MCQs in Rheumatology: Osteoarthritis and related disorders Contributors: These MCQs were written by Dr Michelle Hui, Dr Zoe Paskins, Dr Dipti Patel, and Dr Pravin Patil; and were reviewed by Dr Ed Roddy, Prof Michael Doherty and Prof Nigel Arden. The MCQs were edited by Dr A Abhishek who also facilitated the review process. www.rheumatology.org.uk/education Question 1 A 57 year old man presents to his GP with a 3 month history of gradual onset right knee pain, associated with mild swelling, and with several episodes of the knee giving way. His knee shows mild crepitus, medial joint line tenderness and some discomfort on patella stressing. There is no history of trauma. His inflammatory markers are normal. His X Ray shows moderate osteoarthritis in the medial tibiofemoral and patello-femoral compartments and the presence of a posterior loose body. His GP phones you for advice What is the most appropriate single intervention? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Arthroscopy with washout Intra-articular corticosteroid injection Non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs Physiotherapy for strengthening exercise Patella taping Question 2 A 55-year old builder presents with a 4-month history of increasing difficulties with walking. He is now only able to walk about 1km before he develops tightness of the right buttock radiating down to the foot. He is forced to rest for about 5 minutes, after which he can resume walking for a little further. Apart from an accident at work when he fell onto his back 9 months ago, he is a non-smoker, and has no significant past medical history. There is no night pain, or rest pain. On examination no neurological abnormalities were found. Lumbar spine movements were reduced on extension. Peripheral pulses were present. There was no tenderness of palpation of the spine. What is the most likely diagnosis? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Bony metastatic disease Intermittent claudication Osteoarthritis Spinal canal stenosis Vertebral fracture www.rheumatology.org.uk/education Question 3 A 32-year old female presents with a persistently painful, stiff and swollen right wrist following a skiing accident in America 5 months ago. X-ray of the wrist at the time of the accident showed fracture of the distal radius, which has subsequently healed on follow-up radiographs. However, her symptoms persist. On examination, there is allodynia, and hyperalgesia on the right wrist, which is warmer, and erythematous. There is a reduced range of active movement at the right wrist. There are no other swollen or painful joints. What will most likely explain this presentation? 1. Complex regional pain syndrome type I 2. Complex regional pain syndrome type II 3. Inflammatory arthritis 4. Lyme disease 5. Osteomyelitis Question 4 A 32-year old female presents with a perisistently painful, stiff and swollen right wrist following a skiing accident in America 5 months ago. On examination there is allodynia, the wrist is warmer and more erythematous compared to the other. There is a reduced range of active movement of the right wrist. There are no swollen or painful joints elsewhere. What is the most appropriate initial management? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Acupuncture Intra-articular triamcilolone Opiates Physiotherapy Surgical sympathectomy www.rheumatology.org.uk/education Question 5 A 65-year old farmer with spinal degenerative disc disease presents with a 2-month history of reducing exercise tolerance due to pain in the right buttock on exertion. It is associated with tightness radiating down the back of the right leg upon walking. Coming down on inclines are particularly difficult. He has no night pain, and no weight loss. On examination, there is no spinal tenderness. Straight-leg raise is positive on the right with a positive Lasègue’s sign. Internal rotation of the hip is 45 degrees, external rotation 80 degrees, flexion 100 degrees. Peripheral pulses are present. What is the most appropriate next investigation? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Arterial doppler MRI lumbar spine MRI right hip Nerve conduction studies 5 X-ray lumbar spine Question 6 A 69 year old man is referred to the rheumatology outpatients for worsening knee pain. He has anterior right knee pain, worse on climbing stairs. He was coping with these symptoms on co-codamol and topical ibuprofen till the last month, when his symptoms worsened significantly. On examination, he has joint line tenderness, and anterior patello-femoral joint crepitus. There is no effusion. You diagnose osteoarthritis. He has TIA for which he takes aspirin. What should be the next step in his management? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Arthroscopy Celecoxib with omeprazole Joint replacement surgery Intra-articular corticosteroid injection Intra-articular hyaluronan www.rheumatology.org.uk/education Question 7 A 52 year old lady who works as a cleaner is referred by her GP to outpatients with knee pain. The pain has come on gradually over the last 6 months and is worse on going upstairs and rising from a sitting position. The knee feels unstable but has not given way and there is no history of locking. She has no other past medical history and weighs 70kg and is 1.5m tall. On examination she is tender on and below the medial joint line and there is a suggestion of localised swelling there. She has a full range of movement. A valgus strain of her unlocked knee also reproduces the pain. An X-Ray has shown some minor medial tibio-femoral and patello-femoral joint space loss. What is the most likely origin of her symptoms? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Anserine Bursitis Knee osteoarthritis (tibiofemoral) Knee osteoarthritis (patellofemoral) Meniscal tear Medial collateral ligament strain Question 8 A 72 year old lady presents to outpatients with severe left groin pain which is disrupting her daily activities. She is unable to walk more than 50 yards without pain and has recently had to ask a friend to do her shopping. She frequently wakes up at night with this pain. Her GP has tried physiotherapy, given advice about weight loss, and tried co-codamol, and naproxen which have not helped. She has hypothyroidism and hypertension and her medication consists of co-codamol 30/500, naproxen, omeprazole and levothyroxine. Left hip flexion, and internal rotation are restricted and painful. Examination confirms that the pain is not soft tissue in origin. Recent FBC, UEC, LFT, CRP and ESR are normal. The X-ray shows only modest (Kellgren and Lawrence grade 2) left hip osteoarthritis with definite acetabular osteophyte, and joint space narrowing. You have commenced her on tramadol and paracetamol in order to control her pain. Which of the following should be the next intervention? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Acupuncture Amitryptiline Capsaicin cream Refer for hip arthroplasty All of the above www.rheumatology.org.uk/education Question 9 A 54 year old man is referred by his GP to the Rheumatology department with a 5 year history of progressive pain in knees, shoulders, elbows, and lumbar spine. There is occasional swelling of hands and symptoms are worse on exertion. He also complains of tingling and numbness in his 2nd and 3rd fingers of the left hand. He has a history of hypertension, and diabetes mellitus. Hand radiographs show enlarged terminal phalanges, widened MCPJs, and OA of 1st CMCJ bilaterally. These features are most consistent with which of the following conditions? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Acromegaly Amylodosis Hyperparathyroidism Hyperthyroidism Hypothyroidism Question 10 A 46 year old Caucasian male presents to the Rheumatology department with a 3 year history of pain and stiffness affecting both hands particularly the 2 nd and 3rd MCP joints, hips, ankles and knees. He has a background history of Type 2 DM, CCF and is under the care of gastroenterologist for abnormal liver function tests. Joint examination revealed bony selling and tenderness of 2nd and 3rd MCP joint .X ray of the hands showed cystic lesions on metacarpal heads and osteophytes in MCP joints. Which one of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Hepatitis C Hereditary haemochromatosis Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid arthritis Wilsons disease www.rheumatology.org.uk/education Question 11 A 45-year old female factory worker presents with a 5-year history of gradually progressive swellings of the proximal and distal inter-phalangeal joints. The development of swelling is associated with pain for about 3-6 months, which then subsides. Early morning stiffness lasts for about 30 minutes, and the symptoms are worse in the evenings. She has been using paracetamol and ibuprofen with modest benefit. She has 2 first-degree relatives with rheumatoid arthritis. On examination, there are several non-tender dorso-lateral bony swellings of the proximal and distal inter-phalangeal joints bilaterally, with mild ulnar deviation of both index distal interphalangeal joints. She also has bilateral knee crepitus. The rheumatoid factor done by her GP is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Crystal arthropathy Haemochromatosis Nodal generalised osteoarthritis Psoriatic arthritis Seronegative rheumatoid arthritis Question 12 A 72-year old keen gardener presents with an increasing left sided deep groin pain, over the past 4 months. He is systemically well. Apart from well controlled thyroid disease, he has no other comorbidities. On examination, he has a BMI of 28. Examination of the left hip reveals a reduced passive internal rotation to 10 degrees and flexion to 50 degrees, limited by pain. External rotation is relatively spared. Xray of the pelvis shows left femoral head collapse. MRI of the left hip shows the double line sign of the femoral head. What is the most appropriate treatment? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Bisphosphonate Disease-modifying agent Hip arthroplasty Intra-articular steroid Intravenous antibiotic www.rheumatology.org.uk/education Question 13 A 55-year old businessman with a history of excess alcohol intake presents with an increasingly painful left deep groin pain over the past 6 months. Initially the pain was mainly at night and unrelated to weight bearing, but subsequently it become worse with weight-bearing and spread to involve his antero-lateral thigh. He was involved in a car accident 9 months ago when he was hit from behind by another car whilst at a traffic light. He sustained no immediate injuries. He is systemically well. On examination, he has a BMI of 32 kg/m2. On examination of the left hip, the internal rotation is limited to 150, and flexion to 700 due to pain. External rotation is spared. X-ray of the pelvis shows flattening of the femoral head, with adjacent joint space narrowing, juxta-articular sclerosis, and osteophyte formation. X-ray of the left hip in the frog leg lateral view shows the crescent sign. What is the most likely cause of the left hip arthropathy? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Bone metastasis Chronic septic arthritis Osteoarthritis Osteonecrosis Paget's disease Question 14 A general practitioner requests your opinion on a 50 year old patient with haemochromatosis who is on two-monthly therapeutic venesection. He has a long history of pain in both hands, wrists and knees. On examination, there is tenderness and ‘bony’ hard swelling of the 2nd and 3rd metacarpophalangeal joints of both hands. There is crepitus at the knee, and restricted internal rotation in flexion at the left hip. Which of the following radiological features is associated with the arthritis of haemochromatosis? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Hook-like osteophytes on the radial aspect of metacarpal head Hook-like osteophytes on the ulnar aspect of metacarpal head Juxta-articular osteopenia Periostitis "Punched-out" lytic bone lesion www.rheumatology.org.uk/education Answer Q1. 4. Physiotherapy for strengthening exercise Physiotherapy has good evidence for the treatment of knee OA, and in the context of instability, strengthening exercises are key. Arthroscopy is only indicated in the presence of locking, or if symptomatic meniscal tears/cruciate ligament damage is suspected. There is no role of intra-articular corticosteroid injection, and NSAIDs in the management of this patient. Q2. 4 Spinal canal stenosis Symptoms of spinal canal stenosis can certainly mimic those of intermittent claudication. As he has no other risk factors of atherosclerosis, and given that he is a builder (occupational risk for degenerative disc disease and had the fall (which may have precipitated spinal canal narrowing which over time gives rise to the current classical symptoms spinal canal stenosis is most likely to account for these symptoms. Q3. 1. Complex regional pain syndrome type I Complex regional pain syndrome is characterised by sensory, vasomotor and sudomotor changes. In later stages there may be muscle atrophy. There are 2 types of CRPS – type I and type II (also known as causalgia. Type I results from trauma to a limb and type II follows partial nerve damage. Both cause similar symptoms, type II is rare. Q4. 4. Physiotherapy Psychotherapy and early graded physiotherapy are the two recommended mainstays of treatment for CRPS. There are few controlled-trials assessing treatment with most evidence for gabapentin, oral steroid and calcium-channel modulating drugs. Anecdotal evidence for tricyclic antidepressants only. Techniques for sympathetic nerve blockade can be used. Acupuncture has not demonstrated efficacy over placebo. (Wilson et al Contin Educ Anaesth Crit Care Pain (2007 7 (2 51-54). Q5. 2. MRI lumbar spine The history is suggestive of spinal canal stenosis. An MRI may provide clues to the cause of spinal canal stenosis. Often spinal canal stenosis results from acquired degenerative changes. Osteophytes and calcified bulging disc structures can be seen. These appear dark on T2-weighted imaging. Facet joint hypertrophy, ligamentum flavum hypertrophy and posterior longitudinal ligament abnormalities and vertebral body spurs can also be seen. It also provides detail about any spinal cord compromise. Q6. 4. Intra-articular corticosteroid injection This patient needs intra-articular corticosteroid injection for relief of his symptoms. NICE recommend not to use intra-articular hyaluronan. Celecoxib is associated with www.rheumatology.org.uk/education increased risk of ischemic events and is inappropriate to use in ischemic heart disease or cerebrovascular disease. In OA, arthroscopy is inappropriate unless there is a clear history of locking of the knee. Joint replacement surgery may be an option but only if other treatment options have been tried. Q7. 