BSB ASSESSMENT SPRING SEMESTER 2013
The Learning Goals and Learning Objectives were approved by the full RSCoB Faculty on November 28, 2012.
Learning Goal #1: Students will know the skills associated with the functioning of an effective organization in a global
environment.
Learning Objective 1.1: Students will understand and develop the skills necessary to manage the resources needed for
organizational success and sustainability.
Where
Taught by:
Questions:
Received
measured:
Results
EC 2040
Endres
If the price of microprocessors (which are used to make computers)
falls, what will occur in the computer market?
Dung
A.
Change in equilibrium price and quantity cannot be determined.
Naidu
B.
Equilibrium
price of computers will be lower, but equilibrium
Fanon
quantity will be higher.
Cavanaugh
C.
Equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity of computers will increase.
D.
Equilibrium price of computers will increase, but equilibrium
quantity will be lower.
ACC 2010
Hazelbaker
Sprohge
Hartwell
1. Which one of the following describes something that would be reported in the
income statement?
A.
salaries paid to employees for services provided
B.
amounts owed to creditors
C.
products available to be sold to customers
D. a truck used to deliver products to customers
2. Which one of the following describes something that would be reported in the
current asset section of a classified balance sheet?
A. salaries paid to employees for services provided
B. amounts owed to creditors
C. products available to be sold to customers
D. a truck used to deliver products to customers
1
3. Accountants are responsible for measuring various operating, investing and
financing activities. Which of the following correctly matches the activity with its type?
A. Investing - paying utilities for the month.
B. Investing - purchasing land.
C. Operating - paying dividends to stockholders.
D. Financing - selling equipment for cash.
4. If the retained earnings account increases from the beginning of the year to the end
of the year, then
A. net income is less than dividends.
B. a net loss is less than dividends.
C. additional investments are less than net losses.
D. net income is greater than dividends.
1. When a payment is made on an account payable:
A. Assets and stockholders' equity decrease.
B. Assets and liabilities decrease.
C. Liabilities and revenues decrease.
D. Assets and expenses decrease.
2.
ACC 2020
Terzian
Houston
Kremer
Receiving cash for providing services will:
A. Increase revenue and decrease assets
B. Increase assets and increase liabilities
C. Increase assets and increase revenue
D. Increase one asset and decrease another asset
The following information is taken from the production budget for the first quarter:
Beginning inventory in units
1,200
Sales budgeted for the quarter
426,000
Capacity in units of production facility 472,000
How many finished goods units should be produced during the quarter if the company
desires 3,200 units available to start the next quarter?
2
A.
B.
C.
D.
428,000
424,000
474,000
429,200
The standard rate of pay is $20 per direct labor hour. If the actual direct labor payroll
was $117,600 for 6,000 direct labor hours worked, the direct labor price (rate) variance
is
A. $2,400 unfavorable.
B. $2,400 favorable.
C. $3,000 unfavorable.
D. $3,000 favorable.
Clemente Inc. incurs the following costs to produce 10,000 units of a subcomponent:
Direct materials $8,400
Direct labor
11,250
Variable overhead 12,600
Fixed overhead 16,200
An outside supplier has offered to sell Clemente the subcomponent for $2.85 a unit.
If Clemente buys the subcomponent, there will be no change in the fixed overhead. If
Clemente buys the subcomponent for $2.85, by how much will net income increase
(decrease)?
A. $3,750
B. $19,950
C. $(8,850)
D. $(2,850)
If an investment center has generated a controllable margin of $150,000 and sales of
$600,000, what is the return on investment for the investment center if average
operating assets were $1,000,000 during the period?
A. 15%
3
B. 25%
C. 45%
D 60%
MKT
2050
Gulas
Gupta
Munch
Ramsey
Wamwara-Mbugua
11 Strategic planning for a large firm such as Disney probably occurs______.
A. Only in its corporate headquarters
B. Only at the individual business unit level
C. At both the overall corporate level and at the individual strategic business
unit level
D. On an as needed basis based upon the success of the division
E. At the location best suited for this function based upon findings of the
SWOT analysis.
2. When XYZ Corporation was considering whether to do a qualitative or quantitative
research study, they were in the second step of the marketing research process,
which is to_______.
A. define the problem
B. decide whether to use observational or exploratory research techniques
C. calculate the budget
D. determine population characteristics for sampling
E. determine the research design.
FIN 2210
Ingram
Akhbari
Paule
Hull
12 A firm’s internal business environment does NOT include ______________.
A. Its employees
B. Its corporate culture
C. Its products
D. Its technologies
E. e. Elements of the legal environment.
Finance will use one of the following three sets of questions for assessment of this
learning objective:
FIN 2210 Questions Assessment A:
4
1. What is the present value of $13,450 to be received four years from today if the
discount rate is 5.25 percent?
A. $10,854.20
B. $10,960.59
C. $10,974.21
D. $10,982.18
E. $11,003.14
2. Michael's, Inc. just paid $1.40 to their shareholders as the annual dividend.
Simultaneously, the company announced that future dividends will be increasing by
4.5 percent. If you require an 8 percent rate of return, how much are you willing to
pay to purchase one share of Michael's stock?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
$31.11
$32.51
$40.00
$41.80
$43.68
3. You want to earn a 12 percent rate of return. Panco, Inc. preferred stock pays a
$4.50 annual dividend. What is the maximum price you are willing to pay for one
share of this stock?
A. $32.50
B. $37.50
C. $39.00
D. $40.50
E. $45.00
4. Wine and Roses, Inc. offers a 7 percent coupon bond with semiannual payments and
a yield to maturity of 7.73 percent. The bonds mature in 9 years. What is the market
price of a $1,000 face value bond?
A. $953.28
B. $953.88
5
C. $1,108.16
D. $1,401.26
E. $1,401.86
5. What is the net present value of a project with the following cash flows and a
required return of 12 percent?
A. -$287.22
B. -$177.62
C. $177.62
D. $204.36
E. $287.22
6. The preferred stock of North Coast Shoreline pays an annual dividend of $1.70 and
sells for $20.24 a share. What is the rate of return on this security?
A. 5.95 percent
B. 7.08 percent
C. 8.40 percent
D. 11.90 percent
E. 14.17 percent
7. The risk-free rate of return is 4 percent and the market rate of return is 12 percent.
What is the expected rate of return on a stock with a beta of 1.28?
A. 9.12 percent
B. 10.24 percent
C. 13.12 percent
D. 14.24 percent
E. 15.36 percent
8. The Bet-r-Bilt Company has a six-year bond outstanding with a 5 percent coupon.
Interest payments are paid semi-annually. The face amount of the bond is $1,000.
This bond is currently selling for 98 percent of its face value. What is the company's
pre-tax cost of debt?
A. 4.72 percent
6
B. 5.31 percent
C. 5.35 percent
D. 5.39 percent
E. 5.42 percent
9. Which of the following is not considered a capital component for the purpose of
calculating the weighted average cost of capital as it applies to capital budgeting?
A. Long-term debt
B. Common Stock
C. Accounts Payable
D. Preferred Stock
E. All of the above are considered capital components for WACC and capital
budgeting purposes.
10. Flaherty Electric has a capital structure that consists of 70 percent equity and 30
percent debt. The company’s long-term bonds have a before-tax yield to maturity
of 8.4 percent. Using the DCF approach, the company determines that the cost of
equity is 12.55 percent. If the company’s tax rate is 40 percent, what is the
company’s weighted average cost of capital, WACC?
A. 10.73%
B. 10.30%
C. 11.31%
D. 7.48%
E. 9.89%
FIN2210 Questions Assessment B
1.
You would like to give your daughter $40,000 towards her college education
thirteen years from now. How much money must you set aside today for this
purpose if you can earn 6.3 percent on your funds?
A. $17,750.00
B. $17,989.28
C. $18,077.05
7
D. $18,213.69
E. $18,395.00
2.
Angelina's made two announcements concerning their common stock today. First,
the company announced that their next annual dividend (D1) has been set at $2.16
a share. Secondly, the company announced that all future dividends will increase
by 4 percent annually. What is the maximum amount you should pay to purchase a
share of Angelina's stock if your goal is to earn a 10 percent rate of return?
A. $21.60
B. $22.46
C. $27.44
D. $34.62
E. $36.00
3. Jim owns shares of Abco, Inc. preferred stock which he says provides him with a
constant 6.58 percent rate of return. The stock is currently priced at $45.60 a share.
What is the amount of the dividend per share?
A. $3.00
B. $3.15
C. $3.50
D. $3.54
E. $3.62
4.
Party Time, Inc. has a 6 percent coupon bond that matures in 11 years. The bond
pays interest semiannually. What is the market price of a $1,000 face value bond if
the yield to maturity is 12.9 percent?
A. $434.59
B. $580.86
C. $600.34
D. $605.92
E. $947.87
5.
