hemagglutinin protein present
D. Fusion protein, but no hemagglutinin or neuraminidase present
E. *Hemagglutinin, neuraminidase and fusion proteins present
92. Measles is a member of the paramyxovirus family, but it differs from mumps and the parainfluenza
viruses structurally with respect to envelope proteins. How do they differ?
A. Measles has a neuraminidase but no hemagglutinin; mumps and parainfluenza have only
hemagglutinin
B. Measles has no hemagglutinin or neuraminidase, mumps and parainfluenza have only
neuraminidase
C. Measles has a neuraminidase but no hemagglutinin; mumps and parainfluenza have hemagglutinin
and neuraminidase
D. Measles has no hemagglutinin or neuraminidase, mumps and parainfluenza have hemagglutinin
and no neuraminidase
E. *Measles has a hemagglutinin but no neuraminidase; mumps and parainfluenza have
hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
93. Find the correct statement about envelope proteins of measles, mumps and the parainfluenza viruses:
A. Measles has no hemagglutinin or neuraminidase, mumps and parainfluenza have only
neuraminidase
B. Measles has a neuraminidase but no hemagglutinin; mumps and parainfluenza have hemagglutinin
and neuraminidase
C. Measles has a neuraminidase but no hemagglutinin; mumps and parainfluenza have only
hemagglutinin
D. Measles has no hemagglutinin or neuraminidase, mumps and parainfluenza have hemagglutinin
and no neuraminidase
E. *Measles has a hemagglutinin but no neuraminidase; mumps and parainfluenza have
hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
94. Why is infection with HDV of concern:
A. HDV exacerbates HAV infection
B. HDV exacerbates HCV infection
C. HDV exacerbates HEV infection
D. HDV itself causes severe viral hepatitis
E. *HDV exacerbates HBV infection
95. When infection of HDV is most dangerous?
A. When HDV is together with HAV
B. When HDV is together with HEV
C. When HDV is together with HCV
D. When HDV itself causes severe viral hepatitis
E. W*hen HDV is together with HBV infection
96. The serological profile following HBV vaccination is:
A. Anti HBc positive
B. Anti HBe positive
C. Anti HBs and anti HBc positive
D. Anti HBs positive, anti HBc positive and anti HBe positive
E. *Anti HBs positive
97. After HBV vaccination the serological profile of the person is:
A. Anti HBc positive
B. Anti HBe positive
C. Anti HBs and anti HBc positive
D. Anti HBs positive, anti HBc positive and anti HBe positive
E. *Anti HBs positive
98. The presence of anti-HCV antibody in a person’s serum indicates:
A. Past infection, currently immune to HCV
B. Past vaccination status with HCV
C. Hepatitis B must be present as a helper virus in the hepatocytes
D. The patient’s blood is safe for transfusion
E. *Current or chronic infection with HCV
99. When we can indicate anti-HCV antibody in a person’s serum:
A. Hepatitis B must be present as a helper virus in the hepatocytes
B. Past vaccination status with HCV
C. Past infection, currently immune to HCV
D. The patient’s blood is safe for transfusion
E. *Current or chronic infection with HCV
100.
What would be the serological status of a patient successfully immunized with the HBV vaccine?
A. HbsAg positive; anti-HBs positive
B. anti-HBc positive; anti-HBs positive
C. anti-HBc positive; HbsAg positive
D. anti-Hbe positive
E. *anti-HBc negative, anti-HBs positive
101.
What can we detect in the patient’s serum after immunization with the HBV vaccine?
A. HbsAg positive
B. anti-HBc positive; anti-HBs positive
C. anti-HBc positive; HbsAg positive
D. anti-Hbe positive
E. *anti-HBc negative, anti-HBs positive
A chronic carrier of HBV and HDV may have the following serological status:
A. HBsAg negative, anti-HDV negative, anti-HBc negative
B. anti-HBs positive, anti-HDV negative, anti-HBc negative
C. HBsAg positive, anti-HDV negative, anti-HBc positive
D. HBsAg negative, anti-HDV negative, anti-HBc positive
E. *HBsAg positive, anti-HDV positive, anti-HBc positive
103.
Choose in the following statements the correct serological status at chronic carrier of HBV and
HDV:
A. anti-HBs positive, anti-HDV negative, anti-HBc negative
B. HBsAg negative, anti-HDV negative, anti-HBc negative
C. HBsAg positive, anti-HDV negative, anti-HBc positive
D. HBsAg negative, anti-HDV negative, anti-HBc positive
E. *HBsAg positive, anti-HDV positive, anti-HBc positive
104.
Select the predominant route of transmission for Hepatitis B, C, and D viruses.
A. airborne
B. fecal-oral
C. contaminated food
D. fomites
E. parenteral
105.
Choose in the listed the predominant route of transmission for Hepatitis B and C viruses.
A. fomites
B. contaminated food
C. fecal-oral
D. airborne
E. *parenteral
106.
Identify the clinical status of a patient who has the following hepatitis B virus (HBV) serology
findings: anti-HBc positive, anti-HBs positive, HBsAg negative.
A. Current acute infection with HBV
B. No past exposure to HBV
C. Recent past infection with HBV
D. Concurrent chronic infection with HBV and hepatitis D virus
E. Chronic infection with HBV
107.
Which hepatitis viruses are predominantly transmitted by the fecal-oral route?
A. HAV, HBV, HEV
B. HAV, HBV
C. HBV, HCV, HDV
D. HBV, HDV, HEV
E. *HAV, HEV
108.
Choose in the listed which hepatitis viruses are transmitted by the fecal-oral route?
A. HBV, HDV, HEV
B. HBV, HCV, HDV
C. HAV, HBV
D. HAV, HBV, HEV
E. *HAV, HEV
109.
Which hepatitis viruses are predominantly transmitted by the parenteral route?
A. HAV, HBV, HEV
B. HAV, HBV
C. HAV, HEV
D. HBV, HDV, HEV
E. *HBV, HCV, HDV
110.
Choose in the listed which hepatitis viruses are transmitted by the parenteral mechanism?
A. HAV, HBV, HEV
B. HAV, HBV
C. HAV, HEV
D. HBV, HDV, HEV
E. *HBV, HCV, HDV
111.
A patient with acute HBV infection may have the following serologic profile:
102.
A. HBsAg negative, anti-HBs antibody positive, anti-HBc antibody positive
B. HBsAg positive, anti-HBs antibody positive, anti-HBc antibody positive
C. HBsAg negative, anti-HBs antibody negative, anti-HBc antibody positive
D. HBsAg negative, anti-HBs antibody positive, anti-HBc antibody negative
E. *HBsAg positive, anti-HBs antibody negative, anti-HBc antibody positive
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Find among listed which serologic profile a patient with acute HBV infection may have:
A. HBsAg negative, anti-HBs antibody positive, anti-HBc antibody positive
B. HBsAg negative, anti-HBs antibody negative, anti-HBc antibody positive
C. HBsAg positive, anti-HBs antibody positive, anti-HBc antibody positive
D. HBsAg negative, anti-HBs antibody positive, anti-HBc antibody negative
E. *HBsAg positive, anti-HBs antibody negative, anti-HBc antibody positive.
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Which of the following hepatitis viruses is classified as defective, (e.g. the virus will replicate only
in the presence of another different, replicating virus)?
A. Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
B. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
C. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
D. Hepatitis E virus (HEV)
E. *Hepatitis D virus (HDV)
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Choose among the following hepatitis viruses which is defective:
A. Hepatitis E virus (HEV)
B. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
C. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
D. Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
E. *Hepatitis D virus (HDV)
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Choose among listed viruses which are not enteroviruses:
A. coxsackieviruses
B. echoviruses
C. polioviruses I
D. polioviruses II
E. *Rhinoviruses
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Identify the true statement about the Sabin (live) polio vaccine.
A. Infectious progeny virus cannot be disseminated from the vaccinated individual.
B. Induction of lifelong immunity is not possible.
C. It can be given to immunodeficient individuals without reservation.
D. It is administered parenterally.
E. *The vaccine confers humoral and intestinal immunity.
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Choose the true statement concerning the Sabin polio vaccine.
A. Induction of lifelong immunity is not possible.
B. Infectious progeny virus cannot be disseminated from the vaccinated individual.
C. It is administered parenterally.
D. It can be given to immunodeficient individuals without reservation.
E. *The vaccine confers humoral and intestinal immunity.
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What characteristic is correct concerning the Salk and the Sabin vaccines?
A. Both are shed in the feces of vaccinees.
B. Both are capable of reversion to virulence
C. Both are administered by injection.
D. Both are killed, active vaccines.
E. *Both are composed of poliovirus serotypes 1, 2, and 3
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Infection by this virus is preventable with this vaccine
A. Coxsackievirus A
B. Coxsackievirus B
C. Enterovirus 72
D. Rhinovirus
E. *Poliovirus
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Which of the listed viruses are associated with hepatitits?
A. Coxsackievirus A
B. Coxsackievirus B
C. Poliovirus
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D. Rhinovirus
E. *Enterovirus 72
Which of these infections caused by viruses is prevented by vaccine?
A. Coxsackievirus A
B. Coxsackievirus B
C. Enterovirus 68
D. Rhinovirus
E. *Poliovirus
Which of the listed viruses are associated with common cold?
A. Coxsackievirus A
B. Coxsackievirus B
C. Enterovirus 72
D. Poliovirus
E. *Rhinovirus
Which of the following viruses are sensitive to low pH?
A. Coxsackievirus A
B. Coxsackievirus B
C. Poliovirus
D. Enterovirus 72
E. *Rhinovirus
Immunization of an infant with this vaccine causes shedding of vaccine strain virus in stool:
A. Salk vaccine
B. Measles
C. Influenza
D. Neither
E. *Sabin vaccine
After immunization of a child with this vaccine, we can often find vaccine strain virus in stool:
A. Influenza
B. Measles
C. Salk vaccine
D. None of the above
E. *Sabin vaccine
Paralytic disease is a risk factor of the immunization by which vaccine?
A. Salk vaccine
B. Influenza
C. Measles
D. None of the listed
E. *Sabin vaccine
Name the Vaccine associated with poliomyelitis and is a risk factor when the vaccine is used.
A. Salk vaccine
B. Influenza
C. Measles
D. JE
E. *Sabin vaccine
Diseases causally associated with Epstein-Barr virus include:
A. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
B. adult T-cell leukemia
C. genital warts
D. none of the above
E. *Burkitt’s Lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma
In which specimen we can indicate herpes zoster virus more frequently?
A. blood
B. saliva
C. spinal fluid.
D. swab from ulce
E. *vesicle fluid.
What is the reactivation of herpes zoster virus called in an adult?
A. infectious mononucleosis.
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B. aphthous stomatitis.
C. chronic fatigue syndrome.
D. neuritis
E. *shingles.
What does disease occur after contamination by varicella zoster virus in children?
A. aphthous stomatitis.
B. chronic fatigue syndrome
C. infectious mononucleosis.
D. neuritis
E. *varicella.
Which herpesviruses do cause mononucleosis?
A. VZV-1 and HSV-2
B. EBV and herpes B virus
C. CMV and VZV
D. HSV-1and HSV-2
E. *EBV and CMV
Which herpesvirus among listed does cause Burkitt’s lymphoma?
A. VZV
B. polyovirus
C. HSV-2
D. HSV-1
E. *EBV
. Approximately 5% of adults secrete this in saliva and urine:
A. HSV-2
B. VZV
C. EBV
D. HHV-6
E. *CMV
Choose among the following specimen is most likely to isolate varicella zooster virus?
A. Swab from ulcer
B. Saliva
C. Spinal fluid
D. Serum
E. *Vesicle fluid
From which specimen herpes simplex virus type II is most likely to be recovered:
A. Saliva
B. Serum
C. Spinal fluid
D. Swab from ulcer
E. *Vesicle fluid
What is the mechanism of the selective action of acyclovir in herpes simplex virus-infected cells?
A. Acyclovir binds specifically to herpesvirus receptors on the cell surface
B. Acyclovir blocks the matrix protein of the virus, thereby preventing release by budding
C. Acyclovir exhibits the RNA polymerase in the viral particle
D. Acyclovir inhibits capsid formation
E. *Viral phosphokinase (thymidine kinase) phosphorylates acyclovir more efficiently than does the
host cell phosphokinase
. How are the herpes viruses classified?
A. Single stranded DNA, non enveloped
B. Positive stranded RNA, enveloped
C. Positive stranded RNA, non enveloped
D. Double stranded DNA, non enveloped
E. *Double stranded DNA, enveloped
Which viruses have tegument?
A. Polioviruses
B. Adenoviruses
C. Influenza viruses
D. Measels viruses
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E. *Herpesviruses
Choose among listed a most common feature of infection caused by herpes simplex virus?
A. Chronic progressive fatigue
B. Chronic progressive tissue damage for many years
C. Dissemination to many body sites, including trans-placental passage
D. Rapid progression to encephalitis and death
E. *Spontaneous recovery with life-long latency
Choose among listed which viruses don’t cause latency infection.
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Varicella-zoster virus
D. Ebstain-Barr virus
E. *Polioviruses
The primary means of spread of varicella zoster virus is:
A. direct contact with lesions
B. saliva
C. fecal-oral route
D. direct contact with sick child
E. *respiratory droplets
Choose among listed the primary means of spread of varicella zoster virus
A. saliva
B. fecal-oral route
C. direct contact with sick child
D. direct contact with lesions
E. *respiratory droplets
Which virus does cause congenital defects?
A. adenovirus
B. herpes simplex virus
C. measles virus
D. mumps virus
E. rubivirus
*Exanthem subitum (roseola) is caused by:
A. human herpes virus 7
B. measles virus
C. varicella zoster virus
D. cytomegalovirus
E. *human herpes virus 6
Which virus does cause gingivostomatitis?
A. cytomegalovirus
B. polyovirus
C. measles virus
D. mumps virus
E. *herpes simplex virus 1
Which of the following viruses can stimulate production of the heterophile antibodies?
A. CMV
B. HSV-1
C. HHV-7
D. varicella zoster virus
E. *EBV
Which of the following virus is associated with Kaposi’s sarkoma?
A. Adenovirus
B. Hepatitis A virus
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. Human T cell leukemia virus
E. *Human herpesvirus 8
Which of the following is NOT an effect of acyclovir?
A. Suppression of recurrent herpes infections, if taken daily in high doses
B. Activation by a viral enzyme inside infected cells
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C. Active topically or orally or intravenously
D. Active for treatment all herpes infections
E. *Elimination of latent virus
What tested material should be taken for serologic diagnosis of viral infection?
A. saliva
B. swabs from a throat
C. blood
D. feces
E. *paired sera
The smallest known viruses are:
A. Adenovirus
B. Enterovirus
C. Orthomyxovirus
D. Paramyxovirus
E. Picornavirus
Which viruses have bullet-shaped form?
A. Adenovirus
B. Orthomyxovirus
C. Paramyxovirus
D. Rotavirus
E. *Rhabdovirus
What is main component of all mammalian viruses?
A. an envelope
B. a polymerase
C. an icosahedral capsid
D. a lipid
E. *a nucleic acid
Retroviruses are unique among all viruses that infect humans because only retroviruses:
A. are associated with human cancers
B. are enveloped viruses
C. contain specific surface antigens
D. contain segmented RNA
E. *reverse transcriptase which transcribe their genetic material
Which HIV protein molecules do interact with CD4 receptors of lympocytes?
A. p 8
B. p 17
C. p 24
D. gp 41
E. *gp 120
Azidothymidine (AZT) inhibits retroviral replication by:
A. blocking proteolysis by the viral protease
B. inhibiting proteolysis by the cellular protease
C. binding the cell surface receptor and preventing viral entry
D. binding viral integrase protein to prevent integration into the host chromosome
E. *causing chain termination during reverse transcription
What test is used for primary diagnosis of HIV carriers?
A. indirect haemagglutination test
B. complement fixation test
C. neutralization test
D. haemagglutination inhibition test
E. *ELISA
Which of the following viruses have oncogenic ability?
A. HIV-1
B. HSV-1
C. CMV
D. Neither
E. *HTLV-1
Choose viruses which have oncogenic properties:
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A. CMV
B. HIV-1
C. HSV-1
D. Neither
E. *HTLV-2
Which of the following viruses can cause B cell lymphoma in humans?
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Human papilloma viruses
C. Human T-cell lymphotropic virus
D. Hepatitis B virus
E. *Epstein-Barr Virus
What test should be used for examination of Infleunza virus type?
A. Haemagglutination test
B. Haemagglutination inhibition test
C. Precipitation test
D. Neutralization test
E. *Complement fixation test
Which antiviral agent is commonly used to combat herpes simplex virus infections?
A. azidothymidine
B. foscarnet
C. idoxuridine
D. г interferon
E. *acyclovir
Each of the following pathogens is likely to establish chronic or latent infection EXEPT:
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. Herpes simplex virus I
D. Herpes simplex virus II
E. *Hepatitis A virus
For indication of the viruses in tested material all of the following tests are used EXCEPT:
A. Haemagglutination test
B. Haemadsorption test
C. Inoculation of laboratory animal
D. Inoculation of chicken embryo
E. *Complement fixation test
What are the components of haemagglutination test:
A. Viruses, chicken red cells, antigen
B. Viruses, chicken red cells, specific serum
C. Viruses, chicken red cells, paired patient’s serums
D. Viruses, chicken red cells, viral diagnosticum, electrolyte
E. *Viruses, chicken red cells, electrolyte
Choose necessary components of haemagglutination inhibition test for virologic diagnosis:
A. Unknown viruses, erythrocytes, electrolyte, specific immune serum, complement
B. Patient’s paired serums, viral diagnosticum, erythrocytes, electrolyte
C. Patient’s paired serums, unknown viruses, erythrocytes, electrolyte
D. Known viruses, erythrocytes, electrolyte, specific immune serum
E. *Unknown viruses, erythrocytes, electrolyte, specific immune antiviral serum
Which of these statement is not true about Cytomegalovirus (CMV)?
A. Primary infection is usually symptomatic
B. An infectious mononucleosis-like syndrome may occur during primary infection.
C. May cause severe infection in immunocompromised individuals
D. Is not teratogenic
E. *Causes parotitis
Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) is associated with all of the following, except:
A. Infectious Mononucleosis
B. Burkitt's lymphoma
C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D. Oral leukoplakia
E. *Hepatitis B
HHV-6 is associated with
A. Burkitt's lymphoma
B. Kaposi's Sarcoma
C. Infectious Mononucleosis
D. Oral leukoplakia
E. *Roseola Infantum
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Adenoviruses, all statement are correct, except:
A. May cause gastroenteritis
B. May cause conjunctivitis
C. May cause pneumonia
D. May cause urethritis
E. *Are associated with genital cancers
171.
Coxsackie B Virus is associated with the following
A. Paralytic illness
B. Myocarditis
C. Bornholm's disease
D. Meningitis
E. *All are correct
172.
Influenza A Virus, all statements are correct, except
A. May undergo antigenic shift and antigenic drift
B. May cause pandemics
C. Respond to rimantidine
D. Respond to neuraminidase inhibitors
E. *Vaccination confers lifelong protection
173.
Paramyxoviruses may cause
A. Maculopapular rash
B. Gastritis
C. Hepatitis
D. Diarrhoea
E. *Croup
174.
Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV), all are correct, except:
A. Has only F protein
B. May cause bronchiolitis
C. May cause croup
D. May cause pneumonia
E. *May be prevented by vaccination
175.
Human T-lymphotropic virus 1 (HTLV-1) is associated with
A. Burkitt's lymphoma
B. Kaposi's Sarcoma
C. Multiple Sclerosis
D. Hodgkin's lymphoma
E. *Adult T-cell lymphoma
176.
HIV Infection may lead to
A. Dementia
B. Chronic Diarrhoea
C. CMV retinitis
D. Oesophageal candidiasis
E. *All are correct
177.
A chronic carrier state may occur in the following:
A. Measles Infection
B. Hepatitis A
C. Hepatitis E
D. Smallpox Infection
E. *Hepatitis B
178.
The following markers are usually present in a hepatitis B carrier with chronic active hepatitis,
except:
A. HbeAg
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B. Anti-HBc IgG
C. HBV-DNA
D. HbsAg
E. *Anti-HBc IgM
The following statements are true, except:
A. Chronic HBV infection may respond to interferon therapy
B. Chronic HCV infection may respond to interferon therapy
C. Chronic HCV infection may respond to ribavirin therapy
D. Hepatitis Delta infection may be prevented by vaccination against HBV
E. *Hepatitis E Infection may be prevented by vaccination
The following virus can be transmitted by fecal-oral way
A. HIV
B. HTLV-1
C. HBV
D. HCV
E. *HAV
Regarding viral infection of the central nervous system (CNS), all are correct, except;
A. Meningitis may occur together with encephalitis
B. Enteroviruses are one of the commonest causes of CNS infections in childhood
C. Measles encephalitis is a postinfectious encephalomyelitis
D. The detection of antibody in the CSF is a useful diagnostic marker
E. *Mosquitos are the vector of tick-born encephalitis viruses
One of the following viruses is associated with gastroenteritis
A. Measles viruses
B. RS- viruses
C. Herpes viruses
D. Poxviruses
E. *Rotaviruses
The following viruses are transmitted from animals to humans
A. Polioviruses
B. CMV
C. Measles Virus
D. Rotavirus
E. *Rabies Virus
The following is true of rabies virus
A. The majority of cases world-wide result from bat bites
B. Human Rabies vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine
C. The animal reservoir is the same in all country
D. May be diagnosed only postmortem
E. *Infection may be prevented by active and passive immunisation
Viruses may contain, except
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. Glycoprotein
D. Enzymes
E. *Cell wall
Viruses are
A. May divide by binary fission
B. Have their own metabolism
C. May contain plasmides
D. May have a peptidoglycan
E. *Obligate intracellular parasites
The following may be useful for prognostic purposes in HIV-infected individuals
A. HIV envelope antibody
B. HIV-p17 antigen
C. CD8 count
D. HIV viral ligase
E. *CD4 count
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The following markers are usually present in a hepatitis B carrier with chronic active hepatitis
A. Anti-HBsAg IgM
B. HBxAg
C. Anti-HBc IgM
D. HBcAg
E. *HBsAg
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
A. Primary infection is usually asymptomatic
B. An infectious mononucleosis-like syndrome may occur during primary infection
C. May cause severe infection in immunocompromised individuals
D. May cause congenital infection
E. *All are correct
HHV-8 is associated with
A. Fifth disease
B. Roseala Infantum
C. Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma
D. Oral leukoplakia
E. *Kaposi's Sarcoma
Respiratory Syncytial Virus
A. Cause disease mainly in adults
B. May be prevented by vaccination
C. May be treated by amantidine
D. May cause latent infections
E. *May cause bronchiolitis
HIV may respond to
A. Nucleoside analogues
B. Protease inhibitors
C. Azidothymidin
D. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
E. *All are correct
Hepatitis A infection
A. May result in chronic infection
B. May be prevented by acyclovir
C. Is highly infectious during the jaundice phase
D. May result in cirrhosis
E. *May be prevented by vaccination
Hepatitis B infection
A. May result in chronic infection
B. May result in cirrhosis of the liver
C. May result in hepatocellular carcinoma
D. Is highly infectious when positive for HBeAg
E. *All are correct
Choose incorrect statement about Hepatitis C virus
A. May be transmitted by blood
B. Is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma
C. May respond to interferon therapy
D. Can cause chronic infection
E. *Has one stable genotype only
Which of the following agents is the commonest cause of infective endocarditis?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B. Candida spp.
C. Coliforms.
D. Rickettsia
E. *Viridans group of streptococci.
Treponema pallidum can be cultivated in:
A. blood agar medium.
B. chocolate agar medium.
C. Thayer-Martin medium.
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D. Kitt-Tarozi medium
E. *rabbit testes.
Relapses in relapsing fever occur due to:
A. increased toxin production by bacteria.
B. increased invasiveness of bacteria.
C. super infection with viruses.
D. increased fermentative activity of bacteria
E. *antigen variation in bacteria.
Human body louse is responsible for transmission of which of the following diseases?
A. Murine typhus
B. Rickettsialpox.
C. Q fever.
D. Typhi fever
E. *Epidemic typhus.
Sterols are present in the cytoplasmic membrane of:
A. Bacillus.
B. Clostridium.
C. Proteus.
D. Rickettsia
E. *Mycoplasma.
Which of the following bacteria can grow in alkaline pH?
A. Lactobacilli.
B. Salmonella.
C. Shigella.
D. Neisseria
E. *Vibrio cholerae.
The causative agent/s of gas gangrene is/are:
A. Clostridium perfringens.
B. C. novyi.
C. С. septicum.
D. C. histolyticum
E. *all answers are correct.
Which of the following properties is/are characteristic of tetanospasmin?
A. It is a heat-labile protein.
B. It is a neurotoxin.
C. It can be toxoided.
D. It is exotoxin
E. *all answers are correct.
Which of the following exotoxins resembles strychnine in its effect?
A. Botulinum toxin.
B. Diphtheria toxin.
C. None of the above.
D. All of the above.
E. *Tetanus toxin.
Which of the following bacteria most frequently cause tuberculosis in human?
A. M. bovis.
B. M. africanum.
C. M. kansasii
D. All answer are correct.
E. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is pathogenic for:
A. rabbits.
B. both of the above.
C. mice
D. rats
E. *guinea-pigs.
Dysentery like disease may be caused by
A. enteropathogenic Escherichia colt.
B. enterotoxigenic E. coli.
C. verotoxigenic E. coli.
D. enteroaggregative E. coli.
E. *enteroinvasive E. coli.
208.
Which of the following bacteria is positive for fermentation of lactose?
A. S. Flexneri.
B. S. boydii.
C. S. sonnei.
D. Shigella dysenteriae.
E. *E.coli
209.
Which of the following specimens is/are most appropriate for culture of bacteria in first week of
enteric fever?
A. Urine.
B. Faeces.
C. CSF.
D. Bile
E. *Blood.
210.
In Widal test, the significant titre for О agglutinins is generally:
A. 1: 50 or more.
B. 1:200 or more.
C. 1:400 or more.
D. 1:800 or more.
E. *1:100 or more.
211.
Which of the following bacteria ferment mannitol anaerobically?
A. S. epidermidis.
B. S. saprophyticus.
C. S. canis
D. None of the above.
E. *Staphylococcus aureus.
212.
What is the colour of colonies of C. diphtheriae on blood tellurite agar medium?
A. White.
B. Cream.
C. Yellow.
D. Green
E. *Grey to black.
213.
Which of the following properties is/are shown by diphtheria toxin?
A. It is a heat-labile protein.
B. It inhibits protein synthesis.
C. It is produced by Corynebacterium diptheriae strains lysogenic for p phage.
D. It is exotoxin
E. *All are correct.
214.
Ascoly's thermoprecipitin test helps in confirming the laboratory diagnosis of:
A. tetanus.
B. typhoid.
C. cholera.
D. pertussis
E. anthrax.
215.
Bubonic plague is transmitted by:
A. inhalation.
B. ingestion.
C. . ticks
D. all of the above routes.
E. . *rat flea.
216.
The name 'black death' is given to which of
A. Tuberculosis.
B. Diphtheria.
C. AIDS.
D. Cholera
E. *Plague.
217.
Which of the following tests can differentiate between classical and El Tor biotypes of Vibrio
cholerae?
A. Sensitivity to polymyxin B.
B. Agglutination of fowl RBCs.
C. Sensitivity to Mukerjee's group IV phage.
D. Antigenic structure
E. *all answers are correct.
218.
Ways of transmition of Brucellae to humans are:
A. direct contact with animal tissues.
B. ingestion of contaminated meat.
C. ingestion of raw infected milk.
D. direct contact with animal placenta
E. *all answers are correct.
219.
The causative agent/s of non-gonococcal urethritis is/are?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis.
B. Ureaplasma urealyticum.
C. Mycoplasma hominis.
D. Herpes virus 2
E. *all answers are correct.
220.
A hard chancre is characteristic of:
A. secondary syphilis.
B. latent syphilis.
C. tertiary syphilis.
D. complication of syphilis
E. *primary syphilis.
221.
Typical property of obligate anaerobes is, EXCEPT:
A. They grow best in the absence of air
B. They lack superoxide dismutase
C. They lack catalase
D. They grow in Kitt-Tarozi medium
E. *They generate energy by using the cytochrorne system
222.
Which microbes can cause pus-inflamation process?
A. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Neisseria
E. *all are correct
223.
The most severe streptococcal diseases are caused by
A. group B streptococci
B. group C streptococci
C. pneumococci
D. enterococci
E. *group A streptococci
224.
Rheumatic fever damages the _______, and glomerulonephritis damages the______
A. skin, heart
B. oints, bone marrow
C. brain, kidney
D. heart, bone marrow
E. *heart valves, kidney
225.
. ______ hemolysis is the partial lysis of red blood cells due to bacterial hemolysins.
A. Beta
B. Gamma
C. Delta
D. Epsilon
E. *Alpha
226.
An effective vaccine exists to prevent crupouse pneumonia from
A. Staph. aureus
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B. Strep. pyogenes
C. N. gonorrhoeae
D. N. meningitidis
E. *Strep. pneumoniae
Which genus of bacteria has pathogens that can cause blindness in newborn?
A. Branhamella
B. Staphylococcus
C. Streptococcus
D. Shigella
E. *Neisseria
The skin blotches in meningitis are due to
A. blood clots
B. erysipelas
C. exotoxin in skin
D. skin invasion by N. meningitidis
E. *endotoxins in the blood
What is the usual habitat of endospore-forming bacteria that are agents of disease?
A. the intestine of animals
B. water
C. foods
D. dust
E. *soil
Most Bacillus species are
A. true pathogens
B. opportunistic pathogens
C. commensals
D. saprophyticus
E. *nonpathogens
Many clostridial diseases require a/an ______ conditions for their development.
A. aerobic
B. living tissue
C. low-pH
D. alkaline pH
E. *anaerobic
The action of tetanus exotoxin is on the
A. muscular
B. sensory neurons
C. skin
D. Lung
E. *spinal neurons
An infection peculiar to swine causes _______ when transmitted to humans.
A. anthrax
B. diphtheria
C. plage
D. tuberculosis
E. *erysipeloid
Tuberculosis is spread by
A. contaminated fomites
B. food
C. vectors
D. urine
E. *respiratory droplets
Caseous lesions containing inflammatory white blood cells are
A. pseudomembranes
B. eschars
C. tubercles
D. papular
E. *lepromas
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Which infectious agent cause pseudomembranous collitis?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Mycobacterium leprae
D. Shigella sonnei
E. *Clostridium difficile
Which infection(s) would be categorized as a zoonosis?
A. gas gangrene
B. diphtheria
C. cholera
D. epidemic relapsing fever
E. *anthrax
A unique characteristic of many isolates of Pseudomonas useful in identification is
A. drug resistance
B. fecal odor
C. gram staining
D. motility
E. *green pigment
Human brucellosis is also known as
A. Fran's disease
B. Query fever
C. rabbit fever
D. relapsing fever
E. *undulant fever
Francisella tularensis istransmitted by all ways, EXCEPT:
A. tick bite
B. fecal-oral
C. air borne
D. by direct contact
E. *sexual
The classic symptom of pertussis is
A. labored breathing
B. convulsions
C. headache
D. redish of skin
E. *paroxysmal coughing
The severe symptoms of pertussis are due to what effect?
A. irritation of the glottis by the microbe
B. pneumonia
C. blocked airways
D. heart disease
E. *damage of function of the respiratory epithelium
For Escherichia coli, which antigens are most potent?
A. capsular
B. flagellar
C. Vi-Ag
D. all of these
E. *somatic
Which of the following bacterium is causative agent of dysenteriae?
A. E. coli
B. Klebsiella
C. Proteus
D. Vibrio
E. *Shigella
Shigella is transmitted by
A. flies
B. infected dust
C. air dropled
246.
247.
248.
249.
250.
251.
252.
253.
254.
255.
D. louse
E. *infected food and water
The bubo of bubonic plague is a/an
A. granuloma in the skin
B. infected sebaceous gland
C. tumor of lymph node
D. ulcer where the flea bite occurred
E. *enlarged lymph node
Treponema pallidum is cultured in/on
A. blood agar
B. eggs
C. horse serum
D. serum broth
E. r*abit testis
Formation of a gummas is
A. as result of secondary syphilis
B. a damaged liver
C. the primary lesion of syphilis
D. the result of congenital syphilis
E. *a degenerative lesions
The treatment of choice for syphilis is:
A. antiserum
B. aurum drug
C. sulfa drugs
D. tetracycline
E. *penicillin
All of the treponematoses are not veneral disease, except:
A. bejel
B. pinta
C. yaws
D. endemic syphilis
E. *syphilis
Epidemic Relapsing fever is spread by
A. ticks
B. flea
C. mosquites
D. animal urine
E. *lice
Endemic Relapsing fever is spread by
A. lice
B. flea
C. mosquites
D. animal urine
E. *ticks
Rickettsias and chlamydias are similar in being
A. carried by arthropod vectors
B. free of a cell wall
C. produce exotoxin
D. the cause of eye infections
E. *obligate intracellular bacteria
Which of the following is/are an arthropod vector of rickettsioses?
A. flea
B. louse
C. tick
D. mosquito
E. *all are correct
Ornithosis is a _____ infection associated with ______
A. rickettsial, parrots
B. chlamydial, mice
C. rickettsial, flies
D. chlamydial, rats
E. chlamydial, birds
256.
Mycoplasmas have not next structure.
A. nucleus
B. ribosomes
C. mitochondria
D. cell membranes
E. *cell walls
257.
You suspect Chlamydia infection in a sexually-active young woman. Which test would be most
likely to provide results which would confirm this diagnosis?
A. Agglutination test for anti-cardiolipin antibodies.
B. Test of a blood sample for ‘cold agglutinins”.
C. Gram-stained smear of discharge from the cervix.
D. Culture of exudate from the cervix on Thayer-Martin agar.
E. *PCR test of nucleic acids present in a urine sample.
258.
A patient with septicemia goes into septic shock. Blood cultures later showed the pathogen to be
Escherichia coli. Which component of the bacteria was most likely to have produced shock?
A. Capsular polysaccharide.
B. Teichoic acid.
C. A superantigen toxin.
D. Plasma membrane lipids.
E. *Lipopolysaccharide [LPS].
259.
Administration of which of the following vaccines would be contra-indicated in an patient with
impaired cell-mediated immunity?
A. Pneumococcal vaccine (pediatric).
B. Pneumococcal vaccine (adult).
C. Tetanus toxoid.
D. Acellular Pertussis vaccine.
E. *BCG vaccine against tuberculosis.
260.
A sexually-active woman develops a urinary tract infection which ascends to the kidneys. Blood
culture yields a beta-hemolytic Gram-negative rod. In this situation, which pathogen is most common?
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae.
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C. Salmonella enteritidis.
D. Serratia marcescens.
E. *Escherichia coli.
261.
A child is diagnosed with Pertussis. How was this infection most likely to have been acquired?
A. Bite of a dog or cat.
B. Consumption of dairy products made from unpasteurized milk
C. Contact with livestock or animal products such as leather or wool.
D. Release of oral flora into the bloodstream by dental work
E. *Inhalation of respiratory droplets of another human being.
262.
A mother is worried that the child may have contracted Lyme disease. Which finding would most
strongly suggest that she is correct?
A. A disseminated rash, with small papular erythematous lesions.
B. An ulcer and edema at the site of the tick bite.
C. A lesion at the site of the tick bite that develops a thick, black, crusted, scab.
D. A sparse red macular rash, on the palms and soles only.
E. *A “bull’s-eye” lesion with erythematous periphery and central clearing.
263.
Infections with Salmonella enterica, serotype typhi, spread throughout the body. A key to the
ability of serotype typhi to spread systemically is its ability to multiply intracellularly. Multiplication in
which cell type(s) is principally responsible for systemic spread?
A. Basophils
B. Enterocytes
C. Erythrocytes
D. Neutrophils
E. *Monocytes/macrophages.
264.
A medical student with a three-week history of respiratory illness is treated with erythromycin [a
macrolide]. Which phrase best describes the process inhibited by this drug?
A. Transcription by bacterial RNA polymerase.
B. Supercoiling of bacterial DNA.
C. Cross-linking of peptidoglycan.
D. Polymerization of peptidoglycan.
E. *Peptide bond formation by bacterial ribosomes.
265.
An elderly resident of a nursing home develops pneumococcal pneumonia. This illness might have
been prevented had the patient been immunized against this organism. Which antigens of S. pneumoniae
are included in the adult vaccine?
A. M-proteins.
B. Intact heat-killed bacteria.
C. Toxoids produced from superantigen toxins.
D. Cell-associated (C) carbohydrates.
E. *Capsular polysaccharides.
266.
Antibiotic treatment is absolutely necessary in cutaneous anthrax, to:
A. Prevent progression from vesicle to eschar.
B. Limit the amount of edema surrounding the eschar.
C. Enable the quick healing of skin lesions.
D. Assure that no permanent scar is formed.
E. *Prevent progression to systemic illness.
267.
If you suspect Francisella infection, you should inform the lab when sending a specimen. What is
the predominant reason you need to do this?
A. Francisella requires culture in living human cells.
B. Francisella requires culture in living protozoa, such as amoebae.
C. Francisella although biologically Gram-negative, stains Gram-positive unless special technique is
used.
D. Francisella cannot be cultured on ‘standard media’.
E. *Francisella is readily transmitted to laboratory workers when cultured.
268.
An infant is admited to the emergency room with diplopia, aphonia, poor muscle tone.
A. Antibiotic-associated colitis.
B. Diphtheria.
C. Anthrax.
D. Tetanus.
E. *Botulism.
269.
In what way do Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Streptococcus pneumoniae
most closely resemble each other?
A. Lipopolysaccharide in their outer membranes.
B. Teichoic acid in their envelopes.
C. Thick peptidoglycan in their cell walls.
D. Motility due to flagella.
E. *Polysaccharide capsules
270.
The cell tropism of the genus Rickettsia determines the type of disease produced. Which phrase
best describes Rickettsial disease?
A. Encephalitis
B. Meningitis.
C. Myocarditis
D. Myositis.
E. *Vasculitis.
271.
In a patient with systemic febrile illness, which item in the history would indicate the highest risk
for Brucella infection?
A. Recent travel to China.
B. Chronic cardiopulmonary disease.
C. Age less than two years.
D. Drinking unpurified water from a river or stream.
E. *Contact with livestock or animal products.
272.
A patient becomes infected with Salmonella typhi. Which condition would most strongly favor
development of a “chronic carrier state” with this organism?
A. Age over 70 years.
B. Infection via the respiratory route.
C. Kidney stones.
D. Chronic pulmonary disease.
E. *Gallstones.
273.
A patient develops pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae. The predominant virulence
factor of this organism is a thick capsule . Which phrase best describes the role of this capsule in
virulence?
A. Aids in acquisition of iron.
B. Toxic to lung epithelial cells
C. Identical to human polysaccharide, so is non-immunogenic.
D. Inhibits activation of Complement.
E. *Reduces phagocytosis by neutrophils.
274.
Chancroid is caused by
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Treponema pertenua
C. Clostridium sp.
D. Mycoplasma
E. *Hemophilus ducreyi
275.
The symptom of secondary syphilis is
A. neurological problems
B. giant lesions affecting many internal organs
C. a hard-based, painless chancre
D. Meningitis
E. *a rash covering all parts of the body
276.
Which of the following best describes the pathogenesis of acute rheumatic fever?
A. due to an immunologic cross reaction between heart muscle and Staphylococcus aureus
B. involves B-hemolytic Streptococci growing in the heart
C. is a complication of Group A Streptococcal skin disease as well as pharyngitis
D. tonsilitis is first stage of development of rheumatic fever
E. *characterized by inflammation of the heart and/or the joints
277.
Which of the following statements about gonorrhea is true?
A. Men are frequently asymptomatic carriers.
B. Bacteremia is common.
C. Serologic diagnosis is more reliable than culture.
D. Penicillins are no longer recommended for treatment.
E. *Gonococci are within leucocytes in a sample
278.
Hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by which of the following bacterium?
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Helicobacter pylori
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Ureaplasma
E. Escherichia coli 0157
279.
Which of the following result(s) best describe(s) the listed organism?
A. Campylobacter jejuni - gram positive
B. Shigella Sonnei - mannitol negative, H2S positive
C. Yersinia enterocolitica -sporulated, colony sick yellow
D. Clostridium perfringens - aerobes, sporulated
E. *E coli 0157 - lactose positive, indole positive
280.
Which of the following tests may be used to differentiate Salmonella paratyphi from Shigella
species?
A. Fermentation of glucose
B. gram staining
C. citrate utilization of Simmons’ citrate agar
D. shape
E. *gas production from glucose
281.
Which of the following descriptions best fits a typical strain of Escherichia coli?
A. motile, aerogenic, non-lactose fermenting, H2S positive
B. non-motile, aerogenic, gram-positive
C. motile, anaerogenic, non-lactose fermenting, indole positive
D. motile, anaerogenic, lactose fermenting, sporulated
E. *motile, aerogenic, lactose fermenting, indole positive
282.
Which disease does Borellia burgdorferi cause?
A. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
B. Hanta
C. Rabies
D. Relapsing fever
E. *Lyme Disease
283.
How is leptospirosis, caused by Leptospira interrogans, transmitted?
A. Tick bite
B. Undercooked meat
C. Inhaled aerosol
D. louse feces
E. *Contaminated urine in food or water
284.
What is the most common human pathogen/opportunist?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Steptococcus pneumoniae
C. Escherichia coli
D. Enterococcus
E. *Pseudomonas aeruginosa
285.
Which of the following is NOT true of Neisseria gonorrhea?
A. Is a mucosal pathogen
B. Can disseminate in the immunosuppressed
C. Complications include ectopic pregnancy, PID and sterility
D. Produces endotoxin
E. *Produces exotoxin
286.
Which of the following is NOT true of Neisseria meningitidis?
A. Crosses the blood brain barrier
B. Colonizes nasopharynx
C. Predisposed groups include diabetics
D. causes meningococceamia
E. *Has 3 serotypes - A, B, Y
287.
Which of the following methods is used for diagnose of peptic ulcers and gastric carcinoma,
caused by Helicobacter pylori?
A. Serology (serum) test
B. Biopsy (invasive)
C. Radioactive isotope C14 test
D. bacteriological
E. *All are correct
288.
What is the cause of food toxic poisoning?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. chlamidia psittaci
C. Campylobacter jejuni
D. Clostridium tetani
E. *Clostridium botulinum
289.
Which of the following members of the Vibrio family cause severe dehydration?
A. Vibrio vulnificus
B. Vibrio parahaemolyticum
C. Vibrio alginolyticus
D. none of the listed
E. *Virbrio cholerae
290.
What is the primary cause of death from Salmonella typhi (Typhoid fever)?
A. DIC (disseminating intravascular coagulation)
B. Toxemia
C. High fever
D. none of the listed
E. *Hemorrhaging necrosis
291.
Yersinia pestis causes both the Bubonic Plague and the more deadly Pneumonic Plague. How is
Pneumonic Plague transmitted?
A. by the flea bite
B. Via rodents
C. by contaminated food
D. by the lice bite
E. Air-borne
292.
Which of the following bacteria is cell wall deficient?
A. Treponema.
B. Slaphylococcus.
C. Klebsiella.
D. Salmonella
E. *Mycoplasma.
293.
BCG vaccine is a:
A. killed vaccine
B. toxoid vaccine.
C. recombinant vaccine.
D. subcelullar vaccine.
E. *live attenuated vaccine
294.
Which of the following media is an enrichment medium for the isolation of Shigella?
A. Tetrathionate broth.
B. Alkaline peptone water
C. Taurocholate peptone transport and enrichment medium
D. Endo medium
E. *Selenite broth.
295.
Which of the following media is/are used for blood culture in cases of enteric fever?
A. Tetrathionate broth.
B. Selenite-F broth.
C. Sugar broth.
D. yolk-salt agar
E. *Bile broth.
296.
Detection of which agglutinins is the most important to determine the Salmonella serotype in
Widal test?
A. H.
B. Fimbrial.
C. M.
D. Vi
E. *O.
297.
Bipolar staining is characteristic of:
A. Proteus mirabilis.
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Bacillus anthracis
E. *Yersinia pestis.
298.
Medusa head” appearance of the colonies is characteristic of:
A. Proteus mirabilis.
B. Clostridium tetani.
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D. Clostridium botulini
E. *Bacillus anthracis.
299.
Typical drumstick appearance of bacilli is observed in:
A. Clostridium perfringens.
B. C. diphtheriae
C. C. histolyticum.
D. C. difficilae
300.
301.
302.
303.
304.
305.
306.
307.
308.
309.
E. *С. tetani
Pneumonic plague can be transmitted from man to man by:
A. inoculation.
B. ingestion.
C. flea bite
D. all of the listed routes.
E. *droplet infection.
Common reservoir host/s of Brucella melitensis is/are:
A. cattle.
B. pigs.
C. dogs
D. all answers are correct.
E. *sheep and goats.
Louse-borne relapsing fever is caused by:
A. B. duttoni.
B. B. burgdorferi.
C. B. parkeri.
D. B. persica
E. *Borrelia recurrentis.
Choose gramnegative microbes.
