1. Right Iliac = Appendix
89. These figures show a frontal view of the abdominopelvic cavities. Which number indicates the
epigastric region?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
90. These figures show a frontal view of the abdominopelvic cavities. What does number 5 indicate?
A. Right upper quadrant (RUQ)
B. Left lower quadrant (LLQ)
C. Right hypochondriac region i.
D. Left hypochondriac region
E. Right lower quadrant (RLQ)
91. These figures show a frontal view of the abdominopelvic cavities. Which number indicates the left
iliac region?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
81. The appendix is in the right iliac region, and is therefore located in the _____ ______ quadrant.
right lower or
RL or
RLQ
80. The urinary bladder is found in which abdominopelvic region?
A. Hypogastric
B. Right lumbar
C. Hypochondriac
D. Left iliac
E. Left lumbar
79. Lateral to the umbilical abdominopelvic region are the _____ regions.
A. hypochondriac
B. iliac
C. hypogastric
D. epigastric
E. lumbar
78. Which abdominopelvic regions have both a right and left side?
A. Only the lumbar and iliac
B. Only the hypogastric and hypochondriac
C. The hypochondriac, lumbar, and hypogastric
D. Only the iliac and hypochondriac
E. The lumbar, iliac, and hypochondriac
73. The pericardium is a two-layered serous membrane that:
A. encloses the heart.
B. encloses the kidney.
C. encloses a lung.
D. provides lubrication for the knee.
E. covers the small intestine.
72. The median space in the thoracic cavity is called the:
A. pleural cavity.
B. pericardial cavity.
C. mediastinum.
D. peritoneal cavity.
E. hypochondriac space.
69. The pleural cavity is the:
A. same as the mediastinum.
B. the serous membrane lining the abdomen.
C. space within which the heart sits.
D. potential space between the two serous membranes surrounding a lung.
68. The mediastinum is within the ventral cavity.
TRUE
67. Which serous membrane covers the surface of an organ?
A. The parietal layer
B. The visceral layer
C. The muscle layer
D. The dorsal layer
E. The ventral layer
65. Pollex refers to the:
A. eyebrow.
B. thumb.
C. great toe.
D. little finger.
E. kneecap.
62. The term "hallux" refers to the:
A. little finger.
B. thumb.
C. great toe.
D. lateral-most toe.
E. middle digit.
74. The serous fluid that helps in cardiac function is located:
A. inside the heart's chambers.
B. between the parietal pericardium and the sternum.
C. in the pericardial cavity, between the parietal and visceral pericardial layers.
D. between the visceral pericardium and the cardiac muscle.
76. The moist, two-layered serous membrane that lines the abdominopelvic cavity is called the:
A. peritoneum.
B. diaphragm.
C. synovium.
D. pleura.
E. pericardium.
82. The abdominopelvic quadrants are formed by passing one horizontal and one vertical line through
the:
A. patellar region.
B. umbilicus.
C. antebrachial region.
D. gluteal region.
E. crural region.
Figure: 01.08b
Topic: General
86. This figure shows a frontal view of a human. What does number 1 indicate?
A. Mediastinum
B. Pelvic cavity
C. Thoracic cavity
D. Pleural cavity
E. Pericardial cavity
87. This figure shows a frontal view of a human. What does number 5 indicate?
A. Abdominal cavity
B. Pelvic cavity
C. Pleural cavity
D. Pericardial cavity
E. Mediastinum
88. This figure shows a frontal view of a human. What does number 2 indicate?
A. Pelvic cavity
B. Pleural cavity
C. Mediastinum
D. Abdominal cavity
E. Cranial cavity
2. Anatomy is the study of:
A. stars.
B. function.
C. sharp tools.
D. structure and form.
E. word histories.
1.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The word "anatomy" comes from:
Latin and means "to be born".
Hebrew and means "shape".
Greek and means "to cut apart".
German and means "body".
Italian and means "form".
4. A scientist who describes the layers of the heart wall and their relationship to the surrounding
pericardium would be a(n):
A. anatomist.
B. physiologist.
C. pathologist.
D. pulmonologist.
13. The scientific discipline that studies the functions of body structures is:
A. anatomy.
B. physiology.
C. astronomy.
D. anthropology.
E. archeology.
9. Gross anatomy refers to the study of:
A. cells.
B. structures formed by cells.
C. structures not visible to the unaided eye.
D. structures visible to the unaided eye.
E. nasal secretions.
5. ______ anatomy examines both superficial anatomic markings and internal body structures as they
relate to the skin covering them.
A. Regional
B. Surface
C. Radiographic
D. Surgical
E. Systemic
7.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which branch of microscopic anatomy is the study of tissues?
Histology
Cytology
Embryology
Developmental anatomy
Surgical anatomy
12. When medical students study all of the structures in a particular area of the body as a unit (for
example, all the muscles, blood vessels, and nerves of the leg), that approach is called:
A. surface anatomy.
B. comparative anatomy.
C. popliteal physiology.
D. regional anatomy.
E. systemic anatomy.
10. The anatomic changes that result from disease are studied under:
A. pathologic anatomy.
B. systemic anatomy.
C. histology.
D. surgical anatomy.
E. developmental anatomy.
11. The two main divisions of microscopic anatomy are:
A. embryology and parasitology.
B. cytology and histology.
C. comparative anatomy and pathological anatomy.
D. neurobiology and surface anatomy.
105. The level of organization one step more complex than the organ level is the______ level.
organ system
97. The urinary system filters the blood, concentrates waste products, and removes waste products
from the body.
