ANATOMY MCQ’S 1
RxDENTISTRY
RX DENTISTRY PRESENTS YOU WITH
NEW MCQ’S SERIES . TO START WITH HERE IS ANATOMY
Dr. MADAAN
2/18/2009
ANATOMY MCQ’S 1
WWW.RXDENTISTRY.CO.CC
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1. The subodontoblastic plexus of Raschkow occurs:
a. Below the cell bodies of odontoblasts
b. In the root region of the pulp
c. Within the central pulp core
d. Within the cell-rich zone of Weil
2. Uppermost structure seen at the hilum of the left lung is:
a. Pulmonary artery
b. Pulmonary vein
c. Bronchus
d. Bronchial artery
3. Ulnar injury in the arm leads to all except:
a. Sensory loss of the medial 1/3rd of the hand
b. Weakness of the hypothenar muscles
c. Claw hand
d. adduction of thumb
4. Left renal vein crosses the Aorta:
a. Anteriorly, above the superior mesenteric artery
b. Anteriorly, below the superior mesenteric artery
c. Posteriorly, at the level of superior mesenteric artery
d. Anteriorly, below the inferior mesenteric artery
5. What are intrinsic fibers of cementum?
a. Fibers produced by cementoblasts
b. Noncalcified fibers associated with the attachment of periodontal ligament fibers
c. Principal fibers of the PDL
d. None of the above
6. In post-ductal coarctation of the aorta, blood flow to the lower limbs in maintained by increased
blood flow through:
a. Inferior Phrenic and pericardio phrenic vessels
b. Intercostal and Superior epigastric
c. Sub costal and Umbilical
d. Umbilical and superior gastric
7. Seen in agenesis of corpus callosum is:
a. Astereognosis
b. Hemiparesis
c. Hemi sensory loss
d. No neurological deficit
8. One of the following is the watershed area of the colon between the superior and inferior mesenteric
arteries:
a. Ascending colon
b. Hepatic flexure
c. Splenic flexure
d. Descending colon
9. Gall bladder epithelium is:
a. Simple squamous
b. Simple cuboidal with stereocilia
c. Simple columnar
d. Simple columnar with brush border
10. Perforating fibers consisting of collagen fibers embedded in alveolar bone proper are known as:
a. Gingival fibers
b. Sharpey’s fibers
c. Transseptal fibers
d. Alveolar fibers
11. Which muscle is not punctured while doing a thoracic procedure in the mid-axillary line:
a. Innermost intercostals
b. Transverses thoracis
c. External intercostals
d. Internal intercostals
12. Dangerous area of the eye is:
a. Ciliary body
b. Sclera
c. Optic nerve
d. Retina
13. Urothelium does not line:
a. Collecting ducts
b. Minor calyx
c. Ureter
d. Urinary bladder
14. Which type of gingival fibers attaches to cementum of adjacent teeth and is present over the
alveolar crest?
a. Alveolar crest fibers
b. Alveologingival fibers
c. Transseptal fibers
d. Circular fibers
15. The secretory product of odontoblasts is:
a. Topocollagen.
b. Calcium salts.
c. Mantle dentin.
d. Hydroxyapatite.
16. The escapement spaces between teeth and the interdental spaces are called:
a. Marginal ridges.
b. Contact areas.
c. Embrasures.
d. Developmental grooves
17. Basement membrane consists of all except:
a. Laminin
b. Nidogenin
c. Entactin
d. Rhodopsin
18. Perforators are not present at the:
a. Ankle
b. Distal calf
c. Mid thigh
d. Below the inguinal ligament
19. Tongue muscles develops from:
a. Occipital somites
b. Mesoderm of the pharyngeal pouch
c. Cervical somites
d. Endoderm of pharyngeal pouch
20. A female come with complaints of chest pain. On examination she is found to have pericarditis with
pericardial effusion. The pain is mediated by:
a. Deep cardiac plexus
b. Superficial cardiac plexus
c. Phrenic nerve
d. Subcostal nerve
21. Meiosis occurs at which of the following transformation:
a. Primary spermatocyte to intermediate spermatocyte
b. Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte
c. Secondary spermatocyte to round spermatid
d. Round spermatid to elongated spermatid
22. The ureter develops from:
a. Metanephros
b. Mesonephros
c. Mesonephric duct
d. Paramesonephric duct
23. Inflammation of a retrocaecal appendix will produce pain when there is which of the following
movements at the hip:
a. Flexion
b. Extension
c. Medial rotation
d. Lateral rotation
24. In Hyaline cartilage, type of collagen present is:
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4
25. All of the following statements are true for metaphysis of bone, except a. It is the strongest part of bone.
b. It is the most vascular part of bone.
c. Growth activity50 is maximized here.
d. It is the region favoring hematogenous spread of infection.
26. All of the following muscles are grouped together as ‘muscles of mastication’ except a. Buccinator.
b.Masseter.
c.Temporalis.
d.Pterygoids.
