VITAMINS QUIZ
1. If you live above the 45th parallel, you are likely to be deficient in which vitamin?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin B12
E. None of the above
2. At one time, the disease rickets had all but disappeared from the United States.
Now, rickets is making a reappearance. Which infants are most likely to develop
rickets?
A. African American infants who are breast-fed
B. Caucasian infants are breast-fed
C. Hispanic infants who are breast-fed
D. Any infant who is fed formula
3. Eating the liver of which animal can cause acute vitamin A toxicity?
A. Mule deer
B. Buffalo
C. Polar bear
D. Ostrich
4. Which vitamin can cause birth defects if too little -- or too much -- is in the diet?
A. Thiamin
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin A
D. Folic acid
5. Which is the leading cause of blindness in children worldwide?
A. Glaucoma
B. River blindness
C. Vitamin A deficiency
D. Accidental eye injuries
E. Cataracts
6. British sailors were called "limeys" because:
A. They used limes to mask the odor of rotting food during long ocean voyages
B. They used lemon juice and lime juice to prevent scurvy during long ocean voyages
C. They used limes when bathing to prevent body odor
D. None of the above
7. The highest concentration of vitamin C is found in which food?
A. Orange juice
B. Grapefruit juice
C. Parsley
D. Broccoli
E. Black currants
8. In the United States, the person most likely to develop scurvy (vitamin C
deficiency) is:
A. A pregnant woman
B. A malnourished child
C. A person with anorexia nervosa (an eating disorder)
D. A long-time alcoholic
E. A vegan (a person who does not eat meat, fish, eggs or dairy products)
ANTIBIOTICS QUIZ
1. Antibiotics kill both viruses and bacteria that cause illness. True/False
2. Antibiotics will help you recover from a cold or the flu. True/False
3. Many antibiotics are designed to work against specific bacteria. True/False
4. If you are taking antibiotics, it's OK to stop taking the medicine once you start to
feel better. True/False
5. Keeping extra antibiotics around is a good idea in case you need them at a future
date. True/False
6. Antibiotics kill not only the bad bacteria causing your illness, but also the good
bacteria that inhabit your body. True/False
7. If you believe that an antibiotic would help your illness, you should demand that
your health care provider give you a prescription for one. True/False
8. All antibiotics are safe to take during pregnancy and breast-feeding. True/False
9. Using an antibacterial soap is a good way to keep bacteria at bay. True/False
10. Over time, people can become resistant to antibiotics. True/False
GENERAL PAEDIATRICS QUIZ
1) When can you start your kids on low fat milk?
a) 9 months
b) 12 months
c) 18 months
d) 2-3 years
2) Scarlet fever can usually be thought of as...
a) strep throat with a rash
b) a complication of strep infections that causes heart disease
c) being caused by a tick bite
d) a sandpapery rash in children with chickenpox
3) Prevnar is a...
a) new medication for ADHD
b) new vaccine to prevent ear infections and meningitis
c) new vaccine to prevent diarrhea
d) new allergy medicine
4) For high risk children, flu shots should be given...
a) every year
b) every other year
c) before they start school
d) in the summer before their first birthday
5) Basic first aid for a burn includes...
a) cooling the burn with butter
b) cooling the burn with cold water
c) cooling the burn with ice
d) cooling the burn with ice water
6) How many ounces of fruit juice should a 3 year old have each day?
a) 4-6 ounces b) 8-10 ounces
c) 14-16 ounces
d) 20-24 ounces
7) Children are at risk for lead poisoning if they...
a) chew on lead pencils
b) live in a new house and eat paint chips
c) often stay with a grandparent whose house was built in 1945
d) live in a house built after 1978
8) Classic symptoms of Type I Diabetes includes...
a) increased urination
b) decreased drinking
c) weight gain
d) all of the above
9) Your 13 month old had a high fever for 4 days and then broke out in a red rash all
over once the fever broke. He likely has...
a) impetigo
b) herpes
c) chickenpox
d) roseola
10)Snoring in children can be...
a) normal
b) cause by having small tonsils
c) a sign of obstructive sleep apnea
d) either a or c
11) When does puberty usually start in girls
a) between 7 and 12 years b) 8 and 16 c) 8 and 13
d) 9 and 14
12) When do kids get their tetanus booster (Td)?
a) at 8 years
b) before they start school
c) before they start college
d) at 11-12 years
13) Your 4 year old wakes up screaming and has his eyes open, but doesn't seem to
recognize you. This lasts for 20 minutes, after which he falls back asleep and he
doesn't remember anything in the morning. He likely had a...