You are considering a project with the following cash flows:
8
Year 1: $5,600
Year 2: $9,000
Year 3: $2,000
What is the present value of these cash flows, given an 11 percent discount rate?
A. $8,695.61
B. $8,700.89
C. $13,732.41
D. $13,812.03
E. $19,928.16
6.
Donnelly and Son pay $8 as the annual dividend on their preferred stock.
Currently, this stock is selling for $72 a share. What is Donnelly's cost of preferred
stock?
A. 7.78 percent
B. 9.00 percent
C. 9.72 percent
D. 11.11 percent
E. 11.99 percent
7.
The stock of Martin Industries has a beta of 1.43. The risk-free rate of return is 3.6
percent and the market rate of return is 12.6 percent. What is the expected rate of
return on Martin Industries stock?
A. 11.3 percent
B. 14.1 percent
C. 16.5 percent
D. 17.4 percent
E. 18.0 percent
8.
Wilson's Cabinets has bonds outstanding that mature in eight years, have a 6
percent coupon and pay interest annually. These bonds have a face value of $1,000
and a current market price of $1,020. What is the company's pre-tax cost of debt?
A. 5.68 percent
B. 6.19 percent
9
C. 6.34 percent
D. 6.82 percent
E. 7.57 percent
9.
Which of the following is not considered a capital component for the purpose of
calculating the weighted average cost of capital as it applies to capital budgeting?
A. Long-term debt
B. Common Stock
C. Accounts Payable
D. Preferred Stock
E. All of the above are considered capital components for WACC and capital
budgeting purposes.
10. Peter's Audio Shop has a cost of debt of 7 percent, a cost of equity of 11 percent,
and a cost of preferred stock of 8 percent. The firm has a target capital structure of
53% equity, 34% preferred stock and 13% debt. The company's tax rate is 34
percent. What is the weighted average cost of capital for Peter's Audio Shop?
A. 6.14 percent
B. 6.54 percent
C. 8.60 percent
D. 9.15 percent
E. 9.45 percent
FIN 2210 Questions Assessment C:
1.
Your grandmother invested one lump sum 17 years ago at 4.25 percent interest.
Today, she gave you the proceeds of that investment which totaled $5,539.92. How
much did your grandmother originally invest?
A. $2,700.00
B. $2,730.30
C. $2,750.00
D. $2,768.40
10
E. $2,774.90
2. How much are you willing to pay for one share of stock if the company just paid an
$.80 annual dividend (D0), the dividends increase by 4 percent annually and you
require an 8 percent rate of return?
A. $19.23
B. $20.00
C. $20.40
D. $20.80
E. $21.63
3. Butterup's 'N More wants to offer some preferred stock that pays an annual
dividend of $2.00 a share. The company has determined that stocks with similar
characteristics provide a 9 percent rate of return. What price should Butterup's
expect to receive per share for this stock offering?
A. $18.35
B. $20.00
C. $21.80
D. $22.22
E. $24.22
4. Gugenheim, Inc. offers a 7 percent coupon bond with annual payments. The yield
to maturity is 5.85 percent and the maturity date is 9 years. What is the market
price of a $1,000 face value bond?
A. $742.66
B. $868.67
C. $869.67
D. $1,078.73
E. $1,079.59
5.
You are considering a project with the following cash flows:
Year 1: $1,200
Year 2: $1,800
11
Year 3: $2,900
What is the present value of these cash flows, given a 9 percent discount rate?
A. $4,713.62
B. $4,855.27
C. $5,103.18
D. $5,292.25
E. $6,853.61
6. Teri's Tires has 7 percent preferred stock outstanding that sells for $68 a share.
What is Teri's cost of preferred stock?
A. 9.52 percent
B. 9.71 percent
C. 10.29 percent
D. 10.78 percent
E. 11.76 percent
7. The risk-free rate of return is 4 percent and the market risk premium is 12 percent.
What is the expected rate of return on a stock with a beta of 1.28?
A. 9.12 percent
B. 10.24 percent
C. 13.12 percent
D. 14.24 percent
E. 15.36 percent
8.
Ernst's Electrical has a bond issue outstanding with ten years to maturity. These
bonds have a $1,000 face value, a 5 percent coupon, and pay interest semiannually. The bonds are currently quoted at 96 percent of face value. What is
Ernst's pre-tax cost of debt?
A. 4.47 percent
B. 4.97 percent
C. 5.33 percent
D. 5.53 percent
E. 5.94 percent
12
9. Which of the following is not considered a capital component for the purpose of
calculating the weighted average cost of capital as it applies to capital budgeting?
A. Long-term debt
B. Common Stock
C. Accounts Payable
D. Preferred Stock
E. All of the above are considered capital components for WACC and capital
budgeting purposes.
10. An analyst has collected the following information regarding Christopher Co.:
• The company’s capital structure is 70 percent equity and 30 percent debt.
• The yield to maturity on the company’s bonds is 9 percent.
• The cost of equity is 12.2 percent.
• The company’s tax rate is 40 percent.
Given this information, calculate the company’s WACC.
A. 10.16%
B. 12.56%
C. 10.78%
D. 13.55%
E. 9.29%
MGT
3100
Petrick
Henry
Evans
Beth consistently submits budget reports on time. They are accurate and thorough. As
her supervisor, you want her to continue this kind of behavior so you:
A. tell her privately that she’s doing a good job on the budget reports
B. praise her behavior publicly in front of her coworkers
C. say nothing about her good work, but avoid reprimanding her the next time
she
makes a mistake.
D. put a note in her personnel file and give her an extra amount of money at the
time of her next salary review.
You manage the department. Tiffany, your subordinate, told you that on some days she
is energized by her job and that on other days she thinks she is just putting in time in
13
order to get to the next day. You want to provide her with an intrinsic reward, so you:
A. give her a cash performance bonus
B. promote her to a supervisory position
C. give her two tickets to a pro football game
D. assign her work that she thinks is meaningful
Imagine that you work for TransCon Unlimited, a trucking company that ships freight
throughout the United States. You have just accepted a position as a new first-line
manager. Your employees include many rough-looking, tough-talking warehouse
workers. Which of the following activities is the best way to provide a motivational
environment for your employees?
A. Set challenging goals, establish clear work objectives and standards of good
performance.
B. Get on their good side by offering free pizza to the entire shift each week.
C. Share information about company politics.
D. Threaten to reduce their pay if they don’t meet expected standards of
performance.
Behavior modification (OBM) uses of principles of learning theory to influence
employee behavior in organizations.
True
False
MGT
3110
Back
Suazo
Pierce
23.
__________________ can be defined as an integrated understanding of the
interconnectedness of human activity with all related man-made and naturally occurring
systems.
A. Reciprocity
B. Utilitarianism
C. Sustainability
D. Virtue ethics
E. All of the above
24.
________________ is defined as seeking to meet the needs and aspirations of
14
present society without compromising the ability to meet those of future generations.
A. Sustainability
B. Sustainable development
C. Reciprocity development
D. Reciprocity
E. All of the above
25.
Triple-bottom-line accounting is a term and approach that originated with the
publication of John Elkington's 1998 book Cannibals with Forks: Triple Bottom Line of
21st Century Business. In it, Elkington argues that accounting practice should be
expanded to include ___________________________ .
A. employee, customer, and supplier costs.
B. financial, employee, and social costs.
C. environmental, social, and financial costs.
D. social, customer, and financial costs.
E. All of the above
26.
The Eco-Effectiveness Model of Sustainability was developed by Michael
Braungart and William McDonough in 1995. It is an approach that views industry as a
natural system. Like natural capitialism, this approach envisions the next industrial
revolution as one where the end of a product cycle is the beginning of the next nutrient
cycle. For this reason, the Eco-Effectiveness Model is also called the ______________
Model.
A. Grave-To-Grave
B. Grave-To-Cradle
C. Cradle-To-Grave
D. Cradle-To-Cradle
E. All of the above
EC 3010
Endres
Jenkins
1. Banks are important to the study of money and the economy because they
A. have resisted rapid financial innovation.
B. channel funds from lenders to borrowers.
C. are the only important financial institution in the U.S. economy.
15
D. create inflation.
SCM 3070 Polak
Johnson
Which is true regarding a responsive supply chain?
A. Demand is stable and predictable.
B. Product life cycles are short and change often because of innovation.
C. Customers require standardization.
D. Contribution margins are low.
E. The primary competitive priority is cost.
Which of the following is true regarding order amplification?
A. The fluctuation of orders at the manufacturer is larger than the fluctuation in
sales.
B. The amplitude of order quantity over time is smaller than the variation of
sales.
C. The less the uncertainty, the greater the amplification in orders.
D. The amplification is greatest near the customer.
E. Sharing point of sale information typically increases amplification
Under a periodic review system, enough inventory must be carried to protect against a
specified probability of a stockout during an interval of time the length of the ______.
