AGBU VATCHE AND TAMAR MANOUKIAN HIGH SCHOOL
AP ENV. SCIENCE Final Exam 2014-2015
1. Waste prevention is also known as
A. composting.
B. recycling.
C. source reduction.
D. waste toxicity.
2. The selection of a modern landfill site is based on
A. understanding groundwater geology.
B. soil type.
C. sensitivity to local citizens' concerns.
D. All of these are correct.
3. In a modern landfill, the "cell" is sealed when it is filled and the adjacent groundwater is
continuously monitored.
True False
4. The management of municipal solid waste is directly affected by
A. economics.
B. changes in technology.
C. citizen awareness and involvement.
D. All of these are correct.
5. The major problem with recycling plastics is
A. the lack of steady supply.
B. the inability to mix plastics.
C. the lack of current markets.
D. the taxes imposed on the recycled product.
6. A type of incineration of solid waste.
A. source reduction
B. incineration
C. municipal solid waste
D. mass burn
7. Which of the following is NOT a method of waste disposal?
A. incineration
B. secondary recovery
C. landfills
D. recycling
8. One of the main problems associated with mining is water pollution.
True False
9. There are both benefits and drawbacks to recycling.
True False
10. Term used to describe a product which is used once and thrown away.
A. municipal landfill
B. forced consumption
C. disposable
D. NIMBY
11. In addition to keeping wastes from entering a landfill, composting also
A. adds bulk to soil.
B. increases porosity of the soil.
C. adds nutrients to the soil
D. Increases porosity of the soil and adds nutrients to the soil are correct.
E. All of these are correct.
12. Reducing the amount of solid waste generated by using less.
A. source reduction
B. incineration
C. municipal solid waste
D. mass burn
13. Agricultural waste is the most common form of solid waste.
True False
14. The purpose of state "bottle bills" is
A. to reduce the amount of one-time-use beverage containers.
B. to raise tax money to pay for waste disposal.
C. to reduce the air pollution from the manufacture of plastic bottles.
D. All of these are correct.
15. Agricultural waste is the _____ most common form of waste.
A. first
B. second
C. third
D. fourth
16. Which of the following is a problem with solid waste disposal?
A. cost
B. groundwater hazard
C. maintaining air quality
D. All of these are correct.
17. The current problem with recycling is the inability to mix different plastics.
True False
18. The primary risk from incineration is the risk of contaminants leaching from the ash.
True False
19. The long-term success of recycling programs is tied to economic incentives.
True False
20. Landfills have historically been the secondary method of waste disposal.
True False
21. Motor vehicle emissions are not a major source of air pollution.
True False
22. Types of unmodified materials released into the atmosphere.
A. primary air pollutants
B. photochemical smog
C. oxides of nitrogen
D. sulfur dioxide
23. The chief source of chlorofluorocarbons in the environment is
A. refrigerant gases.
B. propellants in aerosol containers.
C. expanders in foam products.
D. All of these are correct.
24. Melting of arctic sea ice might influence survival of polar bear populations.
True False
25. Why is carbon monoxide dangerous?
A. It results in an increase in the ozone hole in the stratosphere.
B. It binds with hemoglobin, reducing the blood's oxygen carry-capacity.
C. It combines with oxygen to form carbon dioxide.
D. It is carcinogenic.
26. Industrial dust and ash are considered
A. primary air pollutants.
B. secondary air pollutants.
C. photochemical smog.
D. particulates.
27. Nitrous oxides enter the atmosphere from fossil fuels and ___________.
A. fertilizers.
B. refrigerator coolants.
C. pesticides.
D. ozone.
28. The most common source of carbon monoxide is from
A. industry.
B. burning leaves.
C. vehicles.
D. swamps.
29. Condition in which warm air is sandwiched between two layers of cold air.
A. thermal inversion
B. acid deposition
C. secondary air pollutants
D. ozone
E. particulates
30. Atmospheric ozone shields the Earth from the harmful effects of ultraviolet light radiation.
True False
31. Which of the following chemicals is implicated in both global warming and ozone
depletion?
A. chlorofluorocarbons
B. sulfur dioxide
C. nicotine
D. radon
32. Scientists have agreed that human activity is causing the climate to get warmer.
True False
33. What is the name given to the accumulation of acid-forming particles on a surface?
A. surface retention
B. acid deposition
C. particulate pollution
D. secondary pollution
34. Deaths from air pollutants occur primarily among
A. the elderly.
B. the very young.
C. asthma sufferers.
D. All of these are correct.
35. Lead and nitrogen compounds are believed to contribute to the destruction of ozone in the
upper atmosphere.