27. In emergency tracheostomy the following structures are damaged except:
a. Isthmus of the thyroid
b. Inferior thyroid artery
c. Thyroidea ima
d. Inferior thyroid vein
28. Vidian Nerve is formed by
a. Deep Petrosal & Greater Superficial Petrosal nerve
b. Greater Superficial Petrosal Nerve and Lesser Superficial Petrosal Nerve.
c. Deep Petrosal Nerve and Lesser Superficial Petrosal Nerve
d. None of the above
29. Kanavel’s sign is seen in:
a. Tenosynovitis
b. Dupuyteren’s contracture
c. Carpal tunnel syndrome
d. Trigger finger
30. Which of the following is correctly matched:
a. B cells – Somatostain
b. D cells – Insulin
c. G cells – Gastrin
d. A cells - renin
31. Internal spermatic fascia is derived from
a. Transversalis facia
b. Internal abdominis muscle
c. External Oblique Abdominis Muscle
d. Internal Oblique Abdominis Muscle
32. Sertoli cells in the testis have receptors for:
a. FSH
b. LH
c. Inhibin
d. testosterone
33. External laryngeal nerve supplies
a. Superior Constrictor.
b. Middle Constrictor. c. Inferior constrictor.
d. None of the above
34. Most common site of spinal tumour
a. Extramedullary intradural
b. Extra dural
c. Intra medullary
d. Extra meduralary extradural
35. All are essential components of TOF except:
a. Valvular pulmonic stenosis
b. Right ventricular hypertrophy
c. Infundibular stenosis
d. Aorta overriding
36. When stem cell transforms to form other tissues, the process is called as:
a. Dedifferentiation
b. Redifferentiation
c. Transdifferentiation
d. Subdifferentiation
37. The communicating vein responsible for spread of infection from the Dangerous area of the face.
a. Superior ophthalmic Vein
b. Inferior Ophthalmic Vein
c. Maxillary Vein
d. Lingual Vein
38. Artery to vas deferens is a branch of
a. Inferior epigastric
b. Superior vesical
c. Cremasteric
d. Middle rectal
39. What is the origin of the definitive myocardium of the adult heart?
a. Endoderm
b. Somatopleuric mesoderm
c. Hypoblast
d. Splanchnopleuric mesoderm
40. An infarct causing bilateral infarction of the occipital lobes is likely to be secondary to occlusion in
the territory of the :
a. The Posterior Cerebral Artery
b. The Basilar Artery
c. The superior cerebellar artery
d. The anterior inferior cerebellar artery
41. Most fascia of the body that attach to bones attach by which of the following mechanisms?
a. Blending with the covering periosteum
b. Inserting deeply into the cancellous bone
c. Inserting deeply into the cartilage
d. Inserting deeply into the diaphysis
42. Which of these statements about Scalenus anterior is true
a. Is an accessory muscle of respiration
b. Lies anterior to the suprascapular artery
c. Is pierced by the phrenic nerve
d. Inserts into the scalene tubercle on the second rib
43. Which of the following respiratory system components is derived from neural crest?
a. Endothelial cells
b. Epithelium of primary bronchi
c. Laryngeal cartilage
d. Tracheal glands
44. An infarct involving the seventh nerve and nucleus is likely to be secondary to occlusion in the
territory of the:
a. The Posterior Cerebral Artery
b. The Basilar Artery
c. The superior cerebellar artery
d. The anterior inferior cerebellar artery
45. A patient has a tumour based in an enlarged jugular foramen , what is the most likely presentation?
a. Eight cranial nerve palsy
b. Ninth cranial nerve palsy
c. Tenth cranial nerve palsy
d. Eleventh cranial nerve palsy
46. True about diaphragm is
a. Develops from the septum transversum and cervical myotomes
b. Receives a nerve supply from phrenic nerve only
c. The inferior vena cava passes through the diaphragm at the level of the T12 vertebra