TRUE
96. The life characteristic of reproduction may be interpreted at both the cellular and organismal levels.
TRUE
94. The cell is the smallest living portion of the human body.
TRUE
93. Organs contain two or more tissues that work together to perform specific, complex functions.
TRUE
102. The mediastinum is a serous cavity.
FALSE
5. ______ anatomy examines both superficial anatomic markings and internal body structures as they
relate to the skin covering them.
A. Regional
B. Surface
C. Radiographic
D. Surgical
E. Systemic
6. The discipline known as _____________ anatomy examines similarities and differences across
species.
comparative
8. Cytology is a subdivision of gross anatomy.
FALSE
129. Diagnosing a disease involves determining the:
A. cause of the homeostatic imbalance.
B. multiple side effects of a drug.
C. effector and the set point.
D. negativity of the feedback.
128. Damage to the heart can cause inadequate blood circulation, which can lead to more damage to
the heart. This is an example of a positive feedback cycle.
TRUE
- Positive Feedback: Blood clotting/ Baby Delivery
-Negative Feedback: Blood Pressure
127. Disease is often considered the result of:
A. negative feedback.
B. failure of homeostatic systems.
C. maintenance of set point.
D. feedback loops.
126. In the positive feedback mechanism governing breast feeding, the mammary glands of the breast
serve as the:
A. control center.
B. receptor.
C. effector.
D. set point.
123. The reinforcement of a stimulus so that a climax is reached is known as ____________.
positive feedback POSITIVE FEEDBBACK DOES NOT MEAN GOOD
122. If carbon dioxide levels rise in the body, negative feedback mechanisms will trigger:
A. an increase in breathing so that carbon dioxide levels decline to the set point.
120. The central nervous system acts as the control center for the regulation of blood calcium and
blood glucose.
FALSE
119. The normal level at which a physiological variable is maintainied is known as its:
A. stimulus.
B. control center.
C. negative feedback.
D. set point.
E. effector.
117. Which of the following choices places the components of a homeostatic control system in proper
order?
A. Effector, control center, stimulus, receptor
B. Stimulus, receptor, control center, effector
C. Receptor, effector, control center, stimulus
D. Stimulus, control center, effector, receptor
E. Receptor, control center, stimulus, effector
116. When you are exposed to bright light, a reflex is initiated and your iris constricts to decrease pupil
size. Which structure serves as a receptor in this system?
A. The retina
B. The iris
C. The eyelid
D. The brain's visual cortex
115. When you are exposed to bright light, a reflex is initiated and the muscles of your iris contract to
decrease your pupil size. The iris muscles are acting as a(n):
A. effector.
B. control center.
C. receptor.
D. postitive feedback.
113. The part of the homeostatic control mechanism that brings about change is the:
A. control center.
B. stimulus.
C. effector.
D. receptor.
114. In a homeostatic control mechanism, the receptor detects changes in the environment and relays
that information to the ____________.
control center
-Detects stimuli from ENVIROMENT= Nervous System
112. Sensory nerves that detect changes in a variable that is being regulated comprise the ________ of
the control mechanism.
receptor
111. The control center of a homeostatic mechanism:
A. brings about change to the internal environment.
B. integrates sensory input and signals for change as needed.
C. is a change in the external environment.
D. detects a change in a variable that is being regulated.
109. The muscular partition that separates the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities is the ______.
diaphragm
-Mediastinum Divides …… ? T/F
-RetroPerotinium (posterior)- organs are located ‘BEHIND’ parietal PERITONIUM (Kidney, Urinary
bladder, Adrenals, Pancreas, Intestines.
- Mesentaries (Anterior)- part of PERITONIUM= hold organs in place and provide a passageway for
BLOOD Vessels and NERVES to the ORGANS
- Medial Space of the Thoracic Cavity between the LUNGS
107. The ______ reproductive system produces oocytes.
female
SYSTEMSSSSSSSSSSSSSS
39. The pituitary, thyroid, and adrenal glands are typically grouped within the __________ system.
endocrine
38. The organ system that transports and filters interstitial fluid while also participating in immune
responses is the __________ system.
lymphatic
- Delivers oxygen and nutrients to tissues- Cardiovascular
37. The system responsible for the exchange of gases between the blood and atmospheric air is the
_____________ system.
A. urinary
B. respiratory
C. cardiovascular
D. endocrine
E. nervous
36. The body system that provides support and protection as well as being a site of blood cell
production (hemopoiesis) is the ____________ system.
A. skeletal
B. muscular
C. cardiovascular
D. respiratory
E. lymphatic
35. Which system is responsible for providing protection, regulating body temperature, and being the
site of cutaneous receptors?
A. Respiratory
B. Muscular
C. Integumentary
D. Urinary
E. Nervous
31. Which of the following statements accurately describes the organization of structures?
A. Organs are made up of tissues, which are made up of cells, which are made up of organelles and
molecules.