A. Bacillus.
B. Clostridium.
C. Corynebacteria.
D. none of the above
E. *Bacteroides
Which of the following bacteria dies quickly after drying?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D. Bacillus anthracis
E. *Treponema pallidium
Traveller's diarrhoea is caused by:
A. enteropathogenic Escherichia coli.
B. enteroinvasive E. coli.
C. enterohaemorrhagic E. coli.
D. enteroaggregative E. coli.
E. *enterotoxigenic E. coli.
In enteric fever, Salmonella may be isolated from:
A. urine.
B. faeces.
C. blood.
D. bile
E. *all are correct.
Plague is transmitted by:
A. sandflies.
B. mites.
C. ticks.
D. louse
E. *rat fleas.
Bubonic plague can be diagnosed in the laboratory by:
A. demonstration of gram-negative coccobacilli.
B. culture on blood agar.
C. inoculation in guinea-pigs.
D. inoculation in rats
E. *all of the listed
Bubo is characteristic of:
A. relapsing fever
B. leptospirosis
C. primary syphilis
D. cutaneous anthrax
E. *plage
310.
Which of the following Brucella spp. is most pathogenic for man?
A. B. abortus
B. B. suis.
C. B. canis.
D. B. ovis
E. *B. melitensis.
311.
Which of the following bacteria can be successfully cultured on cell-free medium?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Coxiella burnetii
C. Mycobacterium leprae
D. Rickettsia prowazekii.
E. *Mycoplasma pneumoniae
312.
An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the newborn nursery. You
are called upon to investigate. According to your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the MOST likely
site of the organism?
A. Colon
B. Throat
C. Vagina
D. all of the listed
E. *Nose
313.
Each of the following agents is a recognized cause of diarrhea EXCEPT:
A. Rotavirus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Salmonella spp.
E. *Enterococcus faecalis
314.
Which one of the following diseases is BEST diagnosed by serologic means?
A. Pulmonary tuberculosis
B. Gonorrhea
C. Actinomycosis
D. are correct
E. *Q fever
315.
Your patient has subacute bacterial endocarditis caused by a member of
A. Staphylococcus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. Clostridium difficile
E. *Streptococcus
316.
Which one of the following is considered a virulence factor for Staphylococcus aureus?
A. A heat-labile toxin that inhibits glycine release at the internuncial neuron
B. An oxygen-labile hemolysin
C. Resistance to novobiocin
D. All are correct
E. *Protein A that binds to the Fc portion of IgG
317.
The MOST important protective function of the antibody stimulated by tetanus immunization is
A. To opsonize the pathogen (Clostridium tetani)
B. To prevent growth of the pathogen
C. To prevent formation of endotoxin by the pathogen
D. All are correct
E. *To neutralize the toxin of the pathogen
318.
The most important benefit that the human gastrointestinal flora provide for their host is
A. digestion of dietary cellulose
B. a low grade toxemia
C. production of dietary protein
D. production of antibodies
E. *antagonism against colonization by potential pathogens
319.
The main carrier site on the human body for strains of potentially pathogenic Staphylococcus
aureus is the
A. oral cavity
B. nasal membranes
C. gastrointestinal tract
D. vagina
E. *throat (posterior nasopharynx)
320.
The carrier site in humans for pathogenic Neisseria meningitidis is the
A. conjunctiva
B. urogenital tract
C. blood
D. meninges
E. *nasopharynx
321.
Silver nitrate or an antibiotic is put into the eyes of newborn infants to prevent infection by
A. Doderlein's bacillus (Lactobacillus acidophilus)
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Chlamydia trachcomatis
D. Cytomegalovirus
E. *Neisseria gonorrhoeae
322.
The fimbriae of enterotoxigenic E. coli are essential to the bacterium when it causes disease
because
A. they activate host adenylate cyclase enzymes leading to disruption of cellular permeability
B. they make the bacteria resistant to phagocytic killing and digestion by white blood cells
C. they convert GI tract components (bile) to substances which provoke
D. they are needed for initial attachment of the bacteria to the gastrointestinal epithelium
E. *they allow the bacteria to swim "upstream" against the peristaltic action of the GI tract thereby
remaining established in the GI tract
323.
Which of the following statements that relate to bacterial exotoxins and endotoxins is true?
A. Exotoxins are typically structural (cell wall) components of Gram-positive bacteria
B. Endotoxins can never be released by the cells that produce them.
C. Endotoxins cause their toxicity through an enzymatic mechanism of action.
D. In the host, endotoxins are destroyed by the enzyme lysozyme.
E. *Exotoxins are proteins; endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides
324.
Why does the large volume of fluid lost by diarrhea during infection with Vibrio cholerae
A. is a consequence of fluid replacement during treatment of the disease and does not result directly
from activity of the cholera toxin
B. results from electrolytes binding to the intestinal enterocytes which upsets their water retention
capability
C. is caused when the vibrios bind to the intestinal epithelium and physically or mechanically block
the uptake of fluids by the gut epithelial cells
D. results from neurotoxic effects of the cholera toxin on the central nervous system
E. *follows activation of adenylate cyclase by cholera toxin and the subsequent effect of cyclic AMP
on water and salt balances of the host cells
325.
The main carrier site on the human body for strains of potentially pathogenic Neisseria
meningitidis is the
A. nasal membranes
B. oral cavity
C. gastrointestinal tract
D. vagina
E. *throat (posterior nasopharynx)
326.
What is the colonization site of Corynebacterium diphtheriae, the agent of diphtheria?
A. skin
B. urethra
C. eye
D. none of the above
E. *throat
327.
Which bacterial invasin is mismatched with its activity in the host?
A. staphylokinase: degrades fibrin
B. coagulase: clots fibrin
C. streptolysin: lyses neutrophil membranes
D. none of the above
E. *hyaluronidase: degrades the ground substance of connective tissue
328.
The clostridial invasin that dissolves the framework of muscle is
A. botulinum toxin
B. tetanus toxin
C. neuraminidase
D. collagenase
E. *hyaluronic acid
329.
Mechanism of action of tetanotoxin?
A. up-regulate the production of cAMP in affected cells
B. cause the ADP ribosylation of neuron gangliosides
C. block protein synthesis in target cells
D. cleave neuraminic acid in the intercellular space
E. *block the release of neurotransmitters across a neural synapse
330.
The portion of lipopolysaccharide (endotoxin) molecule that is responsible for a bacterium’s
antigenic specificity, as well as the existence of multiple serotypes (serovars) among Gram-negative
pathogens, is
A. lipid A
B. KDO
C. R antigen
D. H antigen
E. *O polysaccharide
331.
Passive immunity to tetanus in a susceptible host would be accomplished by
A. recovery from the disease tetanus
B. injection with tetanus toxin
C. injection with tetanus toxoid (as in the DPT vaccine
D. foxoid administration
E. *administration of donor’s antitetanus immunoglobulin
332.
Each of the following agents is a recognized cause of diarrhea EXCEPT
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Escherichia coli
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Shigella boydii
E. *Enterococcus faecalis
333.
Each of the following statements concerning Staphylococcus aureus is correct EXCEPT
A. Gram-positive cocci in grapelike clusters are seen on Gram-stained smear
B. The coagulase test is positive
C. Treatment should include a (3-lactamase-resistant penicillin)
D. It produce exotoxins
E. *Endotoxin is an important pathogenetic factor
334.
Each of the following statements concerning Treponema is correct EXCEPT:
A. T. pallidum cannot be grown on conventional laboratory media
B. Treponemes are members of the normal flora of the human oropharynx
C. Patients infected with T. pallidum produce antibodies that react with beef heart cardiolipin
D. Treponema are motile
E. *T. pallidum produces an exotoxin that stimulates adenylate cyclase
335.
Each of the following statements concerning Clostridia is correct EXCEPT:
A. Pathogenic Clostridia are found both in the soil and in the normal flora of the colon
B. Antibiotic-associated (pseudomembranous) colitis is due to a toxin produced by Clostridium
difficile
C. Botulism, which is caused by ingesting preformed toxin, can be prevented by boiling food prior to
eating
D. Clostridia are spore-forming bacteria
E. *Anaerobic conditions at the wound site are not required to cause tetanus, because spores will form
in the presence of oxygen
336.
Each of the following statements concerning Bacteroides fragilis is correct EXCEPT:
A. B. fragilis is a gram-negative rod that is a part of the normal flora of the colon
B. The capsule of B. fragilis is an important virulence factor
C. B. fragilis infections are characterized by foul-smelling pus
D. B. fragilis is anaerobic bacterium
E. *B. fragilis forms endospores, which allow it to survive in the soil
337.
. Each of the following statements concerning staphylococci is correct EXCEPT:
A. S. aureus is differentiated from S. epidermidis by the production of coagulase
B. S. aureus infections are often associated with abscess formation
C. The majority of clinical isolates of S. aureus elaborate penicillinase; therefore, presumptive
antibiotic therapy for S. aureus infections should not consist of penicillin G
D. Gram-positive cocci in grapelike clusters are seen on Gram-stained smear
E. *Scalded skin syndrome caused by S. aureus is due to enzymatic degradation of epidermal
desmosomes by catalase
338.
Regarding the effect of benzylpenicillin (penicillin G) on bacteria, which one of the following
organisms is LEAST likely to be resistant?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Enterococcus faecalis
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Neisseria meningitidis
E. *Streptococcus pyogenes
339.
Each of the following statements concerning Chlamydia trachomatis is correct EXCEPT:
A. It is an important cause of nongonococcal urethritis
B. It is the cause of lymphogranuloma venereum
C. It is an important cause of conjunctivitis
D. There is no vaccine against these infections
E. *It is an important cause of subacute bacterial endocarditis
340.
Which one of the following types of organisms is NOT an obligate intracellular parasite and
therefore can replicate on bacteriologic media?
A. Chlamydia
B. Adenovirus
C. Rickettsia
D. HIV
E. *Mycoplasma
341.
The soil is the natural habitat for certain microorganisms of medical importance. Which one of the
following is LEAST likely to reside there?
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Mycobacterium intracellular
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Clostridium perfringens
E. *Chlamydia trachomatis
342.
Each of the following statements concerning exotoxins is correct EXCEPT:
A. Some strains of Escherichia coli produce an enterotoxin that causes diarrhea
B. Cholera toxin acts by stimulating adenylate cyclase
C. Diphtheria is caused by an exotoxin that inhibits protein synthesis by inactivating an elongation
factor
D. Botulism, which is caused by ingesting preformed toxin, can be prevented by boiling food prior to
eating
E. *Botulism is caused by a toxin that hydrolyzes lecithin (lecithinase), thereby destroying nerve cells
343.
Each of the following statements concerning plague is correct EXCEPT:
A. Plague is caused by a gram-negative rod that can be cultured on blood agar
B. Plague is transmitted to humans by flea bite
C. The main reservoirs in nature are small rodents
D. There are different clinical form of plague (bubonic, pneumonic, skin)
E. *Plague is caused by a gram-positive rod that can be cultured on blood agar
344.
Which one of the following statements concerning the organisms that cause brucellosis is
CORRECT?
A. Brucellae are transmitted primarily by tick bite
B. The principal reservoirs of brucellae are small rodents
C. Brucellae are obligate intracellular parasites
D. Brucellae are usually identified by growth in human cell culture
E. *Brucellae are found in reticuloendothelial cells and often cause granulomatous lesions
345.
Each of the following statements concerning epidemic typhus is correct EXCEPT:
A. The disease is characterized by a rash
B. The Weil-Felix test can aid in diagnosis of the disease
C. The disease is caused by a rickettsia
D. Vaccine is used for specific prophylaxis
E. *The disease is caused by salmonella typhi
346.
Each of the following statements concerning Clostridium tetani is correct EXCEPT:
A. It is a gram-positive, spore-forming rod
B. Pathogenesis is due to the production of an exotoxin that blocks inhibitory neurotransmitters
C. Its natural habitat is primarily the soil
D. It is motile rod
E. *It is a facultative organism; it will grow on a blood agar plate in the presence of room air
347.
Each of the following statements concerning spirochetes is correct EXCEPT:
A. Species of Treponema are part of the normal flora of the oral cavity
B. Species of Borrelia cause a tick-borne disease called relapsing fever
C. Species of Treponema cause syphilis and yaws
D. Borrelia burgdorferi causes Lyme disease
E. *The species of Leptospira that cause leptospirosis grow primarily in humans and are usually
transmitted by human-to-human contact
348.
Each of the following statements concerning Mycobacterium tuberculosis is correct EXCEPT:
A. Some strains isolated from individuals with previously untreated cases of tuberculosis are resistant
to isoniazid
B. The organism grows slowly, often requiring 3-6 weeks before colonies appear
C. The antigen in the skin test is a protein extracted from the organism
D. Mantoux test is used for allergic diagnosis
E. *M. tuberculosis contains a small amount of lipid in its cell wall and therefore stains poorly with
the Gram stain
349.
Which one of the following statements concerning immunization against diseases caused by
Clostridia is CORRECT?
A. Antitoxin against tetanus protects against botulism as well, because the two toxins share antigenic
sites
B. Vaccines containing alpha toxin (lecithinase) are effective in protecting against gas gangrene
C. The toxoid vaccine against Clostridium difficile infection should be administered to
immunocompromised patients
D. Attenuated vaccines are used for specific prophylaxis of infections, caused by Clostridia
E. *Immunization with tetanus toxoid induces effective protection against tetanus toxin
350.
Each of the following statements concerning neisseriae is correct EXCEPT:
A. They are gram-negative diplococci
B. They produce IgA protease as a virulence factor
C. They are oxidase-positive
D. They have pili
E. *They grow best under anaerobic conditions
351.
Each of the following statements concerning wound infections caused by Clostridium perfringens
is correct EXCEPT:
A. An exotoxin plays a role in pathogenesis
B. Gram-positive rods are found in the exudate
C. Anaerobic culture of the wound site should be ordered
D. The organism has capsule
E. *The organism grows only in human cell culture
352.
Ticks are vectors for the transmission of each of the following diseases EXCEPT:
A. tularemia
B. Lyme disease
C. Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever
D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
E. *epidemic typhus
353.
Each of the following statements concerning pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae is
correct EXCEPT:
A. The disease is associated with a rise in the titer of cold agglutinins
B. The disease occurs primarily in immunocompetent individuals
C. The disease is one of the "atypical" pneumonias
D. Penicicllin is uneffective agains Mycoplasma
E. T*he organism cannot be cultured in vitro because it has no cell wall
354.
Each of the following statements concerning Q fever is correct EXCEPT:
A. It is transmitted by respiratory aerosol
B. Farm animals are an important reservoir
C. It is intracellular parazite
D. It is caused by Coxiella burnetii
E. *Rash is a prominent feature
355.
In the immune response to invasive infections by Streptococcus pneumoniae, antibodies are
required for effective defense. Antibodies to which antigen are most important?
A. Teichoic acid.
B. Peptidoglycan.
C. C-carbohydrate.
D. Type III secretion system.
E. *Polysaccharide capsule.
356.
Infections with Staphylococcus aureus are on average more severe than infections with other
Staphylococci. What test result distinguishes S. aureus from other members of this genus?
A. Blackening of a bile-esculin slant.
B. Beta-hemolysis on sheep blood agar.
C. Blackening of an oxidase-test disc placed on a colony.
D. Resistance to bacitracin.
E. *Coagulation of citrate-treated plasma.
357.
An important virulence factor of coagulase-positive staphylococci is Protein A.
A. Hydrolyzes secretory IgA.
B. Binds Factor H, prevents activation of complement.
C. Extracts iron from plasma proteins.
D. Promotes tight binding of bacteria to extracellular matrix.
E. *Binds the Fc region of IgG, decreases opsonization.
358.
A common serotype of enterohemorrhagic E. coli is O157:H7.What is O157?
A. Pili.
B. Capsule.
C. Porins.
D. Flagella.
E. *LPS.
359.
An engineer recently returned from visiting his family in India develops severe diarrhea. He in fact
has cholera. His diarrhea is produced by a protein exotoxin secreted by Vibrio cholerae. How does this
toxin act?
A. ADP-ribosylates a chloride transporter.
B. Inhibits a G protein that inhibits adenyl cyclase.
C. Stimulates guanyl cyclase.
D. Inhibits guanyl cyclase.
E. *Stimulates a G protein that activates adenyl cyclase.
360.
A vacationing couple both develop severe watery diarrhea which lasts three days.
A. Shigella sonnei.
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C. Salmonella typhi.
D. Escherichia coli.
E. *Campylobacter jejuni.
361.
A patient has chronic gastritis. Which of the following organisms is most likely?
A. Campylobacter fetus.
B. Campylobacter jejuni.
C. Escherichia coli.
D. A non-cholera Vibrio.
E. *Helicobacter pylori.
362.
A child has Pertussis. How was this infection most likely to have been acquired?
A. Release of oral flora into the bloodstream by dental work.
B. Bite of a dog or cat.
C. Contact with livestock, or animal products such as leather or wool.
D. Consumption of dairy products made from unpasteurized milk
E. *Inhalation of respiratory droplets from another person.
363.
A patient with systemic febrile illness is found to have an infection with Brucella abortus. Which
item in his history represents a known risk factor for such infections?
A. Recently visited Grand Canyon National Park.
B. Keeps numerous pet reptiles including two pythons and an alligator.
C. Has two young children who attend day care.
D. Has an acquarium at home, with numerous tropical fish.
E. *Works as a butcher for a supermarket chain.
364.
A patient is diagnosed with Clostridium difficile colitis.
A. Consumed unpurified water.
B. Visited the southwestern United States.
C. Eaten undercooked fried rice.
D. Been in contact with livestock.
E. *Been treated with antibiotics.
365.
Many isolates of E. coli are now ampicillin-resistant because they produce в-lactamases. Which
sentence below most accurately describes these enzymes?
A. They inactivate all в-lactam antibiotics.
B. Although they are produced by many isolates of E. coli, such в-lactamases are not produced by
other Gram-negative rods.
C. They cause resistance to aminoglycosides as well as b-lactams.
D. They have spread from Gram-negatives like E. coli to Gram-positive pathogens like
E. *Genes which encode them are often present on conjugative plasmids
366.
In Europe human Tetanus is now a rare disease. Which measure below has been most important in
preventing it?
A. Vaccination of livestock, especially cattle, with a killed-organism vaccine
B. Eradication of the organism from the environment.
C. Sewage treatment and purification of water supplies.
D. Antibiotic treatment of contacts of patients with C. tetani infections.
E. *Immunization of humans with a toxoid-containing vaccine.
367.
A patient complains of abdominal pain and you suspect gastritis caused by Helicobacter pylori. Of
the tests below, which would it be best to order, to confirm your diagnosis?
A. Sputum culture.
B. Blood culture on special selective medium.
C. Measurement of urea concentration in exhaled breath.
D. Measurement of urea concentration in a stool sample.
E. *Conversion of 14C-labeled urea to carbon dioxide.
368.
Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci are cultured from a throat swab of a febrile child with severe
purulent pharyngitis. Structure of which antigen determined that the bacteria belonged to Lancefield group
A?
A. Capsular polysaccharide
B. Side chains of peptidoglycan.
C. Fimbrae proteins
D. Streptolysin O.
E. *Cell-wall-associated with carbohydrate
369.
Structure of which antigen beta-hemolytic streptococci determined that the bacteria belonged to
Lancefield group A?
A. Side chains of peptidoglycan.
B. Fimbrae proteins
C. Capsular polysaccharide.
D. Streptolysin O.
E. *Cell-wall-associated with carbohydrate.
370.
Residents of an assisted-living facility are offered immunization against Streptococcus
pneumoniae. What is the antigenic constituent of this vaccine?
A. Killed whole cells.
B. Live cells of an attenuated bacterium.
C. Proteins produced by genetic engineering.
D. A toxoid (formaldehyde-inactivated toxin).
E. *Purified capsular polysaccharides.
371.
Which statement below most accurately describes the role of M protein in virulence of Group A
Streptococci [Streptococcus pyogenes]?
A. Shows no antigenic variation, so is not a target for antibodies.
B. Is a ‘superantigen toxin’ which stimulates TH cells.
C. Binds Fc regions of Immunoglobulin G molecules.
D. Inhibit phagocytosis
E. *Stimulates synthesis of antibodies that cross-reacts with heart tissue
372.
Gram stain of CSF sediment from a patient with meningitis contains Gram-negative cocci, many in
pairs. Which organism below is most probable?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Escherichia coli
E. *Neisseria meningitidis
373.
After Gram stain of spinal fluid sample from a patient with meningitis Medical personal during
microscopy examination detected Gram-negative cocci, many in pairs. Which organism below is most
probable?
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Escherichia coli
E. *Neisseria meningitidis
374.
Which line below correctly pairs a bacterial group or species with an antibiotic that currently
inhibits enough of its members to be used against it, before results of sensitivity testing are received? The
majority is...
A. . Enterobacteriaceae Penicillin G
B. Staphylococcus aureus Penicillin G
C. Obligate anaerobes Aminoglycosides
D. Obligate aerobes Metronidazole
E. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis Isoniazid
375.
You suspect that a patient might have latent Syphilis. Which test below would most reliably detect
it?
A. Physical exam to detect characteristic neurological symptoms
B. Dark field microscopy of CSF.
C. Culture of the organism from blood and CSF.
D. Gram stain of material from a skin lesion.
E. *Tests for ‘non-treponemal’ and ‘anti-treponemal’ antibodies in serum.
376.
Which test you can use for detect in patient latent Syphilis?
A. Physical exam to detect characteristic neurological symptoms.
B. . Dark field microscopy of CSF.
C. Gram stain of material from a skin lesion.
D. Culture of the organism from blood and CSF.
E. *Tests for ‘non-treponemal’ and ‘anti-treponemal’ antibodies in serum.
377.
A bacillus cultured from stool produces dark pink colonies on Endo agar.
A. Salmonella enterica
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Shigella sonnei
D. Escherichia coli
E. *Shigella dysenteriae
378.
A patient is diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), you suspect caused by Chlamydia
trachomatis. If you wished to confirm C. trachomatis, which test below should you use?
A. Culture of urine on broth-based agar at 20єC.
B. Culture of cervical exudate on chocolate agar in elevated CO2.
C. Microscopic examination of a stained smear of peripheral blood.
D. Gram stain of exudate from the cervix.
E. *PCR-based nucleic-acid amplification test of a cervical swab.
379.
In the upper respiratory tract of patient doctor observed thick grey ‘pseudomembrane’ formation.
Which organism can cause this symptoms?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Legionella pneumophilia.
C. Streptococcus mitis
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae
380.
An epidemic of Typhus occurs in a refugee camp. What vectors spread the infections?
A. Rat fleas.
B. Dog ticks.
C. Deer ticks.
D. Mosquitos.
E. *Human body lice.
381.
What vectors are spread an epidemic typhus?
A. Rat fleas.
B. Dog ticks.
C. Mosquitos.
D. Deer ticks.
E. *Human body lice.
382.
A patient has a large carbuncles you suspect is caused by Bacillus anthracis. In this case, which of
the following would you expect to see in a Gram-stained smear of pus from the carbuncles?
A. Slender spirochetes.
B. Small Gram-positive cocci, in pairs.
C. Gram-negative rods of variable length.
D. Gram-negative coccobacilli.
E. *Large Gram-positive rods.
383.
Bacteroides fragilis is isolated from an operative wound. Which sentence below best describes
such infection?
A. Can be successfully treated with aminoglycosides alone
B. Initiated by ingestion of spores.
C. Contracted by the respiratory route.
D. Sexually-transmitted.
E. *Can be successfully treated with metronidazole alone.
384.
Clostridium tetani produces disease by the production of a protein exotoxin.
A. Stimulates adenyl cyclase.
B. Inhibits guanyl cyclase.
C. Cleaves ribosomal RNA.
D. Blocks synaptic transmission.
E. *Stimulates contraction of muscles.
385.
You suspect that a patient’s respiratory illness may be due to infection by Mycoplasma
pneumoniae. If this is true, which antibiotic below should you expect to be most effective?
A. Penicillin G.
B. Vancomycin.
C. A third-generation cephalosporin.
D. An ‘extended-spectrum’ penicillin.
E. E*rythromycin.
386.
Which antibiotic below should you expect to be most effective for therapy Mycoplasma
pneumoniae respiratory infection?
A. Penicillin G.
B. Vancomycin.
C. A third-generation cephalosporin.
D. An ‘extended-spectrum’ penicillin.
E. *Erythromycin.
387.
388.
389.
390.
391.
392.
393.
394.
395.
396.
Rickettsia typhi is:
A. Helminths
B. Protozoa
C. Fungi
D. Viruses
E. *Bacteria
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
A. Fungi
B. Helminths
C. Viruses
D. Protozoa
E. *Bacteria
Oxygen requirements of Staphylococcus epidermidis is:
A. Aerobic
B. Obligate anaerobe
C. Microaerophilic
D. Facultative Aerobic
E. *Facultative anaerobe
Staphylococcus epidermidis is:
A. Aerobic
B. Microaerophilic
C. Obligate aerobic
D. Obligate anaerobe
E. *Facultative anaerobe
Morphology of Treponema pallidum is:
A. Mold
B. Vibrio
C. Rod
D. Yeast
E. *Spiral-shaped
Helicobacter pylori is:
A. Vibrio
B. Mold
C. Rod
D. Yeast
E. *Spiral-shaped
Therapy of Candida albicans is:
A. Antitoxin
B. Cefotetan
C. Ketoconazole
D. Penicillin
E. *Nystatin
What medicine is used for therapy of Candida albicans infection?
A. Antitoxin
B. Cefotetan
C. Penicillin
D. Ketoconazole
E. *Nystatin
Morbidity of Clostridium tetani is:
A. Cholera gravis
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease
C. Parotitis
D. Wound infection
E. Tetanus
Clostridium tetani is сausetive agent of:
A. Cholera gravis
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease
C. Wound infection
397.
398.
399.
400.
401.
402.
403.
404.
405.
D. Parotitis
E. *Tetanus
Which of the following statements refers to Clostridium botulinum
A. Includes S. typhimurium, S. dublin, S. enteritidis, S. hadar - enteritis; S. typhi, S. paratyphi enteric fever, possible intracellular infection.
B. Group is determined base on polysaccharide C; type - based on M-protein; strain - based on T
antigen.
C. Toxins: Stx - EHEC; ShET2 - EIEC.
D. Exposure to antibiotics - major risk factor
E. *Botulism symptoms include descending paralysis, dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention.
Chlamydia pneumoniae is:
A. ssDNA
B. It grows onto nutrient media
C. Coagulase "+"
D. Acid fast "+"
E. *Obligate intracellular parasite
Toxin of Vibrio cholerae is:
A. LPS
B. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
C. Enterotoxins
D. Hemolysins
E. *Toxin - activates adenylate cyclase
Toxicogenity of Vibrio cholerae is accociated with:
A. LPS
B. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
C. Enterotoxins
D. Hemolysins
E. *Toxin - activates adenylate cyclase
Phenotypic characteristic of Staphylococcus epidermidis is:
A. Optochin sensitive
B. Non-enveloped
C. Motility "+"
D. Oxidase "+"
E. *Coagulase "-"
One of the phenotypic characteristic of Staphylococcus epidermidis is:
A. Optochin sensitive
B. Non-enveloped
C. Oxidase "+"
D. Motility "+"
E. *Coagulase "-"
Morphology of Yersinia enterocolitica is:
A. Mold
B. Cocci in chains
C. Cocci in clusters
D. Branching beaded rods
E. *Rod
Morphology of Pneumococcus is:
A. Rod
B. Cocci in chains
C. Cyst
D. Spiral-shaped
E. *Diplococci
Morbidity of Treponema pallium is:
A. Meningitis
B. Enteritis
C. Hepatitis
D. Food poisoning
E. *Syphilis
406.
407.
408.
409.
410.
411.
412.
413.
414.
415.
Group of Rickettsia prowazekii is:
A. Protozoa
B. Helminths
C. Fungi
D. Viruses
E. *Bacteria
Group of Klebsiella spp is:
A. Helminths
B. Protozoa
C. Fungi
D. Viruses
E. Bacteria
Stain of Shigella spp. is:
A. Gram "+"
B. Modified acid fast "+"
C. Acid fast "+"
D. Hinse
E. *Gram "-"
Group of Clostridium botulinum is:
A. Protozoa
B. Fungi
C. Helminths
D. Viruses
E. *Bacteria
Morbidity of Candida albicans is
A. Endocarditis
B. Pneumonia
C. Bronchopneumonia
D. Bladder carcinoma
E. *Systemic candidiasis
Morbidity of Klebsiella spp. is:
A. Rhinocerebral disease
B. Hemorrhagic cystitis
C. Enteritis
D. Cervicitis
E. *Urinary tract infections
Group of Bordetella pertussis is:
A. Protozoa
B. Viruses
C. Fungi
D. Helminths
E. *Bacteria
Group of Candida albicans is:
A. Bacteria
B. Protozoa
C. Viruses
D. Helminths
E. *ungi
Phenotypic characteristic of Staphylococcus aureus is:
A. Enveloped
B. Motility "+"
C. ssRNAD. Oxidase "-"
E. *Coagulase "+"
Toxin of Chlamydia psittaci is:
A. Cholera toxin - activates adenylate cyclase
B. Exotoxin A - inhibits protein synthesis
C. Elastase - hemorrage
D. Hemolysin
E. *LPS
416.
Mode of transmission of Herpes simplex virus is:
A. Mosquito bites
B. Perinatal
C. Droplet nuclei
D. Sexual
E. *Direct contact
417.
Which of the following is not an appropriate specimen to culture for the presence of pathogenic
anaerobes?
A. sinus aspirate
B. bone
C. blood
D. bile
E. *sputum
418.
Of the following known causes of diarrhea, which one is most likely to be associated with diarrhea
occurring in a patient receiving antibiotics?
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Shigella sonnei
C. Campylobacter jejuni
D. Enterotoxigenic E. Coli
E. *Clostridium difficile
419.
BCG vaccine is used to prevent:
A. diphtheria
B. botulism
C. brucelosis
D. Q fever
E. *tuberculosis
420.
Staphylococcus aureus produces all of the following toxins EXCEPT
A. heat stabile enterotoxin
B. toxic shock syndrome toxin
C. exfoliative toxin
D. alpha toxin
E. *adenylate cyclase toxin
421.
The leading cause of community-acquired pneumonia is
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. E. coli
E. S*treptococcus pneumoniae
422.
Which of the following organisms is INCORRECTLY matched with the disease it most commonly
causes?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes - pharyngitis
B. Enterococcus faecalis - neonatal meningitis
C. Viridans streptococci - dental caries
D. E. coli - urinary tract infections
E. Staphylococcus saprophyticus - urinary tract infections
423.
Which one of the following microorganisms is closely associated with dental caries?
A. Candida albicans
B. Prevotella melaninogenica
C. Neisseria subflava
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
E. *Streptococcus mutans
424.
Which one of the following is not an important characteristic of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
A. Alpha- hemolytic
B. Causes otitis media
C. Polysaccharide capsule
D. Gram-positive lancet-shaped diplococci
E. *Normal intestinal flora
425.
Streptococcus pneumoniae can be part of the normal flora of 5-40% of people. At what anatomic
site can it be found7
A. Conjunctiva
B. Colon
C. Urethra
D. Vagina
E. *Nasopharynx
426.
Which of the following bacteria is non-pathogenic?
A. N meningitidis.
B. N. gonorrhoeae.
C. B. catarrhalis.
D. All of listed
E. *N. sicca.
427.
A Gram stain from the urethral exudate of an infected male patient showed Gram negative
diplococci within neutrophils. Which one of the following media would be most appropriate for the
cultivation of the causative microorganism?
A. MacConkey agar
B. Sheep blood agar
C. Nutrient agar
D. Mannitol salts agar
E. *Chocolate agar
428.
Which of the following is true for visualizing spirochete?
A. They can be viewed without significant magnification (e.g. 10x)
B. They can be viewed with Gram stain
C. They can be viewed with Giemsa stain
D. They are eucaryotes
E. *They require special analysis such as dark field illumination or silver stain
429.
Syphilis is caused by which of the following?
A. Helicobacter pylori
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Serratia marcesans
D. Treponema Vincentii
E. *Treponema pallidum
430.
What is the first symptom of disease caused by Treponema pallidum?
A. Bullseye rash
B. Butterfly rash
C. Vaginal discharge
D. No correct answer
E. *Chancre at infection site
431.
Which of the following groups of people is most at risk for contracting T. pallidum?
A. Pregnant mothers
B. Cystic fibrosis patients
C. Elderly patients
D. Anyone (spread through contact with inanimate objects, such as toilet seats)
E. *Sexually active patients
432.
Which of the following staining techniques cannot be used for T. pallidum?
A. Gram staining.
B. Giemsa staining.
C. Silver impregnation staining.
D. Imunofluorescence staining.
E. *Burri staining.
433.
Indicate microbe which has sexual mode of transmission:
A. Borrelia recurrentis
B. Borrelia burgdorferi
C. Leptospiras interrogans
D. Treponema vincentii
E. *Treponema pallidum
434.
In which of the following sexually transmitted diseases, ulcer/s is/are painless?
A. Chancroid.
B. Herpes genitalis.
C. All are correct.
D. No correct answer
E. *Syphilis.
435.
What stage of syphilis is characterized by disseminating rash, alopecia, lymphadenopathy, and
flulike symptoms.
A. Primary
B. Tertiary
C. Congenital
D. No correct answer
E. *Secondary
436.
Of the following organisms that can cross the placenta, which of the following is associated with
congenital CN VIII deafness, mulberry molars, saddle nose, blindness, deafness, and cardiovascular
problems?
A. Toxoplasma gondii
B. Rubella
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Herpes, HIV
E. *Syphilis
437.
Lyme disease is caused by ______ and spread by ______.
A. Borrelia recurrentis, lice
B. Borrelia burgdorferi, chiggers
C. Borrelia hermsii, ticks
D. Borrelia recurrentis, ticks
E. *Borrelia burgdorferi, ticks
438.
Indicate disease caused by Leptospira interrogans:
A. Endemic relapsing fever
B. Lyme disease
C. Syphilis
D. Enteric fever
E. *Weil syndrome (icterohemorrhagic fever), canicola fever
439.
In the kindergarden outbreak of measles recorded. What is the specific prevention of measles for
nonvaccinated children which were in contact?
A. live vaccine against measles
B. vaccine DPT (M)
C. establishment of medical monitoring of these children
D. isolation and treatment
E. *gamma globulin
440.
A girl is infected with a paramyxovirus. The cytopathic effect for this virus is
A. *syncytia formation
B. major destruction of the tissue culture monolayer
C. intranuclear inclusion formation
D. Negri body formation
E. cellular degranulation
441.
A patient has common cold, cough, catarrhal phenomena, fever, and weakness. There may be viral
infection. What test can we use for indication of viruses in pathological material?
A. *Haemagglutination test
B. Indirect haemagglutination test
C. CFT
D. Neutralization test
E. All answers are correct
442.
After identification of viruses in pathological material viruses from Orthomyxoviridae were
revealed. What virus from this family may be found in this tested material?
A. Poliovirus
B. *Influenza virus
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
443.
After inoculation of chicken embryo with tested material from a patient with initial diagnosis of
Flu it is necessary to detect the presence of viruses in there. What test of indication may be used?
A. neutralization test in the cell culture
B. plaques formation phenomenon in gel
C. neutralization test in laboratory animals
D. precipitation test
E. *haemagglutination test
444.
All viruses according to their structure are divided into naked and complex. Complex ones contain
an envelope. What RNA-containing viruses do have envelope?
A. picornaviruses
B. *Mumps viruses
C. reoviruses
D. caliciviruses
E. All answers are correct
445.
Although polioviruses initially multiply in the intestinal tract, they may eventually cause muscular
paralysis by infecting the cells in the gray matter of the:
A. *spinal cord
B. large intestine
C. lymph nodes
D. small intestine
E. muscles
446.
Among reactions, which are widely applied for indication of viruses haemagglutination test, is
used. What is haemagglutination unit?
A. Maximal dilution of viruses, which causes complete agglutination of red cells.
B. *Minimum dilution of viruses, which causes complete agglutination of red cells.
C. Maximal dilution of red cells suspension, where their agglutination is present.
D. Minimum dilution of red cells suspension, where their agglutination is present.
E. No correct answer.
447.
Complement fixation test was utilized for serologic diagnosis of measles. Show sequence of
necessary components among listed ones:
A. Complement, specific serum, chicken red cells, virus
B. Hemolytic system, serum of patient, complement
C. Complement, hemolytic system, specific serum, viral diagnosticum
D. *Paired patient’s sera, viral diagnosticum, complement, hemolytic system
E. Paired patient’s sera, viral material, complement, specific serum, hemolytic system.
448.
Enteroviruses without haemagglutination activity were isolated from a patient. What test can be
utilized for identification of virus?
A. Haemagglutination test
B. Coombs’s test
C. *Complement fixation test
D. Haemagglutination inhibition test
E. Indirect haemagglutination test
449.
For serologic diagnosis of poliomyelitis neutralization test in cell culture is used. Show the positive
result of this test when we use paired patient’s sera?
A. Increase of antibodies titer in 2 times
B. *Increase of antibodies titer in 4 times
C. Decrease of antibodies titer in 2 times
D. Decrease of antibodies titer in 4 times
E. No correct answer
450.
For serologic diagnosis of viral infection Haemagglutination inhibition test is utilized. Choose
useless component of this test
A. Patient’s serum at the beginning of disease
B. *Medium 199
C. Patient’s serum which was is taken in 2 weeks of disease
D. Chicken red cells
E. Viral diagnosticum
451.
For the examination of viruses in the sections of tissues immunologic methods are utilized. Choose
such method among listed ones:
A. RIA
B. ELISA
C. CFT
D. *IFT
E. Haemagglutination inhibition test
452.
For the indication of virus haemagglutination test is utilized. What are the components of this test?
A. *electrolyte, virus-containing material, chicken red cells
B. electrolyte, virus-containing material, cell cultures, chicken red cells
C. electrolyte, virus-containing material, specific antiviral serum, chicken red cells
D. electrolyte, virus-containing material, cell cultures, specific antiviral serum, chicken red cells
E. electrolyte, serum of patient, virus-containing material, chicken red cells
453.
For virologic (early) diagnosis of viral infections haemagglutination inhibition test is utillized.
What are components of this test?
A. electrolyte, virus-containing material, chicken red cells, cell cultures
B. electrolyte, virus-containing material, chicken red cells
C. electrolyte, virus-containing material, chicken red cells, chicken embryos
D. electrolyte, serum of patient, virus-containing material, chicken red cells, complement
E. *electrolyte, virus-containing material, specific sera, chicken red cells.
454.
How do picornaviruses and papovaviruses enter the host cell, in which hydrophobic structures of
capsid proteins may be exposed after viral binding to the cells, and these structures help the virus or the
viral genome slip through (direct penetration) the membrane?
A. Exocytosis
B. Endocytosis
C. Pinocytosis
D. Osmosis
E. *Viropexis
455.
How do point mutations, responsible for antigenic drift, occur in the hemagglutinin and
neuraminidase of the orthomyxoviruses?
A. Gamma rays cause the mutations
B. *Poor template copying by the RNA polymerase cause the mutations
C. Genetic reassortment occurs by two cells being coinfected by two different subtypes of influenza A
D. Prevailing winds 'drift' the differen‘ naturally occurring mutants throughout the hemispheres
E. Genetic reassortment occurs in one cell being coinfected by two different subtypes of influenza A
456.
Identification of Influenza virus was made in a virologic laboratory. In the first well the culture of
virus mixed with type A specific serum, in the second – with type B diagnostic serum. After incubation
there were two types of sediment: "umbrella-shaped" and "button-shaped". What immune reaction was
used?
A. *Haemagglutination inhibition test
B. Indirect haemagglutination test
C. Complement fixation test
D. Neutralization test
E. ELISA
457.
If an influenza infection has been diagnosed within a family, which antiviral drug could be
administered to other family members as a prophylactic measure?
A. Acyclovir
B. Ganciclovir
C. *Amantadine
D. Cyclosporin A
E. Foscarnet
458.
Immune reactions are widely utilized in laboratory practice. When do we use theses methods in
virology?
A. For identification of virus
B. For serologic diagnosis
C. For the examination of antiviral antibodies
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
459.
In a child D.,7 years old there are signs of intoxication, fever 39 С, catarrhal phenomena
oropharynx. A doctor diagnosed flu. What family does Influenza virus include?
A. Paramyxoviridae
B. *Orthomyxoviridae
C. Rhabdoviridae
D. Picornaviridae
E. Togaviridae
460.
In a virologic laboratory there is swab from the nose of the patient with flu. It is necessary to
examine strain specificity of the viruses. What test may be used?
A. Rhinocytoscopy
B. According to character of cytopathic effect of viruses
C. *Haemagglutination inhibition test with specific sera
D. Haemagglutination test
E. Hemadsorbtion test
461.
Mumps virus accounts for 10–15% of all cases of aseptic meningitis in the United States.Which of
the following is most true of infection with mumps virus?
A. It is apt to recur periodically in many affected persons.
B. It is maintained in large canine reservoir.
C. *It is preventable by immunization.
D. It usually produces severe systemic manifestations.
E. It will always cause mumps orchitis in post pubertal males
462.
Orchitis, which may cause sterility, is a possible manifestation of which of the following?
A. Rabies
B. Rhinovirus
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
E. *Mumps
463.
Orthomyxoviridae can cause the most frequent disease of viral etiology in human. Show the
viruses, which belong to this family:
A. *Influenza virus
B. Poliovirus
C. Rabies virus
D. HIV
E. Herpesvirus
464.
Oseltamivir is used for the treatment of infections by a virus with a segmented negative strand
genome. Which of the following would respond to this treatment?
A. EBV
B. herpes simplex virus
C. *influenza virus
D. rabies virus
E. rhinovirus
465.
Pathological material (discharges of mucus membranes from the nose) from patient P. was
transported to the laboratory. What express method may be used for examination of specific viral antigen
in this tested material?
A. Direct and indirect ELYSA
B. Haemagglutination inhibition test
C. *Direct and indirect immune fluorescence tests
D. Reversed indirect haemagglutination test
E. Agglutination test
466.
Patient A. was admitted to the clinic during the first days of illness with diagnosis of Influenza.
What can we examine by the early methods of virologic diagnosis?
A. toxins of viruses
B. presence of antibodies against the viruses
C. increase of antibodies titer in patient’ serum
D. *presence of viral antigens
E. All answers are correct
467.
Show necessary components for carrying out direct immunofluorescence test for examination of
viruses:
A. unknown antibody and antigen marked with fluorochrome
B. specific serum, antigen, dye
C. *unknown virus, a specific serum, which is bound with fluorochrome
D. antigen, specific serum, antiglobulin fluorescent serum
E. unknown virus, serum of patient, antiglobulin fluorescent serum
468.
Sometime it is necessary to make expressd diagnosis of viral disease. What express methods could
you propose?
A. Inoculation of chicken embryos
B. Inoculation of laboratory animals
C. Inoculation of cell culture
D. *Immunofluorescence test, Chain polymerase reaction
E. All answers are correct
469.
Specify the components of Complement fixation test for serologic diagnosis of mumps:
A. Serum of patient, viral material, complement, sheep’s red cells, electrolyte
B. *Paired patient’s sera, viral diagnosticum, complement, hemolytic system, electrolyte
C. Viral diagnosticum, paired patient’s sera, complement, hemolytic system, electrolyte
D. Virus, specific serum, complement, sheep’s red cells, electrolyte
E. Specific serum, viral diagnosticum, hemolytic system, electrolyte
470.
Student H. has to describe during final lesson a virus from Paramyxoviridae. What viruses do
belong this family to?
A. Rhabdoviruses
B. *Measles virus
C. Yellow fever viruses
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
471.
Taking into consideration the features of viral structure, they can be susceptible or non-susceptible
to an ether. What viruses are susceptible to ether:
A. naked ones
B. *complex ones
C. viruses with a cubic type of symmetry
D. bacteriophages
E. No correct answer
472.
The haemagglutination test is utilized for the indication of virus. What does testify the positive
haemagglutination test?
A. Absence of sedimentation of red cells
B. Haemolysis of red cells
C. *Umbrella-shaped sediment of red cells
D. adsorption of red cells on the cell culture
E. absence of adsorption of red cells is on the cell culture
473.
The immunofluorescence test is widely utilized for express diagnosis of a lot of viral infections.
Choose a necessary condition for reading the results of this test:
A. presence of light microscope
B. presence of electron microscope
C. *presence of ultraviolet microscope
D. presence of phase-contrast microscope
E. a presence of light microscope is with dark field illumination
474.
The neutralization test in cell culture is used for identification of Polioviruses. Show the sequence
of necessary ingredients for making this test( V - virus, PS – patient’s serum, SS - specific serum, CC –
cell culture).
A. CC + PS to wait + SS
B. CC + V to wait + CC
C. *V + SS to wait + CC
D. SS + CC to wait + V
E. CC + PS + SS to wait + V
475.
The positive result of neutralization test in cell culture (colour test) for serologic diagnosis of
poliomyelitis is:
A. Sedimenta in wells
B. *Liquid of yellow color in the experimental test tubes
C. Sediment of red cells in test tubes
D. Liquid of pink color in the experimental test tubes
E. Presence of cytopathic effect
476.
The strategy of viral genome includes: 1. Synthesis of protein, 2. Penetration, 3. Release of viruses
from the cell, 4. Synthesis of nucleic acids, 5. Deproteinization:
A. 1, 2, 5
B. *4, 1
C. 2, 3, 4, 5
D. 2, 3, 5
E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
477.