d. The aorta passes through the diaphragm at the level of the T8 vertebra
47. Which cranial nerve exits the skull base at the pars nervosa of the jugular foramen ?
a. Eight cranial nerve palsy
b. Ninth cranial nerve palsy
c. Tenth cranial nerve palsy
d. Eleventh cranial nerve palsy
48. The following structures pass under the inguinal ligament
a. The tendon of psoas major
b. The femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve
c. The long saphenous vein
d. The superficial epigastric vein
49. The axilla contains all except
a. The cords of the brachial plexus
b. The superior thoracic artery
c. The latissimus dorsi muscle in its medial wall
d. The thoracodorsal nerve in its posterior wall
50. What suspensory ligaments connect the outer edge of the lens of the eye with the ciliary processes?
a. Zonnules of Zinn
b. Zonnules of Schlemm c. Cruciate ligaments
d. Ligaments of Treitz
51. Closure of the neural tube occurs on around which day of the embryonic life period?
a. 26
b. 38
c. 56
d. 74
52. Which of the following is true of the optic disc?
a. No arteries pass through it
b. No veins pass through it
c. It appears dark red on fundoscopy
d. It is normally less than 1cm in diameter
53. An infarct causes a pure motor herniparesis . This infarct is likely to be secondary to occlusion in the
territory of the :
a. The Posterior Cerebral Artery
b. Deep penetrating lacunar artery
c. The superior cerebellar artery
d. The anterior inferior cerebellar artery
54. The most common sex chromosomal aneuploidy in males is
a. XX karyotype
b. XXY karyotype c. XO karyotype
d. XXX karyotype
55. The buccinator muscle:
a. Is attached to both jaws opposite the molar teeth
b. Is supplied by the V nerve
c. Is continuous with the superior constrictor of the pharynx
d. Is a muscle of mastication
56. Nerves that pass in the lateral wall of the cavernous sinus include:
a. The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
b. The sixth cranial nerve
c. The anterior ethmoidal nerve
d. The optic nerve
57. The nerve supplying submandibular gland is
a. V
b. VII
c. IX
d. XII
58. The muscle least related to pterygomandibular raphe is
a. Superior pharyngeal constrictor
b. Medial pterygoid
c. Lateral pterygoid
d. Buccinator
59. The radial nerve
a. Is the principal branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus
b. Is derived from the posterior primary rami of the C5 to T1 nerve roots
c. Is the main nerve supply to the flexor compartments of the arm and forearm
d. Supplies sensation to the extensor aspect of the radial three and a half digits
60. The heart of an embryo first begins beating at which of the following ages?
a. 2 weeks
b. 3 weeks c. 4 weeks
d. 6 weeks
61. Which of these statements about oesophagus is true?
a. Is 40 cm in length
b. Is lined by stratified squamous epithelium in the upper two-thirds
c. Is lined by transitional epithelium in the lower one-third
d. Drains all of its blood into the azygos and hemiazygos veins
62. A 36-year-old Asian male complains of difficulty swallowing. Esophagoscopy reveals a polypoid mass
that is subsequently biopsied. In addition to tumor cells, the esophageal biopsy show normal smooth
muscle and striated muscle in the same section. Which portion of the esophagus was the source of this
biopsy?
a. Lower esophageal sphincter
b. Lower third of the esophagus
c. Middle third of the esophagus
d. Upper esophageal sphincter
63. Contraction of which of the following muscles contributes most to the backward movement of the
lower jaw during the process of mastication?
a. Digastric
b. Lateral pterygoid c. Medial pterygoid
d. Temporalis
64. Which of the following hormones is secreted by anterior pituitary cells that stain with acidic dyes?
a. ACTH
b. FSH c. LH
d. Prolactin
65. A 7-year-old patient presents with a mass in the anterior midline of the neck, slightly above the
larynx. The mass is mobile and elevates upon protrusion of the tongue. This mass is most likely a cyst
that developed from which of the following embryonic structures?
a. First pharyngeal cleft
d. Thyroglossal duct
b. First pharyngeal pouch c. Second pharyngeal cleft
66. Zygomycosis, a destructive fungal infection of the sinuses, is likely to reach the brain by which of the
following routes?
a. Cavernous sinus
b. External carotid artery
c. Internal carotid artery
d. Superior sagittal sinus
67. Which of these statements about the thymus gland is false
a. Develops from the fourth pharyngeal pouch
b. Decreases in size with age
c. Is made up of cells of endodermal origin
d. Descends anterior to the brachiocephalic vein
68. The morphofunction unit of the breast is composed of:
a. The aveoli and the large duct system
b. The lobule and the stroma
c. The lactiferous sinus and the terminal ductules
d. The TDLU (terminal duct lobular unit) and the large duct system
69. What is the length of the Human spermatozooa (Sperm)?
a. 50 micrometers
b. 100 micrometers c. 200 micrometers
d. 500 micrometers
70. Which of the following stimulus does not induce visceral pain ?
a. Distension
b. Pressure
c. Cauterisation
d. Cutting
71. Which of these statements about the pancreas gland is false
a. Lies anterior to the left kidney
b. Derives part of its blood supply from the splenic artery only
c. Has parts in both the supracolic and infracolic compartments
d. Is pierced by the middle colic artery
72. A 25-year-old female presents to her obstetrician after taking a home pregnancy test with a positive
result. She states that twins run in her family and would like an ultrasound to determine if she has a twin
pregnancy. Radiographic studies confirm that the embryo has split at the blastocyst stage. Splitting of
the embryo at the blastocyst stage results in which of the following?
a. Conjoined twins
b. Dizygotic twins
c. Fraternal twins
d. Monozygotic twins
73. A newborn male child is noted to have hypospadias. A complete evaluation determines that the child
has no other genitourinary anomalies. Nonetheless, hyposp- adias repair will be performed to prevent
which of the following possible sequelae?
