Which of the following drugs is a generic for Coumadin? A. Ticlopidine B. Warfarin C. Metoprolol D.
Clopidogrel
The last two digits of an NDC number indicate:
A.
manufacturer.
B.
active ingredient.
C.
package size.
D.
expiration date.
Which of the following is a valid DEA number for Dr. Thomas Jones?
A.
AT1234560
B.
AJ1234563
C.
AJ2345615
D.
AT2683517
The key (B) is correct because the second letter of a valid DEA number is always the initial of the
prescriber’s last name. If a DEA number is valid, the sum of the first, third, and fifth digits added to
twice the sum of the second, fourth, and sixth digits yields a number with the same last digit as the
seventh digit of the DEA number. For the key (B), you add (1+3+5) to 2x(2+4+6) and the sum is 9+24=33;
3 is the seventh digit. Performing the same operation with Distractor (C) gives the sum (2+4+6) +
2x(3+5+1) = 12+18=30, but 0 is not the seventh digit of the DEA number listed.
A patient who is allergic to penicillin has a chance of cross sensitivity to which of the following
medications?
A.
Cephalexin
B.
Moxifloxacin
C.
Doxycycline
D.
Azithromycin
The key (A) is correct as it is a cephalosporin and known to have a history of possible cross sensitivity
with patients who have had a reaction to penicillin. Distractors (B), (C), and (D) are incorrect because
moxifloxacin is in the fluoroquinolone group, doxycycline is in the tetracycline group, and azithromycin
is in the macrolide antibiotic group. None of these has a history of cross sensitivity with penicillin.
A pharmacy technician receives a prescription from a patient. The patient needs all medications to be
crushed. Which of the following would you alert the pharmacist to before entering in the prescription?
A.
Oxybutynin immediate release 5 mg tablet
B.
Metformin 500 mg sustained action tablet
C.
Potassium 10 mg dispersible tablet
D.
Furosemide 40 mg tablet
The key (B) is correct because the sustained action mechanism will be compromised when the tablet is
crushed. Immediate release and dispersible tablets can be crushed.
Chemotherapy agents should be stored:
A.
alphabetically by trade name.
B.
in a separately identified area.
C.
alphabetically by generic name.
D.
in a locked cabinet.
he key (B) is correct because for safety reasons chemotherapy drugs should be kept in a separate area
but do not need to be in a locked cabinet or stored alphabetically.
An essential component of pharmacy quality assurance programs is to:
A.
maintain standards set by the DEA.
B.
focus on the individual employee's work performance.
C.
get the right drug to the right patient at the right time.
D.
provide adequate emergency stock levels.
The key (C) is correct because pharmacy quality assurance programs are put in place to guarantee the
“rights” of pharmacy practice. Although Distractors (A) and (D) may be included in the program, they
are not essential components. Distractor (B) is incorrect because quality assurance programs are
intended to apply to performance of the department rather than individuals.
Concerning needle recapping, which of the following is correct?
A.
Used insulin needles are small enough that they can be disposed of in regular garbage
B.
Used immunization needles should be recapped before being placed in the sharps container
C.
Used immunization needles should never be recapped
D.
Used insulin needles are small enough that they can safely be recapped before being placed in a sharps
container
The key (C) is correct because used needles should never be recapped and should always be disposed of
in a sharps container.
A physician orders phenobarbital elixir 60 mg for a patient. The drug is available in a 20 mg/5 mL
concentration. How many teaspoonfuls should be given for each dose?
A.
1
B.
2
C.
3
D.
4
The key (C) is correct because each dose is 15 mL (20 mg/5 mL = 60 mg/X mL, solve for X). 1 teaspoonful
is 5 mL, so 15 mL is 3 teaspoonfuls.
Upon obtaining initial patient information, the pharmacy technician should:
A.
review the information with other pharmacy staff to ensure clarity.
B.
ensure that the patient understands the side effects of current medication.
C.
recommend additional pharmacotherapy.
D.
document known allergies.
he key (D) is correct because obtaining allergies is necessary for patient care and for the pharmacist
accurately performing drug utilization review. Distractor (A) does not apply because it is subjective, and
Distractors (B) and (C) are outside of the technician’s scope of practice.