a) nightmare
b) night terror c) seizure
d) fever
14) You can usually start using sun screen once your child is...
a) 3 months old
b) 6 months
c) 9 months
d) 12 months
15) Your child has red cheeks for a few days and then breaks out in a pink lacy rash
on his arms. He likely has...
a) Fourth Disease
b) Poison Ivy
c) Hives
d) Fifth Disease
16) Chickenpox can be...
a) prevented with the Varivax vaccine
b) reactivated to cause Shingles
c) a serious and life threatening infection
d) all of the above
17) How many words does the typical 2 year old know?
a) 25 words
b) 50 words
c) 150 words
d) 250 words
18) What are acceptable treatments for a child with fever?
a) giving a fever reducer with Tylenol or Motrin
b) a cold bath
c) rubbing alcohol
d) all of the above
19) Your 2 year old wakes up in the middle of the night with trouble breathing and a
cough that sounds like a barking seal. He likely has...
a) RSV
b) pneumonia
c) croup
d) whooping cough
Sex Chromosome Abnormalities Quiz
Which of the following statements is true of sex chromosome abnormalities in
humans?
1. They usually have mild effects and rarely are fatal.
2. Most are not gender specific
3. They cannot be diagnosed before birth.
Male sex chromosome abnormalities can be due to abnormal numbers of
______________ chromosome.
1. the X
2. the Y
3. either the X or the Y
If someone only has one X chromosome and no Y chromosomes in their somatic
cells, they:
1. are metafemales
2. have Turner syndrome
3. have klinefelter syndrome
A chromosomal abnormality that causes a woman to be unusually short in stature
(average 4'7"), to have a webbed neck, and to generally lack feminine secondary
sexual characteristics is:
1.Triple-X syndrome
2. Turner syndrome
3. XYY syndrome
A chromosomal abnormality that causes a man to have asexual to feminine body
contours with large breasts; small penis, testes, and prostate gland; relatively little
body hair; and sterility is:
1. Klinefelter syndrome
2. XYY syndrome
3. Richard Speck Syndrome
SURGERY QUIZ
1. Cancer-directed treatment is given to
A. modify primary tumor or metastatic cancer tissue.
B. control primary tumor or metastatic cancer tissue.
C. remove primary tumor or metastatic cancer tissue.
D. do all of the above.
2. First course of treatment includes all methods of treatment recorded in the
treatment plan and administered to the patient
A. after disease progression or recurrence.
B. before disease progression or recurrence.
C. after a disease-free interval.
D. before direct extension of the primary tumor to nearby organs or structures.
3. The earliest known cancer surgeries were performed by
A. Chinese.
B. Indians.
C. Mayans.
D. Egyptians.
4. "Smart Scalpel" is an innovative cancer surgery tool that can
A. remove cancer tissue without causing pain to the patient.
B. repair deformities and abnormalities that other surgical tools can't.
C. eliminate side effects caused by other therapies.
D. tell the difference between normal cells and cancer cells.
5. Microscopic examination of biopsy samples is
A. the most definitive way to confirm the diagnosis of cancer.
B. the only way to detect the presence of a malignancy.
C. only performed after a disease-free interval.
D. not recommended for invasive malignancies.
6. Microscopic examination of biopsy samples is usually performed by a
A. oncologist.
B. pathologist.
C. surgeon.
D. radiologist.
7. Which of the following is an example of a non-cancer directed surgical
procedure?
A. Laser ablation of a distal rectal tumor.
B. Partial gastrectomy for a stomach tumor.
C. Aspiration biopsy of a left breast tumor.
D. Right pneumonectomy for an extensive right lung tumor.
8. A certain amount of normal tissue, together with cancerous tissue, is often
removed to
A. reduce the amount of pain that the patient may experience.
B. minimize the risk of any cancer cells being left behind after curative surgery.
C. preserve an organ's function after curative surgery.
D. reduce the amount of time under anesthesia and minimize blood loss.
9. Excisional surgeries such as laryngectomy, pharyngectomy, and
parathyroidectomy, are named for
A. the tools used during the operation.
B. the area of the body that is being excised.
C. the doctors who invented them or first performed them.
D. the organs or structures that are preserved during excision.
10. Reconstructive surgeries are performed to
A. repair the damage caused by the cancer or defect caused by the curative surgery.
B. alleviate pain or discomfort after curative surgery.
C. increase the probability of curing the cancer by removing a large amount of normal
tissue.
D. destroy cancer cells that re-appear after a disease-free interval.