B. Tissues are made up of organs, which are made up of cells, which are made up of individual atoms.
C. Organisms are made up of tissues, which are made up of organ systems, which are made up of DNA.
D. Organ systems are made up of cells, which are made up of tissues, which are made up of organelles.
E. Organs are made up of cells, which are made up of atoms, which are made up of molecules.
30. At what level of organization is a tooth?
A. Tissue level
B. Cell level
C. Organ level
D. System level
E. Atomic level
29. Which level consists of related organs that work to achieve a common function?
A. Organ system level
B. Cellular level
C. Tissue level
D. Chemical level
E. Organ level
28. The smallest structural unit that exhibits the characteristics of living things is:
A. an organ.
B. an individual.
C. tissue.
D. a cell.
E. a system.
23. The term that refers to the ability of organisms to react to changes in the environment is:
A. responsiveness.
B. reproduction.
C. metabolism.
D. development.
E. organization.
19. The large surface area of the inside of the small intestine means that this structure is:
A. well adapted for its physiological role in absorption.
B. derived from an embryological structure that served a different function.
C. anatomically complex but physiologically simple.
D. maladaptive in that it harbors bacteria.
18. Respiratory physiology is primarily the study of:
A. cell shape within the alveoli of the lungs.
B. the branching pattern of the small airways of the lungs.
C. the tissue composition of the airways, air sacs, and blood vessels.
D. how gases are transferred between the lungs and the blood vessels supplying them.
17. The discipline that associates changes in organ system function with disease or injury is known as
____________.
pathophysiology
24. The various chemical reactions that organisms carry out are collectively called:
A. reproduction.
B. homeostasis.
C. metabolism.
D. responsiveness.
E. development.
Chapter 2
40. Which of the following is not one of the four most common elements in the body?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Hydrogen
D. Carbon
E. Calcium
33. A molecule is made up of a combination of two or more atoms.
TRUE
26. The category of reactions in which larger molecules are broken down into smaller ones is known as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
anabolism.
catabolism.
synthesis.
homeostasis.
enzymatic.
27. The group of metabolic reactions in which smaller molecules are combined to form larger ones is
___________.
anabolism or
anabolic or
anabolic reactions
23. An ion is an atom or group of atoms that has:
A. a different number of neutrons than most atoms of that element.
B. lost or gained a proton.
C. lost or gained an electron.
D. a biological half life due to radioactive decay.
22. An atom with a positive or negative charge is known as a(n) ________.
ion
26. The molecular formula for bicarbonate ion is HCO3-. It is therefore a:
A. polyatomic anion.
25. Positively charged ions are called cations.
TRUE
24. The most common extracellular cation is ________.
sodium or
Na or
Na+
28. When atoms of elements on the left side of the periodic table ionize, they tend to:
A. gain electrons and therefore become anions.
B. gain protons and therefore become anions.
C. lose electrons and therefore become cations.
34. Sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3) is considered an ionic compound.
TRUE
32. Ionic bonds involve:
A. electrostatic interactions between anions and cations.
B. the sharing of electrons between two atoms of the same element.
C. the attraction between water and salts.
D. the release of protons by negatively charged particles.
33. In the formation of a compound of sodium chloride:
A. a chlorine atom donates an electron to a sodium atom.
B. a chloride ion donates two protons to a sodium ion.
C. a sodium atom donates an electron to a chlorine atom.
D. a sodium ion donates two electrons to a chlorine atom.
E. the sodium and chlorine atoms share a pair of electrons equally.
35. Water contains two hydrogen atoms bound to one oxygen atom; "H2O" is therefore water's:
A. molecular formula.
B. ionic compound.
C. isotope ratio.
D. stochastic isomer.
36. Which statement accurately describes isomers?
A. They possess differing numbers of neutrons in their nuclei.
B. They have the same molecular shape but involve different elements.
C. They have the same structural formula but different molecular formulas.
D. They have the same molecular formula but different structural formulas.
E. They have gained or lost electrons at their outer shell.
5. Which of the following statements accurately describes electrons?
A. They are found inside the nucleus and have a positive charge. B. They are in orbitals outside the nucleus and have a positive charge.
C. They are found inside the nucleus and have a negative charge.
D. They are in orbitals outside the nucleus and have a negative charge.
37. REDUCTION= Gains Electrons/ DECREASES in OXYDATION number
38. OXYDATION: Looses Electrons [o.i.l .r.i.g.] / INCREASES in Oxydation Number
74. When the pH of an acidic solution is brought to 7.0, that change is called __________.
neutralization
71. The higher the concentration of H+ is, the lower the pH is.
TRUE
74. Ionic bond- electrons completely lost or gained
Nonpolar Covalent- electrons shared equally
Hydrogen- Occur when the positively charged H of one molecule is attracted to the negatively charged O
- Most abundant in the human body- C/H/O/N
Most abundant in the human body- C/H/O/N
74. Most abundant in the human body- C/H/O/N
75. To neutralize a base, a(n) ________ must be added.
A. acid
B. buffer
C. weak base
D. hydroxide ion
49. An individual hydrogen bond in a sample of water would be described as:
A. strong and intramolecular.
B. strong and intermolecular.
C. weak and intramolecular.
D. weak and intermolecular.
48. Phospholipids are described as:
A. polar.
B. nonpolar.
C. amphipathic.
D. amphiprotic.
47. Fatty acids consist mainly of carbon and hydrogen, and so fatty acids are:
A. nonpolar and do not dissolve in water.
B. nonpolar and dissolve in water.
C. polar and do not dissolve in water.
D. polar and dissolve in water.
43. When two atoms with very different electronegativity share electrons a polar covalent bond is
formed.