When mixing dry powder with 150 mL of distilled water to process a prescription order calling for
reconstituted oral antibiotic suspension, 40 doses of 5 mL each, the final suspension, in milliliters,
accounted for by the dry drug is:
A.
50
B.
100
C.
150
D.
200
The key (A) is correct because the total volume needed is 40 x 5 mL = 200 mL. Dry powder accounts for
the difference between the total volume and the volume added: 200 mL – 150 mL = 50 mL.
A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for insulin with the Sig reading "52 units q.a.m. and 48
units q.p.m." As the prescription is entered into the patient's profile, the technician notices that the patient
may not be taking medications as directed, and compliance may be an issue. What should the technician
do?
A.
Show the information to the pharmacist for consultation with the patient.
B.
Omit alerting the pharmacist to the patient's possible misuse of medication.
C.
Assume that the patient and his or her physician have discussed this situation.
D.
Consult with the patient about proper dosing of his or her medication.
The key (A) is correct as the technician has identified a possible misuse of medication by a patient, and it
is the responsibility of the pharmacist to counsel with the patient. Distractors (B) and (C) could be
considered negligence on the part of the technician. Distractor (D) would be outside of the technician’s
scope of practice; counseling is a pharmacist’s responsibility.
The requirement that a non-formulary medication be covered only if approved by the third-party payer is
called:
A.
claims reconciliation.
B.
capitation payment.
C.
prior authorization.
D.
claims adjudication.
The key (C) is correct because it is the definition of the term prior authorization. The distractors do not
require that a non-formulary medication be covered if approved by the third-party payer.
Durable medical equipment may be reimbursable to the pharmacy under Medicare Part:
A.
A.
B.
B.
C.
C.
D.
D.
The key (B) is correct because Medicare Part B covers the medical costs. Distractor (A) covers
hospitalization, Distractor (C) is for supplemental coverage, and Distractor (D) is for prescriptions.
An outpatient prescription requires which of the following?
A.
Medication lot number
B.
Pharmacy address and phone number
C.
Physician's phone number and address
D.
Medical conditions
The key (C) is correct because it is the only information that is required on an outpatient prescription.
The distractors (A), (B), and (D) are not required.
For a medication to be within the 5% margin of error permitted by the USP, the minimum amount that
can be weighed on a Class A prescription balance is:
A.
6 mg.
B.
12 mg.
C.
120 mg.
D.
120 g.
The key (C) is correct as the Class A balance has a sensitivity requirement of 6 mg. 5% of 120 mg is 6 mg
(0.05 x 120 mg = 6 mg). Distractor (A) refers to the measure of sensitivity of a Class A balance. Distractor
(B) is incorrect as that is a 10% margin of error. Distractor (D) is incorrect as that is usually the maximum
capacity that a Class A balance may weight
SolutionClose
The key (C) is correct as the Class A balance has a sensitivity requirement of 6 mg. 5% of 120 mg is 6
mg (0.05 x 120 mg = 6 mg). Distractor (A) refers to the measure of sensitivity of a Class A balance.
Distractor (B) is incorrect as that is a 10% margin of error. Distractor (D) is incorrect as that is usually the
maximum capacity that a Class A balance may weigh.
For a medication to be within the 5% margin of error permitted by the USP, the minimum amount that
can be weighed on a Class A prescription balance is:
A.
6 mg.
B.
12 mg.
C.
120 mg.
D.
120 g.
Productivity reports are primarily used by pharmacy management and staff to:
A.
identify poorly performing staff.
B.
evaluate and improve workflow.
C.
look for ways to reduce inventory.
D.
comply with federal and state law.
The key (B) is correct because productivity reports refer to the actions of personnel and are not product
related. Productivity reports relate to personnel activity to improve efficiency in the department.
Distractor (A) is incorrect as it is more focused on the individual. Distractor (C) is product driven.
Distractor (D) is not correct as productivity reports are based on individual sites per own policies and
procedures.
In The Orange Book the letter "AB" rating indicates that products:
A.
are considered bioequivalent.
B.
required clinical trials to determine the preferred route of administration.
C.
required clinical trials to determine the efficacy of the drug.
D.
are considered therapeutically nonequivalent.
The key (A) is correct as bioequivalence describes pharmaceutical equivalent or alternative products
that display comparable bioavailability when studied under similar experimental conditions. Distractor
(B) is incorrect as bioequivalence studies are not studying the route of administration. Distractor (C) is
incorrect as bioequivalence studies are not studying the efficacy of the drug. Distractor (D) is incorrect
as the products compared are considered therapeutically equivalent not nonequivalent.