A. replenishment lead time
B. review period
C. replenishment lead time plus the review period
D. bottleneck cycle time
E. bottleneck cycle time plus the replenishment lead time
Which decision must be made by an inventory manager prior to implementing the
periodic review system?
A. specify the time between orders
B. specify on-hand inventory
C. specify the target inventory level
D. specify the order quantity
E. specify the lead time
16
Which of the following is not a good approach for suppliers who are providing JIT
services to manufacturers?
A. Use the “push system” for deliveries
B. Locate near their customers
C. Have small warehouses near the manufacturing plant
D. Use standardized containers
E. Join together with other suppliers to help each other make small deliveries
A push production system is appropriate when
A. Demand uncertainty is high
B. Demand uncertainty is low
C. Forecast accuracy is poor
D. Economies of scale are unimportant
E. Demand is characterized by high variety and low volume
A project has three paths. A-B-C has a length of 25 days. A-D-C has a length of 15
days. Finally, A-E-C has a length of 20 days. Which one of the following statements is
true?
A. A-D-C is the critical path.
B. A-B-C has the most total slack.
C. The expected duration of this project is 25 days.
D. The expected duration of this project is 25 + 15 + 20 = 60 days.
E. The project has been crashed.
A type of organization in which project participation cuts across functional boundaries,
but in which the functional units "loan" resources to projects while still maintaining
control over them is called
A. Pure project structure
B. Pure functional structure
C. Hybrid or Matrix structure
D. Product structure
E. Process project structure
17
The chief disadvantage of the shortest processing time (SPT) rule is
A. average job flow times are excessive
B. average number of jobs in the system is excessive
C. long-duration jobs may have excessive flow times, especially when the set
of jobs is changing
D. average job lateness is excessive
E. The makespan is too short
Operations Scheduling refers to specifying
A. professional appointments
B. The due date for each job
C. The start and completion times of jobs
D. The makespan of each job
E. The flowtime of each job
MGT
4990
Kemper
Williams
1. A company pursuing a low cost strategy will likely have _____________ product
differentiation than a higher cost competitor.
A. greater
B. less
C. no significant difference in
4. The Schottenstein family closed its chain Value City, a victim of the economic
slowdown and an excess of debt. The inventory and buildings were sold to satisfy
creditors’ demands. What strategy is this?
A. Liquidation
B. Diversification
C. Turn-around
D. Divestment
12.
Determine the market capitalization of a firm by:
A. Subtracting liabilities from assets to get owner’s equity
B. Multiplying share price by number of shares outstanding
18
C. Multiplying number of shares outstanding by par value
D. None of the above is true
22.
All other factors being equal, when industry rivalry is high:
A. Profits are lower
B. Profits are higher
C. Intensity of rivalry has no effect on industry profits
D. A monopoly exists
Learning Objective 1.2: Students will understand and know how to analyze the dimensions of the global environment.
Where
Taught by:
Questions:
Received
measured:
Results
MS 2050
Chesen
1. A 99% confidence interval for the mean number of days that trials in a certain court
take from inception to completion is needed. A random sample of cases from this
Faber
court is confidence interval.
21
13
3
2
10
19
4
2
1
4
13
11
15
10
7
6
6
8
3
6
2. The mean number of hamburgers able to be consumed in a competitive eating
contest is to be studied by the organizer of contests of this type. A random sample
of the number of hamburgers devoured by participants in these kinds of events is
selected. The data for these participants is shown below. At the 10% level of
significance, has the mean number of hamburgers consumed decreased from its
previous level of 27 hamburgers?
22 32
15 14
21
38
18
29
17
25
30
15
16
19
11
20
19
21
19
28
3. A criminologist wishes to study the relationship between the amount of
rainfall daily and the number of traffic accidents in a certain city.
Specifically, she wishes to use the amount of rainfall to predict and explain
19
the number of accidents. Sample data concerning the variables of the
situation are given below.
Rainfall
0.7
0.1
1.2
1.5
0.3
0.2
0.9
0.3
1.8
1.5
1.0
1.7
2.0
Accidents
16
18
23
20
11
19
15
25
27
30
22
17
26
State both the sample regression coefficients and the sample
regression equation for this model.
Provide meanings for each of the regression coefficients of this model.
These meanings should be specific to the model.
4. At the 2% level of significance, is there evidence of a significant correlation
between amount of rainfall in the city and number of accidents? Show all
relevant steps and justifications for your answer.
MKT
2500
Gulas
Gupta
Munch
Ramsey
Wamwara-Mbugua
4.
The _____________environment refers to the characteristics of a society, the
people who live in the society, and the culture that reflects the values and the
beliefs of that society.
A. Political and legal
B. Sociocultural
20
C. Economic
D. Technological
E. Natural.
5.
After exporting, the next level of commitment a firm can make to a foreign
market is a contractual agreement. Two of the most common types of such
agreements are ________.
A. contract manufacturing and contract marketing
B. contract manufacturing and strategic alliances
C. joint ventures and franchising
D. warehousing and franchising
6.
EC 3010
Endres
Jenkins
SCM 3070 Polak
Johnson
All the following are barriers to successful exporting EXCEPT ___________.
A. tariffs
B. local content laws
C. export quotas
D. economic sanctions
E. export merchants
1. The evidence from banking crises in other countries indicates that
A. deposit insurance is to blame in each country.
B. a government safety net for depositors need not increase moral hazard.
C. regulatory forbearance never leads to problems.
D. deregulation combined with poor regulatory supervision raises moral hazard.
Which of the following best describes crossdocking?
A. it eliminates the storage and order picking functions of a distribution
warehouse while still performing its receiving and shipping functions
B. it eliminates the receiving and storage functions of a distribution warehouse
while still performing its shipping and order picking functions
C. it eliminates the storage and shipping functions of a distribution warehouse
while still performing its order picking and receiving functions
21
Hamister
Kellar
Weinstein
D. it eliminates the receiving and order picking functions of a distribution
warehouse while still performing its storage and shipping functions
E. it eliminates the receiving and shipping functions of a distribution warehouse
while still performing its storage and order picking functions
The Supply Chain Operations Reference (SCOR) Model function that entails all order
management activities from processing customer orders to routing shipments, managing
goods at distribution centers and invoicing the customer is called ____.
A. Plan
B. Source
C. Make
D. Deliver
E. Return
What type of commerce makes up the highest percentage of electronic transactions?
A. B2C
B. C2C
C. B4B
D. B2B
E. T42
MGT
4990
Kemper
Williams
The Bullwhip effect can be mitigated (counteracted) by
A. sharing point of sale (POS) information throughout the supply chain.
B. purchasing only high quality leather and using a low cost producer whenever
possible.
C. frequent use of sales and promotion.
D. modifying the supply chain during the product life cycle.
E. both c and d are correct.
10. A firm might reasonably enter the international arena for all of the following except:
A. Seeking new markets for its goods
B. Trying to gain control of supply chain
C. To prevent a competitor from moving in and gaining an advantage
D. Attempting to lower production costs
22
E. Simplifying organizational communication, processes, and practices.
16.
Which of the following foreign market entry modes would be most affected by
high tariffs, trade barriers, and transportation costs:
A. Exporting
B. Wholly owned subsidiary
C. Licensing
D. Franchising
17.
Internationalization results in decreased profitability within industries because of:
A. Lower entry barriers, higher bargaining power of buyers, and lower seller
concentration
B. Higher entry barriers, higher bargaining power of buyers, and higher seller
concentration
C. Lower entry barriers, lower bargaining power of buyers, and lower seller
concentration
D. Higher entry barriers, lower bargaining power of buyers, and higher seller
concentration
18.
To have a competitive advantage within an international context, firms need to
have a fit with:
A. Key success factors in the situation
B. Resources, capabilities, and opportunities
C. The environment within the nations in which they operate
D. All of the above
21.
A multinational corporation’s strategy to adapt its products to local customers’
preferences is referred to as a:
A. Global integration strategy
B. Nationalization strategy
C. Diversification strategy
D. National differentiation strategy
23
Learning Goal 2: Students will be able to integrate the skills and concepts associated with the function of an effective
organization.
Learning Objective 2.1: Students will understand stakeholder relationships and stakeholder engagement strategies that foster
organizational success.
Where
Taught by:
Questions:
Received
measured:
Results
EC 2040
Endres
Antonia sells pasta to all the finest Italian restaurants in town. Nobody can make pasta
like Antonia. As a result, hers is the only business in town that sells pasta to restaurants.
Dung
Assuming that Antonia is maximizing her profit, which of the following statements is
Naidu
true?
Fanon
A. Pasta prices will be less than marginal cost.
Cavanaugh
B. Pasta prices will equal marginal cost.
C. Pasta prices will exceed marginal cost.
D. Pasta prices will be a function of supply and demand and will therefore
oscillate
E. around marginal costs.
ACC 2010 Hazelbaker
1.
