Block Va Final Exam Mock Questions
Respiratory Disease
4/19/10
What is the most important part of a history when working up chronic respiratory
disease?
A. Signalment
B. Diet
C. Environment
D. Duration of clinical signs
**What treatments are contraindicated in patients in respiratory distress?
A. Radiographs
B. Catheterization
C. Intubation
D. Thoracocentesis
E. A, B and C
F. All of the Above
**True or False:
Cardiomegaly commonly causes coughing in dogs. – T
**True or False:
Cardiomegaly commonly causes coughing in cats. – F
Which of the following statements are true? (circle all that apply).
A. Stridor sounds come from the larynx and/or trachea
B. Stridor is loudest during expiration
C. Stertor comes from the nasal cavity/Nasopharynx
D. Stertor sounds go away when the mouth is openend
E. Vesicular sounds are considered normal
F. Wheezes are the result of alveoli snapping open
G. Polycythemia should be expected in a chronically hypoxic dog
True or False:
Fungal disease is more likely in dolicocephalic breeds than brachycephalic breeds. – T
True or False:
You should always check mandibular lymph nodes in any patient presenting with respiratory
signs and aspirate them if they are enlarged. – T (finding neoplasia saves further workup)
Which tests should be run during a standard workup for epistaxis?
A. CBC
B. Chem
C. UA
D. Clotting Panel
E. vWF test
F. All of the Above
G. All of the above but why are you running a UA exactly?
What is the treatment of choice for nasal adenocarcinomas?
A. Surgical excision
B. Chemotherapy
C. Radiation
What clinical progression should you watch out for when treating kennel cough?
Pneumonia
**If you are presented with a dog that has a history of chronic bronchitis and is now
systemically ill, what has likely happened?
A. Pneumothorax
B. Secondary Mycoplasma infection
C. Secondary pneumonia
D. Septicemia
True or False:
Dogs that are coughing and present over-conditioned are likely to have cardiac disease whereas
skinny dogs presenting with cough are more likely to be respiratory cases. – F (it’s the
opposite).
True or False:
Increased expiratory effort is a hallmark of lower airway disease. – T
True or False:
Dogs get chronic bronchitis. Cats get asthma. – T
True or False:
Asthma is defined by an increased expiratory effort (lower airway disease). – T
Which of the following are indicated and which are contraindicated in a severe acute
asthma attack?
A. Steroids – indicated
B. O2 therapy – indicated
C. Radiographs – contraindicated
D. Intubation – contraindicated
E. β-2 Agonist – indicated
F. α-2 Agonist – contraindicated
G. Catheterization – contraindicated
Which is a specific lung pattern to look for in asthma patients?
A. Overinflated lungs
B. Bronchiolar interstitial pattern
C. Air bronchogram
D. Dorsally displaced heart
What leukocyte are you expecting to see in abundance on the tracheal wash
contents of a cat with asthma?
A. Eosinophils
B. Neutrophils
C. Macrophage
D. Lymphocytes
What parasite is an important rule out for asthma and how do you diagnose it?
Lung worm. Diagnose with a fecal Baerman.
Introduction to Urology
04/29/10
What is the best test to use for detection of early signs of acute renal damage?
A. PE / History to look for vomiting, diarrhea, changes in kidney size
B. Serum chemistry to look for azotemia, changes in phosphorous, albumin, etc.
C. Urinalysis to look for  USG, casts, proteinuria, etc.
D. All of the above
True or False:
Uremic animals are typically hyperthermic – F
What are the characteristic presenting signs for ethylene glycol toxicity?
1. Ataxia and vomiting
2. Osmol gap discrepancy
3. Hyperphosphatemia
4. Hypocalcemia
5. Calcium oxalate crystals
6. Azotemia
Which of the above signs indicate that it may be too late to successfully treat?
