INSTITUȚIA PUBLICĂ UNIVERSITATEA DE STAT DE MEDICINĂ
ŞI FARMACIE “NICOLAE TESTEMIŢANU”
DIN REPUBLICA MOLDOVA
Catedra chirurgie oro-maxilo-facială, implantologie orală şi
stomatologie terapeutică „Arsenie Guţan”
Pag. 1/72
Aprobate
la şedinţa catedrei chirurgie oro-maxilo-facială,
implantologie orală şi stomatologie terapeutică
„Arsenie Guţan”, Instituția Publică Universitatea
de Stat de Medicină și Farmacie „Nicolae Testemiţanu”
Proces verbal Nr.7 din 05.05.2015
Şef catedră, dr. hab. şt. med.,
profesor universitar __________ V. Topalo
Teste către examenul la chirurgia oro-maxilo-facială din sesiunea de vară pentru studenţii
anul IV, an. univ. 2014-2015.
S.A. – simple answers;
M.A.-multiple answers
1.M.A. Oral and maxillofacial trauma has a special place in contemporary traumatology because :
A. An increased frequency is recorded
B. Has extremely varied and complicated issues
C. Intense road traffic with multiple forms of accidents recorded in oral and maxillofacial area
D. Violation of the rules of labor protection in industry and agriculture
E. Various forms of human aggression, the result of which is (in 50-80% of the cases) the affectation of oral and
maxillofacial region
2.M.A. Forms of oral and maxillofacial trauma are quite different :
A. Isolated trauma (only soft tissue, maxillary bones or teeth)
B. Associated forms (oral and maxillofacial trauma and other parts of the body)
C. Associated lesions of soft tissues and maxillary bones
D. Compound lesions (traumatic, thermal, chemical agents)
E. Trauma of the neurocranium
3.S.A. What is the reason that oral and maxillofacial region is easily exposed to trauma?:
A. It is rich in blood vessels, lymph nodes, nerves
B. Important organs are located in this region (eyes, ears, nose, salivary glands)
C. It is exposed and fragile
D. Thin skin, adipose connective tissue is almost absent
E. All together
4.M.A. Aspects of oral and maxillofacial injuries are determined by morpho-funcional specifics of the region:
A. Anatomical structure of the face (fine skin, muscles, arched curved skeleton, teeth)
B. The location of the oral and maxillofacial region in immediate proximity to the neurocranium
C. Aerodigestive crossroads related to the vital functions (breathing, chewing, swallowing, phonation)
D. Sensory, sympathetic, parasympathetic innervation
E. Very rich vascularity
5.M.A. In oral and maxillofacial trauma the topography of the face is affected and the physiognomy suffers which
leads to serious psycho-emotional consequences for the patient, because:
A. Oral and maxillofacial region has a major physiognomic individual role
B. Affected mimic muscles lead to important changes of the physiognomy
C. However small the defects of the natural orifices are (mouth, nose, eyelids) they represent a reason for psychoemotional stress
D. The defects of the functional grooves lead to impressive changes in physiognomy
E. They have no role for the pacient
6.M.A. Organs of vital importans suffer in oral and maxillofacial trauma:
A. The organs of sense
B. The organs of smell
C. The organs of taste
D. The organs of sight
E. The organs of hearing
7.M.A. Of the 200 bones of the human body which is about 12 kg or 18% of body weight in the oral and
maxillofacial region we have only 10 and from which the paired bones are :
A. The upper jaw
B. The lower jaw
C. Zygomatic
D. Frontal
E. Nasal
8.M.A. Some bones from the facial skeleton are not paired:
A. Palatal
B. Nasal
C. The upper jaw
D. Vomer
E. The lower jaw
9.M.A. In the human skeleton we distinguish different types of bones:
A. Tubular bone
B. Flat bone
C. Bone of mixed form and structure
D. Cancellous bone
E. Bone with no periosteum
10.S.A. The highest frequency of soft tissue wound is found at:
A. Young women
B. Elder people
C. Children
D. Students, pupils
E. Men between 16-55 years
11.S.A. On what grounds oral and maxillo facial injuries are quite common:
A. Anatomical and morphological reasons
B. The face is richly vascularized
C. Arched facial skeleton
D. It is unprotected and exposed to harmful agents
E. The face can be protected by various devices
12.M.A. Traumatic agents which cause oral and maxillofacial injuries are:
A. Human aggression
B. Crash
C. Sports
D. Accidents at work
E. Accidental falls (on the street, at work)
13.S.A. The most frequent cause of the oral and maxillofacial wounds are:
A. Crash
B. Accidental falls
C. Accidents at work
D. Sports injuries
E. Human aggression
14.M.A. Facial burns are frequent and are often caused by:
A. Sports injuries
B. Accidents at work
C. Crash
D. Human aggression
E. Household accidents
15.M.A. Oral and maxillofacial soft tissue damage severity is directly proportional to:
A. Location of the lesion
B. Extent of the affected area
C. Damage of the nerves and great vessels
D. The damage to mimic muscles which flaps away the wound edges gives it a frightening aspect
E. No response is true
16.M.A. Classification of the oral and maxillofacial soft tissue wound is based on:
A. The time elapsed after the accident (recent, old, overinfected)
B. Traumatic agent (assault, crash, work)
C. The topographic region concerned (chin,lips)
D. Affected tissue
E. Anatomical-pathological form (depth of the lesion)
17.M.A. The affected soft tissues in the oral and maxillofacial wounds can be:
A. Superficial (skin, muscles)
B. Or and the deep ones (skin, muscles, glands, mucous membrane)
C. Cranial nerves (trigemen, facial, hypoglos)
D. Branches of the external carotid
E. With or without lack of substance
18.M.A. Soft tissue wounds of biting origin can be often found:
A. Self bite of endobucal origin (of lips, tongue) with the teeth during meals or of psychological causes
B. Dog bite
C. Horse bite
D. Pig bite
E. Wild animal bite
19.M.A. During dental procedures jugal mucosa, the tongue, floor of the mouth can be damaged by:
A. Burs during treatment or polishing teeth
B. Diamond cutting discs
C. Straight sharp elevators
D. Extraction claws
E. Sindesmotomes, knives, scissors
20.S.A. What is characteristic for penetrating wounds is that:
A. They have a smaller inlet
B. They are produced by crushing of the soft tissues and have irregular edges with big offs; vessels, nerves and
salivary glands may be concerned
C. There are deep soft tissue injuries, sometimes accompanied by maxillary bone fractures
D. They have a single hole, are produced by prodding, penetrating of a foreign body or low speed projects
E. Are lesions which do not exceed dermis through friction of a rough plan
21.M.A. Common signs of oral and maxillofacial wounds can be:
A. Pain
B. Bleeding
C. Respiratory disfunction
D. Disfunction of deglutition, mastication
E. Phonation disorders
22.M.A. What neurogenic shock can occur in oral and maxillofacial wounds:
A. Faintness
B. Syncope
C. Seizures
D. Cardiopulmonary arrest
E. None of these
23.S.A. What do you do in asphyxia by falling tongue?:
A. Patient intubation
B. Traction of the tongue with a retraction thread
C. Immobilization of mandible with mentonier sling
D. Tracheostomy
E. All of them
24.S.A. What is the maximum time limit before a primary suture of a facial wound can be performed?:
A. 1-18 hours
B. 12-24 hours
C. 24-36 hours
D. More than 36 hours
E. It is possible in any of these intervals due to the specificity of facial wounds
25.M.A. The suture of position has the role to:
A. Trimming, removing dead space
B. Restore symmetry and cutaneo-mucous control
C. Secures the soft tissues and especially the skin flap in correct position
D. Suppresses the bandage
E. Allows the transport of the patient
26.M.A. The transportation of the injured with asphyxia disorders takes place in:
A. Seated with head turned to one side
B. Dorsal decubitus
C. Lateral decubitus
D. Ventral decubitus
E. No matter the position
27.S.A. The suture of a transfixiante wound of the cheek is reflected:
A. In a plan
B. In 2 plans
C. In 3 plans
D. No immediate suture
E. None of these
28.S.A. What is the frequency of dental-periodontal trauma ?
A. 5%
B. 3,2%
C. 3,8%
D. 6,5%
E. 4,9%
29.S.A. The most common cause of dental-periodontal trauma is:
A. Accidents at work
B. Crash
C. Falls on the street
D. Accidents in sports
E. Aggresion
30.M.A. Main forms of dental-periodontal trauma are:
A. Dental-periodontal concussion
B. Coronal fractures
C. Root fractures
D. Incomplete sprains
E. Complete sprains
31.M.A. Contributing factors to the occurrence of the coronary fractures are:
A. Massive fillings
B. Extended coronal-radicular destruction
C. Caries of the neck of the tooth
D. Marginal chronic parodontitis
E. Cuneiform defects
32.M.A. Some of the dental procedures can lead to dental-periodontal trauma:
A. Skidding elevators
B. Sprain of the neighbouring teeth if the elevator is supported on them
C. Trauma of the antagonists with extraction claws
D. Trauma with mouth openers
E. Fractures when removing dental prosthesis
33.S.A. In partial dental luxations it is recommended:
A. A manual repositioning of the sprained tooth, its immobilization for 4 weeks and periodical control for pulp
vitality
B. Emergency depulpation of the sprained tooth to avoid necrosis of the pulp
C. Elastic intermaxillary immobilization for 4-6 weeks
D. Extraction of the tooth followed by alveoloplasty
E. The avoidance of new injuries which may worsen the situation
34.S.A. Specify which of these situations usually requires the extraction of the tooth:
A. Partial dental luxation
B. Penetrating coronal fracture
C. Crown-root fracture
D. Not penetrating coranal fracture
E. Periodontal contusion
35.S.A. Dental-periodontal injuries are common in:
A. Lower central incisors
B. Upper central incisors
C. Lower canines
D. Upper canines
E. Upper and lower premolars
36.S.A. In a dental-periodontal trauma the diagnosis of penetrating coronal fracture means:
A. The association with a transfixiant labial or genian injury
B. Pushing the fractured tooth in a adjacent natural cavity
C. Pushing the fractured tooth in a lodge nearby
D. Opening of the pulp chamber
E. Association with an open fracture of maxillary bones
37.S.A. In dental-periodontal injuries the most important therapeutic measure is:
A. Removal of the pulp and correct obturation of the canal
B. Immediate extraction of the damaged tooth
C. Late extraction of the damaged tooth
D. Avoiding any treatment to cure
E. Immobilization of the teeth
38.M.A. Specify which of the following interventions are necessary in treatment of thefractures of nonvital teeth:
A. Early extraction
B. Correct endodontic treatment
C. Application of an implant trough the tooth
D. Rebuild of the crown
E. Timing of the treatment
39.C.S. In total dental luxations in young patients it is recommended:
A. Suture of the alveolar wound and applying a space maintainer
B. Replantation of the sprained tooth immediately after alveolar wound healing
C. Following the vitality of neighboring teeth
D. Immediate replantation of the luxated tooth
E. Application of a subperiosteal implant
40.S.A. For the treatment of comminuted teeth may be used:
A. Immediate replantation
B. Delayed replantation
C. Direct pulp capping
D. Vital pulp amputation
E. None of these methods
41.S.A. Penetrative coronal fractures
A. In most cases tooth extraction is inevitable
B. When pulp wound is small and the treatment is performed a few hours after the accident apply direct pulp
capping with calcium hydroxide
C. After repositioning of the tooth with the alveolar bone the gingival fibromucosa is sutured on both sides of the
neck of the tooth and is immobilized for two weeks
D. When the lesion is old or it it affects almost the whole crown of the tooth, vital extirpation, root canal treatment
and restoration is an indication
E. When the small fragment of tooth enters the socket less than 3-4 mm it is removed and the big fragment can be
kept
42.M.A. Specify which of the following factors condition the therapy of the total dislocation of the upper central
incisor in an adolescent:
A. The general condition of the pacient
B. The presence of mixed dentition
C. The cause of the injury
D. Hemorrhage out of the alveoli
E. The presence of permanent dentition
43.S.A. What is the method of treatment usually indicated for the total dislocation of upper central incisor in an
adolescent:
A. Curettage of the socket and its suture
B. Alveolar wound suture and early application of orthodontic appliance for space closure
C. Alveolar wound suture and early implementation of space maintainer
D. Immediate replantation
E. Maintain the tooth in antiobiotic solution for 48-72 hour and then replantation
44.S.A. Late evolution after conservative treatment for total luxation of upper central incisor in an adolescent may
be:
A. The periodontal tissues remain vital
B. Dentoalveolar ankylosis
C. Peripheral root resorption
D. Internal resorption of the pulp chamber wall
E. All these evolutions are possible
45.M.A. Specify which of the following investigations are absolutely necessary for the diagnosis of dentalperiodontal trauma:
A. retroalveolar radiography
B. inspection
C. palpation
D. percussion
E. Vitality test
46.S.A. Clinical exam shows mobility of central maxillary incisors, their displacement to the palatal, decollated
gums, radiological damage is not seen. Indicate the most appropriate therapeutic approach for this situation:
A. Immediate extraction
B. Surveillance of the evolution and late extraction if needed
C. Repositioning of the teeth and their immobilization for 4 weeks
D. Tooth extraction, socket curettage, retrograde obturation of the canal, therapeutic replantation and immobilization
for about 4 weeks
E. Generally such cases require no treatment
47.S.A. After completing the treatment for an incomplete luxation of the tooth it is recommended:
A. The annual review of the patient
B. Regular control of pulp vitality
C. Treatment of the dental caries of the adjacent teeth
D. Frequent retroalveolar radiographies
E. Other measures than thoses stated
48.S.A. Specify for which teeth conservative treatment is not possible:
A. Penetrating coronal fracture 1.1
B. Longitudinal coronal-radicular fracture 2.1
C. Total luxation 1.2
D. Comminuting fracture 2.2
E. Partial luxation
49.S.A. In which of the following condition replantation of the luxated tooth is not possible:
A. Patient has impacted third molars
B. The neighboring teeth to the luxated one have root canal obturation
C. The patient had worn braces for many years
D. Vestibular wall of the socket is fractured
E. Labial wound is associated
50.S.A. Which is the frequently used treatment method for a coronal penetrating fracture:
A. Apical resection
B. Depulpation
C. Early replantation
D. Early extraction
E. Treatment depends on the radiography
51.M.A. Differential diagnosis of sialodochitis is made with:
A. A. Stenon or Wharton canals’ litiatis
B. B.Foreign bodies in the floor or in the cheek
C. C. Acute and chronic sialadenitis
D. D. Benign or malign tumors
E. E. Odontogenic osteomielitis
F.