If you were a supplier to the ABC Company and you were trying to decide
whether you should require them to pay cash or allow them to purchase on
Sprohge
account, you would primarily look to which financial statement to help make
Hartwell
that decision?
A. Balance Sheet
B. Income Statement
C. Statement of Stockholders’ Equity
D. Statement of Cash Flows
ACC 2020
Terzian
Houston
Kremer
1. NF Toy Company is unsure of whether to sell its product assembled or
unassembled. The unit cost of the unassembled product is $24 and NF Toy would
sell it for $52. The cost to assemble the product is estimated at $17 per unit and the
company believes the market would support a price of $68 on the assembled unit.
What decision should NF Toy make?
A. Sell before assembly, the company will be better off by $1 per unit.
B. Sell before assembly, the company will be better off by $16 per unit.
24
C. Process further, the company will be better off by $23 per unit.
D. Process further, the company will be better off by $11 per unit.
MKT
2500
Gulas
Gupta
Munch
Ramsey
Wamwara-Mbugua
7. Marketers first identify consumer needs and then provide products that satisfy those
needs, ensuring the firm’s long-term profitability. This practice is referred to as
_______.
A. consumer orientation
B. the marketing concept
C. total quality management
D. production orientation
E. the marketing mix.
8. A ______________ strategy allows a company to identify its best customers, stay
on top of their needs, and increase their satisfaction.
A. CRM
B. target market
C. undifferentiated target
D. concentrated target
E. differentiated target
FIN 2110
Ingram
Akhbari
Paule
Hull
Finance will use one of the following three questions for assessment of this learning
objective:
FIN 2210 Questions Assessment A:
11. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Given the multi-owner nature of most large corporations, agency costs
associated with perquisite consumption are not really a problem.
B. Managers may operate in the stockholders' best interests, but they may
also operate in their own personal best interests. As long as managers
stay within the law, there simply are not any effective controls that
stockholders can implement to control managerial decision making.
C. Shareholder agency costs include the opportunity costs associated with
25
constraining managerial freedom but do not include managerial salaries.
D. An agency relationship exists when one or more persons hire another
person to perform some service but withhold decision-making authority
from that person.
E. All of the above statements are false.
FIN 2210 Questions Assessment B:
11. Which of the following statements concerning "agency problems" is most correct?
A. Regardless of economic conditions, if a firm's stock price falls during the
year, this indicates that the firm's managers must not be acting in the best
interests of the shareholders.
B. One method of controlling agency problems is to engage in the taking of
"poison pills."
C. One of the best means to control agency problems is to require the managers
and other important decision makers of the firm to also be owners of the
firm.
D. Agency problems probably would not exist if the important decisions of a
firm were made by persons who have no vested interests, such as ownership,
in the firm.
E. None of the above is a correct statement.
FIN 2210 Questions Assessment C:
11. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Other things held constant, it is generally safer to invest money in a
proprietorship than in a corporation.
B. There really is no difference between a general partnership and a
corporation, because both have multiple owners and both offer limited
liability to the owners.
C. If you are planning to start a business, which you will run as the sole
employee, and if you expect the business to earn $1,000,000 per year before
26
taxes, you always can minimize the total taxes you pay by setting up the
business as a corporation.
D. Agency problems tend to increase when managers own larger relative
amounts of the company's stock.
E. Maximizing the income statement item "net income" might not be the best
goal for a corporation if the managers are interested in maximizing the
economic welfare of the firm's stockholders (that is, the firm's stock price).
MGT
3100
Petrick
Henry
Evans
Just before quitting time yesterday afternoon, Kim’s supervisor announced to his work
group that he was making some immediate changes in the production process. He said
the changes would affect the work performed by members of the work group, and may
affect their pay. The changes are effective today. The work group is resistant to the
changes primarily because:
A.
B.
C.
D.
they don’t like their supervisor
the changes will expose their current work problems
they don’t understand the changes and/or don’t see how they benefit them
they figure “any news from the supervisor is bad news”
Organization development (OD) is a systematic approach to change that is designed to
help an organization become more effective.
True
False
MGT
3110
Back
Suazo
Pierce
19.
Typically, stakeholders of a for-profit company include its ______________ .
A. customers
B. employees
C. stockholders
D. suppliers
E. All of the above
20.
Ethicists use the term stakeholder theory to describe a coherent and original
answer to the central philosophical question in organizational ethics,
27
__________________________ ?
A. What kind of attitudes should organizations have
B. What kind of cognitive abilities should organizations strive to have
C. What kind of affective attitudes should organizations have
D. How should organizations behave
E. How can we improve job satisfaction
21.
R. Edward Freeman's book Strategic Management: A Stakeholder Approach
(1984) is widely recognized as the first major work in stakeholder theory. Identify the
primary school of thought that served as the foundation for Freeman's book.
A. The corporate planning literature
B. Open systems theory
C. The study of corporate social responsibility
D. Organization theory
E. All of the above
22.
The _______________ model, which received its most ardent defense from
Nobel laureate Milton Friedman, holds that the corporation must strive to maximize
returns for its shareholders.
A. sock holder
B. stockholder
C. shareholder
D. sock hop
E. All of the above
MGT
4990
Kemper
Williams
2.
Which of the following is generally not desirable in the majority of a given
firm’s board members?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Independence
Experienced in top leadership
Knowledge of the business
Currently holding positions as senior managers in the firm
28
13.
A firm’s mission should inform you about:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Why it exists and what it does
What it aspires to be
Its guiding principles
Its potential for short-term profitability
14.
In conducting a strategic analysis, which of the following tools would be MOST
helpful to analyze both your internal and external environments:
A.
B.
C.
D.
SWOT analysis
PESTEL analysis
Value chain analysis
Competitor analysis
21.
A multinational corporation’s strategy to adapt its products to local customers’
preferences is referred to as a:
A. Global integration strategy
B. Nationalization strategy
C. Diversification strategy
D. National differentiation strategy
Learning Objective 2.2: Students will understand the processes involved in idea creation and development, production, and
distribution of quality products and services.
Where
Taught by:
Questions:
Received
measured:
Results
EC 2040
Endres
On a 100 acre farm, a farmer is able to produce 3,000 bushels of wheat when he hires 2
workers. He is able to produce 4,400 bushels of wheat when he hires 3 workers. Which
Dung
of the following possibilities is consistent with the property of diminishing marginal
Naidu
product?
Fanon
A. The farmer is able to produce 5,600 bushels of wheat when he hires 4
Cavanaugh
workers.
29
B. The farmer is able to produce 5,800 bushels of wheat when he hires 4
workers.
C. The farmer is able to produce 6,000 bushels of wheat when he hires 4
workers.
D. The farmer is able to produce 6,200 bushels of wheat when he hires 4
workers.
EC 2050
Herrick
Daoud
Olson
Freire
Dung
Cavanaugh
Which of the following does Not represent an increase in aggregate investment
spending?
A. the purchase of a newly built commercial facility by a computer retailer
B. the purchase of corporate bonds
C. the purchase of a laptop by an accounting firm for the purpose of conducting
business
D. the purchase of a website design service by a retailer.
ACC 2020
Terzian
Houston
Kremer
The following data have been recorded for recently completed Job 323 on its job cost
sheet. Direct materials cost was $2,260. A total of 37 direct labor-hours and 141
machine-hours were worked on the job. The direct labor wage rate is $13 per laborhour. The company applies manufacturing overhead on the basis of machine-hours. The
predetermined overhead rate is $14 per machine-hour. The total cost for the job on its
job cost sheet would be:
A. $3,259
B. $2,741
C. $4,715
D. $2,287
Bodway, Inc., has provided the following budgeted data:
Sales
10,000 units
Selling price
$50 per unit
Variable expense
$30 per unit
Fixed expense
$180,000
To have an operating income of $40,000, how many units would the company have to
30
sell?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20,000 units
9,000 units
11,000 units
7,333 units
Use the following table,
Present Value of an Annuity of 1
Period 8%
9%
10%
1
.926
.917
.909
2
1.783
1.759
1.736
3
2.577
2.531
2.487
A company has a minimum required rate of return of 9%. It is considering investing in a
project which costs $350,000 and is expected to generate cash inflows of $140,000 at
the end of each year for three years. The net present value of this project is
A. $354,340.
B. $70,000.
C. $35,436.
D. $4,340.
MKT
2500
Gulas
Gupta
Munch
Ramsey
Wamwara-Mbugua
9. The _________________ element of the marketing mix is used to communicate the
value proposition using forms such as personal selling, advertising, coupons, and
publicity.
A. product
B. place
C. price
D. distribution
E. promotion.
10. Which of the following statements is NOT a reason successful new-product
introductions are becoming more difficult for firms?
A. costs of research and development may be huge
B. products are becoming outdated faster than ever
31
C. venture capitalists have run out of money to invest
D. the number of products competing for limited retail shelf space
E. increasing manufacturers’ costs.
11. Consumer satisfaction/dissatisfaction is within the ___________step of the
consumer decision-making process.