Which of the following products or services does OBRA require pharmacists to offer to Medicaid
patients?
A.
Package inserts
B.
Discount prices
C.
Counseling
D.
Delivery
The key (C) is correct, as it is the only choice that OBRA mandates. Distractors (A), (B), and (D) are not
mandated.
Special IV tubing is recommended for the administration of:
A.
nitroglycerin.
B.
ciprofloxacin.
C.
gentamicin.
D.
The key (A) is correct due to the issue of nitroglycerin absorption by polyvinyl chloride (PVC) tubing.
Nitroglycerin injection should be used with the least absorptive infusion tubing (i.e., non-PVC tubing).
Distractors (B), (C), and (D) do not have this issue and are all antibiotics whereas the correct answer is
not.
Which of the medications is on the Institute for Safe Medication Practices List of Confused Drug Names
because it is available in two different chemical forms that can be easily confused?
A.
Labetalol
B.
Hydralazine
C.
Nifedipine
D.
Metoprolol
The key (D) is correct because Metoprolol comes in Tartrate and Succinate and should be double
checked for correct formulation. Distractors (A), (B), and (C) only come in single chemical formulation.
The primary routing mechanism for a real-time third-party prescription claim is a:
A.
person code.
B.
BIN.
C.
group number.
D.
member number.
The key (B) is the primary mechanism because the BIN identifies the company that is accepting the
billing for the medication. Distractors (A), (C), and (D) are secondary identifiers.
The form used to report theft or significant loss of controlled substances is:
A.
DEA 106
B.
DEA 222
C.
FDA 356
D.
FDA 766
The key (A) is correct as it is the DEA form used to report theft or loss. The distractors are incorrect
because Distractor (B) is a DEA official order form for narcotics. Distractor (C) is an FDA application form
for new drug. Distractor (D) is an FDA application form for relabeling.
A reverse distributor for pharmaceuticals:
A.
distributes pharmaceuticals to hospitals.
B.
removes and disposes of pharmaceutical waste.
C.
transports medications from the manufacturer to the wholesaler.
D.
transports medications in an emergency.
The key (B) is correct as a reverse distributor picks up expired and damaged drugs for disposal as
pharmaceutical waste and does not distribute nor transport drugs for use
The information contained in the manufacturer's package insert for a medication can also be found in:
A.
the Physicians' Desk Reference.
B.
The Red Book.
C.
The Orange Book.
D.
Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy.
The key (A) is correct. Distractor (B) is incorrect as The Red Book deals with pricing. Distractor (C) is
incorrect as The Orange Book lists drugs approved as safe and effective. Distractor (D) is incorrect
because it deals with the science and practice of pharmacy.
When an order is received in the pharmacy, the order invoice must be carefully checked against the:
A.
floor stock.
B.
pharmacy inventory.
C.
purchase order.
D.
want book.
The key (C) is correct because you compare what was ordered to what was received and billed.
Distractors (A) and (B) are existing inventory, and Distractor (D) is a list of items that might need to be
ordered.
Which of the following medications is exempt from the Poison Prevention Packaging Act requirement for
child-resistant containers?
A.
Nitroglycerin sustained release capsules
B.
Potassium chloride
C.
Isosorbide
D.
Cholestyramine powder
The key (D) is correct because cholestyramine powder, unlikely to harm a child in the quantities that are
dispensed but could if ingested at one time, is exempt from the requirement for child-resistant
containers. Although some dosage forms of nitroglycerin (sublingual), potassium chloride (those in unit
dose packages), and isosorbide (dinitrate in sublingual or chewable tablets of 10 mg or less) are also
exempt, other dosage forms of these are not, so these medications, in their current form, are incorrect.
Technology that automatically documents administration of medication using electronic tracking sensors
is known as:
A.
BCMA.
B.
CMS.
C.
DME.
D.
OBRA.
The key (A) is correct because BCMA stands for Bar Code Medication Administration, a technology that
uses electronics to track administration of medication. The other acronyms are not associated with
medication administration tracking technology:
CMS is Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, DME is Durable Medical Equipment, and OBRA is
Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act.