TRUE
41. A double covalent bond involves:
A. the sharing of one pair of electrons.
B. the sharing of two pairs of electrons.
C. the donation of one pair of electrons.
D. the donation of two pairs of electrons.
54. An individual water molecule contains ______ atoms and enters into ______ hydrogen bonds with
other water molecules.
A. two, two
B. three, two
C. three, three
D. three, four
E. three, six
56. The hydrogen bonds in a sample of water result in ________ cohesion and a _____ heat of
vaporization.
A. increased, high
B. increased, low
C. decreased, high
D. decreased, low
55. Water has a:
A. high specific heat, and this tends to cause large amounts of sweating.
B. high specific heat, and this tends to keep body temperature relatively constant.
C. low specific heat, and this tends to lead to variability in body temperature.
D. low specific heat, and this tends to minimize sweating.
E. low specific heat, and this tends to result in chills and shivering.
60. When an acid is placed in water, the acid:
A. does not dissolve or dissociate.
B. dissolves but does not dissociate.
C. dissolves and dissociates.
D. dissociates, but does not dissolve.
61. When a nonpolar molecule is placed in water it will:
A. neither dissolve nor carry electrical current.
B. dissolve and carry electrical current.
C. dissociate and carry electrical current.
D. carry electrical current but not dissolve nor dissociate.
76. Generally, a chemical buffer is described as:
A. a strong acid or strong base that bring the pH of a solution to 7.0.
B. a weak acid and weak base that help prevent big changes in pH.
1. Anything that has mass and occupies space is considered to be ________.
matter
3.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which of the following has the smallest mass?
An electron
An atomic nucleus
A proton
A neutron
9. When diagramming an atom, the innermost shell is filled with ______ electrons.
A. two
18. Another name for the outer electron shell of an atom is the ________ shell.
valence
12. Two atoms that differ only in the number of neutrons they contain are known as:
A. anions.
B. isomers.
C. isotopes.
D. ions.
107. RNA is:
A. single-stranded and contains thymine.
B. single-stranded and contains uracil.
108. DNA replication - Semi-conservative
109. ADD IN ABOUt ….
- DNA read by  RNA  To Make Proteins
 Cytosine: Guanine
 Adenine: Thymine
- RNA SINGLE STRAND
- DNA- Transcription (formation of RNA)
110. Cytoskeleton- organized network of protein filaments and hollow tubules that provide organization,
support, and movement throughout cell
98. The two fatty acids within a phospholipid molecule make up its:
A. nonpolar heads.
B. polar heads.
C. nonpolar tails.
D. polar tails.
94. When a large biological molecule is digested by the addition of water, the reaction is termed
_________.
hydrolysis
93. When biological molecules engage in condensation, such reactions are _________ reactions.
A. synthesis = Two AMINO acids
B. hydrolysis
C. catabolic
D. amphipathic
E. ergonomic
79. Which of the following statements accurately describes the solutes within a solution?
A. Water is the universal solute, and solutes are more abundant in solutions than solvents are.
B. The solutes are not visible, do not scatter light, and do not settle if the solution is left standing.
87. Inorganic molecules DO NOT contain carbon.
TRUE
84. Molarity is measured in the units of moles solute/L solution.
TRUE
88. Water and sodium chloride are examples of inorganic molecules.
TRUE
92. A polymer is made up of several subunits called __________.
monomers
91. Proteins are:
A. polymers made up of amino acid monomers.
B. monomers.
C. monomers made of repeating subunits of polymers.
D. neither monomers nor polymers.
E. polymers made of repeating units of carbohydrates.
97. The most common lipids in the body are:
A. triglycerides, and they are used for energy storage in adipose.
101. The simple sugar glucose is an example of a:
A. monosaccharide.
B. lipid.
C. polysaccharide.
D. polymer.
E. glycogen.
104. Nucleic acids are made up of:
A. nucleotides joined by covalent, phosphodiester bonds
105. The three parts making up a nucleotide are:
A. a purine, a pyrimidine, and a ribose sugar.
B. a five carbon sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base.
C. an adenine, a guanine, and a cytosine.
D. a double helix, a single strand, and a chromosome.
E. a phosphorous, a deoxygenated ribose, and an amino acid.
112. Hemoglobin in blood, collagen in tendons, and enzymes in the digestive system are all examples of:
A. proteins.
B. lipids.
C. amino acids.
D. carbohydrates.
E. catalysts.
109. ATP is a nucleotide that is composed of:
A. adenine, ribose, and three covalently bonded phosphate groups.
116. When dehydration synthesis occurs between two amino acids, a covalent bond called a _________
bond forms between them.
peptide
113. Which of the following lists describes three of the main functions served by proteins?
A. Waterproofing, energy storage, and transmission of the genetic code
B. Cushioning of organs, thermal insulation, and establishing cell boundaries
C. Catalysis of chemical reactions, body defenses, and movement
117. Which list contains all four types of amino acids?
A. Ionic, covalent, hydrogen, and van der Waals
B. Charged, polar, nonpolar, and those with special functions
C. Glutamate, aspartate, arginine, and thymine
D. Polar, nonpolar, ionic, and hydrophobic
118. Amino acids such as alanine contain hydrocarbons as side groups, and these amino acids engage in
hydrophobic interactions with each other. Such amino acids are:
A. charged.
B. hydrostatic.
C. polar.
D. nonpolar.
E. polyunsaturated.
6. An element's atomic number is determined by the number of __________ in one atom of that
element.
