Ecosystem Review Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Ecology is the study of b. atmosphere a. human impact on the environment c. hydrosphere b. the abiotic elements of the environment d. geosphere c. the biotic elements of the environment e. biosphere d. how organisms interact with each other and the 8. All physical forms of water (solid, liquid, and gas) abiotic environment make up the e. how evolution formed populations a. atmosphere 2. This is the total of all the different species that live in b. lithosphere a certain area. c. biosphere a. organism d. hydrosphere b. population e. troposphere c. community 9. Fossil fuels and minerals are found in the d. ecosystem a. unisphere e. biosphere b. atmosphere 3. These are the parts of the earth's air, water, and soil c. hydrosphere where organisms are found. d. geosphere a. organism e. biosphere b. population 10. Life on earth depends on interaction of gravity, the c. community cycling of matter, and d. ecosystem a. cycling of energy e. biosphere b. one-way flow of energy 4. These are the smallest and most fundamental c. one-way flow of matter structural and functional units of life. d. the destruction of energy a. atoms e. the consumption of matter b. molecules 11. Large ecological regions with characteristic types of c. compounds natural vegetation and distinctive animals are called d. cells a. communities e. mitochondrion b. ecosystems 5. This is the place where a population or an individual c. biomes organism normally lives. d. ecospheres a. community e. populations b. habitat 12. The most important factor in determining which c. territory biome is found in a particular area is d. niche a. soil type e. zone b. topography 6. The number of species already identified by c. biogeography biologists is approximately d. climate a. 45,000 e. longitude b. 165,000 13. High quality energy is constantly c. 1.75 million a. being made d. 4 million b. being recycled e. 100 million c. being destroyed 7. Which of the following is not a major component of d. becoming matter the earth's life-support system? e. becoming low quality energy a. unisphere 14. Of the total amount of solar energy intercepted by the earth, what percentage actually reaches the earth's surface? a. 33% b. 20% c. 1% d. 67% e. 90% 15. The amount of the earth's surface covered by the combination of freshwater and salt water is approximately a. 3% b. 29% c. 51% d. 74% e. 97% 16. Which of the following would not be an abiotic limiting factor? a. too much water b. too little potassium c. too high temperature d. insufficient nutrients e. population overcrowding 17. In a range of tolerance, each population has a point beyond which no member of the population can live. This area beyond the ability to tolerate the conditions is called the a. zone of physiological stress b. aquatic zone c. zone of intolerance d. zone of tolerance e. optimum range 18. Which of the following is not a type of consumer? a. decomposer b. chemosynthetic c. omnivore d. carnivore e. detritivore 19. Organisms that feed only on plants are called a. detritivores b. omnivores c. carnivores d. herbivores e. decomposers 20. The very necessary process of breaking down the dead bodies or wastes from organisms is a function of a. detritivores b. omnivores c. carnivores 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. d. herbivores e. decomposers Organisms that complete the final breakdown and recycling of organic materials from the remains of all organisms are the a. detritivores b. omnivores c. carnivores d. herbivores e. decomposers Which of the following is not an end product of anaerobic respiration? a. acetic acid b. methane c. oxygen d. ethyl alcohol e. hydrogen sulfide Which of the following about microorganisms is false? a. Bacteria and other microbes help purify the water we drink. b. Bacteria help produce the foods we eat. c. Bacteria help break down food in our intestines. d. Bacteria help speed up global warming. e. Microbes help control diseases of plants. Aerobic respiration requires a. glucose and carbon dioxide b. glucose and oxygen c. oxygen and water d. carbon dioxide and water e. carbon dioxide and oxygen Anaerobic respiration may produce all of the following except a. methane gas b. hydrogen sulfide c. carbon dioxide and water d. ethyl alcohol e. lactic acid The process that results in alcoholic beverages is a. aerobic respiration b. photosynthesis c. anaerobic respiration d. chemosynthesis e. inspiration An ecosystem can survive without a. producers b. consumers c. decomposers d. autotrophs 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. e. detritivores Complex feeding patterns for consumers in an ecosystem are called a. food webs b. food chains c. trophic levels d. pyramids of energy e. trophic chains Each trophic level in a food chain or food web contains a certain amount of organic matter, called a. food