Azotemia
Indicate whether the following clinical signs fit acute or chronic renal disease
Hypercalcemia – Chronic
Hypocalcemia – Acute
Marked Hyperphosphatemia – Acute
Normal or mild hyperphosphatemia – Chronic
Hyperkalemia – Acute
Hypokalemia – Chronic
Anemia – Chronic (unless acute with GI bleed)
Azotemia – both, but more much higher than the severity of clinical signs would suggest in
chronic than acute
What is the first goal in treatment of acute kidney disease?
A. Assess/correct electrolyte imbalances
B. Assess/correct acid/base status
C. Assess/correct dehydration
D. Assess/correct oliguria/anuria
What are the two most important long term treatments for chronic kidney disease?
Kidney diets and sub-q fluids
What nutritional supplement must you give when treating with erythropoietin?
A. Iron
B. Vitamin D
C. Cobalamin
D. Calcium
Urinary Pathology
04/30/10 and 05/03/10
True or False:
The kidneys have no collateral circulation. – T
Why are NSAIDs contraindicated in dehydrated patients?
A. They increase the rate at which proteins deposit in the basement membranes of
glomeruli.
B. They decrease PGE2 which results in efferent arteriolar constriction and
infarction of the kidneys.
C. They decrease PGI2 which causes fewer protective secretions in the tubules, leading to
tubular necrosis.
D. They are not contraindicated in dehydrated patients.
Which are the most common causes of proteinuria (circle all that apply).
A. Tissue mineralization due to hyperphosphatemia
B. Amyloidosis of the glomeruli
C. Free radical oxidative damage to the tubular epithelium.
D. Immune mediated attack of mmune complexes lodging in the glomerular
basement membrane.
True or False:
The etiology of Amyloidosis consists of amyloid proteins lodging in the basement membrane of
the glomeruli, causing them to become occluded. – F, they actually become more permeable to
proteins.
What is the most common type of histologic lesion seen in glomerulonephritis in
cats?
Membranous or non-proliferative
What is the most common type of histologic lesion seen in glomerulonephritis in
dogs?
Proliferative or mebranoproliferative
Where do the infectious agents in pyelonephritis come from?
A. Hematogenous spread
B. Ascending infections of common skin flora
C. Ascending infections of common colonic flora
D. Ascending infections from the environment
Which of the following are associated with interstitial nephritis? (circle all that
apply)
A. Prototheca spp.
B. Leishmania spp.
C. Leptosprira spp.
D. Corynebacterium renale
E. All of the above
True or False:
Most neoplastic tissue in the kidneys arises from metastatic spread. – T
What part of the lower urinary tract most commonly is affected by transitional cell
carcinomas?
A. Ureters
B. Body of the bladder
C. Trigone of the bladder
D. Pelvic urethra
Which is the most common primary renal tumor in dogs?
A. Nephroblastoma
B. Renal cell carcinoma (C is not a renal tumor, it’s a lower UTI tumor)
C. Transitional cell carcinoma
True or False:
Primary renal tumors generally metastasize slowly and treatments are often curative. – F
True or False:
Transitional cell carcinomas are the most common primary tumors of the lower urinary tract in
dogs? – T
Protein Losing Nephropathy
04/30/10
Where do amyloid and immune complexes lodge in cases of glomerulonephritis?
A. The proximal convoluted tubule
B. Glomerular podocytes
C. Basement membrane
D. The space of Disse
How do proteins leaking through the glomerular filtration barrier lead to chronic
kidney disease?
They cause damage to the tubular epithelium.
What are the four hallmarks of nephritic syndrome?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Proteinuria
Hypoalbuminemia
Hypercholesterolemia
Edema/ascites
Which diagnostics should be included in a protein losing nephropathy workup?