A. protons
B. nuclei
C. electrons
6. __________ is a monomer that is stored as the polymer glycogen within the liver and muscle.
Glucose
42. Pancreatic amylase serves its function when it is located in the:
A. mouth.
B. blood.
C. liver.
D. stomach.
E. small intestine.
51. In performing its enzymatic function, carbonic anhydrase:
A. requires the inorganic coenzyme zinc.
44. The enzyme DNA polymerase is:
A. synthesized at a ribosome, and it remains within the cell.
58. Both pepsin and trypsin are proteins that digest proteins.
TRUE
69. The less acidic (more basic) the environment is, the more efficient an enzyme will be.
FALSE
67. The optimal pH range for most human enzymes is:
A. 1-2
B. 4-6
C. 6-8
D. 8-10
E. 13-14
115. The number of ATP generated by glycolysis of one glucose molecule is _____.
2 or two
116. The total number of ATP generated by the breakdown of glucose is 38, but the net number of ATP
generated is:
A. 2.
B. 24.
C. 30.
D. 36.
E. 40.
123. At rest, muscle tissue prefers to use _________ molecules as sources of fuel.
A. pyruvate
B. fatty acid
C. insulin
D. protein
E. simple carbohydrate
124. Fatty acids enter the cell respiration pathway at:
A. the citric acid cycle once they have been converted to acetyl CoA.
121. If oxygen levels drop such that glucose metabolism becomes primarily anaerobic, then the amount
of ATP produced per glucose molecule will:
A. increase slightly.
B. remain roughly the same.
C. be halved.
D. decrease to much less than half of what it was.
111. The electron transport chain functions in:
A. anaerobic respiration, and involves proteins in the outer membrane of mitochondria.
B. anaerobic respiration, and involves proteins in the cristae of mitochondria.
C. aerobic respiration, and involves proteins in the outer membrane of mitochondria.
D. aerobic respiration, and involves proteins in the cristae of mitochondria.
108. One turn of the citric acid cycle results in the formation of:
A. 1 ATP, 3 NADH, and 1 FADH2.
99. If insufficient oxygen is available for the anaerobic breakdown of pyruvate, it is converted to
_________.
lactate or
lactic acid
91. The first stage of cellular respiration is:
A. electron transport, and it occurs in the cytosol.
B. electron transport, and it occurs in the mitochondria.
C. glycolysis, and it occurs in the cytosol.= anaerobic repiration
34. The presence of mitochondria and myoglobin facilitate _________ respiration in muscle cells.
A. aerobic B. anaerobic
32)What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles?
A. Tropomyosin is the name of the contracting unit
B. Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites
on the actin molecules
C. Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on the
myosin molecules
D. Tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmittier
E. None of the above
36. A motor unit consists of:
A. multiple motor neurons and multiple muscle fibers. B. a single motor neuron and the multiple muscle fibers it controls. (80-120% length)
C. multiple motor neurons and the one muscle fiber they control. D. one synaptic terminal button, a cleft, and an acetylcholine receptor. E. an end plate, T-tubule, and sarcoplasmic reticulum.
61. Glycolysis is an:
A. aerobic process that occurs in the cytosol. B. aerobic process that occurs in the mitochondria.
C. anaerobic process that occurs in the cytosol.
90. Which of the following choices lists the order of stages of cellular respiration in proper order?
A. Glycolysis, intermediate stage, citric acid cycle, and the electron transport system
79. Potassium has a higher concentration: A. inside the cell versus outside the cell, and sodium is also more concentrated inside versus outside the
cell. B. inside the cell versus outside the cell, whereas sodium has a higher concentration outside versus inside
the cell.
 Outside of the Resting Plasma membrane= (+) Positively charged.
 REST: Ion Concentration= 1) Na/K Pump, 2) Membrane Permeability
o HIGH Concentration= Na / Cl – OUTSIDE
o HIGH Concentration = K / Large (-) Proteins—INSIDE
45)During depolarization of the plasma membrane,
 A) sodium ions move rapidly into the cell.
84. When one glucose molecule is fully oxidized, how many molecules of CO2 result?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
82. Phosphorylation is carried out by a:
A. kinase, and it results in the negative feedback inhibition of an enzyme.
B. kinase, and it may activate some enzymes and inhibit others.
81. A protein kinase is an enzyme that adds a phosphate to its substrate.
TRUE
79. Enzymes that remove phosphate groups from their substrates are called __________.
phosphatases or
phosphatase
68. The optimal range for the stomach enzyme pepsin is:
A. 2-4
B. 6-8
C. 7.3-7.4
D. 10-12
E. 12.0-13.5
60. Saturation occurs when:
A. there is so much enzyme present that the reaction rate decreases if more is added.
B. all enzymes are busy and further increases in substrate concentration will not increase reaction rate.
54. An enzyme that is described as a protein kinase is a:
A. hydrolase that removes an amino acid from a protein.
B. transferase that transfers a phosphate group to a protein substrate.
52. Which enzyme class splits a chemical bond in the absence of water?
A. Ligase
B. Oxidoreductase
C. Lyase
D. Hydrolase
E. Dehydrogenase
8.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Three molecules that are important energy storage locations in the body are:
DNA, tRNA, and rRNA.
glucose, glucagon, and glycogen.