52.S.A. Specify the immediate treatment for coronal fracture of 2.1 in the middle third:
A. A. Reduction of displacement and immobilization of the tooth for 8 weeks
B. B. Emergency root canal treatment
C. C. Removal from the occlusion and periodic control of vitality
D. D. Extraction of intraalveolar fragment
E. E. Restoration of coronary morphology
53.S.A. Specify the diagnosis for the fracture of the internal angle fracture if tooth 1.1, which involves enamel and
dentine:
A. A. Penetrating coronal fracture
B. B. Penetrating coronal-radicular fracture
C. C. Cominutive coronal-radicular fracture
D. D. Radicular fracture in the cervical third
E. E. Not penetrating coronal fracture
54.S.A. Specify the treatment for the traumatic lesion of tooth 1.1 (penetrating fracture of the crown 1.1)
A. A. Immediate root canal treatment
B. B. Vital amputation of the pulp and temporary coronal part restoration
C. C. Direct pulp capping and temporary coronal part restoration
D. D. Rounding of the sharp edges, treatment of dental wound and periodical control of vitality
E. E. Extraction when necrosis of the pulp occurs
55.M.A. Dental luxation happens by:
A. A. Partial crushing of dental-alveolar ligaments
B. B. Total rupture of dental-alveolar ligaments
C. C. Fracture of the alveolar process
D. D. Fracture of the maxilla or mandible, when the line of fracture in near the neighboring tooth
E. E. All answers are correct
56.S.A. Dental luxation with intrusion can be:
A. A. A partial luxation
B. B. A total luxation
C. C. A luxation when the follicle of a permanent tooth may be damaged
D. D. Displacement of the tooth in a cystic cavity
E. E. None of these answers
57.S.A. In a partial dental luxation you do:
A. A. Reduction and immobilization of the tooth
B. B. Extirpation of the pulp
C. C. Prosthetic restoration
D. D. Dental transfixation
E. E. Do nothing to the tooth
58.S.A. The most part of the mandibular fractures happen because:
A. A. Falling on the street
B. B. Crash
C. C. Sports injuries
D. D. Labor accidents
E. E. Agression
59.M.A. Spontaneous fractures of the mandible (pathologic bone) happen when the resistance is decreased because
of:
A. A. General pathology such as osteodystrophy
B. B. Osteoradionecrosis
C. C. Osteomielitis
D. D. Cysts
E. E. Malign tumors
60.S.A. Walther’s fracture is:
A. A. The combination of 2 vertical fracture lines with one horizontal fracture line
B. B. The combination of 2 horizontal fracture lines with one vertical fracture line
C. C. Combination of a diagonal fracture and vertical fracture
D. D. Is not a combined fracture
E. E. All answers are correct
61.M.A. The mandible can be fractured during any of these surgical procedures:
A. A. Extraction of the impacted teeth
B. B. Traumatic extractions of inferior third molars
C. C. Removal of tumors
D. D. Orthognatic surgery
E. E. None of the answers
62.M.A. Why is the mandible so exposed to fractures?:
A. A. Is a prominent bone
B. B. Doulbe curvature form
C. C. Presence of impacted teeth
D. D. Extremely adherent periosteum
E. E. Presence of areas with low resistance
63.M.A. Mandibular fractures can be:
A. A. Unitary
B. B. Double
C. C. Triple
D. D. Comminuted
E. E. Direct and indirect
64.M.A. Why are the mandibular fractures the most frequent (70-80%) from all bones of the oral and maxillofacial
region?:
A. A. Mandible is a mobile bone
B. B. It is located in the inferior, prominent part
C. C. Presence of areas with low resistance
D. D. Frequent presence of impacted teeth
E. E. Presence of pathologic processes (tumors, osteomielitis, other)
65.M.A. Fractures of the mandible happen by following mechanisms:
A. A. In areas of low resistance
B. B. Flexion
C. C. Pression
D. D. Avulsion
E. E. In pathologic bone
66.S.A. The most frequent production mechanism of a mandibular fracture is:
A. A. Compaction
B. B. Flexion
C. C. Pression
D. D. Avulsion
E. E. „En bois vert”
67.S.A. The region with to lowest resistance to mandibular trauma:
A. A. Angle of the mandible
B. B. Canine level
C. C. Between the roots of the premolars
D. D. Symphysis mandibulae
E. E. Condylar neck
68.M.A. Factors which influence the displacement of the mandibular fracture fragments are:
A. Force of the trauma
B. Muscular contraction of the muscles which insert on the fragments
C. Mechanism of fracture production
D. Direction of the fracture line
E. Simultaneous general pathology (osteoporosis)
69.M.A. Common signs of all mandibular fractures are:
A. Pain
B. Phonation disorders
C. Abnormal mobility
D. Oclussal disorders
E. Sensory disorders in the mandibular nerve area
70.S.A. What is the type of mandibular fracture where there is early oedema and bruises appear after 24 hours?:
A. Condylar fracture
B. Fracture of the body of the mandible
C. Fracture of the ramus
D. Fracture of the symphysis
E. Fracture of the alveolar ridge
71.M.A. Which of the following types of mandibular fractures are considered by Rowe as simple fractures:
A. Fracture of the horizontal ramus
B. Condylar fracture
C. Fracture of the alveolar ridge
D. Fracture of the coronoid apophysis
E. Fracture of the ascending ramus
72.M.A. What is the role of the emergency immobilization?:
A. To reduce the fragments in anatomical position
B. To lower the pain
C. To prevent infection
D. To lower the risk of asphyxia
E. To reduce bleeding
73.S.A. Fronda mentoniera is NOT recommended in the following types of mandibular fractures:
A. Mental protuberance fracture
B. Body of the mandible with small fragment to the lingual side ( edentulous patients with no prosthesis )
C. Ascending ramus
D. Both condyles
E. None of the mentioned above
74.M.A. Hippocratic ligation is recommended in the immobilization of:
A. Fractures of the alveolar ridge
B. Fractures of mental protuberance with vertical displacement
C. Luxated teeth
D. Paramedian fracture without displacement
E. In none of the above
75.S.A. In what types of mandibular fractures there is an early contact of the molars on the affected side?:
A. Fracture of the horizontal ramus
B. Longitudinat fracture of the ascending ramus
C. Horizontal fracture of the ascending ramus
D. Fracture of the gonion
E. Intracapsular fractuce of the condyle
76.S.A. Hypoesthesia in the region innervated by inferior alveolar nerve happens in:
A. Median fracture of the mandible
B. Paramedian fracture of the mandible
C. Fracture of the mandibular body with displacement
D. Condylar fracture
E. In all of these fractures
77.S.A. The most frequent secondary complication of mandibular fractures is:
A. Shock
B. Asphyxia
C. Shell-shock
D. Infection
E. Bleeding
78.S.A. What are „seton” wounds?:
A. Single-pole wounds
B. Penetrating wounds
C. Contusion wounds
D. Piercing wounds
E. Cut wounds
79.M.A. Posttraumatic asphyxia can happen after:
A. Comminuted fracture of the mentonier arch
B. Narrowing of the respiratory tract
C. Laryngeal edema
D. Displacement of the palate in the maxillary fractures
E. None of these
80.S.A. „Greenstick fractures” of the mandible are characteristic for:
A. Totally edentulous mandible
B. Partially edentulous mandible
C. Elder people
D. Adults
E. Children
81.S.A. In an unilateral fracture of the mandibular body, the secondary displacement of the small fragment moves it:
A. Down
B. Up
C. Forwards
D. Back
E. Inside
82.M.A. Mechanisms which lead to mandibular fractures are:
A. Flexion
B. Contusion
C. Pression
D. Piercing
E. Avulsion
83.M.A. Factors which influence the displacement of the fragments in a mandibular fracture are:
A. Force of the trauma
B. Contraction of the muscles inserted on the mandible
C. The placement and the direction of the fracture line
D. Presence of teeth on the fracture fragments or on the opposite ridge
E. Type of immobilization
84.M.A. Clinical forms of the condylar fractures of the mandible are:
A. Sling fracture
B. Intracapsular fracture
C. Parma fracture
D. Infracondylar high fracture
E. Infracondylar low fracture
85.M.A. In the mediosimfizar fractures of the mandible:
A. Muscular tractions are equal, thus secondary displacement is absent
B. „Harmonic” occlusion in the movement of the mandible
C. The patient has bruises in the vestibular groove or sublingually
D. The patient has hypoesthesia in the region innervated by the inferior alveolar nerve
E. Auricular hemorrage is frequent
86.M.A. Specify what are the usual secondary displacements of the fragments in a mandibular body fracture:
A. The big fragment is pulled downwards and backwards
B. The small fragment is pulled upwards and outside
C. The small fragment is pulled upwards and forwards
D. The small fragment is pulled downwards and backwards
E. The intermediate fragment is rotated
87.S.A. What ist the best treatment option in a mandibular body fracture with displacement?:
A. Elastic intermaxillary immobilization
B. Osteosynthesis with a metal wire after manual repositioning
C. Manual repositioning and contention with acrylic splint made on reduced model
D. Osteosynthesis with plates and screws
E. No treatment is necessary in the mandibular fractures
88.S.A. What is the specific secondary complication possible for the mandibular body fracture with displacement?:
A. Temporal-mandibular ankylose
B. Shortening of the ascending mandibular ramus
C. Post-traumatic osteomyelitis
D. Disorders of the third inferior molar eruption on the affected side
E. All of these
89.M.A. What is the recommended treatment for a totally edentulous patient who wears a mobilizable prosthesis and
has a mandibular fracture without displacement?:
A. Immobilization with the help of the prosthesis and mental-cephalic traction
B. Metallic vestibular monomaxillary splint
C. Osteosynthesis with wire or metallic plate
D. Elastic intermaxillary immobilization
E. No treatment is necesary at this age
90.S.A. What is the time needed for the consolidation of a correct immobilized fracture if no complications
intervene?:
A. 1-2 weeks
B. 2-4 weeks
C. 4-6 weeks
D. 6-8 weeks
E. 1-3 months
91.S.A. What is the first phase in the bone callus formation in a fracture?:
A. Provisionally ossification phase
B. Definitive ossification phase
C. Fibrous-condroid phase
D. Hemorrhagic-exudative phase
E. Bone necrosis phase
92.
Clinical Problem: A young man was beaten and received a blow with fist on the mandible in the left.
After hitting he complained of severe pain in the angle of the mandible in the left and temporal mandible joint (
TMJ) in the right.
Clinical examination: swelling in the left corner zone of the mandible which does not allow palpation of the bones,
with severe pain while pressing, with pain in the region of right TMJ , gape restriction, mucosal bleeding wound for
37 teeth( there is no 38-th in the tooth line), pathological changes in the mobility of the mandible occlusion (vertical
inclusion and inclusion in anteroposterior direction, is more pronounced on the left, less visible on the right, where
the 48-th tooth contacts with the 18-th. In the right temporal mandibular joint there are no head articular movements.
92. S.C. To which diagnosis do you tend:
a) fracture of the left angle of mandible;
b) fracture of the right articular process;
c) fracture of the left angle of the jaw associated with right articular process luxation;
d) double mandible fracture: left angle of the jaw and right articular process;
e) none of the answers.
93.S.A. What emergency treatment do you provide in case of bilateral mandibular fracture: left angle and right
condyle?:
A. Head-chin strap immobilization
B. Intermaxillary dental ligatures
C. Repositioning and immobilization with splints and elastic traction
D. Only hemostasis
E. Osteosynthesis with plate
94.M.A. What X-Ray is suitable for bilateral mandibular fracture of left angle and right condyle?:
A. orthopantomogram
B. X-Ray of mandible angle
C. X-Ray of the condyle in Parma projection
D. Teleradiography of face
E. None of the the above
95.M.A. What treatment will you choose in case of bilateral mandibular fracture: left angle and right condyle?:
A. Intermaxillary ligature binding with elastic traction
B. Immobilization with splints, oclussal elevation at the level of 4.8 and intermaxillary elastic traction
C. Immobilization with splints and elastic traction, surgical opening of infracondylean fracture,
repositioning of the fragments and immobilization through osteosynthesis
D. Osteosynthesis of both fractures
E. Osteosynthesis of only the mandibular angle fracture
96.C.S. For the osteosynthesis of the fracture of the condyle it is preffered:
A. Osteosynthesis with metal wire
B. Osteosynthesis with metal plate and screws
C. osteosynthesis with cog stretched from the angle to the condyle
D. Reduction and fixing with brooch according to Lift method
E. Osteosynthesis with screw, bizotating the fracture
97.S.A. What’s your attitude for treatment the 3.8 in the line of fracture?:
A. Odontoectomy of immobilization
B. Odontoectomy immediately after you applied immobilization splints
C. Extraction of 1.8 after 14 days of immobilization
D. Do not remove the molar out of the fracture line, but follow up the evolution
E. Odontoectomy is performed only if 3.8 tangles the repositioning of the fragments
98.M.A. What primary complications can occur because of the 3.8 in the line of fracture?:
A. Incorrect replacement if the molar has repositioned from its place of inclusion and does not permit
approximation of bone fragments
B. Suppuration in the fracture outbreak
C. Late consolidation of the fracture
D. Pseudo-arthrosis
E. Osteomyelitis of the jaw
99.S.A. In case of bilateral mandibular fracture : angle and condyle with displacement, do you give antibiotics to the
pacient?
A. yes
B. no
C. Yes, only it we extract 3.8
D. Yes, only if there is inflammation
E. It depends on the general state of the patient
100.S.A. In case of bilateral mandibular fracture: angle and condyle with displacement, if you’ve done
osteosynthesis of both fracture lines with a plate for each line and screws, do you additionaly immobilize the jaw
with splints and traction?:
A. Not compulsory
B. yes
C. no
D. Only if osteosynthesis of the mandibular angle is done
E. It is made during 8-10 days
101.S.A. Removal of intermaxillary traction and imobilization is done:
A. After 10 days
B. After 30 days
C. After 20 days
D. After 6 weeks
E. It depends upon the age of the patient
102.M.A. When can an articular ankylosis occur after a fracture of the condyle?:
A. When a hematoma appears in the articular cavity
B. When a calus which connects the condyle and the glenoid cavity appears
C. Only when the fracture is intracapsular
D. When an immobilization of the mandible is made, elevating the last molar and which lasts more than
10-12 days
E. In prolonged immobilizations
103.S.A. How much time do you keep the osteosynthesis plate at the mandibular angle level?:
A. It stay forever, even after consolidation
B. It is removed after the bone calus formation
C. It is removed only if an infection in the fracture outbreak appears
D. It depends from case to case, depending on the patient’s tolerance
E. The removal of the osteosynthesis plate is not compulsory if complications do not appear
104.S.A. Pseudoarthrosis occurs when lack of consolidation exceeds:
A. 8-10 weeks
B. 1-2 months
C. 6 months
D. 1 year
E. 8-10 months
105.M.A. The application of trays made of autopolymerizable acrylate is required in the following cases:
A. Patients with small teeth, with diastemas and tremas, which favor the sliding of the ligature threads
B. When the teeth number is not sufficient
C. When the form of the teeth do not ensure a good retention for ligations
D. When there are no contact points
E. None of these indications
106.S.A. What methods of osteosynthesis are the most frequently used in modern practise?:
A. Metalic devices fixed in the bone with screws
B. Transoseous ligations with metal wire
C. Kirchner rods
D. Metal broaches passed through the mandibular fragments
E. Catgut ligation
107.M.A. Surgical-othopaedic method is recommended for:
A. Fractures of edentulous mandible
B. Fractures of edentulous mandible in the mentonier region
C. Mandibular fractures with oblique lines
D. Children with mixed dentition
E. In none of these cases
108.M.A. What are the basic rules of ligation application for tires’ fixation on the dental arcade?:
A. The tire is fixed with metal wire on each tooth or through one tooth
B. The ligation is located at the neck of the tooth
C. The ligation should not hurt the gingival papillas
D. Ligation ends have 5-7 mm in length and they bend to the center and occlusal line
E. The ligation bends to the edge of the gums and inwards
109.M.A. The application of monomaxillary smooth tires is recommended for:
A. Angular fracture
B. Lateral fracture
C. Extracapsular fracture of the condyle
D. Median fracture without displacement
E. Segmentary fracture of the alveolar process
110.S.A. What is the frequency of maxilla fractures?:
A. 11-30%;
B. 20-25%;
C. 15%;
D. 3,3%;
E. 8%.
111.M.A. The diagnosis of upper jaw fractures is based upon:
A. X-Ray
B. Common clinical signs for all the fractures ( pain, crepitus, hematomas, displacement of fragments )
C. Specific clinical signs
D. Rhinoscopy and diaphanoscopy
E. None of the listed above
112.M.A. Late complicaitons of the upper jaw fractures are:
A. Facial assymetry
B. Mastication and fonation disorders
C. Incorrect repositioning
D. Purulent discharge from sinus or cheek
E. Oro-sinusal communication
113.M.A. Emergency treatment of upper jaw fractures aims a temporary fixation to:
A. Allow a normal respiration
B. Transport the patient
C. Reglate oclusal changes
D. Relief pain
E. Permanent hemostasis
114.M.A. Clinical picture of a LeFort I fracture is:
A. Mobility of the fragments in transversal direction
B. Lips and cheeks bruises
C. Pain at pressure
D. Oclussal disorder
E. Massive bleeding
115.M.A. Etiological factors of upper jaw fractures are frequent in:
A. Sports accidents
B. Aggression
C. Accidental falls
D. Labor accidents
E. Crash
116.S.A. Which of the following forms of upper jaw fractures with dental-alveolar component are the most
frequent?:
A. Tuberosity fracture
B. Horizontal inferior fractures
C. Palatal fractures
D. Segmentary fractures of the alveolar ridge in frontal zone
E. All in equal measure
117.M.A. Which of the following symptoms are common for all upper jaw fractures with displacement?:
A. Abnormal mobility of fractured fragments
B. Pain
C. Oclusal disorder
D. Deepening of the middle face level
E. Diplopia, sensorial disorders, epistaxis
118.M.A. Criteria for correct treatment in upper jaw fractures are:
A. Diplopia and sensory disorders fade away
B. Absence of steps on the fracture line
C. Normal face configuration
D. Normal intedentar bite
E. Correct reposition and preservation till consolidation
119.M.A. Manual replacement of the upper jaw fracture fragments is possible through these methods:
A. Direct manual traction by raising the dental ridge with the fingers
B. Traction by metal wire
C. Traction by using a elastic tube which is inserted through the nose and oropharynx and removed
through the mouth
D. Traction with special instruments
E. Slow traction with tires and elastic traction
120.S.A. The most frequent middle face fractures are:
A. Alveolar ridge fractures
B. Horizontal inferior fractures (LeFort I)
C. Horizontal middle fractures (LeFort II)
D. Horizontal high fractures (LeFort III)
E. Vertical fractures, intermaxillary disjunctions
121.M.A. Clinical picture of LeFort II fractures is:
A. Pronounced tumefaction of the face
B. Sensory disorders
C. Normal bite
D. Palpebral bruises
E. The face is flattened in anterior-posterior direction
122.M.A. Surgical treatment of the upper jaw fractures is requested in:
A. Fractures of edentulous maxilla
B. Multiple fractures
C. In cases of injury of the skull
D. High upper jaw fractures (LeFort III)
E. Vertical or oblique fractures
123.M.A. Breathing disorders in upper jaw fractures occur because:
A. Laryngian reflex disorder
B. Respiratory tract obstruction
C. The displacement of the maxilla together with the palate
D. Blood and vomit aspiration
E. Bulbar respiratory centers disorders
124.S.A. Definitive treatment of the upper jaw is done more often by:
A. Surgical methods
B. Orthopaedic methods
C. Mixed methods
D. Verticomental bandage
E. Chin bandage
125.S.A. What is the basic anatomic element of the upper jaw?:
A. Body
B. Apophysis
C. Maxillary sinus
D. Infraorbital, incisal, tuberosity, palatal holes
E. Canine, infratemporal, pterigopalatyne pits
126.S.A. What symptom does not exist in upper jaw fractures?:
A. Face deformation
B. Bone displacement with bite disorders
C. Mobility of the fragments
D. Mandibular jam
E. Epistaxis, visibility disorders, sensory disorders
127.M.A. The most dangerous early complications of upper jaw fractures are:
A. Massive bleeding
B. Concussion
C. Bite disorder
D. Shock
E. Phlegmons, acute osteomielitis, sinusitis.
128.M.A. The emergency treatment of upper jaw fractures is:
A. Intermaxillary ligation
B. Chin slings
C. Wire ligature
D. Parietal-chin bandages
E. Monomaxillary tires
129.S.A. Sensory disorders (parasthesia, hypo- or anesthesia) in upper jaw fractures occur because:
A. N.infraorbitalis compression or streching
B. Fragments’ displacement
C. Nerve damage in the moment of impact
D. Fracture of orbital floor
E. Jaw and cheekbone immersion
130.S.A. LeFort II fractures have a complex fracture line that runs: a) over the alveolar process, through the nasal
passages, canine fossa, tuberosity of maxilla, vomer and nasal septum;
b) on frontal-nasal suture, the lacrimal bones, the lower wall of the orbit, pterigoidal process base, temporalzygomatic arcade, vomer and ethmoid bone;
c) separates the alveolar process on the middle line, nasal floor , palate and body of maxilla;
d) through the fronto-nasal suture, lacrimal bone, the infraorbital canal, under the zygomatic bone to the tuberosity
e) none of these.