A. problem recognition
B. information search
C. evaluation of alternatives
D. product choice
E. postpurchase evaluation
MGT
3100
Petrick
Henry
Evans
The Director of Nursing is looking for a new vacation schedule for nurses throughout
the hospital. She evaluates a schedule system as soon as she learns about it. She quickly
finds a vacation schedule that is “good enough” for her needs. The Director of Nursing
may be making which of the following decision-making mistakes:
A. trusting common sense (intuition)
B. selecting the first viable alternative, rather than the best alternative
(satisficing)
C. refusing to see the situation from other’s perspectives (perceptual defense)
D. sticking with a bad decision (escalation of commitment)
Juan has been told that his decision to expand the product line in his retail store is not
working. It appears that there is too little demand and too much inventory. In spite of all
of the negative feedback, he tells his marketing department to increase advertising and
his purchasing department to add to the breadth of the product line. Juan’s behavior can
best be described as:
A. dissonance reduction
B. escalation of commitment
C. framing error
D. anchoring and adjustment
You have just been assigned the task of developing an innovative new product, using
32
people from engineering, marketing, purchasing, and one or two other departments in
the organization. To help this group to be as creative as possible, you should:
A. give the team a very tight deadline to come up with a creative idea
B. threaten to fire any team member who suggests a silly idea that wastes the
time of the product development process
C. encourage competition among team members as to who has the best job
performance
D. move these employees out of their departments and into a common area
where they can continuously interact with each other
During a brainstorming session, George remarks, “I don’t think that’s a very good idea.
Let’s stay focused!” He has violated which rule of brainstorming?
A. Evaluate the alternatives as they are presented
B. Initially, all different types of ideas should be considered. *
C. Quality takes precedence over quantity
D. He did not violate any rules.
Both entrepreneurs and intrapreneurs value creativity and autonomy and have a strong
desire to achieve.
True
False
EC 3010
Endres
Jenkins
SCM 3070 Polak
Johnson
Hamister
Kellar
1. As disintermediation continues in the banking industry
A. more regulation of financial markets may avoid such problems in the future.
B. banks are unable to remain competitive with other financial intermediaries.
C. consumers no longer desire the services that banks provide.
D. markets produce alternatives to costly regulations.
Causes of variation that can be identified and eliminated are called what?
A. Random
B. Assignable
C. Mysterious
33
Weinstein
D. Stochastic
E. Common
On a control chart, what separates sample points indicating common causes of variation
from those indicating assignable causes of variation?
A. Center lines
B. Control limits
C. Specification limits
D. Production limits
E. Mean divided by standard deviation
The terms, "general purpose equipment," "flexible and capable of some customization"
and "wide variety of goods or services in small batches (which can be larger than
one-piece)" best relate to
A. Projects
B. Job shops
C. Flow shop processes
D. Continuous flow processes
E. Craftwork
Automobile factories and hospital laboratory work are examples of
A. Projects
B. Job shop processes
C. Flow shop processes
D. Continuous flow processes
E. Cottage industries
Which of the following is not a principal dimension of the servicescape?
A. Ambient condition
B. Process and job design
C. Spatial layout and functionality
D. Signs and artifacts
E. corporate symbols
34
Which of the following is not true regarding the differences between goods and
services?
A. Demand for services is easier to forecast.
B. Customers participate in many services.
C. Services cannot be stored as physical inventory.
D. Patents do not protect services.
E. Service include intangibles.
MGT
4990
Kemper
Williams
1.
Russia’s largest car maker is cooperating with General Motors to build 75,000 sport
utility vehicles annually in Togliatti, 600 miles from Moscow. This type of
initiative is called a:
A. merger
B. divestment
C. takeover
D. joint venture
E. acquisition
5.
According to Michael Porter, there are just two generic strategies a business can
follow successfully. They are:
A. low price, low differentiation
B. low cost, low differentiation
C. low price, high differentiation
D. low cost, high differentiation
E. none of the above
6.
Omaha-based Berkshire Hathaway sells ice cream, jewelry, construction
material, insurance, and newspapers, among other things. With that in mind, which of
the strategies listed below is closest to their approach?
A. Diversification
B. Integration
35
7.
When tobacco giant Philip Morris bought Miller Beer and Kraft foods, what
strategy were they pursuing?
A. Divestiture
B. Concentric diversification
C. Vertical integration
8.
Procter and Gamble agreed to buy Clairol shampoo from Bristol-Meyers Squibb
for $4.95 billion. From the viewpoint of P&G, this was a(n):
A. acquisition
B. divestment
C. takeover
9.
Pennsylvania-based Quaker Steak and Lube opened its 10th restaurant—and
first in the Dayton area--across from Wright State. In doing so, what strategy was it
following?
A. Product development
B. Diversification
C. Divestiture
D. Market development
11.
All of the following businesses sell a highly differentiated product except:
A. Dorothy Lane Market
B. Mercedes-Benz automobiles
C. Speedway gasoline
D. Rolex watches
E. Starbucks coffee
15.
A firm is said to have a sustainable competitive advantage when it:
A. Outperforms its rivals
B. Earns a persistently higher rate of profits than rivals
C. Prevents its rivals from imitating or copying what it does
D. All of the above
36
19.
According to Michael Porter, a firm can gain a competitive advantage:
A. If it offers a similar product or service at a lower price
B. If it offers a product or service that is perceived as being of a higher quality
C. Neither a. nor b.
D. Both a. and b.
20.
According to Porter’s competitive strategies, a strategy based on offering
superior products or services to a narrow segment or market scope would be referred to
as:
A. Cost leadership
B. Cost focus
C. Differentiation
D. Differentiation focus
23.
How is Porter's value chain analysis used in strategic planning?
A. To examine the sequence of activities a firm performs to deliver something
of value.
B. To select items for a restaurant chain’s value menus.
C. To decide whether to franchise a store in a new market after it has has been
profitable in an initial market.
D. To identify the value of the weakest link in a chain of stores.
24.
Which of the following is NOT a component of Porter's value chain analysis?
A. Franchising activities such as training.
B. Primary activities such as service.
C. Support activities such as procurement.
D. Value-creating activities such as outbound logistics.
25.
Which of the following undermines the sustainability of a distinctive
competence?
A. Imitation
B. Elasticity
37
C. inflation
D. Economies of learning
38
Learning Goal 3: Students will develop effective communication skills.
Learning Objective 3.1: Students will demonstrate an ability to communicate effectively in writing.
Where
Taught by: Procedure:
measured:
MGT
Back
Papers will be collect electronically in classes and forward to the Assistant Dean who will have
3110
them assessed by the English Department Faculty using the following rubric:
Suazo
Pierce
ASSESSING WRITTEN COMMUNICATION RUBRIC – INDIVIDUAL PAPERS
MGT 3110
Term/Year
Paper #
Process Performance Levels
2 (Satisfactory)
Addresses key literature on
topical issue with less than
two references in opening
paragraph
Traits
1. Demonstrates
conceptual
knowledge of
topical issue
3 (Very Good)
Addresses key literature on
topical issue with a
minimum of two references
in opening paragraph
2. Organizes content
in a logical,
structured manner
and provides
transitional
statements
All content is well organized,
flows logically, and is
structurally easy to follow;
all transitional statements
provided
Most but not all of the content
is well organized, flows
logically, and is structurally
easy to follow; some
transitional statements
provided
Content is poorly
organized, does not flow
well, and is structurally
hard to follow;
transitional statements
not provided
3. Uses acceptable
style, grammar and
word choice
No or very minimal spelling,
grammar, sentence
structure, and paragraphing
errors; very good word
choice
Few spelling errors, generally
appropriate grammar,
sentence structure, and
paragraphing; satisfactory
word choice
Numerous spelling
errors; inappropriate
grammar, sentence
structure, and
paragraphing throughout
the document; poor word
choice
4. Demonstrates
effective
professional
Uses multiple professional
research sources and
makes effective use of
Uses more than one
professional research source
but demonstrates no attempt
No literature or use of
inappropriate web-based
sources; sources are not
39
1 (Unsatisfactory)
Either does not address
key literature on topical
issue or provides no
references in the
opening paragraph
Received
Results
research skills
5. Documents sources
effectively
current and reliable
information; sources are
authoritative or come from
the professional literature;
includes current, relevant
professional sources
to incorporate current
information; most sources are
authoritative or come from
professional literature;
sources are generally current
, relevant and professional
authoritative or do not
come from professional
literature; sources are
not current, relevant
and/or professional
Includes adequate and
appropriate citations within
the document and lists
references that include full
bibliographic information for
each citation in the
document; citations and
references are consistent
throughout the document
Includes some appropriate
citations within the document
and lists references at the
end of the document;
references are usable but
may not contain the full
bibliographic information;
citations and references are
partially consistent
throughout the document
Inadequate or
inconsistent
documentation of
references in the
document and/or in the
bibliography
Content Performance Levels
Traits
6 (Very Good)
6. Documents depth
of understanding by
means of concrete
examples and
reasoned analysis
Regularly provides concrete
examples and reasoned
analysis as evidence for
claims
3 (Satisfactory)
Occasionally provides
concrete examples and
reasoned analysis as
evidence for claims
1(Unsatisfactory)
Does not provide
concrete examples and
reasoned analysis as
evidence for claims
Points:
Grade:
1.