a. Bladder exstrophy
b. Hydrocele
c. Phimosis
d. Urinary tract infection
74. A 12-month-old child is diagnosed with an atrial septal defect. What is the most common cause of
such a congenital heart malformation?
a. Failure of formation of the septum primum
b. Failure of formation of the septum secundum
c. Incomplete adhesion between the septum primum and septum secundum
d. Malformation of the membranous interventricular septum
75. Which of the pharyngeal pouches develops into the palatine tonsil?
a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth
76. During anatomy lab, a medical student notes a fibrous band that runs on the visceral surface of the
liver. It is attached on one end to the inferior vena cava and on the other end to the left branch of the
portal vein. In the embryo, this structure corresponds to the
a. Ductus venosus
b. Ligamentum teres c. Ligamentum venosum
d. Umbilical arteries
77. At which of the following ages does fetal movement first occur?
a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 4 months
d. 6 months
78. A patient, who appears to be female, is found to be 46, XY. The patient's vagina is very shallow,
ending in a blind pouch, and there are palpable masses in the labia. The diagnosis of testicular
feminization syndrome is made. Which of the following was most likely present during the early fetal life
of this individual?
a. A streak ovary b. A uterus c. Depressed levels of testosterone d. MIF (Mullerian inhibitory
factor)
79. The smooth part of the right atrium derives from which of the following embryonic structures?
a. Bulbus cordis
b. Primitive atrium c. Primitive ventricle
d. Sinus venosus
80. Which of the following characteristics is similar for spermatogenesis and oogenesis ?
a. Age at which meiosis begins
b. Amount of cytoplasm retained
c. DNA replication during meiosis
d. Length of prophase I
81. in a genotypic male, the testes fail to develop, and do not secrete testosterone or Müllerian
regression factor. Which of the following best describes the in utero reproductive system development
of this individual?
a. Both male- and female-type internal reproductive tracts and male-type external genitalia
b. Female-type internal reproductive tract and female- type external genitalia
c. Female-type internal reproductive tract and male-type external genitalia
d. Male-type internal reproductive tract and female-type external genitalia
82. Which of these statements about the common bile duct is false
a. Lies in the free edge of the lesser omentum
b. Lies anterior to the portal vein
c. Lies to the right of the hepatic artery
d. Lies anterior to the first part of the duodenum
83. From which of the following fetal vessels do the umbilical arteries arise?
a. Aorta b. Carotid arteries
c. Ductus arteriosus
d. Iliac arteries
84. Thoracic duct is also called
a. Hensen’s duct
b. Bernard’s duct
c. Pecquet duct
d. Hoffman’s duct
85. The greater omentum is derived from which of the following embryonic structures?
a. Dorsal mesoduodenum
b. Dorsal mesogastrium
c. Pericardioperitoneal canal
d. Pleuropericardial membranes
86. The lateral pterygoid muscle attaches to which of the following?
a. Lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate.
b. Medial surface of the lateral pterygoid plate.
c. Lateral surface of the medial pterygoid plate.
d. Medial surface of the medial pterygoid plate.
87. Which of the following muscles is responsible for the formation of the posterior tonsillar pillar?
a. Stylopharyngeus. b. Tensor veli palatine. c. Palatoglossus. d. Palatopharyngeus.
88. The superior and inferior ophthalmic veins drain into the
a. Internal jugular vein b. Pterygoid plexus c. Frontal vein d. Facial vein
89. The masseter originates from the
a. Condyle of the mandible b. Infratemporal crest of the sphenoid bone c. Inferior border of the
zygomatic arch d. Pyramidal process of the palatine bone
90. Which of the following muscles adducts the vocal cords?
a. Lateral cricoarytenoid. b. Posterior cricoarytenoid. c. Cricothyroid. d. Vocalis.
91. Which of the following strata of oral epithelium is engaged in mitosis?
a. Basale.
b. Granulosum.
c. Corneum.
d. Spinosum.
92. The auriculotemporal nerve encircles which of the following vessels?
a. Maxillary artery. b. Superficial temporal artery. c. Deep auricular artery. d. Middle meningeal
artery.
93. The muscle that is found in the walls of the heart is characterized by
a. A peripherally placed nucleus
b. Multiple nuclei
c. Intercalated discs
d. Fibers with spindle-shaped cells
94. All of the following are found in the posterior triangle of the neck except one. Which one is the
exception?
a. External jugular vein.
b. Subclavian vein. c. Hypoglossal nerve.
d. Phrenic nerve.
95. Deoxygenated blood from the transverse sinus drains into the _
a. Inferior sagittal sinus b. Confluence of sinuses c. Sigmoid sinus d. Straight sinus
96. The vestigial cleft of Rathke's pouch in the hypop- hysis is located between the
a. Anterior and posterior lobes
b. Anterior lobe and hypothalamus c
c. Posterior lobe and hypothalamus
d. Median eminence and the optic chiasm
97. Involution of the thymus would occur following which year in a healthy individual?
a. 0 years (at birth).
b. 12th year. c. 20th year.
d. 60th year.