131.M.A. Secondary complications for the upper jaw fractures are:
A. Purulent inflammation of sinus or cheek
B. Osteomyelitis
C. Secondary bleeding
D. Breathing disorder
E. Sensory disorders
132.M.A. What are the upper jaw fractures in the treatment of which cephalic and endobucal devices are used?:
A. Segmentary fractures of aleolar ridge
B. Horizontal fractures (LeFort I, II, III)
C. Multiple and comminuted fractures
D. Intermaxillary disjunctions or medial-sagital fractures
E. In all of them
133.S.A. Which of the listed symptoms does not occur in the LeFort II fractures?:
A. Pronounced swelling with palpebral and nose-cheeks bruises
B. Bleeding from both nostrils
C. Bruises in the bottom of vestibule
D. Bite modification (Frontal open bite)
E. Mandibular moves blockage
134.S.A. What is the cause of diplopia in the upper jaw fractures?:
A. Because of descent of the orbital floor
B. Concussion of the extraocular muscles
C. Retrobulbar hematoema
D. Oculomotor nerve damage
E. Upper jaw packing
135.M.A. Which of the fractures involving the dental-alveolar part are included in the Rowe and Killey
classification?:
A. Suprazygomatic fractures
B. Tuberosity fractures
C. LeFort II fracture
D. LeFort III fracture
E. Guerrin fracture
136.S.A. What is the most frequent accident which accompanies a tuberosity fracture?:
A. Massive bleeding form pterygoid plexus
B. Pushing of the bone fragment in pterygoid fossa
C. Opening of maxillary sinus
D. Mandibular movement blockage
E. Aspiration of bone fragment in upper airways
137.M.A. The fracture line in the Guerrin fracture passes through:
A. Nasal bones
B. Lacrimal bones
C. Canine fossa
D. Middle third of the pterygoid process
E. External wall of nasal fossa
138.M.A. Amongst oclussal disorders which occur in LeFort II fractures you can mention:
A. Early bilateral molar contact
B. Frontal inoclussion
C. Criss-cross oclussion
D. Retrognatism
E. Two-stroke oclussion
139.M.A. The fracture line in horizontal middle fractures passes through:
A. The cartilage
B. Ascending apophysis of the maxilla
C. Floor of the orbit
D. Inferior third of the pterygoid apophysis
E. External wall of the orbit
140.S.A. In Wassmund fractures of the middle face the fracture line does NOT cross:
A. Lacrimal bones
B. Nasal bones
C. Ascending apophysis of the maxilla
D. The Vomer
E. Middle third of pterygoid apophysis
141.M.A. What of the following clinical signs occur in a LeFort II fracture?:
A. Monocle echymosis
B. Bilateral palpebral echymosis
C. Epiphora and bilateral epistaxis
D. Reverse oclussion
E. Hypoethesia in n. palatine anterior region
142.M.A. The fracture line in high cranial-facial disjunctions passes through:
A. Perpendicular plate of the ethmoyd bone
B. External wall of the nasal fossa
C. External wall of the orbit
D. Base of the pterygoid apophysis
E. Maxillary tuberosity
143.S.A. Amongst the clinical signs which occur in LeFort III fractures you can mention:
A. Exoftalmus
B. Inferior palpebral echimosis
C. Pseudoprognatism
D. Subcutaneous emphyzema
E. Hypoesthesia in n. infraorbitar region
144.M.A. What of the following clinical signs occur in medial-sagital fractures of the upper jaw?:
A. Inferior palpebral bruises
B. Harmonica oclussion
C. Sensory disorder in n. infraorbitary region
D. Exognatia
E. Two-stroke bite
145.M.A. The zygomatic-maxillary fractures can involve:
A. Zygomatic bone
B. Internal wall of the orbit
C. Anterior-lateral wall of the maxillary sinus
D. Ascending apophysis of the maxilla
E. Orbital floor
146.S.A. In „blowout” type fractures the bone damage occur at the level of:
A. External orbital wall
B. Internal orbital wall
C. Orbital floor
D. Nasal bones
E. Temporal-zygomatic arcade
147.M.A. The fracture line in maxillo-malar disjunction goes through:
A. Zygomatic-maxillary suture
B. Internal orbital wall
C. Zygomatic-temporal suture
D. Frontal-zygomatic suture
E. Posterior wall of the maxillary sinus
148.S.A. Palbebral echimosis in monocle is characteristic for the following types of fractures:
A. Temporal-zygomatic arcade fracture
B. Orbital-sinusal fracture
C. LeFort III fracture
D. LeFort II fracture
E. Walther fracture
149.M.A. Exoftalmus occurs in the following types of fractures:
A. LeFort II
B. Orbital-sinusal
C. Intermaxillary disjuncitons
D. LeFort III
E. In none of these
150.M.A. In orbital-sinusal fractures with the displacement of the malar place backwards and outwards the
following clinical signs can occur:
A. Sensory disorders in the n.infraorbital region
B. Mandibular movement blockage
C. Monocle echimosis
D. Facial asymetry because of zygomatic bone prominence
E. Bilateral epistaxis
151.S.A. The posterior fractures of the zygomatic-maxillar complex affect:
A. Orbital floor
B. Pterygoid apophysis
C. Frontal apophysis of the malar bone
D. Temporal-zygomatic arcade
E. Posterior wall of the maxillary sinus
152.M.A. Ways to reposition a orbital-sinusal fracture are:
A. Suborbital
B. Temporal
C. Transjugal
D. Sinusal
E. Endobucal
153.M.A. The sinusal ways to treat the orbital-sinusal fracture is indicated in:
A. Comminuted fractures of the malar plate
B. Fractures with intrasinusal hematoemas
C. „Blowout” type fractures
D. Fractures with great dislocations
E. Fractures of the malar plate where it has the tendency to deepen
154.M.A. The consequences of zygomatic-maxillary fractures can be:
A. Mandibular blockage
B. Physiognomic disorders
C. Retractile scars
D. Diplopia
E. Balant pseudoarthrosys
155.S.A. The usual sign in zygomatic-maxillary fractures is:
A. Bulbar conjunctiva echimosis
B. Change of oclusal relations
C. Labial-genian echimosis in the superior vestibule bilaterally
D. Bilateral ear haemorrhage
E. Early molar contact
156.M.A. Which of the following symptoms can occur in anterior zygomatic-maxillary fractures?:
A. Diplopia
B. Infraorbital hypoesthesia
C. Frontal inoclussion
D. Epistaxis
E. Slight deflexion of the middle line
157.M.A. The fracture line which involves the nasal bones, the ascending apophysis of the maxilla, the lacrimal
bone, the orbit, the anterior-lateral wall of the maxillary sinus, the tuberosity, the pterygoid apophysis, the external
wall of the nasal fossa, the vomer and the cartilaginous septum happens in:
A. Horizontal inferior fracture of the upper jaw
B. Horizontal middle fracture of the upper jaw
C. Horizontal superior fracture of the upper jaw
D. Intermaxillary disjunctions
E. None of these forms
158.M.A. Specify what are the other signs which support the diagnosis of orbital-sinusal fracture:
A. Bleeding from ears
B. Infraorbital hypoesthesia
C. Change of oclussion relations
D. Diplopia
E. Epistaxis
159.M.A. The periostitis types are:
A. Sharp serous periostitis
B. Sharp purulent periostitis
C. Chronic hyperplastic periostitis
D. Chronic purulent periostitis
E. None of them
160.S.A. What is the time of consolidation for of a orbital-sinusal fracture if it is repositioned properly and no
complications occur ?
A. In 3-5 days
B. In 5-10 days
C. In 15-20 days
D. In 30-40 days
E. In maximum 60 days
161.S.A. This is NOT characteristic for an abscess from the anatomical-pathological point of view:
A. Capillary congestion and difuse hemorrages
B. Piogene membrane which contains neoformation vessels, histiocytes, plasmocytes, limphocytes and
polimopho-nucleated
C. Septic vascular trombosis
D. Necrosis with gas bubbles
E. Pronounced vasodilation, serous exudate, diapedesis leucocitaria and celular infiltrate
162.S.A. Intermaxillary disjunctions are:
A. Horizontal fractures
B. Vertical fractures
C. Oblique fractures
D. Associated fractures
E. Comminuted fractures
163.M.A. Which of the following statements is true about upper jaw fractures:?
A. Occures because of direct, frontal or lateral blow
B. Bite disorders occur
C. Pain in the opening of the mouth
D. Echimosis in superior vestibule
E. Pseudoarthrosys is often a complication
164.S.A. Osteosynthesis in the upper jaw fractures is indicated in:
A. Diabetic patients
B. Edentulous patients
C. Vertical patients
D. Horizontal patients
E. In all of these
165.S.A. Because of the spongious structure and rich vascularization in the upper jaw fractures the fibrous calus is
formed in:
A. 10-18 days
B. 8-10 days
C. 6-8 days
D. 18-25 days
E. After 25 days
166.M.A. The LeFort II fracture line goes through:
A. Nasal bones
B. Orbit
C. Orbital floor
D. Nasion point
E. Under the zygomatic arcade to the tuberosity
167.M.A. Among the middle face fractures, the most often are:
A. Alveolar crest fractures
B. LeFort I
C. LeFort II
D. LeFort III
E. Vertical fractures (intermaxillary disjunctions)
168.M.A. LeFort II fracture favor the displacement of the maxilla:
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Lateral
D. Inferior
E. Any of these directions depending on the fracture
169.S.A. Cranial-facial disjunction is:
A. A. LeFort I fracture
B. LeFort II fracture
C. LeFort III fracture
D. Richet fracture
E. Walther fracture
170.M.A. The diagnosis of an orbital-zygomatic fracture is based upon:
A. Clinical signs
B. X-Ray
C. Functional disorders
D. Other bone damage
E. All of these
171.S.A. Because of a spongious structure and a rich vascularisation, the fibrous callus in the upper jaw fractures
forms in:
A. 10-18 days
B. 8-10 days
C. 6-8 days
D. 18-25 days
E. Over 30 days
172.S.A. Horizontal upper jaw fractures with displacement are repositioned by:
A. Intermaxillary traction
B. Transpalatal pontic traction
C. With a curbed instrument
D. With a traction tube fixed to a gypsum capeline
E. Only by osteosynthesis
173.M.A. An upper jaw partial fracture with displacement is replaced and immobilized with:
A. Traction splints on the fractured side
B. Traction splints on the healthy side
C. Interrupted traction splints in the line of fracture
D. Rigid intermaxillary blockage
E. All these methods
174.M.A. Which of the following fractures are located in the upper jaw?:
A. Walther fracture
B. LeFort II fracture
C. Coronoidal apophysis fracture
D. Guerin fracture
E. Temporal-zygomatic arcade fracture
175.M.A. The surgical treatment of upper jaw fractures is indicated in:
A. Fractures of edentulous maxilla
B. Multiple fractures
C. Skull damage
D. LeFort II
E. Vertical or oblique fractures
176.M.A. Emergency treatment of upper jaw fractures follow a temporary fixation of the facial massive to:
A. Allow normal breathing
B. Transport the patient
C. Normalize the oclussion
D. Definitive hemostasis
E. Pain relief
177.S.A. A type Walther upper jaw fracture is:
A. An horizontal fracture
B. A vertical fracture
C. An associated fracture
D. A comminuted fracture
E. None of these
178.S.A. Important ocular disorders as diplopia, exoftalmus occur in:
A. LeFort II fracture
B. Richet fracture
C. LeFort III fracture
D. Guerin fracture
E. Walther fracture
179.M.A. Which of the following types of fractures involve a dental-alveolar component?:
A. Walther fracture
B. Richet fracture
C. LeFort I fracture
D. Partial lateral fracture (Hurt)
E. LeFort II fracture
180.M.A. The gravity of the soft tissue damage in oral and maxillofacial region is proportional to:
A. Localization of the damage
B. The extent of the damaged area
C. Lesion of the great vessels and nerves
D. Damage to the mimic muscles which flap away the edges of the would giving it a creepy look
E. All of the mentioned above
181.S.A. Walther fracture consists of:
A. Association of two vertical and one horizontal fracture lines
B. Association of two horizontal and one vertical fracture lines
C. Association of one oblique and one vertical fractures
D. It is not an associated fracture
E. All of these
182.M.A. LeFort I fracture’s clinical picture:
A. Transversal displacement of the fragment
B. Lips and cheeks bruises
C. Pain on pressure
D. Oclussion disorder
E. Massive bleeding
183.S.A. Intermaxillary disjunctions occur by:
A. Anterior-posterior blows
B. Lateral blows
C. Chin blows
D. Nose blows
E. Any blow on the maxilla
184.C.S. What is the freqency of the temporal-zygomatic arcade fractures?:
A. 9,8%
B. 8%
C. 15%
D. 7,9%
E. 3,3%
185.M.A. What are the factors responsible for zygomatic and malar fractures?:
A. Their position and prominence
B. Arch form
C. Low resistence of the bone and zygomatic arcade
D. Small layer of fat
E. None of the above
186.M.A. Why do sensory disorders of the n. infraorbital occur? (paraesthesia, hipoesthesia, anesthesia)
A. Fracture of orbital floor
B. Displacement of malar bone
C. Malar plate depthening
D. Nerve damage during the blow
E. None of these
187.S.A. Which of the following symptoms does NOT occur in posterior fractures (zygomatic arcade)?:
A. Deformation of the face
B. Pain
C. Mandibular blockage
D. Oclussal change
E. Palpation shows a depthening like an edge or sharp angle
188.M.A. Why is the X-Ray necessary in malar bone and zygomatic arcade fractures?:
A. To determine the fracture
B. To specify the diagnosis
C. Localization of the fracture
D. Fragment’s dislocation
E. None of these
189.S.A. Which of the following symptoms do NOT occur in malar bone fractures?:
A. Palpebral bruises and chemosis
B. Long-lasting nasal bleeding
C. Sensory disorders (hypoesthesia, anesthesia)
D. Facial deformation
E. Oclussal changes
190.S.A. Anterior fractures of the zygomatical-maxillary complex interest the following anatomical elements:
A. Maxilla
B. The inferior-external wall of the orbit
C. Maxillary sinus wall
D. Malar bone
E. Frontal bone
191.M.A. Fragments’ replacement in temporal-zygomatic fractures can be done exobucally with:
A. Limberg hook
B. Strohmezer hook
C. Elevator after D.Teodorescu
D. With the finger
E. With a spatula
192.M.A. Transinusal way of the malar bone replacement is used in the following cases:
A. Malar bone fractures
B. Block collapse of the malar
C. Any anterior fracture
D. In combined fractures
E. In none of these cases
193.M.A. What makes the diagnosis of the temporal-zygomatic fractures difficult?:
A. Late addressing of the patient
B. Fractures without displacement
C. Associated forms with soft tissues and other bones damage
D. Pronounced swelling
E. None of the cases
194.M.A. Late complications of the temporal-zygomatic arcade fractures are:
A. Sensory disorders
B. Diplopia
C. Face deformation
D. Long-lasting mandibular blockage
E. All together
195.S.A. What are the symptoms characteristic for posterior temporal-zygomatic fractures?:
A. Epistaxis
B. Mandibular movement blockage
C. Diplopia
D. Malar bone depthening
E. Nasal bleeding
196.M.A. Anterior fractures can be:
A. Simple fissures
B. Multiple fractures with small fragments
C. Fractures with”stage” displacement
D. Multiple fractures of the arcade
E. Malar bone and maxilla fractures
197.M.A. Malar bone plate can move:
A. Back and inside
B. Rotate round its ax
C. Can be basculant inside and lateral
D. Outwards and upwards
E. Can rotate
198.S.A. The main principle in the clinical diagnosis of the malar fractures is:
A. X-Ray
B. Functional diagnosis
C. Diaphanoscopy
D. Clinical signs exam (displacement, blockage, sensory disorders, diplopia, sinusal sings)
E. Thermal visiography
199.S.A. A fracture in „V” or the temporal-zygomatic arcade is characterized by:
A. One line of fracture
B. Two lines of fracture
C. Three lines of fractures
D. Is a cominuted fracture
E. None of these
200.S.A. The symptoms manifested in a temporal-zygomatic arcade fracture are:
A. Bleeding from one nostril
B. Hypoesthesia in n.infraorbitar zone
C. Subcutaneous emphyzema
D. Diplopia
E. Mandibular movement blockage
201.S.A. The consodilation of the zygomatic-maxillary fractures without displacement or properly repositioned
takes:
A. 5-12 days
B. 15-20 days
C. 25-30 days
D. 30-35 days
E. 8-10 days
202.S.A. Zygomatic zone anesthesya occurs in:
A. Orbital floor fractures
B. Anterior wall of the maxillary sinus fractures
C. Temporal-zygomatic fractures
D. Blowout type fractures
E. Frontal-zygomatic fractures
203.S.A. The classification of the orbital-zygomatic complex fractures is done depending on:
A. Localisation of the fracture
B. Affected side of the bone
C. The direction of blow one the bone
D. Cause of the trauma
E. Association with other fractures of the skull
204.M.A. The catheter balloon is used in the following fractures:
A. Orbital floor fractures
B. Zygomatic bone disjunction
C. Frontal-zygomatic suture fractures
D. Temporal-zygomatic arcade fractures
E. All of them
205.M.A. Symptoms of the orbital-zygomatic complex can be:
A. Incorrect reposiotioning
B. Diplopia
C. Facial asymetry
D. Mandibular blockage
E. Sensory disorders
206.M.A. The diagnosis of an orbital-zygomatic fracture is based on:
A. Clinical signs
B. X-Ray
C. Functional disorders
D. Other bone damage present
E. All of these
207.M.A. The most frequent forms of nasal pyramid fractures are:
A. Cartilagenous skeleton trauma
B. Middle cranial-facial disjunction (LeFort II)
C. High cranial-facial disjunction (LeFort III)
D. Open fractures of the bone skeleton of the nasal pyramid
E. Closed fractures of the bone skeleton of the nasal pyramid
208.S.A. Frequency of the nasal pyramid bones fractures is high because of their position and prominence and is:
A. 5%;
B. 8%;
C. 15%;
D. 3%;
E. 20%.
209.S.A. The repositioning of the nasal pyramid fragments is done more often with:
A. Manually, with fingers
B.
C.
D.
E.