Very Good:
16 – 21 points
Satisfactory:
9 – 15 points
Unsatisfactory:
8 or below
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
TOTAL:
Learning Objective 3.2: Students will demonstrate an ability to communicate effectively in oral form.
Where
Taught by: Procedure:
measured:
40
Received
Results
FIN 2050
Wood
Anderson
Garcia
Presentations will be videotaped in classes and forwarded to the Assistant Dean who will have
them assessed by faculty in the Communications Department using the following rubric:
Number of Speaker/Team _________________
Evaluation
EACH CATEGORY IS WORTH UP TO 5 POINTS
EACH
ORGANIZATION
_____ Attention-getting introduction
_____Clear preview of purpose/main points
_____Main ideas are well organized and logically
developed
_____Excellent transitions
_____Satisfying and well developed conclusion
TOPIC KNOWLEDGE (CONTENT)
_____ Full understanding of information
_____ Unobtrusive use of notes
_____ Answered questions accurately
SUPPORT
_____ Strong supporting evidence
_____ Citations were accurate and strengthened
argument
VERBAL & VOCAL EFFECTIVENESS
_____ Language is appropriate for the
audience/setting/content
_____ Speaker is eloquent but concise
_____ Minimal use of disfluencies (“umm,”
“uh,” etc.)
_____ Masterful volume & variety
_____ Excellent vocalics-- (articulation,
inflection,
pace, pauses, etc.)
41
Presentation
Advanced
(Exemplary)
Developing
(Average)
5-4
3-2
Emerging
(Low
performance)
0-1
PHYSICAL DELIVERY
_____ Appeared confident and poised
_____ Reinforcing facial expressions
_____ Appropriate eye contact – enough?
balanced?
_____ Meaningful gestures & body movement
TEAM SKILLS
_____ Evidence of team collaboration
_____ Seamless transitions between team
members
_____ Information supported each others’
research
VISUAL AID
_____ Professional looking
_____ Complements narrative
_____ Used effectively
_____ Appropriate amount of information per
slide
_____ Error free
Total Score _____________
_____ VERY GOOD: 28-35
_____ SATISFACTORY: 22-27
_____ UNSATISFACTORY: 21 OR BELOW
42
MGT
3100
Petrick
Presentations will be videotaped in classes and forwarded to the Assistant Dean who will have
them assessed by faculty in the Communications Department using the following rubric:
Number of Speaker/Team _________________
Evaluation
EACH CATEGORY IS WORTH UP TO 5 POINTS
EACH
ORGANIZATION
_____ Attention-getting introduction
_____Clear preview of purpose/main points
_____Main ideas are well organized and logically
developed
_____Excellent transitions
_____Satisfying and well developed conclusion
Henry
Evans
TOPIC KNOWLEDGE (CONTENT)
_____ Full understanding of information
_____ Unobtrusive use of notes
_____ Answered questions accurately
SUPPORT
_____ Strong supporting evidence
_____ Citations were accurate and strengthened
argument
VERBAL & VOCAL EFFECTIVENESS
_____ Language is appropriate for the
audience/setting/content
_____ Speaker is eloquent but concise
_____ Minimal use of disfluencies (“umm,”
“uh,” etc.)
_____ Masterful volume & variety
_____ Excellent vocalics-- (articulation,
inflection,
pace, pauses, etc.)
43
Presentation
Advanced
(Exemplary)
Developing
(Average)
5-4
3-2
Emerging
(Low
performance)
0-1
PHYSICAL DELIVERY
_____ Appeared confident and poised
_____ Reinforcing facial expressions
_____ Appropriate eye contact – enough?
balanced?
_____ Meaningful gestures & body movement
TEAM SKILLS
_____ Evidence of team collaboration
_____ Seamless transitions between team
members
_____ Information supported each others’
research
VISUAL AID
_____ Professional looking
_____ Complements narrative
_____ Used effectively
_____ Appropriate amount of information per
slide
_____ Error free
Total Score _____________
_____ VERY GOOD: 28-35
_____ SATISFACTORY: 22-27
_____ UNSATISFACTORY: 21 OR BELOW
FIN 4270
Wood
Students will present a comprehensive financial plan to the class.
Presentations will be videotaped in classes and forwarded to the Assistant Dean who will have
them assessed by faculty in the Communications Department using the following rubric:
Number of Speaker/Team _________________
Evaluation
Advanced
(Exemplary)
44
Presentation
Developing
(Average)
Emerging
(Low
performance)
EACH CATEGORY IS WORTH UP TO 5 POINTS
EACH
ORGANIZATION
5-4
_____ Attention-getting introduction
_____Clear preview of purpose/main points
_____Main ideas are well organized and logically
developed
_____Excellent transitions
_____Satisfying and well developed conclusion
TOPIC KNOWLEDGE (CONTENT)
_____ Full understanding of information
_____ Unobtrusive use of notes
_____ Answered questions accurately
SUPPORT
_____ Strong supporting evidence
_____ Citations were accurate and strengthened
argument
VERBAL & VOCAL EFFECTIVENESS
_____ Language is appropriate for the
audience/setting/content
_____ Speaker is eloquent but concise
_____ Minimal use of disfluencies (“umm,”
“uh,” etc.)
_____ Masterful volume & variety
_____ Excellent vocalics-- (articulation,
inflection,
pace, pauses, etc.)
PHYSICAL DELIVERY
_____ Appeared confident and poised
_____ Reinforcing facial expressions
_____ Appropriate eye contact – enough?
balanced?
_____ Meaningful gestures & body movement
45
3-2
0-1
TEAM SKILLS
_____ Evidence of team collaboration
_____ Seamless transitions between team
members
_____ Information supported each others’
research
VISUAL AID
_____ Professional looking
_____ Complements narrative
_____ Used effectively
_____ Appropriate amount of information per
slide
_____ Error free
Total Score _____________
_____ VERY GOOD: 28-35
_____ SATISFACTORY: 22-27
_____ UNSATISFACTORY: 21 OR BELOW
Learning Objective 3.3: Students will demonstrate knowledge of effective communication skills in a digital environment.
Where
Taught by:
Questions:
Received
measured:
Results
MKT
Gulas
12. A system of on-line applications that use software to build on-line communities of
2500
people
Gupta
who share interests and activities is known as a _________________.
Munch
A. Consumer Culture
Ramsey
B. Flash mob
Wamwara-Mbugua
C. Social Network
D. Team Purchase
E. Wisdom of Crowds
46
13. Video on demand (VOD), iPods, and DVRs present which of the following
problems for advertisers?
A. Consumers are watching less television.
B. Consumers have difficulty attending to specific advertising messages due
to advertising clutter.
C. Audiences are less interested in media consumption.
D. Consumers have more choices about what to watch or not watch.
E. Television advertising is becoming more expensive
MGT
3100
Petrick
Henry
Evans
Email communication is the richest form of communication.
True
False
Only some things that you post in a social networking environment is potentially
accessible to your employers or other professionals.
True
False
MIS 3000
Lumpkin
You are working on a team that is facing a very difficult decision. There is a strong
diversity of opinions among team members, and emotions are high. What is the best
form of communication for making a final decision in this situation?
A. text
B. email
C. phone conference
D. face-to-face meeting
The confusion created by ________ makes it difficult for companies to create customer
relationship management, supply chain management, or enterprise systems that
integrate data from different sources.
A. data independence
B. data redundancy
C. batch processing
D. online processing
47
A computerized system that performs and records the daily dealings necessary to
conduct business is classified as a(n):
A. executive-level system
B. transaction-level system
C. decision-level system
D. management-level system
A field identified in a table as holding the unique identifier of the table's records is
called the:
A. primary key
B. unique ID
C. foreign key
D. primary field
What can effective and efficient supply chain management systems enable an
organization to accomplish?
A. Increase the power of its buyers.
B. Increase its supplier power.
C. Increase switching costs to increase the threat of substitute products and
services.
D. All of the above.
The most prominent data manipulation language today is:
A. Access.
B. Crystal Reports.
C. SQL.
D. DB2.
Executive support systems are information systems that support the:
A. Decision-making and administrative activities of middle managers.
B. Day-to-day processes of production.
C. Long-range planning activities of senior management.
D. Knowledge and data workers in an organization.
48
Customer relationship management applications dealing with the analysis of customer
data to provide information for improving business performance best describes:
A. Analytical customer relationship management applications.
B. Supply chain management applications.
C. Operational customer relationship management applications.
D. Generic customer relationship management applications.
Assume you work for a package delivery service in a major metropolitan area, and that
the business has been losing customers for several years. You have been asked to find a
solution to this problem, perhaps one which uses modern information technologies.