98. Blood from the internal carotid artery reaches the posterior cerebral artery by the
a. Anterior cerebral artery
b. Anterior communicating artery
c. Posterior communicating artery
d. Posterior superior cerebellar artery
99. The infraorbital nerve is a branch of the
a. Optic nerve
b. Oculomotor nerve
c. Ophthalmic nerve
d. Maxillary nerve
100. The most distal portion of the maxillary alveolar bone is the
a. Tuberosity
b. Retromolar area
c. Palatine raphe
d. Palatine fovea
Ans A.
Nerve fibers Pulp and Dentin entering the teeth have been identified histologically as myelinated Afibers and unmyelinated C-fibers. These fibers are grouped in bundles and enter through the apical
foramina of the teeth, passing through the radicular to the coronal pulp where they fan out and diverge
into smaller bundles. Nerve divergence continues; individuals-fibers within small bundles lose their
myelin sheath and divide repeatedly before finally ramifying into a plexus of single axons known as the
subodontoblastic plexus or plexus of Raschkow. The exact function of this plexus is unknown, as is the
changing configuration of the plexus with dentin formation." From this plexus nerve fibers are
distributed toward the pulp-dentin border with terminals showing a characteristic bead-like structure.
2. Ans A.
Explanation:
Mnemonic is Atal Bihari Vajpayee (ABV) -Arrangement of pulmonary structures at the hilum of the
lungs - ABV: From (A)bove to below: (A)rtery-(B)ronchus-(v)ein. -Pulmonary artery is uppermost
whereas, pulmonary vein is inferior most. -This applies well to left lung...for right lung one additional
bronchus goes above the artery and is called as ep-arterial bronchus. -Hence, in the right lung the
uppermost structure in the hilum will be a bronchus.
NOTE:
There are 2 veins which are named anterior & inferior according to their location at the hilum. (Similar
arrangement on both sides) -Bronchus & bronchial arteries are always posterior most structures at the
hila of both lungs.
3. Ans D.
Explanation:
Ulnar nerve supplies the Adductor pollicis muscle and hence it will be paralysed in its lesion. Hence,
adduction of thumb is not a clinical finding in ulnar nerve palsy.
4. Ans B.
Explanation:
Left renal vein crosses in front of the aorta from right to left towards the left kidney. -Additional
information: The vein lies below the superior mesenteric artery (L-1 vertebral level) and above the renal
artery (lies between L-1 & L-2 vertebra) -Because the inferior vena cava is on the right side of the body,
the left renal vein is generally the longer of the two. - Now, because the inferior vena cava is not
laterally symmetrical, the left renal vein often receives the following veins: left inferior phrenic vein
left suprarenal vein left gonadal vein (left testicular vein in males, left ovarian vein in females)
left 2nd lumbar vein -This is in contrast to the right side of the body, where these veins drain directly
into the IVC.
5. Ans A.
Classification of Cementum Based on the Nature and Origin of Collagen Fibers.
Organic matrix derived form 2 sources: Periodontal ligament (Sharpey’s fibers) Cementoblasts Extrinsic
fibers derived from PDL. These are in the same direction of the PDL principal fibers i.e. perpendicular or
oblique to the root surface. Intrinsic fibers derived from cementoblasts. Run parallel to the root surface
and at right angles to the extrinsic fibers The area where both extrinsic and intrinsic fibers is called
mixed fiber cementum.
6. Ans B.
Explanation:
Coarctation (stenosis/narrowing) of aorta is due to defect in the tunica media, which forms a shelf like
projection into the lumen, most commonly in the region of the ductus arteriosus. -A collateral
circulation develops distal to the obstruction between subclavian artery (internal thoracic artery) &
descending aorta (posterior intercostal arteries). -This anastomosis produces characteristic notching of
the ribs on X-RAY Superior epigastric is a branch of internal thoracic artery and gives the anterior
intercostal arteries in the lower intercostal spaces. -Coarctation of the aorta is of three types: 1. Preductal coarctation: The narrowing is proximal to the ductus arteriosus. If severe, blood flow to the aorta
distal (to lower body) to the narrowing is dependent on a patent ductus arteriosus, and hence its closure
can be life-threatening. 2. Ductal coarctation: The narrowing occurs at the insertion of the ductus
arteriosus. This kind usually appears when the ductus arteriosus closes. 3. Post-ductal coarctation: The
narrowing is distal to the insertion of the ductus arteriosus. Even with an open ductus arteriosus blood
flow to the lower body can be impaired. Newborns with this type of coarctation may be critically sick
from the birth.