With Joseph forceps
Hemostatic forceps with elastic tube
Volcov elevator
Endonasal with hemostatic forceps and exonasal with fingers
210.M.A. The imobilization of nasal fragments after repositioning is necessary and consists of:
A. Plugging of the nostrils
B. Fixation of the external plate
C. Inserting bubbles of gum in nostrils
D. Bandage application on nose with cleol
E. Plugging of nostrils and an external counterpression with a gutter made of gipsum
211.S.A. In nasal pyramid fractures we do NOT encounter some of the following symptoms?:
A. Swelling and bruises
B. Spontaneous pain
C. Abnormal mobility of the nasal pyramid
D. Nasal obstruction
E. Pronounced deformation of the face
212.M.A. Objective observations of the nasal pyramid fractures:
A. Abnormal mobility
B. Bone crepitus
C. Blood clots in nostrils during rynoscopy
D. Bruising
E. Displacement or depthening of the septum
213.S.A. If the treatment of the nasal pyramid fracture wasn’t done on time (in the first 15 days) then it is
recommended:
A. Immediate break and repositioning of the fragments
B. Application of devices for distraction and compression
C. Osteosynthesis
D. Plastic correction after 4-6 months
E. Nothings is recommended
214.M.A. When is the treatment of nasal pyramid accompanied by emphysema?:
A. When maxillary sinus is open
B. When ethmoidal-orbital area is involved
C. Fractures with great displacement
D. Nasal fractures accompanied by skull fractures
E. None of these cases
215.M.A. Trauma of the cartilagenous skeleton are accompanied by the following clinical symptoms:
A. Deformation with depthening
B. Anosmia
C. Epistaxis
D. Closed rinolalia
E. Obstruction of the nostrils by angulation or superposition of the fragments
216.S.A. What is the basic method in the diagnosis of the nasal pyramid fractures?:
A. X-Ray
B. Anterior rhynoscopy
C. Direct exam of the clinical signs
D. Ultrasonography
E. All these
217.M.A. Late complications of the nasal pyramid fractures are:
A. Nasal deformation
B. Nasal septum deviation
C. Nasal obstruction
D. Nasal-lacrimal channel obstruction
E. Breathing problems
218.M.A. In serious trauma of nasal pyramid local complications can occur:
A. Abcess of the septum
B. Chondrite
C. Perichondrite
D. Septum perforation
E. Sinusitis
219.M.A. Serious nasal pyramid trauma can occur with some complications in near proximity:
A. Sinusitis
B. Ocular problems
C. Maxillary osteomielitis
D. Ethmoiditis
E. Frontitis
220.S.A. One of the secondary complications of the nasal pyramid fracture endangers the patient’s life:
A. Septic poisoning
B. Breathing problems
C. Sinusitis
D. Chondritis
E. Ethmoiditis
221.M.A. Hemostasis in case of nasal bleeding is done by:
A. Anterior plugging with gauzes
B. Posterior plugging
C. Baloons of gum which inflate
D. Suturing the bleeding vessels
E. All of these
222.S.A. After repositioning of nasal fragments it is necessary to immobilize them with:
A. Pressure plugging endo- and exonasal
B. Tight endonasal plugging
C. Posterior plugging through the pharynx
D. Led plates of the form of the nose
E. All of these
223.M.A. Some nasal fractures can heal spontaneously without sequelae:
A. Fractures without displacement
B. Bone fractures with displacement
C. Fractures of cartilages
D. Total fractures
E. All fractures of the nasal pyramid
224.S.A. Which is the most often form of temporal-mandibular luxation?:
A. Anterior luxation
B. Posterior luxation
C. External luxation
D. Internal luxation
E. Superior luxation
225.S.A. Which is the oldest and simpliest method of repositioning of the temporal-mandibular luxation?:
A. Popescu method
B. Surgical methods
C. Hyppocrates method
D. Blehman-Gersuni method
E. Hyppocrates-Hodorovich method
226.S.A. One of the following symptoms is missing in unilateral luxations:
A. Asymetry of the face
B.
C.
D.
E.
Displacement of the chin forward and to the opposite site
Subzygomatic region swelling
Mouth large open
Relaxation of the soft tissues on the healthy site
227.S.A. What is the basic examination method of pacients with luxation of temporal-mandibular joint?:
A. X-Ray
B. Anamnesis
C. Electromiography
D. Clinical exam
E. Masticationgraphy
228.S.A. The most serious complication of a superior luxation is:
A. Fracture of the roof of glenoid cavity
B. Bleeding from the ear
C. Penetration of the condyle head in the middle fossa
D. Infection of the elements of the articulation
E. Concussions
229.M.A. The favoring causes in a temporal-mandibular luxation are:
A. The laxity of the ligamentar capsule
B. Hipotonic motoric muscles
C. Forced and exaggerated open of the mouth
D. Pathologic process in the ariculation
E. Decrease of the slope of temporal anterior tubercule
230.M.A. When is the surgical method of treatment for temporal-mandibular luxation required?:
A. A. Anterior uni- and bilateral luxations
B. Posterior luxations
C. Luxations with condylar processus fracture
D. Composed recurrent luxations
E. Old irreducible luxations
231.S.A. Berchet-Dubov method of anesthesia is used for:
A. Unilateral luxations
B. Anterior luxations
C. Old luxations
D. Bilateral fresh luxations
E. All of these forms
232.S.A. Which of the symptoms is absent in bilateral anterior luxations?:
A. Large open mouth
B. Displacement of the chin downwards and anteriorly
C. Flattened cheeks
D. Bite modifications
E. Displacement of the mandibular condyle backwards
233.S.A. After the repositioning of the luxation it is necessary to immobilize the mandible with a chin bandage for
how many days:
A. 8-10 days
B. 21 days
C. 25 days
D. 10-12 days
E. 20-30 days
234.S.A. What is the main cause of luxations?:
A. Forced opening of the mouth
B. The position of the menisc
C. The laxity of the ligamentary capsule
D. Hipotony of the temporal and maseteric muscles
E. The displacement of the condyle posteriorly
235.S.A. What does the patient first feels in a luxation?:
A. The tension of the muscles
B. That he can not close the mouth
C. That teeth do not contact
D. Much pain and a crackle
E. Reduced moves of the mandible
236.S.A. In what type of luxations the patients can reposition their mandible by themselves?:
A. Posterior luxations
B. Unilateral luxations
C. Anterior luxations
D. Recidivant luxations
E. Superior luxations
237.S.A. What anesthesia do we use for the repositioning of luxated mandibles?:
A. Berchet-Dubov anesthesia
B. Infiltrative anesthesia for muscles
C. Troncular periferical anesthesia
D. Basal troncular
E. General anesthesia
238.S.A. What do violent pain iradiating to the ear, clicking in the articulation and luxation during mastication
indicate?:
A. Acute parotiditis
B. Abcess of infratemporal fossa
C. Acute temporal-mandibular artritis
D. Submandibular litiasis
E. Recurrent luxation associated with arthritis
239.S.A. Temporal-mandibular luxation:
A. Is an articular manifestation with specific microbial agents
B. Standing limitation of the motor muscles because of bone tissue formation
C. Is change of relaxation processes of the mandibular muscles
D. Is the loss of normal relationship between articular surfaces with the exit of the condyle from the
glenoid cavity
E. None of these definitions is right
240.S.A. What is the main maneuver in repositioning the temporal-mandibular luxations in the classic method?:
A. Sitting the pacient of the chair with well-fixed head
B. Anesthesia
C. Fixation of the mandible with both hands
D. Putting the fingers on the molars
E. Pressing the molars and pushing the mandible posteriorly
241.M.A. In recurrent anterior luxations the following symptoms are present:
A. The luxation happens often and easily
B. Large open mouth
C. Chin displaced downwards and anteriorly
D. Bite is not changed
E. Flattened cheeks
242.M.A. Immediate complications of luxations of the temporal-mandibular joint:
A. Auditory tube inflammation
B. Bite changes
C. Nevralgic pain
D. A fibrous-conjunctive formation fixates the condyle
E. Hyposalivation
243.S.A. What is the damaged nerve in superior temporal-mandibular luxations?:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Mandibular
Maxillary
Auricular-temporal
Zygomatic
Facial
244.M.A. What are the main anatomical elements of the temporal-mandibular articulation?:
A. Condyle
B. Glenoidal fossa
C. Articular tubercule
D. Temporal and mandibular bones
E. Articular disc
245.S.A. In which luxation forms do scar modifications of the periarticular tissues of the menisc develor?:
A. Superior luxations
B. Lateral luxaitons
C. Old fixed luxations
D. Recurrent luxations
E. Bilateral anterior luxations
246.S.A. Which of the following symptoms are not present in the posterior luxations?:
A. Closed mouth
B. Distalized oclussion
C. The chin is displaced distally
D. The chin is displaced down and anterior
E. The condyle of the mandible can be palpated under the external auditive tube
247.S.A. Temporal-mandibular ankylosis is possible in the following forms of luxations:
A. Posterior luxation with fracture
B. Anterior bilateral luxation
C. Recurrent luxation
D. Anterior unilateral luxation
E. In all of these cases
248.M.A. The favoring factors of the temporal-mandibular luxations can be:
A. Pregnancy
B. Temporal tubercule with steep slope
C. Decreasing the tonicity of the temporal muscles
D. Temporal tubercule with flat slope
E. None of these
249. M.A. The clinical signs of a non-specific temporal-mandibular arthritis can be:
A. Throbing pain with optical, temporal and cheek iradiation
B. The chin displaced to the healthy part
C. Reduced movements in the articulation
D. Preauricular swelling
E. Articular crack
250. S.A. A pacient has a left preauricular swelling with local signs of acute inflammation, limitation of the
mandibular movements and strong pain in mastication. The most probable diagnosis may be:
A. Pretragian lymphadenitis
B. Pretragian furuncule
C. Parotiditis
D. Temporal-mandibular arthrytis
E. Otomastoiditis with suppuration
251.S.A. The clinical signs of a chronic temporal-mandibular arthritis can be:
A. Pain
B. Reduction of the mouth opening
C. Local swelling
D. Sepsis
E. Articular crack
252. S.A. What is the most frequent incriminating factor causing chronic temporal-mandibular arthritis?:
A. Acute infections which are incorrectly treated
B. Oclusal-articular disbalance
C. Frequent trauma of the chin
D. Infections with specific germs
E. None of the mentioned elements
253. M.A. Pathogenic mechanisms of mandibular costriction:
A. Bone tissue formation in the temporal-mandibular joint
B. Sclerotic-scar transformation of the articular capsule and the periarticular ligaments
C. Modification of the landmarks of the bone (the slope of the temporal condyle)
D. Sclerosis or hypertony of the descending mandibular muscles
E. A scar on the skin of the cheek
254. M.A. Diagnosis of mandibular constriction is based on:
A. Limitation of the opening of the mouth and less of its lateral and propulsion movents
B. Detection in the medical history of disease which could cause periarticular and mucocutaneous sequelae
C. Abscence of radiological changes in the temporal-mandibular joint
D. The possibility to open the mouth through mechanical methods
E. None of these arguments
255. S.A. What is the hardest complication of a temporal-mandibular arthritis?:
A. Fistula on the skin
B. Extension of the abscess to the mastoid processus
C. Septicemy
D. Mandibular constriction
E. Temporal-mandibular ankylosis
256. S.A. For which of the specific arthritis the temporal-mandibular ankylosis is not a complication?:
A. Gonocical
B. Tuberculogic
C. Actynomycotic
D. Luetic
E. Streptococical
257. M.A. The anatomical-pathological changes in the actynomycotic arthritis involves:
A. Periarticular lygaments
B. Mandibular channel
C. Articular capsule
D. Glenoidal cavity
E. The meniscus
258. M.A. Which of the following signs occur in the mandibular constriction?:
A. Sudden posttraumatical onset
B. Limitation of the mandibular movement, especially the lateral and the propulsion
C. The mandible tends to deviate laterally to the part where the trauma is
D. Reduced amplitude of the condylar movements
E. Two-stage opening of the mouth
259. M.A. Which are the symptoms of an acute nespecific arthritis?:
A. Deviation of the chin
B. Spontaneous, pulsatile, radiant pain
C. Swelling and preauricular congestion
D. Reduced mandibular movement
E. All these
260. M.A. The differencial diagnosis of acute nonspefici arthritis is made with:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Pretragian furuncule
Otomastoiditis
Pretragian lymphadenitis
Mandibular constriction
Infraangulomandibular adenitis
261. M.A. What anatomical elements are involved in the subacute phase of temporal-mandibular arthritis?:
A. The articular capsule
B. The articular ligaments
C. The articular meniscus
D. The mandibular condyle
E. The glenoidal cavity
262. M.A. In the actynomycotic arthritis the pathological changes involve:
A. The articular cartilage
B. The meniscus
C. The ligaments
D. The articular capsule
E. The bone
263. The ethiopathogenic factors of chronic arthritis involve:
A. Recurrent luxations
B. Open trauma of the temporal-mandibular joint
C. Pathogenic germs in the articular cavity
D. Repeated microtrauma by oclusal-articular imbalance
E. Intraarticular condylar fractures
264. M.A. The symptomatic triad of the symptoms of a chronic arthritis involves:
A. Pain
B. Cracks
C. Articular mechanical disorders
D. Mandibular movement limitation
E. Signs of acute inflamation
265. M.A. The differencial diagnosis of a chronic arthritis is made with:
A. Arthritis in rheumatic fever
B. Gonococical chronic arthritis
C. Abcesses of parotid lodge
D. Unilateral anterior luxation
E. None of these
266. M.A. An unilateral anterior luxation which occured in the temporal-mandibular joint is accompanied by:
A. Deflection of the chin to the damaged side
B. Deflection of the chin to the healthy side
C. Flattening of the cheek on the damaged side
D. Infrazygomatic prominence on the healthy side
E. Impossibility to close the mouth
267. M.A. The differential diagnosis in anterior unilateral luxations in made with:
A. Fractures of the condylar apophysis
B. Facial paralysis
C. Medial-symphisary fractures
D. Acute supurative parotiditis
E. Spastic contracture of the masticatory muscles
268. S.A. Are there any dental contacts in an anterior bilateral TMJ luxation?:
A. No
B. Sometimes on the incisives
C. Sometimes on the 3-rd molars
D. Always on the incisives
E. Always on the 3-rd molars
269. M.A. The anatomical-clinical forms of recurrent luxations are:
A. Lateral luxations
B. Condylar-meniscus luxations
C. Anterior-lateral luxations
D. Meniscus-temporal luxations
E. Condylar-temporal luxations
270. M.A. Which of the following is true about unilateral posterior mandibular luxations?:
A. Half open mouth, the distance between frontal incisives is about 10-20 mm
B. Large open mouth
C. Otorragia
D. The chin deflected to the healthy side
E. The interincisal line deflected to the damaged side
271. S.A. What late complication can happen after a posterior TMJ luxation?:
A. Temporal-mandibular ankylosis
B. Mandibular constriction
C. Articular stiffness
D. Persistent trismus
E. Auditive disorders
272. S.A. What is the treatment for an anterior TMJ luxation?:
A. Xiline and hidrocortizone intraarticular injections
B. Manual repositioning
C. Passive mechanical therapy
D. Active mechanical therapy
E. Intermaxillary blockage
273. S.A. The most frequent cause of a mandibular constriction:
A. Periosseous abcesses
B. Articular and periarticular causes
C. Mucocutaneous scars
D. Tumours in the facial region
E. Scars in the moving muscles of the mandible
274. M.A. Constriction of the mandible of a muscular cause can occur after:
A. The hypertony of ascending muscles
B. Periarticular abcesses
C. Sclerosis of the ascending muscles
D. Articular trauma
E. Fistula from an abcess of the cheek
275. S.A. What are the most frequent causes of temporal-mandibular ankylosys?:
A. Oto-mastoidian abcesses
B. Intraarticular fractures of the condyle
C. Acute supurative parotiditis
D. Fractures of the ramus which are incorrectly repositioned
E. Anterior luxations of the TMJ
276. M.A. Trauma which can lead to TMJ ankylosys:
A. Coronoidal apophysis fracture
B. Glenoidal cavity fracture
C. Intraarticular fracture of the condyle
D. Bone and meniscus trauma of obstetrical cause
E. Temporal bone fracture
277. M.A. From the localization point of view, the partial temporal-mandibular ankylosys can be:
A. Anterior
B.
C.
D.
E.
Lateral
Medial
Compact
Posterior
278. S.A. The Heister distancer is used for mechanical therapy for the following situations:
A. Temporal-mandibular ankylosis
B. Mandibular constrictions
C. After the mandibular arch fractures consolidation
D. In all of these cases
E. Is not used for mechanical therapy
279. S.A. What treatment do you use in the TMJ concussions?:
A. Active mechanical therapy
B. Trays to high the bite
C. Intermaxillary stiff blockage
D. Antiobiotical therapy
E. Periarticular injections with corticosteroids
280.Clinical problem: Pacient-female,64 y.o., total edentulous bimaxillary, accuses bilateral articular joint pain and
imposibility to close the mouth completely; the inferior third of the face is increased, the chin bulges out, mouth
large open, salivary incontinence, streched cheeks.
M.A. What could be the probable diagnosis based on the data above?:
A. Anatomic mandibular prognatism
B. Anterior unilateral right luxation
C. Posterior luxation
D. Anterior bilateral luxation
E. Recurrent luxation
281.Clinical problem: Patient-male, 75 y.o., accuses permanent limitation of opening of the mouth till 1 cm between
the central incisors mostly; Retractile scar on face in the right pretragian region and one more in the maseterin
region; The pacient also accuses pain when moving the mandible to the right; The X-ray does not show any bone
changes.
S.A. Whats the diagnosis based on the data above?:
A. Congenital mandibular laterognatia
B. Right chronic arthritis
C. Right anterior mandibular luxation
D. Mandibular constriction
E. Temporal-mandibular ankylosys
282.M.A. Which are the causes that lead to the unilateral mandibular constriction?:
A. Fracture of the vertical ramus, wrong repositioned
B. Hypotony of the ascending mandibular muscles
C. Periarticular trauma
D. Intramuscular foreign bodies
E. Retractile posttraumatic maseteric scars
283.Clinical problem: Patient-male, 75 y.o., accuses permanent limitation of opening of the mouth till 1 cm between
the central incisors mostly; Retractile scar on face in the right pretragian region and one more in the maseterin
region; The pacient also accuses pain when moving the mandible to the right; The X-ray does not show any bone
changes.
M.A. Which are the functional damage that hurt the pacient?:
A. Trismus
B. Difficult phonation
C. Difficult mastication
D. Fetid halitosis
E. Physionomic disorders
284. M.A. The role of the positional suture is:
A. Trimming and eliminating dead space
B.
C.
D.
E.