b. energy c. biomass d. organisms e. decomposition The typical percentage of loss of energy in transfers from one trophic level to the next is about a. 1% b. 5% c. 35% d. 60% e. 90% If grass stores 1,000 energy units received from the sun, the ecological efficiency of the ecosystem is 10%, and the trophic levels are grass cow human, how many units of energy does the human receive of the original 1,000 units? a. 900 b. 200 c. 100 d. 10 e. 1 Which of the following has the least net primary productivity (NPP)? a. swamps and marshes b. tropical rain forest c. temperate forests d. tundra e. estuaries Vitousek, Rojstaczer, and others estimate humans now use, waste, or destroy what percentage of the earth's total potential NPP? a. 612% b. 1518% c. 2032% d. 2535% e. 90% The hydrologic cycle is the movement of a. carbon 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. b. hydrogen c. hydrocarbons d. carbohydrates e. water How much of the earth's water supply is available as accessible liquid freshwater? a. 10% b. 1% c. 0.024% d. 21% e. 97% The hydrologic cycle is driven primarily by a. solar energy b. lunar tides c. solar tides d. mechanical energy e. chemical energy Which of the following is not one of the major processes of the water cycle? a. lunar tides b. evaporation c. transpiration d. precipitation e. none of these Precipitation can take several paths when it reaches the earth's surface. Which of the following is not one of those paths? a. surface runoff into lakes, streams, and the ocean b. storage as ice in glaciers c. storage as groundwater in aquifers d. permanent storage as part of rocks e. storage in living components of ecosystems Which of the following is a way that humans alter the water cycle? a. withdraw large quantities from streams, lakes, and aquifers b. increase runoff by clearing vegetation from the land c. alter weather patterns by clearing vegetation d. increase flooding by disturbing natural flood controls e. all of these Which of the following statements is false? a. Water exists as a liquid over a wide temperature range. b. Water contracts when it freezes. c. Water filters out wavelengths of UV radiation. d. It takes a large amount of energy to evaporate water. e. Liquid water is a good solvent. 41. Which of the following is a primary link between photosynthesis and aerobic respiration? a. phosphorus b. sulfur c. hydrogen d. carbon e. nitrogen 42. Carbon is a major component of a. water b. the oceans c. organic compounds d. the atmosphere e. hydrologic cycle 43. Humans intervene in the nitrogen cycle in several ways. Which of the following is not one of those ways? a. Burning fossil fuels adds nitric oxide. b. Agriculture releases nitrous oxides. c. Destruction of forests releases nitrogen. d. We store nitrogen in the topsoil when we harvest nitrogen rich crops. e. Agriculture using fertilizers adds nitrogen to aquatic systems. 44. Nitrogen is a major component of all of the following except a. proteins b. nucleic acids c. groundwater d. ammonia e. DNA 45. The form of nitrogen most usable to plants is a. ammonia b. nitrogen gas c. proteins d. nitrites e. nitrates 46. Which of the following is not a part of the phosphorus cycle? a. soil b. atmosphere c. organisms d. rocks e. marine sediments 47. The major limiting plant nutrient is a. calcium b. phosphorus c. sulfur d. nitrogen e. potassium 48. Much of the earth's sulfur is stored in a. plants and animals b. the oceans c. the atmosphere d. underground rocks and minerals e. soil 49. Sulfur is added to the atmosphere in all the following ways except a. from volcanoes b. anaerobic decomposition in swamps c. eating meat d. sea spray e. acid rain deposition 50. Humans add sulfur to the atmosphere through which of the following? a. making electricity b. making gasoline c. converting metallic minor ores to free metals d. refining heating oil e. all of these 51. Ecologists would make use of which of the following in their study of nature? a. field research b. geographic information system software c. controlled experiments d. satellite digital images e. all of these 52. Biodiversity includes all of the following components except a. functional diversity b. genetic diversity c. intellectual diversity d. ecosystem diversity e. species diversity 53. The diversity that enables life on earth to adapt and survive environmental changes is called a. functional diversity b. genetic diversity c. intellectual diversity d. ecosystem diversity e. species diversity 54. The variety of processes, including matter cycling and energy flow within ecosystems, that result from species interacting with one another in food webs is called a. functional diversity b. genetic diversity c. intellectual diversity d. ecosystem diversity e. species diversity 55. A change in the genetic characteristics of a population from one generation to another is called a. emigration