The viruses of flu are cultivated in 10-11 daily chicken embryos. What is the best way of there
inoculation?
A. on chorioallantoic membrane
B. in аmniotic cavity
C. in yolk sac
D. in the body of embryo
E. *in allantoic cavity
478.
There are such early stages of viral reproductions: 1. Synthesis of protein, 2. Penetration, 3.
Attachment of viruses to the surface of the cell, 4. Synthesis of nucleic acids, 5. Uncoating
A. 1, 2, 5
B. 1, 2, 3, 4
C. 2, 3, 4, 5
D. *3, 2, 5
E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
479.
There are viruses with RNA”+” genome. They execute all the followings functions during
reproduction of viruses, except:
A. This mRNA causes synthesis of structural proteins
B. This RNA “+” is matrix for RNA “-“ synthesis
C. They are packed in a capsid during formation of new viral particles
D. This RNA “+” causes translation
E. *It is a matrix for the synthesis of mRNA
480.
There is tested material in virologic laboratory with minimum concentration of viral particles.
What modern method may be used for examination of this tested material?
A. Polymerase chain reaction
B. ELISA
C. A method is with the use of monoclonal antibodies
D. Radioimmune assay
E. *All answers are correct
481.
Virologist infected cell cultures by tested material from the patient. What changes may appear in
the cells?
A. Symplast formation
B. Syncitia formation
C. Intracellular bodies formation
D. Complete degeneration of the cells
E. *All answers are correct
482.
Viruses have various ways of entering the human body and producing disease. Which of the
following descriptions accurately describe the route and mechanism for the virus indicated?
A. Coronaviruses enter the gastrointestinal tract through the mouth and move into the stomach, where
they proliferate within mucosal cells to produce peptic ulcers.
B. *Enteroviruses enter through the mouth, replicate in the pharynx and bowel, and move via the
blood to distant target organs (central nervous system).
C. HIV is directly injected into the bloodstream by insects requiring blood for egg development.
D. Influenza viruses enter through the respiratory tract, replicate within lymphocytes in the lung, and
move via the lymphatic vessels to joints and the central nervous system to produce muscle aches,
stiff joints, and fever.
E. Mumps virus enters through abraded skin in the genital area and moves into the testicles of males
to produce swelling and sterility.
483.
We can not use for cultivation of Influenza viruses nutrient media. We can utilize cell cultures.
What diploid cell line do you know?
A. *WI-38
B. HeLa
C. Hep-2
D. KB
E. BNK-32
484.
When antibody titers are used in the laboratory diagnosis of viral infections, the diagnosis can be
made only if
A. the acute titer is less than 10
B. the convalescent titcr is greater than 20
C. there is a twofold rise in titer
D. *there is a fourfold rise in titer
E. there is no change in titer
485.
When virologist makes titration of viruses (quantitative examination of viruses in the tested
material) he examines:
A. In cells – Cytopathic dose 50 (CPD50)
B. In animals – Lethal dose (LD50)
C. the number of haemagglutination units (HAU)
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
486.
When we want to carry out Complement fixation test for serologic diagnosis of disease it is
necessary to make some preparatory stages. What preparatory stages do we do?
A. Diminution of activity of precipitating antibodies
B. *Titration of components of hemolytic system and complement
C. Oppression of activity of heterophilic antibodies
D. Diminution of activity of antistreptolysins
E. Oppression of activity of transferrin.
487.
Which of the following increases the risk of Reye syndrome, which is acute encephalitis affectimg
childrwen after acute febrile viral infections?
A. *Aspirin
B. Tylenol
C. Ibuprofen
D. Antibiotics
E. Influenza vaccination
488.
Which of the following statements best describes interferon’s suspected mode of action in
producing resistance to viral infection?
A. It alters the permeability of the cell membrane so that viruses cannot enter the cell
B. It stimulates a cell-mediated immunity.
C. It stimulates humoral immunity.
D. *Its action is related to the synthesis of a protein that inhibits mRNA function.
E. Its direct antiviral action is related to the suppression of messenger RNA formation.
489.
Which one of the following is the BEST evidence on which to base a decisive diagnosis of acute
mumps disease?
A. A history of exposure to a child with mumps
B. A positive skin test
C. *A 4-fold rise in antibody titer to mumps surface antigen
D. Orchitis in young adult male
E. Koplik’s spots are main clinical symptoms
490.
Which protein is predominantly responsible for attachment of the influenza virus to susceptible
epithelial cells located in the upper respiratory tract?
A. Neuraminidase
B. *Hemagglutinin
C. Matrix protein
D. Nucleoprotein
E. Fusion protein
491.
Which protein is predominantly responsible for penetration of the influenza virus in susceptible
epithelial cells located in the upper respiratory tract?
A. *Neuraminidase
B. Hemagglutinin
C. Matrix protein
D. Nucleoprotein
E. Fusion protein
492.
All of the following are enteroviruses EXCEPT:
A. hepatitis A virus
B. *rhinoviruses
C. coxsackieviruses
D. echoviruses
E. polioviruses
493.
All viruses belong to complex ones, except:
A. Herpesviruses
B. Flu viruses
C. Small pox viruses
D. *Polioviruses
E. HIV
494.
An indication of Influenza viruses there is:
A. Examination of viral families
B. Examination of viral genes
C. Examination of viral species
D. Examination of viral serovar
E. *Examination of viral presence in tested material
495.
Antigenic drift of orthomyxoviruses is best characterized as:
A. A major change in the neuraminidase or hemagglutinin proteins
B. A major change in the matrix protein
C. *A minor change in the neuraminidase or hemagglutinin proteins
D. A minor change in the matrix protein
E. A major change in the matrix protein and hemagglutinin
496.
Choose among listed combinations components for making haemagglutination test:
A. *Viral material, chicken red cells, electrolyte
B. Viral material, sheep’s white cells, electrolyte
C. Antiviral antibodies, antigen, red cells, electrolyte
D. Patient’s serum, viral diagnosticum, electrolyte
E. Viral diagnosticum, specific serum, chicken red cells, electrolyte
497.
Choose among listed viruses causative agents, which have a spherical shape:
A. Tobacco mosaic disease viruses
B. Poxviruses
C. Rhabdoviruses
D. *Influenza viruses
E. Ebola virus
498.
Choose the correct characteristics of the Salk's vaccine:
A. *inactivated vaccine
B. after immunization local and general immunity will be created
C. the route of administration is per oral;
D. it consists of one type of the polioviruses
E. it is used for immunization of the children 3 months old
499.
Choose the uncorrect characteristics of the Sabin::Choose the uncorrect characteristics of the
Sabin's vaccine:
A. live vaccine
B. *inactivated vaccine
C. after immunization local and general immunity will be created
D. the route of administration is per oral
E. it consists of three types of the polioviruses
500.
Degenerative changes in the cell culture under the influence of Influenza viruses are called:
A. Cytotoxic action
B. *Cytopathic action
C. Hystotoxic action
D. Hemolytic action
E. Proliferative action
501.
Diagnostic test of Parainfluenza viruses is:
A. Skin test
B. Ab testing
C. Antibody detection
D. Weil-Felix reaction
E. *Direct antibody staining
502.
Each of the following statements concerning measles virus is correct EXCEPT:
A. *Latent infection by measles virus can be explained by the integration of provirus into the host cell
DNA
B. One of the important complications of measles is encephalitis
C. The initial site of measles virus replication is the upper respiratory tract, from which it spreads via
the blood to the skin
D. Measles virus is an enveloped virus with a single-stranded RNA genome
E. Koplik’s spots are characteristic of measles
503.
Each of the following statements concerning mumps is correct EXCEPT:
A. Mumps virus is a paramyxovirus and hence has a single-stranded RNA genome
B. Meningitis is a recognized complication of mumps
C. Mumps orchitis in boys can causes sterility
D. During mumps, the virus spreads through the bloodstream (viremia) to various internal organs
E. *Mumps virus has not hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
504.
Each of the following statements concerning measles vaccine is correct EXCEPT:
A. *The vaccine should not be given in conjunction with other viral vaccines because interference can
occur
B. The vaccine contains live, attenuated virus
C. Virus in the vaccine contains only one serotype
D. The vaccine should not be given prior to 15 months of age because maternal antibodies can prevent
an immune response
E. Measles vaccine is in MMR vaccine
505.
Each of the following clinical syndromes is associated with infection by picornaviruses EXCEPT:
A. Myocarditis/pericarditis
B. Hepatitis
C. *Mononucleosis
D. Meningitis
E. Herpangina
506.
Each of the following statements concerning influenza is correct EXCEPT:
A. *The antigenic changes that occur with antigenic drift are due to reassortment of the multiple
pieces of the influenza virus genome
B. Major epidemics of the disease are caused by influenza A viruses rather than influenza B and C
viruses
C. Likely sources of new antigens for influenza A viruses are the viruses that cause influenza in
animals
D. Major antigenic changes (shifts) of viral surface proteins are seen primarily in influenza A viruses
rather than in influenza B and C viruses
E. The point mutations of the influenza virus genome are due to minor antigenic changes (drift)
507.
Each of the following statements concerning the antigenicity of influenza A virus is correct
EXCEPT:
A. Antigenic shifts affect both the hemagglutinin and the neuraminidase
B. *The protein involved in antigenic drift is primarily the internal ribonucleoprotein
C. The worldwide epidemics caused by influenza A virus are due to antigenic shifts
D. Antigenic shifts, which represent major changes in antigenicity, occur infrequently and are due to
the recombination (reassortment) of segments of the viral genome
E. Antibodies against hemagglutinin can prevent influenza A
508.
Each of the following statements concerning the prevention and treatment of influenza is correct
EXCEPT:
A. *As with all live vaccines, the influenza vaccine should not be given to pregnant women
B. Booster doses of the vaccine are recommended because the duration of immunity is only a year
509.
510.
511.
512.
513.
514.
515.
516.
517.
C. Amantadine is an effective prophylactic drug only against influenza A viruses
D. The major antigen in the vaccine is the hemagglutinin
E. Tamiflu is effective drug against influenza A and B viruses
Each of the following statements regarding poliovirus and its vaccine is correct EXCEPT:
A. Poliovirus is transmitted by the fecal-oral route
B. *Pathogenesis by poliovirus primarily involves the death of sensory neurons
C. The live, attenuated vaccine contains all three serotypes of poliovirus
D. An unimmunized adult traveling to underdeveloped countries should receive the inactivated
vaccine
E. Poliovirus early multiplicates in oropharynx and intestinal mucosa
Early methods of diagnosis of Influenza are used for examination of:
A. presence of antibodies
B. toxin production
C. *family and species of viruses
D. increase of antibodies titer in the patient’s serum
E. All answers are correct
Family of Measles virus is:
A. *Paramyxoviridae
B. Flaviviridae
C. Parvoviridae
D. Filoviridae
E. Herpesviridae
Family Picornaviridae includes viruses with following morphology:
A. *naked viruses;
B. enveloped viruses;
C. genome is positive double -stranded RNA;
D. genome is negative single -stranded RNA;
E. virus containing double-stranded DNA.
For cultivating of Influenza viruses virologist utilize the cell cultures. What is continuous cell line?
A. RD
B. Vero
C. Hep-2
D. HeLa
E. *All answers are correct
For establishment of type of virus, which causes of Influenza disease such test is utilized:
A. Agglutination test
B. Indirect haemagglutination test
C. *Hemagglutination inhibition test
D. Haemagglutination test
E. Hemadsorption test
For isolation of neurotropic viruses it is necessary to make _______ inoculation:
A. enteral
B. intravenous
C. *intracerebral
D. intranasal
E. intramuscular
For the indication of Epidemic parotitis viruses in tested material such test may be used:
A. Latex-agglutination test
B. CFT
C. Indirect haemagglutination test
D. Coagglutination test
E. *Inoculation of cell culture
For the indication of Influenza viruses in tested material such test may be used:
A. Latex-agglutination test
B. CFT
C. Coagglutination test
D. *Inoculation of chicken embryos
E. Agglutination test
518.
519.
520.
521.
522.
523.
524.
525.
526.
527.
For the indication of measles viruses in tested material such test may be used:
A. Latex-agglutination test
B. CFT
C. *Hemadsorbtion test
D. Coagglutination test
E. Agglutination test
For the indication of mumps viruses in tested material such test may be used:
A. Latex-agglutination test
B. *Haemagglutination test
C. Ring precipitation test
D. Coagglutination test
E. Agglutination test
For the indication of Parainfluenza viruses in tested material such test may be used:
A. Latex-agglutination test
B. *Haemagglutination test
C. Ring precipitation test
D. Coagglutination test
E. Agglutination test
For the indication of Polioviruses in tested material such test may be used:
A. *Inoculation of laboratory animal
B. CFT
C. IHAT
D. Coagglutination test
E. Agglutination test
For the isolation of Influenza viruses in chicken we can inject the tested material into/on:
A. Chorioallantoic membrane
B. Amniotic cavity
C. Allantoic cavity
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
For which of following diseases we can put diagnosis in prodromal stage?
A. Flu
B. Mumps
C. Parainflluenza
D. *Measles
E. RS-bronchiolitis
Genom of influenza virus A consists of:
A. 2 segments
B. 4 segments
C. 6 segments
D. *8 segments
E. 10 segments
Genom of influenza virus B consists of:
A. 2 segments
B. 4 segments
C. 6 segments
D. *8 segments
E. 10 segments
Genus of Measles virus is:
A. Varicellovirus
B. Simplexvirus
C. Lentivirus
D. Pneumovirus
E. *Morbillivirus
Genus of RS virus is:
A. Varicellovirus
B. Simplexvirus
C. Lentivirus
D. *Pneumovirus
E. Morbillivirus
528.
Given an influenza virus A/Bangkok/1/79/H3N2/, what does 1/79 stand for?
A. The type of influenza virus
B. The location it was originally isolated
C. *The date it was originally isolated (January, 1979)
D. The virulence ration (one person can infect 79 others)
E. The antigen present
529.
Given an influenza virus A/Bangkok/1/79/H3N2/, what does (H3N2) stand for?
A. The type of influenza virus
B. The location it was originally isolated
C. The date it was originally isolated
D. The virulence ration
E. *The antigen present
530.
Hemadsorption test is used in virology of diagnosis of Parainfluenza. It is necessary to have such
ingredients for this test:
A. Antiviral antibodies, cell cultures, red cells
B. Sheep’s red cells, virus, cell cultures
C. Cell cultures, antiviral antibodies, electrolyte
D. *Virus, cell cultures, chicken red cells, electrolyte
E. Red cells, viral diagnosticum, cell cultures
531.
How is influenza transmitted?
A. Aerosols from cold, dry air such as outdoors in the winter
B. *Aerosols from person-to-person such as from coughiting
C. Fecal-oral such as from a cook that does not wash their hands
D. Vector-borne such as from lice
E. Water –borne such as from drinking contaminated fluids
532.
How many segments of RNA has influenza virus A:
A. 2 segments
B. 4 segments
C. 6 segments
D. *8 segments
E. 10 segments
533.
Identify the true statement cited below concerning the Sabin (live) polio vaccine.
A. Infectious progeny virus cannot be disseminated from the vaccinated individual.
B. *The vaccine confers humoral and intestinal immunity.
C. Induction of lifelong immunity is not possible.
D. It can be given to immunodeficient individuals without reservation.
E. It is administered parenterally.
534.
Immunization of an infant with this vaccine causes shedding of vaccine strain virus in stool
A. *Sabin vaccine
B. Salk vaccine
C. Both
D. Neither
E. Subunity vaccine
535.
Immunologic tests, which need the presence of antibodies, are utilized in virology for:
A. Examination of antibodies titer in paired patient’s sera
B. Examination of unknown viruses
C. Examination of antiviral antibodies
D. Identification of virus
E. *All answers are correct
536.
In a sick woman the doctor suspected measles. What family does Measles virus belong to?
A. *Paramyxoviridae
B. Orthomyxoviridae
C. Rhabdoviridae
D. Picornaviridae
E. No correct answer
537.
In the cell culture there may be cytopathic effect under the influence of Parainfluenza viruses.
Show such effect:
A. *Syncitium formation
B. Protoplasts formation
C. Heteroplasts formation
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
538.
Infection by these viruses is preventable with a licensed vaccine
A. Coxsackievirus A
B. Coxsackievirus B
C. Enterovirus 72
D. *Poliovirus
E. Rhinovirus
539.
Influenza viruses are predominantly transmitted by:
A. The aerosol route during the summer
B. Close physical contact during the summer
C. The fecal-oral route during the winter
D. *The aerosol route and close physical contact during the winter
E. The fecal-oral route during the spring and summer
540.
Influenza viruses:
A. *Have a helical nucleocapsid with a core of single-stranded RNA
B. Lack a lipid envelope
C. Have an icosahedral nucleocapsid with a core of double-stranded DNA
D. Have an icosahedral nucleocapsid with a core of double-stranded RNA
E. Have a helical nucleocapsid with a core of single-stranded DNA
541.
Last year’s influenza A vaccine is unlikely to be effective today because influenza A virus
A. *Undergoes genetic variation
B. Has a heavy polysaccharide coat
C. Immunosuppresses the host
D. Kills lymphocytes
E. Resists inactivation by complement
542.
Match Measles, Mumps, and Rubella with the vaccine types licensed and available for prevention
of the disease:
A. killed virus vaccine (but not a subunit vaccine)
B. killed virus vaccine (but not a subunit vaccine) AND live virus vaccines
C. viral subunit vaccine
D. *live virus vaccine
E. no virus vaccine is licensed and available
543.
Measles virus. All are correct, except
A. Infection may result in pneumonia
B. Infection may result in encephalitis
C. *Undergo antigenic drift
D. Koplik’s spots present on oral mucose
E. May be prevented by vaccination
544.
Paralytic disease is a risk factor when using this vaccine
A. *Sabin vaccine
B. Salk vaccine
C. Both
D. Neither
E. Subunity vaccine
545.
Polymerases are encoded on the genomes of:
A. All viruses
B. All DNA viruses
C. *All RNA viruses
D. Only the largest viruses (ex. Herpesviruses, Paramyxoviruses, Rhabdoviruses, and Poxviruses)
E. No viruses, because viruses do not encode polymerases
546.
Polyoviruses have a (an)
A. is icosahedral and contains double-stranded RNA
B. bullet-shaped and contains RNA
C. has a lipid envelope and contains double-stranded DNA
D. is icosahedral and contains single-stranded DNA
E. *is icosahedral and contains single-stranded RNA
547.
RS virus causes:
A. destruction of tissue culture
B. *formation of syncytio in tissue cultures
C. death of chicken embryo
D. hemagglutination of red cells
E. hemolysis.
548.
Select the correct answer:
A. *The Sabin vaccine is administered orally
B. The Salk vaccine consist of live attenuated poliovirus strains
C. The Sabin vaccine consist of killed poliovirus strains
D. The Salk vaccine can stimulate production of intestinal secretory antibodies
E. The Sabin vaccine consist of one type of the polioviruses
549.
Show the components of haemadsorption test of diagnosis of Parainfluenza:
A. Serum of patient, sheep’s red cells, electrolyte
B. *Viral material, tissue culture, chicken red cells, electrolyte
C. Specific antibodies, viral material, cell cultures, electrolyte
D. Viral material, chicken red cells, electrolyte
E. Cell cultures, sheep’s red cells, patient’s serum, electrolyte
550.
Show the viruses, which are susceptible to low concentration of hydrogen ions (acidic рН)?
A. *Rhinoviruses
B. Hepatitis A viruses
C. Polioviruses
D. ECHO viruses
E. Coxsackie viruses
551.
Specify inside following drugs, which can ihibit all types and subtypes of influenza viruses
A. Amantadin
B. Remantadin
C. Riboverin
D. *Tamiflu
E. Acyclovir
552.
Specify the source of formation of Hep-2 cell culture:
A. Carcinoma of oral cavity
B. *Carcinoma of human larynx
C. Carcinoma of the neck of the uterus
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
E. Myelogenic cells
553.
The _____ of the influenza-enveloped virus appear to be involved in attachment to the host cell
receptor site.
A. Pili
B. Fimbriae
C. Flagellae
D. *Hemagluttinin
E. Neuraminidase
554.
The antibody induced by which ot the following parts of the influenza virus is most protective?
A. envelope
B. neuraminidase
C. *hemagglutinin
D. nucleic acid
E. internal protein
555.
The antiviral used for treatment of severe respiratory syncytial disease (RSV) infection is:
A. amantadine
B. acyclovir
C. *ribavirin
D. immune globulin
E. AZT
The best drug for therapy influenza is:
A. *Tamiflu
B. Interferon alpha
C. Imipenem
D. Amantadine
E. Acyclovir
557.
The chicken embryos are most frequently utilized for cultivation of viruses. Show the age of such
ones:
A. 1-7 days
B. *5-14 days
C. 5-6 weeks
D. 7-8 weeks
E. 9-10 days
558.
The enzyme that enhances the respiratory penetration on the orthomyxovirus is:
A. *hemagglutinin
B. hemolysin
C. lipoprotein
D. neuraminidase
E. hyaluronidase
559.
The following characterizes the genome of the orthomyxoviruses:
A. Nonsegmented RNA genome
B. *Segmented RNA genome
C. Nonsegmented DNA genome
D. Segmented DNA genome
E. Supercoiled double stranded DNA genome
560.
The following is true of influenza viruses:
A. Both influenza A and B viruses have antigenic shift and drift
B. Neither influenza A nor B viruses have antigenic shift or drift
C. Influenza A and B viruses have antigenic shift; only influenza A has antigenic drift
D. Influenza A and B viruses have antigenic drift; only influenza B has antigenic shift
E. *Influenza A and B viruses have antigenic drift; only influenza A has antigenic shift
561.
The most practical test for the diagnosis of influenza A virus
A. *hemagglutination inhibition test
B. demonstration of the virus in urine
C. demonstration of virus in sputum by electron microscopy
D. demonstration of antibodies to viral neuraminidase
E. detection of viral antigens in spinal fluid
562.
The nucleoprotein of the orthomyxoviruses is responsible for assignment of
A. *Type classification
B. Subtype classification
C. Hemagglutinin classification
D. Neuraminidase classification
E. RNA polymerase classification
563.
The nucleoprotein of the orthomyxoviruses is responsible for assignment of:
A. *Type classification
B. Subtype classification
C. Hemagglutinin classification
D. Neuraminidase classification
E. RNA polymerase classification
564.
The periodic occurrence of influenza pandemics is attributable to:
A. *The ineffectiveness of antibodies against one viral subtype to protect against new subtypes
B. The long time it takes for the virus to spread around the word and return to its starting point
C. A periodic change in the host for the virus
D. The tendency of the virus to attack only elderly people
E. The periodic disappearance of the virus for years at a time.
565.
The principal reservoir for the antigenic shift variants of influenza virus appears to be
A. Birds and insecta
556.
566.
567.
568.
569.
570.
571.
572.
573.
574.
B. People in isolated communities such as the Arctic
C. Soil, especially in the tropics
D. Sewage
E. *Animals, specifically pigs, horses, and fowl
The prophylaxis of mumps is conducted by:
A. *live vaccine
B. immunoglobulin
C. toxoid
D. the killed vaccine
E. antitoxic serum.
The role of the 'early genes' of a mammalian virus?
A. Initiation and regulation of virus replication
B. Maintenance of the virus outside the cell
C. Coding for the structural proteins of the virus
D. Determining the group specific antigens of the virus
E. Coding for the lipid components of the viral envelope
The smallest known viruses are the:
A. *Picornavirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Enterovirus
D. Orthomyxovirus
E. Paramyxovirus
The vaccine for influenza has the following components:
A. *Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza A and B
B. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza A,B, and C
C. Nucleoprotein and neuraminidase of influenza A,B, and C
D. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza B only
E. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza B and C
The vaccine for influenza has the following components:
A. *Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza A and B
B. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza A,B, and C
C. Nucleoprotein and neuraminidase of influenza A,B, and C
D. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza B only
E. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza B and C
The vaccine for measles is best characterized as a
A. Bacterin
B. Killed virus vaccine
C. Inactivated virus vaccine
D. *Live virus vaccine
E. Recombinant viral vaccine
The virus that caused the swelling of the parotid glands of the boy contains
A. reverse transcriptase
B. DNA polymerase
C. *neuraminidase
D. pyrophosphatase
E. phosphorylase
Therapy of Influenza virus is:
A. Cefotaxime
B. Interferon alpha
C. Imipenem
D. *Amantadine
E. Acyclovir
There are such serologic (late) methods of laboratory diagnosis of Influenza:
A. *Complement fixation test with paired sera
B. Neutralization test, color test
C. Haemagglutination test with paired sera
D. Hemadsorption test
E. Indirect haemagglutination test, haemagglutination inhibition test
575.
There are such viruses, which are included into Picornaviridae:
A. *Polioviruses
B. Parainfluenza viruses
C. Rubella viruses
D. Hepatitis C
E. Sindbis virus
576.
There may be such way/s of laboratory animal inoculation for isolation of viruses:
A. enteric
B. intravenously
C. intracerebral
D. intranasal
E. *All answers are correct
577.
This vaccines are available, and used, in the most countries for prevention of poliomyelitis.
A. Sabin vaccine
B. Salk vaccine
C. *Sabin and Salk vaccines
D. Subunity vaccine
E. Neither
578.
Under the bentonit coverage there may be such phenomenon in consequence of viral action of
Polyoviruses:
A. *Plaques formation
B. Ring formation
C. Cluster formation
D. Haemagglutination
E. All answers are correct
579.
We can make identification of unknown Polioviruses when we use:
A. *neutralization test
B. haemadsorption test
C. haemagglutination test
D. agglutination test
E. No correct answer
580.
We can use virologic (early) methods of diagnosis of Influenza for examination of:
A. *presence of viruses
B. a presence of antibodies against the viruses
C. increase of antibodies titer in patients serum
D. presence of viral toxins
E. All answers are correct
581.
What characteristic is shared by the Salk and the Sabin vaccines?
A. Both are attenuated, active vaccines.
B. *Both are composed of virus serotypes 1, 2, and 3.
C. Both are administered by injection.
D. Both are capable of reversion to virulence
E. Both are shed in the feces of vaccinees.
582.
What is cytopathic action of Influenza viruses?
A. The changes of biological properties of viruses after their penetration in a cell.
B. *Any degenerative changes of cells under the influence of viruses.
C. The changes of biological properties of viruses after their release from a cell.
D. Formation of multinuclear cells as a result of viral penetration.
E. Formation of intranuclear or intracytoplasm bodies in the cell after viral penetration.
583.
What is cytopathic action of mumps viruses?
A. The changes of biological properties of viruses after their penetration in a cell.
B. Any degenerative changes of cells under the influence of viruses.
C. The changes of biological properties of viruses after their release from a cell.
D. *Formation of multinuclear cells as a result of viral penetration.
E. Formation of intranuclear or intracytoplasm bodies in the cell after viral penetration.
584.
What is productive type of viral infection?
A. Integration of viruses into cell genome.
B. *Reproduction of viruses in a cell with formation of new generation of virulent viruses.
C. A blockade of reproduction of viruses in a cell.
D. Ability of viruses to attach to the cell surface.
E. Features of reproduction of viral nucleic acids.
585.
What is the function of “F” viral protein of Parainfluenza viruses?
A. *Provides fusion of viral shell with the cell.
B. Provides replication of DNA.
C. Provides replication of RNA.
D. Provides the release of viruses from a cell.
E. Provides translation.
586.
What is the origin of HeLa cell culture?
A. Carcinoma of oral cavity
B. Carcinoma of human larynx
C. *Carcinoma of the neck of the uterus
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
E. Myelogenic cells
587.
What structure of the influenza-enveloped virus appear to be involved in attachment to the host cell
receptor site.
A. Pili
B. Fimbriae
C. Flagellae
D. *Hemagluttinin
E. Neuraminidase
588.
What viruses are a spherical shape?
A. *Epidemic parotitis virus
B. Tobacco mosaic disease viruses
C. Herpes virus
D. Adenovirus
E. Hepatitis C virus
589.
What viruses do cause haemagglutination of red cells?
A. Influenza viruses
B. Epidemic parotitis viruses
C. Parainfluenza viruses
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
590.
What viruses do have haemagglutinin and neuramonidase?
A. *Influenza viruses
B. Polioviruses
C. Human immunodeficiency viruses
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
591.
Which influenza virus has caused pandemi in 1916-1919 years
A. Influenza B virus
B. *H1 N1 virus
C. H2 N2 virus
D. H3 N2 virus
E. Influenza C virus
592.
Which of the following has been associated with hepatitits?
A. Coxsackievirus A
B. Coxsackievirus B
C. *Enterovirus 72
D. Poliovirus
E. Rhinovirus
593.
Which of the following infects oropharynx, but not the intestine because the virus is sensitive to
low pH?
A. Coxsackievirus A
B. Coxsackievirus B
C. Enterovirus 72
D. Poliovirus
E. *Rhinovirus
Which of the following is known to exist in only one major antigenic type EXCEPT:
A. Measles
B. Rubella
C. Mumps
D. Rabies
E. *Influenza A
595.
Which of the following is not true for influenza viruses?
A. Enveope contains hemagglutinins
B. Enveope contains neuraminidase
C. Enveope lined with two M proteins
D. Capsid symmetry is pleomorphic (spherical or tubular)
E. *Influenza A,B and C have 8 genomic segments
596.
Which of the following is the least likely clinical syndrome associated with influenza viral
infection?
A. “Seal bark” cough in children (croup)
B. Fever persisting for 3-8 days
C. *Otitis media in children
D. Malaise, headache, and myalgia
E. Secondary bacterial pneumonia
597.
Which of the following is true concerning a RS-viruses?
A. The genome is segmented
B. Neuraminidase and hemagglutinin are envelope proteins
C. *It has fussion protein
D. RS-virus is resistent to ether
E. RS-virus causes water diarrhoea
598.
Which of the following is true concerning the orthomyxoviruses?
A. Influenza A, B, and C cause epidemics
B. Neuraminidase and hemagglutinin are nucleocapsid proteins
C. *The genome is segmented, composed of eight RNA units
D. The matrix protein is important for vaccine inclusion
E. Dogs are a reservoir of influenza hemagglutinin and neuraminidase subtypes
599.
Which of the following is true for influenza viruses?
A. Double-stranded DNA
B. Double-stranded RNA
C. Single-stranded positive sense RNA
D. *Single-stranded negative sense RNA
E. Not a DNA or RNA virus
600.
Which of the following is true regarding the drugs amantadine and rimantadine?
A. *Inhibit an uncoating step of the influenza A virus but do not affect influenza B and C viruses
B. Inhibit influenza A as enzyme inhibitors of neuraminidase, preventing virus release but does not
affect influenza B and C viruses
C. Inhibit both influenza A and B as enzymes inhibitors of neuraminidase, preventing virus release.
D. Inhibit an uncoating step both influenza A and B viruses but do not affect the influenza B and C
viruses
E. Inhibit an uncoating step only influenza C viruses
601.
Which of the following is true regarding the drugs zanamivir and oseltmivir?
A. Inhibit an uncoating step of the influenza A virus but do not affect influenza B and C viruses
B. Inhibit influenza A as enzyme inhibitors of neuraminidase, preventing virus release but does not
affect influenza B and C viruses
C. *Inhibit both influenza A and B as enzymes inhibitors of neuraminidase, preventing virus release.
D. Inhibit an uncoating step both influenza A and B viruses but do not affect the influenza B and C
viruses
E. Inhibit an uncoating step only influenza C viruses
602.
Which of the following is/are continuous cell line/s?
A. HeLa.
B. HEp-2.
C. KB.
594.
D. Detroit 5
E. *All of the above
603.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the envelope constituents of the
parainfluenza and mumps viruses?
A. Hemagglutinin, but no neuraminidase or fusion proteins present
B. Neuraminidase, but no hemagglutinin protein present
C. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase, but no fusion protein present
D. *Hemagglutinin, neuraminidase and fusion proteins present
E. Fusion protein, but no hemagglutinin or neuraminidase present
604.
Which of the following viruses can incorporate the molecule serving as mRNA into its capsid?
A. herpesvirus
B. rhabdovirus
C. poxvirus
D. *picornavirus
E. measles
605.
Which of the following viruses is classified as a paramyxovirus?
A. poliovirus
B. *measles virus
C. ECHO virus
D. influenza A virus
E. influenza B virus
606.
Which of the following viruses is classified as an orthomyxovirus?
A. mumps virus
B. measles virus
C. RSV
D. parainfluenza virus
E. *influenza B virus
607.
Which of the following viruses makes mRNA from an RNA template?
A. poxvirus
B. retrovirus
C. *picornavirus
D. herpesvirus
E. adenovirus
608.
Which one of the following statements concerning poliovirus infection is CORRECT?
A. Congenital infection of the fetus is an important complication
B. *The virus replicates extensively in the gastrointestinal tract
C. A skin test is available to determine prior exposure to the virus
D. Amantadine is an effective preventive agent
E. Polioviruses are transmited by vector (ticks)
609.
Which one of the following strategies is MOST likely to induce lasting intestinal mucosal
immunity to poliovirus?
A. Parenteral (intramuscular) vaccination with inactivated vaccine
B. Oral administration of poliovirus immune globulin
C. Parenteral vaccination with live vaccine
D. *Oral vaccination with live vaccine
E. Oral administration only one serotype of inactivated poliovirus
610.
Which proteins of influenza viruses are included in vaccine preparations?
A. Neuraminidase
B. Neuraminidase and fusion proteins
C. Hemagglutinin
D. *Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
E. Hemagglutinin, neuraminidase and fusion proteins
611.
Which test can we use for detect type of infiuenza virus?
A. Hemagglutination
B. Hemagglutination ihibition
C. Neutralisation
D. *Complement fixation
E. ELISA
612.
Which virus has a naked nucleocapsid?
A. herpesvirus
B. mumps
C. influenza
D. chicken pox
E. *picornavirus
613.
A basic factor of transmission of hepatitis G:
A. saliva
B. sperm
C. *blood
D. drugs
E. vaginal secret
614.
A Dane’s particle is virus with such property:
A. *DNA-containing
B. RNA-containing
C. naked
D. defective
E. has haemagglutinin
615.
A doctor suspected AIDS in patient D. with generalized lymphadenopathy, loss of weight, and
subfebrile temperature. What is a causative agent of AIDS?
A. Human T-Lymphotropic virus-I;
B. Human T-Lymphotropic virus-II;
C. Human polyovirus;
D. *Human immunodificiency virus;
E. Lymphotropic choriomeningitis virus.
616.
A HIV can infect:
A. CD4+ Т lymphocytes.
B. Monocytes.
C. Cells of microglia.
D. *Correct all.
E. Does not infect the cells of immune system.
617.
A HIV is cultivated in vitro:
A. in chicken embryos
B. in the suckling mice
C. in CD8+-cells
D. *in CD4+-cells
E. not cultivated
618.
A main way of transmission for hepatitis D:
A. blood transfusion
B. *injection
C. sexual
D. during pregnancy
E. intravenous injection of drugs
619.
A multinucleate giant cell formed as a result of cell fusion is called a:
A. sincitium
B. sincity
C. sinecytium
D. *syncytium
E. synsytium
620.
A receptor of HIV, which provides co-operating with cell-target:
A. р17
B. р7
C. *gр120
D. р24
E. р9
621.
A sick man of 20 years old has jaundice of the skin and sclerotic coats of the eyes, acholic feces
complaints about jaundice of skin and sclera, acholic stool, dull abdominal pain in liver region. He might
be infected by:
A. Bite of insects
B. Bite of mice
C. Bite of dogs
D. *Food stuffs
E. Sterile syringes
622.
About 5% of adults secrete this virus in urine:
A. *CMV
B. EBV
C. HSV-2
D. HHV-6
E. VZV
623.
Aciclovir is used against:
A. hepatitis B virus
B. hepatitis C virus
C. *herpesviruses
D. influenza virus
E. mumps virus
624.
Active specific prophylaxis of hepatitis A:
A. *killed vaccines (Havrix et al/)
B. personal and public hygiene
C. donor’s immunoglobulin
D. current and final disinfection
E. improvement of sanitary-hygienic condition of life
625.
Adenoviruses are released from the cell by
A. *lyses
B. budding
C. secretion
D. adsorption
E. releasing
626.
After examination of sick person a doctor made diagnosis of hepatitis D. What result of laboratory
investigation can confirm this diagnosis?
A. *Determination of markers of hepatitis B and D in blood
B. Determination of markers of hepatitis A and B in blood
C. Determination of markers of hepatitis Е and D in blood
D. Determination of markers of hepatitis С and D in blood
E. Determination of markers of hepatitis G and D in blood
627.
After-infection immunity of Hepatitis A virus is:
A. No protection
B. *Complete protection
C. Protection against symptomatic disease
D. Protective against severe disease
E. Near complete protection
628.
AIDS is characterized by next correlation of CD4+Т lymphocytes/ CD8+Т lymphocytes:
A. 1,9
B. 2,4
C. 1,8
D. 2,3
E. *0,2
629.
AIDS-indicative illness. Correct all, except:
A. Pneumocystis pneumonia
B. histoplasmosis
C. coccidioidosis
D. toxoplasmosis
E. *hepatitis B
630.
All are characteristically for the hepatitis A virus, except:
A. Hepatrotropism
B. Presence the only serovar
C. *Polytropism
631.
632.
633.
634.
635.
636.
637.
638.
639.
640.
D. High immunogenicity
E. Cultivation in vitro
All are correct for hepatitis Е, except:
A. a source of infection is patients
B. *a source of infection is patients and viral carriers
C. transfers, mainly, through the water
D. adults are ill more frequent
E. a risk group is pregnant persons
All are typical for pathogenesis of hepatitis B, except:
A. *extrahepatic replication of virus
B. direct CPE of virus on a hepatocyte
C. virogeny
D. immunopathological character of hepatocyte damage
E. vermeil
All features of HIV are correct, except for:
A. *it needs a virus-helper
B. it has tropism to CD4+-cells
C. presence of reverse transcriptase
D. conical or cylinder pear-shaped core /nucleocapsid
E. high antigen changeability
All of the viruses have an envelope, except:
A. *Virus of hepatitis A.
B. Virus of hepatitis B.
C. Virus of hepatitis С.
D. Virus of hepatitis D.
E. All of viruses are naked
All viruses are RNA-containing, except:
A. Virus of hepatitis A.
B. *Virus of hepatitis B.
C. Virus of hepatitis E .
D. Virus of hepatitis G .
E. None of them
Antigens of HIV. Correct all, except:
A. р 17
B. р 24
C. *CD 4+
D. gр 120
E. gр 41
Antigens of hepatitis B virus (correct all, except):
A. HBx- Ag
B. *HD-core-Ag
C. HBs-Ag
D. HBc-Ag
E. HBe-Ag
Approximately 5% of adults secrete this in saliva and urine:
A. HSV-2
B. *CMV
C. VZV
D. EBV
E. HHV-6
At which specimen we can indicate herpes zoster virus ?
A. blood
B. saliva.
C. spinal fluid.
D. swab from ulcer bed.
E. *vesicle fluid.
Azidotimidin is:
A. *Dideoxinucleoside analogue.
B. Non-nucleoside inhibitor.
C. inhibitor of protease.
D. inhibitor of integrase.
E. Stimulator of synthesis of anti-viral protein.
641.
Basis of laboratory diagnostics of HIV-infection is:
A. isolation of virus in vitro
B. *examination of antibodies
C. examination of RNA of virus
D. examination of delayed allergic reaction
E. examination of antigens of virus
642.
Causative agents of hepatitis D (delta-virus) is defective virus, which can replicate only in cells,
which are already infected one of viruses. Show this virus?
A. HIV.
B. HAV.
C. HEV.
D. Epstein-Barr virus.
E. *HBV.
643.
Cell-target for HIV. Correct all, except:
A. CD4+ T-cell
B. *CD8+ T-cell
C. monocytes / macrophages
D. CNS cells
E. Cells of rectum mucus
644.
Cell-targets for HIV (correct all, except):
A. CD4+ T-cell
B. *CD8+ T-cell
C. monocytes / macrophages
D. glial cells
E. Langengarce’s cells
645.
Choose among following diseases associated with Epstein-Barr virus:
A. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
B. T-cell leukemia
C. *Infectious mononucleosis
D. herpes zoster
E. all of the above
646.
Choose among listed a common feature of infection caused by cytomegalovirus?
A. Chronic progressive tissue damage for many years
B. Dissemination to many body sites, including trans-placental passage
C. Rapid progression to encephalitis and death
D. *Severe vesiculation of epithelium and mucous membranes
E. Spontaneous recovery with life-long latency
647.
Choose among listed the primary means of spread of varicella zoster virus:
A. direct contact with lesions
B. direct contact with sick child
C. fecal-oral route
D. *respiratory droplets
E. saliva
648.
Classification is HIV (correct all, except):
A. Retroviridae
B. *subfamily Oncovirinae
C. subfamily Lentivirinae
D. species HIV
E. species HIV-2
649.
Classification of hepatitis D viruses:
A. *Non-classified
B. Caliciviridae, Hepacivirus genus
C. Picornaviridae, Hepatovirus genus
D. Picornaviridae, Enterovirus genus
650.
651.
652.
653.
654.
655.
656.
657.
658.
659.
E. Togaviridae, Deltavirus genus
Classification of hepatitis virus B:
A. Picornaviridae, Enterovirus genus
B. *Hepadnaviridae, Orthohepadnavirus genus
C. Picornaviridae, Hepatovirus genus
D. Non-classified
E. Togaviridae, Deltavirus genus
Classification of virus of hepatitis A:
A. Hepadnaviridae, Orthohepadvirus genus
B. *Picornaviridae, Hepatovirus genus
C. Picornaviridae, Enterovirus 68
D. Togaviridae, Deltavirus genus
E. Caliciviridae, Hepacivirus genus
Classification of virus of hepatitis of G:
A. Hepadnaviridae, Orthohepadnavirus genus
B. Flaviviridae, Flavivirus genus
C. Togaviridae, Deltavirus genus
D. *Flaviviridae, Hepacivirus genus
E. Picornaviridae, Hepatovirus genus
Concerning what subpopulation of lymphocytes does HIV have a tropism?
A. *Т-helpers
B. T-suppressors
C. T-killers
D. B-lymphocytes
E. NK-cells
Core HIV contains all, except for:
A. protein р17
B. two strands of +RNA
C. protein р7, р9
D. reverse transcriptase
E. *gp 120
Correct all according to hepatitis A virus, except:
A. *bilirubin
B. anti-HAV
C. proper IgM, IgG
D. HAV-Ag
E. Viral RNA
Cultivation of hepatitis A virus in vitro:
A. *diploid cells of human MRS-5
B. rabbit
C. suckling mice
D. not cultivated
E. liver meat peptone broth
Diagnostic test of Hepatitis B virus is:
A. Direct antibody staining
B. *Antibody detection
C. PCR
D. Culture
E. Weil-Felix reaction
Discoverers of HIV:
A. Myullis Keri. (1983)
B. *R. Gallo, L. Montangue (1983)
C. M. Rizetto (1977)
D. Z. Feystoun (1973)
E. M. S. Balayan (1983)
Epidemiology of hepatitis Е is similar to:
A. *hepatitis A.
B. hepatitis B.
660.
661.
662.
663.
664.
665.
666.
667.
668.
669.
C. hepatitis С.
D. hepatitis D.
E. hepatitis G
Exanthem subitum (roseola) is caused by:
A. *human herpes virus 6
B. human herpes virus 7
C. measles virus
D. varicella zoster virus
E. cytomegalovirus
Factors of transmission of HIV. Correct all, except:
A. vaginal secret
B. *tears
C. blood
D. sperm
E. breast milk
Family of Hepatitis C virus is:
A. Paramyxoviridae
B. Filoviridae
C. Adenoviridae
D. *Flaviviridae
E. Arenaviridae
Family of Kaposi sarcoma herpes virus is:
A. Caliciviridae
B. Picornaviridae
C. *Herpesviridae
D. Retroviridae
E. Filoviridae
Feature of hepatitis C virus:
A. *has RNA
B. does not have envelope
C. has tegument
D. has a spiral type of symmetry
E. defective
Feature of hepatitis C viruses:
A. *RNA
B. Has HBs-Ag
C. naked
D. has helical symmetry
E. helper of hepatitis D viruses
Feature of pathogenesis of hepatitis D:
A. formation of immunity when there is monoinfection
B. polyorganotropism
C. extrahepatic reproduction of virus
D. *damage of hepatocytes by the hepatotropic viruses D and B
E. damage of hepatocytes by the hepatotropic viruses D and С
Features of hepatitis A pathogenesis:
A. *direct CPE of virus according to hepatocyte
B. formation of viral carriage
C. formation of chronic of disease
D. permanent viremia
E. virogeny
Features of hepatitis B pathogenesis (correct all, except):
A. antigen modification of CPM of hepatocytes by viral proteins
B. *damage of CD4+ cells by virus
C. autoimmune process
D. formation of chronic disease
E. suppression of immunity (HBe-Ag)
Features of hepatitis B virus (correct all, except):
A. do not need a helper virus
B. defective DNA
C. virogeny
D. *extrahepatic replication
E. thermoresistance
670.
Features of hepatitis C pathogenesis (correct all, except):
A. direct CPE concerning hepatocytes
B. *virogeny
C. persistent infection
D. mainly chronic disease
E. high probability of complications: cirrhosis and liver carcinoma
671.