ATP, glycogen, and triglyceride.
ADP, DNA, and mRNA.
glucagon, insulin, and protein.
11. Which is a form of energy that is generally unavailable to do any work?
A. Heat
B. Kinetic energy
C. Radiant energy
D. Sound energy
E. Mechanical energy
13. According to the second law of thermodynamics, when energy is transformed from one kind to
another:
A. some of it is converted to heat.
B. some energy is destroyed.
C. new energy is created.
D. homeostasis is maintained.
E. chemical bonds must be broken.
14. When we shiver on a cold day, the heat produced by muscle tissue is a demonstration of:
A. radiant potential energy.
B. the first law of thermodynamics.
C. the second law of thermodynamics.
D. the creation of energy.
19. The reaction in which water and carbon dioxide combine to form carbonic acid is:
A. irreversible, as carbonic acid rapidly causes a drop in pH.
B. reversible, and can proceed in either direction depending on the concentrations of the molecules.
C. exergonic, and is an important energy source within the body.
D. an exchange reaction in which protons are transferred between atoms.
E. a catabolic reaction in which the formation of a larger molecule can lead to an increase in cell size
20. The building of complex molecules from simpler ones is described as:
A. anabolism.
B. catabolism.
C. exergonic.
D. irreversible.
E. reversible.
21. When the body's digestive system breaks down starch, a complex carbohydrate, into simpler
carbohydrates the reaction is:
A. anabolic and endergonic.
B. anabolic and exergonic.
C. catabolic and exergonic.
D. catabolic and endergonic.
22. Which one of the following choices includes three descriptions that are consistent with each other
(that is, that describe the same type of chemical reaction)?
A. Anabolic, dehydration, endergonic
B. Exchange, hydrolysis, endergonic
C. Catabolic, dehydration, irreversible
D. Metabolic, synthesis, exergonic
E. Anabolic, catabolic, dehydration
23. The exchange of a phosphate group between creatine phosphate and adenosine diphosphate(ADP)
is categorized as a catabolic (rather than anabolic) reaction.
FALSE
10. Creatine phosphate – convert ADP to ATP
*******************IMPORTANT***** KNOW ALL ALL ALLL ALL ALLLLL of the
STEPS***********************
26. In a chemical reaction where an electron is exchanged from one reactant to another, the structure
that loses an electron is:
A. analyzed.
B. catalyzed.
C. oxidized.
D. reduced.
28. Generally, a cell stores enough ATP to meet the energy requirements of a few:
A. seconds.
B. minutes.
C. hours.
D. days.
39. Structurally, enzymes are generally:
A. globular proteins.
B. fibrous proteins.
C. spherical carbohydrates.
D. elongated carbohydrates.
E. four ring steroids.
40. The region of an enzyme into which the substrate fits is a:
A. one size fits all active site.
B. highly specific active site.
35. The presence of an enzyme within a chemical system:
A. increases activation energy.
B. decreases activation energy
33. The term "activation energy" refers to the:
A. amount of energy released by an exergonic reaction.
B. amount of energy released by an endergonic reaction.
C. amount of energy released by a catabolic reaction.
D. amount of energy required to initiate any chemical reaction.
29. ATP formation:
A. is endergonic and liberates energy for cellular processes that require energy.
B. is endergonic and requires the presence of fuel molecules such as glucose.
24. The term "metabolism" refers to:
A. reactions involving the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones.
B. reactions involving the breakdown of complex molecules or the exchange of atoms between similarly
sized reactants.
C. all the chemical reactions in the body.
16. When our inner ears convert sound energy into neural impulses or our retinas convert light into
neural impulses:
A. no heat is generated, and so it is an exception to the first law of thermodynamics.
B. it is an exception to both laws of thermodynamics, since no usable energy is lost.
C. it is consistent with the second law of thermodynamics, but an exception to the first.
D. the conversion is consistent with both laws of thermodynamics.
2. The energy of motion is known as _________ energy.
kinetic
3. The sodium level inside and outside of a resting cell is described as an example of the:
A. kinetic energy of sodium rushing out of a cell down its concentration gradient.
B. kinetic energy of the large difference in sodium concentration on the inside versus the outside of the
cell.
C. potential energy of a concentration gradient, since sodium is more abundant outside the cell.
D. potential energy of an electron transport chain, since sodium has an extra electron to donate.
E. conversion of potential energy to kinetic energy, since sodium can never move across the cell
membrane and must move across its surface.
5.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
As a runner sprints down a track, her movement is an example of:
potential energy.
mechanical energy.
heat.
radiant energy.
chemical energy.