b. mutation c. natural selection d. evolution e. genetic drift 56. Some individuals in a population have genetic traits that enhance their ability to survive and produce offspring, a process called a. natural selection b. adaptability c. genetic drift d. mutation e. scientific theory 57. Mutations are a. always helpful b. always found in patterns c. very common events d. a source of new genetic material e. always harmful 58. Mutations are not caused by which of the following? a. ultraviolet light b. a physical accident to a parent c. radioactivity d. certain chemicals e. X rays 59. For natural selection to occur, an adaptive trait a. must be to a physical trait b. must be to a physiological trait c. must be to a psychological trait d. must be to a heritable trait e. must not be to a heritable trait 60. Biological evolution by natural selection is when genes ____, individuals ____, and populations ____. a. evolve; mutate; are selected b. are selected; mutate; evolve c. mutate; evolve; are selected d. evolve; are selected; mutate e. mutate; are selected; evolve 61. Which of the following is not an adaptation that has made humans so successful? a. strong opposable thumbs b. physical strength c. upright walking d. complex brain e. All of these have made us successful. 62. From a scientific point of view, which of the following is true? 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. a. Evolution leads to survival of the strongest. b. Evolution leads to survival of the most valuable. c. Organisms develop traits because they need them. d. Fitness is a matter of reproductive success. e. Evolution follows a plan of nature. The movement of the continents influences evolution in which of the following ways? a. increases the level of carbon dioxide b. changes the earth's climate c. changes the spin of the earth d. decreases soil nutrient richness e. changes magnetic fields and disrupts migration patterns Geographic isolation may result from which of the following? a. volcanic eruption b. earthquake c. mountain range d. road e. all of these Mass extinctions, with 2570% of species going extinct, have occurred how many times in the history of the earth? a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7 e. 23 Biodiversity is believed to be the result of the interaction between a. geographic isolation and reproductive isolation b. speciation and extinction c. mass extinction and background extinction d. speciation and genetic engineering e. reproductive isolation and extinction The number of different species an ecosystem contains is its a. speciation b. species evenness c. species niche d. species richness e. habitat Which of the following is true? a. The higher the species richness, the lower productivity. b. The high the species richness, the lower the sustainability. c. The lower the species richness, the more the productivity. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. d. The lower the species richness, the more the sustainability. e. The higher the species richness, the more the sustainability. A species' way of life in a community is its a. role b. habitat c. ecological niche d. geographical location e. ecological job Which of the following is true of species richness on islands? a. Larger islands closer to a mainland have the lowest number of species. b. Smaller islands closer to a mainland have the highest number of species. c. Smaller islands farthest from a mainland have the highest number of species. d. Larger islands farthest from a mainland have the highest number of species. e. Larger islands closer to a mainland have the highest number of species. An ecological niche includes all of the following except a. the place where the species lives b. how much water the species needs c. how much sunlight the species needs d. how much space the species needs e. temperatures the species can tolerate A species with a broad niche is considered a(n) a. endemic species b. endangered species c. specialist species d. native species e. generalist species Which of the following would not be considered a generalist species? a. humans b. cockroaches c. pandas d. raccoons e. white-tailed deer Which of the following is not a specific role found in a niche? a. native species b. indicator species c. keystone species d. specialist species e. foundation species 75. Which of the following is not an example of an indicator species? a. trout in water with a specific temperature requirement b. birds that need a large forested area c. butterflies that use a specific plant as food d. frogs that take in water and air through their skin e. All are examples of indicator species. 