Features of hepatitis D virus. Correct all, except:
A. defective virus
B. inability to cause a monoinfection
C. reproduction in the presence of HBV
D. *reproduction in the presence of HCV
E. HBS-Ag is envelope of HDV
672.
Features of pathogenesis of HIV-infection (correct all, except):
A. Prolonged persistence of virus
B. *Oncogenic transformation of cells
C. diminishing amount of CD4+-cells
D. severe second immunodeficiency
E. development of opportunistic infections
673.
For laboratory diagnosis HIV-infection such tests are utilized, except:
A. examination of virus specific antibodies
B. examination of virus specific antigens
C. examination of viral RNA
D. isolation of virus in vitro
E. *skin-allergic test with HIV antigen
674.
For laboratory diagnosis of hepatitis Е such methods are utilized:
A. cellular cultures
B. laboratory animals
C. skin-allergic tests
D. *ELISA, Chain polymerase test
E. Agglutination test, CFT
675.
For laboratory diagnostics of hepatitis B such tests are utilized, except:
A. examination of viral HBcAg
B. examination of viral HBsAg
C. examination of specific antibodies
D. *examination of HBxAg
E. examination viral DNA (Chain polymerase reaction)
676.
For specific prophylaxis of viral hepatitis B a vaccination is widely used today. What method is
utilized for obtaining this vaccine?
A. From virus of hepatitis B. killed with formalin
B. *By gene engineering methods.
C. From the sheep’s liver, infected with hepatitis B virus.
D. From HBs-Ag, obtained from blood HBV carriers.
E. From HBV, cultivated in the cell culture.
677.
For studying y of immune status in patients with AIDS it is necessary to examine the level of Тhelpers. What test may be used?
A. *Immunofluorescence test with the labeled monoclonal antibodies
B. Rosette-formation test with sheep’s red cells
C. Rosette-formation test with red cells bound with C3 faction of complement
D. Rosette-formation test with red cells bound with IgG
E. Immunofluorescence test with antilymphocytes immunoglobulins
678.
For treatment of hepatitis B is utilized:
A. antibiotics
B. interferon
679.
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681.
682.
683.
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685.
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688.
C. recombinant vaccines
D. autovaccines
E. *immunoglobulin
For what viral infection there is may be chronic carriage?
A. hepatitis B.
B. hepatitis C.
C. hepatitis D.
D. *Correct all.
E. There is no correct answer.
For which of the following viruses is the presence of heterophile antibody diagnostic?
A. *EBV
B. CMV
C. HSV-1
D. HHV-7
E. varicella zoster virus
From the early days of the epidemic there have been:
A. scare stories.
B. misreporting.
C. panic reactions.
D. discriminatory policies.
E. *all of the above.
From the infected mother to the child HIV is transferred (correct all, except):
A. during intrauterine period of development
B. during delivery
C. through breast milk
D. *through dirty hands
E. during blood transfusion
Genome of which virus is represented in this figure? (7)
A. *HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HDV
E. HEV
Genome of which virus is represented in this figure? (5)
A. HAV
B. *HBV
C. HCV
D. HDV
E. HEV
Genus of Human immunodeficiency virus is:
A. Pneumovirus
B. *Lentivirus
C. Simplexvirus
D. Varicellovirus
E. Rubulavirus
Give the most exact characteristics of hepatitis E virus:
A. “-“RNA
B. *“+” RNA
C. DNA
D. spiral type of symmetry
E. complex virus
Hepatitis A Virus (correct all, except):
A. resistant in environment
B. is inactivated in a stomach
C. resistant against chlorine
D. resistant to рН 3-10
E. *relatively heat-resistant
Hepatitis A virus has all properties, except:
A. hepatotropism
B. naked
C. little
D. *DNA-containing
E. RNA-containing
689.
Hepatitis A Virus:
A. has DNA
B. complex
C. has –RNA
D. has a spiral type of symmetry
E. *has +RNA
690.
Hepatitis A was diagnosed in patient M. What tested material is it necessary to send to the
laboratory for serum diagnosis?
A. feces
B. urine
C. blood
D. *blood serum
E. bile
691.
Hepatitis of D develops as a result:
A. monoinfections of HDV
B. simultaneous infection with HGV (coinfection)
C. simultaneous infection with HCV (coinfection)
D. infection by HDV a patient with acute hepatitis A (superinfection)
E. *infection by HDV a patient with chronic hepatitis B (superinfection)
692.
Hepatitis Е (correct all, except for):
A. it is rarely in Europe
B. adults are mainly ill
C. *ubiquities infection
D. a hyperendemic infection for territories of tropical and subtropical zones
E. a risk group – pregnant women
693.
Hepatitis Е in pregnant women:
A. *especially dangerous at the beginning of pregnancy
B. especially dangerous in the late term of pregnancy
C. does not influence on pregnancy
D. has chronic character
E. self-limiting infection
694.
High probability of transmission of HBV during pregnancy certify:
A. HBs-Ag and anti-HBc
B. anti-HBs and anti-HBcs
C. *HBsAg and HBeAg
D. anti-HBs
E. anti-HBc and anti-HBe
695.
HIV belongs to Retroviridae family. What subfamily does this virus belong to?
A. Oncovirinae.
B. *Lentivirinae.
C. Spumavirinae.
D. Hepatovirinae.
E. No correct answer.
696.
HIV can infect:
A. CD8-lymphocytes.
B. T- killers.
C. *CD4-lymphocytes.
D. Macrophages.
E. Neutrophils.
697.
HIV has an enzyme:
A. *revertase
B. deoxiribonuclease
C. transferase
698.
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700.
701.
702.
703.
704.
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706.
707.
D. RNA-polymerase
E. DNA-polymerase
HIV infection of cell-target includes all, except:
A. receptor endocytosis
B. synthesis of proviral RNA
C. integrations of viral RNA into cell genome
D. formation of provirus
E. *transcriptions of proviral DNA with formation of RNA
HIV/AIDS can be prevented through:
A. the use of good quality condom in every sexual intercourse
B. the use of protective gloves when handling blood or body fluids
C. use of uncontaminated skin-piercing equipment
D. following “Universal Precautions” when handling blood
E. *all of the above
HIV/AIDS is not transmitted by:
A. blood transfusions
B. organ or tissue transplant
C. use of contaminated injection
D. *sharing toilets or wasting facilities
E. homosexual unprotected sexual intercourse
HIV/AIDS is transmitted by:
A. kissing
B. hugging
C. shaking hands
D. mosquito or insect bites
E. *unprotected sexual intercourse
HIV/AIDS is:
A. creating orphans.
B. leading to increased child labour.
C. increasing drop out of schools.
D. reducing populations.
E. *all of the above.
How are the herpes viruses classified?
A. Single stranded DNA, non enveloped
B. *Double stranded DNA, enveloped
C. Positive stranded RNA, enveloped
D. Positive stranded RNA, non enveloped
E. Double stranded DNA, non enveloped
How many serotypes does Hepatovirus genus include?
A. *One.
B. Two.
C. Five.
D. Seven.
E. Thirteen
How many hexons has herpes virus?
A. 120
B. 130
C. 140
D. *150
E. 160
How many pentons has herpes virus?
A. 6
B. *12
C. 24
D. 36
E. 48
HSV and varicella-zoster virus initiate latent infections in:
A. endothelial cells
B. epithelial cells
C. lymphocytes
D. *neurones
E. lymphocytes
708.
Human immunodeficiency virus. Correct all, except:
A. RNA-containing
B. *DNA-containing
C. enveloped
D. has gp 160
E. has reverse transcriptase
709.
In addition to acute respiratory diseases, adenoviruses also cause:
A. Tumors in humans
B. *Acute diarrhea in children
C. Diabetes
D. Otitis media
E. Gastric ulcers
710.
In an infectious department patient F., stomatologist, with liver damages was admitted. What
methods of laboratory diagnosis must be appointed for diagnosis of viral hepatitis B?
A. *Examination of НВs-Ag in the blood serum.
B. Virologic examination of feces.
C. Virologic examination of urine.
D. Determination of functional tests of liver (bilirubin, cholesterol of blood).
E. Examination of enzymes activity (transaminases).
711.
In genus Hepatovirus such virus is included:
A. *virus of hepatitis A
B. virus of hepatitis B
C. virus of hepatitis С
D. virus of hepatitis Е
E. all of them
712.
In the herpesvirus virion the layer of protein between the capsid and the envelope is the:
A. tegament
B. tegumeant
C. *tegument
D. tegumint
E. togament
713.
In which component of adenovirus the hemagglutinin is found?
A. The core
B. The DNA protein
C. The hexon
D. The M protein
E. *The penton with fiber
714.
It is known that HIV belongs to the family of Retroviridae. Specify a basic sign, which
characterizes this family.
A. *Presence of reversed transcriptase
B. Contain minus-RNA
C. Naked viruses which infect only human
D. Nucleic acid does not integrate into host genome
E. Contain DNA
715.
It is known that the hepatitis D virus is defective one and can reproduce in the host cells only in the
presence of other hepatitis virus . What name does this virus have?
A. *Virus of hepatitis B
B. Virus of hepatitis A
C. Virus of hepatitis С
D. Virus of hepatitis Е
E. Virus of hepatitis G
716.
Latency is a feature of which group of viruses?
A. Polioviruses
B. Poxviruses
C. *Herpesviruses
D. Paramyxoviruses
E. Hepatitis A Viruses
717.
Latency is a hallmark of next human herpes viruses. Choose among listed this(these) virus(es).
A. HSV1
B. VZV
C. EBV
D. CMV
E. *All answers are true
718.
Markers of hepatitis A virus in the incubation period of disease (correct all, except):
A. HAV-Ag
B. RNA of virus
C. IgM
D. *IgG
E. antigen of virus
719.
Morbidity of Pneumocystis carinii is:
A. Conjunctivitis
B. Abscess
C. *Pneumonia
D. Bronchopneumonia
E. Systemic infection of reticuloendothelial system
720.
Most frequent result of viral hepatitis A:
A. lethal
B. *reconvalescence
C. acute hepatic insufficiency
D. cirrhosis of liver
E. cholelithiasis
721.
Name viral hepatites with enteric mechanism of transmission:
A. hepatitis B, hepatitis C
B. hepatitis C, hepatitis G
C. hepatitis B, hepatitis D
D. *hepatitis A, hepatitis Е
E. hepatitis Е, hepatitis B
722.
Non-specific prophylaxis of parenteral hepatites (correct all, except):
A. diminishing the cases of direct blood transfusion
B. verification of donor’s blood
C. *vaccination
D. high-quality sterilization
E. fight against narcomania
723.
Parenteral viral hepatites:
A. *antroponoze infections
B. registered as epidemic
C. children are ill only
D. adults are ill only
E. one of principal reasons of sterileness
724.
Parenteral viral hepatitis are characterized, except:
A. brief viremia
B. *permanent viremia
C. viral carriage
D. disease may be chronic
E. complications: cirrhosis and primary liver carcinoma
725.
Patient has jaundice, fever, and absence of appetite, enlarged liver. What serum test may be utilized
for differential diagnosis.
A. *ELISA for examination of HBs-Ag
B. Widal’s test
C. Weygl’s test
D. Wassermann’s test
E. IHA test with chlamidial diagnosticum
726.
727.
728.
729.
730.
731.
732.
733.
734.
735.
Phenotypic characteristic of Hepatitis C virus is:
A. Lancefield group A
B. H2S "-"
C. Enveloped
D. Triple-layered
E. Non-enveloped
Postinfection immunity of hepatitis B. Correct all, except:
A. *not formed
B. humoral
C. cellular
D. high grade
E. determines immunity concerning hepatitis D
Postinfection immunity of hepatitis A (correct all, except):
A. sterile
B. lifelong
C. *cellular
D. humoral
E. not formed
Primary signs of HIV-infection. Correct all, except:
A. Pneumocystis pneumonia
B. Generalized cytomegaloviral infection
C. Atypical mycobacteriosis
D. Generalized limphadenopathy
E. *Flue
Principal reason of death in AIDS patients:
A. weight loss.
B. increase of lymphatic nodes.
C. temperature reaction.
D. *any opportunistic infections.
E. diarrhea.
Properties of hepatitis D virus:
A. naked
B. prion
C. DNA-containing
D. *RNA-containing
E. Has no envelope
Prophylaxis of hepatitis of D:
A. Private hygiene and sanitation
B. *vaccination against hepatitis B
C. vaccination against hepatitis A
D. interferon
E. immunoglobulin
Prophylaxis of hepatitis Е:
A. safe sex
B. syringes for single use
C. *personal hygiene and sanitation
D. vaccination of pregnant women
E. phage prophylaxis in endemic foci
Receptor of cell-targets for HIV:
A. CD 22
B. CD 19
C. CD 8
D. *CD 4
E. CD 3
Reliable control above spread of hepatitis B provides:
A. vaccination of teenagers
B. vaccination of babies
C. *vaccination of risk groups
736.
737.
738.
739.
740.
741.
742.
743.
744.
745.
D. protected sex
E. single use syringes
Reproduction of what viruses does foresee integration of their genomes in cell genome
A. *Retroviruses
B. Herpes viruses
C. Adenoviruses
D. Papovaviruses
E. Hepatoviruses
Risk groups concerning HIV-infection. Correct all, except:
A. medical personal (doctors of haemodialysis departments, surgeons et al.)
B. drug abusers which inject them intravenously
C. persons which have commercial sex
D. recipients of blood and its components
E. *donors of blood
Risk groups concerning to parenteral hepatitis (correct all, except):
A. *donors of blood
B. persons which have commercial sex
C. medical personal
D. patients with hemophilia
E. drug users which inject drugs intravenously
Scrinning examination of HIV-infection includes:
A. examination of antigens
B. *examination of antibodies
C. examination of RNA of virus
D. diagnosis of opportunistic infections
E. estimation of immune status
Serum marker of active replication of hepatitis B virus:
A. HBsAg
B. HBcAg
C. *аnti-HBe
D. HBeAg
E. аnti-HBs
Serum markers of hepatitis B (correct all, except):
A. *aminotransferases (ALT, AST)
B. HBe-Ag
C. anti-HBs
D. Viral DNA
E. HBsAg
Serum markers of hepatitis D virus (correct all, except):
A. anti-HDV of IgM
B. anti-HDV of IgG
C. viral RNA
D. HBsAg
E. *anti-HDV total
Serum markers of hepatitis of C (correct all, except):
A. antibodies against core antigen of HCV
B. *antibodies against RNA
C. Viral RNA
D. antibodies against non-structural proteins of HCV
E. antibodies against E1/E2 antigens of HCV
Show the place of EBV persistance?
A. *B cells
B. T cells
C. Nerve ganglia
D. Mononuclear cells
E. Various organs
Show the place of HSV1 persistance?
A. B cells
746.
747.
748.
749.
750.
751.
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754.
B. T cells
C. *Nerve ganglia
D. Mononuclear cells
E. Various organs
Show the place of HSV2 persistance?
A. *Nerve ganglia
B. Mononuclear cells
C. Various organs
D. B cells
E. T cells
Show the place of VZV persistance?
A. B cells
B. T cells
C. *Nerve ganglia
D. Mononuclear cells
E. Various organs
Shown the place of CMV persistance?
A. B cells
B. T cells
C. Nerve ganglia
D. *Various organs
E. All answers are true
Sources of infection for AIDS:
A. blood, sperm
B. breast milk
C. *patients, viral carriers
D. viral carriers, reconvalescent persons
E. sweat, saliva
Sources of infection for hepatitis C:
A. formites
B. *patients, viral carriers
C. drug users
D. blood
E. red cells
Sources of infection of hepatitis B:
A. blood
B. sperm
C. blood serum
D. *viral carriers, sick persons
E. saliva
Specific prophylaxis of hepatitis of C:
A. plasma vaccines
B. recombinant vaccines
C. *not developed
D. interferon
E. inductors of interferon
Specify etiology of pneumonia most characteristic for HIV-infection:
A. staphylococcal
B. pneumococcal
C. *pneumocystic
D. herpesviral
E. adenoviral
Symptoms of HIV-infection in the oral cavity (correct all, except):
A. candida stomatitis
B. Kaposi’s sarcoma
C. herpetic gingivostomatitis
D. *croupous pneumonia
E. hairy leukoplakia
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756.
757.
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759.
760.
761.
762.
763.
764.
The causative agents of parenteral hepatitis belong to (correct all, except):
A. Non-classified delta-virus
B. Hepadnaviridae
C. Togaviridae
D. Flaviviridae
E. *Herpesviridae
The decrease of amount of CD4+-cells at HIV-infection takes place as a result (correct all, except):
A. direct CPD of virus
B. *virogeny
C. formation of syncytium
D. apoptosis
E. cells lysis under the influence of antibodies
The diagnosis of AIDS is confirmed by positive result of :
A. clinical blood test
B. ELISA
C. agglutination test
D. *immunoblotting
E. complement fixation test
The envelope of herpes simplex virus is derived from:
A. *Golgi complex membranes
B. endoplasmic reticulum membranes
C. inner nuclear membrane
D. outer nuclear membrane
E. plasma membrane
The feature of pathogenesis of HIV-infection is a selective defeat of cells:
A. CD3+
B. *CD4+
C. CD8+
D. CD16+
E. CD18+
The features of hepatitis D virus:
A. Envelope with haemagglutinin
B. Reversed transcriptase
C. *Envelope with HBsAg
D. Fragmented genome
E. Absence of envelope
The hemagglutinin of adenovirus is found in which viral protein?
A. The core
B. The hexon
C. *The penton
D. The M protein
E. The DNA protein
The herpesvirus proteins that replicate the virus DNA are the:
A. immediate early proteins
B. *early proteins
C. late proteins
D. scaffolding proteins
E. No correct answers
The HIV belongs to:
A. reoviruses
B. rhinoviruses
C. *retroviruses
D. rotaviruses
E. rhabdoviruses
The markers of hepatitis E virus and methods of their examination. Correct all, except:
A. HЕV-Ag (ELISA)
B. *Autoantibodies (ELISA)
C. IgM (ELISA)
765.
766.
767.
768.
769.
770.
771.
772.
773.
774.
D. IgG (ELISA)
E. Viral RNA (CPT)
The method of immune blotting foresees examination:
A. superficial and core antigens
B. *antibodies against superficial and core antigens
C. RNA of virus
D. reverse transcriptase
E. provirus
The method of immune blotting foresees examination:
A. superficial and core antigens
B. *antibodies against superficial and core antigens
C. RNA of virus
D. reverse trancriptase
E. provirus
The most effective preparation for treatment of AIDS:
A. *zydovudin.
B. interleukin 2.
C. interferon.
D. Timosinum.
E. vaccine.
The number of capsomeres in the herpesvirus capsid is:
A. 130
B. 150
C. 158
D. *162
E. 168
The only way to stop the spread of HIV infection is through:
A. regular treatment of infected persons
B. isolation of infected persons
C. *prevention
D. avoiding direct contact with infected person
E. all the above
The presence of antibodies in the patient’s serum is investigated by:
A. Neutralization test.
B. Complement fixation test.
C. Haemadsorbtion test.
D. Indirect haemagglutination test.
E. *ELISA.
The prophylaxis of hepatitis of C includes all, except:
A. *no smoking
B. propagandas of healthy way of life (in the first turn, giving drugs up)
C. high-quality sterilization
D. verifications of donor blood
E. use of single syringes
The specimen from which varicella-zocter virus is most likely to be recovered is:
A. Swab from ulcer
B. Saliva
C. *Vesicle fluid
D. Spinal fluid
E. Serum
The target viral activity of aciclovir is:
A. entry into the cell
B. reverse transcription
C. *DNA replication
D. transcription
E. translation
The tested material for serologic diagnosis of hepatitis Е:
A. blood
775.
776.
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779.
780.
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783.
B. urine
C. *blood serum
D. amniotic fluid
E. feces
The virus associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma is:
A. *EBV
B. flue virus
C. HIV
D. VZV
E. HHV-6
The virus of AIDS will mainly strike:
A. T-suppressor-cell
B. T- killers
C. *T- helpers
D. macrophages
E. neutrophils
The virus of hepatitis of G is transmitted by:
A. Parenteral way.
B. Sexual way.
C. From mother to child.
D. *Correct all.
E. By none of this way.
The НIV belongs to Retroviridae. What enzyme is in this virus?
A. RNA-dependent RNA-polymerase
B. *RNA-dependent DNA-polymerase
C. DNA-dependent RNA-polymerase
D. DNA-dependent DNA-polymerase
E. proteinkinase
There are such factors of transmission for parenteral hepatites, except:
A. blood
B. *infected water
C. sperm
D. vaginal secret
E. infected surgical instrument
There are such viral hepatites with parenteral mechanism of transmission, except:
A. hepatitis G
B. hepatitis B
C. hepatitis D
D. *hepatitis A
E. hepatitis C
There may be such mixt-infections for parenteral hepatitis (correct all, except):
A. hepatitis B + hepatitis D
B. hepatitis C + hepatitis G
C. *hepatitis B + hepatitis Е
D. hepatitis B + hepatitis C
E. hepatitis B + hepatitis D + hepatitis of C
To prevent the spread of HIV infection it is vital to:
A. know the ways by which HIV is spread
B. combat the superstitions and taboos related to sexual orientation
C. contradict the persisting myths about HIV and AIDS
D. promote and support behaviour change
E. *all of the above
Vaccine against hepatitis B:
A. live attenuated vaccine
B. inactivated vaccine
C. split-vaccine
D. *gene engineering yeast vaccine
E. subunit vaccine
784.
Vaccines against hepatitis B provide protection against (correct all, except):
A. hepatitis B
B. hepatitis of D
C. *hepatitis of C
D. cancer of liver
E. cirrhosis of liver
785.
Viral a delta-hepatitis develops on a background of:
A. *hepatitis B
B. hepatitis A
C. hepatitis С
D. HIV infection
E. Herpesviral infection
786.
Virologic laboratory provide the examination for the HIV-carriage. What tested material from
human must be taken?
A. blood for the examination of the presence of HIV;
B. sperm for the examination of the presence of HIV;
C. *blood serum for the examination of the presence of antibodies against HIV;
D. feces for the examination of the presence of HIV;
E. saliva for the examination of the presence of HIV;
787.
Virus of hepatitis G:
A. *RNA-containing
B. Has revertase
C. Naked
D. Has haemagglutinin
E. Has lysozyme
788.
Viruses of hepatitis A and Е are similar concerning all signs, except:
A. structures of virion
B. nature of natural reservoir (human)
C. mechanism of transmission
D. ability to induce strained immunity
E. *virulence concerning pregnant women
789.
Viruses that routinely establish latent infections in human sensory ganglia include
A. Herpes Simplex Virus type 1
B. Varicella-Zoster Virus
C. Herpes Simplex Virus type 2
D. *All of the above
E. There are not correct answers
790.
Ways of deviation of hepatitis B virus from immune control (correct all, except for):
A. virogeny
B. *antigen changeability
C. replication of virus in monocytes
D. suppression of interferon production
E. active autonomous replication of virus
791.
Ways of HIV deviation from an immune supervision (correct all, except):
A. *rapid change of host
B. virogeny
C. a presence of envelope from the membranes of macroorganism
D. antigen changeability
E. replication in monocytes / macrophages
792.
Ways of transmission hepatitis of C (correct all, except for):
A. *food borne
B. parenteral treatment and diagnosis manipulations
C. intravenous injections of drugs
D. sexual
E. transplacental
793.
Ways of transmission of hepatitis A virus (correct all, except):
A. through the formites
B. through dirty hands
794.
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803.
C. *during pregnancy
D. through infected food stuffs
E. through infected water
Ways of transmission of HIV. Correct all, except:
A. sexual
B. during pregnancy from mother to fetus
C. through breast milk
D. through intravenous injections of drugs
E. *by using common table dishes
What anti-viral medicine is most widely used for inhibition of HIV replication?
A. *Azidothymidine.
B. Zintevir.
C. Nevirapine.
D. Indinavir.
E. Amantadin.
What bacterial infection more frequently does take place in patient with HIV infection?
A. *Mycobacterial infection.
B. Salmonella infection.
C. Bartonella infection.
D. Klebsiella infection.
E. Cholera
What changes are characterized immune status of HIV-infected person:
A. Decrease of amount of T-cell
B. Decrease of amount of Т-killers and T-suppressors
C. Decrease of CD8:CD4 correlation lymphocytes
D. *Decrease of CD4:CD8 lymphocytes correlation
E. Decrease of amount of B-lymphocytes
What disease is caused by HHV6
A. Herpes simple
B. Herpes genitales
C. *Roseola infantum
D. Cytomegaliae
E. Kaposi’s sarcoma
What disease is caused by HHV7?
A. Herpes simple
B. Herpes genitales
C. *Roseola infantum
D. Cytomegaliae
E. Kaposi’s sarcoma
What disease is caused by HHV8
A. Herpes simple
B. Herpes genitales
C. Roseola infantum
D. Cytomegaliae
E. *Kaposi’s sarcoma
What does it mean AIDS?
A. Acute immunodeficiency syndrome
B. Adult immunodeficiency syndrome
C. Acquired immunodeficiency symptom
D. Adult acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
E. *Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
What family does the hepatitis E virus belong to?
A. Picornaviridae
B. Togaviridae
C. Flaviviridae
D. *Caliciviridae
E. not classified
What family does virus of hepatitis G belong to:
804.
805.
806.
807.
808.
809.
810.
811.
812.
A. Caliciviridae.
B. *Flaviviridae.
C. Hepadnaviridae.
D. Coronaviridae.
E. Picornaviridae.
What family of viruses does contain RNA-dependent DNA-polymerase as part of virion:
A. Adenoviruses
B. Orthomyxoviruses
C. Rabdoviruses
D. Reoviruses
E. *Retroviruses
What feature about postinfection immunity is not correct for hepatitis A?
A. natural
B. acquired
C. is predefined by IgM, IgG, sIgA
D. *is predefined by T-cell
E. reinfection is absent practically
What for hepatitis E virus is not correct?
A. RNA-containing
B. does not have envelope
C. *has envelope
D. naked
E. has a icosahedral type of symmetry
What from next infection is most dangerous?
A. Infection only by HBV.
B. Coinfection of virus of hepatitis B and virus of hepatitis D.
C. *Superinfection by HDV of carriers of HBsAg.
D. Infection only by HDV.
E. All answers are correct.
What from the resulted descriptions does not answer properties HIV?
A. Susceptible against disinfectants
B. Resistant according to UV light
C. Susceptible to ether
D. Susceptible to high temperatures
E. *well saved in external environment
What fungal infections are more frequently observed in patients with HIV?
A. candidiasis
B. cryptococcosis
C. aspergillosis
D. *Correct all
E. No correct answer
What gene is included into yeasts for obtaining recombinant vaccine against hepatitis B?
A. *Gene of HBsAg.
B. Gene of HBcAg .
C. Gene of HBeAg .
D. All genes.
E. There is no such vaccine.
What is a way for transmission of hepatitis E?
A. *Through contaminated water.
B. Through contaminated syringes and needles.
C. Sexual way.
D. Correct all.
E. No correct answer
What is AIDS?
A. bacteria
B. virus
C. fungus
D. *disease
813.
814.
815.
816.
817.
818.
819.
820.
821.
822.
E. symptom
What is an antigen of HIV-1 spike?
A. *gpl20.
B. gp140.
C. gp41.
D. gp36.
E. gp9.
What is efficiency of transmission is HIV during blood transfusion?
A. *>90%.
B. 13-40%.
C. 2.5%.
D. 0.5-1%.
E. 50 %.
What is incubation period of development of AIDS?
A. One year.
B. 5-7 years
C. *10-12 years.
D. 15-20 years.
E. 30 days.
What is morphology of HIV?
A. a virus contains single-stranded RNA, capsid, envelope;
B. a virus contains double-stranded RNA, capsid, envelope;
C. *a virus contains two identical molecules of RNA, capsid, envelope;
D. a virus contains single-stranded DNA, capsid, envelope;
E. a virus contains two identical copies of DNA, capsid, envelope.
What is most frequent way of HIV transmission?
A. *sexual
B. parenteral
C. perinatal
D. fecal-oral
E. Air-born way
What is pathogenesis mechanism of HIV infection?
A. Viral cytolysis of CD4+Т cells.
B. Formation of syncytium between infected and non-infected CD4+ Т cells.
C. Immune cytolysis of CD4+ Т-cells.
D. *Correct all
E. No correct answer.
What is reason of deaths in patient with AIDS?
A. Opportunistic infections.
B. Tumors.
C. Cachexia.
D. *Correct all.
E. No correct answer.
What is the reactivation of herpez zoster virus in an adult called?
A. infectious mononucleosis.
B. *shingles.
C. aphthous stomatitis.
D. chronic fatigue syndrome.
E. neuritis
What is the specimen from which herpes simplex virus is most likely to be cultured:
A. saliva.
B. spinal fluid.
C. *vesicle fluid.
D. swab from ulcer.
E. blood
What is the structure of the Epstein-Barr Virus?
A. (-) ssRNA, nonenveloped
B. + ssRNA, enveloped
823.
824.
825.
826.
827.
828.
829.
830.
831.
832.
C. + dsRNA, enveloped
D. *dsDNA, enveloped
E. dsDNA, nonenveloped
What is the structure of HHV6?
A. + ssRNA, enveloped
B. + dsRNA, enveloped
C. (-) ssRNA, nonenveloped
D. *dsDNA, enveloped
E. dsDNA, nonenveloped
What is the structure of HHV7?
A. + ssRNA, enveloped
B. + dsRNA, enveloped
C. (-) ssRNA, nonenveloped
D. *dsDNA, enveloped
E. dsDNA, nonenveloped
What is the structure of HHV8?
A. + ssRNA, enveloped
B. + dsRNA, enveloped
C. (-) ssRNA, nonenveloped
D. *dsDNA, enveloped
E. dsDNA, nonenveloped
What is transmembrane antigen of spikes’ basis of HIV-1?
A. gpl20.
B. gp140.
C. *gp41.
D. gp36.
E. gp19.
What laboratory test can confirm the diagnosis of HIV-infection?
A. clinical blood test
B. ELISA
C. Т-helper and T-suppressor correlation
D. *Western-blott
E. Complement fixation test
What method is the method of choice for diagnosis of hepatitis A?
A. Ratio of aminotransferases.
B. Examination of virus in feces by immune electronic microscopy.
C. Examination of IgG anti-HAV by ELISA.
D. *Examination of IgM anti-HAV by ELISA.
E. Examination of С-reactive protein
What method may be used for examination of provirus presence in lymphocytes?
A. *Molecular hybridization with the use of radioactive probes
B. Isolation of viruc in lymphocytes cell culture
C. Cellular hybridization is with the use of lymphocytes culture
D. ELISA
E. Examination of antibodies against viruses by immunofluorescence test
What method must be utilized for confirmation of positive ELISA?
A. *Immunoblotting
B. Electrophoresis in gel
C. Immunofluorescence test
D. Molecular hybridization
E. Radioimunoassays
What oncogenic viruses were described first?
A. Herpes simplex virus type 2.
B. Epstein-Barr virus.
C. *Virus Raus’ sarcoma.
D. Human Т-lymphotropic virus.
E. Adenovirus type 14.
What preparation is utilized for the active specific prophylaxis of hepatitis B:
A. lamivudin
B. interferon
C. *recombinant vaccines (Engerix B and other)
D. attenuated vaccines
E. immunoglobulin
833.
What protozoa infections are more frequently observed in patients with HIV infection:
A. isosporiasis.
B. toxoplasmosis.
C. cryptosporidiosis.
D. *Correct all.
E. No correct answer.
834.
What results of Immunoblotting do do do testify HIV-infection?
A. presence of antibodies to gр 160, р 55
B. presence of antibodies to р55, р 52
C. *presence of antibodies to gр 120, gр 41, р 24
D. presence of antibodies to gр 120, р 66
E. presence of antibodies to gр 41, р 24
835.
What serological type does hepatitis A virus belong to?
A. 68
B. 69
C. 70
D. 71
E. *72
836.
What serum marker is present in the high-infectious carriers of HBV?
A. HBeAg.
B. HBsAg.
C. DNA polymerase.
D. *All answers are correct.
E. No correct answers.
837.
What tests are used for diagnosis of HIV infection?
A. ELISA.
B. Examination of viral RNA.
C. Immunoblotting.
D. *Correct all.
E. Diagnostics is not elaborated.
838.
What tests do confirm HIV infection?
A. Isolation of virus.
B. Revealing p24 antigen .
C. Revealing viral nucleic acid.
D. *Correct all.
E. No correct answer.
839.
What type of nucleic acid is in HBV?
A. Single-stranded DNA.
B. *Double-stranded DNA.
C. Single-stranded RNA.
D. Double-stranded RNA.
E. Segmented RNA.
840.
What viral antigen is present in envelope?
A. *HBsAg.
B. HBcAg.
C. HBeAg.
D. HBxAg.
E. No correct answer
841.
What viral hepatitis is more frequent accompanied with chronic process and development of
cirrhosis?
A. viral hepatitis A
B. *viral hepatites of B, C
C. viral hepatitis of D
D. viral hepatitis of Е
E. viral hepatites A and E
842.
What viral infections are more frequently observed in patient with HIV infection?
A. herpes simplex.
B. varicella-zoster.
C. cytomegaloviral.
D. *Correct all.
E. No correct answer
843.
What virus can be utilized for obtaining hybrid vaccine against hepatitis B?
A. *Vaccinia virus.
B. Adenovirus.
C. Herpes simplex virus, I type.
D. Papillomavirus.
E. Virus of hepatitis A.
844.
What virus infection is typical for heterophile antibodies presence?
A. Herpes simple
B. Herpes genitales
C. Roseola infantum
D. *Mononucleosis
E. Kaposi’s sarcoma
845.
What virus is satellite one?
A. HBV.
B. HCV.
C. *HDV.
D. HEV.
E. HIV.
846.
What viruses have parenteral way of transmission?
A. Virus of hepatitis B.
B. Virus of hepatitis C.
C. Virus of hepatitis D.
D. *Correct all.
E. There is no correct answer.
847.
When ELISA was used for examination of the blood HBs-Ag was revealed. At what disease does
this antigen may be found?
A. Syphilis
B. Viral hepatitis A.
C. AIDS.
D. Tuberculosis.
E. *Viral hepatitis B.
848.
Where do Adenoviruses typically replicate?
A. *In muco-epithelial cells
B. Nerve ganglia
C. Various organs
D. Mononuclear cells
E. All answers are true
849.
Which antiviral agent is commonly used to combat herpes simplex virus infections?
A. azidothymidine
B. *acyclovir
C. foscarnet
D. idoxuridine
E. ? interferon
850.
Which antiviral drug is used to cure simplex virus infections?
A. *acyclovir
B. azidothymidine
C. foscarnet
D. idoxuridine
E. ? interferon
851.
Which antiviral drug is used to prevent recurrent HSV infections?
852.
853.
854.
855.
856.
857.
858.
859.
860.
A. *acyclovir
B. amantidine
C. azidothymidine
D. phosphonoformate
E. ribavirin
Which CD-receptor can interact with HIV surface antigens gp 120?.
A. CD 3.
B. *CD 4.
C. CD 8.
D. CD 19.
E. CD 28.
Which disease is caused by Epstein-Barr Virus?
A. Herpes simple
B. Herpes genitales
C. Roseola infantum
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
E. *Mononucleosis
Which herpesvirus among listed does cause Burkitt’s lymphomamononucleosis?
A. VZV
B. *EBV
C. polyovirus
D. HSV-2
E. HSV-1
Which herpesviruses cause mononucleosis?
A. VZV-1 and HSV-2
B. *EBV and CMV
C. EBV and herpes B virus
D. CMV and VZV
E. HSV-1and HSV-2
Which of the following anti-viral drugs is used to prevent recurrent HSV infections?
A. amantidine
B. ribavirin
C. phosphonoformate
D. *acyclovir
E. azidothymidine
Which of the following describes the structure of herpes viruses?
A. *Double-stranded DNA, icosahedral 162 capsid, enveloped
B. Double-stranded DNA, icosahedral 162 capsid, non-enveloped
C. Single-stranded DNA, icosahedral 162 capsid, enveloped
D. Single-stranded DNA, icosahedral 162 capsid, non-enveloped
E. Single-stranded RNA, icosahedral 162 capsid, enveloped
Which of the following has been linked to Kaposi's sarcoma?
A. Epstein-Barr virus
B. Human T-cell lymphotropic virus
C. Human immunodefficiency virus
D. Human papilloma virus
E. *Human herpes virus 8
Which of the following is not true about latency?
A. is a universal property of herpes viruses
B. has the ability to remain in host cells for long periods
C. retains the ability to replicate
D. is reactivated as a result of psychological or physical factors
E. *usually remains in nephrons
Which of the following statements refers to Hepatitis D virus:
A. HSV-1 - labial; HSV-2 - genital.
B. Strains A-C: trachoma. Strains D-K: genital infections. Strains L1-L3: lymphogranuloma
venereum.
C. Eggs -> miracidia -> snail -> cercaria -> human: adult -> eggs
861.
862.
863.
864.
865.
866.
867.
868.
869.
870.
D. Primary infection is usually asymptomatic. Congenital infection results in cytomegalic inclusion
disease.
E. *Envelope consists of HBsAg
Which of the following viral genera is/are not transmited by insects?
A. Alphavirus.
B. Alphavirus.
C. Togavirus
D. *Rubivirus.
E. All of the above.
Which of the following viruses can cause B cell lymphoma in humans?
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Human papilloma viruses
C. *Epstein-Barr Virus
D. Human T-cell lymphotropic virus
E. Hepatitis B virus
Which of the following viruses can infect B lymphocytes?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. *Epstein-Barr virus
C. Herpes simplex virus type 2
D. Human herpesvirus 6
E. Human herpesvirus 8
Which of the following viruses can infect T lymphocytes?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Epstein-Barr virus
C. Herpes simplex virus type 2
D. *Human herpesvirus 6
E. Human herpesvirus 8
Which one of the following is a common feature of infection by herpes simplex virus?
A. Rapid progression to encephalitis and death
B. Chronic progressive tissue damage for many years
C. Dissemination to many body sites, including trans-placental passage
D. *Spontaneous recovery with life-long latency
E. Chronic progressive fatigue
Which one of the following is a common feature of infection by cytomegalovirus?
A. Rapid progression to encephalitis and death
B. Chronic progressive tissue damage for many years
C. *Dissemination to many body sites, including trans-placental passage
D. Severe vesiculation of epithelium and mucous membranes
E. Spontaneous recovery with life-long latency
Which rhabdovirus protein is a component of the virion envelope?
A. *G protein
B. L protein
C. M protein
D. N protein
E. P protein
Which virus does cause genital herpes?
A. *Herpes simplex virus-1
B. Herpes simplex virus-2
C. cytomegalovirus
D. human herpes virus 6
E. human herpes virus 8
Which virus is most likely to infect B lymphocytes?
A. Human immunodeficiency virus
B. *Epstein Barr virus
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. Human T cell leukemia virus
E. Hepatitis A virus
Which viruses are passed by parenteral and sexual way?
A. Virus of hepatitis B.
B. Virus of hepatitis С.
C. Virus of hepatitis G.
D. *All of them.
E. None of them.
871.
Who is(are) the host(s) of Yellow Fever disease?
A. Horse/monkey
B. *Monkey/human
C. Rodent/sheep
D. Human/catle
E. Pig/monkey
872.
Why is Acyclovir a highly specific anti-herpes drug?
A. *Inhibits polymerization of the viral DNA
B. Inhibits composition of the viral capsid
C. Inhibits the thymidine kinase
D. Destroys virus enzyme
E. All answers are correct
873.
A 36-year-old nurse is found to be both HBsAg-positive and HBeAg-positive. The nurse most
likely
A. *Has acute hepatitis and is infectious
B. Has both HBV and HEV infections
C. Has a chronic HBV infection
D. Has cleared a past HBV
E. Was previously immunized with HBV vaccine prepared from healthy HBsAg-positive carriers
874.
A child has mononucleosis-like symptoms yet the test for mononucleosis and the EBV titers are
negative. One of the causes of heterophilenegative mononucleosis is
A. *Cytomegalovirus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Varicella-zoster virus
D. Adenovirus
E. Coxsackievirus
875.
A patient has severe hepatitis B. It is necessary to make examination for the presence of
accompanying virus which complicates the disease. Show this agent|.
A. НВs-Ag|.
B. Virus of hepatitis С.
C. Virus of hepatitis G.
D. Virus of hepatitis Е.
E. *Virus of hepatitis D (Delta-virus).
876.
A patient has suspicion on HIV infection. What method may be used for primary diagnosis?
A. *ELISA|
B. Indirect hemagglutination test||
C. Coagglutination test|
D. Precipitation test|
E. Radioimmune assay
877.
A patient presents with keratoconjunctivitis. The differential diagnosis should include infection
with which of the following viruses?
A. Parvovirus
B. *Adenovirus
C. Epstein-Barr virus
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
E. Varicella-zoster virus
878.
A person infected with (HIV):
A. may live for many years after infection
B. should have symptoms
C. ultimately dies because of AIDS
D. can be treated and completely cured
E. *(A) and (C)
879.
A scientist examines the structure of unknown viruses. Show the composition of HHV8?
A. + ssRNA, enveloped
B. + dsRNA, enveloped
C. (-) ssRNA, nonenveloped
D. dsDNA, nonenveloped
E. *dsDNA, enveloped
880.
A vaccine (live attenuated) only currently exists for which of the following?
A. Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
B. Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)
C. *Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
D. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
E. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
881.
An epidemic of jaundice caused by the recently characterized hepatitis E virus occurred in New
Delhi Hepatitis E virus is
A. *Found in rodents and pigs
B. A major cause of blood-borne hepatitis
C. The cause of a disease that resembles hepatitis C
D. Capable of establishing chronic infections
E. Associated with an increased risk of liver cancer
882.
Cancer (Burkitt lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Hodgkin disease) is only associated with
which of the following?
A. Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
B. Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)
C. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
D. *Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
E. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
883.
Child F., 6 years old has tonsillitis, fever, weakness. Choose among following diseases nosologic
form of disease, which may be associated with Epstein-Barr virus:
A. *Infectious mononucleosis
B. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
C. T-cell leukemia
D. Herpes zoster
E. All the answers are correct
884.
Choose among listed the virus associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma:
A. CMV
B. *EBV
C. HIV
D. HHV-6
E. VZV
885.
During a pelvic examination, a woman is found to have painful vesicular lesions on the vagina.The
patient states that she had similar lesions 12 months previously which lasted for 2 weeks.Which of the
following is the most likely causative agent?
A. cytomegalovirus
B. *herpes simplex virus
C. papillomavirus
D. rubella virus
E. varicella virus
886.
During a primary investigation of a patient by ELISA antibodies against HIV were found. What is
it necessary to do then?
A. *To continue diagnosis by immunoblotting|;
B. To appoint antiretroviral | therapy;
C. To repeat examination in 1 year;
D. To isolate virus in cell culture;
E. To identify virus in haemagglutination test|;
887.
During carrying out special test gpl20 was revealed in patient’s blood||. What disease can show the
presence of this antigen?
A. Viral hepatitis B.
B. *HIV-infection.
C. Tuberculosis.
D. Syphilis.
E. Poliomyelitis.
888.
During laboratory examination of patient with signs of immunodeficiency antibodies against gpl20|
and gp41 were found|. What infection does this result confirm?
A. TORCH-infection|.
B. HLTV-1-іnfection|.
C. *HIV-infection.
D. HBV-| infection.
E. ЕСНО-infection|.
889.
During operative procedure blood transfusion was made to the patient. Concerning what antigen
(viruses) is it necessary to verify this blood?
A. Adenoviruses.
B. HAV.
C. HEV.
D. Enteroviruses.
E. *HBV.
890.
During verification of donors’ blood in one person antibodies against HIV were found. What test
could you propose for confirming the diagnosis of HIV-infection?
A. Complement fixation test|
B. Electron microscopy
C. *Western blotting|)
D. Immunofluorescence test
E. Radioimmune assays
891.
For an indication of HIV in cellular cultures such test is utilized:
A. examination of the intranuclear inclusions
B. CPD as formation of syncytium|
C. Hemadsorbtion test
D. formation of plaques
E. *examination of reverse transcriptase presence |
892.
For confirmation of HIV-carriage such test is used|:
A. ELISA|.
B. *Immune blotting|.
C. Complement fixation test|.
D. Indirect haemagglutination test|.
E. Neutralization test.
893.
For diagnostics of AIDS sometimes virologic method is utilized. Where do HIV cultivate?
A. *in normal lymphocytes|
B. in chicken embryos;
C. in the organism of white mice
D. in HeLa culture |
E. in the Vero culture |
894.
For expert research of HIV-infection such test is utilized:
A. ELISA
B. *method of immune blotting|
C. immune electron microscopy (IEM)
D. isolation of virus
E. examination of immune status
895.
For laboratory diagnosis of hepatitis B last years some test is used for detection of presence of viral
DNA in the blood of patient. Which test is utilized?
A. Complement fixation test|.
B. Indirect haemagglutination test||.
C. *Chain polymerase | reaction.
D. ELISA.
E. Haemagglutination inhibition test|.
896.
For scrinning examination of serum markers of viral hepatitis C such test is utilized:
A. CFT
B. *ELISA
C. HAIT
D. CPT
E. Immunoblotting|
897.
