1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
This is a sampling of the questions that will be on the semester exam. You should review each of them in
the following manner.
1) Locate the chapter/section that answers the question. Exam will cover Chapters 1 - 8.
2) Review ALL the aspects of what the question is talking about.
3) Answers to these questions will be given during the review days as per the schedule on the class web site.
1. Which of the following is not a goal of environmental science?
a) learn how nature works
b) understand how we interact with the environment
c) find ways to deal with environmental problems
d) learn how to live more sustainably
e) learn how to persuade politicians to enact sustainability legislation
2. A key component of environmental science is
a) botany
b) political science
c) sociology
d) ecology
e) psychology
3. Using normally renewable resources faster than nature can renew them is called
a) nutrient cycling
b) nutrient deficit
c) sustainability
d) trade-offs
e) degrading natural capital
4. Scientists estimate we could recycle and reuse what percentage of the resources we now use?
a) 50-60%
b) 60-70%
c) 70-80%
d) 80-90%
e) 90-100%
5. What is the primary difference between renewable resources and nonrenewable resources?
a) how easily they are discovered
b) the amount of the resource
c) the length of time it takes for them to be replenished
d) how fast they are being used up
e) none of these
1
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
6. Which of the following would not be considered a nonrenewable resource?
a) copper
b) oil
c) fresh air
d) salt
e) sand
7. Which of the following is not a renewable resource?
a) groundwater
b) trees in a forest
c) fertile soil
d) oil
e) crops
8. All non-renewable resources can theoretically be
a) converted to nonmetallic minerals
b) converted to renewable ones
c) exhausted or depleted
d) recycled or reused
e) alive
9. Which of the following is an example of reuse?
a) re-melting aluminum cans
b) making compost out of kitchen scraps
c) using plastic butter tubs to store leftovers
d) using waste heat to warm a room
e) making paper goods from previously used paper
10. The U.N. Millennium Ecosystem Assessment reports that human activities have degraded what
percentage of the earth’s natural services, mostly in the last 50 years.
a) 20
b) 40
c) 60
d) 80
e) 95
11. If everyone on earth consumed at the same current level as the average U.S. citizens, we would need
a) 30% more resources
b) 75% more resources
c) 100% more resources
d) two more earths
e) five more earths
2
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
12. The per capita ecological footprint of U.S. citizen is about ____ times as much as an average citizen of
China.
a) 2.1
b) 4.5
c) 6
d) 10
e) 30
13. Pollution includes
a) detergents dumped into streams
b) volcanoes spewing toxic gases into the atmosphere
c) CO2 releases from coal burning power plants
d) fertilizer runoff from golf courses
e) all of these
14. At our current average rate of use per person, we will need the equivalent of how many earth’s to
provide an endless supply of renewable resources.
a) 0.88
b) 0.91
c) 1.15
d) 1.3
e) 2.1
15. Which of the following is one of the root causes of environmental problems?
a) rapid population growth
b) even distribution of wealth
c) increasingly sustainable use of resources
d) prices reflecting environmental costs
e) using nonrenewable resources sensibly
16. The harmful effects of poverty are serious but those of affluence are ____.
a) a lot less serious
b) a little less serious
c) about the same
d) a little more serious
e) a lot more serious
17. The real prices of goods and services do not include
a) the cost of raw materials
b) the cost of manufacturing
c) the environmental costs of resource use
d) the cost of distribution
e) the cost of advertising
3
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
18. The idea that we should be responsible, caring managers of the earth is
a) the planetary management worldview
b) the stewardship worldview
c) the environmental wisdom worldview
d) the environmental justice movement
e) all of these
19. Research by social scientists suggests that it takes ____ percent of the population of a community,
country, or the world to bring about major social change.
a) 1-2
b) 5-10
c) 15-20
d) 25-35
e) 50-60
20. An irreversible shift in the behavior of a natural system is called a(n)
a) ecological tipping point
b) overuse of resources
c) failure to recycle
d) renewable natural capital
e) ecological footprint
21. Which of the following is the usual order of applying the scientific process to a problem?
a) hypothesis-question-observation-experimentation-conclusion-analysis
b) hypothesis-conclusion-question-observation-experimentation-analysis
c) observation-hypothesis-conclusion-experimentation-analysis-question
d) observation-question-hypothesis-experimentation-analysis-conclusion
e) hypothesis-experimentation-observation-analysis-question-conclusion
22. Which of the following is supported by data, hypotheses, models, theories, and laws that are widely
accepted by scientists considered experts in the field under study?
a) frontier science
b) tentative science
c) reliable science
d) unreliable science
e) guess
4
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
23. Matter is anything that
a) has mass and takes up space
b) has the capacity to do work
c) can be changed in form
d) can produce change
e) moves mass
24. Which of the following is not identified by the author as a building block of matter?
a) molecules
b) compounds
c) ions
d) atoms
e) none of these
25. Fundamental types of matter that have unique sets of properties and can not be broken down into
simpler substances by chemical means are called
a) mixtures
b) compounds
c) isotopes
d) elements
e) atoms
26. All of the following are elements except
a) water
b) oxygen
c) nitrogen
d) hydrogen
e) carbon
27. The most basic building block of matter is a(n)
a) atom
b) element
c) molecule
d) compound
e) ion
28. Protons, neutrons, and electrons are all
a) forms of energy
b) equal in mass
c) subatomic particles
d) negative ions
e) charged particles
5
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
29. The mass number is equal to the sum of the
a) neutrons and isotopes
b) neutrons and electrons
c) neutrons and protons
d) protons and electrons
e) ions and isotopes
30. An atom or group of atoms with one or more net positive or negative charges is a(n)
a) base
b) isotope
c) ion
d) acid
e) none of these
31. Which of the following is/are not a macromolecule?
a) lipids
b) simple carbohydrates
c) proteins
d) nucleic acids
e) complex carbohydrates
32. The macromolecules that make up living organisms are
a) proteins
b) lipids
c) carbohydrates
d) nucleic acids
e) all of these
33. Which of the following is the fundamental structural and functional unit of life?
a) atom
b) macromolecule
c) DNA
d) cell
e) organism
34. Which of the following is not one of the nuclear changes matter can undergo?
a) fission
b) evaporation
c) decay
d) fusion
e) All of these are nuclear changes.