76. Which of the following is not an example of a cause for the decline of amphibians? a. habitat loss b. prolonged rainy periods c. pollution d. increases in UV radiation e. parasites 77. A species in an ecosystem that plays a central role in the health of that ecosystem, and whose removal may cause the collapse of the ecosystem, is called a(n) a. foundation species b. indicator species c. native species d. keystone species e. specialist species 78. A species in an ecosystem that shapes communities by creating and enhancing habitats in ways that benefit other species is called a. foundation species b. indicator species c. native species d. keystone species e. specialist species 79. Which of the following is not a reason we should be concerned about the southern sea otter going extinct? a. They increase tourism. b. They have thick, luxurious fur. c. There are ethical reasons for causing premature extinction of a species. d. They help maintain kelp beds. e. They are classified as a keystone species. 80. Which of the following is said to occur when an interaction benefits one species but has little, if any, effect on the other? a. interspecific competition b. predation c. parasitism d. mutualism e. commensalism 81. Which of the following is said to occur when members of two or more species interact to gain access to the same limited resources? a. interspecific competition b. predation c. parasitism d. mutualism e. commensalism 82. Which of the following is said to occur when one organism feeds on the body of, or the energy used by, another organism? a. interspecific competition b. predation c. parasitism d. mutualism e. commensalism 83. The concept that two or more species cannot share the exact same ecological niche for an extended period is called a. law of conservation of mass b. principle of sustainability c. interspecific competition d. competitive exclusion principle e. commensalism 84. Which of the following are not considered predators? a. omnivores b. herbivores c. detritivores d. carnivores e. All of these are predators. 85. Which of the following is not a method predators use to capture prey? a. pursuit b. ambush c. camouflage d. chemical warfare e. protective shells 86. Which of the following is not a method prey species use to avoid capture? a. highly developed sense of sight or smell b. pines and thorns c. chemical warfare d. ambush e. camouflage 87. Parasites a. rarely kill their hosts b. are usually larger than their hosts c. must be internal to their hosts d. may strengthen their hosts over a long period of 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. time e. are usually microscopic The non-poisonous ____ butterfly gains protection by looking like the bad-tasting ____ butterfly, which is a protective device known as ____. a. monarch; viceroy; camouflage b. monarch; zebra swallowtail; camouflage c. viceroy; zebra swallowtail; mimicry d. viceroy; monarch; mimicry e. viceroy; monarch; camouflage When populations of two different species interact over long periods of time, changes in the gene pool of one species can lead to changes in the gene pool of the other. This is called a. competition b. coevolution c. coincidence d. commensalism e. predation The relationship between clownfish and sea anemone is a. interspecific competition b. predation c. parasitism d. mutualism e. commensalism Plants such as bromeliads share a commensalism interaction with large trees in tropical and subtropical forests. The bromeliads are an example of a. parasites b. opportunistic parasites c. epiphytes d. prey e. herbivores All of the following are forms of nondestructive behavior between species except a. reducing competition by foraging at different times b. reducing competition by foraging in different places c. orchids attached to branches of forest trees d. using the energy or body of another organisms as a food source e. bacteria breaking down food for a host and having a sheltered habitat Kelp forests are a very important ecosystem in marine waters by supporting important biodiversity. These kelp forests are threatened by all of the following except 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. a. water pollution containing herbicides b. sea urchins c. southern sea otters d. humans e. water pollution containing fertilizers One way that species evolve over time to reduce niche overlap is called a. competitive exclusion principle b. resource partitioning c. population distribution d. interspecific competition e. mimicry Population dynamics examine changes to a population as a result of changing environmental conditions. Those conditions include all of the following except a. increasing commensalism b. temperature c. presence of disease organisms d. arrival or disappearance of competing species e. resource availability Population dynamics is the study of the way populations differ from one another in certain characteristics. Which of the following is not one of those characteristics? a. density b. age structure c. numbers d. distribution e. viability The biotic potential of a population is a. the maximum reproductive rate of a population b. the current