Marine Biology Honors
Fall Final 2013
Choose the BEST answer:
1. The average density of the ocean as measured by a hydrometer is:
a. 1000 ppm
b. 1.050 g/cm3
c. 1.024 g/cm3
d. 40%
2. Sources of oxygen in sea water are:
a. respiration
b. temperature and photosynthesis
c. decomposition of dead plant and animal matter
d. photosynthesis and atmosphere
3. Evaporation of water from your aquarium will result in:
a. a decrease in salinity
b. increasing the temperature
c. decreasing the density
d. increasing the salinity
4. Salinity is expressed in parts per
a. hundred
b. thousand
c. million
d. cubic centimeter
5. Density is expressed as
a. ppm
b. %
c. g/cm3
d. cal/ g
6. The ideal salinity for your aquarium in should be around
a. 35 ppt
b. 35 g/l
c. 1.24 ppt
d. 1.024 ppt
7. The most important factors controlling the density of seawater are
a. pressure and temperature
b. pressure and salinity
c. temperature and salinity
d. dissolved gasses and turbulence
8. As the salinity level increases in the ocean, what happens to the levels of
dissolved oxygen?
a. increases
c. decreases
b. stays the same
d. salinity doesn't affect d.o.
9. If the hydrometer in your aquarium reads 1.010 g/cm3, what should you do?
a. add more salt
b. take out a bucket of water and add fresh water
c. add bacteria
d. move your fish to another tank
Using the TSD diagram provided, determine the following:
10. Temp is 5oC, density is 1.031, and salinity is _______.
a. 38.4
c. 40.2
b. 39.0
d. 38.8
11. Density is 1.024, salinity is 35, and temp is ______.
a. 20
c. 23
b. 24
d. 20.6
12. Salinity is 40, temp is 20oC, and density is _________.
a. 1.028
c. 20
b. 1.029
d. 1.027
13. Density is 1.030, temp is 13ºC, and the salinity is ________.
a. 39.6
c. 39.4
b. 39.8
d. 40.0
Use the nomogram and / or the TSD diagram to answer the following questions:
14. Density is 1.023, Salinity is 31, what is D.O.?
a. 8.3
c. 8.1
b. 9.2
d. 8.5
15.Temp. is 10o C, Density is1.027, what is D.O.?
a. 8.7
c. 8.8
b. 9.0
d. 8.0
16. Salinity is 34, Density is 1.025, what is D.O.?
a. 8.0
c. 7.4
b. 7.8
d. 7.6
17. Temp. is 4 o C, Salinity is 23, what is D.O.?
a. 10.8
c. 11.2
b. 11.4
d. 11
Use the graph of the nitrogen cycle to answer the following questions:
18. Which point would be the ammonia level?
A.
B.
C.
19. Which point would be the nitrate level?
A.
B.
C.
20. Which point would be the nitrite level?
A.
B.
C.
21. Which bacteria convert ammonia to nitrite?
a. Nitroglycerin
b. Nitrosomanas
c. Nitrobacter
22. Which bacteria convert nitrite to nitrate?
a. Nitrogen
b. Nitrosomonas
c. Nitrobacter
23. What day would be safe to introduce fish to the above aquarium?
a. Day 9
b. Day 7
c. Day 5
d. Ask a marine biologist
24. The most specific of the following is:
a. phylum
b. genus
c. order
d. class
25. Which of the following is not a reason for the use of Latin as a language of taxonomy?
a. it is constantly changing
c. it is universal
b. it is descriptive
d. it is the basis of many languages
26. The killer whale is scientifically classified as Orcinus orca. The term Orcinus represents which level?
a. order
b. phyla
c. class
d. genus
e. species
27. Donkeys and horses are different species because:
a. they can’t interbreed
b. they don’t meet under natural conditions
c. they don’t produce fertile offspring
d. they have to have a wedding first
28. Natural selection favors those individuals that can channel the most energy into:
a. gathering food
c. surviving to an old age
b. producing offspring
d. producing the largest body mass
29. Darwin first composed his idea of natural selection by:
a. observing the swimming patterns of marine iguanas
b. observing the feeding behavior of the tortoises
c. observing the beak sizes in finches
d. observing the reproductive behavior of Boobys.
30. Why are "small genes" an evolutionary advantage for marine iguanas?
a. The small iguanas don't get eaten by the sea lions.
b. The small iguanas can reproduce at a faster rate than large iguanas.
c. The small iguanas don't require as much food in times of famine.
d. The large iguanas are ugly and can't find mates to reproduce with.
31. The Masked Booby gives birth to two chicks, but only one chick will be allowed
to survive to adulthood. What is the evolutionary benefit to this?
a. If the first chick should die, the mother has a back-up and the species survives.
b. The smaller chick is weak and would not survive anyway so why bother?
c. The mother can't feed both chicks, so the smaller chick loses out.
d. The bigger chick is stronger and will be naturally selected to survive.
32. Two of the most important types of phytoplankton are dinoflagellates
and______________ because they serve as the basis of the food chain.
a. blue-green algae
c. copepods
b. diatoms
d. seaweeds
33. Cyanobacteria, or blue-green algae, are characterized by being:
a. chemosynthetic
c. photosynthetic
b. zooplankton
d. found only in the plankton
34. The most important function of phytoplankton is:
a. respiration
c. destruction of zooplankton
b. photosynthesis
d. filtering water
35. Blooms of toxic dinoflagellates are known as:
a. photosynthesis
c. bioluminscence
b. red tides
d. zooplankton
36. Which of the following are not zooplankton?
a. radiolarians
b. foraminiferans
c. dinoflagellates
d. copepods
37. During an El Niño year, all of the following occur except:
a. upwelling begins
c. upwelling stops
b. trade winds stop
d. cold water currents are pushed back
38. The major surface currents of the oceans rotate counterclockwise in the:
a. N. Hemisphere only
c. in both hemispheres
b. S. Hemisphere only
d. in the Pacific ocean only
39. The Coriolis effect:
a. Creates El Niño
b. Caused by movement of the
oceanic crustal plates
c. Is strongest at the equator
d. Causes deflection of moving water
to the right when north of the equator.