What is the correct way to proceed:
A. Look for solutions, evaluate the solutions, identify the problem more clearly,
and then implement the solution.
B. Design solutions, evaluate and identify the problems, choose the best
solution, and then implement the solution.
C. Think about what solutions can be implemented, look for solution designs,
evaluate the designs, and then implement the solution.
D. Identify the problem, design alternative solutions, choose the best solution,
and then implement the solution.
You have been hired by a non-profit agency to implement a system to handle their
donations. Event fund-raisers need to be able to quickly access a donor's information for
updates. The marketing department wants to evaluate the effectiveness of past
campaigns for goal-seeking analysis. What system(s) will best meet these needs?
A. EIS
B. TPS with DSS
C. TPS
D. DSS
A(n) ________ contains data from various key business processes and stores the data in
a single comprehensive data repository, usable by other parts of the business.
A. enterprise resource planning system
49
B. automatic reporting system
C. transaction system
D. management information system
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a relational database?
A. Reduced redundancy.
B. Increased security.
C. Reduced flexibility.
D. Increased quality.
Which of the following best illustrates the relationship between entities and attributes?
A. The entity CUSTOMER with the attribute ADDRESS
B. The entity PRODUCT with the attribute PURCHASE
C. The entity PRODUCT with the attribute CITY
D. The entity CUSTOMER with the attribute PRODUCT
A data warehouse is a _________ collection of information, gathered from many
different _____________ databases, that supports business analysis and decisionmaking tasks.
A. Logical, operational
B. Logical, transactional
C. Physical, operational
D. Physical, transactional
FIN 3110
Ingraham
Students must complete a set of financial statements (Income Statement, Balance Sheet,
and Statement of Cash Flows) using incomplete financial data. Students will also create
common-size income statements and balance sheets. In addition, each student will
create formulas in each of the yellow boxes on the spreadsheet that will produce the
correct result for any values of the inputs.
Students will be graded based on their completion on a five point scale for each of the
following:
1. Complete an Income Statement
50
2. Complete a Balance Sheet
3. Complete a Statement of Cash Flows
4. Formating
51
Learning Goal 4: Students will cultivate a capacity for leadership and develop the competencies associated with ethics and an
understanding of social responsibility.
Learning Objective 4.1: Students will be able to recognize, analyze and resolve ethical and social responsibility issues.
Where
Taught by:
Questions:
Received
measured:
Results
EC 2040
Endres
Which of the following illustrates the concept of a negative externality?
A. A college professor plays a vigorous game of racquet ball with the racquet
Dung
she recently purchased.
Naidu
B. A flood wipes out a farmer’s entire corn crop.
Fanon
C. A college student plays his new stereo system at 2:00 a.m and wakes up his
Cavanaugh
neighbors.
D. A janitor eats a burger during his lunch break.
EC 2050
Herrick
Daoud
Olson
Freire-Solórzano
Dung
Cavanaugh
When the government engages in an expansionary fiscal policy, it ___________.
Everything else constant, aggregate demand___________.
A. increases interest rates; increases
B. increases exports; decreases
C. increases government expenditure and/or decreases taxes; increases
D. expands government regulations; decreases
MKT
2500
Gulas
14. The American Marketing Association Code of Ethics includes which of the
following?
A. General Norms
B. Ethical Values
C. Implementation of the code
D. All the above.
15. The _______________________ maintains that marketers must satisfy customers’
needs in ways that also benefit society and are profitable to the firm.
A. value proposition
B. customer relationship management
Gupta
Munch
52
Ramsey
C. social marketing concept
D. sales orientation
E. value chain management
Wamwara-Mbugua
MGT
3110
Back
Suazo
Pierce
16. _________________ are messages that champion an issue or promote not-for-profit
organizations that serve society in some way.
A. Advocacy advertisements
B. Product advertisements
C. Public service advertisements
D. Institutional advertisements
E. Brand advertisements
13. Deontological ethical theories, from the Greek word deos, meaning "ends" or
"purposes," try to answer questions about right and wrong by focusing on whether
a person's conduct will produce desirable consequences.
True
False
14.
The deontological perspective focuses on the actions of the leader and his or her
moral obligations and responsibilities to do the right thing.
True
False
15. In the workplace, altruistic service behavior can be observed in activities such as
________________ .
A. mentoring
B. empowerment behaviors
C. team building
D. citizenship behaviors
E. All of the above
53
16.
Identify the principle of ethical leadership.
A. Respect
B. Service
C. Justice
D. Honesty
E. All of the above
Did the issues that Deborah Shank and her family face, after her automobile accident,
reflect ethical and social responsibility issues for Wal-Mart? Your response must
include an analysis and resolution that reflects your position.
Grading rubric (there are two ways to answer this question) 1. Wal-Mart was correct when it recovered the approximately $470,000 in
medical costs.
The following items must be included to be a complete answer:








Approximately $470,000 in medical costs
Primary function or purpose of organization
Stockholder perspective
Role morality
Friedman (profits, free and open competition without deception or fraud, not
recovering the $470,000 is taxation without representation [e.g., theft; and
makes the assumption that “stockholders do not want corporations to engage
in philanthropy or help solve social problems {Sage, 119}.”])
Friedman/Sustainability Debate (Sage, 120)”
“Ethical management requires that when an individual interest is sacrificed
for the organizational good, the individual must be treated with respect (p.
123).”
Respect for persons is fundamental moral principle for managing orgs (p.
123)
54
2. Wal-Mart was not correct when it recovered the approximately $470,000 in
medical costs.
The following items must be included to be a complete answer:











Approximately $470,000 in medical costs
Primary function or purpose of organization
Stakeholder perspective
Role morality
Stakeholder Theory
Sustainable management (this includes being socially responsible)
Friedman/Sustainability Debate (Sage, 120)”
“Ethical management requires that when an individual interest is sacrificed
for the organizational good, the individual must be treated with respect (p.
123).”
Respect for persons is fundamental moral principle for managing orgs (p.
123)
“Vulnerable consumers ethically require more help … (127).”
“Despite the view of the Friedmanites, some form of corporate social
responsibility is accepted as an obligation (p. 129).
Exceptional
Strong
Average
Weak
Very Weak
Content
Readability
EC 3010
Endres
Jenkins
1. The existence of FDIC (deposit) insurance can increase the likelihood that depositors
will need deposit protection, as banks with deposit insurance
55
A. are likely to take on greater risks than they otherwise would.
B. are likely to be too conservative, reducing the probability of turning a profit.
C. are likely to regard deposits as an unattractive source of funds due to
depositorsʹ demands
D. for safety.
E. are placed at a competitive disadvantage in acquiring funds.
Learning Objective 4.2: Students will know how to develop and promote an ethical and socially responsible organizational
culture.
Where
Taught by:
Questions:
Received
measured:
Results
EC 2040
Endres
Which of the following reason may be used to justify the government
providing a good?
Dung
A. The good is excludable.
Naidu
B. The good is associated with negative externalities.
Fanon
C. The good is under provided, if left to the market.
Cavanaugh
D. The good is excludable and rival in consumption.
EC 2050
Herrick
Daoud
Olson
Freire-Solórzano
Dung
Cavanaugh
As a measure of macroeconomic activity, GDP per capita:
A. Provides a measure of income distribution among the population in the
economy.
B. Does not account for home-based output that was produced for household
consumption.
C. Does not count the sale of newly produced and sold final goods; it only
counts newly produced intermediary goods and services.
D. Excludes the population’s expenditures associated with crime, pollution, and
hospitalization, because it is a measure of growth and well-being.
FIN 2210
Ingram
Akhbari
Paule
Finance will use one of the following three questions for assessment of this learning
objective:
56
Hull
FIN 2210 Questions Assessment A:
12. Which of the following actions is consistent with social responsibility but is
necessarily inconsistent with stockholder wealth maximization?
A. Investing in a smokestack "scrubber" to reduce the firm's air pollution as
mandated by law.
B. Voluntarily installing expensive machinery to treat effluent discharge which
currently is being dumped into a river where it is ruining the drinking water
of the community where the plant is located.
C. Investing in a smokestack filter to reduce sulphur-dioxide emissions in order
to reduce the current tax being levied on the firm by the state for its
pollution.
D. Making a large corporate donation to the local community in order to fund a
recreation complex that will be used by the community and the firm's
employees.
E. Each of the above actions is consistent with social responsibility and none
are necessarily inconsistent with stockholder wealth maximization.