7. Ans A.
Explanation: 1. Agenesis of the Corpus Callosum (ACC) is a rare birth defect (congenital disorder) in
which there is a complete or partial absence of the corpus callosum. Agenesis of the corpus callosum
occurs when the corpus callosum, the band of tissue connecting the two hemispheres of the brain, does
not develop typically in utero. In addition to agenesis of the corpus callosum, other callosal disorders
include hypogenesis (partial formation), dysgenesis (malformation) of the corpus callosum, and
hypoplasia (underdevelopment) of the corpus callosum.
Signs and symptoms:
Signs and symptoms of Agenesis of the Corpus Callosum and other callosal disorders vary greatly among
individuals. However, some characteristics common in individuals with callosal disorders include vision
impairments, low muscle tone (hypotonia), poor motor coordination, delays in motor milestones such as
sitting and walking, low perception of pain, delayed toilet training, chewing and swallowing difficulties,
early speech and language delays, and social difficulties. Recent research suggests that specific social
difficulties may be a result of impaired face processing. Unusual social behavior in childhood is often
mistaken for or misdiagnosed as Asperger's syndrome or other autism spectrum disorders. Other
characteristics sometimes associated with callosal disorders include seizures, spasticity, early feeding
difficulties and/or gastric reflux, hearing impairments, abnormal head and facial features, and mental
retardation.
8. Ans C.
Explanation:
-The weakest link in the marginal chain of vessels (of Drummond) is near the left colic (splenic) flexure,
between the middle colic artery (mid-gut) & the left colic artery (hind-gut). -An inner arterial circle (of
Riolan) between the ascending branch of left colic artery and the trunk of middle colic artery may
supplement the blood supply to this region of colon. "Watershed area" is the medical term referring to
regions of the body that receive dual blood supply from the most distal branches of two large arteries,
such as the splenic flexure of the large intestine. During times of blockage of one of the arteries that
supply of the watershed area, such as in atherosclerosis, these regions are spared from ischemia by
virtue of their dual supply. However, during times of systemic hypoperfusion, such as in DIC or Heart
failure, these regions are particularly vulnerable to ischemia by virtue of the fact that they are supplied
by the most distal branches of their arteries, and thus the least likely to receive sufficient blood.
9. Ans D.
Explanation:
Gall bladder is lined by columnar cells with irregular microvilli-brush border. -Small intestine is lined by
microvilli arranged in regular fashion -striated border. -Brush border is also present in the proximal
convoluted tubule (PCT) of kidney. -Stereo-cilia are present in the hair cells of internal ear and
epididymis.
10. Ans B.
Sharpey's Fibers = direct extensions of dense irregular CT from periosteum into compact bone.
Functions to anchor tendon (with fibers penetrating periosteum to bone) to bone. Formation by
appositional bone growth around original attachment site. The periodontal ligament is much more
cellular and more highly vascularized than ordinary ligaments, reflecting its high rate of protein
turnover. It consists of collagen and some elastic fibers. The collagenous fibers penetrate into the
cementum and into the surrounding bone. When properly stained, the fibers within cementum and
bone are visible and referred to as Sharpey's fibers.
11. Ans b.
Explanation:
During a thoracic procedure in mid-axillary line, the external & internal intercostal muscles are always
punctured. -Inner most layer : Of the three group of muscles in this layer, the innermost intercostals are
at the side of the rib cage, -Subcostalis are at the back and Transversus thoracis at the front of the
thoracic cage. -Hence, Transversus thoracis will not be punctured in a mid axillary line approach.
NOTE:
Transversus thoracis muscle was formerly called as sterno-costalis, more exactly. In fact, now
TRANSVERSUS THORACIS includes all the three inner layer muscles, namely - Subcostalis, innermost
intercostal (intercostalis intimi) and the sterno-costalis.
12. Ans A.
Explanation:
The dangerous area of the eye is the region in the neighborhood of the ciliary Body, and wounds or
injuries in this situation are peculiarly dangerous.
13. Ans A.
Explanation:
Urothelium (or transitional) epithelium starts in the minor calyx region and lines major calyx, pelvis,
ureter, urinary bladder and the proximal 2 cm of prostatic urethra. -Collecting ducts are lined by
columnar epithelium
14. Ans C.
Transseptal fibers
Types of gingival fibers There are three groups within which gingival fibers are arranged: gingivodental
group - there are three types of fibers within this group: fibers that extend towards the crest of the
gingiva fibers that extend laterally to the outer surface of the gingiva and fibers that extend outward,
past the height of the alveolar crest, and then downward along the cortex of the alveolar bone. circular
group - these fibers are unique in that they exist entirely within the gingiva and do not contact the tooth
transseptal group - these fibers have traditionally been described as spanning the interproximal tissue
between adjacent teeth, into which they are embedded. However, two other types of fibers have been
described in this group: semicicular fibers - fibers that run through the facial and lingual gingiva around
each tooth, attaching to the interproximal surfaces of the same tooth. transgingival fibers - fibers that
run between two non-adjacent teeth and are embedded in the cementum of their proximal surfaces,
passing around the tooth in the middle of the two teeth attached with these fibers.