Restores symmetry and the mucocutaneous shape
Fixes the soft tissues and the skin flaps in correct position
Suppresses the bandage
Allows the transportation of the patients
285. M.A. What therapeutical solutions will you consider necessary in case of a constriction of the mandible caused
by a retractile scar in the right pretragian region and one in masseter region?:
A. Mechanical therapy and enzymatic therapy
B. Condylectomy
C. Cutting of the scars and covering the place with free graft
D. Meniscustomy
E. Cutting the insertion of the temporal muscle off the coronoidal apophysis
286. S.A. What is the most frequent of the facial fractures after CNPSDMU?:
A. Maxilla
B. Mandible
C. Nasal bones
D. Zygomatic bone
E. Zygomatic arcade
287.S.A. What is the most frequent of the facial fractures after OMF Surgey Chisinau?:
A. Maxilla
B. Mandible
C. Nasal bones
D. Zygomatic bone
E. Zygomatic arcade
288. S.A. More often the X-Ray in the nasal bones fracture shows:
A. Unilateral fracture
B. Bilateral fracture
C. Fracture with multiple small fragments
D. Defectuous fracture
E. Triple fracture
289. S.A. Subcutaneous emphyzema occurs in:
A. Maxillary fractures
B. Unilateral mandibulary fractures
C. Biltaral mandibulary fractures
D. Triple mandibulary fractures
E. Mandibulary fractures with multiple small fragments
290. S.A. Subcutaneous emphyzema occurs in:
A. Nasal bones fracture
B. Unilateral mandibular fractures
C. Bilateral mandibular fractures
D. Triple mandibular fractures
E. Mandibular fractures with multiple small fragments
291. S.A. Epiphora occurs in:
A. Frontal bone fracture
B. LeFort II fracture of maxilla
C. Zygomatic arcade fracture
D. Unilateral mandibular fracture
E. Bilateral mandibular fracture
292. S.A. Early contact of the premolars occurs in:
A. LeFort I
B. LeFort II
C. LeFort III
D. Bilateral TMJ luxation
E. Unilateral mandibular fracture
293. Early contact on the molars occurs in:
A. LeFort I
B. LeFort II
C. LeFort III
D. Fracture of the condyle
E. Zygomatic fracture
294. S.A. Sinusotomy is performed in:
A. Zygomatic fractures without displacement
B. Zygomatic fracures with displacement
C. Zygomatic fractures with multiple small fragments
D. Zygomatic arcade fractures without displacement
E. Zygomatic arcade fractures with displacement
295. S.A. What is usually done for immobilizing the mandible for transportation?:
A. Interdentay ligature in „8”
B. Ivy ligature
C. Curbed device „in zabala”
D. Bimaxillary imobilization
E. Rudico device
296. S.A. The treatment of the fracture which is complicated by osteomielitis is done with:
A. Rudico device
B. Vaucevici device
C. Arjantev device
D. Veber splint
E. Pont splint
297. S.A. Dental-paradontal traumatic damage is frequent in:
A. Central inferior incisives
B. Central superior incisives
C. Inferior canines
D. Superior canines
E. Inferior and superior premolars
298 M.A. Which of the following exams is necessary to diagnose a dental-paradontal trauma?:
A. X-Ray
B. Inspection
C. Palpation
D. Percution
E. Testing the vitality of the pulp
299. S.A. The interdentary space in a mandibular fracture on 7-th an 8-th teeth is equal to:
A. 1 cm
B. 2 cm
C. 3 cm
D. The length of the bone intercalation
E. 4 cm
300. S.A. The replacement of the nasal bones is perfomed by:
A. Leclusse elevator
B. Limberg hook
C. Volcov elevator
D. Buealsky spatula
E. None of these answers is correct
301. M.A. The maxillo-facial region is divided in three main parts:
A. Superior
B.
C.
D.
E.
Middle
Inferior
Lateral
Posterior
302. M.A. Which of the following facial regions is even?:
A. Orbitary, infraorbitary
B. Zygomatic, cheek
C. Nasal, labial, chin
D. Parotid-masseter
E. Inframenton, frontal
303. M.A. The bones which make up the facial skeleton are:
A. Maxilla
B. Mandible
C. Malar bone
D. Nasal bone
E. Frontal bone
304. S.A. The mobile bone which makes part of the facial skeleton is:
A. Maxilla
B. Mandible
C. Malar bone
D. Nasal bones
E. Palatal bones
305. S.A. Maxilla has got more walls:
A. 4;
B. 5;
C. 6;
D. 7;
E. 8.
306. M.A. Maxilla has got the following processus:
A. Alveolar
B. Frontal
C. Malar
D. Palatal
E. Temporal
307. M.A. Maxilla makes up the following cavities:
A. Orbital
B. Nasal
C. Oral
D. Pterigomaxillary
E. Maxillary sinus
308. M.A. There are several types of maxillary sinus:
A. Pneumatic
B. Sclerotic
C. With multiple cavities
D. One big sinus cavity and several small ones
E. All together
309. M.A. Main functions of the sinus:
A. Resonance
B. Smelling
C. Breathing (purifies the air)
D. Protection
E. Makes the skeleton lighter
310. S.A. The walls of the sinus are covered with:
A. Multilayer cilindric epitelium with cilia
B. Cubical epitelium
C. Flat epitelium
D. Prismatic epitelium
E. Folicular epitelium
311. S.A. The maxillary sinus communicates with:
A. Nasal cavity
B. Bucal cavity
C. The orbit
D. The glottis
E. Infratemporal fossa
312.M.A. The closest teeth to the maxillary sinus are:
A. First molars
B. Incisives
C. Second molars
D. Premolars
E. Canine
313.S.A. The capacity of the maxillary sinus is:
A. 14-25 cm3;
B. 15-40 cm3;
C. 10-20 cm3;
D. 7-15 cm3;
E. 20-50 cm3.
314. S.A. The maxillary sinus communicates with the nasal cavity through an oval orifice which opens in:
A. Superior nasal meatus
B. Middle nasal meatus
C. Inferior nasal meatus
D. Through the ethmoidal cells
E. None of these
315.S.A. Which of the walls of the maxillary sinus is crossed by the infraorbitar vascular-nervous package?:
A. Anterior
B. Middle
C. Superior
D. Lateral
E. Posterior
316. M.A. The closest teeth to the sinus are:
A. 1-st molar
B. 2-nd molar
C. 2-nd premolar
D. 3-rd molar
E. E. 1-st premolar
317. S.A. The maxillary sinus has the form:
A. Triangular prism
B. Square
C. Triangular
D. Oval
E. Round
318. M.A. The visceral skull has the following functions:
A. Phonation
B. Mastication
C. Swallowing
D. Facial expression
E. Protection
319. M.A. The pillars of strength of the maxilla are:
A. Frontal-nasal or incisal pillar
B. Zygomatic pillar
C. Pterigopalatal pillar
D. Palatat pillar (platform)
E. None of the above
320. M.A. In the median fracture of the mandible:
A. If the muscular tractions are balanced, the secondary displacement is absent:
B. The mobilization of the mandible causes the „harmonical bite”
C. The patient has bruises in the vestibule and infralingually
D. Patient has got hypoesthesia in the inferior alveolar nerve zone
E. Ear bleeding is frequent
321. S.A. The superior molars usually have:
A. Three roots
B. Two roots
C. One root
D. 4-5 roots
E. All answers are correct
322. S.A. The first premolar on the superior arcade usually have:
A. One root
B. Two roots
C. Three roots
D. Three-four roots
E. One roots with two apexes
323. S.A. Which teeth have the longest roots on the superior arcade?:
A. Central incisives
B. Lateral incisives
C. Canines
D. Premolars
E. Molars
324. S.A. What is the form of the mandible?:
A. Square
B. Semi-oval
C. Horseshoe
D. Triangular
E. The form changes with age
325. M.A. The mandible has the following apophysis:
A. Alveolar
B. Coronoidal
C. Condylar
D. Basal
E. Angular
326.S.A. The semilunar cut is placed between:
A. Alveolar and coronoidal apophysis
B. Alveolar and condylar apophysis
C. Condylar and coronoidal apophysis
D. Coronoidal apophysis and the mandibular base
E. All the answers are correct
327. S.A. What channel passes through the body of the mandible?:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Intraorbital
Nasal-palatine
Anterior palatal
Mandibular
All
328. M.A. What orifices are situated on the surface of the mandible?:
A. Mentonier
B. Mandibular
C. Infraorbital
D. Incisive
E. Palatal
329. S.A. The ascending ramus (in adults) is at ______ degrees with the body of the mandible:
A. 105-110;
B. 130-140;
C. 125-150;
D. 100-105;
E. 120-130.
330. M.A. The irregularities on the mandibular surface are:
A. Maseteric tuberosity
B. Pterigoidian tuberosity
C. Tuberosity of the chin
D. Maxillary tubersosity
E. All
331. M.A. The force lines on the mandible (after Sicher) are:
A. Marginal
B. Basis
C. Transversal
D. Anterior and posterior
E. Radial and capulans
332.M.A. The most fragile zones of the mandible where fractures happen more often are:
A. Median
B. Mentonier
C. Condyle
D. Mandibular angle
E. Ascending ramus
333. M.A. Which teeth on the inferior arcade usually have 2 roots?:
A. 1-st molar
B. 2-nd molar
C. 3-rd molar
D. 1-st premolar
E. Canine
334. S.A. The mentonier orifice is placed:
A. Between the canine and 1-st premolar
B. Between lateral incisives and the canine
C. Between the 1-st and 2-nd premolars
D. Between 2-nd premolar and 1-st molar
E. Under the 1-st molar
335. S.A. The odd bone of the visceral skull is:
A. Maxilla
B. Mandible
C. Zygomatic
D. Nasal
E. Palatal;
336. S.A. The most massive and thick portion of the mandible is:
A. The ascending ramus
B. Coronoidal apophysis
C. Body of the mandible
D. Condyle
E. Chin
337. M.A. The teeth with the closest roots to the mandibular channel are:
A. Molars
B. Premolars
C. Canines
D. Incisives
E. All answers
338. S.A. The roots of the inferior molars are placed:
A. Mesial-distal
B. Vestibular-oral
C. Lingual
D. Vestibular
E. None of the answers
339. S.A. The TMJ is:
A. Diarthrosis
B. Monoarthrosis
C. Triarthrosis
D. The most complicated joint
E. All the answers are correct
340. C.M. Elementele anatomice ale articulaţiei temporo-mandibulare sunt: 340.M.A. The anatomy elements of the
TMJ are:
A. Condilul articular; A. The condyle
B. Cavitatea glenoidă; B. The glenoidal cavity
C. Meniscul; C. Meniscus
D. Tuberculul articular; D. The articular tubercule
E. Capsula articulară şi ligamentele. E. The articular capsule and ligaments
341. M.A. TMJ has the following functions:
A. Chewing
B. Swallowing
C. Phonation
D. Amortization
E. Breathing
342. S.A. The glenoidal fossa is located on:
A. Temporal bone
B. Sphenopalatal bone
C. Maxilla
D. Frontal bone
E. Mandible
343. M.A. The glenoidal cavity is defined by:
A. Anterior- by the anterior edge of the articular tubercule
B. Posterior- by the bone of the eardrum which forms the external auditive channel
C. Internal- sphenoidal spine
D. External- longitudinal root of the zygomatic bone
E. No answer is right
344. S.A. The mandibular condyle has a diameter of 20-25 mm and form:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Oval
Round
Ellipsoid
Triangular
Square
345.S.A. Which of the two slopes of the mandibular condyles (anterior and posterior) is intracapsular:
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Both slopes
D. None of them
E. Answers A & B are correct
346. S.A. The condyle is covered with a cartilagenous layer of a structure:
A. Fibrous
B. Hialin
C. Cellular
D. Peticulate
E. Conjunctive
347. S.A. The form of the articular meniscus is:
A. Biconcave lens
B. Concave lens
C. Flat lens
D. Convex lens
E. Biconvex lens
348. M.A. The meniscus has two main surfaces:
A. Superior
B. Inferior
C. Anterior
D. Posterior
E. Lateral
349. S.A. The synovial fluid which is in the articular spaces is produced by:
A. The synovial membrane
B. Small salivary glands
C. Large salivary glands
D. Lymphatic system
E. All answers are correct
350. M.A. The intracapsular ligaments are:
A. Pterigoid-mandibular ligament
B. Spheno-mandibular ligament
C. Internal ligament
D. External ligament
E. Stylo-mandibular ligament
351. S.A. What is the treatment for a longitudinal fracture of a tooth which is also luxated?:
A. Restoration
B. Transfixation
C. Extraction
D. Root channel treatment and immobilization
E. Transfixation and crown
352.M.A. In case of a complete luxation of a central superior incisive, the treatment possibilities are:
A. Extraction and suture of the extraction site
B. Replantation of the tooth and its immobilization
C. Vital amputation of the coronary pulp and root channel treatment
D. Transfixation for a better stability
E. Apical resection and root channel treatment
353. S.A. Dental fractures in the apical third benefit of:
A. Coronary reconstruction
B. Root channel treatment
C. Apical resection
D. Transfixation
E. Extraction
354. S.A. Apical resection in cases of dental fractures is indicated in:
A. Longitudinal fractures
B. Oblique fractures of the root
C. Fractures of the apex
D. Fractures in the middle third of the root
E. None of these
355. S.A. The treatment of the coronal-radicular non-penetrative fractures is:
A. Coronal reconstruction
B. Root channel treatment
C. Reconstruction of the tooth with coronal-radicular devices
D. Extraction is the fracture line is far below the neck of the tooth
E. Replantation and immobilization of the toot
356. S.A. Dental transfixation is used is:
A. Dental-parodontal concussions
B. Total luxations
C. Avulsions
D. Coronal fractures
E. Radicular fractures
357. M.A. The measures you will undertake for a coronal penetrating fracture are:
A. Extraction of the tooth
B. Immobilization of the tooth
C. Coronal amputation of the pulp
D. Extirpation of the pulp
E. Direct capping and permanent filling
358. M.A. An oblique coronal-radicular fracture can be treated by:
A. Extraction
B. Root channel treatment and prosthetic restoration
C. Replantation
D. Transfixation
E. None of the above
359.S.A. Which of the following symptoms is not present in the mortification of the pulp in dental trauma?:
A. Change of the color of the tooth
B. Deaf sound at percution
C. Change of occlusion
D. Spontaneous pain at percussion
E. Negative response to vitality tests
360.S.A. In which dental trauma it is possible to apply acrylic trays and metal wire?
A. In dental-parodontal concussions
B. Radicular apex fractures
C. Coronal fractures
D. Complete luxations
E. Incomplete luxations
361. S.A. Which symptom is not found in penetrating coronary fractures implying the pulpar chamber of a frontal
tooth?:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Obvious change of occlusal relationship
Great pain on touch
Bleeding of the pulp
Crown damage
Presence of a pulp blunt
362. S.A. What is the frequence of fractures in the angle of the mandible?:
A. 17-25%
B. 30-40%
C. 50-60%
D. 70-80%
E. 10-15%
363. S.A. Most often, the mandibular fractures are localized:
A. Angle
B. Symphisis
C. Paramedian
D. Ramus
E. Condyle neck
364. S.A. The frequence of the condyle neck fractures is:
A. 50-60%
B. 25-34%
C. 5-10%
D. 20-21%
E. 40-45%
365. S.A. Partial mandibular fractures occur when:
A. It involves a limited bone fragement
B. The action force is low
C. In the moment of trauma the mouth is open
D. In the moment of trauma the mouth is closed
E. All these
366. S.A. In the temporal-articular anterior luxation:
A. Mouth can’t be shut
B. Mouth can’t be open
C. Mouth closure is painful
D. Mouth opening is painful
E. Mandibular movement are permanently limited
367.S.A. What happent when you palpate the external auditory canal in an anterior temporal-mandibular luxation?:
A. The movements of the condyle have an exaggerated amplitude
B. The movements of the condyle are not perceived
C. Cracks are perceived
D. Abrupt movements of the condyle are perceived
E. The movements of the condyle are deflected
368.S.A.The chin in an anterior unilateral temporal-mandibular luxation is:
A. Is displaced to the damaged side
B. Is on the medial line
C. Is displaced to the healthy side
D. Is retruded
E. From case to case, all these answers are correct
369.S.A. The sympotom of a posterior temporal-mandibular luxation is:
A. Shortening of the ascending mandibular ramus
B. Lengthening of the ascending mandibular ramus
C. The prominence of the condyle anteriorly to the tragus
D. Bleeding from the ear
E. All these answers
370.S.A. The most often etiopathogenic mechanism of chronic temporal-mandibular arthritis is:
A. Wounds of the joint
B. Infection of the joint
C. Fracture of the mandible
D. Direct trauma
E. Microtrauma of the joint by oclusal-articular imbalance
371.M.A. The symptoms of a chronic temporal-mandibular arthritis are:
A. Pain
B. Cracks
C. Disorders in joint dynamics
D. Bleeding from ears
E. Retromandibular swelling
372.M.A. The causes of temporal-mandibular ankylosis are:
A. Fractures of the condyle inside the joint
B. Oclusal-joint disorders
C. Wounds of the temporal-mandibular joint
D. Chin blows
E. Obstetrical trauma
373.M.A. The causes of temporal-mandibular ankylosis are:
A. Sebaceous festered cyst
B. Festered otomastoiditis
C. Festered pericoronaritis
D. Scarlet fever
E. Gonococical arthritis
374.M.A. The clinical forms of a temporal-mandibular ankylosis are:
A. Intermediarry ankylosis
B. Anterior ankylosis
C. Posterior ankylosis
D. Total ankylosis
E. Retroarticular ankylosis
375.M.A. The symptoms of TMJ bilateral ankylosys:
A. Deleted chin relief
B. Joint crack
C. Lack of mandibular movement
D. External auditory canal perforation
E. Local-regional adenopathy
376.M.A. The anterior temporal-mandibular luxations are favored by:
A. The configuration of the bone elements of the joint
B. Dental-alveolar disharmony
C. Muscular –ligamentar laxity
D. The trismus
E. Untreated temporal-mandibular ankylosis
377.M.A. Surgical treatment methods for recurrent meniscus-temporal luxations are:
A. Arthrotomy
B. Capsulegraphy
C. Condylectomy
D. Arthroereisis
E. Arthroscopy
378.M.A. What can be used in the treatment of a chronic temporal-mandibular arthritis?:
A. Palatal plates with retroincisive plateau
B. Periarticular injections with novocaine or xiline
C. Pause of the joint
D. Arthroplasty
E. Bilateral condylectomy
379.S.A. The cause of mandibular constrictions is:
A. Fracture of the ascending mandibular ramus
B. Acute mandibular infection
C. Stricnine poisoning
D. Sclerosis of the ascending muscles of the mandible
E. Temporal-mandibular joint laxity
380.S.A. What is used for the treatment of mandibular constriction?:
A. Arthrotomy
B. Sclerosing intraarticular injections
C. Mechanical therapy
D. Enzymatic therapy
E. Osteotomy
381.M.A. In the chronic temporal-mandibular arthritis:
A. In the advanced stage- necrosis of the bone extremeties with resorbtion and proliferation, visible on the
X-Ray
B. The mandibular movement are totally imposible
C. Cracks when the mandible is moving
D. The mandibular condyle perforates the anterior wall of the external auditive canal
E. Ear bleeding during the night
382.M.A. Constriction of the mandible:
A. Is the loss of normal relationship between the joint surfaces- the condyle exits the glenoidal cavity
B. In advanced stages- necrosis of the bone extremeties with resorbtion and proliferation, visible on the
X-Ray
C. Total or partial permanent limitation of the mandibular movements
D. Cracks
E. Non-bleeding, conservative, treatment methods follow the slimming of the scar tissue and the
mobilization of the mandible
383.M.A. In an anterior temporal-mandibular luxation, what anatomical-pathologic elements oppose the return of
the mandubular condyle in the glenoid cavity?:
A. The withdrawal of the meniscus in the glenoid cavity
B. Reflex contraction of the ascending muscles of the mandible
C. Folding of the meniscus between the luxated condyle and the anterior slope of the temporal condyle
D. The anterior slope of the temporal condyle with steet slope
E. The fixation of a bigger coronoid apophysis in the posterior-inferior margin of the malar bone
384.M.A. The clinical signs of an anterior temporal-mandibular bilateral luxation:
A. Salivary incontinence
B. The chin moved downwards and backwards
C. The mandibular angle in contact with the anterior margin of the sternocleidomastoideus muscle
D. The movement of the condyles in the external auditory canal in sunk
E. Relaxation of the ascending muscles of the mandible
385.M.A. Clinical signs of an anterior unilateral temporal-mandibular luxation:
A. The chin is moved down and to the damaged side
B. Flattening of the facial relief on the damaged side
C. The interincisal line is deflected to the healthy side
D. Sunk movements of the luxated condyle in the external auditive canal
E. Lateral inclussion the side opposite to the luxation
386.M.A. The differential diagnosis of a temporal-mandibular luxation is made with:
A. Temporal-mandibular arthritis
B. Spastic contracture of the masticatory muscles
C. Fracture of the condylar neck
D. Temporal-mandibular ankylosis
E. Facial paralysis
387.M.A. Clinical signs of a posterior temporal-mandibular luxation are:
A. Ear bleeding
B. Frontal inclussion
C. The chin is moved anterior and inferior
D. Semi-open mouth
E. Preauricular swell because the condyle left the joint
388.S.A. Which of the anatomical-clinical forms of TMJ luxation is compulsory accompanied by condyle
fractures?:
A. Anterior luxations
B. Posterior luxations
C. Lateral luxations
D. Meniscus-temporal luxation
E. Condylar-meniscus luxation
389.S.A. Which of the following anatomical-clinical forms the temporal-mandibular luxations have crossover bite?:
A. Anterior luxation
B. Meniscus-temporal luxation
C. Condylar-meniscus luxation
D. Posterior luxation
E. Lateral luxation
390.M.A. What are the causes which lead to morphological-functional changes of the TMJ with subsequent
recurrent luxations?:
A. Mioclonic postencephalyc disorders
B. Rheumatic fever
C. Atrophy of the maseter muscles after poliomielitis
D. Condylar intracapsular fractures in history
E. Oclusal-articular disbalance
391.S.A. Associated trauma is defined as:
A. Damage of the soft tissue and bones of the oral and maxillofacial region
B. Wounds of soft tissues associated by simple fractures of the maxillary bones
C. Wounds of the soft tissues accompanied by multiple fractures with large crush and loss of substance
D. Damage of the oral and maxillofacial and surrounding regions or of remote regions which were caused
by the same traumatic agent
E. Trauma caused by different agents (mechanic, thermic, chemical)
392.S.A. What is the frequency of associated trauma?