What is the percentage concentration of a solution that contains 500 mg/50 mL?
A.
0.5%
B.
1%
C.
5%
D.
10%
The key (B) is correct because by definition the percentage of a solution is the number of grams in 100
mL. So 0.5 g/50 mL = x/100 mL. Cross multiply 50x = 50 x = 1 g/100 mL or 1%.
When it is necessary to recap a needle, which of the following is correct?
A.
Needles should never be recapped under any circumstances.
B.
Two hands should be used for recapping needles to ensure stability.
C.
The "one-hand scoop" method of recapping is safer than using two hands.
D.
All used needles should be recapped before being placed in a sharps container.
The key (C) is correct. If it is necessary to recap, a one-handed scoop technique uses the needle itself to
pick up the cap and then the cap is pushed against a hard surface to ensure a tight fit onto the device.
Distractor (A) is not correct as there may be times when it is necessary to recap. The preference is not
to recap. Distractor (B) is incorrect as you should not use two hands for recapping. Distractor (D) is
incorrect as most needles should be placed in a sharps container.
The information contained in the manufacturer's package insert may also be found in the:
A.
Orange Book.
B.
Merck Manual.
C.
Physicians' Desk Reference.
D.
Drug Index.
The key (C) is correct because PDR is a book of package inserts. The Orange Book gives bioequivalence
information, the Drug Index gives brand and generic names, and the Merck Manual does not contain
drug information.
Tylenol with codeine liquid is prescribed as "Give 2 teaspoonsful four times daily dispense 120 mL." The
patient is a 2-year-old male. What is a possible reason to alert the pharmacist?
A.
Age
B.
Gender
C.
Quantity of medication
D.
Amount of Tylenol
The key (A) is correct because the daily dose of acetaminophen and codeine are above the
recommended guidelines. Distractors (B) and (C) have no impact to the patient, and Distractor (D)
would be included by choosing the correct answer.
When a patient is required to go to a network healthcare provider, the patient is insured through:
A.
a preferred-provider organization.
B.
workers' compensation.
C.
a pharmacy benefit manager.
D.
a health maintenance organization.
The key (D) is correct because it is the only choice that requires use of a network provider. A PPO may
charge a higher co-pay for out of network. A pharmacy benefit manager is not an insurance plan, and
workers’ compensation is related to the workplace where an injury occurred.
How many bottles of humulin R insulin would be dispensed for a 90 day supply if the prescription states
"Inject 10 units SC every morning, 8 units SC at lunch, and 12 units SC at bedtime"?
A.
1
B.
2
C.
3
D.
5
The key (C) is correct. The patient uses 30 units a day for 90 days. That would be 2700 units needed.
Each 10 mL vial contains 1000 units, so 3 vials would be needed.
Upon receiving notice of a drug recall, a pharmacy technician should immediately:
A.
destroy all stock that has the recalled lot number.
B.
separate out all stock with the recalled lot number for return to the manufacturer.
C.
send all stock with the recalled lot number to the FDA for testing.
D.
call the FDA to report the quantity of recalled drug that the pharmacy has in stock.
he key (B) is correct because all of the affected lot should be quarantined and returned per the
manufacturer’s instructions. Not all product is returned to the manufacturer; some manufacturers have
a third party handle returns such as Steri Cycle. Distractor (A) is incorrect because product is not
destroyed. Distractors (C) and (D) are incorrect because the FDA is a reporting agency, however, the
manufacturer handles recalls and return
The drug information source for a pharmacy technician to check for a possible drug interaction is:
A.
The Red Book.
B.
the American Drug Index.
C.
Remington.
D.
Drug Facts and Comparisons.
The key (D) is correct because Drug Facts and Comparisons has a section on interactions for every listed
drug. The Red Book and American Drug Index do not have this information. Although Remington has
some drug interaction information, it is not as extensive nor complete as that available in Facts and
Comparisons.
A physician prescribes 5 mg of a drug per kilogram of body weight b.i.d. for a patient weighing 110 lb.
How many 0.5 g tablets of the drug are required for a 10-day duration?
A.
5
B.
10
C.
20
D.
40
The key (B) is correct. 110 (body weight) divided by 2.2 (conversion factor) =50 kg x 5 mg (one day dose)
= 250 mg x 2 (bid dose) = 500 mg x 10 days = 5000 divided by 500 (0.5 g = 500 mg) = 10. Distractor (A) is
incorrect as it is only a one day dose. Distractors (C) and (D) are incorrect and would be selected if there
is not an understanding of conversion factors or the abbreviation bid.