A. Serology for infectious diseases
B. Urine protein:creatinine ratio
C. Blood pressure
D. Urine cortisol:creatine ratio
E. A, and B
F. A, B and C
G. All of the above
True or False:
It is okay to use steroids to treat dogs with glomerulonephritis – F
True or False:
It is okay to use steroids to treat cats with glomerulonephritis – T
Chronic Renal Disease
04/30/10
**If you prescribe Amlodipine to treat chronic kidney disease, what other
medication should you always prescribe along with it and why?
You should also prescribe an ACE inhibitor such as enalapril so that the efferent arteriole is
dilated along with the afferent arteriole to keep glomerular filtration pressure from becoming
too high.
**What is the most important consideration when deciding to convert an
anuric/oliguric animal to polyuria?
Make sure it isn’t dehydrated first!
When is mannitol given and how does it work?
Mannitol causes an osmotic diuresis and has some free-radical and antioxidant properties. It is
used as a diuretic in cases of oligouria/anuria
Which is not a normal sequela to chronic renal disease?
A. Retinal detachment
B. Left Ventricular hypertrophy
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Encephalopathy
At what blood pressure range do you start to see organ damage?
A. 120-140 mmHG
B. 140-160 mmHG
C. 160-180 mmHG
D. 180-200 mmHG
E. 200-220 mmHG
True or False:
Amlodipine has more dangerous side effects than Hydralizine – F
What is the first step you should take to treat chronic metabolic acidosis associated
with chronic kidney disease?
A. Change to a kidney diet
B. Treat with oral bicarb
C. Treat with IV bicarb
D. Treat underlying disease and let acid/base order correct itself
**What is the physiologic basis for PTH lowering serum phosphorous?
PTH inhibits reabsorption of phosphorous in the proximal convoluted tubule of the kidney.
Which is a contraindication for vitamin D supplementation in an animal with chronic
kidney disease and hypovitaminosis D?
A. High ionized Ca2+
B. Low ionized Ca2+
C. Vomiting
D. High Phosphorous
Which medication does not help slow the progression of early chronic kidney
disease?
A. Ω-3 Fatty acid supplements
B. Amlodipine
C. Enalapril
Dentistry I – Basic Anatomy and Exam
05/05/10
Elodont teeth continue to erupt throughout the life of the animal. Which of the
following species have elodont teeth?
A. Dogs
B. Horses
C. Mice
D. Cows
E. B and C
F. All of the above
Horses are diphyodonts, which means:
A. They have deciduous and adult teeth
B. They have different types and shapes of teeth
C. Their teeth continue to grow throughout their lives
D. Their crowns are longer than their roots
Know the directional definition of each of the following terms:
Mesial – the surface of a tooth closer to the tooth in front of it.
Distal – the surface of a tooth closer to the tooth behind it.
Labial – the surface of the tooth closer to the rostrum. Labial is used in place of buccal when
the tooth is too far rostral to oppose the buccal surface.
Buccal – the side of the tooth closet to the cheek.
Lingual – the side of the tooth closest to the tongue.
Apical – closer to the root.
Coronal – Closer to the crown
Rotated, tipped or displaced teeth constitute what kind of malocclusion?
Type I
Mandibular brachygnathism means what and is classified as what type of
malocclusion?
An under-bite, or short mandible. It is classified as a class-2 malocclusion and is considered
serious.
What characterizes a posterior cross-bite?
Normally the maxillary teeth are lateral to the mandibular teeth. If the mandible is too wide or
the maxilla too narrow the maxillary teeth are medial to the mandibular teeth, which is a
serious deformity.
What characterizes a class 3 malocclusion?
Prognathism, or an under-bite. The technical term is maxillary brachygnathism. Mimsy is a
perfect example and she has it, it can’t be a bad thing.
What characterizes a class 4 malocclusion?
One quadrant is longer than another, as in left maxilla longer than right maxilla. It is also called
wry mouth.
What number is always assigned to the first molar in the Triaden system? What
number is always assigned to a canine?
Canine – 04, as in 104, 204, etc
1st molar – 09 as in 109, 209, etc
How would the upper right carnassial tooth in a dog be numbered in the Triaden
system?