A. 4,7%;
B. 30%;
C. 34%;
D. 45%;
E. 56%.
393.M.A. Associated oral and maxillofacial trauma can be accompanied by:
A. Concussion
B. Fractures of base of the skull
C. Damage of the internal organs
D. Trauma of the spine
E. Fractures of the members
394.M.A. The symptomology of a cheek phlegmon is:
A. Diffused swelling of the cheek with congested, smooth, tensioned skin
B. Flattened facial grooves
C. Prominent swelling of the cheek region
D. The mucosa of the cheek is congested, glossy, with the marks of the teeth on it, covered with fetid
accumulations
E. Painful palpation, fluctuation
395.M.A. The treatment of associated trauma starts with:
A. Bandages on the wounds and immobilization of the fractures
B. Emergency treatment for the shock
C. Hemostasis and release of the airways
D. Supporting the vital centres
E. None of the above
396.S.A. In what department are you going to hospitalize the patient with mandibular fracture, fracture of the skull
base and cerebral hematoma?:
A. Department of traumatology
B. Oral and maxillofacial surgery department
C. Department of neurology
D. Neurosurgery department
E. Department of surgery
397.M.A. Emergency treatment of the associated trauma involves:
A. Detailed analysis
B. Hemostasis and release of the airways
C. Treatment of the traumatic shock
D. Bandages and immobilization of fractured bones
E. Antibiotics and sulfamides
398.M.A. What anesthesia are used for associated trauma surgery in a hospital?:
A. Neuroleptanalgezia
B. Local-regional anesthesia
C. Long term general anesthesia
D. Local-regional anesthesia with premedication
E. Inhalatory general anesthesia by intubation
399.M.A. The time and volume of the surgery of oral and maxillofacial trauma for the patient with associated
trauma depend on:
A. Patient’s general status
B. Difficulty of facial trauma
C. Difficulty of associated trauma
D. Evolution of general and local status of associated trauma
E. None of these
400.S.A. Specify in which of the following trauma of face a fracture of the base of skull is also probable:
A. Mandibular fractures
B. Crushed trauma with temporal-zygomatic arcade fracture
C. Middle third of the face trauma
D. Trauma of nasal pyramid
E. Bilateral fracture of condyle
401.S.A. The most often late complication of oral and maxillofacial trauma is:
A. Massive bleeding
B. Concussion
C. Asphixia
D. Traumatic shock
E. Infectious complications
402.M.A. In case of massive bleeding:
A. Multiple sutures
B. Hemostatic forceps
C. Plugging compression
D. Tourniquet
E. Manual compression
403.M.A. Which are the most frequent complications of salivary glands damage?:
A. Posttraumatic cysts
B. Tightening of the salivary ducts
C. Complete cicatrization of the duct
D. Fistulas
E. Infections of the damaged glands
404.M.A. After crushing the parotid gland often the facial nerve is crushed too and this leads to:
A. Temporary paresis
B. Loss of sensibility
C. Trismus
D. Constant total paralisis
E. Constant partial paralisis
405.S.A. What can occur after a dog bite?:
A. Tetanus
B. Erysipelas
C. Myositis
D. Rabies
E. Septic complications
406.M.A. What are the rare late complications of the oral and maxillofacial trauma?:
A. Vicious cicatrization of soft tissue wounds
B. Defects of the soft tissue and maxillary bones
C. Psychic damage
D. Mandibular constriction
E. Nevralgia
407.S.A. In case of an associated trauma accompanied with bilateral mandibular fracture of mentonier regions and
crushing of the mouth floor, what type of asphyxia can occur?
A. by aspiration
B. By dislocation
C. By obstruction
D. Valvular
E. By stenosis
408.M.A. In which type of bleeding the external is the external carotid artery ligated?:
A. When facial artery is damaged
B. When temporal artery is damaged
C. When lingual artery is damaged
D. When more vessels which cannot be ligated are damaged at once
E. Massive hemifacial bleeding endanger the life of the pacient
409.S.A. In which cases of asphyxia is the tongue ligated?:
A. By stenosis
B. By dislocation
C. By aspiration
D. By obstrucion
E. Valvular
410.S.A. After the release of superior airways which is the most efficient method of artificial respiration?:
A. Larynx-trachea intubation and artificial respiration
B. With an artificial respiration device
C. Mouth to mouth
D. Nose to nose
E. Compression of the thorax with hand , 18-20 compressions per minute
411.M.A. Which of the early complications may occur in oral and maxillofacial trauma?:
A. Bleeding
B. Concussion
C. Asphyxia
D. Shock
E. Infection
412.M.A. Emergency hemostasis can be done by:
A. Compression plugging
B. Forceps on the damages vessels
C. Ligation of the wounds’ margins
D. Distant ligation of vessels
E. Compression of the artery with the finger against the bone
413.S.A. How can a ligature on the tongue be applied in case of asphyxia by dislocation?:
A. Vertically
B. Horizontally
C. In the anterior third
D. On the tip of the tongue
E. In the middle of the tongue
414.S.A. Traumatic osteomyelitis most frequently occurs in fractures of:
A. Mandible in the limits of dental arcade
B. Maxilla
C. Nasal pyramid
D. Malar bone and zygomatic arcade
E. Mandible in the limits of the ascending ramus
415.M.A. In maxillary fractures primary complications frequently happen:
A. Traumatic osteomyelitis
B. Oro sinusal communication
C. Sinusitis
D. Suppuration of perimaxillary tissues
E. Bone deffects
416.M.A. The most important measures for taking care of the patient with oral and maxillofacial trauma are:
A. Cleanliness and fresh air in the room
B. Special hygiene of the oral cavity
C. Frequent change of the sheets
D. Usage of parfumes, elixirs
E. Frequent change of bandages
417.M.A. The patients with oral and maxillofacial trauma have the motoric muscles’ functions reduced, that’s why it
is necessary for them to use:
A. Mechanical therapy devices
B. Massage
C. Miogymnastics
D. Electromiomassage
E. Physiotherapy
418.M.A. In what situations patient with oral and maxillofacial trauma should apply ice bags?:
A. Concussions
B. Hematomas
C. Soft tissue wounds of face
D. Maxillary bones fractures
E. In all trauma
419.S.A. In case of fracture with displacement at the angle of the mandible with tooth nr.3.8 impacted in the fracture
line and a low infracondylar fracture, do you additionally immobilize the fragments with splints and traction if
you’ve already performed osteosynthesis of both fractures?:
A. It is not mandatory
B. Yes
C. No
D. Only if osteosynthesis at mandibular angle is performed
E. It is done for 8-10 days
420.M.A. Antiseptic substances used for irrigating the mouth of the patients with oral and maxillofacial trauma:
A. H2O2
B. Potassium permanganate
C. Cloramine
D. Clorhexidine
E. Sodium carbonate
421.M.A. Why the septicity of the oral cavity is high in the patients with oral and maxillofacial wounds?:
A. Elimination of the secretions from the wound in the mouth
B. Limitation of the mastication
C. Food retention in the interdentar spaces, splints
D. The impossibility to clean the teeth with the brush
E. None of the factors influence the oral hygiene
422.S.A. What parts of the feeding act are damaged in serious trauma of facial skeleton?:
A. Mastication
B. Swallowing
C. Biting
D. Moistening
E. All together
423.M.A. Because of the loss of the ability to feed properly, the patients with oral and maxillofacial trauma are
affected by:
A. Gastric secretion disorder
B. Esophagus functions disorder
C. Swallowing disorder
D. Interstinal disorder
E. None of the answers
424.M.A. Why must the diet of the patients with oral and maxillofacial trauma be rich in fresh fruit and vegetables?:
A. They clean the teeth
B. Stimulation of salivary secretion
C. Stimulation of gastric acid secretion
D. They contain vitamins, microelements, mineral salts
E. The assimilate faster in the body
425.S.A. The most frequent fractures of the maxilla is:
A. Fractures of the alveolar crest
B. LeFort I
C. LeFort II
D. LeFort III
E. Vertical fractures, intermaxillary disjunctions
426.M.A. The main indications for the medical gymnastics for patients with oral and maxillofacial trauma endanger
the:
A. Mandibular constriction
B. Vicious oral scars
C. After the surgery of TMJ
D. After suturing the wounds in motoric muscles region
E. No correct answer
427.M.A. When do the OMF patients eat by themselves?:
A. Dental luxation
B. Alveolar crest fracture
C. Isolated nonpenetrative wounds in oral cavity
D. Temporal-zygomatic arcade fracture
E. No correct answer
428.M.A. Why does the appetite of the patients with OMF trauma decrease considerably?:
A. Gastric secretion disorder
B. Feeding disorder
C. Psychic disorder
D. Swallowing disorder
E. All together
429.M.A. The choice of the feeding method and the composition of the food for the patients with OMF trauma
depends upon?:
A. The character and phases of the evolution of the wound
B. Localization of the wound
C. Patient’s general state
D. Clinical and laboratory data
E. No right answer
430.M.A. Which of the following places for gathering food scrap, secretion from the wound are the most frequent
for the patients with OMF trauma?:
A. Pockets of the wounds
B. Immobilization device
C. Interdental space
D. Perimaxillary grooves
E. No right answer
431.S.A. What quantity of liquid is necessary for an adult of 70kg after an OMF trauma?:
A. 1500-2000ml;
B. 2000-2500 ml;
C. 3000-3100ml;
D. 2800-3000 ml;
E. 3500- 4000ml.
432.M.A. How can a patient with intermaxillary splints be feeded?:
A. With an elastic tube
B. With a funnel
C. With Janet or Guiyon serringe
D. With the spoon
E. With the kettle
433.M.A. Which form of metabolism is disturbed in the patient with OMF trauma?:
A. Proteic metabolisc
B. Hydro-electrolytic metabolism
C. Glucidic metabolism
D. Lypidic metabolism
E. No correct answer
434.M.A. The form of feeding patients with intermaxillary blockage is:
A. Semiliquid
B. Liquid
C. Usual
D. Crumbled
E. Paste
435.M.A. Drainage of the wounds with polyethylene tubes is indicated in:
A. Crushed wounds
B. Penetrating wounds
C. Wounds of the lips, tongue, mouth floor
D. Associated wounds with mandibular fracture
E. The drainage is not indicated
436.M.A. Why do the patient with OMF trauma sometimes suffer from psyhic disorders?:
A. After concussion
B. Depending on the gravity of the mutilation
C. Are caused by the creepy aspect of the face mutilation
D. Feeding disorder
E. Decrease of working capacity, functional disorder
437.S.A. To adjust the regeneration of the wounds and maxillary fractures it is necessary to:
A. Massage, physiotherapy
B. Vitamins
C. Antibiotics
D. Biogen stimulators
E. All of them but according to prescription
438.S.A. What is the feeding regime for patients with OMF trauma?:
A. 3 times a day
B. 3-4 times a day
C. 5 times a day
D. 6 times a day
E. Patient’s choice
.M.A. When does feeding through a tube last long time?
A. Incontinence of buccal cavity
B. Destruction of the mouth floor
C. Multiple maxillary fractures
D. Associated trauma
E. Edentulous maxillary bones
440.M.A. Surgical assistance during peaceful time for the soldiers of the national army with OMF trauma is granted
in:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Dental offices in battalions
Dental offices in regiments
Dental offices in garnizons
Dental offices in brigades
At the central military hospital
441.M.A. Local clinical signs in post traumatic phlegmon of inframandibular lodge are:
A. Inframandibular swelling
B. Congestive-glossy skin, deletion of the relief
C. Pain and fluctuence at palpation
D. Mucous edema endobuccaly, hyperemia in some cases of fluctuency
E. Trismus
442.M.A. The componence of a oral surgery department is:
A. Waiting room
B. Archives
C. Operating room
D. Sterilization room
E. X-Ray
443.S.A. The necessary space in a dental office with a single unit is:
A. 10m2+7m2
B. 20m2+7m2
C. 14 m2+7m2
D. 30 m2+7m2
E. 25 m2+7m2
444.M.A. What interventions are done in oral surgery office?:
A. Anesthesia and dental extractions
B. Removal of malign tumors
C. Apical resections, hemisection, root amputation
D. Final treatment of complicated trauma
E. First aid in OMF trauma
445.M.A. Zygomati-maxillary complex trauma may involve:
A. The zygomatic bone
B. The internal wall of the orbit
C. Anterolateral wall of the maxillary sinus
D. The ascending apophysis of the maxilla
E. Mouth floor
446.M.A. The main instruments in a oral surgery office are:
A. Extraction forceps, elevators
B. Trays, forceps, mirrors with handles, probes
C. Mouth opener, tongue fixation device, farabef
D. Scalpels, scissors, hemostatic forceps
E. Curettes, rasps, excavators, scalling device
447.M.A. Forms of surgical assistance in an oral surgery office in the army are:
A. Profilactic surgical assistance
B. Planned surgical assistance
C. Emergency surgical assistance
D. Emergency surgical assistance for vital reasons
E. Mixed surgical assistance
448.M.A. The antishock kit contains:
A. Atropine, adrenaline, noradrenaline
B. Antihystamines ( dimedrol, pipolfen, tavegyl, suprastin)
C. Cardiac drugs ( cordiamin, strofantin, cardivalen, nitroglycerin, sustac, cavinton, clefelin, validol)
D. Spasmolytics ( nospa, papaverin, dibazol, teofilin, eufilin, diprofen, gangleron)
E. Drugs which stimulate kidney activity ( furosemid, diacarb, manit, novirit )
449.M.A. Stage of assistance for soldier wounded in the OMF region:
A. First aid on battlefield
B. First premedical aid in medical points of the batalion
C. Specialized medical help ( regiments, divisions)
D. Definitive treatment in army hospital
E. Depends on the circumstances
450.S.A. Who provides first aid on the battlefield?:
A. The dentist of the millitary unit
B. The main dentist of the army
C. Unaided or by a comrade
D. General surgeon
E. An OMF specialist
451.S.A. The purpose of the emergency aid for the OMF wounde on the battlefield is:
A. Definitive hemostasis and fixation of the bone fragments
B. Keeping the wounded alive, prevention of the complications, lower the risc of traumatic factors
C. Removing the foreign object out of the wound
D. Emergency transportation of the wounded to the medical point
E. Taking care of the wound and suturing
452.M.A. First emergency medical help for the OMF wounded involves:
A. Removing the burning clothes and the flammable solutions
B. Helping the wounded get out the burning places or polluted with toxic substance
C. Thrist quench
D. Putting on the antigas mask
E. Preventing asphyxia
453.M.A. First emergency aid for the wounded in oral and maxillofacial region involves the following special
interventions:
A. Temporary hemostasis (plugging bandage, tourniquet)
B. Covering the wound with a bandage
C. Installation of temporary splints
D. Painkillers and antishock kit administration
E. Antibiotics
454.S.A. After first medical aid all the wounded:
A. Go to the medical centrers by themselves
B. They are herded into cars and taken behind the front line
C. Are placed in special places where a white flag is installed
D. They are transported by air to the medical centeres
E. They stay in the place where surgical help is given to them
455.M.A. The particularities of first aid to the wounded in radiation outbreaks are dictated by:
A. The large number of patients with severe wounds
B. Building demolition and fires
C. Pollution with radioactive substances
D. Destroyed vehicles
E. Psyche affected population
456.S.A. What is recommended for the prevention of asphyxia
A. Urgent evacuation
B. Painkillers and antibiotics
C. Plugging bandages
D. Drugs for breathing stimulation
E. Laying the patients on their side or on their back
457.M.A. In the medical center of the batalion, the volume of the medical help to the wounded involves:
A. Checking the bandages and installing the splints
B. Aid according to vital indications (asphyxia, bleeding)
C. Painkillers and antibiotics
D. Definitive bleeding
E. Installing of splints, surgery, treatment
458.M.A. The volume of medical assistance for the wounded in the millitary hospitals is:
A. Definitive hemostasis and assurance of the normal breathing
B. Definitive processing of the OMF wounds
C. Definitive immobilization of maxillary fractures ( splints, trays, devices, surgical methods)
D. Pharmacotherapy, diet, prophylaxy and treatment of complications
E. Prosthetic treatment of teeth
459.S.A. The definitive surgical help for the OMF wounded is given in:
A. 10-15 days;
B. 20-25 days;
C. 30 days;
D. 60 days;
E. 100 days.
460.M.A. War wounds of the soft facial tissue are:
A. Blind wounds
B. Multiple wounds
C. Burns
D. Frostbite
E. Cut wounds
461.S.A. Which are the most frequently damaged soft tissues?:
A. Chin
B. Cheek
C. Lips
D. Inframandibular
E. Other regions
462.M.A. Clinical picture of the firearm wounds of the soft tissue has the following symptoms:
A. Edema, deformities, defects
B. Pain
C. Bleeding
D. Change of bite
E. Secretion of saliva
463.M.A. The wound caused by bullet have the following zones:
A. Traumatic edema zone
B. Necrotic zone
C. Contussion zone
D. Concussion zone
E. Burn zone
464.M.A. The evolution of the wound of the soft tissues depends upon:
A. The time of primary surgical processing and strictness of the hygiene
B. General state of health
C. The implication of inflamatory process and virulence of the pathologic germs
D. Pharmacologic therapeutic treatment started on time and fully respected
E. X-Ray
465.S.A. Primary suture is applied during:
A. The first 48 hours
B. The first 24 hours
C. The first 72 hours
D. The first 36 hours
E. The first 96 hours
466.S.A. The secondary suture is applied during:
A. The first 24 hours
B. The first 48 hours
C. The first 72 hours
D. The first 36 hours
E. The first 96 hours
467.S.A. Tight sutures can be applied only for:
A. 72 hours;
B. 48 hours;
C. 96 hours;
D. Any period of time;
E. 10-12 hours.
468.S.A. Positioning (approaching) suture is applied after:
A. 24 hours;
B. 72 hours;
C. 48 hours;
D. 96 hours;
E. Any period of time.
469.S.A. Skin suture is applied with:
A. Resorbable material
B. Adhesive
C. Non-resorbable, thin material
D. Non-resorbable material of necesarry material
E. Any material
470.M.A. After surgical processing of soft tissue wounds, the wound should be filled with:
A. Drainage
B. Antibiotical solution by injection
C. Ice bags
D. Pieces with ointments
E. Bags with warn water
471.S.A. The most dangerous symptom in tongue wounds is:
A. Phonation disorder
B. Mastication disorder
C. Sensory and taste disorders
D. Developed edema with signs of asphyxia
E. The danger of wound supuration
472.M.A. The simplest classification of war trauma of the skull is:
A. Dental damage
B. Fractures of the mandible
C. Fractures of maxilla
D. Maxillary bones fractures
E. Fracture of the zygomatic bone and arcade
473.M.A. What can be the character of the mandibular fractures?:
A. Closed
B. Single
C. Open
D. Double
E. Multiple
474.S.A. What is damaged by fire-arm most frequently?:
A. Maxilla
B.
C.
D.
E.
Mandible
Nasal bone
Malar bone
Zygomatic arcade
475.M.A. The reason of the trauma of the skull by gunfire during war is:
A. cartridges
B. Shrapnel
C. Rocks
D. Crash
E. Termical factors
476.M.A. The diagnosis of skull bone fracture is made after:
A. Clinical signs
B. X-Ray
C. Functional disorder
D. Sensory disorder
E. Oclussal disorder
477.M.A. The classification of skull bone fractures is made after:
A. Degree of displacement of the affected bones
B. Vulnerant agent
C. Localisation of the fracture
D. Damaged bone segment
E. Association with other bones of the body
478.S.A. Cranial-facial disjunction is:
A. Fracture of the alveolar ridge
B. LeFort II
C. Maxillary fractures involving nasal, malar bones and zygomatic arcade
D. Maxillary and mandibular fracture
E. All answers are right
479.S.A. Mandibular blockage occurs in:
A. Mandibular fractures
B. Zygomatic arcade fractures
C. Maxillary fractures
D. Nasal bone fractures
E. All these
480.S.A. Important ocular disorders as diplopia, exophtalmia occur is:
A. Guerrin fracture
B. LeFort II
C. Alveolar crest fractures
D. LeFort III
E. All these
481.S.A. What type of fractures are the maxillary disjunctions?:
A. Associated
B. Communicating
C. Horizontal
D. Oblique
E. Vertical
482.S.A. Because of the spongeous structure and rich vascularisation the fibrous calus in fractures of maxilla is
formed in:
A. 30-40 days;
B. 18-25 days;
C. 6-8 days;
D. 8-10 days;
E. 12-18 days.
483.S.A. In a mandibular fracture with skin and mucous wounds of the cheek the treatment starts with:
A. Installation of splints
B. Installation of acrylic trays
C. Replacement of the fragments
D. Suturing of the mucosa
E. Suturing the skin
484.S.A. What’s the difference of firearm mandibular fractures and other trauma?:
A. Not significant bleeding, intact soft tissue
B. Displacement of fragments and bite disorder
C. Important soft tissue trauma with bleeding, displacement of fragments, bite disorder
D. Affected teeth in the fracture line
E. All these
485.S.A. Which damage of the mandible tend to suppuration more often?:
A. Fractures of the condyle
B. Coronoidal apophysis fracture
C. Fractures of the ascending ramus
D. Open fractures of the mandibular body
E. None of these
486.M.A. Early complications of a mandibular fracture with displacement can be:
A. Bleeding
B. Lesion of inferior alveolar nerve
C. Bite disorder
D. Posttraumatic osteomyelitis
E. Vicious consolidation
487.M.A. Late complications of a mandibular fracture can be:
A. Nerve damage
B. Temporal-mandibular ankylosis
C. Vicious consolidation
D. Mandibular constriction
E. Bite disorder
488.M.A. Emergency immobilization of firearm fractures is done:
A. On the battlefield with occassional materials
B. After evacuation from the battlefield
C. Only to transport the wounded
D. The fight shock, pain, bleeding, asphyxia
E. For definitive treatment of trauma
489.S.A. Stiff intermaxillary blockage with splints is done:
A. Immediately after splints are installed
B. After 4-5 days since installing the splints
C. In 10 days after installing the splints
D. After the fractured parts are repositioned with elastic traction
E. From case to case, during the fracture
490.S.A. The most frequent secondary complication in mandibular fractures is:
A. Shock
B. Infection
C. Pseudoarthrosis
D. Temporal-mandibular ankylosis
E. Vicious consolidation
491.M.A. Late complication of middle third of the face fractures are:
A. Face asymmetry
B.
C.
D.
E.
Mastication and phonation disorder
Vicious consolidation
Sinusal or cheek supuration
Oro-sinusal communication
492.M.A. In the treatment of firearm skull fracture it is aimed:
A. Hemostasis and suturing the mucosal wounds
B. Fragment replacement and installing of splints
C. Extractions of the affected teeth
D. Antibiotics
E. None of the above
493.S.A. Late positional suturing is refers to:
A. Wounds which stay not sutured in the first 24 hours since the trauma
B. Wounds with loss of substance and great tension between the flaps
C. Wounds with anfractuous margins
D. Wound which stay not sutured more than 36 hours
E. Wounds without loss of substance but with sfacelated margins
494.S.A. The most frequent and the first symptom in facial tissue frostbite is:
A. Wanness of the skin and loss of sensitivity
B. Sharp pain
C. Edema
D. Hyperemia
E. Skin necrosis
495.S.A. First aid in frostbite of facial tissue is:
A. Light massage with warm hand
B. Application of warm bags
C. Compresses with alcohol
D. Compresses with ointments
E. Friction with snow
496.S.A. In which grade of burns the basal epidermic layer starts becomes necrotic?:
A. I;
B. II;
C. III-A;
D. III-B;
E. IV.
497.M.A. Sickness of the burned is represented by:
A. Shock
B. Toxicity
C. Septic toxicity
D. Reconvalescence
E. None of the above
498.S.A. How many percent of the body surface is face and neck?:
A. 4,5%;
B. 9%;
C. 12%;
D. 18%;
E. 24%;
499.M.A. What anatomic characteristics of OMF region are of special importance in clinical picture of the burns?:
A. Massive vascularization
B. Complicated relief
C. Organs of sight, smell, breathing
D. Different thickness of skin
E. Teeth
500.S.A. What levels of burn are considered superficial?:
A. I;
B. I & II;
C. I, II & III-A;
D. II,III-A & III-B;
E. II,III & IV.
501.S.A. What method of treatment of the burns is considered most frequently used?:
A. Open
B. Closed
C. Combined
D. From case to case, all are used
E. Pressure chamber is the best
502.S.A. First aid in the treatment of the burns consists in:
A. Open the liquid bubbles
B. Bandage application
C. Administration of drugs with cardiovascular action
D. Painkillers, antihistamins and drugs for cardiovascular stimulation
E. All these
503.S.A. Actinic disease occurs at a radiation dose of 100Rads (1-2Gg) and has more phases:
A. 1;
B. 2;
C. 3;
D. 4;
E. 5.
504.S.A. From a radiation of different doses the actinic disease has more phases:
A. Primary reaction
B. Latent (hidden) phase
C. Phase of pronounced clinical symptoms
D. Recovery
E. None of the above
505.S.A. Which is the second phase of actinic disease?:
A. Primary reaction
B. Latent (hidden) period
C. Phase of clinical marked symptoms
D. Recovery
E. None of these
506.S.A. Which is the first phase of actinic disease?:
A. Primary reaction
B. Latent (hidden) period
C. Phase of clinical marked symptoms
D. Recovery
E. All these
507.S.A. Which is the third phase of actinic disease?:
A. Primary reaction
B. Latent reaction
C. Phase of clinical marked symptoms
D. Recovery
E. All of these
508.S.A. How many stages of actinic disease are there?:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1 (light)
2 (light and hard)
3 (light, medium and hard)
4 (light, medium, hard and recovery)
5 (light,medium, hard, recovery, terminal)
509.M.A. First emergency aid for the wounded in OMF region in radioactive outbreaks is difficult because:
A. Too many wounded
B. Pollution with radioactive substances
C. Demolition of buildings
D. Psychic state of the wounded
E. Lack of transportation and roads
510.M.A. First aid to the wounded from radioactive outbreaks consists in:
A. Removing the clothes and burning objects
B. Dressing in protection costumes
C. Application of bandages on the clean wounds
D. Primary hemostasis
E. Painkillers, antibiotics, antidotes administration
511.M.A. The OMF region has a mixed innervation by :
A. N. trigemen;
B. N. facial;
C. N. vagus;
D. N. hypoglos;
E. N. accesory.
512.M.A. The innervation form the OMF teritory is of the following types:
A. Skin
B. Taste
C. Olfactory
D. Visual
E. Cochlear-vestibular
513.S.A. Vegetative innervation of face and neck is assured by:
A. N. trigemen;
B. N. facial;
C. N. vagus;
D. N. ophtalmic;
E. N. hypoglos.
514.M.A. Trigeminal nerve has the following nucleus:
A. Motoric nucleus
B. Superior sensor;
C. Spinal tract;
D. Mezoencephalic tract;
E. No correct answer.
515.M.A. Trigeminal nerve, being mixed, ensures the innervation :
A. Sensory of the face
B. Sensory of the neck
C. Motoric of the tongue
D. Sensitive of the teeth
E. Motoric of masticatory muscles
516.S.A. The facial nerve has got the following nucleus
A. Motoric nucleus;
B. vestibulocochlear;
C. Superior senzory;
D. Facial nerve nucleus;
E. Spinal tract.
517.S.A. The innervation of mimic muscles is ensured by:
A. N. trigeminal;
B. N. vagus;
C. N. hypoglos;
D. N. facial;
E. All these nerves.
518.M.A. Trigeminal nerve has got the following main branches:
A. N. alveolar;
B. N. lingual;
C. N. maxillary;
D. N. mandibulary;
E. N. ophtalmic.
519.S.A. One of the following branches of the trigeminal nerve has motoric branches:
A. N. maxillary;
B. N. ophtalmic;
C. N. pterygopalatine;
D. N. lingual;
E. N. mandibulary.
520.M.A. The teeth on the upper jaw are innervated by:
A. N. nasalpalatine;
B. N. alveolar superior and posterior;
C. N. alveolar superior and medium;
D. N. alveolar superior and anterior;
E. N. alveolar inferior.
521.S.A. Teeth of the mandible are innervated by:
A. N. maxilarry;
B. N. alveolar superior and posterior;
C. N. alveolar inferior;
D. N. alveolar superior and middle;
E. N. lingual.
522.S.A. The maxillary nerve exits the cerebral cavity at the basis of the skull through an orifice:
A. Large occipital
B. Ophtalmic
C. Spinal
D. Oval
E. Round
523.S.A. Mandibular nerve is the biggest branch of trigeminus and exits the skull through an orifice:
A. Round
B. Oval
C. Ophtalmic
D. Spinal
E. Large occipital
524.M.A. The main branches of maxillary nerve are:
A. Dental branches
B. Infraorbitary branches
C. Zygomatic branches
D. Pterygopalatine branches
E. Nasopalatine branches
525.M.A. The main branches of mandibular nerve are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Temporal branches
Maseteric nerve
Auriculotemporal branches
Inferior alveolar branches
Lingual branches
526.M.A. Motoric branches of the mandibular nerve are:
A. Temporal deep middle branches
B. Temporal-maseteric branches
C. Temporal-buccal branches
D. Middle branches of the pterygoidal muscle
E. Mylohyoidian muscle
527.S.A. Nasalpalatine nerve emerges through the orifice:
A. Infraorbitary
B. Anterior palatal
C. Middle palatal
D. Nasalpalatine
E. Chin
528.S.A. The anterior palatine nerve ensures the innervation of:
A. Upper molars
B. Incisives and canines
C. Upper lip
D. 2/3-rds of the mucoperiosteum posterior to the canines
E. All
529.S.A. Nasalapalatine nerve ensures the innervation of:
A. Mucosa of soft palate
B. Posterior 2/3-rds of the mucoperiosteum
C. 1/3-rd of the mucoperiosteum anterior to the caninens
D. Superior incisives and canines
E. All supperior teeth
530.M.A. Intraorbital nerve has the branches:
A. Palpebral
B. Superior labial
C. Nasal
D. Zygomatic
E. Colateral branches of superior dental nerves
531.M.A. Sensitive branches of the mandibular nerve are:
A. N. bucal;
B. N. alveolar inferior;
C. N. lingual;
D. N. incisive;
E. N. mentonier.
532.M.A. Lingual nerve ensures the innervation of :
A. Gingival mucosa of teeth
B. Mucosa of mouth floor
C. Anterior 2/3-rds of lingual mucosa
D. Mucosa of the orapharynx
E. Palatan mucosa
533.M.A. Facial nerve has the following branches:
A. N. temporal;
B. N. zygomatic;
C. N. jugal,
D. N. marginal of the mandible;
E. N. cervical.
534.M.A. The following branches of the facial nerve innervate the mimical muscles:
A. RR. temporal;
B. RR. zygomatic;
C. RR. jugal;
D. RR. marginal mandibular;
E. R. coli.
535.M.A. What periferic mixed nerves have contribution to the OMF and cervical region?:
A. Trigemenal;
B. Facial;
C. Glosofaringian;
D. Vagus,
E. Hypoglos.
536.M.A. The threads of trigeminal and facial nerves ensure the sensitive innervation of the face and neck and have
more segments:
A. Periferic segment (receptors)
B. Intermediar segment (conducting)
C. Cental segment (shell)
D. Mixed segments
E. Cutaneous segments
537.M.A. Extraceptive (cutaneous) facial analyzers are:
A. Tactile receptors
B. Termic receptors
C. Pain receptors
D. Taste receptors
E. Olfactory receptors
538.M.A. In the essential nevralgia of trigeminal nerve the pain is characteristic:
A. Pain is paroxistical, maximal intensity, short term
B. Pain is paroxistical, low intensity, long-lasting pain
C. Sudden, without prodromes, thundering character
D. Pain is triggered by touching „trigger-zones”
E. Pain crisis have free intervals
539.M.A. In trigeminal nevralgia, pain is accompanied by events:
A. Sensitive
B. Vegetative
C. Psychic
D. Motoric
E. All these
540.M.A. Trigeminal periferic hyperexcitability is caused by celular metabolic peripherical disbalance with the
following pain hormones:
A. Vasopresine;
B. Bradikinine;
C. Serotonine;
D. Interleukine;
E. Histamine.
541.M.A. Conservative methods of treatment of essential trigeminal nevralgia:
A. Tegretol 200-800 mg/zi; A. Tegretol 200-800mg/day
B. Iradierile ganglionului Gasser; B. Gasser ganlgion iradiation
C. Infiltraţii cu xilină; C. Injections with xiline
D. Neurectomii periferice; D. Peripherical neurectomies
E. Tractotomie trigeminală bullbară. E. Bulbar trigeminal tractotomies
542.S.A. Which of the following afirmation are correct for sphenopalatine ganglion nevralgia?:
A. Is very rare and pain at the base of the tongue, irradiating to supraglotic region is characteristic
B. Happens in young people through paroxistic pain in ear
C. Is a painful unilateral syndrome where the maximum intensity of pain is at the root of the nose, orbital
region and irradiate in the ear
D. Is a obliterant artetitis of superficial temporal arthery which occur in elder people
E. Is a facial vascular cluster because of a mezoplastic hypoplazia
543.S.A. The patient with painful unilateral syndrome, where the maximal intensity is found at the root of the nose
and orbital region, with irradiation to the ear and constantly accompanied by rhynorea, what will be the diagnosis
you choose?:
A. Facial nerve nevralgia
B. Superior larynx nevralgia
C. Sphenopalatine ganglion nevralgia
D. Essential trigeminal nevralgia
E. Glosopharyngean nevralgia
544.M.A. What is characteristic for facial nerve nevralgia?:
A. It is a rare condition
B. It occurs most frequently in the adults
C. Manifests itself by painful crisis on hurt substance
D. Pain is located in the ear
E. Pain is accompanied by vegetative phenomena
545.M.A. What are the characteristics of glosopharingean nerve nevralgia?:
A. No specific trigger zone
B. Has regional iradiation
C. Doesnt have vegetative phenomena
D. Sudden pain
E. The crisis period are quiet
546.M.A. Which of the following characteristics belong to Horton disease?:
A. It is an obliterant artheritis of the temporal superficial arthery
B. Most oftenly occurs in young people
C. Pain is generally located at the base of the tongue
D. Treatment consists of corticosteroids and local injecion
E. Psychic functional pain
547.M.A. In simulated pain:
A. The symptomology presented by the simmulator is compatible to the simmulated disease
B. The symptomology presented by the simmulator is compatible to the simmulated disease
C. The answer to the medical history is adequate to the simmulated disease
D. The answer to the medical history is not adequated to the simmulated disease
E. The response to anesthesya of the painful spot is adequate
548.M.A. The pain which does not give up to anesthesia in the perception place:
A. Is a superficial somatic pain
B. Is a deep somatic pain
C. Is a neurogen pain
D. Is a proprioceptive pain
E. Is a reflected pain
549.M.A. In pulpitis:
A. Pain can be spontaneous
B. Pain can be caused
C. Pain is predominantly in the day time
D. Pain is predominantly in the night time
E. The intensity of the pain is greater in th day time
550.M.A. The spasms of the mobilizing musculature of the mandible:
A. Cause a superficial pain
B. cause a deep pain
C. cause a local pain
D. cause a translativ pain
E. Gives up to the anesthesia of the pain perception area
551.M.A. Somatic pain:
A. Lasts only during the excitant is acts
B. Lasts after the excitant is removed
C. The intensity of the pain is in accordance with the intensity of the stimuli
D. Does not depend on the stimulus
E. It is a mandatory intense pain
552.M.A. Useful medicine in essential trigeminal nevralgia:
A. Fortral;
B. Piafen
C. Carbamazepine;
D. Baclofen;
E. Fenitoin.
553.M.A. Treatment of psychogen pain:
A. Is treated by the psychiatrist
B. Is treated by the psychologist
C. Is a monodisciplinary treatment
D. Is a multidisciplinary treatment
E. The treatment is done exclusive by the psychiatrist and psychologist
554.M.A. In painful combined somatic and psychogenic syndroms:
A. The order of pain setting is somatic-first and psychogenic-second
B. The order of pain setting is psychogenic-first and somatic-second
C. Somatic pain does not accompany the psychogenic pain
D. Placebo treatment is relevant
E. Placebo treatment is irrelevant
555.S.A. The drug treatment of essential trigeminat nevralgia is done with:
A. Painkillers
B. Anti-seizure drugs
C. Neuroleptics
D. Antihistaminics
E. Antidepressants
556.M.A. In the amputation neuron:
A. Pain gives up to infiltrative anesthesia
B. Pain does not give up to infiltrative anesthesia
C. Infiltrative anesthesia locates the pain
D. Infiltrative anesthesia does not locate the pain
E. The palpation of the neuron is accompanied by spasms
557.M.A. The stimulated pain:
A. Is rare about iatrogenic trauma
B. Is often about iatrogenic trauma
C. Is accompanied by signs of sensitive loss ( hypoesthsia or anesthesia)
D. Is not connected with trauma
E. No correct answer
558.M.A. The characteristic of pain in case of purulent inflammation:
A. Pulsatile
B. Intensifies during the night
C. Is deaf
D. Pain is absent
E. No correct answer
559.M.A. Somatic superficial pain:
A. is discontinuous
B. Is continuous
C. Is not coordonated by the intensity of the stimulus
D. Is triggered by direct contact
E. Is triggered by indirect contact
560.M.A. Trigeminal neuralgia in multiple sclerosis:
A. Occurs mostly in young people
B. Occurs mostly in old people
C. Trigeminal crisis is preceding the sclerosis signs
D. Sclerosis signs are preceding trigeminal pain
E. Pain crisis is in the trigeminal territory
561.M.A. In the essential trigeminal neuralgia:
A. The cause is well-known
B. The triggering of the pain needs a powerful stimulus
C. The triggering of the pain needs a weak stimulus
D. The trigger zone position can be various
E. The trigger zone is always in the same spot
562.M.A. In the essential trigeminal neuralgia:
A. The stimulation of the nerve immediately after the crisis causes crisis’ reinstallation
B. The stimulation of the nerve immediately after the crisis does NOT cause crisis’ reinstallation
C. The intensity of the crisis has a gradual character
D. The pain irradiates in half of the face
E. Pain is strictly localised
563.S.A. Somatic pain is superficial:
A. Is localised at systemic level
B. The pain system is localised away from the perception area of the pain
C. Is a irradiating pain
D. Is a transfered pain
E. Is a projected pain
564.M.A. The somatic superficial pain:
A. Is temporary
B. Is not temporary
C. Gives up at local anesthesia
D. Does not give up at local anesthesia
E. Anesthesia is not a diagnostic probe
565.M.A. Localisation of somatic superficial pain:
A. Is precise
B. Is not precise
C. Includes only the excited zone
D. Exceeds the area of excited receptors
E. All situations are possible
566.M.A. Somatic superficial pain:
A. Has hard to trace causes
B. Has easy to trace cause
C. Has impossible to trace causes (idiopatic)
D. Happens often in dental practice
E. Happens rare in dental practice
567.S.A. Somatic superficial pain:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Is easy to treat
Is hard to treat
Is not treatable
Disappears spontaneously
It is psychotherapeutically treated
568.M.A. Superficial somatic pain comes from nociceptive pain:
A. Of cutaneous tissues
B. Of mucous tissues
C. Of the periosteum
D. Is not common to these tissue
E. Somatic pain does not exist
569.M.A. Treatment of painful anesthesia:
A. Is simpler that of the trigeminal neuralgia
B. Is more difficult thanof the trigeminal neuralgia
C. Injections or anesthetis blockage is efficient
D. Anti-seizure medication is the treatment of choice
E. Psychotherapy is the only hopeful treatment
570.M.A. Ghost facial pain
A. Is started by tactile stimulus
B. Is started by functional stimulus
C. Lasts for seconds
D. Improves at massaging the amputated nerve
E. Worsens at massagin the amputated nerve
571.M.A. Ghost facial pain:
A. Is a paroxysmal chronic pain
B. Is a continuous pain
C. Has the tendency to worsen
D. Has the tendency to spontaneous remission
E. Gives up only to medical treatment
572.S.A. What is implied in the ethiology of ghost facial pain?:
A. The amputation of the extremeties is exclusive
B. Any removal of body part
C. Teeth extractions are not implied
D. Teeth extractions are implied
E. Only the bone-joint system is implied
573.M.A. Painful anesthesya occurs:
A. Due to chemical neurolis of peripherical branches
B. Due to electric neurolis of peripheric branches
C. Due to acupuncture
D. Due to electric stimulation
E. Due to gangliolisis of the Gasser ganglion
574.M.A. Painful anesthesia as a disease:
A. Starts before denervation
B. Starts after denervation
C. Start both with anesthesia and pain
D. In the beginning pain is moderate
E. In the beggining pain is violent
575.M.A. In musculous-skeletal pain:
A. Exooral inspection can be relevant
B. Endooral inspection can be relevant
C. Exooral palpation can be relevant
D. Exooral palpation is irrelevant
E. Anesthetic probe is the area perception of the pain is relevant
576.M.A. Musculoskeletal pain:
A. Is proper to muscle and bone tissues
B. Is proper to joint tissues
C. Is proper to ligament tissues
D. Is proper to conjunctive tissues
E. Is possible in any of the situations
577.M.A. In musculoskeletal pain:
A. Medical history is relevant
B. Medical history is irrelevant
C. Pain is persistent
D. Pain is short-term
E. Is not associated with emotional affection
578.M.A. Musculoskeletal pain in OMF region:
A. Has precise localisation
B. Has difuse localisation
C. Is localised around the mandible
D. Can be localised in any cervical-facial zone
E. Is not felt in the teeth
579.M.A. Musculo-skeletal pain:
A. Can be more intense in the morning
B. Is more intense during the day
C. Is more intense in the evening
D. Gives up in the night
E. Is a paroxysmal pain
580.S.A. The somatic profound pain:
A. Reacts to a weaker stimulus
B. Reacts to a more intense stimulus
C. Is in accordance to intensity of the stimulus
D. Is well shaped
E. Do not irradiate
581.M.A. Deep somatic pain:
A. Is well shaped
B. Is difuse shaped
C. Is exteroreceptive
D. Is proprioceptive
E. Is projected
582.M.A. Causalgia:
A. Occurs immediately after the nervous branch trauma
B. Occurs after 2 ore more weeks after trauma
C. Is a continuous pain
D. Can be triggered only by tactile stimulus
E. Can be triggered by noise stimulus
583.S.A. In causalgia:
A. The anesthetic with vasoconstrictor is eficient
B. The anesthetic without vasoconstrictor is not efficient
C. None of the above has diagnostical value
D. Only acupuncture improves pain
E. Acupuncture doesnt help to improve the clinical picture
584.M.A. In dental psychogenic pain:
A. Bandaging the tooth with any drug suppreses the pain
B.
C.
D.
E.
Tooth extraction calms down the pain
Extraction of teeth does not calm down the pain
Tooth pain is predominantly in the night
Psychogenic dental pain is predominantly during the day
585.M.A. In psychogenic pain:
A. Causing stimulus are always present
B. Stimulus of causing the pain are absent
C. The patient eats or sleeps with no problems
D. Pacient doesnt sleep and eat enough because of the pain
E. Patients claim that pain dissapears after painkillers
586.M.A. In psychogenic pain:
A. Psychoactive drugs got no effect
B. Psychoactive drugs work effectively
C. Medical hystory data is not significant
D. Medical hystory data is significant
E. Pain has a stable character
587.M.A. In psychogenic pain:
A. Pain is precise
B. The patient shows the painful spot with the finger
C. Pain is not precis
D. Pacient show th painful spot with the palm
E. Pain is distributed precisely on the territory of one nerve
588.M.A. In psychogenic pain:
A. The pain lasts minutes or hours
B. The pain lasts days, weeks, years
C. The character of the pain is constant
D. The character of the pain is not constant
E. The patient doesnt seem to be affected by the pain
589.S.A. What triggers the superior somatic pain?:
A. Pulp disease
B. Deep periodontal disease
C. Muscular spasms
D. Prosthetic decubitus
E. Oclussal interferences
590.M.A. Treatment of the stimulated pain is done by:
A. Infiltrative anesthesia
B. Surgical decompression
C. Nervous anastomosys
D. Fixing without suturing
E. None of the solutions above
591.M.A. TMJ vascularization is ensured by:
A. A. maxilary internal;
B. A. maxilarry external;
C. A. temporal superficial;
D. A. mandibularz;
E. A. facial.
592.S.A. TMJ innervation is ensured by:
A. N. maxillary;
B. N. sphenopalatine;
C. N. auriculotemporal;
D. N. maseterin;
E. N. pterigoidian lateral.
593.M.A. Mobilizing mandibular muscles allow the mandible different movements to in the actions of:
A. Chewing
B. Swallowing
C. Speaking
D. Breathing
E. Mimicry
594.M.A. Ascending mandibular muscles are:
A. M. temporal;
B. M. maseter;
C. M. digastric;
D. M. pterigoidian internal;
E. M. geniohidian.
595.S.A. Propulsive mandibulary muscles are:
A. M. maseter;
B. M. temporal;
C. M. pterigoidian intern;
D. M. pterigoidian extern;
E. M. digastric.
596.S.A. One of the muscles below has 2 extremeties:
A. M. temporal;
B. M. maseterin;
C. M. pterigoidian lateral;
D. M. milohioidian;
E. M. digastric.
597.M.A. Some muscles have circular shape:
A. Orbicular labial muscle
B. Orbicular of the eyelids muscle
C. Temporal muscle
D. Maseter muscle
E. Digastric muscle
598.M.A. The descending muscles of the mandible are:
A. M. maseter;
F. M. milohioidian;
B. M. digastric;
C. M. geniohioidian;
D. M. genioglos.
599.M.A. Indirect descending muscles are:
A. M. digastric;
B. M. stilohioidian;
C. M. sternohioidian;
D. M. omohioidian;
E. M. tirohioidian.
600.M.A. Retropulsory mandibular muscles are:
A. M. temporal;
B. M. maseter;
C. M. pterigoidian intern;
D. M. digastric;
E. M. milohioid.
Grila teste anul 4 1-600
1.
ABCDE
2.
ABCD
3
C
4
ABCDE
5
ABCD
6
ABCDE
7
ACE
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DE
9
ABCD
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E
11
D
12
ABCDE
13
E
14
BE
15
ABCD
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ABCDE
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ABCDE
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C
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ABCD
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B
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C
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CDE
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AC
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C
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B
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E
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ABCDE
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ABCE
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ABCDE
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A
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C
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B
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D
37
E
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BD
39
D
40
E
41
D
42
AC
43
D
44
E
45
ABCDE
46
C
47
B
48
B
49
D
50
B
51
ABC
52
B
53
E
54
B
55
ABC
56
ABCD
57
A
60
61
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64
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66
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116
A
ABCD
ACE
ABCDE
ABC
BCD
B
E
ABD
AC
B
BDE
BDE
B
ACD
E
C
D
D
ACD
E
B
ACE
ABCD
ADE
ABC
AC
D
C
AC
D
D
D
C
ABC
BD
B
C
AB
A
E
B
BC
E
C
BCD
A
AB
ABCD
DE
D
ABCD
ABCDE
ABCD
ABCD
ABCDE
B
119
120
121
122
123
124
125
126
127
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130
131
132
133
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135
136
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175
ABCDE
B
ABDE
ABCDE
ABCDE
B
A
D
ABD
ABD
A
D
ABCE
BC
E
A
BCE
C
CE
AB
AB
B
BCE
ACE
ABCDE
BD
ACE
C
ACD
B
ABCD
AC
D
ABDE
AC
ABD
A
ABD
BC
BDE
ABC
C
B
B
ABD
B
B
ABE
AB
BD
C
ABC
B
D
AB
ABD
ABCDE
178
179
180
181
182
183
184
185
186
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189
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234
C
CDE
ABC
A
ABCD
C
A
ABCD
ABCD
D
ABCD
E
D
ABC
AB
ABCD
CD
B
BCE
ABCE
D
C
E
B
B
B
AB
BCDE
ABC
ADE
B
D
ABCDE
E
ABCDE
D
AB
ABCDE
C
ABCDE
ABCDE
ABCDE
A
ABC
A
AC
A
C
D
D
C
ABCDE
CDE
C
E
D
A
58
59
237
238
239
240
241
242
243
244
245
246
247
248
249
250
251
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255
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276
277
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282
283
284
285
286
287
288
289
290
291
292
E
ABCDE
A
E
D
E
ABE
BC
C
ABCE
C
D
A
ACD
CD
D
D
B
BD
AC
E
D
CE
CD
BCD
ABC
ABC
BD
D
ABC
AB
BCE
ABE
C
BD
ACE
A
B
E
AC
B
BCD
AE
B
A
DE
D
CDE
ACE
CDE
AC
C
B
C
A
A
B
D
117
118
297
298
299
300
301
302
303
304
305
306
307
308
309
310
311
312
313
314
315
316
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333
334
335
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337
338
339
340
341
342
343
344
345
346
347
348
349
350
351
352
ABCD
ABCDE
B
ABCDE
D
C
ABC
ABD
ABCD
B
C
ABCD
ABCE
ABC
ABCDE
A
A
ACD
A
B
C
ABCD
A
ABCDE
ABCD
ABC
A
B
C
C
ABC
C
D
AB
A
ABC
ABCDE
BCD
AB
C
B
C
AB
A
A
ABCDE
ABCD
A
ABCD
C
A
A
A
AB
A
CD
C
BC
176
177
357
358
359
360
361
362
363
364
365
366
367
368
369
370
371
372
373
374
375
376
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392
393
394
395
396
397
398
399
400
401
402
403
404
405
406
407
408
409
410
411
412
ABE
C
CDE
AB
C
E
A
A
E
B
A
A
B
C
D
E
ABC
ACE
BDE
BCD
AC
AC
BD
ABC
D
C
AC
CE
BCDE
AC
BC
BCE
ABD
C
E
ACE
D
A
ABCDE
ABCDE
ABCD
D
ABCD
CE
ABCD
C
E
ABCDE
DE
ADE
D
CE
B
DE
B
C
D
ABCDE
235
236
417
418
419
420
421
422
423
424
425
426
427
428
429
430
431
432
433
434
435
436
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449
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451
452
453
454
455
456
457
458
459
460
461
462
463
464
465
466
467
468
469
470
471
472
D
D
ABCDE
AB
E
ABCDE
ABCD
C
ABCD
DE
B
ABCD
ABCD
BD
ABCD
ABCD
A
ABCE
ABCD
ABE
ABCD
ABCE
E
B
AB
DE
ABCD
ACD
C
ACE
ACE
ABCDE
ABCD
ABCDE
ABCDE
C
B
ABCDE
ABCDE
C
ABCDE
E
ABC
ABCDE
D
ABCDE
B
ABC
BCD
ABCD
A
C
B
C
D
AB
D
ABCDE
293
294
295
296
D
C
A
A
353
354
355
356
C
C
A
B
413
414
415
416
C
A
BCD
BE
473
474
475
476
ABCDE
B
AB
AB
477
478
479
480
481
482
483
484
485
486
487
488
489
490
491
492
493
494
495
496
497
498
499
500
501
502
503
504
505
506
507
508
509
510
ABCDE
C
B
D
E
D
D
C
D
ABC
BCD
ACD
D
B
ABCE
ABCD
D
A
A
C
ABCD
B
ABCD
C
A
D
D
ABCD
B
A
C
C
ABCDE
ABCDE
511
512
513
514
515
516
517
518
519
520
521
522
523
524
525
526
527
528
529
530
531
532
533
534
535
536
537
538
539
540
541
542
543
544
ABCD
ABCD
C
ABCD
ADE
D
D
CDE
E
BCD
C
E
B
ABCD
ABCDE
ABCDE
D
D
C
ABCE
ABCE
ABC
ABCDE
ABCDE
ABCDE
ABC
ABC
ADE
ABD
BCE
ABC
C
C
AD
545
546
547
548
549
550
551
552
553
554
555
556
557
558
559
560
561
562
563
564
565
566
567
568
569
570
571
572
573
574
575
576
577
578
BDE
AD
AC
BCDE
ABD
BD
AC
CDE
ABD
AE
B
AC
BC
AB
BD
AD
CE
BE
A
BC
AC
BD
A
AB
BE
ABD
AD
D
ABE
BD
BC
ABCDE
BC
BCD
579
580
581
582
583
584
585
586
587
588
589
590
591
592
593
594
595
596
597
598
599
600
ABCD
B
BD
BCE
A
CE
BC
BDE
CD
BCE
D
ABCD
AC
C
ABC
ABD
D
E
AB
BCDE
BCDE
AD