Which of the following brand/generic pairs is correct?
A.
Decadron/prednisone
B.
Aleve/ketoprofen
C.
Premarin/estradiol
D.
Ativan/lorazepam
The key (D) is correct because the generic name for Ativan is lorazepam. Distractor (A) is incorrect
because the generic name for Decadron is dexamethasone. Distractor (B) is incorrect because the
generic name for Aleve is naproxen sodium. Distractor (C) is incorrect because the generic name for
Premarin is conjugated estrogen.
For a pharmacy technician assigned to stock replenishment, which item would be considered a high-alert
medication?
A.
Potassium chloride injection 10 mEq/5 mL 30 mL
B.
Ipratropium bromide inhalation solution 0.02% 2.5 mL vials
C.
Epinephrine 0.1% syringes
D.
5% dextrose and 0.45% sodium chloride injection USP 500 mL
The key (A) is correct because of the medications listed, only concentrated KCl injection (2 mEq/mL) is
on The Joint Commission’s high-alert list; the other products are not.
The correct strength of sodium chloride in normal saline IV bags is:
A.
0.45%
B.
0.9%
C.
9.0%
D.
23.4%
The key (B) is correct because by definition, “normal saline” is a solution of 0.9% sodium chloride, a
concentration similar to that of body fluids. Although other strengths of sodium chloride solution are
available, none are properly classified as “normal saline.”
Which of the following vital information should be readily retrievable from an inpatient medication
profile?
A.
Home address and phone number
B.
Previous admissions
C.
Relevant laboratory values
D.
Insurance information
When accepting a refill request from a patient by telephone, the pharmacy technician should obtain which
information in addition to the patient's name?
A.
Medication's name and patient's telephone number
B.
Medication's name and physician's telephone number
C.
NABP number and patient's telephone number
D.
Refill number and DEA number
The key (A) is correct because it allows the technician to find the drug in the patient’s profile and call the
patient back if there is a problem. The patient would not know the NABP or DEA numbers. If the
physician needs to be called for refill authorization, the phone number will be in the computer.
When working with glass ampules to prepare an IV admixture using aseptic technique, which type of
needle must be used?
A.
Vented
B.
Filter
C.
Insulin
D.
Transfer
The key (B) is correct because there could be pieces of glass when breaking the ampule, and a filter
would be necessary. Distractors (A), (C), and (D) identify types of needles that do not have a filter.
According to ASHP guidelines, a quality improvement program for home care should monitor the
patient's:
A.
satisfaction and outcome.
B.
physical examinations and laboratory values.
C.
financial history.
D.
personal history.
The key (A) is correct because patient satisfaction and outcomes would include Distractor (B), physical
examination and laboratory values, and determine the success of home care. Distractors (C) and (D) do
not relate to improved quality of home care at the present time.
Antineoplastic medications should be prepared in which type of hood?
A.
Positive pressure
B.
Horizontal
C.
Laminar
D.
Biological
The key (D) is correct because antineoplastic medications that are classified as hazardous drugs should
always be prepared in an environment that protects the operator from contamination; of those listed,
only the biological safety cabinet is designed to do this. Positive pressure and horizontal hoods actually
send particles outward toward the operator. Although some laminar airflow hoods may qualify as
biological safety cabinets, others may not, so without further information, laminar (term used alone)
cannot be considered correct.
Which of the following is the most important information to collect for a patient's pharmacy profile?
A.
Current marital status
B.
Current employment status
C.
Herbal and dietary supplements used by the patient
D.
Office equipment and supplies used by the patient
The key (C) is correct because although marital and employment status are thought to be correlated
with health issues, herbal and dietary supplements are the most important items of the ones listed as
they may directly interact with prescription medications.
Look-alike/sound-alike medications are addressed in the Accreditation Standards of The Joint
Commission because these products:
A.
are sufficiently separated when placed with the regular medications.
B.
allow quicker filling of prescriptions and faster service to patients.
C.
should be kept locked in the pharmacy safe.
D.
have higher error risk due to picking errors.