15. Ans C:
DENTIN : It consists of about 80% hydroxyapatite (by dry weight) and 20% of organic matrix (collagen,
proteoglycans, glycosaminoglycans) and is pervaded by the dentinal tubules. On the outside, the dentin
is covered either by enamel (anatomical crown) or by cementum. On its inner surface facing the pulp
chamber and the root canal, the dentin is lined by the odontoblasts, which are columnar cells arranged
in a single layer (fig. 19). Each odontoblast sends a cytoplasmic process into one dentinal tubule,
reaching as far as 1/2 the thickness of the dentin. Odontoblasts are not separated from the pulp by a
basement membrane. A plexus of capillaries extends within the odontoblast layer close to the predentin
(a thin uncalcified layer of dentin matrix facing the pulp chamber). The odontoblasts are of
mesenchymal origin, synthesizing and secreting the components of the dentinal matrix. They secrete
first a layer of predentin, which stains pale in H&E and PAS preparations. The odontoblasts furthermore
secrete a phosphoprotein that is deposited specifically at the predentin-dentin junction. Apparently this
phosphoprotein initiates the calcification of dentin. Dentin stains strongly with H&E and PAS
16. Ans C.
Embrasure: The space between two teeth which opens out from their contact point.
17. Ans D
Explanation: -Rhodopsin is present in the retinal rods -The basement membrane consists of an
electron-dense membrane called the lamina densa, about 30–70 nanometers in thickness, and an
underlying network of reticular collagen (type IV) fibrils (its precursor is fibroblasts) which average 30
nanometers in diameter and 0.1–2 micrometers in thickness. This type IV collagen is of the reticular
type, in contrast to the fibrillar collagen found in the interstitial matrix. -The Lamina Densa (which is
made up of type IV collagen fibers; perlecan (a heparan sulfate proteoglycan) coats these fibers and they
are high in heparan sulfate) and the Lamina Lucida (made up of laminin, integrins, entactins, and
dystroglycans) together make up the basal lamina. -Lamina Reticularis attached to basal lamina with
anchoring fibrils (type VII collagen fibers) and microfibrils (fibrilin) is collectively known as the basement
membrane.
18. Ans D.
Explanation:
Perforators connect the superficial veins with the deep veins. -There are about 5 perforators along the
great saphenous vein - 1.in the mid-thigh; 2. Below knee; 3, 4 & 5. near the lower leg and ankle. -Great
saphenous vein itself drains into the femoral vein below the inguinal ligament.
19. Ans A.
Explanation:
Tongue muscles develop from occipital myotomes and are innervated by the 12 nerve.
20. Ans C.
Explanation:
The pain of pericarditis originates in the parietal layer only and is transmitted by the phrenic nerve. The fibrous and parietal layer of serous pericardium is supplied by the phrenic nerve. -Visceral layer is
insensitive.
21. Ans B.
Explanation:
Meiosis - I changes primary spermatocyte into secondary spermatocyte. -Then, Meiosis - II changes
secondary spermatocyte into the spermatid.
22. Ans C.
Explanation:
Mesonephric duct (Wolffian duct) gives the ureteric bud which further develops into ureter.
23. Ans B.
Explanation:
Psoas sign: flexion of or pain on hyperextension of the hip due to contact between an inflammatory
process and the psoas muscle; a sign often seen in appendicitis. Called also Cope’s sign. -The inflamed
appendix lies on the psoas muscle and the patient will lie with the right hip flexed for pain relief. Extension of hip will cause pain Rovsing's sign: Rovsing sign, pressure over the point on the left side
corresponding to the McBurney point will elicit the typical pain at the McBurney point on the right side
in appendicitis. -Deep palpation of the left iliac fossa causes pain in the right iliac fossa. Obturator sign:
If an inflamed appendix is in contact with the obturator internus, spasm of the muscle can be
demonstrated by flexing and internally rotating the hip. This manouvre will cause pain in the
hypogastrium.
24. Ans B.
Explanation:
Hyaline & elastic cartilage contain type-II collagen, whereas fibro-cartilage is more like bone & contain
type-I cartilage.
25. Ans A.
Metaphysis as we all know is the most metabolically active part of the bone with rapid cell turn over and
most vascular part also. Since it is the most vascular part we have the Osteomyelitis that spreads
through hematogenous route originate here in children and is one of the areas that get fractured in
pathological fracturesof the bone. The zone of maturation is more vulnerable 1. It is the weakest part of
bone and so this is a wrong statement. 2. It is the most vascular part of bone. 3. Growth activity is
maximized here.