98. The term "codon" refers to:
A. a three-nucleotide sequence of DNA that codes for a protein.
B. an amino acid that is coded for by three bases of DNA.
C. a three-base sequence of mRNA.
D. the part of a rRNA molecule where a new amino acid is added.
E. the part of tRNA that is a triplet of bases that forms hydrogen bonds with complementary sequences.
96. The process of reading a mRNA molecule and synthesizing a protein is known as __________.
translation
87. Which is not one of the bases found in DNA nucleotides?
A. Adenine
B. Cytosine
C. Guanine
D. Thymine
E. Diamine
89. The nuclear envelope consists primarily of:
A. a double helix of DNA.
B. ribosomal subunits.
C. two phospholipid bilayers.
D. messenger RNA.
86. The building blocks that form the DNA double helix are called:
A. nucleoli.
B. nucleotides.
C. steroid bases.
D. nitrogenous acids.
E. nuclear pores.
95. The coding regions of the DNA that are both transcribed and translated are the ________.
exons
91. Which statement is accurate?
A. DNA is made up entirely of genes; a chromosome is the unwoven form of chromatin.
B. A sequence of nucleotides in DNA constitutes a gene; DNA and associated proteins form chromatin.
92. During transcription:
A. an RNA molecule is formed as a DNA sequence is read.
B. a protein is formed as a DNA sequence is read.
C. a DNA sequence is formed as a RNA sequence is read.
D. an amino acid is transferred to a ribosome as a DNA sequence is read.
E. a protein is formed as a RNA sequence is read.
93. Which of the following is considered a required enzyme for the process of transcription?
A. Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
B. DNA polymerase
C. RNA polymerase
D. amine transferase
94. If the sequence of DNA nucleotides being read is TTACTG, then transcription results in the formation
of the sequence:
A. AAUGAC
B. TTUGUC
C. GTCATT
D. TTACTG
E. AAAGGG
111. Cytokinesis usually begins before ________ ends.
A. prophase
B. interphase
C. metaphase
D. anaphase
E. telophase
117. Mitochondria engage in aerobic cellular respiration to complete the digestion of fuel molecules to
allow for transfer of energy for the synthesis of ATP.
TRUE
121. Everything packaged by the Golgi apparatus for secretion leaves the cell within a vesicle.
TRUE
122. Lysosomes contain enzymes that prepare the vesicles that will be used by the Golgi apparatus to
package its secretory products.
FALSE
55. The release of neurotransmitter from a neuron is an example of:
A. endocytosis and is a form of passive transport.
B. receptor mediated endocytosis and it requires expenditure of ATP.
C. exocytosis and is a form of passive transport.
D. exocytosis and it requires expenditure of ATP.
45. Cell shrinking, also known as crenation, occurs when a cell is placed into a(n) _________ solution.
A. isotonic
B. hypertonic
C. hypotonic
D. exergonic
36. The movement of glucose across a plasma membrane is achieved by:
A. ion pumps.
B. receptor-mediated exocytosis.
C. osmosis.
D. facilitated diffusion.
E. phagocytosis.
39. Osmosis is the diffusion of:
A. water within the inside of a cell.
B. water across a membrane.
C. solutes within the inside of a cell.
D. solutes across a membrane.
38. During osmosis, water moves toward the solution with the _________ solute concentration.
A. greater
B. lesser
40. Water can only cross cell membranes by way of channel-mediated diffusion.
FALSE
41. The pressure that must be exerted onto a solution in order to prevent water from diffusing into that
solution through a semi-permeable membrane is called ___________ pressure.
osmotic
42. Consider a cell with a total internal solute concentration of 0.9%. Placing the cell in which bath
solution would result in creation of the greatest osmotic pressure in the cell?
A. 0.5% NaCl
B. 0.9% NaCl
C. 1.2% NaCl
43. Placing a red blood cell in an extremely hypertonic solution leads to hemolysis.
FALSE
44. When a cell is placed in a solution with a very low solute concentration, water diffuses into the
cell. Such a solution is called a(n) _________ solution.
A. hypertonic
B. hypotonic
C. isotonic
D. endergonic
51. Symport active transporters move two substances across the membrane in the same direction.
TRUE
46. Physiological saline contains the same concentration of solutes as the inside of a cell, and it is
therefore an __________ solution.
isotonic
47. The sodium-potassium ATPase functions by performing:
A. primary active transport.
49. The sodium-potassium pump moves ions against their concentration gradients and helps maintain
an electrochemical gradient across the plasma membrane.
TRUE (NOT ANTIPORT)
48. The sodium-potassium pump moves: ( NOT ANTIPORT)
A. sodium and potassium into the cell.
B. sodium and potassium out of the cell.
C. sodium into the cell and potassium out of the cell.
D. sodium out of the cell and potassium into the cell.
52. Coupled transport that involves the moving of one substance against its concentration gradient by
using energy from a second substance moving down its concentration gradient is known as:
A. primary active transport.
B. receptor-mediated endocytosis.
C. bulk transport.
D. sympathetic exocytosis.
E. secondary active transport.
50. If a transport protein moves two solutes across a membrane in opposite directions, the protein is
called a countertransporter or _________.
antiporter or
antiport or
antiport secondary active transport or
antiport secondary active transporter
54. The type of vesicular transport by which large molecules or large amounts of substances are
secreted from a cell is _________.
exocytosis
67. Identify the organelle that provides enzymes for autolysis.
A. Peroxisomes
B. Mitochondria
C. Smooth ER
D. Golgi apparatus
E. Lysosomes
57. When a cell surrounds a large particle with pseudopodia and then engulfs it, the process is called:
A. exocytosis.
B. phagocytosis.
C. pinocytosis.
58. Pinocytosis is the process in which the cell:
A. interalizes ("drinks") a droplet of interstitial fluid.
63. When ligands bind to them, ___________ receptors directly phosphorylate enzymes within the cell.
A.
B.
C.
D.
enzymatic
channel-linked
G protein-coupled
phosphatase
64. Channel-linked receptors are also known as __________ gated channels.
chemically
65. Which choice describes the activation steps of a G protein-coupled receptor properly (and in
correct order)?