The key (D) is correct because as the name implies, look-alike and sound-alike medications may be
mistaken for each other and could lead to a higher risk of selecting the wrong medication.
Which of the following sedative hypnotics is a benzodiazepine?
A.
Zolpidem
B.
Alprazolam
C.
Zalepon
D.
Eszopicione
The key (B) is correct; alprazolam (Xanax) is a benzodiazepine. Distractors (A), (C), and (D) are Ambien,
Sonata, and Lunesta, respectively, and are not benzodiazepines.
The label of a medication that has been repackaged should include the:
A.
prescriber's name.
B.
generic name(s).
C.
wholesaler's name.
D.
patient's name.
The key (B) is correct. A repackaged medication would not have a prescriber’s, wholesaler’s, or patient’s
name, but the label does need the generic name.
A pharmacy technician who places orders for pharmacy purchases has been informed by a manufacturer
that Drug A will no longer be available. The technician should:
A.
file a complaint with the FDA.
B.
inform the patient that the drug is no longer available.
C.
write a letter to the manufacturer to petition for continued production of the drug.
D.
notify the pharmacist to research possible alternative drugs.
The key (D) is correct because the pharmacist has the ultimate responsibility to inform medical providers
of a medication being withdrawn from the market. Distractors (A), (B), and (C) are incorrect as they are
outside of the technician’s scope of practice.
If a third-party payer rejects 15% of submitted claims, how much does the pharmacy lose if it processes
25,000 prescriptions that average a cost of $12.00 each?
A.
$16,666
B.
$20,000
C.
$30,000
D.
$45,000
The key (D) is correct. 15% of 25,000 is 3750. Multiply 3750 by $12.00, and the answer is $45,000.
In the absence of stability information, water-containing formulations (prepared from ingredients in solid
form) should be assigned by a beyond-use date that is:
A.
the same as the expiration date listed on the product.
B.
no later than 30 days.
C.
no later than 14 days when stored at cold temperature.
D.
no later than 25% of the time remaining until the product's expiration date.
The key (C) is correct because per USP <795> pharmaceutical compounding of nonsterile preparations,
water-containing formulations prepared from ingredients in solid form should be kept no longer than 14
days when stored at cold temperatures between 36°F and 46°F. Distractor (A) is incorrect, as a
compounded medication may expire sooner than the expiration date of the product being used to
compound. Distractor (D) is the beyond-use date for a compounded product where the manufactured
drug product is the source of the active ingredient. Distractor (B) is the beyond-use dating for all other
formulations not mentioned above.
A physician's order calls for 400 mg amoxicillin t.i.d. for 10 days. The pharmacy has a 150 mg/5 mL
stock concentration. What volume, in milliliters, of stock concentration is needed to fill the prescription?
A.
13.3
B.
30.3
C.
250
D.
400
The key (D) is correct. The medication is in a concentration of 150 mg per 5 mL. Reduced this is 30 mg
per 1 mL. 400 mg x 3 times a day x 10 days is 12,000 mg. 12,000 mg divided by 30 mg is 400 mL.
The best reference for obtaining storage requirements for a particular drug is the:
A.
Physicians' Desk Reference.
B.
Merck Index.
C.
Drug Facts and Comparisons.
D.
USP-NF
The key (D) is correct because the USP-NF contains drug monographs that include storage requirements.
Distractor (A) provides drug dosage, side effects, and interactions. Distractor (B) is incorrect because the
Merck Manual is a medical textbook. Distractor (C) provides clinical drug information.
According to the DEA, all records related to controlled substances must be maintained and be available
for inspection for a minimum of:
A.
1 year.
B.
2 years.
C.
5 years.
D.
10 years.
The key (B) is correct according to the DEA because it is a minimum of 2 years. Distractors (A), (C), and
(D) do not apply to DEA regulations for controlled substances.
When an albuterol inhaler is dispensed, the patient package insert (PPI) must be included:
A.
only when the original prescription is dispensed.
B.
every time the prescription is dispensed.
C.
only when the patient requests it.
D.
when refills are requested.
The key (B) is correct because per federal law, patients must receive a patient package
insert/instructions with each prescription, including refills.
A common side effect of magnesium-based antacids is:
A.
heartburn.
B.
diarrhea.
C.
hives.
D.
constipation.
The key (B) is correct because magnesium causes diarrhea. It could be used to treat heartburn and
constipation but would cause hives only in a person with a magnesium allergy.