True False
36. Air pollutant consisting of nitrogen and oxygen compounds.
A. primary air pollutants
B. photochemical smog
C. oxides of nitrogen
D. sulfur dioxide
37. As a waterbody becomes more acidic, many aquatic species fail to reproduce.
True False
38. The use of catalytic converters can reduce acid rain production.
True False
39. Air can generally not accept and or disperse significant amounts of pollutants.
True False
40. Unwanted sound or noise is considered to be a type of pollution.
True False
41. A genetically modified organism has had one or more
A. genes altered.
B. genes destroyed.
C. chromosomes damaged.
D. All of these are correct.
42. All products that are sold as organic must be certified.
True False
43. Pesticide consisting of carbon, hydrogen, and chlorine.
F. rodenticide
G. auxin
H. chlorinated hydrocarbon
I. hard pesticide
44. An unwanted plant.
A. weed
B. biocide
C. pheromone
D. macronutrient
45. Mechanized agriculture is typical of undeveloped tropical regions.
True False
46. Which is a typical method used by organic farmers to control pests?
A. herbicides such as Round-up
B. cow manure to replace commercial fertilizer
C. antibiotics in feedstock
D. predator or beneficial insects such as the ladybug (ladybird beetle)
47. Which of the following is NOT a reason to add a food additive?
A. prolong storage life
B. deter insects
C. add nutritive value
D. make food more attractive
48. Organophosphates and carbamates work by
A. interfering with an insect's nervous system.
B. interrupting photosynthesis in weeds.
C. preventing apples from dropping from trees.
D. causing internal bleeding in mammals.
49. Sustainable agriculture utilizes methods that
A. do not deplete soil, water, air, or wildlife resources.
B. sustain constant yields of crops.
C. cause wind and soil erosion.
D. None of these are correct.
50. Genetically modified (GM) foods have been called
A. the breakfast of the future.
B. brand new processes.
C. frankenfoods.
D. All of these are correct.
51. Nutrient that is required by plants in relatively large amounts.
A. weed
C. pheromone
D. macronutrient
E. organophosphate
52. The future of technology for producing agricultural products more efficiently and
economically hold promise in several ways, including
A. reducing shelf life of fresh fruits.
B. increasing allergenic foods.
C. improving the nutritional quality foods.
D. All of these are correct.
53. What accounts for the increased productivity of the U.S. over Brazil in small grain
production?
A. climate
B. fertilizer
C. labor force
D. better seed
54. Kind of chemical that kills many different types of living things.
A. weed
B. biocide
C. pheromone
D. macronutrient
55. Pesticides that break down quickly in the environment are called
A. nontarget pesticides.
B. nonpersistent pesticides.
C. insecticides.
D. persistent pesticides.
56. Beneficial insects are used in agriculture because they
A. prey on pest insects.
B. eat pest weeds.
C. produce beneficial bacteria.
D. pollinate fruit-bearing flowers.
57. An environmental problem associated with pesticide use in the former Soviet Union is
A. an outbreak of plague over large areas of the country.
B. improved drinking water quality.
C. increase in radioactivity levels in soil and air.
D. contamination of baby food with nitrates and pesticides.
58. Mechanized agriculture has substituted the labor of humans with energy stored in petroleum
products.
True False
59. Fertilizers do not alter soil characteristics.
True False
60. Chemicals which are released by female insects to attract male insects are called
A. auxins.
B. DDT.
C. insecticides.
D. pheromones.
61. Soil building begins with the physical fragmentation of layers of rock known as
A. layering of rock.
B. parent material.
C. syncline structures.
D. fluvial overlay.
62. Soil quality management can enhance organic matter, manage pests, and prevent soil
compaction.