For scrinning| examination at serodiagnosis of HIV-infection such test is utilized:
A. immune electron microscopy (IEM)
B. Haemagglutination inhibition test
C. Chain polymerase reaction
D. *ELISA
E. Western-blott|
898.
For the diagnosis HIV-infection patient’s serum is examined by Immune blotting test or ELISA.
What enzimelabeled| antibodies are utilized?
A. Against the gр14|.
B. Against р24|.
C. Against gр120|.
D. Against gр17|.
E. *Against the human immunoglobulins.
899.
For verification of donors’ blood for the presence of antigens of hepatitis B virus it is necessary to
apply highly sensitive methods. What method could you purpose?
A. *Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISA)
B. Immunoelectrophoresis
C. Indirect haemagglutination test |
D. Complement fixation test|
E. Indirect immunofluorescence test
900.
Hepatitis D virus (delta agent) is found only in patients who have either acute or chronic infection
with HBV Hepatitis D virus
A. Is a defective mutant of HBV
B. *Depends on HBV surface antigen for virion formation
C. Induces an immune response indistinguishable from that induced by HBV
D. Is related to HCV
E. Contains a circular DNA genome
901.
Herpes simplex virus type 1 most commonly causes cold sores. The site of reactivation for this
virus is the
A. A.vagus nerve
B. B lymphocyte
C. epidermal cell
D. *trigeminal nerve
E. eighth cranial nerve
902.
HIV-infected| person periodically is examined evaluation of signs of process activating. Show the
most substantial sign, which specifies the passing of HIV-infection into AIDS.
A. Decrease of amount of neutrophils|.
B. *Kaposi’s sarcoma. The amount of Т-helper is |lower then critical level.
C. Increase of amount of T-suppressor-cells.
D. Amount of Т-helpers |lower then critical level.
E. Antibodies against gр41 in blood|.
903.
In a patient with fever and jaundice viral hepatitis A was suspected. What tested material must be
sent to laboratory?
A. Swabs from oropharynx|
B. *feces
C. urine
D. liquor
E. | lymph nodes
904.
In a period of clinical signs of hepatitis A there are such markers of virus:
A. HAV-Ag
B. Viral RNA
C. IgM|, IgG|
D. HAV-Ag, IgG|
E. *HAV-Ag, IgM, IgG, anti-HAV|
905.
In city M. there is epidemic of hepatitis of A. What characteristic does not belong to this viral
hepatitis?
A. anthroponoze| infection
B. food-borne mechanism of contamination
C. intestinal infection
D. illness of «dirty hands»
E. *especially dangerous infection
906.
In the specialized clinic to the patient preparation which inhibits reproduction of HIV was
prescribed. What group does this preparation belong to?
A. Interleukin.
B. Antibiotics of wide spectrum of action.
C. *Analogues of nucleotides|.
D. Sulfonamides.
E. Disinfectants.
907.
In what tested material, taken from a patient with hepatitis, there may be HBV?
A. blood.
B. sperm.
C. breast milk.
D. *All answers are correct.
E. No correct answers.
908.
In which of the following do T cells appear as atypical lymphocytes (Downey cells)?
A. *Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
B. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
D. Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
E. Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)
909.
It is necessary to check HIV-carriage in young donor V. What test could you propose?
A. Haemagglutination inhibition test|;
B. Hemadsorbtion inhibition test|;
C. Neutralization test;
D. *ELISA|;
E. Immunodiffusion test|.
910.
It is necessary to confirm the positive result of scrinning examination | of HIV-infection in patient.
What result of immune blotting| will testify HIV-infection:
A. presence of antibodies against gр| 120
B. presence of antibodies against gр| 41
C. presence of antibodies against gр| 120, gр| 41
D. presence of antibodies against gр| 120, р 66
E. *presence of antibodies against gр| 41, р 24
911.
It is necessary to make immunization against hepatitis B in stomatologist. What preparation must
be utilized for a vaccination?
A. *Recombinant vaccine
B. Killed vaccine
C. Attenuated vaccine
D. Toxoid
E. Chemical vaccine
912.
It is necessary to make vaccination of the dentists against hepatitis B for creation of artificial active
immunity. What preparation does it follow to apply?
A. Inactivated virus, cultivated in chicken embryo.
B. Donor’s gamma globulin|.
C. Specific immunoglobulin.
D. Monoclonal antibodies.
E. *Recombinant vaccine from viral antigen.
913.
It is necessary to make virologic diagnosis of herpes zoster infection. What specimen should be
collected from a patient for detection of this virus?
A. blood
B. saliva.
C. *vesicle fluid.
D. spinal fluid.
E. swab from ulcer.
914.
It was outbreak of hepatitis in the villige, which was connected with water factor. What virus could
cause this outbreak?
A. HGV.
B. HCV.
C. HDV.
D. *HAV.
E. HBV.
915.
Laboratory diagnosis of HIV-infection in |children, born from the HIV-infected| mothers, includes
the use:
A. *ELISA, immunoblotting | (examination of antibodies)
B. ELISA (examination of р 24)
C. CPR (determination of HIV RNA)
D. Isolation of HIV
E. all is listed above
916.
Laboratory diagnostics of HIV-infection in children, born from the HIV-infected | mothers,
includes:
A. ELISA, Immunoblotting| (examination of antibodies)
B. ELISA (examination of р 24)
C. CPT (examination of RNA of HIV)
D. Isolation of HIV
E. *Correct all
917.
Patient A, 20 years of old has diagnosis of HIV-infection. What populations of cells |are most
susceptible to the HIV?
A. *Т-helpers|
B. Hepatocytes
C. Endotheliocytes
D. Epiteliocytes
E. B-lymphocytes
918.
Patient G. has adenoviral conjunctivitis. How can virologist detect serotype of adenovirus?
A. By monitoring the response of the infection to steroid therapy.
B. By detecting the presence of viral double stranded DNA.
C. By using electron microscopy to detect viral particles in an eye swab.
D. *By using serotype antibody for hemagglutination inhibition test
E. By detecting nuclear inclusions in infected cells collected in an eye swab.
919.
Patient has jaundice of skin and sclerotic coats of the eyes, acholic feces, and dull abdominal ache
in the region of liver. There may be hepatitis of C. What serum markers for hepatitis C virus?
A. RNA-polymerase
B. RNA of virus, anti-HGV| IgM|
C. DNA of virus, anti-HGV| IgM|
D. *anti-HCV||
E. anti-HBs|
920.
Patient M. has gingivostomatitis. Show virus which can does cause this disease.
A. cytomegalovirus
B. polyovirus
C. measles virus
D. *herpes simplex virus 1
E. mumps virus
921.
Patient N. 26 years old, had infection, caused by Herpes simplex virus type 1. Show the site where
this virus can survive:
A. A. vagus nerve
B. B lymphocyte
C. epidermal cell
D. eighth cranial nerve
E. *trigeminal nerve
922.
Patient S. with viral hepatitis A was admitted to the hospital. What antibodies will be synthesized
first?
A. IgA|.
B. IgG|.
C. *IgM|.
D. IgD|.
E. IgE|
923.
Patient with hepatitis A is most dangerous:
A. at once after an infection
B. at the end of incubation period, in a pre-icteric period
C. *in pre-icteric, icteric periods
D. in a period reconvalescence|
E. during all period of disease
924.
Person H., 41 years old, is HIV carrier and has symptoms of Kaposi's sarcoma. Which of the
following has been linked to Kaposi's sarcoma?
A. *Human herpes virus 8
B. Epstein-Barr virus
C. Human T-cell lymphotropic virus
D. Human immunodefficiency virus
E. Human papilloma virus
925.
Several different viruses can cause hepatitis. One of the following statements applies to all four
viruses HAV, HCV, HDV, and HEV
A. *Contains a single stranded RNA genome
B. Is transmitted primarily by the parenteral route
C. Is transmitted primarily by the fecal oral route
D. (D) Is associated with fulminant
E. Undergoes sequence variation during chronic infection
926.
Student has to describe some diseases caused by Cytomegalovirus and its poroperties. All are true
among listed postulates, except:
A. *Is teratogenic
B. Primary infection is usually symptomatic
C. An infectious mononucleosis-like syndrome may occur during primary infection.
D. May cause severe infection in immunocompromised individuals
E. Giant cells are formed
927.
The following statements about HCV infection and associated chronic liver disease in the United
States are correct except that
A. HCV is responsible for 40% of chronic liver disease
B. (B) Chronic infection develops in most (70-90%) HCV infected persons
C. HCV associated liver disease is the major occasion for liver transplantation
D. *HCV viremia occurs transiently during early stages of
E. HCV-infected patients are at high risk (5-20%) for liver cancer
928.
The Tzank smear, characteristic cytopathologic effects in a scraping of the base of a lesion, is used
for laboratory diagnosis of all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
B. Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)
C. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
D. *Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
E. Causative agent of shingels
929.
The virologist examines biological properties of Adenovirus. Indicate correct statement about it.
A. has a neuraminidase
B. *has a hemagglutinin
C. has a double shelled capsid
D. has an RNA genome
E. has an envelope
930.
Virologist makes laboratory diagnosis of infectious mononucleousis. Which of the following
viruses can stimulate production of the heterophile antibodies?
A. HSV-1
B. HHV-7
C. *EBV
D. CMV
E. varicella zoster virus
931.
What is the BEST explanation for the selective action of acyclovir in herpes simplex virus-infected
cells?
A. Acyclovir binds specifically to herpesvirus receptors on the cell surface
B. *Viral phosphokinase (thymidine kinase) phosphorylates acyclovir more efficiently than does the
host cell phosphokinase
C. Acyclovir exhibits the RNA polymerase in the viral particle
D. Acyclovir blocks the matrix protein of the virus, thereby preventing release by budding
E. Acyclovir inhibits capsid formation
932.
Which of the following describes the structure of herpes viruses?
A. *Double-stranded DNA, icosahedral 162 capsid, enveloped
B. Double-stranded DNA, icosahedral 162 capsid, non-enveloped
C. Single-stranded DNA, icosahedral 162 capsid, enveloped
D. Single-stranded DNA, icosahedral 162 capsid, non-enveloped
E. Single-stranded RNA, icosahedral 162 capsid, enveloped
933.
Which of the following exposures poses a risk for hepatitis infection?
A. A nurse sustains a needlestick while drawing up insulin to administer to an HBV-infected patient
with diabetes
B. While cleaning the bathroom, a house keeper's intact skin has contact with feces
C. *An operating room technician with chapped and abraded hands notices blood under his gloves
after assisting in an operation on a patient with HCV infection
D. A child drinks out of the same cup as her mother, who has an HAV infection
E. A shopper eats a sandwich prepared by a worker with an asymptomatic HBV infection
934.
Which of the following has spurious production of an IgM antibody to the Paul-Bunnell antigen
(heterophile antibody)?
A. *Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
B. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
D. Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
E. Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)
935.
Which of the following uses giant cells with “owl’s eye” intranuclear inclusion bodies for
aboratory diagnosis?
A. Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
B. Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)
C. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
D. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
E. *Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
936.
Woman F. suffers of genital herpes. Which virus can cause genital herpes?
A. Herpes simplex virus-1
B. *Herpes simplex virus-2
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Human herpes virus 6
E. Human herpes virus 8
937.
Young woman, 32 years old complains of genital infection. Which of the following viruses cause
genital infection?
A. Molluscum contagiosum.
B. Human papillomavirus type 6.
C. Herpes simplex virus type 2.
D. adenovirus serotype 37
E. *all the answers are correct
938.
______ hemolysis is the partial lysis of red blood cells due to bacterial hemolysins.
A. *Alpha
B. Beta
C. Gamma
D. Delta
E. Epsilon
939.
A beta-hemolytic streptococcus is isolated from an infected neonate. Such isolates are often
members of Lancefield Group B. The antigenic structure of which bacterial component defines Lancefield
Groups?
A. Capsule polysaccharide.
B. *Cell-associated or C-carbohydrate.
C. Wall and membrane teichoic acids.
D. Beta-hemolysins.
E. Filamentous proteins of the cell envelope.
940.
A characteristic of Streptococcus mutans that allows it to initiate dental plaque and dental caries is:
A. the ability to attach specifically to the pellicle of the tooth
B. the ability to utilize sucrose as a source of carbon and energy
C. the ability to produce a dextran capsule
D. *the ability to produce lactic acid
E. all of the above
941.
A common serotype of enterohemorrhagic E. coli is O157:H7. To which bacterial structure does
the "H7" correspond?
A. *Flagella.
B. Pili.
C. Capsule.
D. LPS core polysaccharide.
E. Porins.
942.
A complication of genital gonorrhea in both men and women is
A. *infertility
B. pelvic inflammatory disease
C. arthritis
D. blindness
E. urethritis
943.
A determinant of virulence of Streptococcus pneumoniae which allows the bacteria to resist
engulfment by phagocytes is
A. fimbriae
B. *a polysaccharide capsule
C. production of TSST exotoxin
D. coagulase
E. neuraminidase
944.
A individual may have repeated infections with Neisseria gonorrhoeae, despite the fact that each
infection gives rise to an immune response. By which mechanism does the gonococcus evade protective
immunity?
A. Thick capsule prevents binding of antibodies to the cell surface.
B. Pili adhere to epithelial cells despite binding of antibodies.
C. Capsular polysaccharide is identical to polysaccharides of mammalian cells.
D. Outer membrane lacks any antigenic components.
E. *The surface antigens present change continually, as a result of pre-programmed changes in DNA.
945.
A lactose-fermenting Gram-negative rod is isolated from the bloody stool of a young child. Which
pathogen is most likely?
A. Salmonella enterica.
B. *Escherichia coli.
C. Vibrio cholerae.
D. Shigella dysenteriae.
E. Clostridium difficile.
946.
A patient becomes infected with Salmonella enterica serotype typhi. Which condition would most
strongly favor development of a “chronic carrier state” with this organism?
A. Age over 70 years.
B. Infection via the respiratory route.
C. *Gallstones.
D. Kidney stones.
E. Chronic pulmonary disease.
947.
A patient has a peptic ulcer. Which organism is most likely to have created this lesion?
A. Campylobacter jejuni.
B. Enterococcus faecalis.
C. Escherichia coli.
D. *Helicobacter pylori
E. Salmonella enteritidis
A patient has chronic gastritis. Which of the following organisms is most likely?
A. Campylobacter fetus.
B. Campylobacter jejuni.
C. *Helicobacter pylori.
D. Escherichia coli.
E. A non-cholera Vibrio.
949.
A primary determinant of virulence in Streptococcus pyogenes, which is involved in adherence,
resistance to phagocytosis and antigenic variation, is
A. streptokinase
B. lipopolysaccharide (endotoxin)
C. *M-protein
D. Protein A
E. coagulase
950.
A reason not to administer beta lactam antibiotics for a Gram-negative septicemia (blood-borne
infection), unless there is no other alternative, is
A. the antibiotic eliminates the normal flora
B. *beta lactam antibiotics are ineffective against Gram-negative bacteria
C. the lysis of bacterial cells increases the activity of bacterial LPS
D. Complement activation cannot occur in the presence of the antibiotic
E. the antibiotic suppresses the immune response necessary to eliminate the pathogen
951.
A urease-positive, spiral-shaped gram-negative rod is found in gastric washings from a 29-year-old
stressed-out medical student with gastritis. Which of the following is most likely tobe this organism?
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. *Helicobacter pylori
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Providencia rettgeri
E. Vibrio cholerae
952.
A vacationer develops watery diarrhea but not chills or fever. In this setting which of the following
pathogens is the most common?
A. Salmonella enterica
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Campylobacter jejuni
E. Helicobacter pylori
953.
A vacationing couple both develop severe watery diarrhea which lasts three days. Which organism
is the most common etiologic agent of such infections?
A. Shigella sonnei.
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Salmonella typhi.
D. Campylobacter jejuni.
E. *Escherichia coli.
954.
A young woman has a urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. By what route are such infections
most commonly acquired?
A. Respiratory route, followed by spread from the anterior nares.
B. Respiratory route, followed by spread from the oro-pharyngeal region.
C. *Fecal-oral route, followed by colonization of the intestine and then the perineum.
D. Intestinal infection, followed by spread of bacteria to the urethra via the bloodstream.
E. Direct contact route
955.
After Gram stain of spinal fluid sample from a patient with meningitis Medical personal during
microscopy examination detected Gram-negative cocci, many in pairs. Which organism below is most
likely?
A. *Neisseria meningitidis
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Escherichia coli
956.
An effective vaccine exists to prevent infections from
948.
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. *Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. Streptococcus epidermidis
957.
An important test for identifying Neisseria is
A. *production of oxidase
B. production of catalase
C. sugar fermentation
D. beta-hemolysis
E. alfa- hemolysis
958.
An old man has a urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. By what route are such infections most
commonly acquired?
A. *Fecal-oral route, followed by colonization of the intestine and then the perineum.
B. Respiratory route, followed by spread from the oro-pharyngeal region.
C. Respiratory route, followed by spread from the anterior nares.
D. Intestinal infection, followed by spread of bacteria to the urethra via the bloodstream.
E. E. coli spreads from skin
959.
An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the newborn nursery. You
are called upon to investigate. According to your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the MOST likely
source of the organism?
A. Colon
B. *Nose
C. Throat
D. Vagina
E. Smalll intestine
960.
Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins both share this property.
A. They are proteins.
B. They are structural components of the bacterial cell wall.
C. They have an enzymatic type of activity.
D. *They are toxic to animals.
E. none of the above
961.
Blood cultures from the patient grow a non lactose fermenting gram negative bacillus. Which of
the following is likely to be a constituent of this organism?
A. O antigen 157, H antigen 7 (0157 H7)
B. *Vi antigen (capsule, virulence antigen)
C. O antigen 139(0139)
D. Urease
E. K1 (capsular type l)
962.
Both the cholera toxin and the E. coli LT toxin
A. have an A+B subunit arrangement
B. are identical in their primary structure
C. are ADP-ribosylating toxins
D. have an enzymatic mechanism of action
E. *all of the above
963.
Campylobacter jejuni gastroenteritis is associated with consumption of contaminated water or
foods which include the following EXCEPT:
A. milk
B. chicken
C. clams
D. *hamburger
E. poultry
964.
Characteristics of Streptococcus mutans which allow it to initiate dental caries include
A. the ability to attach specifically to the pellicle of the tooth
B. *the ability to produce lactic acid from sucrose, glucose and fructose
C. the ability to form and grow in a biofilm on the enamel of the tooth
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
965.
966.
967.
968.
969.
970.
971.
972.
973.
Cholera toxin resembles which of the following toxins?
A. *Labile toxin of Escherichia coli.
B. Stable toxin of E. coli.
C. Diphtheria toxin.
D. Tetanus toxin.
E. Staphylococcal enterotoxin
Choose faithful composition of yolk salt agar
A. *MPA, yolk, 9 % of sodium chloride
B. MPA, ram’s , 9 % of sodium chloride
C. MPA, rabbit’s red cells, 9 % of sodium chloride
D. MPA, horse’s red cells , 9 % of sodium chloride
E. MPA, glucose, 9 % chloride of sodium
Complications of typhoid fever are:
A. *intestinal perforation
B. liver abscesses
C. both a and b
D. neurological damage
E. sepsis
Each of the following agents are aerobes, EXCEPT:
A. *Clostridium perfringens
B. Enterococcus faecalis
C. Escherichia coli
D. Vibrio cholerae
E. All of the above
Each of the following statements concerning enterotoxins is correct EXCEPT:
A. *Enterotoxins typically cause bloody diarrhea with leukocytes in the stool
B. Staphylococcus aureus produces an enterotoxin that causes vomiting and diarrhea
C. Vibrio cholerae causes cholera by producing an enterotoxin that activates adenylate cyclase
D. Escherichia coli enterotoxin mediates ADP-ribosylation of a G protein
E. All of the above
Each of the following statements concerning gonorrhea is correct EXCEPT:
A. Infection in men is more frequently symptomatic in women
B. A presumptive diagnosis can be made by finding gram-negative kidney-bean-shaped diplococci
within neutrophils in a urethral discharge
C. *The definitive diagnosis can be made by detecting at least a 4-fold rise in antibody to Neisseria
gonorrhoeae
D. Gonococcal conjunctivitis of the newborn rarely occurs in the United States, because silver nitrate
or erythromycin is commonly used as prophylaxis
E. All of the above
Each of the following statements concerning gram-negative rods is correct EXCEPT:
A. *Escherichia coli is part of the normal flora of the colon; therefore, it does not cause diarrhea
B. E. coli ferments lactose, whereas the enteric pathogens Shigella and Salmonella do not
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae, although a cause of pneumonia, is part of the normal flora of the colon
D. Proteus species are highly motile organisms that are found in the human colon and cause urinary
tract infections
E. Escherichia coli enterotoxin mediates ADP-ribosylation of a G protein
Each of the following statements concerning Neisseria meningitidis is correct EXCEPT:
A. It is an oxidase-positive, gram-negative diplo-coccus
B. It contains endotoxin in its cell wall
C. *It produces an exotoxin that stimulates adenylate cyclase
D. It has a polysaccharide capsule that is antiphagocytic
E. All of the above
Each of the following statements concerning Staphylococcus aureus is correct EXCEPT:
A. Gram-positive cocci in grapelike clusters are seen on Gram-stained smear
B. The coagulase test is positive
C. Treatment should include a beta-lactamase-resistant penicillin
D. *Endotoxin is an important pathogenetic factor
E. All of the above
974.
Each of the following statements concerning staphylococci is correct EXCEPT:
A. S. aureus is differentiated from S. epidermidis by the production of coagulase
B. S. aureus infections are often associated with abscess formation
C. The majority of clinical isolates of S. aureus elaborate penicillinase; therefore, presumptive
antibiotic therapy for S. aureus infections should not consist of penicillin G
D. *Scalded skin syndrome caused by S. aureus is due to enzymatic degradation of epidermal
desmosomes by catalase
E. All of the above
975.
Each of the statements about the classification of streptococci is correct EXCEPT:
A. Pneumococci {Streptococcus pneumoniae) are alpha-hemolytic and can be serotyped on the basis
of their polysaccharide capsules
B. Enterococci are group D streptococci and can be classified by their ability to grow in 6.5% sodium
chloride
C. Although pneumococci and the viridans streptococci are alpha-hemolytic, they can be
differentiated by the bile solubility test and their susceptibility to optochin
D. *Viridans streptococci are identified by Lance-field grouping, which is based on the C
carbohydrate in the cell wall
E. All of the above
976.
Endotoxin:
A. is produced by Gram-positive bacteria.
B. *has profound biological effects due to the Lipid A moiety.
C. has important enzymatic activities.
D. is composed of protein.
E. is usually found in secreted rather than cell-associated form.
977.
Escherichia, Salmonella, Yersinia, and Shigella are put together in Bergey's Manual because they
are all
A. pathogens
B. *gram-negative facultatively anaerobic rods
C. gram-positive aerobic cocci
D. fermentative
E. none of the above
978.
For detection of carriers in enteric fever, which of the following specimens is most important?
A. *Faeces,
B. Urine.
C. Blood.
D. Sputum.
E. CSF.
979.
For determining the serotype of infecting organism, detection of which agglutinins is more
important in Widal test?
A. *O.
B. H.
C. Fimbrial.
D. M.
E. Vi
980.
For Escherichia coli most impotent which antigens?
A. capsular
B. *somatic
C. flagellar
D. Vi
E. all of these
981.
For which one of the following enteric illnesses is caused by vibrio?
A. Campylobacter enterocolitis
B. Shigella enterocolitis
C. *Cholera
D. Typhoid fever
E. All of the above
982.
For which one of the following enteric illnesses is a chronic carrier state MOST likely to develop?
A. Campylobacter enterocolitis
B. Shigella enterocolitis
C. Cholera
D. *Typhoid fever
E. Botulism
983.
From which site is a-hemolytic Streptococcus isolate most likely to have spread in blood?
A. Anterior nares.
B. *Oropharynx.
C. Lower respiratory tract.
D. Distal urethra.
E. Facial skin.
984.
Gram stain of CSF sediment from a patient with meningitis contains Gram-negative cocci, many in
pairs. Which organism below is most likely?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. *Neisseria meningitidis
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Escherichia coli
985.
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome is caused by:
A. enteropathogenic Escherichia coli.
B. enterotoxigenic E. coli.
C. enteroinvasive
D. *enterohaemorrhagic E. coli.
E. enteroaggregative E. coli.
986.
Heavily-encapsulated strains of Neisseria meningitidis are far more virulent than non-encapsulated
isolates. How does a capsule enhance virulence?
A. Binds to the Fc region of some subclasses of human IgG.
B. Prevents activation of complement by the classical pathway.
C. Enables bacteria to adhere tightly to mammalian cells.
D. Reduces access of antibiotics to the bacterial membrane.
E. *Inhibits phagocytosis by neutrophils
987.
Helicobacter pylori, a cause of peptic ulcers and gastric carcinoma, is diagnosed by which of the
following methods?
A. Serology (serum) test
B. Biopsy (invasive)
C. Radioactive isotope C14 test
D. *Bacteriological method
E. All of the above
988.
How does Protein A aid in virulence?
A. *Binds the Fc region of IgG, decreases opsonization.
B. Hydrolyzes secretory IgA.
C. Binds Factor H, prevents activation of complement.
D. Extracts iron from plasma proteins.
E. Promotes tight binding of bacteria to extracellular matrix.
989.
How we can distinguish S. aureus from staphylococci epidermidis?
A. Production of catalase.
B. Colony color when grown on BHI agar.
C. Ability to grow on MacConkey agar.
D. Type of hemolysis on sheep blood agar.
E. *Production of coagulase.
990.
Humans acquire shigellosis from:
A. dogs
B. cats
C. swine
D. chickens
E. *humans
991.
If this patient had Shigellosis, the stool culture on MacConkey agar will grow:
A. lactose fermenting colonies
B. *non-lactose fermenting colonies
C. glucose fermenting colonies
D. pink colonies
E. black colonies
992.
In cervical specimens of 21-year-old woman presents gram-negative diplococci within leucocytes.
Which bacterium is most likely to be the cause of this infection?
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. *Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Nocardia asteroides
993.
In carrier of enteric fever, Salmonella may be isolated most often from:
A. urine.
B. faeces.
C. blood.
D. *bile
E. all of the above.
994.
In the pathogenesis of Helicobacter pylori what is the colonization site in the host?
A. nasal sinuses
B. *stomach
C. lower intestine
D. throat
E. respiratory tract
995.
Infection with which organism is most likely to result in septicemia?
A. EIEC
B. Shigella flexnerii
C. *Salmonella enteritidis
D. EAggEC
E. Shigella boydi
996.
Isolation of pneumococci from clinical specimens may be attempted by intraperitoneal inoculation
A. rabbit.
B. rat.
C. *mice.
D. sheep.
E. Guine pig
997.
Klebsiella pneumoniae exhibits which distinguishing virulence characteristic?
A. abscess formation
B. *presence of a capsule
C. a characteristic toxin
D. strongly invasive property
E. presence of leukocydine
998.
Leukocidins are
A. enzymes contained in the lysosomes of phagocytes to kill ingested bacteria
B. proteins produced by bacteria that kill closely-related bacteria
C. proteases produced by bacteria which destroy host immunoglobulins
D. enterotoxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus involved in food-borne disease
E. *substances produced by pyogenic bacteria that kill phagocytes
999.
Many isolates of E. coli are now ampicillin-resistant because they produce beta-lactamases. Which
sentence below most accurately describes these enzymes?
A. They inactivate all beta-lactam antibiotics.
B. Although they are produced by many isolates of E. coli, such beta-lactamases are not produced by
other Gram-negative rods.
C. *Genes which encode them are often present on conjugative plasmids.
D. They cause resistance to aminoglycosides as well as beta-lactams.
E. They have spread from Gram-negatives like E. coli to Gram-positive pathogens like
1000.
Most important complication/s of enteric fever is/are:
A. intestinal perforation.
B. haemorrhage.
C. circulatory collapse.
D. *all of the above.
E. none of the above
1001.
Most strains of Staphylococcus aureus show:
A. *a golden-yellow pigment.
B. ?-haemolysis on sheep blood agar.
C. phosphatase production.
D. novobicin resistance
E. all of the above.
1002.
Of the organisms listed below, which one is the MOST frequent bacterial cause of pharyngitis?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. *Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Neisseria meningitidis
E. All of the above
1003.
One common cause of community-acquired pneumonia is:
A. Salmonella typhimurium
B. Escherichia coli
C. Enterobacter
D. Shigella flexneri
E. *Klebsiella pneumoniae
1004.
Proper cooking of beef products can help reduce the risk of what kind of infections?
A. Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)
B. Enterotoxigenic E. Coli (ETEC)
C. *Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
D. Enteroinvasive E. Coli (EIEC)
E. Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
1005.
Residents of an assisted-living facility are immunized against Streptococcus pneumoniae. What is
the antigenic component of the vaccine?
A. A protein toxoid.
B. Killed whole bacteria.
C. Purified toxin.
D. *Purified capsular polysaccharides.
E. Live bacteria of attenuated virulence
1006.
Scalded skin syndrome is due to which toxin of Staphylococcus aureus?
A. *Epidermolytic toxin.
B. Enterotoxin.
C. Leucocidin.
D. Haemolysin
E. Necrotoxin
1007.
Some of the pathogenic members of the family Enterobacteriaceae require a small number of cells
to infect humans because:
A. Nutrient requirements of the different organisms
B. *Greater ability to survive an acid environment
C. There are more species present in nature than the less infective organisms
D. These bacteria produce more flagella than other members of this family
E. They have endotoxin
1008.
Staphylococcus aureus is easily transmitted within the hospital environment. Which feature of this
bacterium is most largely responsible for its ease of spread?
A. *Resistance to heat, cold, and drying.
B. Ability to colonize the digestive tract.
C. Presence of an outer membrane impermeable to most disinfectants.
D. Production of extracellular polysaccharide which allows it to adhere tightly to surfaces.
E. Ability to form spores which are resistant to disinfectants and easily dispersed.
1009.
The best treatment for cholera is
A. antiserum injection
B. *rehydration therapy
C. tetracycline
D. toxoid
E. vaccine
The carrier site in humans for pathogenic Neisseria meningitidis is the
A. conjunctiva
B. *nasopharynx
C. urogenital tract
D. blood
E. meninges
1011.
The coagulase test is used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from
A. *other staphylococci
B. streptococci
C. micrococci
D. enterococci
E. pneumococci
1012.
The coagulase test, in which the bacteria cause plasma to clot, is used to distinguish
A. Streptococcus pyogenes from Enterococcus faecalis
B. Streptococcus pyogenes from Staphylococcus aureus
C. *Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis
E. All of the above
1013.
The colonies of Vibrio cholerae and V. parahaemolyticus can be differentiated on:
A. *thiosulphate-citrate-bile-sucrose agar.
B. alkaline bile salt agar.
C. MacConkey medium.
D. alkaline peptone water
E. all of the above media
1014.
The DNA coding for the production of cholera toxin in Vibrio cholerae is on the:
A. Plasmid
B. *Chromosome
C. Virulent phage
D. Temperate phage
E. Transposon
1015.
The fibrin coat that can be formed by coagulase-positive staphylococci and the hyaluronic acid
capsule of Streptococcus pyogenes are pathogenic strategies to
A. promote colonization of a host
B. cause direct damage to host cells during pathogenesis
C. hide bacterial antigens from the host immune tissues
D. *survive as intracellular parasites
E. alter or change their surface antigens within the course of an infection
1016.
The following occurs during the course of disease due to Vibrio cholerae infection, except one:
A. Patients show signs of disease at 8 to 72 hrs after ingestion of contaminated food or water.
B. *Patients sustain considerable damage to their intestines.
C. Patients experience nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping, and diarrhea.
D. Patients sometimes lose between 10 to 20 liters of fluid/day.
E. “Rice-water” stool presents
1017.
The hallmark of therapy for severe cases of cholera is:
A. antimicrobial therapy
B. vaccination
C. *replacement of electrolytes
D. outpatient treatment
E. serotherapy
1018.
The laboratory informs you that an isolate of Staphylococcus aureus is ‘methicillin-resistant’.
Which phrase below best describes such isolates?
A. Although resistant to methicillin, nearly all are sensitive to cephalosporins.
B. *They are resistant to both ‘anti-staph’ penicillins and cephalosporins.
C. They are seldom resistant to antibiotics other than beta-lactams.
D. They produce a -lactamase active on both cephalosporins and penicillins.
E. The ‘methicillin-resistance’ gene also confers resistance to vancomycin.
1019.
The large volume of fluid lost by diarrhea during infection with Vibrio cholerae
1010.
A. is a consequence of fluid replacement during treatment of the disease and does not result directly
from activity of the cholera toxin
B. results from electrolytes binding to the intestinal enterocytes which upsets their water retention
capability
C. is caused when the vibrios bind to the intestinal epithelium and physically or mechanically block
the uptake of fluids by the gut epithelial cells
D. *follows activation of adenylate cyclase by cholera toxin and the subsequent effect of cyclic AMP
on water and salt balances of the host cells
E. results from neurotoxic effects of the cholera toxin on the central nervous system
1020.
The main effect of E. coli and Vibrio cholerae enterotoxin on host cells of the gastrointestinal tract
that leads to the pathology of the diseases, is to
A. inhibit protein synthesis
B. *cause fluid and electrolyte imbalance
C. cleave host cell membranes
D. act as superantigens to trigger an overwhelming immunological reaction
E. initiate a localized inflammatory response in the intestine
1021.
The MOST important contribution of the capsule of Streptococcus pneumoniae to virulence is
A. To prevent dehydration of the organisms on mucosal surfaces
B. *To retard phagocytosis by polymorphonuclear leukocytes
C. To inhibit polymorphonuclear leukocyte chemo taxis
D. To accelerate tissue invasion by its collage-naselike activity
E. All of the above
1022.
The MOST important way the host circumvents the function of the pneumococcal polysaccharide
capsule is via
A. T lymphocytes sensitized to polysaccharide antigens
B. Polysaccharide-degrading enzymes
C. *Anticapsular antibody
D. Activated macrophages
E. All of the above
1023.
The pathogenesis of which one of the following diseases does NOT involve an exotoxin?
A. Scarlet fever
B. *Typhoid fever
C. Toxic shock syndrome
D. Botulism
E. All of the above
1024.
The pathogenesis of which one of the following organisms is MOST likely to involve invasion of
the intestinal mucosa?
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. *Shigella sonnei
C. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
D. Clostridium botulinum
E. All of the above
1025.
The pathogenesis of which one of the following organisms is MOST likely to involve dehydration?
A. *Vibrio cholerae
B. Shigella sonnei
C. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
D. Clostridium botulinum
E. Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli
1026.
The pathogenic mechanisms that make Helicobacter pylori the causative agent of gastritis include
the following except:
A. *invasive abilities
B. urease production
C. catalase production
D. microaerophilism
E. motility
1027.
The portion of the bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) that is responsible for the toxicity of the
molecule is
A. *lipid A
B. lipoteichoic acid
C. O polysaccharide
D. Omp A
E. N-acetylglucosamine (NAG)
1028.
The reservoir of Salmonella typhi is:
A. dogs
B. cats
C. turtles
D. pigs
E. *humans
1029.
The severe diarrhea of cholera is produced by a protein exotoxin that acts on enterocytes. Which
statement below best describes the effect of Cholera toxin?
A. Alters the actin cytoskeleton.
B. Inactivates ribosomes.
C. Proteolytic cleavage of a specific cellular protein.
D. *Stimulates adenyl cyclase.
E. Stimulates guanyl cyclase.
1030.
The streptococcal invasin which behaves as a "spreading factor" by breaking down the framework
of connective tissues is called
A. collagenase
B. streptokinase
C. streptolysin
D. erythrogenic toxin (pyogenic exotoxin)
E. *hyaluronidase
1031.
The symptoms in scarlet fever are due to
A. streptolysin
B. coagulase
C. *pyrogenic toxin
D. alpha toxin
E. leucocidin
1032.
This bacterium, although usually not considered as normal flora, frequently colonizes the stomach
and is thought to be the cause of gastric and duodenal ulcers.
A. Lactobacillus acidophilus
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Escherichia coli
D. Vibrio cholerae
E. *Helicobacter pylori
1033.
Three organisms, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Haemophilus influenzae
cause the vast majority of cases of bacterial meningitis. What is the MOST important pathogenic
component they share?
A. Protein A
B. *Capsule
C. Endotoxin
D. beta-Lactamase
E. All of the above
1034.
Tissue-degrading enzymes play an important role in the pathogenesis of several bacteria. Which
one of the following is NOT involved in tissue or cell damage?
A. Lecithinase of Clostridium perfringens
B. Hyaluronidase of Streptococcus pyogenes
C. *M protein of Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Leukocidin of Staphylococcus aureus
E. All of the above
1035.
To determine to which species of vibrios infectious agent belongs, the microbiologist performs
some tests on colonies cultured from stool samples. These tests include the following EXCEPT:
A. growth on thiosulfate-citrate-bile-sucrose (TCBS) agar
B. fermentation of sucrose
C. growth at different NaCl concentrations
D. *serotyping based on H antigens
E. phagotyping
To test a stool specimen for Campylobacter, all of the following measures would be used except:
A. *Passing the samples through 0.45 micron filters
B. Plating on agar containing glucose or sucrose
C. Plating on Campy blood agar containing 5 antibiotics
D. Incubating the plates in an atmosphere of 5% O2, 10% CO2
E. Incubating the plates at 42° C
1037.
Toxin of Escherichia coli that is very similar to the shiga toxin of Shigella dysenteriae is:
A. *heat-labile enterotoxin
B. heat-stable enterotoxin
C. adherence-promoting toxin
D. verotoxin
E. exfoliative toxin
1038.
Toxin of Salmonella spp. is:
A. Leukocidin
B. Hemolysins
C. Toxin A - enterotoxin
D. *LPS
E. Elastase - hemorrage
1039.
Viridans streptococci commonly cause
A. pneumonia
B. meningitis
C. *subacute endocarditis
D. otitis media
E. arthritis
1040.
What bacterial structure or substance is primarily associated with antigenic variation in the Group
A streptococci?
A. outer membrane protein (omp)
B. streptokinase
C. hyaluronic acid capsule
D. *Polysaccharide
E. M-protein
1041.
What do endotoxins and exotoxins have in common?
A. secreted into the medium
B. *cause damage to the host
C. heat stable
D. heat resistent
E. contain polysaccharide
1042.
What is the cause of food poisoning?
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Salmonella enteriditis
C. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
D. Clostridium botulinum
E. *All of the above
1043.
What is the incubation period for cholerae?
A. 6 to 8 hours
B. 12 to 24 hours
C. *48 to 72 hours
D. 2 to 4 days
E. 1 to 2 weeks
1044.
What is the incubation period for Shigella dysenteriae?
A. 6 to 8 hours
B. 12-18 hours
C. *24 to 48 hours
D. 2 to 4 days
E. 1 to 2 weeks
1045.
What is the most common cause of urinary tract infections?
A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
1036.
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Enterococcus fecalis
D. Streptococcus bovis
E. Staphylococcus epidermidis
1046.
What is the most common outcome of infection with Helicobacter pylori?
A. *Peptic ulcers or gastric cancer
B. Severe diarrhea
C. No clinical manifestations
D. Bacteremia
E. Hepatitis
1047.
What is the primary cause of death from Salmonella typhi (Typhoid fever)?
A. *Hemorrhaging necrosis
B. DIC (disseminating intravascular coagulation)
C. Toxemia
D. High fever
E. All of the above
1048.
What virulence factor of E. coli is associated with adhesion in the urinary and gastrointestinal
tracts and also binds to a blood group antigen?
A. Colonizing factor antigens
B. Aggregative adherence fimbriae
C. *P. pili
D. Intimin
E. Ipa protein
1049.
Which bacteria can produce on Endo’s medium dark pink colonies?
A. Salmonella enterica
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Shigella sonnei
E. Shigella dysenteriae
1050.
Which bacteria can produce on Mac Conkey medium dark pink colonies?
A. Salmonella enterica
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Shigella sonnei
E. Shigella dysenteriae
1051.
Which Escherichia coli type is most like Shigella in its virulence plasmid and mode of infection:
A. EHEC
B. EPEC
C. EAggEC
D. ETEC
E. *EIEC
1052.
Which genus of bacteria has pathogens that can cause blindness and deafness?
A. Branhamella
B. Staphylococcus
C. Streptococcus
D. *Neisseria
E. Shigella
1053.
Which infectious agent of those covered in the chapter would most likely be acquired from a
contaminated doorknob?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. *Staphylococcus aureus
1054.
Which of the following are pyogenic cocci:
A. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Neisseria
E. *all of these
1055.
Which of the following bacteria does not belong to the family Enterobacteriaceae?
A. Shigella.
B. Salmonella.
C. Yersinia.
D. *Vibrio
E. All of the above
1056.
Which of the following bacteria belong/s to the family Enterobacteriaceae?
A. Shigella.
B. Salmonella.
C. Yersinia.
D. *All of the above
E. Escherichia
1057.
Which of the following bacteria can cause infective type of food poisoning?
A. *Salmonella enteritidis.
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Clostridium botulinum.
D. Clostridium perfringens
E. All of the above.
1058.
Which of the following bacteria are aerobes?
A. Lactobacilli.
B. *Vibrio cholerae.
C. Salmonella.
D. Shigella.
E. Neisseria
1059.
Which of the following bacteria is more resistant to adverse environmental conditions?
A. Shigella dysenteriae.
B. S. Flexneri.
C. *S. boydii.
D. S. sonnei.
E. Salmonella typhy
1060.
Which of the following bacteria is less resistant to adverse environmental conditions?
A. *Shigella dysenteriae.
B. S. Flexneri.
C. S. boydii.
D. S. sonnei.
E. Salmonella typhy
1061.
Which of the following bacteria is negative for fermentation of mannitol?
A. *Shigella dysenteriae.
B. S. Flexneri.
C. S. boydii.
D. S. sonnei.
E. All of the above.
1062.
Which of the following bacteria cause bloody diarheae?
A. *Shigella dysenteriae.
B. S. Flexneri.
C. S. boydii.
D. S. sonnei.
E. All of the above.
1063.
Which of the following bacteria is/are associated with food poisoning due to consumption of sea
fish?
A. *Vibrio parahaemolyticus.
B. V. alginolyticus.
C. V. vulnificus.
D. V. cholerae non-O1
E. All of the above
1064.
Which of the following bacteria is/are non- halophilic?
A. Vibrio parahaemolyticus.
B. *V. cholerae.
C. V. vulnificus.
D. V. alginolyticus
E. All of the above.
1065.
Which of the following bacteria is/are primarily human pathogens?
A. Salmonella Typhi.
B. S. Paratyphi A.
C. S. Paratyphi B.
D. Shigella
E. *All of the above.
1066.
Which of the following bacterial toxins behaves as a superantigen through its stimulation of a very
large fraction of the host T-cell population?
A. Streptococcal streptolysin
B. Salmonella LPS (endotoxin)
C. Pseudomonas Exotoxin A
D. *Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome toxin
E. E. coli O157 H:7 shiga toxin
1067.
Which of the following best describes Gram-negative bacteria?
A. Thick layer of peptidoglycan and no outer membrane
B. Thick layer of peptidoglycan and an outer membrane
C. Thin layer of peptidoglycan and no outer membrane
D. *Thin layer of peptidoglycan and an outer membrane
E. Teichoic acids, lipoteichoic acids, and porins
1068.
Which of the following complications can be associated with Shigella dysenteriae serotype I
infection?
A. Arthritis
B. Haemolytic uraemic syndrom
C. Toxic neuritis
D. Conjuctivitis
E. *All of the above
1069.
Which of the following does NOT apply to the endotoxin of the enteric organisms
A. derives from O-antigen
B. derives from lipid A
C. pyrogenic in humans
D. *secreted by Enterobacteriaceae members
E. presents in cell wall
1070.
Which of the following does not occur when an individual is infected with Salmonella enteriditis?
A. Endotoxins cause inflammation and fever
B. Enterotoxins cause diarrhea
C. Cytotoxins lyse endothelial cells lining the intestinal tract
D. *Proteolytic enzymes cause necrosis
E. All of the above
1071.
Which of the following expresses a Shiga toxin which disrupts protein synthesis, leading to
destruction of intestinal villus and decreased absorption with an increase in fluid secretion?
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. *EHEC
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. ETEC
E. EIEC
1072.
Which of the following features is/are characteristic of infection with Shigella dysenterie?
A. Abdominal pain
B. Tenesmus
C. Pyrexia
D. Bloody diarrhoea
E. *All of the above
1073.
Which of the following Gram-negative rods ferments glucose, is oxidase negative, ferments
lactose, and is indole positive (tryptophan metabolizing)?
A. *E.coli
B. Shigella
C. K. pneumoniae
D. Salmonella
E. P. vulgaris
1074.
Which of the following Gram-negative rods in the lactose fermentation MacConkey test, what
color would indicate a positive test?
A. Black
B. *Pink
C. Blue
D. Purple
E. Green
1075.
Which of the following has pathogenesis mediated by cytotoxic Shiga toxins as opposed to
plasmid-mediated?
A. Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)
B. Enterotoxigenic E. Coli (ETEC)
C. *Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
D. Enteroinvasive E. Coli (EIEC)
E. Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
1076.
Which of the following is a pathogen of the oropharynx?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. *Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Streptococcus bovis
D. Streptococcus viridans
E. Enterococcus faecalis
1077.
Which of the following is an important cause of hemorrhagic colitis (HC) and hemolytic uremic
syndrome (HUS) in the United States?
A. Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)
B. Enterotoxigenic E. Coli (ETEC)
C. *Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
D. Enteroinvasive E. Coli (EIEC)
E. Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
1078.
Which of the following is associated with dysentery with leukocytes in stool, similar to
shingellosis?
A. Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)
B. Enterotoxigenic E. Coli (ETEC)
C. Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
D. *Enteroinvasive E. Coli (EIEC)
E. Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
1079.
Which of the following is most associated with infant diarrhea in underdeveloped countries; watery
diarrhea and vomiting, and non-bloody stools?
A. *Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)
B. Enterotoxigenic E. Coli (ETEC)
C. Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
D. Enteroinvasive E. Coli (EIEC)
E. Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
1080.
Which of the following is most associated with Traveler diarrhea; infant diarrhea in developing
countries; watery diarrhea, vomiting, cramps, nausea, and low-grade fever?
A. Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)
B. *Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
C. Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
D. Enteroinvasive E. Coli (EIEC)
E. Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
1081.
Which of the following is not true about Shigella?
A. *Serotyping is based on O and H antigens
B. Causes bacillary dysentery
C. Most strains are lactose nonfermenters
D. Virulence is plasmid mediated
1082.
01):
E. The organism multiplies directly in the host cell
Which of the following is not true about the bacterium classified as Vibrio cholerae (V. cholerae
A. invades the small intestine
B. *is often associated with marine environments
C. causes disease only through the production of an enterotoxin
D. reacts with group 1 antiserum against the lipopolysaccharide (0) antigens
E. arabinose is not fermented
1083.
Which of the following is the least accurate statement regarding Vibrio cholerae?
A. *Dark-field microscopic observation of stool from infected patients reveals large nonmotile rods.
B. Cholera toxin is closely related to E. coli LT (heat labile toxin).
C. Infected patients suffer from electrolyte deficiency and metabolic acidosis.
D. Fimbrial adhesions produced by the organism facilitate adherence to the brush border of intestinal
epithelial cells.
E. Can grow on alkalaine media
1084.
Which of the following is the least accurate statement regarding Shigella dysenteriae.
A. The organism produces a toxin which inhibits protein synthesis.
B. The toxin produced by this organism is a single polypeptide.
C. A large plasmid is associated with invasiveness.
D. The organism multiplies directly in the host cell cytoplasm.
E. *Most infections are passed by the oral-fecal route.
1085.
Which of the following organisms is most likely?
A. *Escherichia coli
B. Salmonella enterica
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Shigella sonnei
E. Shigella dysenteriae
1086.
Which of the following organisms may lead to pseudomembrane formation in the throat?
A. A.Corynebaclerium diphtheriae
B. Treponema Vinsentii
C. Streptococcus pyogenes.
D. Candida albicans.
E. *All of the above
1087.
Which of the following produces heat-labile (LT-I and LT-II) and heat-stabile (STa and STb)
enterotoxins that stimulate hypersecretion of fluids and electrolytes?
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. EHEC
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. *ETEC
E. EIEC
1088.
Which of the following represents a major difference between Salmonella and Shigella infections?
A. incubation period
B. mode of transmission
C. *motility
D. presence/absence of fever and diarrhea
E. the portal of entry
1089.
Which of the following represents a major difference between Salmonella and Shigella infections?
A. incubation period
B. mode of transmission
C. *H-antigen
D. presence/absence of fever and diarrhea
E. the portal of entry
1090.
Which of the following serotypes of Salmonella can cause gastroenteritis?
A. S. Enteritidis.
B. S. Newport.
C. S. Typhimurium.
D. S. cholerae suis
E. *All of the above.
1091.
Which of the following statements about bacterial endotoxins is true?
A. They usually act at a tissue site in the host that is removed from the site of bacterial growth.
B. *They are nonantigenic
C. They typically have an enzymatic (specific) type of activity.
D. They can be converted into toxoids
E. none of the above
1092.
Which of the following statements best describes Streptococcus pneumoniae?
A. *bile soluble, optochin sensitive, capsulated
B. bile soluble, catalase negative, noncapsulated
C. bile soluble, gramnegative, optochin resistant
D. bile soluble, catalase positive, optochin sensitive
E. bile soluble, catalase negative, motily
1093.
Which of the following statements is true about the toxin produced by Vibrio cholera?
A. It has its own adenylate cyclase activity.
B. *The A1 subunit indirectly stimulates the host adenylate cyclase.
C. The B subunit directly stimulates the host adenylate cyclase.
D. The toxin blocks the host adenylate cyclase.
E. The toxin is lypopolisaccharide
1094.
Which of the following tests can be used for the assay of cholera toxin?
A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay.
B. Radioimmunoassay.
C. Morphological changes in Chinese hamster ovary cells.
D. *All of the above.
E. Non of the above
1095.
Which of the following tests may be used to differentiate Salmonella typhi from Shigella species?
A. glucose fermentation
B. gas production from glucose
C. *motility
D. citrate utilization
E. color of colonies on Endo medium
1096.
Which of the following tests would not differentiate Vibrio cholera non O1 from Vibrio
parahaemolyticus?
A. oxidase activity.
B. *Growth on TCBS agar
C. Growth on special blood agar
D. Growth on salt-free and salt-containing agar.
E. Production of enterotoxin
1097.
Which of the following vaccines can be used for prophylaxis against enteric fever?
A. Killed whole cell vaccine.
B. Purified Vi antigen vaccine.
C. Oral vaccine.
D. TABTe
E. *All of the above.
1098.
Which of the following vaccines is/are available for prophylaxis against cholera?
A. Killed whole organism vaccine.
B. Non-living oral В subunit-whole cell vaccine.
C. Live vaccine
D. Recombinant vaccine
E. *All of the above.
1099.
Which of the following would be found in Gram-negative bacteria? (best answer)
A. Teichoic acids and lipoteichoic acids
B. Periplasmic space and LPS
C. Teichoic acids and porins
D. Teichoic acids, lipoteichoic acids, and porins
E. *Periplasmic space, LPS, and porins
1100.
Which one of the following enterobacteriaceae always are causative agents of enteric diseases?
A. Shigella
B. Salmonella
C. Klebsiella
D. Citrobacter
E. *only a and b
1101.
Which one of the following is NOT an important characteristic of either Neisseria gonorrhoeae or
Neisseria meningitidis?
A. Polysaccharide capsule
B. IgA protease
C. *M protein
D. Pili
E. All of the above
1102.
Which one of the following is NOT an important characteristic of Streptococcus pyogenes?
A. *Protein A
B. M protein
C. Beta-hemolysin
D. Polysaccharide group-specific substance
E. All of the above
1103.
Which one of the following organisms causes diarrhea by producing an enterotoxin that activates
adenylate cyclase?
A. *Escherichia coli
B. Bacteroides fragilis
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Enterococcus faecalis
E. All of the above
1104.
Which one of the following organisms that in fects the gastrointestinal tract is the MOST frequent
cause of bacteremia?
A. Shigella flexneri
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. *Salmonella typhi
E. Helicobacter pylori
1105.
Which organism below is most likely?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E. *Neisseria meningitidis
1106.
Which organism below, if present in only one of three blood cultures from a single patient, is most
likely to represent contamination caused by poor antiseptic technique, rather than genuine infection?
A. *Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C. Escherichia coli.
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
E. Haemophilus influenzae.
1107.
Which test below would best distinguish S. aureus from one of the less-virulent staphylococci?
A. Production of catalase.
B. Colony color when grown on BHI agar.
C. Ability to grow on MacConkey agar.
D. *Production of coagulase.
E. Type of hemolysis on sheep blood agar.
1108.
Which test result would rule out an Enterococcus isolate?
A. growth in 6.5% NaCl
B. *oxidase positive
C. catalase negative
D. PYR positive
E. motility
1109.
Which virulence factor results in the symptoms of Staphylococcal food poisoning?
A. exfoliative exotoxin
B. hyaluronidase
C. endotoxin
D. *enterotoxin
E. neurotoxin
1110.
Your patient has subacute bacterial endocarditis caused by a member of the viridans group of
streptococci. Which one of the following sites is MOST likely to be the source of the organism?
A. Skin
B. Colon
C. *Oropharynx
D. Urethra '
E. All of the above
1111.
A young child develops bloody diarrhea, produced by Shigella infection. From which source was
this infection most likely to have been contracted?
A. Rare hamburger.
B. Dog or cat.
C. Cow, horse, or sheep.
D. *Another child.
E. Spores present in soil.
1112.
Epidemiologists (using the Kauffman-White classification) report that an outbreak has been caused
by Salmonella enterica, serotype Newport. Structure of which pair of antigens determined the serotype as
Newport?
A. Heat-labile and heat-stable enterotoxins.
B. *Flagella and O-antigen.
C. Pili and capsular polysaccharide.
D. Peptidoglycan and teichoic acid.
E. Hemolysin and cell-wall-associated carbohydrate.
1113.
Escherichia coli and Neisseria meningitidis isolated from blood cultures often have transport
systems (for acquiring metal ions from the environment) lacking in their less-virulent relatives. Which
metal is acquired by the majority of these systems?
A. Copper
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Magnesium
E. *Iron
1114.
Healthy adult travelers visiting Peru are cautioned against eating uncooked vegetables and
unpeeled fruits, and against drinking unbottled water. However, they are already resistant to cholera
because of:
A. *a gastric barrier, due to stomach acids.
B. the gamma globulin shots they received before their trip.
C. their ability to avoid contaminated food due to its acidic smell.
D. their consumption of large prophylactic amounts of bicarbonates.
E. they were vaccinated
1115.
In a 30-year old patient with fever, nausea, vomiting and bloody diarrhea, all of the following
bacteria should be considered in the diffrential diagnosis, except one:
A. Salmonella
B. Shigella
C. *Campylobacter
D. Yersinia
E. ETEC
1116.
Only recently have Campylobacter and Helicobacter been identified as the causative agents for
certain infections. This is because the clinical laboratories now routinely test for organisms with the
following characteristic:
A. *inability to ferment carbohydrates
B. single polar flagellum
C. microaerophilic nature
D. small size
E. oxydase-positive
1117.
The classic cause of epidemic cholera is Vibrio cholerae O1. The designation "O1" refers to the
antigenic structure of an important component of the bacterial envelope. What is this component?
A. Capsule
B. *Carbohydrate chains of LPS.
C. Flagella
D. Pili.
E. Teichoic acid.
1118.
The similarity between the toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST), the staph enterotoxins, and the
erythrogenic toxin (pyogenic exotoxin) is
A. they are all produced by Staphylococcus aureus
B. *they stimulate the immune system in a similar manner as superantigens
C. the pathology of the diseases that they cause is identical
D. they are all neurotoxins
E. they are the same (identical) toxin produced by three different organisms
1119.
When ampicillin was first introduced, most E. coli isolates were clinically sensitive. Many isolates
are now ampicillin-resistant because they produce ?-lactamases. Which phrase below most accurately
describes these enzymes?
A. *Genes which encode them are often present on conjugative plasmids.
B. Although they are produced by many isolates of E. coli, such ?-lactamases are not produced by
other Gram-negative rods.
C. They inactivate all ?-lactam antibiotics.
D. They cause resistance to aminoglycosides as well as b-lactams.
E. They have spread from Gram-negatives like E. coli to Gram-positive pathogens like
1120.
Which of the following interacts with G proteins that control adenylate cyclase, leading to the
catabolic conversion of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP),
resulting in a hypersecretion of water and electrolytes?
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. *EIEC
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. ETEC
E. EHEC
1121.
Your patient is a 30-year-old woman with nonbloody diarrhea for the past 14 hours. Which one of
the following organisms is LEAST likely to cause this illness?
A. Clostridium difficile
B. *Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. Salmonella enteritidis
E. All of the above
1122.
A 2 year old child presented with a membrane in the mouth. Within 24 hrs a culture report is
needed. The preferred medium is
A. Blood agar
B. *Loeffler's slope
C. Lowenstein-Jensen
D. Tellurite
E. Sugar agar
1123.
A child under treatment for leukemia is treated with Tetanus immune globulin (human). Which
phrase best describes the immunity that is produced?
A. Innate and specific.
B. Innate and humoral.
C. Innate and cell-mediated.
D. *Acquired and humoral.
E. Acquired and cell-mediated.
1124.
A patient has a positive tuberculin test. What is the immunological basis of this reaction?
A. Polyvalent antigens in tuberculin trigger local mast cell degranulation, causing increased vascular
permeability and local edema.
B. Antibodies react with tuberculin and cause local inflammation.
C. Immune complexes form in the dermis and activate Complement.
D. *TH cells respond to mycobacterial antigens, secrete cytokines and chemokines, and cause
infiltration of the site by lymphocytes and monocytes.
E. Mycobacteria injected into the dermis multiply and cause local inflammation.
1125.
A patient has an abscess from which Bacterioides fragilis is isolated. Which condition is most
likely to have facilitated infection by this organism?
A. Treatment with trimethoprim/sulfa.
B. *Tissue ischemia.
C. Presence of neutrophils.
D. Antibiotic treatment for another bacterial infection.
E. Colonization of the large intestine with spores of this organism.
1126.
A patient is diagnosed with Clostridium difficile colitis. Which item would represent a known risk
factor for such infections?
A. Been treated with antibiotics.
B. Consumed unpurified water.
C. Visited the southwestern United States.
D. Eaten undercooked fried rice.
E. Been in contact with livestock
1127.
A positive Mantoux test is indicated by an area of induration of:
A. *10 mm or more in diameter.
B. 5-9 mm in diameter.
C. 3-4 mm in diameter.
D. 1-2 mm in diameter
E. None of the above.
1128.
A positive Schick test implies that the person is:
A. immune and non-hypersensitive.
B. *susceptible and non-hypersensitive.
C. immune and hypersensitive.
D. non-immune and hypersensitive.
E. healthy
1129.
Acid fast microbes are resistante to acid because they contain in cell wall:
A. lipopolysaccharides
B. *waxes, fatty acid
C. acetylglucosamine
D. diaminopimelic acid
E. polyphosphates
1130.
Acid fastness of tubercle bacilli is attributed to:
A. Presence of mycolic acid
B. Integrity of cell wall
C. Presence of tuberculostearinic acid
D. *All are correct
E. No correct answer
1131.
Active artificial immunity to diphtheria is accomplished by
A. diphththeria antitoxin (antiserum) administration
B. *vaccination with diphtheria toxoid
C. recovery from the disease diphtheria
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
1132.
Active artificial immunity to tetanus is accomplished by
A. tetanus antitoxin (antiserum) administration
B. *vaccination with tetanus toxoid
C. recovery from the disease tetanus
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
1133.
All are true about Mycobacterium tuberculosis except
A. *Morphologically visible colonies in Lovenstein-Jensen medium within a week
B. Niacin positive
C. Pasteurisation kills the organism
D. Aerobe
E. 20 % sulphuric acid does not decolourise them
1134.
An important property of the cell envelope of acid-fast bacteria is:
A. *the abundance of mycolic acid in the cell wall
B. the presence of porins in the outer membrane
C. the lack of oxidative phosphorylation enzymes
D. the absence of a peptidoglycan layer
E. the accumulation of dipicolinic acid in the periplasmic space
1135.
An infant is brought to the emergency room, cyanotic and with poor muscle tone. Which condition
is most likely given these findings?
A. Antibiotic-associated colitis.
B. Diphtheria.
C. Anthrax.
D. *Botulism.
E. Tetanus.
1136.
Anaerobic bacteria may be propagated into the special media. Choose from following main
requirements to such media:
A. they should have low rH and be free from oxygen
B. *they should have high rH and be free from oxygen
C. they should contain minimal nutrients and be free from oxygen
D. they may have any rH and nutrients
E. All of the above
1137.
Antitoxic therapy is useful in:
A. gas gangrene.
B. diphtheria.
C. tetanus
D. *all of the above.
E. none of the above.
1138.
Appearance of a hard chancre is characteristic of:
A. *primary syphilis.
B. secondary syphilis.
C. latent syphilis.
D. tertiary syphilis.
E. complication of syphilis
1139.
Babes-Ernest granules are found in
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Anthrax bacilli
C. *Cornybacterium diphtheriae
D. Clostridium welchii
E. Yersinia pestis
1140.
Bacterial genus/genera of medical importance which produce endospores is/are:
A. Bacillus.
B. Clostridium.
C. both of the above.
D. Bacteroides
E. none of the above
1141.
Bacteroides fragilis is isolated from an abdominal abscess. Which phrase below best describes
infections like this one?
A. *Other species of bacteria are also often present.
B. Initiated by ingestion of spores.
C. Can be successfully treated with aminoglycosides alone.
D. Contracted by the respiratory route.
E. Sexually-transmitted.
1142.
Battey bacillus or Mycobacterium intracellularis is:
A. Photochromogen
B. Scotochromogen
C. *Non-chromogen
D. Rapid grower
E. No correct answer
1143.
BCG vaccination is immunisation
A. Passive
B. *Active
1144.
1145.
1146.
1147.
1148.
1149.
1150.
1151.
1152.
1153.
C. Perinatal
D. Combined
E. No correct answer
Borellia burgdorferi causes which disease?
A. *Lyme's Disease
B. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
C. Hanta
D. Rabies
E. Relapsing fever
Borrelia is classified with the spirochetes because it
A. is aerobic
B. *possesses an axial filament
C. is a rod
D. is a pathogen
E. none of the above
Both the botulinum toxin and the tetanus toxin
A. A. are produced by Bacillus anthracis
B. act in the central nervous system
C. *act in the peripheral nervous system
D. are Zn++ dependent protease enzymes
E. two of the above
Both the botulinum toxin and the tetanus toxin are
A. superantigens
B. enterotoxins
C. adenylate cyclase enzymes
D. *protease enzymes
E. none of the above
Buruli Ulcer is caused by
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Spirillum minus
C. *M. ulcerans
D. Brucella canis
E. Corynebacterium xerosis
By what mechanism do these protective antibodies prevent Tetanus?
A. B. Prevent binding of C. tetani endotoxin to monocyte receptors.
B. Bind C. tetani flagella, prevent cell motility and access to neurons.
C. Bind C. tetani cells and activate complement.
D. Bind toxin receptors on neuron plasma membranes, prevent binding/entry of toxin.
E. *Neutralize the protein exotoxin of C. tetani.
Choose method of staining of bacterial spores, which are formed by C. tetani and C. botulinum:
A. Staining by mеthylene blue
B. *Staining by Aujesko’s method
C. Staining by Ziehl-Neelsen’s method
D. Staining by Gram method
E. Staining by crystal violet
Choose method of staining of bacterial spores, which are formed by C. perfringens:
A. Staining by mеthylene blue
B. *Staining by Aujesko’s method
C. Staining by Ziehl-Neelsen’s method
D. Staining by Gram method
E. Staining by crystal violet
Choose the nutrients media on which it is possible to grow anaerobic microorganisms:
A. Endo's and Lewin's media
B. Meat - pepton agar, meat - pepton broth
C. *Sugar - blood agar Zoessler, Kitt-Tarozzi's medium
D. The curtailed serum, meat-pepton gelatin
E. Blood agar, serum agar
Closcridium and Bacillus are unique among most bacteria in that they
A. are acid-fast
B. are Gram positive
C. *produce endospores
D. do not have teichoic acids
E. are mesophiles
1154.
Clostridium botulinum releases the most powerful biological poison which belongs to bacterial
exotoxins. Choose from proposed list target cell for botulotoxin:
A. Epithelial cell of the gut
B. Muscle cell
C. *Motoneuron of central nervous system
D. Sensitive neuron of spinal cord
E. Inhibiting neuron of spinal cord
1155.
Clostridium perfringens causes
A. *myonecrosis, food poisoning
B. enterocolitis, haemorrhagic syndrom
C. antibiotic-induced colitis
D. All of the above
E. both a and b
1156.
Commonest mycobacterial infection is AIDS patient is tropical countries
A. M. Leprae
B. M. avium intracellulare
C. *M. tuberculosis
D. M. Kansasi
E. M. ulcerans
1157.
Culture medium for corynebacierium diphtheria
A. *Loefflers aerum slope
B. McConkey
C. Sabarauds agar
D. Lowenstein Jensen medium
E. Slant agar
1158.
Daisy head colonies are seen with
A. S. aureus
B. *Corynebaterium diptherine
C. S. pyogenes
D. Anthrax
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
1159.
Diphtheria toxin acts by
A. Inhibiting Acetyl Choline release
B. Inhibiting glucose transport
C. Increasing levels of Cyclic AMP
D. *Inhibiting protein systhesis
E. Inhibiting phage production
1160.
Diphtheria toxin has a special affinity for which of the following tissue/s?
A. Heart muscles.
B. Nerve endings.
C. Adrenal glands.
D. *All of the above.
E. None of the above.
1161.
Dorset's egg medium is used for cultivation of:
A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Gonococcus
D. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. Escherichia
1162.
Each of the following is a typical property of obligate anaerobes EXCEPT:
A. *They generate energy by using the cytochrorne svstem
B. They grow best in the absence of air
C. They lack superoxide dismutase
D. They lack catalase
E. They grow in Kitt-Tarozi medium
1163.
Each of the following organisms is an important cause of urinary tract infections EXCEPT:
A. Escherichia coli
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. *Bacteroides fragilis
E. All of the above
1164.
Each of the following statements concerning Clostridium perfringens is correct EXCEPT:
A. It causes gas gangrene
B. It causes food poisoning
C. It produces an exotoxin that degrades lecithin and causes necrosis and hemolysis
D. *It is a gram-negative rod that does not ferment lactose
E. All of the above
1165.
Each of the following statements concerning Mycobacterium leprae is correct EXCEPT:
A. In lepromatous leprosy, large numbers of organisms are usually seen in acid-fast-stained smears
B. *The organism will grow on bacteriologic media in 3-6 weeks
C. Prolonged therapy (9 months or longer) is required to prevent recurrence
D. Skin tests for delayed hypersensitivity are useful diagnostically
E. All of the above
1166.
Each of the following statements concerning the VDRL test for syphilis is correct EXCEPT:
A. *The antigen is composed of inactivated Tr-ponema pallidum
B. The test is usually positive in secondary syphilis
C. False-positive results are more frequent than with the FTA-ABS test
D. The antibody titer declines with adequate therapy
E. All of the above
1167.
Each of the following statements concerning wound infections caused by Clostridium perfrin gens
is correct EXCEPT:
A. An exotoxin plays a role in pathogenesis
B. Gram-positive rods are found in the exudate
C. *The organism grows only in human cell culture
D. Anaerobic culture of the wound site should be ordered
E. All of the above
1168.
Elecks gel precipitation test is for
A. gonococcus
B. *diphtheria
C. H.influenza
D. anthrax.
E. Enteric fever
1169.
Erythrasma is caused by
A. S. Pyogenes
B. S. aureus
C. *Corynebacterium minutissimum
D. Ricketessia
E. Mycoplasma
1170.
Fastest microbiocidal agent against M. leprae
A. Clofazimine
B. Dapsone
C. *Rifampicin
D. Minocycline
E. Ampicillin
1171.
Following are acid fast bacilli except
A. Actinomycetes
B. *Mycobacterium avium intracellularae
C. Mycobacterium leprae
D. Nocardia
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
1172.
For Corynebacterium diptheria all are true except
A. *Toxin responsible for local infection
B. Iron in surrounding is essential for growth
C. Phage is essential for toxin production
D. Protein synthesis affected by group A chain
E. Toxin consists of protein
1173.
fore can replicate on bacteriologic media?
A. Chlamydia
B. *Mycoplasma
C. Adenovirus
D. Rickettsia
E. All of the above
1174.
Formation of a gumma is
A. a damaged aorta
B. a damaged liver
C. *a syphilitic tumor
D. the primary lesion of syphilis
E. the result of congenital syphilis
1175.
Generation time of tuberculous bacillus is:
A. 20 days
B. 20 minutes
C. *48 hours
D. 4 weeks
E. 6 weeks
1176.
Histoid Hansens is a variety
A. tuberculoid leprosy
B. boderline tuberculoid
C. boderline lepromatous
D. *lepromatous leprosy
E. None of the above
1177.
Home-canned food is a common source of botulism in adults. What property of C. botulinum
facilitates infection by this route?
A. *Produces airborne spores not easily killed by boiling.
B. Vegetative cells grow best at cooking temperatures.
C. Extremely resistant to gastric acid.
D. Thick peptidoglycan renders cells resistant to heat, cold, and drying.
E. Surface proteins inhibit digestive hydrolases.
1178.
How does this toxin act?
A. Stimulates adenyl cyclase.
B. Inhibits guanyl cyclase.
C. *Blocks synaptic transmission.
D. Cleaves ribosomal RNA.
E. Stimulates production of cytokines.
1179.
In the United States human Tetanus is now a rare disease. Which measure below has been most
important in preventing it?
A. Vaccination of livestock, especially cattle, with a killed-organism vaccine.
B. *Immunization of humans with a toxoid-containing vaccine.
C. Eradication of the organism from the environment.
D. Sewage treatment and purification of water supplies.
E. Antibiotic treatment of contacts of patients with C. tetani infections.
1180.
In which type of Cutaneous TB, caseation is most commonly seen
A. *Papulonecrotic
B. Scrofuloderma
C. Lupus Vulgaris
D. Erythema nodosum
E. No correct answer
1181.
Incubation period of Diptheria is
A. *2 - 6 days
B. 2 - 6 hrs
C. 2 - 6 weeks
D. 2-6 months
E. 2-6 years
1182.
Indicate disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi:
A. Weil syndrome (icterohemorrhagic fever), canicola fever
B. Endemic relapsing fever
C. *Lyme disease
D. Syphilis
E. Enteric fever
1183.
Indicate disease caused by Borrelia recurrentis:
A. Weil syndrome (icterohemorrhagic fever), canicola fever
B. *Endemic relapsing fever
C. Lyme disease
D. Syphilis
E. Enteric fever
1184.
Indicate disease caused by Treponema pallidum:
A. Weil syndrome (icterohemorrhagic fever), canicola fever
B. Endemic relapsing fever
C. Lyme disease
D. *Syphilis
E. Enteric fever
1185.
Indicate micribe which has sexual mode of transmission:
A. *Treponema pallidum
B. Borrelia recurrentis
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Leptospiras interrogans
E. Treponema vincentii
1186.
Indicate micribe which uses human-to-human for mode of transmission:
A. Treponema pallidum
B. *Borrelia recurrentis
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Leptospiras interrogans
E. Treponema vincentii
1187.
Indicate micribe which uses rodents, dogs, fish, birds for mode of transmission:
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Borrelia recurrentis
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. *Leptospiras interrogans
E. Treponema vincentii
1188.
Indicate micribe which uses ticks for mode of transmission:
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Borrelia recurrentis
C. *Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Leptospiras interrogans
E. Treponema vincentii
1189.
Infective-toxic type of food poisoning is caused by:
A. *Clostridium perfringens.
B. Salmonella Enteritidis.
C. Staphylococcus aureus.
D. Salmonella Dublin.
E. Yeasts
1190.
It is possible to cultivate obligate anaerobes on the special medium under absence of air. The most
reliable method to create anaerobic condition will be next:
A. usage of thermostat
B. *usage of anaerostat
C. by inoculation into solid media (pour agar culture)
D. usage of chemostat
E. by inoculation into simple media
1191.
Johne's bacillus is:
A. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
B. *M. paratuberculosis
C. H. aegipticus
D. K. pneumoniae
E. M. ulcerans
1192.
Laboratory assistant has to isolate Clostridia tetani, anaerobic sporeforming bacterium, from
wound exudation. What will he do before inoculation of material into appropriate culture medium?
A. he filtrates the material through cellulose filter
B. *he heats the sample to kill asporogenous bacteria at 800C for 20 min
C. wound discharge should be frozen before inoculation to inhibit facultative anaerobes
D. he will not do anything before investigation
E. he heats the sample to kill vegetative forms bacteria at 600C for 5 min
1193.
Lepra bacilli are best Cultivated in
A. Guinea pgis
B. Armadillos
C. *Mouso foot pad
D. Nutrient agar
E. Nutrient broth
1194.
Lepra celts found in lepromatous leprosy are
A. neutrophils
B. lymphocytes
C. *macrophages
D. plasma cells.
E. Red cells
1195.
Leprosy Bacilli can be grown in
A. *foot pad of nine banded armadilo
B. tail of guinea pig
C. Testes of albino rats
D. testes of guinea pig
E. Hansens media
1196.
Leprosy bacilli is transmitted from person to person by all except
A. discharge from nasal mucosa
B. from open sore
C. through intact skin
D. *through breast milk
E. None of the above
1197.
Leprosy spreads by
A. skin to skin contact
B. blood transfusion
C. *dropiet spread
D. ingestion.
E. sexual way
1198.
Leptospira infection each year?
A. Minnesota
B. Pennsylvania
C. New York
D. Wisconsin
E. *Hawaii
1199.
Louis Pasteur is not associated with
A. Introduction of Complex media
B. Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
C. *Discovery of M. tuberculosis
D. Disproved spontaneous regression theory
E. Discovery of Anthrax Vaccine
1200.
Lyme disease is caused by a
A. Chlamydiae
B. Rickettsiae
1201.
1202.
1203.
1204.
1205.
1206.
1207.
1208.
1209.
1210.
C. *a spirochete
D. enteric bacteria
E. none of the above
Lyme disease is caused by:
A. Borrelia recurrenlis.
B. B. dutioni.
C. *B. burgdorferi.
D. B. hermsii
E. B. persica
Lysogenic bacteria are:
A. Mycoplasma
B. C. welchii
C. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Brucella abortus
E. Bordetella pertussis
Lysogenic becteria are:
A. Mycoplasma
B. Clostridium welchii
C. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Brucella abortus
E. Francisella tularensis
Many clostridial diseases require a/an conditions for their development.
A. *anaerobic
B. aerobic
C. living tissue
D. low-pH
E. alkaline pH
Medical important sporeforming bacteria belong to next genus:
A. Proteus
B. *Clostridia
C. Fusobacterium
D. Streptococcus
E. Escherihia
Microbial diagnosis of tuberculosis is by
A. X ray
B. Mantoux test
C. acid-fast stain
D. pure culture
E. *both c and d
Microorganism that does not obey Koch's postulates
A. M. tubercubsis
B. Poliovirus
C. *M. leprae
D. Streptococcus
E. Vibrio
Milk ring test
A. *Brucellosis
B. Bacteroides
C. Tuberculosis
D. Salmonellosis
E. Diphtheria
Morbidity of Mycobacterium avium complex is:
A. Urinary tract infections
B. Esophagitis
C. Leprosy
D. Scrub typhus
E. *Disseminated infection
Most common X-ray finding of'pulmonary TB in AIDS is
A. Upper zone haziness
B. *Diffuse infiltrates
C. Multiple cavities
D. Pneumonic patch
E. Enteric patch
1211.
mycobacteria?
A. Photochromogens
B. *Scotochromogens
C. Non – photochromogens
D. Rapid growers
E. None of the above
1212.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis can be differentiated from other mycobacterium by
A. *Production of niacin
B. Barylsulphate test
C. Coagulase test
D. Bile solubility test
E. Lecithinase test
1213.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis:
A. Penetrates the alveoli when inhaled
B. Destroys tissue in the lymph system
C. Forms lesions around which granulomas form
D. *All of the above
E. None of the above
1214.
nervous system, salivary glands.
A. Bound to Toll-like receptors and stimulated production of inflammatory cytokines.
B. Injected proteins into neurons via a type III secretion system.
C. *Secreted a protein toxin that enters mammalian neurons and blocks synaptic transmission.
D. Released peptidoglycan and other inflammatory components of the cell envelope.
E. Bacteremic spread followed by infection of multiple tissues: eyes, muscle, stomach,
1215.
Neurological involvement is pronounced in which type of leprosy?
A. *Tuberculoid
B. Lepromatous
C. Borderline
D. Lucio leprosy
E. No correct answer
1216.
Niacin is required for growth of
A. *M. tubercolosis
B. M. kansasi
C. M. scrofuloderma
D. M. avium
E. M. smegmatis
1217.
One of the following is not type III hypersensitivity reaction
A. *Tuberculin type
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. SLE
D. arthus reaction.
E. Serum sickness
1218.
Organism most likely to cause "fevert of unknown origin" in a farmer who raises goats
A. *Brucella melitensis
B. Clostridium novyi
C. Histoplasma capsulatum
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosi
E. No correct answer
1219.
positive for acid fast bacilli which of the following is the peripheral form of defense by which his
body fights this infection
A. Antlbody
B. Cell mediated hypersensitivity
C. *Ig A mediated hypersensitivity
D. Ig E mediated hypersensitivity
E. Ig D mediated hypersensitivity
1220.
Positive tuberculin test indicates
A. exposure to TB
B. sensitivity to tuberculin protein
C. *tuberculous infection
D. fulminant tuberculosis
E. No correct answer
1221.
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with:
A. Ziel-Neelsen
B. Kin young stain
C. *Auramine-Rhodamine stain
D. Giemsa stain
E. Gram stain
1222.
Reinfection tuberculosis is almost exclusively a disease of the
A. *Lungs
B. Bones
C. Joints
D. Brain
E. Intestine
1223.
Reinfection tuberculosis is almost excusively a disease of the
A. Joints
B. Bones
C. *Lungs
D. Brain
E. Saliva glands
1224.
Schick's test is used to determine
A. *susceptibility of the patient to Diphtheria
B. Immunity acquired against C. diphtheria
C. Hypersensitivity to C.diphtheriae
D. None of the above
E. All answers are correct
1225.
Special nutrient media on which it is possible to grow anaerobic microorganisms will be next:
A. *Zoessler, Kitt-Tarozzi's
B. Meat - peptone agar, meat - peptone broth
C. medium Endo's and Lewin's media
D. The curtailed serum, meat- peptone gelatin
E. Blood agar, serum agar
1226.
Spores are necessary to bacteria for:
A. Survival into human and animal’s organism
B. Reproduction
C. *Survival in an external environment
D. Defence from fagocytosis
E. Defence from acid in stomack
1227.
Surgeon has suspected anaerobic wound infection. To isolate causative germs collected wound
discharge should be cultivated into the such medium as :
A. Ploskirev agar
B. *Kitt-Tarozzi medium
C. meat peptone broth
D. Endo agar
E. meat peptone agar
1228.
Tellurite stimulates growth of
A. E. coli
B. C. tetani
C. *Corynebacterium diphtherias
D. S. typhi
E. Haemophylus dukreyi
1229.
Test for differentiating Tubercle bacilli from Atypical mycobacteria
1230.
1231.
1232.
1233.
1234.
1235.
1236.
1237.
1238.
A. Aryl Sulphate Test
B. *NiacinTest
C. Tellurite reduction
D. Growth on Mac Conkey Agar
E. Sugar utilization
The animal model frquentjy used for mycobacterium leprae is
A. *mice
B. guinea pigs
C. rabbits
D. golden hamsters.
E. Rats
The bacteria frequently used as an immunomodulator is :
A. *Corynebacterium parvum
B. Mycobacterium marinum
C. Chromobacterium violasium
D. Flavobacterium meningo septicum
E. Mycobacterium smegmae
The common mode of action of the tetanus and botulinum toxins is to
A. *block the release of neurotransmitters across a neural synapse
B. up-regulate the production of cAMP in affected cells
C. cause the ADP ribosylation of neuron gangliosides
D. block protein synthesis in target cells
E. cleave neuraminic acid in the intercellular space
The common substrate of cholera toxin (ctx) and diphtheria toxin (dtx) is
A. NAD
B. cyclic AMP
C. *ADP ribose
D. ATP
E. elongation factor 2 (EF-2)
The drug of choice for antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis is
A. penicillin G
B. vancomycin
C. metronidazole
D. erythromycin
E. a combination of a beta-lactam and an aminoglycoside
The factor which promotes virulence of M.tuberculosis
A. wax D
B. *Cord factor
C. Muramyl dipeptide
D. Mycolic acid
E. Tuberculostearinic acid
The following are characterized by bradycardia except
A. Typhoid fever
B. *Brucellosis
C. Leptospirosis
D. Yellow fever
E. No correct answer
The following pathogen does not satisfy "Koch's postulates"
A. Bacillus Antrax
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Clostridum tetani
D. *lepra bacilli
E. Bordetella pertussis
The form of leprosy associated with severe disfigurement of the face is
A. borderline
B. chronic
C. *lepromatous
D. papular
E. tuberculoid
The local lesion in BCG is maximum in
A. 2 days
B. 7 days
C. *28 days
D. Two months
E. One year
1240.
The MOST important protective function of the antibody stimulated by tetanus toxoid is
A. To opsonize the Clostridium tetani
B. To prevent growth of the Clostridium tetani
C. To prevent adherence of the Clostridium tetani
D. *To neutralize the toxin of the Clostridium tetani
E. Inhibiting neuron of spinal cord
1241.
The most rapidly bactericidal drug for M-Leprae is
A. Dapsone
B. Clofazimine
C. Ethionamide
D. *Rifampicin
E. Penicillin
1242.
The name 'black death' is given to which of the following diseases?
A. Tuberculosis.
B. Diphtheria.
C. *Plague.
D. AIDS.
E. Cholera
1243.
The single most common cause of pyrexia of unknown origin is:
A. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B. Salmonella typhi.
C. Brucella sp.
D. Salmonella paratyphi A.
E. Staphylococcus aureus
1244.
The spastic paralysis of Tetanus is the effect of a protein exotoxin. Which phrase below best
describes the process directly inhibited by Tetanus toxin?
A. Synthesis of neurotransmitter.
B. Transport of neurotransmitter into vesicles.
C. Calcium influx required for neurotransmitter release.
D. *Docking and fusion of neurotransmitter vesicles with the synaptic membrane.
E. Binding of neurotransmitter molecules to their receptors.
1245.
The substrate for the enzymatic (A) component of diphtheria toxin is
A. NAD
B. cyclic AMP
C. the regulatory proteins of the eukaryotic adenylate cyclase complex
D. ATP
E. *elongation factor 2 (EF-2)
1246.
The tissue destruction and lesions observed in syphilis are primarily a consequence of which of the
following?
A. Bacterial capsule
B. Bacterial endoflagellum
C. Bacterial overgrowth
D. Bacterial hyaluronidase
E. *Host immune response
1247.
The tuberculous bacilli was discovered by
A. *Robert Koch
B. Edward Jenner
C. Louis Pateur
D. Jonas Salk
E. Illya Metchnikov
1248.
The type of Diphtheria with highest mortality is
1239.
A. Pharyngeal
B. Nasal
C. *Laryngeal
D. Conjunctival
E. Skin
1249.
There is Lowenstein-Jensen medium. We can use it for cultivation of:
A. Escherichia coli
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
E. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis
1250.
Thin, slender and gram-positive bacilli possessing metachromatic granules and showing Chinese
letter arrangement are characteristic of:
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C. Bacillus anthracis.
D. Clostridium perfringens.
E. Bordetella pertussis
1251.
This test was used for examination of diphtherial toxin production/ What tes is it?
A. Agglutination test
B. Complement fixation test
C. Immunofluorescence test
D. ELISA
E. *Precipitation test in gel
1252.
To isolate pure culture of an obligate anaerobe from collected material you should choose the most
corresponding medium from the list:
A. Serum agar
B. Yolk agar
C. MPA
D. *Robertson’s cooked meat broth or Kitt-Tarozzi medium
E. MPB with glucose
1253.
True about corynebacterium diptheriae are all except
A. Iron is require for toxin production
B. *Toxin production is responsible for local reaction
C. Non sporing, non capsulated and non motile
D. toxin production by lysogenic conversion
E. Toxin may be turned inti toxoid
1254.
Tuberculin test positivity is dependent on
A. Erythema
B. Nodule formation
C. lnduration
D. Ulcerative change
E. No correct answer
1255.
Tuberculous Infection most common in AIDS
A. *M. avium intracellulare
B. M. scrofulaceum
C. M. uIcerans
D. M. tuberculosis
E. M. bovis
1256.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is
A. Serum sickness
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Arthus reaction
D. *Granuloma
E. Atopy
1257.
Undulant fever is caused by
A. Bartonella
B. *Brucella melitensis
C. Bordetella
D. Borrelia recurrentis
E. Streptococci
1258.
Upon staining by Ziehl-Neelsen’s method after treating with sulphuric acid the preparation is
necessary ussing
A. Ziehl’s phenol fuchsine
B. Alcohol
C. Меthylene blue
D. *Washing with water
E. iodine solution
1259.
Viable but not cultivable state is seen in which of the following organisms?
A. *M. leprae
B. M. tuberculosis
C. V. cholera
D. S. aureus
E. S. pyogens
1260.
Water to be used for parenteral injection must sterilized to kill living microbes and then further
purified to remove non-living bacterial components. Of those listed below, which is the most toxic?
A. *Lipopolysaccharide.
B. Polysaccharides of capsules.
C. Plasma-membrane lipids.
D. Proteins of the outer membrane.
E. Nucleic acids
1261.
What causes gas gangrene?
A. *Clostridium perfringens
B. Leptospira interrogans
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Escherichia coli
E. Clostridium tetan
1262.
What color has mycobacterim tuberculosis after staining by Ziehl-Neelsen technique
A. blue
B. violet
C. *red
D. brown
E. green
1263.
What is characteristic of primary syphilis?
A. Painful chancre
B. *Painless chancre
C. Several painful ulcers in genital region
D. Several painless ulcers in genital region
E. Disseminating rash on entire body, soles, and palms
1264.
What is the first symptom of Treponema pallidum?
A. *Chancre at infection site
B. Bullseye rash
C. Butterfly rash
D. Vaginal discharge
E. No correct answer
1265.
What microorganisms do not use oxygen and can actually be harmed by it?
A. *Obligate anaerobes
B. Facultative anaerobes
C. Obligate aerobes
D. Free radicals
E. microaerophiles
1266.
What’s next step of staining by Ziehl-Neelsen’s method after using sulphuric acid?
A. Staining by ziehl’s phenol fuchsine
B. Using alcohol
C. Staining by mеthylene blue
D. *Washing with water
E. Using iodine solution
Which biotype/s of Corynebacterium diphtheriae ferment/s starch and glycogen?
A. *Gravis.
B. Intermedius.
C. Mitis.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
1268.
Which characteristic of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is believed to be most essential to its
transmission?
A. Anti-phagocytic polysaccharide capsule.
B. *Impermeable lipid-rich envelope.
C. Production of protein exotoxins.
D. Rapid growth.
E. Type III secretion system.
1269.
Which condition is most likely given these findings?
A. Antibiotic-associated colitis.
B. Diphtheria.
C. Anthrax.
D. *Botulism.
E. Tetanus.
1270.
Which condition is most likely, given this presentation?
A. *Botulism
B. Tetanus
C. Lyme Disease
D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
E. Rheumatic fever
1271.
Which infectious agents cause food poising?
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Clostridium tetani
C. *Clostridium perfringens
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
E. all of these
1272.
Which is a live attenuated Vaccine
A. Rabies
B. *BCG
C. Hepatitis B
D. Cholera
E. Whooping cough
1273.
Which is a live attenuated vaccine
A. Rabies
B. *BCG
C. Hepatitis B
D. Cholera
E. Tick borne encephalitis
1274.
Which of the following bacteria most frequently cause tuberculosis in man?
A. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B. M. bovis.
C. M. africanum.
D. M. kansasii
E. All of the above.
1275.
Which of the following can be stained by the acid fast method
A. Mycobacteria
B. Nocardia
C. Actinomyces
D. Spermatic head
E. *All answers are correct
1276.
Which of the following describes bacteria that are acid-fast?
A. Are decolorized with acidic solutions
1267.
B. Are decolorized with basic solutions
C. Cannot be decolorized with acidic solutions
D. *Cannot be decolorized with basic solutions
E. No correct answer
1277.
Which of the following describes the effect of botulinum toxin?
A. Unregulated excitatory synaptic activity in the motor neurons
B. *Blocks neurotransmission at peripheral cholinergic synapses
C. Induces depolymerization of actin with loss of cellular cytoskeleton
D. Produces chemotaxis; induces cytokine production with hypersecretion of fluid; produces
hemorrhagic necrosis
E. All are correct
1278.
Which of the following describes the effect of C. difficile toxin?
A. Unregulated excitatory synaptic activity in the motor neurons
B. Blocks neurotransmission at peripheral cholinergic synapses
C. Induces depolymerization of actin with loss of cellular cytoskeleton
D. Produces chemotaxis; induces cytokine production with hypersecretion of fluid; produces
hemorrhagic necrosis
E. *All are correct
1279.
Which of the following describes the effect of tetanus toxin?
A. *Unregulated excitatory synaptic activity in the motor neurons
B. Blocks neurotransmission at peripheral cholinergic synapses
C. Induces depolymerization of actin with loss of cellular cytoskeleton
D. Produces chemotaxis; induces cytokine production with hypersecretion of fluid; produces
hemorrhagic necrosis
E. All are correct
1280.
Which of the following exotoxins is most toxic?
A. *Botulinum toxin.
B. Tetanus toxin.
C. Diphtheria toxin.
D. Cholera toxin.
E. Shigella toxin
1281.
Which of the following is a cause of nontraumatic myonecrosis and often exists in patients with
occult colon cancer, acute leukemia, or diabetes?
A. C. difficile
B. C. perfingens
C. *C. septicum
D. C. botulinum
E. C. tetani
1282.
Which of the following is an early clinical sign of Lyme Disease and not a late sign?