Which of the following medications requires a caution to take it with food?
A.
Ibuprofen
B.
Levothyroxine
C.
Azithromycin
D.
Tetracycline
The key (A) is correct as ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal that can cause stomach irritation or bleeding if taken
on an empty stomach. Distractors (B), (C), and (D) do not require being taken with food.
Which of the following medications are included in the iPLEDGE restricted drug program?
A.
Amnesteem and Valtrex
B.
Isotretinoin and Avita
C.
Azelex and Tazorac
D.
Accutane and Claravis
The key (D) is correct because both Accutane and Claravis are trade names for isotretinoin, which is in
the iPLEDGE program. Distractor (A) is incorrect because Amnesteem is a trade name for isotretinoin,
but Valtrex is a trade name for valacyclovir, which is not in the iPLEDGE program. Distractor (B) is
incorrect because Avita is the brand name for tretinoin, which is a topical cream and is not in the
iPLEDGE program. Distractor (C) is incorrect because Azelex is the brand name for azelaic acid cream and
Tazorac is the brand name for tazarotene cream/gel which are not in the iPLEDGE program.
Before aseptic manipulations are performed, each hand, nail, wrist, and forearm should be scrubbed
vigorously for at least:
A.
15 seconds.
B.
30 seconds.
C.
3 minutes.
D.
5 minutes.
Knowing which of the following can best assist a technician in the prevention of data entry errors?
A.
Names of medications
B.
Insurance co-payments
C.
Pharmacokinetics
D.
Physician contact information
The key (A) is correct because efficient data entry requires knowledge of medication names and is
critical to the prevention of medication errors. Pharmacokinetics is the responsibility of the pharmacist;
physician contact information is readily available, and insurance co-payments will be transmitted from
the insurance company.
Which is the smallest volume, in milliliters, that can be accurately measured using a 1.0 mL tuberculin
syringe?
A.
0.05
B.
0.1
C.
0.2
D.
0.5
The key (A) is correct because tuberculin syringes are 1 mL with markings dividing the 1 mL into tenths
and then into hundredths, and the key (A) is 5 hundredths. Distractors (B), (C), and (D) are 10
hundredths, 20 hundredths, and 50 hundredths, respectively.
What volume, in milliliters, of a drug for injection 250 mg/10 mL should be used to fill an order for 15
mg?
A.
0.6
B.
6
C.
10
D.
16.6
The key (A) is correct. 250 mg divided by 10 mL equals 25 mg per 1 mL. 15 mg divided by 25 mg equals
the volume needed to provide 15 mg.
Which of the following, when combined with acetaminophen 325 mg, would be a generic substitute for
Tylenol No. 4?
A.
Codeine 15 mg
B.
Codeine 60 mg
C.
Oxycodone 7.5 mg
D.
Oxycodone 10 mg
The key (B) is correct. Distractor (A) does not come in a combination product. Distractors (C) and (D) are
generic Percocet in two different strengths.
According to the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP), abbreviations used during prescription
writing:
A.
are no longer acceptable.
B.
improve entry time.
C.
are prone to errors.
D.
facilitate the prescriber.
The key (C) is correct because the Institute for Safe Medication Practices has a list of error-prone
abbreviations that should never be used when communicating medical information because they are
frequently misinterpreted and involved in harmful medication errors. Distractor (A) is incorrect as ISMP
does not state that all abbreviations are error prone. Distractors (B) and (D) are not correct as ISMP’s
mission relates to medication safety not reduction in prescription processing times.
Stock rotation is necessary to ensure that:
A.
damaged drugs are used first.
B.
short-dated items are used first.
C.
damaged drugs are used last.
D.
short-dated items are used last.
The key (B) is correct because stock rotation is a process used to increase the likelihood that products
are used before they go out of date. Damaged drugs should not be used at all, and if short-dated items
were saved for last, they might go out of date before being dispensed.
The auxiliary label for amoxicillin oral suspension should contain which of the following instructions?
A.
Take with food
B.
May cause urine discoloration
C.
Shake well
D.
May cause drowsiness
The key (C) is correct because medication that is a suspension must be shaken to distribute the particles
throughout the liquid for an accurate dose of medication. Distractors (A), (B), and (D) do not apply to an
amoxicillin suspension