40. The major surface currents of the world's oceans are important in which of the
following processes?
a. Equatorial upwelling
c. Transport of heat to the poles
b. Distribution of plankton
d. All of these are true
41. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the photic zone?
a. Area where phytoplankton live
c. Best light for photosynthesis
b. No photosynthesis occurs here
d. Top 200 meters of ocean
42. Phytoplankton need _________ and ___________ to perform photosynthesis.
a. light & oxygen
c. oxygen & CO2
b. CO2 & light
d. light and nutrients
43. Which type of feeder would not be abundant in the epipelagic?
a. deposit
c. suspension
b. omnivore
d. carnivore
44. Diatoms are members of the phylum:
a. Chlorophyta
c. Rhodophyta
b. Chrysophyta
d. Pyrrhophyta
45. Dinoflagellates are members of the phylum:
a. Chlorophyta
c. Rhodophyta
b. Chrysophyta
d. Pyrrhophyta
46. A dramatic outburst of phytoplankton growth under optimal conditions is called:
a. reproductive potential
c. optimal tolerance
b. a bloom
d. overpopulation
47. What are 2 ways that autotrophic bacteria and make their own food?
a. Photosynthesis and autotrophic
c. Photosynthesis and Chemosynthesis
b. Chemosynthesis and autotrophic
d. Chemosynthesis and decay bacteria
48.
What percent of energy is transferred through the trophic levels in the EPIPELAGIC?
a. 50%
b. 100%
c. 80%
d. 20%
49.
Which of the following is not true of decay bacteria?
a. break down waste products and dead organic matter
b. carry out photosynthesis
c. are heterotrophs
d. are particularly abundant in bottom sediments
e. ensure the recycling of essential nutrients
50.
Stromatolites are:
a. planktonic cyanobacteria
b. organisms that cause red tides
c. calcareous deposits deposited by cyanobacteria
d. decay bacteria found in coral reefs
51. Name of the specialized cells in the phylum Porifera:
a. nematocysts
c. collar cells
b. cnidoblasts
d. axons
52. The type of symmetry found in Poriferans is:
a. radial
b. asymmetical
c. bilateral
d. both asymmetrical and radial
53. Name the type of spicules present in a bath sponge:
a. silica
c. plastic
b. limestone
d. none
54. Which term refers to the large opening in a sponge?
a. osculum
c. ostium
b. ostipore
d. osticyte
55. Which term refers to the many small openings in a sponge?
a. oscula
c. ostia
b. pores
d. osticytes
56. A radula is present in all classes except:
a. polyplacophora
b. gastropoda
c. cephalopoda
d. bivalvia
57. Which class is represented by tusk shells?
a. cephalopoda
b. scaphopoda
c. bivalvia
d. gastropoda
58. The most highly developed sense organs in cephalopods are the:
a. ears
c. eyes
b. nose
d. gastropoda
59. In bivalves, the gills are used for:
a. respiration
b. breathing
c. feeding
d. both a & c
60. Nudibranchs are members of which class of molluscs?
a. cephalopoda
c. polyclacophora
b. gastropoda
d. bivalvia
61. Mussels belong to which class?
a. polyplacophora
b. gastropoda
c. bivalvia
d. scaphopoda
62. If an animal has a muscular foot, soft body and 8 plates it is probably a:
a. clam
c. octopus
b. chiton
d. snail
63. Which class contains members that are all carnivorous?
a. bivalvia
c. scaphopoda
b. gastropoda
d. cephalopoda
64. The shell is produced by the:
a. mollusc
b. mascular foot
c. mantle
d. calcium carbonate gland
65. This mollusc has a shell divided into compartments which helps it maintain buoyancy. It is a:
a. nautilus
c. snail
b. clam
d. chiton
66. The _________ surrounds and protects the internal organs of molluscs
a. mantle
c. siphon
b. muscular foot
d. shell
67. The ________ brings water to the gills of a mollusc
a. mantle
c. siphon
b. muscular foot
d. shell
68. Which class contains members that are all herbivores?
a. gastropoda
c. cephalopoda
b. polyplacophora
d. bivalvia
69. To which class do molluscs with chromatophores belong?
a. gastropoda
c. bivalvia
b. cephalopoda
d. polyplacophora
70. Which class contains members found in fresh and salt water as well as on land?
a. gastropoda
c. cephalopoda
b. polyplacophora
d. bivalvia
71. Which class of molluscs is considered to be most primitive, the class which other molluscs are
believed to have evolved from?
a. gastropoda
c. aplacophora
b. monoplacophora
d. polyplacophora
72. Which class of molluscs (also primitive) contains members very similar to gastropods?
a. gastropoda
c. aplacophora
b. monoplacophora
d. polyplacophora
Use the diagram of the squid anatomy to answer the following questions:
73. Which letter points to the siphon?
74. Which letter points to the gills?
75. Which letter points to the mantle?
76. Which letter points to the reproductive organs?
77. Which letter points to the heart?