5.Medial collateral ligament strain Half of adults over 50 with radiographic knee OA are asymptomatic. Anserine bursitis alone would not result in joint line tenderness. The valgus strain test suggests medial collateral ligament strain. Anserine bursitis alone would not result in joint line tenderness. Tenderness over the joint line would be consistent with a meniscal tear but this usually presents with mechanical symptoms such as locking. Tibiofemoral OA is possible, but there is no limitation in range of movement or crepitus. In patellofemoral OA the pain is usually localized to the anterior knee, which is not the case here. The valgus strain test strongly suggests strain of the medial collateral ligament, or enthesopathy of the inferior insertion of the ligament. Q8. 4. Refer for hip arthroplasty This patient needs referral for joint replacement surgery. Acupuncture is not recommended by NICE for OA, and topical capsaicin is recommended for OA of knees and hands only. Amitryptiline may have a role if the pain has a neuropathic character, or if the patient has co-existent fibromyalgia, which is not the case here. Q9. 1. Acromegaly Arthropathy may be seen in 74% of patients with acromegaly. Large joints are most commonly affected. Hands reveal the most characteristic radiographic changes, including soft tissue thickening, enlarged terminal phalanges, increased joint space, and deformation of epiphysis with squaring of phalalnges. Carpal tunnel occurs in up to 50 % of patients with acromegaly. Osteitis fibrosa cystica represents classic sequela of long standing hyperparathyroidism and causes subperiosteal resorption with blurring blurring of cortical margins and resorption of tuft of distal phalanges.Discrete lytic lesions due to focal aggregates of osteoclastic giant cells and fibrous tissue may occur called brown tumors. Thyroid acropachy is rare complication of Graves disease with soft tissue swelling of hands, digital clubbing and periostitis particularly involving the metacarpal and phalangeal bones. Q10. 2. Hereditary hemachromatosis Approximately 40-60% of patients with hemochromatosis have arthropathy. With some patients, the arthropathy is the first manifestation of the underlying disease. Any joint may be affected, but osteoarthritis like symptoms and changes in the second and third metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints are most common. Due to the incomplete penetrance of HFE mutations leading to haemochromatosis, tests of iron overload (serum iron, total iron-binding capacity, ferritin, and percent transferrin saturation) are better screening tests. www.rheumatology.org.uk/education Hemochromatotic arthropathy commonly manifests with cystic lesions on the metacarpal heads. Squared-off bone ends and hook like osteophytes in the MCP joints, particularly in the second and third MCP joints, are characteristic findings. Chondrocalcinosis may be visualized. HCV infection causes a rapidly progressive acute arthralgia (but rarely arthritis) in a rheumatoid distribution, affecting the hands, wrists, shoulders, knees, and hips. The arthropathy of Wilson disease is a degenerative process that resembles premature osteoarthritis. Symptomatic joint disease, which occurs in 20-50% of patients, usually arises late in the course of the disease, frequently after age 20 years. The arthropathy generally involves the spine and large appendicular joints, such as knees, wrists, and hips. Osteochondritis dissecans, chondromalacia patellae, and chondrocalcinosis have been described. Q11. 3.Nodal osteoarthritis Nodal osteoarthritis is common in middle-aged women. Her occupation is likely to a risk factor for the distribution of involvement, rather than its development. During the development of nodes, significant pain can be experienced, which subsides after the nodes are fully formed. Lateral (ulnar or radial) deviation of interphalangeal joints is a common deformity of interphalangeal osteoarthritis. Q12. 3.Hip arthroplasty Surgery is the preferred option with advanced osteonecrosis of the hip. Patients not suitable for surgery can be treated with bisphosphonates. Q13. 4. Osteonecrosis Excess alcohol is a risk factor for osteonecrosis. The crescent sign on an x-ray indicates a subchondral fracture. The frogleg lateral view is better than anteroposterior (AP) view for demonstrating this sign because in the AP view, the superior portion of the femoral head (where this sign is most often seen) is obscured by the superimposed projection of the anterior and posterior margins of the acetabulum. Q14. 1. Hook-like osteophytes on the radial aspect of the metacarpal heads The arthropathy of haemochromatosis targets MCPJs (particularly 2 nd and 3rd), radiocarpal joints, hips, knees, ankles, and more rarely elbows and shoulders. Chondrocalcinosis is frequent. The arthropathy of haemochromatosis superficially resembles OA, with joint-space narrowing, sclerosis, osteophytosis, and cysts. Erosions have been reported. Hook-like osteophytes in MCPJs occurs on the radial aspect of the metacarpal head, and not on the ulnar aspect, and are regarded by some as characteristic of the arthropathy of haemochromatosis. The arthropathy of haemochromatosis is not improved by venesection. www.rheumatology.org.uk/education