A. 109
B. 104
C. 209
D. 108
How old is the dog whose tooth radiograph is above?
A. 3 days
B. 3 weeks
C. 3 months
D. 3 years
What is the name of the condition shown above?
A. Dilitation
B. Root eversion
C. Elerectic root
D. Dilaceration
Ectoparasites I & II – Dr. Scott
05/07/10
Which of the following statements is/are correct? Circle all that apply.
A. Otodectes cyanotis frequently infests cats but signs are usually mild when
they are present.
B. Otodectes cyanotis frequently infests dogs but signs are usually mild when they are
present.
C. Otodectes cyanotis frequently infests cats and causes severe pruritis when present.
D. Otodectes cyanotis frequently infests dogs causes severe pruritis when present.
E. Otodectes cyanotis does not infest cats frequently but does cause severe pruritis when
present.
F. Otodectes cyanotis does not infest dogs frequently but does cause severe
pruritis when present.
G. Otodectes cyanotis does not infest cats frequently and does not cause severe pruritis
when present.
H. Otodectes cyanotis does not infest dogs frequently and does cause severe pruritis when
present.
A.
B.
Which one of these eggs is a louse nit and what species is the other egg from? – A =
nit, B = Chyletiella. N?its are touching the entire shaft, while eggs of chyletiella are glued but
not touching.
How can you tell?
True or False:
Sarcoptes scabiei are easy to find on the skin scraping of an infested dog. – F
True or False:
Notoedres cati are easy to find on the skin scraping of an infested cat. – T
True or False:
Demodex canis are easy to find on the skin scraping of an infested dog. – T
True or False:
Eosinophils in the skin scraping of a dog likely indicate parasites. – T
True or False:
Eosinophils in the skin scraping of a cat likely indicate parasites. – F
True or False:
Demidicosis causes pruritis. – F
Which species of Demodex would you suspect with the following lesions?
A. Pruritic, greasy, erythematous lesions without hair loss. – injai
B. Non-pruritic lesions with crust, scale and hair loss. – canis
What are the top three differentials for hair loss with well defined borders in the
dog, in order of priority?
1. Staphylococcal infection
2. Demodex canis
3. Ringworm
What are the top three differentials for hair loss with well defined borders in the cat,
in order of priority?
1. Ringworm
2. Staphylococcal infection
3. Demodex canis
Which of the following statements is false?
A. Demodex cati lives in hair follicles and as such is not very contagious.
B. Demodex gatoi lives in hair follicles and as such is not very contagious.
C. Demodex canis lives in hair follicles and as such is not very contagious.
True or False:
Demodex cati is similar to D. canis in that it is non-pruritic, non-contagious and causes similar
hair loss lesions. – T
***If you have symmetrical, self induced lesions with pruritis in a cat that do not
respond to steroids, what parasite should be at the top of your differential list?
A. Demodex cati
B. Sarcoptes scabiei
C. Demodex gatoi
D. Notoedres cati
Match the mite with its body predilection:
A. Sarcoptes
B. Psoroptes
C. Chorioptes
1. Rear end / distal limbs first then spreads cranially / proximally
2. Middle of body spreading cranial and caudal
3. Head first then spreads caudally
A  3, B  2, C  1
In which large animal does Psoroptic mange cause the worst clinical signs?
A. Horses
B. Cattle
C. Sheep
D. Pigs
True or False:
Psoroptic mange is zoonotic. – F
True or False:
Chorioptic mange is zoonotic. – F
***Which is a sucking louse and which is a chewing louse?
A.
B.
A. Sucking louse
B. Chewing louse
What are the three main infestations on your differential list for dorsally distributed
lesions?
1. Lice
2. Chyletiella
3. Fleas
What is the most important hypersensitivity causing skin disease in horses?
Culicoides hypersensitivity
On which parts of the horse do we frequently see Culicoides lesions?