rate of growth of a population c. an expression of how many offspring survive to reproduce d. determined by subtracting immigration minus emigration e. the future growth rate of a population Emigration is a. the one-way movement of individuals into an established population b. the one-way movement of individuals out of an uninhabited area c. the one-way movement of individuals out of a population to another area d. the repeated movement into and out of an area e. the lack of immigration into an area Which of the following is not one of the age structure categories? a. postreproductive 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. b. prereproductive c. reproductive d. nonreproductive e. All of these answers are categories. The intrinsic rate of increase (r) is a. the rate at which a population will reach its carrying capacity b. the rate at which a population would grow with unlimited resources c. determined by subtracting deaths from births and emigration from immigration d. not influenced by environmental resistance e. highest in large animals such as elephants and humans "The maximum population of a given species that a particular habitat can sustain indefinitely without being degraded" is the definition of a. logistic growth b. environmental resistance c. exponential growth d. carrying capacity e. biotic potential Exponential growth followed by a steady decrease in population growth until the population size levels off is typical of a. logistic growth b. environmental resistance c. exponential growth d. carrying capacity e. biotic potential When plotting the number of individuals in a population against time the data yield a J-shaped curve, which indicates which of the following? a. logistic growth b. environmental resistance c. exponential growth d. carrying capacity e. biotic potential Which of the following would cause a population to overshoot its carrying capacity? a. an increase in predators b. a decrease in birth rates c. an increase in emigration d. a decrease in environmental pressures e. a reproductive time lag between birth and death rates Which of the following is not true of an r-selected species? a. They have a high rate of population increase. b. Offspring are large in individual size. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. c. They are opportunists. d. They provide little or no parental care. e. Offspring are large in number. K-strategists a. have high genetic diversity b. are more response to environmental changes than r-strategists c. exhibit fast rates of evolution d. are generally less adaptable to change than r-strategists e. reach reproductive age rapidly Which of the following is an r-strategist? a. human b. cockroach c. rhinoceros d. saguaro cactus e. whale Small, isolated populations are vulnerable to loss of genetic diversity because of four of the following genetic factors. Choose the answer that is not one of these factors. a. inbreeding b. demographic bottleneck c. gene flow d. founder effect e. genetic drift Which of the following is an example of a density-independent population control? a. infectious disease b. habitat destruction c. parasitism d. predation e. competition for resources Which of the following is an example of a density-dependent population control? a. habitat destruction b. fire c. pollution d. floods e. competition for resources Some species experience an explosion of population growth to a high peak followed by a crash to a more stable lower level. This is called which of the following? a. stable b. irruptive c. cyclic d. irregular e. regular 112. Which of the following would exhibit primary succession? a. a rock exposed by a retreating glacier b. an abandoned farm c. a clear-cut forest d. newly flooded land e. a recently burned forest 113. Soil formation in primary succession is encouraged by all of the following except a. physical weathering b. releasing of nutrients from rock c. arrival of pioneer species d. trapping of wind-blown soil e. acid rain 114. On a field trip for a university class you observe an area filled with herbs, grasses, and low shrubs. These are examples of which of the following? a. pioneer species b. early successional plant species c. midsuccessional plant species d. late successional plant species e. climax plant species 115. Which of the following refers to the ability of a living system to be restored after a period of moderate disturbance? a. stability b. inertia c. constancy d. tipping point e. resilience Ecosystem Review Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. D C E D B C A D D B C D E C D E C B D A E C D B C C B A C E D D C E C A A D E B D 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. C D C E B B D C E E C B A D A D B D E B D C E C B D E C E A E C D E B D A B E A C D C E D A D 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. B D C D C B A E A C D B D A C E B D B C B E B A E C E