A. Musculoskeletal disease (e.g. migratory myalgias, transient arthritis)
B. Nervous system disease (e.g. Bell palsy, encephalopathy)
C. Cardiovascular involvement (e.g. AV nodal block)
D. *Erythema chronicum migrans (ECM)
E. Acrodermatitis chronicum atrophicans (ACA)
1283.
Which of the following is associated with Floppy Baby Syndrome?
A. C. difficile
B. C. perfingens
C. C. septicum
D. *C. botulinum
E. C. tetani
1284.
Which of the following is associated with Pseudomembrane Colitis (PMC)?
A. *C. difficile
B. C. perfingens
C. C. septicum
D. C. botulinum
E. C. tetani
1285.
Which of the following is most likely to have been the immediately predisposing cause of this
patient’s C. difficile infection?
A. Colonization of her large intestine by antibiotic-resistant E. coli.
B. *Alteration of her intestinal flora by antibiotic treatment.
C. An allergic response to her antibiotic treatment.
D. Acquisition of an antibiotic-resistance plasmid (R-Factor) by C. difficile.
E. Binding of neurotransmitter molecules to their receptors
1286.
Which of the following is NOT a major symptom of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
A. Formation of a leathery pseudomembrane
B. Lesions on tonsils
C. *Flat, pink rash on abdomen
D. Inflammation of heart and nervous system
E. No correct answer
1287.
Which of the following is NOT a natural reservoir for sylvatic plague (Y. pestis)?
A. Squirrels
B. Rabbits
C. *Livestock
D. Rats
E. Domestic cats
1288.
Which of the following is not a pathogenic mycobacteria
A. M. kansasii,
B. M. scrofulaceum
C. M. cheoleni
D. *M. smegmatis
E. M. africanum
1289.
Which of the following is photochromogenic
A. *M. kansasii
B. M. scrofulorum
C. M. intracellulare
D. M. avium
E. M. xenopi
1290.
Which of the following is Scotochromogen
A. *M. scrofulaceum
B. M. ulcerans
C. M. kansasii
D. M. fortuitum
E. M. tuberculosis
1291.
Which of the following is spread by person-to-person contact, has fallen in prevalence by almost
90% since 1985, and is endemic in armadillos?
A. *M. leprae
B. M. avium-intracellulare
C. M. tuberculosis
D. M. paratuberculosis
E. M. scrofulaceum
1292.
Which of the following is the natural habitat for mycobacteria? (best answer)
A. Food
B. Plants
C. Infected animals
D. *Water
E. Soil
1293.
Which of the following methods is used to help clear an anaerobic infection?
A. Removal of dead tissue
B. Drainage of infected area
C. Oxidizing agents/hyperbaric chambers
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
1294.
Which of the following statements characterizes the mechanism of action of diphtheria toxin?
A. *inhibits protein synthesis in susceptible cells
B. causes an increase in cAMP in cells resulting in severe edema
C. causes an increase in cAMP in cells leading to diarrhea
D. interferes with the transmission of neurotransmitters at stimulatory neuromuscular synapse
E. interferes with secretion of neurotransmitters at an inhibitory neural synapse in the central nervous
system
1295.
Which of the following would have diffuse infiltration of the skin by multiple nodules of varying
size, each with many bacteria? (weak immune response)
A. *Lepromatous leprosy
B. Tuberculoid leprosy
C. Tuberculosis
D. Herpes simplex virus type 2
E. MRSA skin infection
1296.
Which of the following would have lesions characterized by anesthetic macules with
hypopigmentation (strong immune response)?
A. Lepromatous leprosy
B. *Tuberculoid leprosy
C. Tuberculosis
D. Herpes simplex virus type 2
E. MRSA skin infection
1297.
Which of the treponematoses are not veneral disease?
A. bejel
B. pinta
C. yaws
D. syphilis
E. *Three first
1298.
Which one of the following statements concern ing immunization against diseases caused by
Clostridia is CORRECT?
A. Antitoxin against tetanus protects against botulism as well, because the two toxins share antigenic
sites
B. Vaccines containing alpha toxin (lecithinase) are effective in protecting against gas gangrene
C. The toxoid vaccine against Clostridium difficile infection should be administered to
immunocompromised patients
D. Immunization with tetanus toxoid induces effective protection against tetanus toxin
E. All of the above
1299.
Which one of the following statements MOST accurately depicts the ability of the organism to be
cultured in the laboratory?
A. Treponema pallidum from a chancre can be grown on a special artificial medium supplemented
with cholesterol
B. *Mycobacterium leprae can be grown in the armadillo and the mouse footpad but not on any
artificial media
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can be grown on enriched artificial media and produces visibfc
colonies in 48-96 hours
D. Atypical mycobacteria are found widely in soil and water but cannot be cultured on artificial media
in the laboratory
E. All of the above
1300.
Which one of the following zoonotic illnesses has NO arthropod vector?
A. Plague
B. Lyme disease
C. *Brucellosis
D. Epidemic typhus
E. All of the above
1301.
Which organism below is most likely to have caused this infection?
A. Clostridium botulinum.
B. Clostridium difficile.
C. *Clostridium perfringens.
D. Clostridium tetani.
E. Listeria monocytogenes.
1302.
Which organism is most likely to represent the majority of the Gram-negative rods seen when
peritoneal exudate was stained?
A. Yersinia enterocolitica
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
E. *Bacteroides fragilis
1303.
Which line below correctly pairs a bacterial group or species with an antibiotic that currently
inhibits enough of its members to be used against it, before results of sensitivity testing are received?
Many Bacteria are sensitive to
A. Enterobacteriaceae, Penicillin G
B. Staphylococcus aureus, Penicillin G
C. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Isoniazid
D. Obligate anaerobes, Aminoglycosides
E. Obligate aerobes, Metronidazole
1304.
Which of the following is spread by close person-to-person contact through the inhalation of
infectious aerosols and infects a third of the world’s population according to the World Health
Organization (WHO)?
A. M. leprae
B. M. avium-intracellulare
C. *M. tuberculosis
D. coli
E. S. paratyphi A
1305.
Which of the following primarily affects immunocompromised patients, has not shown person-toperson transmission, is acquired through ingestion of contaminated water or food, is seen most commonly
in countries where tuberculosis is less common?
A. M. leprae
B. *M. avium-intracellulare
C. M. Tuberculosis
D. M. paratuberculosis
E. M. scrofulaceum
Situation tasks
1. 23-year-old woman comes to your office because, for 3 days, she has experienced burning with urination,
increased frequency of urination, and a continual feeling that she needs to urinate. She does not have
vaginal discharge, fever, or flank pain. Culture of urine on standard media produces a lactose-fermenting
Gram-negative rod.In situations such as this, what is the most likely pathogen?
A. Enterobacter faecium
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Proteus vulgaris
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. *Escherichia coli
2. Outbreaks of diarrhea caused by species of Shigella are common in day-care centers for children and other
similar settings. What property of Shigella most enhances its spread between children?
A. Frequent presence in the upper respiratory tracts of children who are not ill.
B. Ability to ferment lactose and grow in refrigerated milk.
C. Possession of an envelope resistant to disinfectants.
D. Carriage by common classroom pets such as hamsters and gerbils
E. *Resistance to stomach acid and low infectious dose.
3. A 61-year-old diabetic man is admitted to the hospital for severe pain in his right leg; the diagnosis is
obstruction of the femoral artery. The affected area of the leg is painful, red, and swollen. During the next
12 hours the swelling increases markedly, the skin of the leg becomes discolored, and fluid-filled blisters
appear on the skin. Gram stain of fluid aspirated from a blister reveals large Gram-positive rods. Which
organism below is most likely to have caused this infection?
A. Clostridium botulinum.
B. Clostridium difficile.
C. Clostridium tetani.
D. Listeria monocytogenes
E. *Clostridium perfringens.
4. A 24 years-old men develops high fever and stiff neck. A spinal tap is performed. A Gram-stained smear of
cerebrospinal fluid reveals many neutrophils and Gram-negative cocci that resemble paired kidney beans
within leucocytes. Which organism below is most likely to have caused this infection?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Streptococcus agalactiae
E. *Neisseria meningitidis
5. A child at-risk for Tetanus is treated with Tetanus immune globulin (human). What is a major advantage of
this method for immunization over the use of Tetanus toxoid?
A. Poses a reduced risk of serum sickness.
B. Provides longer-lasting immunity
C. Results in higher antibody titer.
D. Also provides secretory IgA for mucosal immunity.
E. *Provides protection more rapidly.
6. A 20-year-old student has a deep laceration. He received the standard four-doses of Diphtheria-PertussisTetanus immunizations in infancy, and a booster at age 5, but has had no anti-Tetanus immunization since.
Which of the following would it be most appropriate to administer?
A. Tetanus anti-toxin (equine).
B. Tetanus toxoid.
C. Tetanus immune globulin (human).
D. Both Tetanus toxoid Tetanus anti-toxin (equine).
E. *Both Tetanus toxoid and Tetanus immune globulin (human).
7. A ten-year-old girl has dirty, crushing, wounds, received when she fell from a motorcycle. She has never
been immunized against Tetanus. Which of the following should you administer?
A. Tetanus immune globulin (human)
B. Tetanus toxoid
C. Tetanus toxoid Tetanus immune globulin (human) mixed and administered as a single injection.
D. No immunization
E. *Tetanus toxoid plus Tetanus immune globulin (human),
8. A 23-year-old medical student had headache and fever one evening. By the next morning she had become
very ill, with high fever, severe headache, and stiff neck. She was admitted to the hospital. Later that day
she developed rash, at first petechial and then purpuric. Gram stain of CSF showed many white cells and
Gram-negative cocci, many in pairs. Which organism is most likely to be the cause of her infection?
A. Escherichia coli.
B. Haemophilus influenzae.
C. Streptococcus agalactiae.
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
E. *Neisseria meningitidis.
9. A patient has cellulitis of the left arm, persistent fever, and a heart murmur. He is a habitual user of illegal
drugs, which he self-administers intravenously. An echocardiogram shows a bacterial vegetation on the
aortic valve. Three blood cultures all grow an beta-hemolytic Gram-positive coccus, catalase negative.
Which organism is most likely to have caused his infection?
A. Staphylococcus aureus.
B. Streptococcus pyogenes [Group A].
C. Streptococcus agalactiae [Group B].
D. Streptococcus bovis [Group D].
E. *A Viridans-group Streptococcus.
10. A child develops a “cold” which progresses to severe pharyngitis. Pharyngeal exudate forms a tough
‘membrane’, difficult to remove without causing bleeding. Culture of a throat swab on selective tellurite
agar produces abundant black colonies. Other cultures produce only normal flora. Which organism is most
likely to have caused this infection?
A. Actinomyces israelii.
B. Bordetella pertussis.
C. Candida albicans.
D. Mycobacterium avium/intracellulare.
E. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
11. A patient has a positive Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test for ‘non-treponemal antibodies’. A test for
specific anti-treponemal antibodies is positive but the patient has no rash, genital lesions, inflammation, or
discharge. Which conclusion best follows from these findings
A. The patient does not require antibiotic treatment; absence of symptoms indicates that the positive
RPR is a ‘biological false positive”.
B. The patient has Syphilis, but does not require antibiotic treatment, because infections with
C. The patient has Syphilis, but the diagnosis should be confirmed by culture before antibiotic
D. none of the above
E. *The patient has Syphilis, and should be treated with Penicillin G
12. A 50-year-old woman was treated for cystitis caused by E. coli with an oral broad-spectrum antibiotic.
Three weeks later she developed abdominal pain and diarrhea. A stained smear of stool contained many
neutrophils. Cultures for bacterial pathogens were negative. A serological test of stool for Clostridium
difficile toxin was positive. Which of the following is most likely to have been the immediately
predisposing cause of this patient’s C. difficile infection
A. Colonization of her large intestine by antibiotic-resistant E. coli.
B. An allergic response to her antibiotic treatment.Acquisition of an antibiotic-resistance plasmid (RFactor) by C. difficile.
C. Acquisition of an antibiotic-resistance plasmid (R-Factor) by C. difficile.
D. none of the above
E. *Alteration of her intestinal flora by antibiotic treatment.
13. A 35-year-old woman presents with a history of increasing respiratory distress and cough productive of
sputum. Chest X-ray shows evidence of bilateral pneumonia. Cultures of blood and sputum on Chocolate
agar grow out slender Gram-negative rods; cultures on standard sheep blood agar are negative. Which
bacterium is most likely to be the cause of her infection?
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
B. Chlamydia pneumoniae
C. Escherichia coli.
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. *Haemophilus influenzae.
14. A 15-year-old female presented with a three-day history of fever, headache and a non-productive cough.
Penicillin was prescribed and the patient was sent home. Her illness did not respond to this antibiotic.
Gram stain and culture of the patient's sputum and a throat swab revealed only 'normal oral flora'. She was
then successfully treated with erythromycin. Which organism below is most likely to have caused her
illness?
A. Haemophilus influenzae.
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
E. *Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
15. A burn patient develops infection of the burn wound. Culture of exudate on Brain-Heart Infusion agar
produces numerous green-pigmented colonies of a Gram-negative rod. The organism grows well
aerobically on standard media but shows no evidence of acid production on differential media such as
MacConkey, Hektoen Enteric, or Triple-Sugar-Iron agars.
A. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Campylobacter fetus
C. Eschericahia coli
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. *Citrobacter spp.
16. A 75-year-old man reports malaise, headache, and fever. On examination his neck is stiff. Gram stain of
CSF reveals neutrophils and numerous Gram-negative cocci, many in pairs.
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E. *Neisseria meningitidis
17. A culture of skin lesions from a patient with pyoderma (impetigo) shows numerous colonies surrounded by
a zone of beta hemolysis on a blood agar plate. A Gram-stained smear shows gram-positive cocci in chain.
If you found the catalase test to be negative, which one of the following organisms would you MOST
probably have isolated?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. All of the listed
E. *Streptococcus pyogenes
18. A 65-year-old man develops dysuria and hematuria. A Gram stain of a urine sample shows gram-negative
rods. Culture of the urine on EMB agar reveals lactose-negative colonies with out evidence of swarming
motility. Which one of the following organisms is MOST likely to be the cause of his urinary tract
infection?
A. Enterococcusfaecalis
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Escherichia coli
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
E. *Proteus vulgaris
19. An elderly man develops pneumonia and septicemia. Gram stain of sputum contains many neutrophils and
Gram-positive cocci, in pairs. Blood and sputum cultures grow out a Gram-positive coccus, alphahemolytic on sheep blood agar, and catalase-negative. Which organism below is most likely?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Streptococcus agalactiae
E. *Streptococcus pneumoniae
20. A post-surgical patient develops fever and there is redness and swelling around the surgical incision. A day
later pus begins to flow from the incision; Gram stain of pus shows large numbers of neutrophils and many
Gram-positive cocci, some in clusters. The organism is beta-hemolytic on blood agar, and is coagulaseand catalase-positive.Which organism is most likely?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
C. Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. *Staphylococcus aureus
21. Before the advent of immunization, outbreaks of meningococcal disease were frequent in military camps.
A factor in development of such outbreaks is the ability of Neisseria meningitidis to establish an
asymptomatic 'carrier state'. What is the predominant site of carriage of meningococci?
A. Urethral epithelium.
B. Gall bladder.
C. Large intestine.
D. Meninges and choroid plexus.
E. *Nasopharynx.
22. A stool sample is plated on standard MacConkey-agar plates. After overnight incubation some of the
colonies are dark pink in color, others are pale, nearly colorless. What can you conclude about the bacteria
that produced dark- pink colonies?
A. Gram-positive.
B. Not likely to be 'normal flora'.
C. Non-motile.
D. Produce capsules.
E. *Ferment lactose.
23. A sexually-active woman develops a urinary tract infection which ascends to the kidneys (pyelonephritis).
Blood culture yields a beta-hemolytic Gram-negative rod. In this situation, which pathogen below is most
common?
A. Salmonella enteritidis.
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C. Serratia marcescens.
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae.
E. *Escherichia coli.
24. A patient has endocarditis produced by an alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus. This usually reflects spread of
normal flora to the bloodstream. From which site is this isolate most likely to have spread?
A. Anterior nares.
B. Facial skin.
C. Lower respiratory tract.
D. Distal urethra.
E. *Oropharynx.
25. An 18-year-old high school student has a large pus-filled lesion on the left forearm, tender, red, and
swollen. It is incised, drained, washed, and bandaged. A smear of the pus is Gram-stained. Many
neutrophils are seen, also many Gram-positive cocci, most in large clusters. The organism is betahemolytic on sheep blood agar. Colonies are pale-yellow, opaque, and shiny, with neat round outlines. Of
the bacteria listed below, which is most likely to have produced the abscess?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Streptococcus mitis
C. Enterococcus faecalis
D. Streptococcus bovis
E. *Staphylococcus aureus
26. A patient with upper respiratory disease is observed to have a thick grey ‘pseudomembrane’ lining the
upper respiratory tract. Which organism below is most likely in this case?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Nocardia asteroids
C. Legionella pneumophilia.
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae
27. A patient with urethritis is treated with tetracycline. A direct fluorescent antibody test of a smear of
exudate is equivocal. Titer of Complement-fixing (CF) antibody to Chlamydia trachomatis, in a serum
sample taken on the day on which treatment was initiated, is 1:32. A second CF titer, taken two weeks
later, is 1:640. Which conclusion below best follows from the antibody titers?
A. The patient is not infected with C. trachomatis.
B. Although the patient’s condition may appear to be improving, in fact his infection is getting worse.
C. The patient has made a Type I hypersensitivity response to C. trachomatis antigens.
D. The patient’s C. trachomatis isolate was resistant to tetracyclines
E. *The patient’s urethritis was caused by C. trachomatis.
28. A young man has urethritis. Titer of Complement-fixing (CF) antibody to Chlamydia trachomatis, in a
serum sample taken on the day on which treatment was initiated, is 1:64. A second CF titer, taken two
weeks later, is 1:640. Which conclusion below best follows from the antibody titers?
A. Although the patient’s condition may appear to be improving, in fact his infection is getting worse.
B. The patient is not infected with C. trachomatis.
C. The patient has made a Type I hypersensitivity response to C. trachomatis antigens.
D. The patient’s C. trachomatis isolate was resistant to tetracyclines
E. *The patient’s urethritis was caused by C. trachomatis
29. In October a young man comes to your office with two ulcers on his right hand. His history includes the
fact that he is an avid hunter, and has been rabbit hunting in southern New Jersey every weekend for the
last several months. Which organism should his hobby cause you to add to the list of possible causes of his
illness?
A. Yersinia pestis.
B. Coxiella burnetii.
C. Listeria monocytogenes.
D. A member of the genus Brucella.
E. *Francisella tularensis.
30. A group of six children under 8 years of age live in a semitropical country. Each of the children has several
crusted weeping skin lesions of impetigo (pyoderma). The lesions are predominantly on the arms and faces
Which of the following microorganisms is a likely cause of the lesions?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Bacillus anthracis
E. *Staphylococcus aureus
31. A 40-year old man presents to the emergency room with a 3 day history of cough productive of bloodtinged sputum and a fever. The Gram stain of the sputum has many white blood cells and Gram-positive
cocci. The most likely causative organism is
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Legionella pneumophila
E. *Staphylococcus aureus
32. A patient presents to the emergency room after several days of 'flu-like' symptoms. You collect a sputum
sample on which the laboratory reports Gram positive lancet shaped diplococci. What is your diagnosis?
A. Clostridium difficile
B. Staphylococcus sp. not S. aureus
C. Viridans streptococci
D. coli
E. *S. pneumoniae pneumonia
33. The inhabitants of a group of small villages in rural sub Saharan Africa suffered an epidemic of meningitis.
Ten percent of the people died, most of them under the age of 15 years. The microorganism that most
likely caused this epidemic was
A. Streptococcus agalactiae (group B)
B. Escherichia col K1 (capsular type 1)
C. Haemophilus influenzae serotype b
D. West Nile virus
E. *Neisseria mentngitidis serogroup A
34. While studying a microslide obtained from the punctuate of a regional lymph node and stained by
Romanovsky-Giemsa method a physician revealed some light-pink thin microorganisms with 12-14
regular spiral coils and pointed ends, up to 10-13 micrometer long. This might be the causative agent of the
following disease:
A. Syphilis
B. Trypanosomiasis
C. Leptospirosis
D. Leishmaniasis
E. *Relapsing fever
35. A man died from an acute infectious disease accompanied by fever, jaundice, haemorrhagic rash on the
skin and mucous membranes as well as by acute renal insufficiency. Histological examination of renal
tissue (stained by Romanovsky-Giemsa method) revealed some convoluted bacteria looking like C und S
letters. What bacteria were revealed?
A. Treponema
B. Spirilla
C. Borrelia
D. Campylobacteria
E. *Leptospira
36. In bacteriological research pure culture has been isolated from stool speciment of the patient with diarrhea.
In the smear curvered rod in fish stream appearance were founded. The blueish film is formed on alkaline
medium (alkaline pepton water) through 6 hr. Name a pathogen which has such properties?
A. E. coli
B. Salmonella
C. Spirochaete
D. Mycobacterium
E. *Vibrio cholerae
37. A day after eating in the kitchen chops several students asked doctor about their med.punk stomach pain,
vomiting, fever, diarrhea. One of the students was hospitalised. What are microorganisms cause the food
poisoning?
A. Streptococci
B. Clostridia
C. Shigella
D. Meningococcus
E. *Salmonella
38. A 17-year-old boy with chills, dry cough, high fever with muscle aches and malaise was diagnosed with
probable influenza and has hemagglutination inhibition (HI) titer of 1:400. Which one of the following
statements is correct?
A. A 400-fold dilution of this serum will have no effect a hemagglutination inhibition assay
B. *A 400-fold dilution of this serum will prevent agglutination of red blood cells
C. Each red blood cell can bind 400 viral particles
D. There are 400 hemagglutinins on each red blood cells
E. There are 400 viral particles per milliliter of serum
39. Sick person M., 37 years of old, has complaints about the increase of temperature, diarrhea|, loss of bodies
weight, generalized lymphadenopathy. In anamnesis there is a duty journey to Guinea-Bissau 4 years ago,
and hospitalization in connection with an autotrauma. A doctor made the previous diagnosis of AIDS.
What ratio index of CD4-lymphocytes/CD8-lymphocytes| may be during AIDS?
A. 1,9.
B. 2,4.
C. 1,8.
D. 2,3.
E. *0,2.
40. Sick woman, 22 years old was hospitalized in a clinic with complaints of weight loss, general weakness,
increase of lymphatic nodes. During last few months suffers from diarrhea|. Laboratory tests showed
leucopenia|, there were a lot of Cryptosporidium in feces|. Diagnosis of AIDS was made. What test can
confirm this diagnose?
A. *Absolute decrease of amount of Т-helpers|
B. Activity of complement | system is quit low
C. Lymphopenia
D. Polyclonal activating of B-lymphocytes
E. Change of correlation between T- and B- lymphocytes|
41. A 3-year-old child presents at the physician’s office with symptoms of coryza, conjunctivitis, low-grade
fever, and Koplik’s spots. The causative agent of this disease belongs to which group of viruses?
A. adenovirus
B. herpesvirus
C. orthomyxovirus
D. *paramyxovirus
E. picornavirus
42. A 5 month-old baby had to be hospitaized because she was experiecing a constant, nonproductive
cough,wheezing, and a temperature of 38°C. Radiographs and laboratory tests indicate that the baby has
viral bronchiolitis. Which one of the following viruses is most likely to cause this illness?
A. Adenoviruses
B. Influenza
C. Parainfluenza serotype 3 virus
D. *Respiratory syncytial viruses
E. Rotaviruses
43. A 67-year old sailor presents with a respiratory tract infection caused by a virus that had a segmented
genome composed of eight pieces of negative- sense, single-stranded RNA. Which one of the following
viruses is most likely etiological agent?
A. Adenoviruses
B. *Influenza A viruses
C. Rhinoviruses
D. Respiratory syncytial viruses
E. Coronaviruses
44. A primary viral isolate from a suspected case of poliomyelitis was inoculated into cell culture, and a
dramatic cytopathic effect (CPE) was noted within 24 hours. The isolate was confirmed as poliovirus by
neutralization with polyvalent antibody to poliovirus types I, II, and III; however, monospecific antibody to
each type failed to block CPE. This finding suggests that the isolated contained which of the following?
A. hybrid virus of type I and type II poliovirus
B. mixture of polio and another type of picornavirus mixture
C. *mixture of two types of poliovirus
D. recombinant of type I and type II viruses
E. virus that shares a few antigenic determinants with poliovirus
45. A similar virus was isolated from several students in a day-care school that experienced a respiratory
disease outbreak. This virus passes through a 50 nm filter, grows best in human diploid fibroblasts at 33 °
C, is not inactivated by chloroform, is inactivated at pH 3, and is inhibited by compounds that interact with
the interior of grooves on the viral surface that attach to cell receptor molecules. Which of the following is
the most likely virus based uponits identifying characteristics?
A. coronaviruses
B. Influenza virus B
C. respiratory syncytial virus
D. *rhinovirus
E. rubella virus
46. In February, three patients from a nursing home in East Dallas develop an abrupt onset of a febrile upper
respiratory tract illness. They have received no immunizations in the last year. Culture of the nasopharynx
of one patient shows influenza A virus. To prevent further cases within the next two weeks, which of the
following should be administered?
A. acyclovir
B. *amantadine
C. hyperimmune serum globulin
D. influenza A vaccine
E. ribavirin
47. In the patient N. with a viral infection in 7 days after beginning of disease a cough with sputum, rale in the
lungs appeared. After X-ray examination diagnosis of pneumonia was confirmed. Why there may be
secondary bacterial infection in patients with viral diseases?
A. viruses cause the death of mucus membrane cells in respiratory tract
B. viruses alter the cilia epithelium
C. viruses decrease the immune reactivity of the body
D. viruses are favorable for penetration of secondary microflora
E. *All answers are correct
48. In patient with the fever of non-clear etiology, immunodeficient status, lesions of nervous and digestive
systems AIDS was diagnosed. What methods of diagnosis must be utilized for confirmation of diagnosis?
A. Complement fixation test.
B. *Chain polymerase test, ELISA, immune blotting.
C. Agglutination. test
D. Haemadsorbtion test.
E. Haemagglutination test.
49. Patient M, 18 years of old has generalized lymphadenopathy, subfebrile temperature, and candidiasis of
oral cavity. Specify the most reliable method of laboratory research which will confirm the diagnose of
HIV-infection.
A. *Western blotting
B. Radioimmune assays
C. ELISA for examination of antibodies
D. Immunofluorescence test
E. ELISA for examination of antigens
50. Sign methods for diagnosis of hepatitis B: 1) isolation of viruses in cell cultures; 2) inoculation of
laboratory animal; 3) examination of circulating antibodies against viruses in blood serum; 4) examination
of viral antigens in tested material; 5) skins allergic tests. Choose the only combination of correct answers:
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. *3,4
D. 4,5
E. 1,5
51. A 24-year-old woman in New York City \s admitted to the hospital because of jaundice. On workup she is
found to have hepatitis C virus infection. The major risk factor for HCV infection in the United States is
A. Tattoos
B. *Injecting drug use
C. Blood transfusion
D. Sexual activity
E. Working in health care occupations
52. A 17-year-old girl presents with cervical lymphadenopathy, fever, and pharyngitis. Infectious
mononucleosis is suspected. The most rapid and clinically useful test to make this diagnosis is
A. *IgM antibody to viral core antigen (VCA)
B. IgG antibody to VCA
C. Antibody to Epstein-Barr nuclear antigen (EBNA)
D. Culture
E. C reactive protein (CRP)
53. A 4-year-old infant experiences a rapid onset of high fever that lasts for 3 days and then suddenly returns
to normal. Two days later, a vesiculars appear on the trunk and spreads to other parts of the body. Which of
the following is the most likely cause?
A. Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
B. *Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
C. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
E. Herpes lymphotropic virus (HHV-6) and Human herpesvirus 7 (HHV-7)
54. A 2-year-old child experiences a rapid onset of high fever that lasts for 3 days and then suddenly returns to
normal. Two days later, a maculopapular rash appears on the trunk and spreads to other parts of the body.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)
B. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
C. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
E. *Herpes lymphotropic virus (HHV-6) and Human herpesvirus 7 (HHV-7)
55. A 23-year-old woman is planning a 1-year trip through Europe, Egypt,and the Indian subcontinent and
receives a vaccine for hepatitis A. The current hepatitis A vaccine is
A. A live attenuated virus vaccine
B. A recombmant DNA vaccine
C. *A formalin inactivated virus vaccine
D. An envelope glycoprotein subunit vaccine
E. A chimeric poliovirus that expresses HAV neutralizing epitopes
56. A 30-year-old student goes to the emergency room because of fever and anorexia for the past 3 days. She
appears jaundiced. Her liver is enlarged and tender. A laboratory test shows elevated aminotransferases.
She reports a history of having received hepatitis B vaccine 2 years ago but has not had hepatitis A
vaccine. The results of her hepatitis serologic tests are as follows HAV IgM-negative, HAV IgG-positive
HBsAg negative, HBsAb-positive, HBcAb-nega tive, HCV Ab positive. The most accurate conclusion is
that she probably
A. Has hepatitis A now, has not been infected with HBV, and had hepatitis C in the past
B. Has hepatitis A now and has been infected with both HBV and HCV in the past
C. Has been infected with HAV and HCV in the past and has hepatitis B now
D. *Has been infected with HAV in the past, has not been infected with HBV, and has
E. hepatitis C now (E) Has been infected with HAV and HCV in the past, has not been infected with
HBV, and has hepatitis E now
57. A 34-year-old kidney transplant patient currently on immunosuppressants complains of shortness of breath
and coughing. Physical exam reveals fever and abnormal lung sounds while chest x-ray indicates
interstitial infiltrates in the lungs. No cysts are detected on silver stain of bronchoalveolar lavage fluid,
ruling out Pneumocysitic carinii infection. The doctor makes a diagnosis after viewing a sample of the
patient’s lung tissue, which shows abnormal giant cells. Which of the following is the mostly likely cause?
A. Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
B. Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)
C. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
D. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
E. *Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
58. A 55-year-old man is hospitalized for a recent onset of high fever, headaches, and sporadic sensations of
smelling sausages. Physical exam reveals neck stiffness, prompting the physician to perform a lumbar
puncture. CSF values indicate elevated lymphocytes, elevated proteins, and normal glucose. A CT image
confirms encephalitis localized to the temporal lobes. A diagnosis is confirmed by PCR of the CSF. The
physician begins treatment with acyclovir and informs the patient that he may suffer permanent
neurological abnormalities from the infection. Which of the following is the mostly likely cause?
A. *Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
B. Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)
C. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
E. Herpes lymphotropic virus (HHV-6) and Human herpesvirus 7 (HHV-7)
59. A boy picked up a grounded bat and was bitten on the hand, suffering a slight wound. In addi-tion to
flushing the wound, cleaning it surgically, and giving antitetanus prophylaxis and antibiotics as indicated,
the physician should immediately perform which of the following?
A. observe the boy very carefully
B. order a search for the attacking bat for autopsy
C. report the incident to the state epidemiologist
D. start rabies vaccine
E. *start rabies vaccine and give antirabies serum
60. A grandmother undergoing chemotherapy for cancer in a hospital was exposed to a grand-child with
chickenpox. In order to prevent a clinical complication of varicella or disseminated zoster in the
grandmother, which of the materials listed below should be used as an appropriate medical intervention?
A. *acyclovir
B. indinavir
C. killed varicella-zoster virus (VZV) vaccine
D. live attenuated VZV vaccine
E. subunit VZV vaccine
61. A Jewish AIDS patient from Isreal presents to the ER with red-brown raised nodules on the lower limbs,
face, and genitalia. Lymphodema is found upon palpation. The patient complains about difficulty eating
and dark growths are found along the gum line. Which of the following is the mostly likely cause?
A. Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
B. Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)
C. e) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
D. f) Herpes lymphotropic virus (HHV-6) and Human herpesvirus 7 (HHV-7)
E. *g) Kaposi sarcoma-related virus (HHV-8)
62. A male baby is born at 39 weeks gestation with a petechial rash, low birthweight, hepatosplenomegaly and
bilateral cataracts. This is thought to be due to an infection acquired while the baby was still in utero.
Select the condition which is most likely to cause this clinical presentation.
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Group B streptococcus
C. *Rubella virus
D. Toxoplasma gondii
E. Treponema pallidum
63. A middle-aged man complained of acute onset of fever, nausea, and pain in the right upper abdominal
quadrant. There was jaundice, and dark urine had been observed several days earlier. A laboratory test was
positive for HAV IgM antibody. The physician can tell the patient that
A. He probably acquired the infection from a recent blood transfusion
B. He will probably develop chronic hepatitis
C. He will be at high risk of developing hepatocellular carcinoma
D. He will be resistant to infection with hepatitis
E. *He may transmit the infection to family members by person to-person spread for up to 2 weeks
64. A patient was hospitalized with a provisional diagnosis of hepatitis B. For diagnosis of disease serologic
test, which is based on interaction of antigens with antibodies in the presence of peroxidase | or alkaline
phosphatase|, was carried out. What name does the utilized test have?
A. *Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISA)
B. Radioimunoassays
C. Immunofluorescence test
D. Complement fixation test|
E. Immobilization test|
65. A patient with AIDS was admitted to the hospital with generalized lymphadenopathy and white spots on
the surface of oral cavity. In the smear there are oval cells. Inoculation on Sabourou medium was made.
What microorganisms were found out?
A. Citomegalovirus
B. Virus of simple herpes,| 1 type
C. *Candida| yeasts
D. Staphylococcus aureus
66. In 2,5 months after operation concerning acute ileus the jaundice of skin was appeared in patient viral
hepatitis. It was known from anamnesis of disease, that the patient was a recipient of donor’s blood. What
disease may be developed in patient?
A. Citomegaloviral infection
B. Hepatitis A
C. Hepatitis of D
D. *Hepatitis B
E. Hepatitis Е
67. In 4 months after treatment in the surgical department in four patients viral hepatitis has been developed. A
clinical picture was characterized by the jaundice of the skin|, scleras. It was revealed that all these patients
were recipients of the only donor’s blood during treatment. What form of viral hepatitis did develop in
patients?
A. Hepatitis B and A
B. Hepatitis С and A
C. Hepatitis A and E
D. Hepatitis D and E
E. *Hepatites B or C
68. Patient H., 25 years old, has numerous of skin pustules, which are caused by| Staphylococcus aureus in
association with an epidermal staphylococci. In the sputum Pnеumocystis| carinii was| discovered|, in feces
there were – criptosporidium|, Proteus vulgaris, | and Candida|. What disease may be accompanied by such
plural infection by pathogenic microorganisms?
A. Disbacteriosis.
B. Diabetes mellitus.
C. Sepsis.
D. *AIDS.
E. Medicinal agranulocytosis
69. Poliovirus type 2 has been isolated from the stool of a 55-year-old patient who has experienced malaise,
fever, nausea, and vomiting. An infant grandchild was vaccinated about 3 weeks prior to onset of the
disease. What should the laboratory do to determine whether the isolated virus is related to the vaccine
strain or a wild-type virus?
A. determine the cytopathic effects of the virus
B. do neutralization studies using the infant’s serum
C. *do oligonucleotide mapping of the wild-type and vaccine strains
D. inoculate the virus into mice to determine whether it kills them
E. stain the virus with fluorescent antibody
70. The 22-years-old woman during last two days had an increase of temperature to 38 °С, | absence of
appetite. An icterus appeared in the morning. Objectively: enlarged liver, but soft. General bilirubin| – 5
mg/dL (normal| < 1), there is increase of transaminase activity|. Two years ago she was immunized with a
vaccine against hepatitis B, but not against hepatitis A. Results of serologic examination: HAV-IgM| –
negative, HAV-IgG| – positive, HB-sAg| – negative, HBsAb| – positive, HBcAb| – negative, HCV| – Abpositive|. What postulate is more correct?
A. Possibly, she has hepatitis of A. She is not infected with HBV|, however, possibly, she had
hepatitis C.
B. Possibly, she has hepatitis of A. Possibly, she was infected with HBV|, and had hepatitis C
C. *She was infected with HAV|, she is not infected with HBV|, and, possibly, she has hepatitis C
D. She was infected with HAV|, possibly, she has hepatitis B, and, she was ill with hepatitis C in the
past
E. She has carcinoma | of liver
71. A four-year-old boy was brought to the emergency room with a history of bloody diarrhea over the
preceding two days. A fecal smear contained numerous red cells and neutrophils. Stool culture on Endo
agar produced lactose-negative colonies amid colonies of ‘normal intestinal flora’. Which of the organisms
below is most likely to be the cause of his illness?
A. Enteropathogenic E. coli
B. Balantidium coli.
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. D.Giardia lamblia.
E. *Shigella.
72. Bacteriologists (using the Kauffman-White classification) made conclusion that outbreak has been caused
by Salmonella enterica, serotype Anatum. Structure of which pair of antigens determined the serotype as
Anatum?
A. Heat-labile and heat-stable enterotoxins.
B. Peptidoglycan and teichoic acid.
C. Pili and capsular polysaccharide.
D. *Flagella and O-antigen.
E. Hemolysin and cell-wall-associated carbohydrate.
73. Before the advent of immunization, outbreaks of meningococcal disease were frequent in military camps.
A factor in development of such outbreaks is the ability of Neisseria meningitidis to establish an
asymptomatic ‘carrier state’. What is the predominant site of carriage of Neisseria?
A. Urethral epithelium.
B. Gall bladder.
C. Large intestine.
D. *Nasopharynx.
E. Meninges and choroid plexus
74. Two hours after a delicious Thanksgiving dinner of barley soup, roast turkey, stuffing, sweet potato, green
beans, cranberry sauce, and pump kin pie topped with whipped cream, the Smith family of four experience
vomiting and diarrhea. Which one of the following organisms is MOST likely to cause these symptoms?
A. Shigella flexneri
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. *Staphylococcus aureus
D. Salmonella enteritidis
E. All of the above
75. Untreated pharyngitis produced by Group A streptococci can result in later development of Acute
rheumatic fever, created by cross-reaction of anti-streptococcal antibodies with heart tissue. Which
streptococcal antigen stimulates formation of these cross-reactive antibodies?
A. A.Group A carbohydrate.
B. Flagella.
C. *M protein
D. Peptidoglycan.
E. Teichoic acid.
76. -year-old woman comes to your office because, for 3 days, she has experienced burning with urination,
increased frequency of urination, and a continual feeling that she needs to urinate. She does not have
vaginal discharge, fever, or flank pain. Rapid 'dipstick' urine tests are consistent with uncomplicated
cystitis. Culture of urine on standard media produces a lactose-fermenting Gram-negative rod. In situations
such as this, what is the most likely pathogen?
A. Enterobacter faecium
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Proteus vulgaris
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
77. A 17-year-old sexually-active male presents with a four-day history of pain on urination and profuse
purulent discharge from his urethral opening. Gram stain of the discharge revealed large numbers of
neutrophils. A small fraction of neutrophils contained Gram-negative cocci, mostly in pairs. Which
bacterium is most likely to have caused his infection?
A. Mycoplasma hominis
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Ureaplasma urealyticum
E. *Neisseria gonorrhoeae
78. A 19-year-old man comes to your clinic because of thick purulent discharge from the urethral opening of
his penis. On Gram-stain of the discharge huge numbers of neutrophils are seen, a few of which contain
intracellular Gram-negative cocci. Many of the cocci are in pairs. What is the most likely organism?
A. Neisseria meningitidis.
B. *Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
C. Haemophilus ducreyi.
D. Mycoplasma hominis.
E. Treponema pallidum.
79. A 20-year-old college student goes to the student health center because of dysuna, frequency, and urgency
on urination for 24 hours. She has recently become sexually active. On urmalysis, many
polymorphonuclear cells are seen. The most likely organism responsible for these symptoms and signs is
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Gardnerella vaginalis
D. Lactobacillus species
E. *Escherichia coli
80. A 20-year-old women presents at a local clinic with fever and abdominal tenderness. She reports having
had unprotected sexual intercourse a few weeks earlier. Gram-negative diplococci are seen in a Gram stain
of vaginal secretions; many of the bacteria are inside polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Which virulence
factor is most important in aiding this bacterium to initiate infection?
A. Ability to invade cells.
B. *Adhesive pili.
C. Anti-phagocytic capsule.
D. Endotoxin.
E. Flagella
81. A 23-year-old medical student had headache and fever one evening. By the next morning she had become
very ill, with high fever, severe headache, and stiff neck. She was admitted to the hospital. Later that day
she developed rash, at first petechial and then pupuric. Gram stain of CSF showed many white cells and
Gram-negative cocci, many in pairs. Which organism is most likely to be the cause of her infection?
A. Escherichia coli.
B. Haemophilus influenzae.
C. *Neisseria meningitidis.
D. Streptococcus agalactiae.
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
82. A 23-year-old woman has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections, including at least one episode of
pyelonephritis. Blood typing shows the P blood group antigen. Which of the following is likely to be the
primary cause of her infections7
A. Escherichia coli that produce heat-stable toxin
B. Escherichia coli with K1 (capsular type 1) antigen
C. Escherichia coli O139 (lipopolysaccharide O antigen 139)
D. *Escherichia coli with P-pili (fimbriae)
E. Escherichia coli O157 H7 (lipopolysaccharide O antigen 157, flagellar antigen
83. A 25-year-old woman presents with a swollen, warm, painful knee. Aspirated joint fluid is cloudy and
when cultured on chocolate agar gives rise to oxidase-positive colonies of Gram-negative diplococci.
Which bacterium is most likely to be the cause of this infection?
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. *Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E. Nocardia asteroides
84. A 27 year-old woman is admitted to the hospital because of fever, with increasing anorexia, headache,
weakness, and altered mental status of 2 days'duration. She works for an airline as a cabin attendant, flying
between the Indian subconti nent and other places in Southeast Asia and the West Coast of the USA. Ten
days prior to admission she had a diarrheal illness that lasted for about 36 hours. She has been constipated
forthe last 3 days. Her temperature is 39 °C, heart rate 68/min, blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, and
respirations 18/mm. She knows who she is and where she is but does not know the date. She is picking at
the bed clothes. Rose spots are seen on the trunk. The remainder of the physical examination is normal.
Blood cultures are done and an intravenous line is placed. The most likely cause of her illness is
A. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
B. Shigella sonnei
C. Salmonella enterica subspecies enterica serotype Typhimunum (Salmonella Typhimurium)
D. *Salmonella enterica subspecies enterica serotypeTyphi (SalmonellfaTyphi)
E. Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC)
85. A 60-year old man was admitted to the hospital 2 weeks previously because of head trauma and other
injuries that resulted from an automobile accident. A urinary tract catheter was inserted at admission and
remains in place. The man develops a urinary tract infection with a gram negative bacillus. The probable
cause of this patients infection is
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Providenaa rettgeri
C. Escherichia coli
D. Morganella morgana
E. *Indeterminable without culture and identification testing
86. A child develops ‘strep throat’ (pharyngitis caused by Streptococcus pyogenes). The pediatrician explains
to the child’s mother that the pharyngitis normally resolves spontaneously but nevertheless it is important
the patient take a full course of Penicillin G. Why is this antibiotic treatment recommended in this
situation?
A. Shortens the course of the infection.
B. Prevents spread of the infection to adjacent sites.
C. *Prevents sequellae such as acute rheumatic fever.
D. Stimulates development of protective immunity.
E. Prevents spread of the infection to others.
87. A child develops pneumonia. The bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae is cultured from the patient’s
sputum. Cells of the cultured bacteria have thick polysaccharide capsules. How did the presence of
capsules promote development of serious disease?
A. Prevented binding of antibodies to the bacteria.
B. Prevented initiation of a humoral immune response.
C. Prevented activation of helper T cells.
D. *Prevented phagocytosis by neutrophils.
E. Prevented mast-cell degranulation.
88. A culture of skin lesions from a patient with pyoderma (impetigo) shows numerous colonies surrounded by
a zone of beta hemolysis on a blood agar plate. A Gram-stained smear shows gram-positive cocci. If you
found the catalase test to be negative, which one of the following organisms would you MOST probably
have isolated?
A. *Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. All of the above
89. A neonate develops septicemia. Blood cultures produce a ?-hemolytic Gram-positive coccus. It is catalase
negative. Which test would best confirm the identity of the pathogen as a Group B Streptococcus?
A. *Synergy of hemolysin with the hemolysin of Staphylococcus aureus [CAMP test].
B. Bile-esculin test.
C. Bacitracin sensitivity.
D. Optochin sensitivity.
E. Novobiocin sensitivity.
90. A nine years-old child develops high fever and stiff neck. A spinal tap is performed. A Gram-stained smear
of cerebrospinal fluid reveals many neutrophils and Gram-negative cocci that resemble paired kidney
beans within leucocytes. Which organism below is most likely to have caused this infection?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. *Neisseria meningitidis
E. Streptococcus agalactiae
91. A patient has been diagnosed with a gastric ulcer. A test of the patient's serum shows reactivity with
Helicobacter pylori antigens. Which of the following is true?
A. The Helicobacter pylori infection most likely has nothing to do with the patient's condition.
B. *The patient will be treated with amoxicillin to eradicate H. pylori colonization and eliminate its
recurrence.
C. The patient's gastrin-hydrochloric homeostasis has been maintained.
D. Damage to the patient's gastric mucosa has been primarily caused by the patient's own immune
response.