True False
63. The primary purpose of conservation tillage is to
A. reduce the number of times a field is plowed.
B. adjust abiotic conditions so insects cannot live.
C. incorporate organic material into the soil.
D. allow surface water to flow more evenly.
64. Soil conservation practices are designed to
A. increase productivity.
B. increase the percentage of grasslands over forests.
C. support international trade.
D. minimize topsoil loss.
65. Which soil profile contains material leached from other horizons?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
66. What is the importance of humus?
A. It supplies cadmium.
B. It decreases pH.
C. It allows seeds to germinate.
D. It provides a habitat for invertebrates.
67. Land has characteristics that influence how it can be used, including
A. soil, climate, and degree of slope.
B. crops, trees, and shrubs.
C. houses, farms, and commercial buildings.
D. None of these are correct.
68. Organisms affect the soil in which of the following ways?
A. by releasing nutrients
B. by burrowing
C. through decomposition
D. All of these are correct.
69. Land that cannot be cultivated will not be productive for other uses.
True False
70. Which of the following is NOT a physical process affecting break down of parent material?
A. freezing and thawing
B. glaciers
C. drought
D. flowing water
71. Soil conservation or quality management practices include
A. land use planning.
B. building development codes.
C. contour and strip farming.
D. All of these are correct.
72. In regions with _______, basic ions are leached from the soil and more acidic materials are
left behind.
A. high rainfall
B. high temperatures
C. low rainfall
D. permafrost
73. Which of the following a typically a pioneer organism to colonize the surface of bare rocks?
A. humus
B. algae
C. lichens
D. fungi
74. Traditional landscaping maintenance practices that meet human needs and aesthetics often
harm the environment.
True False
75. Soil quality management components include
A. adding massive nutrient loads.
B. excessive tillage.
C. enhancing organic matter.
D. All of these are correct.
76. Desert soils have very poorly developed horizons.
True False
77. Which of the following does NOT determine soil fertility?
A. organic matter content
B. diversity of invertebrates
C. water content
D. air spaces
78. Soil erosion is linked to which of the following environmental issues?
A. air pollution
B. water pollution
C. soil pollution
D. greenhouse effect
79. Physical, chemical, and biological factors contribute to soil formation.
True False
80. Land unsuitable for crops may be used for which of the following?
A. grazing
B. recreation
C. lumber
D. All of these are correct.
81. Water pollution is not a problem associated with unplanned urban growth.
True False
82. Characteristics of a smart or sustainable community may include
A. promoting economic success.
B. seeking to protect and enhance the environment.
C. protecting non-native species.
D. Both promoting economic success and seeking to protect and enhance the environment are
true.
83. Areas that include swamps, tidal marshes, and estuaries.
D. urban sprawl
E. floodplain zoning
F. multiple land use
G. wetlands
84. Large-scale migration to cities was caused by which of the following?
A. improvements in agriculture
B. increased job opportunities in cities
C. cultural activities in cities
D. All of these are correct.
85. As towns became larger, surrounding farmland became suburbia.
True False
86. Large, regional urban center.
A. zoning
B. megalopolis
C. floodplain
D. urban sprawl
87. What does it mean when an area is designated as wilderness?
A. People can build only parks on it.
B. Human activity is severely restricted.
C. No vehicles are allowed on the land.
D. None of these are correct.
88. The leading conflict over recreational land use occurs because
A. some activities can not occur in the same place and time.
B. some activities need more land than others.
C. some activities require monetary investment.
D. None of these are correct.
89. Lowland area on either side of a river.
A. zoning
B. megalopolis
C. floodplain
D. urban sprawl
90. A sustainable community seeks to protect and enhance the environment by
A. buying wholesale.
B. reducing water use.
C. valuing and protecting the diversity of nature.
D. using firewood instead of natural gas.
91. Much of the human population is migrating from the central city to the suburbs.
True False
92. Most major cities are located away from rivers, lakes, or the ocean.
True False
93. Which of the following did NOT contribute to sprawl?
A. Non-urban land has historically been inexpensive.
B. Local zoning prohibited mixed land use.
C. Planners do not allow building on floodplains.
D. The wealth of the general population has increased.
94. Two or more uses of a land may occur at the same time.
A. floodplain zoning
B. multiple land use
C. wetlands
D. ribbon sprawl
95. Dairy farms and traffic noise are examples of
A. urban sprawl.
B. brown field development.
C. aesthetic pollution.
D. urban growth limits.
96. Early towns were usually built
A. near railway centers.
B. near rivers, lakes, and oceans.
C. near rich farmland.
D. None of these are correct.
97. Urban sprawl has increased society's dependence on oil and the automobile.
True False
98. The impacts of urban sprawl include
A. increased congestion.
B. air pollution.
C. loss of habitat.
D. All of these are correct.
99. Current city taxation policies encourage residential development on farmland.
True False
100. Characteristics of a smart or sustainable community may include
A. promoting economic success.
B. seeking to protect and enhance the environment.
C. protecting non-native species.
D. Both promoting economic success and seeking to protect and enhance the environment are
true.