A. Haired fetlocks
B. Withers
C. Mid dorsum
D. Haired dorsum (mane / tail)
True or False:
Culicoides hypersensitivity is a good reason not to breed a horse. – T
Dentistry IV – Feline Oral Disease
05/07/10
What are the 4 most common oral diseases in cats?
1. Periodontal disease
2. Tooth resorption
3. Gingivostomatitis
a. Juvenile
b. Adult
4. Neoplasia – squamous cell carcinoma
True or False:
Anytime you see alveolar bone growth associated with a tooth you should expect a periodontal
pocket. – T
True or False:
Steroids are indicated for medical management of adult onset gingivostomatitis. – T
Which are the most common sites for feline oral resorptive lesions? (circle all that
apply)
A. Maxillary canine
B. Mandibular premolar 3
C. Maxillary premolar 3
D. Maxillary molar 3
E. Mandibular molar 3
F. Mandibular canines
Which are the two treatment choices for feline oral resorptive lesions?
A. Crown amputation
B. Medical management
C. Root canal
D. Complete extraction
E. Gingivectomy
When is crown amputation indicated over complete extraction? (circle all that
apply)
A. When more than 25% of the crown has been resorbed.
B. When the periodontal ligament can’t be visualized on radiographs
C. When you can’t distinguish crown from alveolar bone on a radiograph
D. When the sulcus depth is greater than 2-3mm
Approaches to Acute and Chronic Vomiting
05/10/10
What are the major types of causes for vomiting in small animals?
A. Intra-abdominal causes
a. Stomach ulceration, GI disease (obstruction), pancreatitis, FIP, etc.
B. Toxins
C. Metabolic / endocrine
a. Uremia, hyperphosphatemia, etc.
D. Neurologic / Vestibular
E. Emotional / Pain – not mentioned by Dr. Simpson though
F. Dietary indiscretion
G. Infectious disease
a. Parvo, etc.
What are melena and hematemesis indicative of?
A. Parvo
B. GI perforation
C. GI ulceration
D. Toxicosis
What are the main differentials for GI ulceration?
A. Inflammatory – gastritis, Inflammatory bowel disease
B. Neoplastic – leiomyoma, adenocarcinomas, lymphoma
C. Drug induced – NSAIDs, steroids
D. Metabolic / endocrine – uremia, liver disease, Addison’s disease (PGE2 deficiency)
E. Hypotension
What should the primary differential be for a dog with vomiting, hypochloremia and
aciduria?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Uremia
C. GI adenocarcinoma
D. Pyloric obstruction
Which of the following are causes of vomiting that can be diagnosed by fecal
analysis? (circle all that apply)
A. Tritrichomonas fetus
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Parvovirus
Rotavirus
Clostridium perfringens
Salmanellosis
Stomoxys calcitrans
What types of abdominal disease are the following enzymes makers for?
A. PLI – Pancreas
B. TLI – Pancreas
C. Cobalamin / B12 – Distal small intestine
D. Folate – Proximal Small Intestine
What are some diseases associated with hypocolbalaminemia in cats?
1. Lymphoma
2. Pancreatitis
3. Cholangiohepatitis
4. Cholangitis
5. EPI
6. Intestinal bowel disease
How do the following gastric ulcer treatments work?
1. Sucralfate – Binds to proteinaceous exudates in ulcerated areas to protect mucosa and
stimulates PGE2 production
2. Famotidine – H2 blocker, indirectly blocks gastrin release
3. Omeprazole – H+/K+ ATPase inhibitor
4. Misoprostal – PGE2 analog
5. Octreotide – Somatostatin analog – limits gastrin release
Papules, Pustules and Crusts
05/12/10 and 05/13/10
What are the two most common causes of papules, pustules and crusts?