E. All are true
92. A patient has cellulitis of the left arm, persistent fever, and a heart murmur. He is a habitual user of illegal
drugs, which he self-administers intravenously. An echocardiogram shows a bacterial vegetation on the
aortic valve. Three blood cultures all grow an ?-hemolytic Gram-positive coccus, catalasenegative. Which
organism is most likely to have caused his infection?
A. Staphylococcus aureus.
B. *A Viridans-group Streptococcus.
C. Streptococcus pyogenes [Group A].
D. Streptococcus agalactiae [Group B].
E. Streptococcus bovis [Group D].
93. A patient has endocarditis produced by an a-hemolytic Streptococcus. This usually reflects spread of
normal flora to the bloodstream. From which site is this isolate most likely to have spread?
A. Anterior nares.
B. Facial skin.
C. Lower respiratory tract.
D. Distal urethra.
E. *Oropharynx.
94. A patient presented with upper back pain. MRI imaging demonstrated inflammation of the T8-T9 vertebral
bodies consistent with osteomyelitis. A bone marrow biopsy, when cultured, produced colonies of Grampositive cocci.Colonies on Sheep blood agar were 3-4 mm in diameter, off-white and beta-hemolytic.
Colonies on Brain-heart infusion (BHI) agar were 2-3 mm in diameter and golden-yellow. Catalase and
coagulase tests were positive. What was the most likely pathogen?
A. *Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. Streptococcus mitis
95. A patient with septicemia goes into septic shock. Blood cultures later show the pathogen to be Neisseria
meningitidis. Which component of the bacteria was most likely to be responsible for producing shock?
A. *Lipopolysaccharide [LPS].
B. Teichoic acid.
C. A superantigen toxin.
D. Capsular polysaccharide.
E. Plasma membrane lipids.
96. A post-surgical patient develops fever and there is redness and swelling around the surgical incision. A day
later pus begins to flow from the incision; Gram stain of pus shows large numbers of neutrophils and many
Gram-positive cocci, some in clusters. The organism is beta-hemolytic on blood agar, and is coagulaseand catalase-positive. Which organism is most likely?
A. *Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
D. Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
97. A post-surgical patient develops redness around the incision and a day later pus begins to ooze from the
wound. Culture of a swab of pus produces beta-hemolytic colonies on Sheep blood agar. Gram stain shows
that the bacteria are Gram-positive cocci. Catalase and coagulase tests are positive. Which of the following
organisms is most likely?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Streptococcus mitis
D. *Staphylococcus aureus
E. Staphylococcus epidermidis
98. A sexually-active woman develops a urinary tract infection which ascends to the kidneys. Blood culture
yields a ?-hemolytic Gram-negative rod. In this situation, which pathogen is most common?
A. Escherichia coli.
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae.
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D. Salmonella enteritidis.
E. Serratia marcescens
99. A stool sample is plated on standard Endo-agar plates. After overnight incubation some of the colonies are
dark pink in color, others are pale, nearly colorless. What can you conclude about the bacteria that
produced dark-pink colonies?
A. Gram-positive.
B. *Ferment lactose.
C. Not likely to be ‘normal flora’.
D. Non-motile.
E. Produce capsules
100.A vacationer has “Traveler’s diarrhea” produced by enterotoxigenic E. coli. His profuse watery diarrhea is
produced by a protein exotoxin secreted by this bacterium. Which statement below best describes the effect
of this exotoxin?
A. Kills enterocytes and produces ulceration and inflammation.
B. Paralyzes phagocytosis by neutrophils.
C. *Stimulates ion transport by enterocytes into the intestinal lumen.
D. Blocks adsorption of nutrients by enterocytes.
E. Causes rearrangement of the enterocyte cytoskeleton and disappearance of the brush border.
101.A workman has a large pus-filled lesion on the left forearm, tender, red, and swollen. It is incised. A smear
of the pus is Gram-stained. Many neutrophils are seen, also many Gram-positive cocci, most in large
clusters. The organism is b-hemolytic on sheep blood agar. Colonies are pale-yellow, opaque, and shiny,
with neat round outlines. Of the bacteria listed below, which is most likely to have produced the abscess?
A. Streptococcus bovis
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus mitis
D. Enterococcus faecalis
E. *Staphylococcus aureus
102.A young man complaines on pain on urination and profuse purulent discharge from his urethral opening.
Gram stain of the discharge revealed large numbers Gram-negative cocci, mostly in pairs within
neutrophils. Which bacterium is most likely to have caused his infection?
A. Mycoplasma hominis
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. *Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Ureaplasma urealyticum
E. Treponema pallidum
103.A young man has a large pus-filled abscess on his upper arm but does not go to a doctor. Several days
later he is brought to the Emergency Room with fever, hypotension, and multiple organ failure. Which of
the following is most likely to be responsible?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes Erythrogenic toxin.
B. Clostridium perfringens ?-toxin.
C. *Staphylococcus aureus Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin-1.
D. Shigella dysenteriae Shiga Toxin.
E. Escherichia coli Heat-labile Toxin (ST).
104.A young woman develops urgency, frequency, and dysuria. Two days later she develops fever, chills, and
costovertebral angle tenderness. Tests of urine for leukocyte esterase and nitrate reductase are positive.
Urine culture yields a beta-hemolytic Gram-negative rod which forms dark-pink colonies on MacConkey
agar. Which of the following organisms is most likely?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Klebsiellla pneumoniae
C. *Escherichia coli
D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
E. Enterobacter, sp
105.Among the Sunday night patients at the Smithville emergency room were ten young adults suffering from
severe diarrhea. All of these individuals would normally characterize themselves as being in good health.
All reported eating at a local Dairy fair during the weekend. Of the following bacterial species the least
likely to be responsible is
A. Yersina enterocolitica
B. *Salmonella typhimurium
C. Campylobacter fetus
D. Shigella flexneri
E. Campylobacter jejuni
106.An 18-year-old high school student has a large pus-filled lesion on the left forearm, tender, red, and
swollen. It is incised, drained, washed, and bandaged. A smear of the pus is Gram-stained. Many
neutrophils are seen, also many Gram-positive cocci, most in large clusters. The organism is b-hemolytic
on sheep blood agar. Colonies are pale-yellow, opaque, and shiny, with neat round outlines. Of the bacteria
listed below, which is most likely to have produced the abscess?
A. *Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus mitis
D. Enterococcus faecalis
E. Streptococcus bovis
107.An 81-year-old man with chronic emphysemea and hypertension develops fever, chills, and respiratory
distress. X-rays show lobar pneumonia. Sputum smear contains numerous Gram-positive cocci, many of
which are in pairs. Sputum culture on Sheep blood agar produces many colonies of an alpha-hemolytic
Gram-positive coccus. It is catalase-negative, Bile-esculin negative, and optochin-sensitive. Which of the
organisms below is most likely?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
B. Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)
C. Streptococcus mitis
D. Streptococcus bovis (Group D)
E. *Streptococcus pneumoniae
108.An elderly man develops pneumonia and septicemia. Gram stain of sputum contains many neutrophils and
Gram-positive cocci, in pairs. Blood and sputum cultures grow out a Gram-positive coccus, ?-hemolytic on
sheep blood agar, and catalase-negative. Which organism below is most likely?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. *Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D. Streptococcus pyogenes.
E. Streptococcus agalactiae.
109.An uncommon serotype of Salmonella enterica subspecies enterica was found by laboratories in the health
departments of adjacent states. The isolates were all from a small geographic area on either side of the
border between the states, suggesting a common source for the isolates (All the isolates were from
otherwise healthy young adults who smoked marijuana the same salmo nella was isolated from a specimen
of the marijuana). By what method did the laboratories determine that these isolates were the same?
A. Capsular (K antigen) typing
B. *O antigen and H antigen typing
C. DNA sequencing
D. Sugar fermentation pattern determination
E. Decarboxylase reaction pattern determination
110.During a vacation at a Caribbean resort, a 26-year-old executive develops profuse watery diarrhea. If his
illness is produced by E. coli, which virulence factor of this organism is most likely to be responsible for
the diarrhea?
A. A conjugative plasmid that contains antibiotic-resistance transposons.
B. A plasmid-borne gene which encodes a heat-stable peptide toxin that stimulates guanyl cyclase.
C. A pathogenicity island which enables E. coli to invade mammalian cells.
D. An iron-transport system more efficient than that present in non-pathogenic E. coli.
E. A toxin that cleaves ribosomal RNA's.
111.Ecsherichia coli and Neisseria meningitidis isolated from blood cultures often have transport systems (for
acquiring metal ions from the environment) lacking in their less-virulent relatives. Which metal is acquired
by the majority of these systems?
A. Copper
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Magnesium
E. *Iron
112.Five young men suffer acute attacks of nausea and vomiting a few hours after returning from a student’s
party, at which they ate hamburgers, potato salad, and custard pie. By morning all are feeling better. Which
bacterial toxin is most likely to have caused their symptoms?
A. *Staphylococcus aureus Enterotoxin.
B. Escherichia coli Labile Toxin
C. Escherichia coli Stable Toxin.
D. Clostridium difficile Cytotoxin.
E. Helicobacteri pylori Cytotoxin.
113.Gastroscopy reveals that a patient with stomach pain has a large ulceration of his gastric mucosa. During
the procedure a biopsy of the stomach epithelium is obtained. Which observation would suggest
Helicobacter pylori as the cause of illness?
A. *Curved or spiral bacteria are seen in the biopsy after silver staining.
B. Biopsy shows infiltration of gastric epithelium by lymphocytes.
C. pH of stomach fluid is equal to 1 (normal), rather than decreased.
D. Ingested isotope-labeled nitrate is converted to nitrite in the stomach.
E. Bacteria are found in stomach fluid, but not in contact with the gastric epithelium
114.Members of a family suffer acute attacks of nausea and vomiting a few hours after returning from a
daylong picnic, at which they ate hamburgers, potato salad, and custard pie. By morning all are feeling
better. Which bacterial toxin is most likely to have caused their symptoms?
A. Clostridium difficile Cytotoxin.
B. Escherichia coli Labile Toxin
C. Escherichia coli Stable Toxin.
D. *Staphylococcus aureus Enterotoxin.
E. Helicobacteri pylori Cytotoxin.
115.Several medical students go to Cancun over spring break. One evening, at a local bar, they drink several
pitchers of Margaritas made with crushed ice. They spend the next two days in their hotel room with severe
watery diarrhea, but no chills or fever. By the third day they recover completely. Which organism is most
likely to have been the cause of their illness?
A. Non-typhoidal Salmonella
B. Helicobacter pylori.
C. Campylobacter jejuni.
D. *Enterotoxigenic E. coli.
E. Non-cholera Vibrio.
116.Your patient is a 30-year-old woman who was part of a tour group visiting a N. country. The day before
leaving, several members of the group developed fever, abdominal cramps, and bloody diarrhea. Of the
following, which one is the LEAST likely organism to cause this infection?
A. *Shigella dysenteriae
B. Salmonella enteritidis
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Campylobacter jejuni
E. Staphylococcus aureus
117.A child develops a "cold" which progresses to severe pharyngitis. Pharyngeal exudate forms a tough
'membrane', difficult to remove without causing bleeding. Culture of a throat swab on selective tellurite
agar produces abundant black colonies. Other cultures produce only normal flora. Which organism below
is most likely to have caused this infection?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B. Haemophilus influenzae.
C. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
D. Bordetella pertussis.
E. Mycobacterium avium/intracellulare
118.A 50-year-old woman was treated for cystitis [caused by E. coli] with an oral broad-spectrum antibiotic.
Three weeks later she developed abdominal pain and diarrhea. A stained smear of stool contained many
neutrophils. Cultures for bacterial pathogens were negative. A serological test of stool for Clostridium
difficile toxin was positive. Which of the following is most likely to have been the immediately
predisposing cause of this patient’s difficile infection?
A. *Colonization of her large intestine by antibiotic-resistant E. coli.
B. Alteration of her intestinal flora by antibiotic treatment.
C. An allergic response to her antibiotic treatment.
D. Acquisition of an antibiotic-resistance plasmid (R-Factor) by C. difficile.
E. All of the above
119.A 55-year-old man has a two month history of fever and weight loss. He has recently begun to cough up
yellow-green sputum, sometimes with blood in it. X-rays show evidence of lung inflammation and
damage. He is given a PPD skin test. Which statement below about the results of PPD testing is most
accurate?
A. A positive PPD test indicates active tuberculosis.
B. A PPD test may yield a false-positive result in a person with advanced disease [who may be
anergic].
C. A PPD test can cause a person (previously un-exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis) to covert to
PPD-positive status, and so can be performed only once on a patient.
D. *A PPD test may produce a false-negative (or weakly-positive) result if the patient has impaired
cell-mediated immunity.
E. A positive PPD test indicates high level of immunity.
120.A bird shop owner visits his doctor complaining of a headache, fever, and dry cough that has worsened
over the last few days. The patient also complains of a sore throat and muscle aches. A physical exam
reveals bilateral rales upon auscultation and mild splenomegaly. The doctor orders a CXR that reveals a
patchy pneumonitis. Diagnosis is confirmed with serological tests. The patient is administered tetracycline
and the fever diminishes within 2 days. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. *Chlamydia psittaci
B. Clamydia trachomatis
C. Clamydia pneumoniae
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
121.A diabetic 78-year-old man develops a necrotic ulcer on his right foot. Infection spreads rapidly and there
is gas in soft tissues. His foot is amputated at the ankle. Gram stain of exudate from the amputation site
contains large Gram-positive rods. The bacteria grow well anaerobically, producing large ?-hemolytic
colonies on sheep blood agar, but do not grow aerobically. What organism is most probable in this setting?
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Nocardia asteroides
D. Clostridium tetani
E. *Clostridium perfringens
122.A doctor is struggling to diagnose a woman’s flulike illness. She complains of a fever that rises during the
day and peaks after dinner (undulant fever), fatigue, spinal tenderness, and loss of appetite. Her lymph
nodes are enlarged in physical exam. The doctor has trouble narrowing down the possible etiologies until
he hears that the tasted goat cheese at a French village a month before the onset of her symptoms. Which of
the following is the most likely cause?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Bordetella pertussis
D. Francisella tularensis
E. *Brucella species
123.A man enters the emergency room claiming to have been stabbed two days earlier. Muscles in his arm
hurt, and on palpation small air bubbles are felt below the skin. The wound area exudes a blackish, illsmelling fluid that generates a crackling sound when touched. The patient has a fever, a low blood
pressure, marked tachycardia, and urina very little since his injury. The doctor decides to amputate the arm,
as well as monitor the patient for shock and renal failure Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. C. difficile
B. *C. perfingens
C. C. septicum
D. C. botulinum
E. C. tetani
124.A mother brings her 12-year-old son to your office because he has a skin lesion on his back. It is 20 cm in
diameter, with a red inflamed border and a red center, with a paler ring between the red areas. The mother
says it has expanded rapidly over the last few days. Which of the following would be most likely to cause
such a lesion?
A. Rickettsia rickettsii
B. Treponema pallidum
C. *Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Chlamydia psittaci
E. Streptococcus pyogenes
125.A patient has a positive Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test for ‘non-treponemal antibodies’. A test for
specific anti-treponemal antibodies is positive but the patient has no rash, genital lesions, inflammation, or
discharge. Which conclusion best follows from these findings?
A. The patient does not require antibiotic treatment; absence of symptoms indicates that the positive
RPR is a ‘biological false positive”.
B. The patient has Syphilis, but does not require antibiotic treatment, because infections with
Treponema pallidum normally resolve spontaneously.
C. The patient has Syphilis, but the diagnosis should be confirmed by culture before
antibiotictreatment is started.
D. *The patient has Syphilis, and should be treated with Penicillin G
E. No correct answer
126.A patient has rapidly spreading soft-tissue infection with gas in infected tissue. Fluid from a blister
contains many large Gram-positive rods which grow on sheep blood agar anaerobically but not aerobically.
Which pathogen is most consistent with these findings?
A. Bacillus anthracis.
B. Bacillus cereus.
C. Clostridium difficile.
D. *Clostridium perfringens.
E. Listeria monocytogenes.
127.A teenage girl enters the emergency room suffering painful muscle spasms. Throughout her examination,
she sustains a facial sneer, a stiff arched back, and clamped palms. Her father is anxious about the fact that
she has also experienced difficulty eating, probably due to a stiff jaw. The father affirms that her daughter
is usually quite active and boasts how, a week ago, she continued a soccer game even after falling on a nail
in the field. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. C. difficile
B. C. perfingens
C. C. septicum
D. C. botulinum
E. *C. tetani
128.A ten-year-old girl has dirty, crushing, wounds, received when she fell from a motorcycle. She has never
been immunized against Tetanus. Which of the following should you administer? Administer immediately
Administer several weeks later
A. Tetanus immune globulin (human) Tetanus toxoid
B. Tetanus anti-toxin (equine) Tetanus toxoid
C. Tetanus toxoid Tetanus immune globulin (human)
D. Tetanus toxoid plus Tetanus immune globulin (human),
E. *mixed and administered as a single injection. No immunization
129.A woman straggles into the emergency room with a marked paralysis of her upper body. She describes the
paralysis as a weakness that began in her neck and spread to her arms. She also complains of blurred
double vision and requests water to soothe her dry throat. Though she has no fever, she appears quite dizzy
and her eyelids are drooping. The day before, she returned from a camping trip where she insists she
maintained good hygiene, limiting her diet to canned food only. Which of the following is the most likely
cause?
A. C. difficile
B. C. perfingens
C. C. septicum
D. *C. botulinum
E. C. tetani
130.An 8-year-old boy living in a wooded area of Virginia suddenly developed fever, headache, and myalgia.
On physical exam, a rash was noted on his limbs and trunk. Lesions of the rash were red and a few mm in
diameter. No organisms were isolated from several blood cultures. The child was treated with tetracycline
and recovered. Serological tests of acute and convalescent serum samples from the child are most likely to
reveal an increase in antibody titer to...
A. Borrelia burgdorferi.
B. Chlamydia pneumoniae.
C. Franciscella tularensis.
D. Yersinia pestis.
E. *Rickettsia rickettsii.
131.An old woman comes to the doctor with a fever and loose bowels. Her diarrhea occurs in tremendous
volumes, she complains, though she doesn’t remember seeing blood. She has an unremarkable recent past
medical history, except for an infection a few weeks earlier that was treated with clindamycin.
Sigmoidoscopy of her colon reveals yellow-white plaques which the doctor predicted after analyzing her
stools for toxins. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. *C. difficile
B. C. perfingens
C. C. septicum
D. C. botulinum
E. C. tetani
132.Children born with congenital syphilis often exhibit Hutchinson Triad, which includes deafness, blindness,
and centrally notched teeth. If the mother has been exposed to Chlamydia, syphilis, or gonorrhea, the
newborn may receive a prophylactic antibiotic for their:
A. Ears
B. *Eyes
C. Nose
D. Mouth
E. Systemic antibiotic (via IV)
133.Five days ago a 65-year-old woman with a lower urinary tract infection began taking ampicillin. She now
has a fever and severe diarrhea. Of the organisms listed, which one is MOST likely to be the cause of the
diarrhea?
A. Clostridium difficile
B. Bacteroides fragilis
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Bordetella pertussis
E. Clostridium tetani
134.In a person with intact immunity, which of the following is most likely to be followed by development of
active tuberculosis [with viable mycobacteria in sputum]?
A. *Re-activation of previously-dormant bacteria in the lung.
B. Brief exposure to a person with active tuberculosis.
C. Immunization with BCG [Bacillus of Calmette and Guerin] vaccine.
D. Treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics, which reduce competition by ‘normal flora’.
E. No correct answer
135.In August, a young man presents with a history of fever for 1 week and a red rash which extends to the
palms and soles. IgM titer to Rickettsia rickettsii is 1:640. From which vector was this infection most likely
to have been acquired?
A. *Dog tick.
B. Mosquito of the genus Anopheles.
C. Blood-sucking sandfly.
D. Flea.
E. Human body louse.
136.Laboratory assistant has to isolate Clostridium tetani, anaerobic sporeforming bacterium, from wound
exudation. What will he do before inoculation of material into appropriate culture medium?
A. he filtrates the material through cellulose filter
B. *he heats the sample to kill asporogenous bacteria at 800C for 20 min
C. wound discharge should be frozen before inoculation to inhibit facultative anaerobes
D. he will not do anything before investigation
E. he heats the sample to kill vegetative forms bacteria at 600C for 5 min
137.The young man was injuring in car accident. The affected area of the leg is painful, red, and swollen.
During the next 12 hours the swelling increases markedly, the skin of the leg becomes discolored, and
fluid-filled blisters appear on the skin. Gram stain of fluid aspirated from a blister reveals large Grampositive rods. Which organism below is most likely to have caused this infection?
A. Clostridium botulinum.
B. *Clostridium perfringens.
C. Clostridium difficile.
D. Clostridium tetani.
E. Listeria monocytogenes.
138.A 34-year old person has rapidly developing cough, dyspnoea, expectoration ana blood-tinged sputum, he
is febrile, cyanosed and toxic. Chest examination reveals crepitations and rhonchi. The most likely
diagnosis is
A. Legionella pneumonia
B. *Pneumonic plague
C. Septicaemic plague
D. Pulmory tuberculosis
E. No correct answer
139.Your patient is a 70-year-old man who under went bowel surgery for colon cancer 3 days ago. He now has
a fever and abdominal pain. You are concerned that he may have peritonitis. Which one of the following
pairs of organisms is MOST likely to be the cause?
A. *Bacteroides fragilis and Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Bordetella pertussis and Salmonella enteritidis
C. Actinomyces israelii and Campylobacter jejuni
D. Clostridium botulinum and Shigella dysente-riae
E. All of the above
Test’s questions to figures
1. To which family does belong this virus? Fig. 1
A. Herpesviridae
B. Аdenoviridae
C. *Bunyaviridae
D. Picornaviridae
E. Rabdoviridae
2. Which disease can cause this virus ? Fig. 1
A. Flu
B. Measles
C. Rabies
D. *Haemorrhagic fever with kidney syndrome
E. Yellow fever
3. Which disease can cause this virus ? Fig. 1
A. Flu
B. Tick-borne encephalitis
C. Rabies
D. Yellow fever
E. *Crime-Congo Haemorrhagic fever
4. This figure you see during microscopy the smear of patient’s discharge. Your conclusion about disease.
Fig. 2
A. Dysentery
B. Cholera
C. *Gonorrhoeae
D. Tuberculosis
E. Salmonellosis
5. About what disease you can think if you see such picture under the microscope? Fig. 2
A. Dysentery
B. *Gonorrhoeae
C. Cholera
D. Tuberculosis
E. Salmonellosis
6. Causative agent of what disease is shown on this figure? Fig. 2
A. Dysentery
B. *Gonorrhoeae
C. Cholera
D. Tuberculosis
E. Salmonellosis
7. What microbes are there? Fig. 2
A. Micrococci
B. *Diplococci
C. Staphylococci
D. Streptococci
E. Tetracocci
8. What microbes are there? Fig. 3
A. Micrococci
B. Diplococci
C. Staphylococci
D. Streptococci
E. *Tetracocci
9. Which disease can cause this microbe? Fig. 4
A. Enteric fever
B. Gonorrhoeae
C. *Absces
D. Brucellosis
E. Scarlet fever
10. What microbes are there? Fig. 4
A. Micrococci
B. Diplococci
C. *Staphylococci
D. Streptococci
E. Tetracocci
11. Which disease can cause this microbe? Fig. 5
A. Enteric fever
B. Gonorrhoeae
C. Brucellosis
D. Tuberculosis
E. *Scarlet fever
12. What microbes are there? Fig. 5
A. Micrococci
B. Diplococci
C. Staphylococci
D. *Streptococci
E. Tetracocci
13. What method is shown in figure? Fig. 6
A. inoculation by a spatula
B. *inoculation by streaks technique
C. by serial dilution in solid nutrient media
D. by a tampon
E. none of offered
14. What nutrient medium can use for examinate hemolytic properties of these microbes? Fig. 7
A. MPB
B. *Endo
C. Blood agar
D. Serum agar
E. TSBS
15. Which properties of bacteria can we examinate? Fig. 7
A. Sugarlytic
B. coagulase activity
C. DNA-aze activity
D. peptolytic
E. *hemolytic
16. Are there signs of growth of Staphylococcus in these test tubes? Fig. 8
A. there is growth in the right test tube
B. there is no growth in the left test tube
C. there is no growth in the right test tube
D. *there is growth in the left test tube
E. growth is present in both test tubes
17. What sign does show the presence of Staphylococci growth in the left test tube? Fig. 8
A. formation of sediment
B. formation of pellicle
C. *formation of diffuse turbidity
D. growth in the left test tube is absent
E. formation of «stalactites»
18. What properties of Staphylococcus are tested on this medium? Fig. 9
A. saccharolytic
B. lipolytic
C. proteolytic
D. *hemolytic
E. Reductive
19. What properties of Streptococcus are tested on this medium? Fig. 9
A. saccharolytic
B. alfa-hemolytic
C. proteolytic
D. gamma-hemolytic
E. *beta-hemolytic
20. There is yolk agar on the picture. What property of bacteria is it possible verify? Fig. 10
A. proteolytic
B. hemolytic
C. *lecithinase production
D. gelatin hydrolysis
E. saccharolytic
21. There is colonies of Staphylococcus spp. onto yolk agar on the picture. Are there bacteria pathogenic or
not? Fig. 10
A. yes, becouse they have proteolytic properties
B. yes, becouse they have hemolytic properties
C. *yes, becouse they have lecithinase activity
D. yes, becouse gelatin hydrolysis occur
E. yes, becouse they have saccharolytic properties
22. Tested material from the patient’s nose was inoculated onto yolk agar. Do microbes have lecithinase
activity? What is microbe? Fig. 10
A. *Yes. Staphylococcus aureus.
B. Yes. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
C. Does not have. Staphylococcus aureus.
D. Does not have. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
E. Yes. Streptococcus pyogenes.
23. What microbes are there in the tissue? Fig. 11
A. Neisseria
B. Tetracocci
C. Pneumococci
D. *Staphylococci
E. Streptococci
24. What test is it? Fig. 12
A. Examination of hyaluronidaze
B. *Examination of plasmocoagulase
C. Examination of phosphatase
D. Examination of nitrate reductaze
E. Examination of peptolytic properties
25. Bacteriophages were used for identification of bacteria. Bacteriophages against Staphylococcus aureus
were added. Make conclusion: was Staphylococcus aureus identified or not? Fig. 13
A. *Yes
B. No
C. Test is doubtful
D. It is impossible to make correct conclusion
E. Staphylococcus epidermidis was identified
26. It was outbreak of hospital infection in surgical clinic. It is necessary to reveal the source of infection.
What method of investigation was used? Fig. 13
A. Biochemical
B. Serological
C. *By bacteriophages
D. According to growth signs
E. According to toxigenic properties
27. Antigen structure of which microbes are this present? Fig. 14
A. Micrococci
B. *Salmonella
C. Staphylococci
D. Streptococci
E. Tetracocci
28. A stool sample is plated on standard Mac Conkey medium plates. After overnight incubation some of the
colonies are red in color, others are pale, nearly colorless. What can you conclude about the bacteria that
produced red colonies? Fig. 15
A. Gram-positive.
B. *Ferment lactose.
C. Not likely to be ‘normal flora.
D. Non-motile.
E. Produce capsules
29. A stool sample is plated on standard Mac Conkey medium plates. After overnight incubation some of the
colonies are red in color, others are pale, nearly colorless. What can you conclude about the bacteria that
produced pale colonies? Fig. 15
A. Gram-positive.
B. Ferment lactose.
C. *Don’t ferment lactose
D. Non-motile.
E. Produce capsules
30. Which bacteria can produce on Mac Conkey medium dark red colonies? Fig. 15
A. Salmonella enterica
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Shigella sonnei
E. Shigella dysenteriae
31. All at list species of bacteria can produce on Mac Conkey medium colourless colonies, except: Fig. 15
A. Salmonella enterica
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Shigella sonnei
D. Shigella dysenteriae
E. Salmonella typhi
32. Which of following bacteria can’t produce colourless colonies on Mac Conkey medium? Fig. 15
A. Salmonella enterica
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Shigella sonnei
E. Shigella dysenteriae
33. Which of the following bacterium is peritrichous? Fig.16
A. Staphylococcus aureus.
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. *E. coli
E. All of the above.
34. Which method obtaining of separate colonies is demonstration here? Fig. 17
A. Koch’s technique
B. *Drigalsky’s technique
C. Streaks’ technique
D. Pasteur’s technique
E. There is no correct answer
35. What method of mechanical separation of bacteria is present at scheme? Fig. 18
A. Koch’s technique
B. Drigalsky’s technique
C. *Streaks’ technique sowing
D. Pasteur’s technique
E. There is no correct answer
36. What test is represented in figure? Fig.19
A. Examination of mobility of bacteria
B. Examination of susceptibility to bacteriophages
C. *Agglutination test
D. Chain polymerase reaction
E. Gelatin hydrolysis
37. What equipment is shown in figure? Fig. 20
A. *autoclave
B. serum coagulator
C. thermostat
D. sterilizer
E. dry-heat closet
38. How can we use this test-system? Fig. 21
A. for control of sterilization in a heat oven
B. *for control of sterilization by autoclaving
C. for control of mechanical sterilization
D. for control of sterilization by gas method
E. for control of sterilization by ultraviolet rays
39. Do these microbes have hemolytic properties? Fig. 22
A. does not have
B. it is hard to make conclusion
C. have
D. less part of bacteria – has, but mainly – no
E. *most bacteria – have, minority – no
40. Are there signs of growth of bacteria in these test tubes? Fig. 23
A. there is growth in the right test tube
B. there is no growth in the left test tube
C. there is no growth in the right test tube
D. *there is growth in the left test tube
E. growth is present in both test tubes
41. What microorganisms can grow on the Endo’s medium and form dark pink colonies? Fig. 24
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Salmonella paratyphi A
E. *Escherichia coli
42. What properties of bacteria could you determine to see growth of them onto Endo’s medium? Fig. 24
A. fermentetion of proteins
B. fermentetion of sucrose
C. *fermentetion of lactose
D. fermentetion of mannit
E. fermentetion of sterol
43. Which bacteria can produce dark pink colonies on Endo’s medium? Fig. 24
A. Salmonella enterica
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Shigella sonnei
E. Shigella dysenteriae
44. Patient F., 65-year-old, has diarea. Doctor send his specimens to bacteriological laboratory. Culture of
feces on Endo’s medium produces a lactose-fermenting colonies of microbes. Gram-negative rods (see
picture) are under the microscope. In situations such as this, what is the most likely pathogen? Fig. 25
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Salmonella enteritidis
D. Proteus vulgaris
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
45. On Endo agar bacteria cultured from stool produces colonies. Which of the following organisms is most
likely? Fig. 26
A. *Escherichia coli
B. Salmonella enterica
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Shigella sonnei
E. Shigella dysenteriae
46. Which method are used to obtain of isolation colonies of enterobacteria? Fig. 26
A. Koch’s technique
B. Drigalsky’s technique
C. *Streaks’ technique
D. Pasteur’s technique
E. There is no correct answer
47. This test is used for identification of microorganism. What is this method? Fig. 27
A. Precipitation test
B. *Latex-Agglutination test
C. Indirect hemagglutination test
D. Hemagglutination inhibition test
E. Immunofluorescense test
48. Formation roseola is clinical symptom of following disease: Fig. 28
A. Gonorrhea
B. Leprosy
C. Meningitis
D. *Typhoid fever
E. Anthrax
49. This test is used for serological diagnosis of infection disease. What is this method? Fig. 29
A. Precipitation test
B. Agglutination test
C. *Indirect hemagglutination test
D. Hemagglutination inhibition test
E. Immunofluorescense test
50. Which virus is carried by this insect? Fig. 30
A. Japanese encephalitis
B. Yellow fever
C. Denge fever
D. Influenza virus
E. *Crimea-Congo hemorrhagic fever
51. Which test is used for shigellas determination? Fig. 31
A. Precipitation test
B. *Agglutination test
C. Indirect hemahlutination test
D. Hemagglutination inhibition test
E. Immunofluorescense test
52. Which bacteria are on the picture? Fig. 32
A. Escherichia
B. Salmonella
C. Shigella
D. *Vibrio
E. Campylobacter
53. Which bacteria are on the picture? Fig. 33
A. Escherichia
B. Salmonella
C. Shigella
D. Vibrio
E. *Helicobacter
54. Which bacteria are on the picture? Fig. 34
A. Escherichia
B. Salmonella
C. Shigella
D. Vibrio
E. *Campylobacter
55. Which colonies on Endo’s medium belong to Shigella? Fig. 35
A. Red
B. *White
C. Both of them
D. None of them
E. Shigella can’t grow on solid nutrient media
56. A stool sample is plated on Mac-Conkey agar plates. After overnight incubation some of the colonies are
dark pink in colour, others are pale, nearly colourless. What can you conclude about the bacteria that
produced dark-pink colonies? Fig. 35
A. Gram-positive.
B. *Ferment lactose.
C. Not likely to be ‘normal flora’.
D. Non-motile.
E. Produce capsules
57. Morphologically these bacteria belong to following genus: Fig. 36
A. Vibrio
B. *Shigella
C. Helicobacter
D. Staphylococcus
E. None of them
58. What is it? Fig. 37
A. E. coli
B. *C. diphtheriae phage with tox+ -genes
C. M. tuberculosis
D. C. diphtheriae
E. M. smegmatis
59. There are clinical signs of ? Fig. 38
A. Whooping cough
B. *Diphtheria
C. Tuberculosis
D. Leprosy
E. No correct answer
60. What is there in the figure? Fig. 39
A. Growth of C. diphtheriae in liquid nutient medium
B. *Growth of M. tuberculosis in liquid nutient medium
C. Examination of M. tuberculosis antibiotic susceptibility
D. Examination of M. tuberculosis niacin production
E. No correct answer
61. What microbes are there in the figure? Fig. 40
A. *Mycobacterium leprae
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. M. smegmatis
D. Bordetella pertussis
E. Vibrio cholerae
62. There are clinical signs of ? Fig. 41
A. Whooping cough
B. Skin diphtheria
C. Skin tuberculosis
D. *Leprosy
E. No correct answer
63. This test was used for examination of diphtherial toxin production. What test is it? Fig. 42
A. Agglutination test
B. Complement fixation test
C. Immunofluorescence test
D. ELISA
E. *Precipitation test in gel
64. There is yolk agar on the picture. What property of bacteria is verify? Fig. 43
A. proteolytic
B. hemolytic
C. *lecithinase production
D. gelatin hydrolysis
E. saccharolytic
65. Which microbes have lecitinase activity onto yolk agar? Fig. 43
A. *Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D. Sreptococcus pyogenes
E. Micrococcus luteus
66. Which test is demonstrate? Fig. 43
A. glucose fermentation
B. manitiol fermentation
C. coagulase production
D. citrate utilization
E. *lecitinase production
67. What microbes are there in the figure? Fig. 44
A. M. tuberculosis
B. *C. tetani
C. C. botulinum
D. S. typhi
E. No correct answer
68. What properties of bacteria are tested on this medium? Fig. 45
A. saccharolytic
B. lipolytic
C. *proteolytic
D. hemolytic
E. reductive
69. What microbes are there in the figure? Fig. 46
A. M. tuberculosis
B. *C. tetani
C. C. botulinum
D. S. typhi
E. No correct answer
70. What microbes are there in the figure? Fig. 47
A. Mycobacteria spp.
B. *Clostridia spp.
C. Yersinia spp.
D. Salmonella spp.
E. Brucella spp.
71. What microbes could you see in the figure? Fig. 47
A. Mycobacteria tuberculosis
B. Clostridia botulinum
C. *Clostridium tetani
D. Salmonella typhi
E. Brucella abortus.
72. What microbes are there? Fig. 48
A. Streptobacilli
B. *Monobacilli
C. Streptobacteria
D. Diplobacteria
E. Monobacteria
73. What microbes are there? Fig. 49
A. *Streptobacilli
B. Streptobacteria
C. Diplobacteria
D. Monobacilli
E. Monobacteria
74. What microbes are there in the figure? Fig. 50
A. M. tuberculosis
B. C. tetani
C. *C. botulinum
D. S. typhi
E. No correct answer
75. What is there in the figure? Fig. 51
A. Blood transfusion
B. *AIDS ways of trasmission
C. Rh incompatibility
D. Drugs injection
E. No correct answer
76. There are clinical signs of following disease: Fig. 52
A. Brucellosis
B. *Tetanus
C. Tularemia
D. Anthrax
E. Gas anerobic infection
77. How can we use this jar? Fig. 53
A. for cultivation of aerobic bacteria
B. *for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria
C. for cultivation of facultative anaerobic bacteria
D. for sterilization of Petry’s plate with microbes
E. for cultivation of aerotolerant bacteria
78. What microbes are there? Fig. 54
A. B. anthracis
B. C. tetani
C. C. novyi
D. C. perfringens
E. *Y. pestis
79. There are clinical signs of :Fig. 55
A. Brucellosis
B. Plague
C. Tularemia
D. Anthrax
E. *Gas anerobic infection
80. There are colonies of following microbe: Fig. 56
A. C. tetani
B. *B. anthracis
C. C. novyi
D. C. perfringens
E. E. pestis
81. There are colonies of following microbe: Fig. 57
A. C. tetani
B. B. anthracis
C. C. novyi
D. C. perfringens
E. *Y. pestis
82. There is labolatory animal which was infected by: Fig. 58
A. C. botulinum
B. C. septicum
C. C. perfringens
D. C. difficile
E. *C. tetani
83. This patient has tonic spasms of the jaw muscles (trismus) and face muscles (risus sardonicus). What
disease does he have? Fig. 59
A. Brucellosis
B. Plague
C. *Tetanus
D. Anthrax
E. Gas anerobic infection
84. Patient N. has opisthotonus. What disease does he have? Fig. 60.
A. Brucellosis
B. Plague
C. Anthrax
D. *Tetanus
E. Gas anerobic infection
85. What microbes are there in the figure? Fig. 61
A. B. anthracis
B. C. perfringens
C. S. mutans
D. *C. botulinum
E. B. abortus
86. Guinea pig was injected with tested material. What disease does develop in animal? Fig. 62
A. Brucellosis
B. Plague
C. Anthrax
D. Tetanus
E. *Botulism
87. Which method is shown in the figure to obtain of isolation colonies of enterobacteria? Fig. 63
A. Koch’s technique
B. Drigalsky’s technique
C. *Streaks’ technique
D. Pasteur’s technique
E. There is no correct answer
88. What test for diagnosis of tularemis is it? Fig. 64
A. Agglutination test
B. Precipitation test
C. *Blood-drop agglutination reaction
D. CFT
E. ELISA
89. What microbes are there in the figure? Fig. 65
A. *B. anthracis
B. S. mutans
C. Y. pestis
D. B. abortus
E. F. tularensis
90. What microbes are there in the smear? Fig. 66
A. S. mutans
B. Y. pestis
C. B. abortus
D. *B. anthracis
E. F. tularensis
91. What specific feature of B. anthracis is there in this figure? Fig. 66
A. Cell wall formation
B. *Capsule formation
C. Protoplasts formation
D. Spheroplasts formation
E. No correct answer
92. What is there in the figure? Fig. 67
A. Clinical manifectation of brucellosis
B. Clinical manifectation of plague
C. Clinical manifectation of tularemia
D. *Clinical manifectation of anthrax
E. Clinical manifectation of tetanus
93. What microbes are there? Fig. 68
A. Treponema
B. *Borrelia
C. Leptospira
D. Spirilla
E. Vibrio
94. What microbes are there? Fig. 69
A. Treponema
B. Borrelia
C. *Leptospira
D. Spirilla
E. Vibrio
95. What microbes are there? Fig. 70
A. *Treponema
B. Borrelia
C. Leptospira
D. Spirilla
E. Vibrio
96. There are clinical signs of what disease? Fig. 71
A. Primary syphilis
B. *Secondary syphilis
C. Tertiary syphilis
D. Tuberculosis
E. Leprosy
97. Pathogenesis of what disease? Fig. 72
A. Cytomegaly
B. Measles
C. Mumps
D. *Herpes simplex
E. Herpes zoster
98. There are clinical signs of what disease? Fig. 73
A. *Primary syphilis
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Tertiary syphilis
D. Tuberculosis
E. Leprosy
99. There are clinical signs of what disease? Fig. 74
A. Primary syphilis
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Tertiary syphilis
D. *Congenital syphilis
E. Leprosy
100.
There are clinical signs of what disease? Fig. 75
A. Primary syphilis
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Tertiary syphilis
D. Leprosy
E. *Congenital syphilis
101.
What virus is shown on the figure: Fig. 76
A. *Herpes simplex virus
B. Adenovirus
C. Picornavirus
D. Bunyavirus
E. Rabdovirus
What virus is shown on the figure: Fig. 77
A. *Rabdovirus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Adenovirus
D. Picornavirus
E. Bunyavirus
103.
What virus is shown on the figure: Fig. 78
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. *Adenovirus
C. Picornavirus
D. Bunyavirus
E. Rabdovirus
104.
There are clinical signs of what disease? Fig. 79
A. *Frambesia
B. Pinta
C. Congenital syphilis
D. Primary syphilis
E. Secondary syphilis
105.
What microbes are there in the figure? Fig. 80
A. Treponema
B. Borrelia
C. *Leptospira
D. Spirilla
E. Vibrio
106.
What microbes are there in the figure? Fig. 81
A. Spirilla
B. Vibrio
C. Treponema
D. *Borrelia
E. Leptospira
107.
The circularly expanding annular skin lesions are hardened (indurated) with wide borders and
central clearing. There is clinical signs of what disease? Fig. 82
A. Frambesia
B. Pinta
C. Primary syphilis
D. Secondary syphilis
E. *Lyme disease
108.
What microbe are there inside the cells? Fig. 83
A. Staphylococci
B. Streptococci
C. Micrococci
D. *Rickettsia
E. Vibrio
109.
Patient’s sputum was inoculated onto special nutrient medium. In a few days some colonies are
appeared. What microbes can form such type of colonies? Fig. 84
A. Rickettsia
B. Chlamidia
C. Bacilli
D. *Mycoplasma
E. Micrococci
110.
What virus is in the figure? Fig. 85
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Herpes zoster
D. *Adenovirus
E. Coxsackievirus
111.
What virus is in the figure? Fig. 86
102.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
HAV
HIV
*Herpesvirus
Adenovirus
HEV
112.
What virus is in the figure? Fig. 87
A. HAV
B. HIV
C. Herpesvirus
D. *Adenovirus
E. HEV
113.
Which viral disease is observed in a child? Fig. 88
A. *Mumps disease
B. Measles
C. RSV-bronchopneumonia
D. Rotaviruses enteritis
E. Herpes simplex 1
114.
Which viral disease is observed in a child? Fig. 89
A. Mumps disease
B. *Measles
C. RSV-bronchopneumonia
D. Rotaviruses enteritis
E. Herpes simplex 1
115.
Which virus can cause such a disease? Fig. 90
A. Influenza virus
B. Rubella virus
C. *Herpes simplex virus
D. Adenovirus
E. Picornavirus
116.
What virus causes gingivostomatitis? Fig. 90
A. *Herpes simplex virus type 1
B. Herpes simplex virus type 2
C. Varicella zoster virus
D. Epstain-Bar virus
E. Cytomegalovirus
117.
Which virus can cause such a disease? Fig. 91
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. *Herpes zoster
D. Adenovirus
E. Coxsackievirus
118.
The child’s symptoms are: swollen peripheral lymph nodes, fever, malaise, tonsillitis. The previous
diagnosis is infectious mononucleosis. What kind of virus does it cause? Fig. 92
A. Herpes simplex virus type 1
B. Herpes simplex virus type 2
C. Varicella zoster virus
D. *Epstain-Bar virus
E. Cytomegalovirus
119.
These microorganisms cause thrush. What are there? Fig. 93
A. *Candida
B. Staphylococcus
C. Streptococcus
D. Treponema
E. Toxoplasma
120.
Which disease symptoms are performed on the figure? Fig. 93
A. *Candidiasis
B. Herpes infection
C. Avitaminosis
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
D. Periodontosis
E. Dysbacteriosis
What virus is in the figure? Fig. 94
A. HAV
B. *HIV
C. Herpesvirus
D. Adenovirus
E. HEV
There are clinical signs of what disease? Fig. 95
A. Herpes infection
B. Adenoviral infection
C. Kaposi’s sarcoma
D. Small pox
E. *Candidiasis
There are clinical signs of: Fig. 96
A. Herpetic infection
B. Adenoviral infection
C. Haemorrhagic fever
D. Small pox
E. *Kaposi’s sarcoma
This test is used for diagnosis if AIDS. There is: Fig. 97
A. Hemagglutination test
B. Hemagglutination inhibition test
C. Neutralization test
D. *ELISA
E. Western-blot test
Which viral disease is observed in a child? Fig. 98
A. Mumps disease
B. Measles
C. *RSV-bronchopneumonia
D. Rotaviruses enteritis
E. Herpes simplex 1
What viral diseases this symptom is pathognomic for? Fig. 99
A. Mumps
B. *Measles
C. Influenza
D. Varicella
E. Herpes simplex 1
Which virus is carried by this insect? Fig.100.
A. *Japanese encephalitis
B. Omsk hemorrhagic fever
C. Tick-borne encephalitis
D. Influenza virus
E. Crimea-Congo hemorrhagic fever