4. It is the region favouring hematogenous spread of infection.
26. Ans A.
Muscles of Mastication Muscle Origin Insertion Action Temporalis Temporal bone Parietal bone
Coronoid process Elevates jaw Retracts jaw Masseter Zygomatic arch Mandibular angle Elevates jaw
Lateral Pterygoid (Superior Head) Sphenoid bone Temporomandibular Disk Draws articular disk forward
Lateral Pterygoid (Inferior Head) Lateral Side of Lateral Pterygoid Plate Mandibular neck (bilaterally)
Protracts jaw (unilaterally) Abducts jaw (grinding) Medial Pterygoid Medial Side of Lateral Pterygoid
Plate Mandibular angle Elevates jaw
27. Ans B.Explanation:
In emergency tracheostomy following structures can be damaged: -Isthmus
Inferior thyroid veins -thyroid artery left brachio-cephalic vein -pleura (especially infants)
Thymus
-
28. Ans A
.Greater Petrosal Nerve is joined by the deep petrosal nerve from the internal carotid sympathetic
plexus to become the Vidian nerve or nerve of the pterygoid canal which traverses the pterygoid canal
to end in the pterygopalatine ganglion.
29. Ans A
Explanation:
Kanavel's sign, a point of maximum tenderness in the palm 2.5 cm proximal to the base of the little
finger in infection of tendon sheath.- goal is to distinguish infectious tenosynovitis from superficial or
localized abscess Kanavel's Four Cardinal Signs - Discussion: - for diagnosing infectious tenosynovitis; intense pain accompanies any attempt to extend partly flexed finger; - this is absent in local
involvement; - pain will be noted along the course of tendon with extension; - this is the earliest and
most important sign; - in case of a local furuncle, in contrast, the finger can be held straight without
much pain; - flexion posture: finger is held in flexion for comfort; - uniform swelling involving entire
finger in contrast to localized swelling in local inflammation; - percussion tenderness along the course of
the tendon sheath; - tenderness is marked along the course of inflamed sheath in contrast to its
absence in a localized inflammation;
30. Ans c. Explanation:
-Gastrin is a hormone that stimulates secretion of gastric acid by the parietal cells of the stomach. It is
released by G cells in the stomach and duodenum. -Somatostain- Delta cells (delta-cells or D cells) are
somatostatin producing cells. They can be found in the stomach, intestine and the Islets of Langerhans
in the pancreas. -Insulin is synthesized in the pancreas within the beta cells (beta-cells) of the islets of
Langerhans. -One to three million islets of Langerhans (pancreatic islets) form the endocrine part of the
pancreas, which is primarily an exocrine gland. The endocrine portion only accounts for 2% of the total
mass of the pancreas. Within the islets of Langerhans, beta cells constitute 60–80% of all the cells.
31. Ans A.
Transversalis Fascia: The spermatic cord in the male, or the round ligament of the uterus in the female,
pass through the transversalis fascia at the deep inguinal ring (see below). This opening is not visible
externally since the transversalis fascia is prolonged on these structures as the internal spermatic fascia
Layers of Anterior Abdominal Wall Layers of Scrotum Mnemonic Skin S Some Superficial Fascia Dartos
Muscle D Decent External Oblique Abdominis External Spermatic Fascia E Englishmen Internal Oblique
Abdominis Cremateric Muscle and Fascia C Call Transversalis Fascia Internal Spermatic Fascia It Process
Vaginalis Tunica Vaginalis Testis T Testis
32. Ans A.
Explanation:
-Sertoli cell (a kind of sustentacular cell) is a 'nurse' cell of the testes which is part of a seminiferous
tubule. It is activated by follicle-stimulating hormone, and has FSH-receptor on its membranes. -FSH
binds to Sertloi cells stimulate testicular fluid production and synthesis of intracellular androgen
receptor proteins. Sertoli cells secrete anti- mullerian hormone and activins also. -LH binds to receptors
on interstitial cells of Leydig and stimulate testosterone production, which in turn binds to Sertoli cells
to promote spermatogenesis. -Inhibin is a hormone that inhibits FSH production.It is secreted from the
Sertoli cells,located in the seminiferous tubule inside the testes.
33. Ans A.
The external laryngeal nerve, smaller than the internal, descends posterior to the sternothyroid with the
superior thyroid artery but on a deeper plane; it lies at first on the inferior pharyngeal constrictor and
then, piercing it, curves round the inferior thyroid tubercle to reach and supply the cricothyroid. It also
supplies the pharyngeal plexus and inferior constrictor; behind the common carotid artery it connects
with the superior cardiac nerve and superior cervical sympathetic ganglion.
34. Ans D.
Explanation:
Spinal cord tumours- Epidural metaststic tumours are the most common. -most copmmon - neoplastic
cord compression is nearly always due to extra-medullary, extradural metastses usually from breast,
lung, prostate, lymphoma or renal cancers. -Compression usually occurs by posterior expansion of
vertebral metastases or extension of paraspinal metastses through the intervertebral foramina.