FIN 2210 Questions Assessment B:
12. Which of the following statements concerning a firm's quest to maximize wealth is
correct?
A. In extremely competitive industries, we would expect firms would
voluntarily engage in many socially beneficial projects to try to maximize
their stocks' values.
B. Actions that maximize a firm's stock price are inconsistent with maximizing
social welfare.
C. The concepts of social responsibility and ethical responsibility on the part of
corporations are completely different and neither is relevant in maximizing
stock price.
D. In a competitive market, if a group of firms does not spend resources making
social welfare improvements, but another group does, in general, this will
not affect the second group's ability to attract funds.
57
E. If government did not mandate socially responsible corporate actions, such
as those relating to product safety and fair hiring practices, most firms in
competitive markets probably would not pursue such policies voluntarily.
FIN 2210 Questions Assessment C:
MGT
3110
Back
Suazo
Pierce
12. Which of the following is an example of an area of business where use of
"questionable" ethics is considered a necessity?
A. Attracting and sustaining new customers.
B. Hiring and keeping skilled employees.
C. Keeping up with competition.
D. Dealing with firms who use "questionable" ethics.
E. None of the above.
13.
Deontological ethical theories, from the Greek word deos, meaning "ends" or
"purposes," try to answer questions about right and wrong by focusing on whether a
person's conduct will produce desirable consequences.
True
False
14.
The deontological perspective focuses on the actions of the leader and his or her
moral obligations and responsibilities to do the right thing.
True
False
15.
In the workplace, altruistic service behavior can be observed in activities such as
________________ .
A. mentoring
B. empowerment behaviors
C. team building
D. citizenship behaviors
E. All of the above
58
16.
MIS 3000
Lumpkin
Identify the principle of ethical leadership.
A. Respect
B. Service
C. Justice
D. Honesty
E. All of the above
Where do organizations typically place firewalls?
A. Between a personal computer and the server
B. Between a personal computer and a printer
C. Between the server and the content filtering software
D. Between the server and the Internet
What is a method for confirming users' identities?
A. Authentication
B. Prevention
C. Detection
D. Response
What is encryption?
A. Occurs when an organization uses software that filters content to prevent the
transmission of unauthorized information.
B. Scrambles information into an alternative form that requires a key or
password to decrypt the information.
C. Hardware and/or software that guards a private network by analyzing the
information leaving and entering the network.
D. A form of unsolicited email.
What is the recommended way to implement information security lines of defense?
A. People first, technology second
B. Technology first, people second
C. None of the above
D. All of the above
59
What is the identification of a user based on a physical characteristic, such as a
fingerprint, iris, face, voice, or handwriting?
A. Smart card
B. Token
C. Biometrics
D. Content filtering
What is social engineering?
A. Using one’s social skills to trick people into revealing access credentials or
other information valuable to the attacker
B. Legitimate users who purposely or accidentally misuse their access to the
environment and cause some kind of business-affecting incident
C. Small electronic devices that change user passwords automatically
D. A method for confirming user’s identities
What is the first step you should take in managing data for a firm?
A. Cleanse the data before importing it to any database
B. Audit your data quality
C. Normalize the data before importing to a database
D. Identify the data needed to run the business
Which of the following is NOT one of the top 10 questions managers should ask
regarding information security?
A. Is there clear accountability for information security in our organization?
B. How much is spent on information security and what is it being spent on?
C. What is the impact on the organization of a serious security incident?
D. How do we identify potential insiders?
EC 3010
Endres
Jenkins
1. If the incentive to take advantage of a conflict of interest is high
A. removing the economies of scope that created the conflict may induce higher
costs because of the decrease in the flow of reliable information.
B. then the government must step in to remove the conflict.
C. the costs of non-action in removing the conflict will always be higher than the
60
cost of
removing the conflict.
D. firms will always step in and work to remove the conflict.
Learning Objective 4.3: Students will know how to effectively lead and collaborate with others.
Where
Taught by:
Questions:
measured:
MGT
Petrick
One of the members of your work group, Joshua, is constantly goofing off and
3100
interrupting you with his wisecracks. His behavior is impeding your group's ability to
Henry
get work done. Which of the following statements is least likely to make Joshua feel
Evans
defensive?
A. “Joshua, your wise-cracks are really annoying. I wish you’d stop saying
things like that.”
B. “Joshua, I wish you’d take the jokes someplace else.”
C. “Joshua, you make me so frustrated. Please stop interrupting me when I'm
speaking.”
D. “Joshua, when you goof off and interrupt me during our group meetings, I
get off track and it takes me time to get refocused, which makes me feel very
frustrated.”
James is your manager. He observes you and Brenda having a conversation. You are an
experienced co-worker. You often help others. Some things have happened to make
James question Brenda's ability, and now Brenda appears to be distracted from her
work. He reprimands Brenda. She tries to explain that she was asking you for help, but
James suggests that she spend more time working and less time talking. James is
demonstrating which of the following communication problems?
A. poor listening
B. defensiveness
C. culture
D. personal space issues
Studies suggest that perhaps 80 to 90 percent of information transmitted during a
61
Received
Results
conversation is nonverbal.
True
False
You are president of a small company. Kim is one of your vice presidents and you have
had many opportunities to observe her behavior in a variety of situations. In one case
you saw her control her anger when a different person probably would have lashed out.
In a second case you saw her “read between the lines” and ask insightful questions
about one of her subordinate’s feelings when that person made a negative comment
about a co-worker. In a third case you saw her express concern about a subordinate who
was involved in a car accident. These examples suggest that Kim has a high degree of:
A. emotional intelligence
B. personality
C. predictability
D. task ethics
Jeanette is a front-line manager who strives to empower her workers. One day, David
approaches her with a problem that is similar to an issue she has solved on in the past.
She wants to help him to solve the problem himself, but she also realizes she could do it
herself in half the time. Which of the following actions is MOST likely to empower
David in this situation?
A. Take over the project and just get it done.
B. Send David to her boss to ask for the information he needs.
C. Coach him about how she has solved a similar problem, but let him do the
work.
D. Tell him to just do it and stop asking questions.
A leader who sets challenging goals for others would be described as using the
__________________ leadership style.
A. Autocratic
B. Achievement oriented
C. Transformational
62
D. Directive
Leadership is defined as the ability to influence others toward the achievement of goals.
True
False
You have been named CEO of a global corporation based in New York with offices in
five countries. Sales are down and there is a high level of dissatisfaction among senior
leaders and their subordinates. From a transformational leadership perspective, where
your intent is to empower other leaders, which of these actions would be most effective
for changing this condition?
A. sending your best management team from New York to run the international
offices
B. having executives in all offices report directly to you
C. making all major corporate decisions yourself until the company's
performance improves
D. giving executives more freedom to make decisions
It is impossible to have power without also having authority.
True
False
Employees tend to use a broader range of influence tactics with their supervisors when
trying to secure personal benefits than when trying to achieve organizational goals.
True
False
The Vice President of your company assembles a team of people from different levels
of the organization (e.g., Directors, Managers, Supervisors, Operatives) and who
represent different functions (e.g., Marketing, Production, Finance) in order to have
them recommend a decision rather than making the decision herself. She knows that
when compared to individual decision-making:
A. group decisions are faster
63
B. group decisions have clearer accountability
C. group decisions convey consistent values
D. group decisions are more likely to be accepted in an organization
As Vice President of Human Resources in a high-tech sales organization, Bob
assembles a team of people. He assigns them the task of developing a new total
compensation system. He wants them to be a self-managed team. This means:
A. he will manage them himself
B. they will have members from different functions in the organization
C. they will regulate their own behavior
D. they will act collectively as if they are the Vice President
A manager assigns a team project to his work group. Which of the following actions is
likely to be effective in reducing social loafing within the team?
A. assigning the same performance evaluation to all members of the team
B. increasing the size of team to reduce the workload for individual members
C. completing the assignment
D. having team members evaluate each other's contribution to the team
E. using personality similarities in assigning coworkers to teams
MGT
3110
Back
Suazo
Pierce
Defining the team's assignment involves specifying the team's purpose, responsibilities,
and needs.
True
False
7.
A team is a specific type of group.
True
False
8.
Research on the effectiveness of organizational teams has suggested that the use
of teams has led to ___________________ .
A. greater productivity
B. a more effective use of resources
64
C. better decisions and problem solving
D. better-quality product and services
E. All of the above
9.
Which of the following is NOT a task leadership function.
A. getting the job done
B. solving problems
C. adapting to changes
D. solving interpersonal problems
E. making plans
10.
A common mistake in forming teams is to assume that people who have all the
technical skills necessary to solve a problem also have the interpersonal skills necessary
to collaborate effectively.
True
False
SCM 3070 Polak
Johnson
Kellar
Hamister
Weinstein
The SCM Curriculum Committee will qualitatively assess this objective in the context
of an experiential game and discuss the results in committee at the end of the semester.
65