A. Ligand binds to receptor, G protein activated, effector protein activated, second messenger made
available
B. Ligand binds to receptor, second messenger activated, G protein turned on, protein kinase activated
C. Protein kinase activated, ion channel opened, ions enter and activate second messenger, G protein
turned on
D. Ion channel opened, G protein activated, second messenger synthesized, phosphatase ends signal
66. The _________ are responsible for synthesizing most of a human body cell's ATP.
A. lysosomes
B. microfilaments
C. nucleoli
D. ribosomes
E. mitochondria
70. Which is an active transport process?
A. Simple diffusion
B. Bulk filtration
C. Osmosis
D. Facilitated diffusion
E. Ion pump
77. The folds of the internal membrane of a mitochondrion are called:
A. matrix.
B. vesicles.
C. vacuoles.
D. cristae.
E. cisternae.
72. Exocytosis occurs as a result of:
A. hydrostatic pressure.
B. the expenditure of energy in the form of ATP.
C. molecular movement with carrier assistance.
D. concentration gradients.
E. ion pumps.
73. In order to process digested nutrients and detoxify chemical agents such as drugs and alcohol, the
______ contains abundant amounts of smooth ER.
A. liver
B. kidney
C. small intestine
D. pancreas
75. Removal of old organelles is via a process called:
A. pinocytosis.
B. autophagy.
C. autolysis.
D. filtration.
E. vascularization.
76. Catalase-containing peroxisomes are most abundant in ______ cells.
A. liver
B. kidney
C. pancreas
D. thymus
E. pituitary
78. The organelles responsible for organizing microtubules that are part of the mitotic spindle are
called:
A. centrioles.
B. nucleoli.
C. microvilli.
D. cilia.
E. vesicles.
81. Since they produce ribosome subunits, one would expect to find large numbers of nucleoli in cells
that synthesize:
A. energy sources.
B. pigments.
C. solubility enhancing substances.
D. steroid hormones.
E. proteins.
82. Which are the smallest components of the cytoskeleton?
A. Microtubules
B. Microfilaments
C. Intermediate filaments
D. Centrosomes
E. Centrioles
84. These junctions hold adjacent cells together and provide resistance to mechanical stress.
A. Gap junctions
B. Desmosomes
C. Tight junctions
D. Synapses
116. Lysosome functions range from the digestion of materials ingested by the cell to the selfdestruction of the cell.
TRUE
143. The two identical cells that arise from mitosis are called ____________ cells.
daughter
141. DNA is organized into discrete units called ____________ that provide information for the
production of specific proteins.
genes
140. The cytoskeleton has three separate components: microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and
______________.
microtubules
139. _____________ ribosomes are responsible for the synthesis of proteins that remain within the cell.
Free
36. The movement of glucose across a plasma membrane is achieved by:
A. ion pumps.
B. receptor-mediated exocytosis.
C. osmosis.
D. facilitated diffusion.
E. phagocytosis.
35. Channel-mediated diffusion is a subtype of:
A. simple diffusion.
B. carrier-mediated diffusion.
C. active transport.
D. facilitated diffusion.
E. endocytosis.
134. _______________ transport is required to move a substance across a membrane against a
concentration gradient.
Active
135. A cell-mediated process that transports large molecules across the plasma membrane and out of
the cell is called ________________.
exocytosis
34. Which is a passive transport process?
A. Phagocytosis
B. Pinocytosis
C. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
D. Osmosis
E. Ion pump
32. Diffusion rate is fastest when the concentration gradient is:
A. steepest and temperature is highest.
B. steepest and temperature is at body temperature.
C. slightest and temperature is highest.
D. slightest and temperature is at body temperature.
E. slightest and temperature is lowest.
31. Movement of a substance from an area of higher concentration to one where it is less concentrated
is known as:
A. equilibrium.
B. active transport.
C. diffusion.
D. facilitation.
E. selective transport.
27. Some membrane proteins are not embedded within the lipid bilayer but are instead anchored
loosely to either the inner or outer surface. Such proteins are called _________ proteins.
peripheral
25. Glycolipids are found on the:
A. outer layer of the cell membrane, and they help make the sticky sugar coating on its surface.
B. middle layer of the cell membrane, and they function to transmit solutes through the membrane.
C. inner layer of the cell membrane, and they provide scaffold support to the cell membrane.
D. inside of the cell, where they are a source of high energy nutrition to power mitochondria.
24. The most abundant lipid of the membrane consists of a head and two tails. This type of lipid is:
A. a phospholipid.
B. cholesterol.
C. glycolipid.
D. glycoprotein.
E. a steroid.
23. The lipid that stabilizes the membrane at extreme temperatures and is found in the hydrophobic
regions of the bilayer is:
A. the polar head.
B. the nonpolar tails.
C. cholesterol.
D. glycolipid.
E. glycocalyx.
10. Another name for the intracellular fluid is:
A. cytosol.
B. interstitial fluid.
C. intercellular matrix.
D. cytoplasm.
E. cisternae.
21. Which of the following choices describes three general functions cells must perform?
A. Maintain shape, obtain nutrients, and dispose of wastes
B. Respond to all hormones, maintain a waterproof barrier, give rise to gametes
C. Grow until dividing, store complex carbohydrates, generate antibodies
D. Take up oxygen, prevent water entry, undergo mitosis frequently