1. Auto-immune attack and fungal infections
2. Ectoparasites and fungal infections
3. Bacterial infections and ectoparasites
4. Fungal and bacterial infections
True or False:
Ectoparasites (with the exception of demodex and Pelodra spp.) target hair follicles and tend to
form annular spreading lesions. – F, that fits bacteria. Ectoparasites do not form annular
lesions.
True or False:
Inflammation associated with bacterial infection of hair follicles can cause furunculosis (rupture
of the hair follicle). – T
Furunculosis due to bacterial infection causes all of the following gross lesions
except:
A. Deep seeded papules
B. Nodules
C. Ulcers
D. Crusts
E. Fistulas
What are the three most common causes of folliculitis / furunculosis in dogs and
cats?
1. Staphylococcus infections – most common in dogs
2. Demidicosis – most common in cats
3. Dermatophytosis
True or False:
All cutaneous staph infections in dogs are secondary to another condition. – T, staph are normal
flora and not very pathogenic, so there must be an underlying predisposing cause.
Which of the following are not ways to distinguish pyotraumatic dermatitis (hot
spot) from pyotraumatic furunculosis?
A. The lesion has palpable mass so it is furunculosis
B. The lesion is alopecic so it is furunculosis
C. The lesion has satellitosis so it is not a hot spot
Which is the most common bacterial species to cause dermatitis in horses?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus intermedius
C. Staphylococcus hyicus
What disease is characterized by this slide?
Rain rot (Dermatophilus congolensis).
What is the causal agent of rain rot in horses?
Dermatophilus congolensis
Describe the lesions in rain rot
Non-pruritic but painful crusts over areas exposed to moisture. It can affect caudal pastern,
muzzle, ventral limbs, dorsum and other parts of body.
Which of the following are characteristic of canine juvenile impetigo? (circle all that
apply)
A. Pruritis
B. Furunculosis
C. Starts on dorsum
D. Resolves spontaneously
True or False:
Porcine exudative epidermitis causes dead piggies. – T
What is the causal agent of Porcine Exudative Epidermitis?
Staphylococcus hyicus hyicus
What aspects of this photo are relevant to suspecting juvenile cellulitis?
A. Breed
B. Facial swelling
C. Fistulous lesions
D. All of the above
True or False:
If you did cytology on these lesions you would see pyogranulomatous inflammation without
bacteria present. – T
Which of the following are characteristic of juvenile cellulitis?
A. Spontaneous resolution
B. Fistulous tracts
C. Severe lymphadenopathy
D. Systemic illness
E. All of the above
What are the arrows pointing to?
Acantholytic keratinocytes
What disease are they diagnostic for?
Pemphigus foliaceus
What part of the body does pemphigus usually first present on?
The face, but may also be on pinna, limbs, pads of the paws.
Which of the following are treatments for pemphigus? (circle all that apply)
A. Surgical debridement of affected tissue
B. Immunosuppressive drugs
C. Antibiotics
D. Steroids
E. All of the above
Which breeds are susceptible to primary zinc responsive dermatosis?
Siberian Huskies and Alaskan Malamutes
What is the treatment of choice for 1º zinc responsive dermatitis?
A. Steroids
B. Immunosuppressive drugs
C. Diet modification / zinc supplementation
What is the treatment of choice for 2º zinc responsive dermatitis?
A. Steroids
B. Immunosuppressive drugs
C. Diet modification / zinc supplementation
Which of the following diseases locations would show lesions in zinc responsive
dermatosis? (circle all that apply)
A. Pads of the feet
B. Point of the elbow
C. Lips
D. Dorsum
What would you expect to see in a biopsy of a zinc responsive dermatosis case?
A. Pyogranulomatous inflammation
B. Furunculosis
C. Sterile cellulitis
D. Parakeratotic hyperkeratosis
Body Location
Head / Face
Mucocutaneous junctions
Pinnae
Pressure points (hock/elbow/etc.)
Diseases
Pemphigus
Zinc responsive dermatitis
Zinc responsive dermatitis
Zinc responsive dermatitis