6
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
35. Which of the following does not represent kinetic energy?
a) the wind blowing
b) water in a stream
c) steam
d) a car at the top of a hill
e) electricity
36. What percentage of the energy used to produce food for living organisms, and to heat the earth,
comes from the sun?
a) 10
b) 29
c) 49
d) 79
e) 99
37. An example of potential energy is
a) electricity lighting a lamp
b) sugar in a sugar bowl
c) a snowball thrown at a tree
d) a leaf falling from a tree
e) water powering a turbine
38. Energy input is
a) usually greater than energy output
b) always greater than energy output
c) always equal to energy output
d) usually less than energy output
e) always less than energy output
39. Which of the following is not a key component of a system?
a) throughputs
b) inputs
c) outputs
d) All are key components.
e) None are key components.
40. A positive feedback loop is illustrated by all of the following except
a) melting polar ice
b) exponential population growth
c) a thermostat maintaining a certain temperature in your house
d) the greenhouse effect
e) none of these
7
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
41. Time delays in feedback systems allow changes in the environment to build slowly until the changes
reach a(n)
a) synergy point
b) input
c) throughput
d) tipping point
e) bioaccumulation point
42. Which of the following must obey the laws of thermodynamics?
a) organic life
b) living systems
c) economics
d) humans
e) all of these
43. Although tropical rain forests are only 2% of the earth’s land surface, they contain what percentage of
the earth’s land plants and animal species?
a) 50
b) 40
c) 30
d) 20
e) 10
44. Which of the following is not a reason we should care about the disappearance of the tropical rain
forests?
a) their loss will reduce earth’s biodiversity
b) their loss will accelerate atmospheric warming
c) their loss will change regional weather patterns
d) their loss will mean more places to build cities
e) their loss may push us beyond an ecological tipping point
45. Ozone gas in the lower part of the stratosphere filters out how much of the sun’s harmful ultraviolet
(UV) radiation?
a) 33%
b) 20%
c) 95%
d) 67%
e) 10%
8
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
46. Which of the following is not a major component of the earth's life-support system?
a) unisphere
b) atmosphere
c) hydrosphere
d) geosphere
e) biosphere
47. Fossil fuels and minerals are found in the
a) unisphere
b) atmosphere
c) hydrosphere
d) geosphere
e) biosphere
48. All physical forms of water (solid, liquid, and gas) make up the
a) atmosphere
b) lithosphere
c) biosphere
d) hydrosphere
e) troposphere
49. The parts of the earth's air, water, and soil where life is found is called the
a) organism
b) population
c) community
d) ecosystem
e) biosphere
50. Ecology is the study of
a) human impact on the environment
b) the abiotic elements of the environment
c) the biotic elements of the environment
d) how organisms interact with each other and the nonliving environment
e) how evolution formed populations
51. Which of the following is not an abiotic component of an ecosystem?
a) nutrients
b) microbes
c) water
d) solar energy
e) air
9
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
52. Groups of different species living together in a particular place with a potential for interacting with
one another is called a(n)
a) organism
b) population
c) community
d) ecosystem
e) biosphere
53. The most fundamental structural and functional units of life are
a) atoms
b) molecules
c) compounds
d) cells
e) mitochondrion
54. The very necessary process of breaking down the dead bodies of organisms is a function of
a) detritivores
b) omnivores
c) carnivores
d) herbivores
e) producers
55. Organisms that complete the final breakdown and recycling of organic materials from the remains of
all organisms are the
a) detritivores
b) omnivores
c) carnivores
d) herbivores
e) decomposers
56. Each trophic level in a food chain or food web contains a certain amount of organic matter, called
a) food
b) energy
c) biomass
d) organisms
e) decomposition
57. The hydrologic cycle is the movement of
a) carbon
b) hydrogen
c) hydrocarbons
d) carbohydrates
e) water
10
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
58. The hydrologic cycle is driven primarily by
a) solar energy
b) lunar tides
c) solar tides
d) mechanical energy
e) chemical energy
59. The form of nitrogen most usable to plants is
a) ammonium ions
b) nitrogen gas
c) proteins
d) nitrites
e) nitrates
60. Which of the following is not a part of the phosphorus cycle?
a) soil
b) atmosphere
c) organisms
d) rocks
e) marine sediments
61. All of the following are ways humans interfere in the phosphorus cycle except
a) erosion from fertilized crop fields, lawns, increases phosphate ions in streams
b) increasing phosphate levels in tropical forests by clearing forests
c) removing large quantities of phosphate from the earth for fertilizer
d) stimulating aquatic systems to overproduce through runoff of phosphate ions
e) all of these interfere in the phosphorus cycle
62. Ecologists would make use of which of the following in their study of nature?
a) field research
b) geographic information system software
c) controlled experiments
d) remote sensing devices
e) all of these
63. Scientists have less than _____ percent of the ecological data they need to evaluate the ecosystems in
the United States.
a) 5
b) 8
c) 12
d) 25
e) 50
11
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
64. How many humans are injured or killed each year by sharks?
a) 5-15
b) 20-35
c) 40-55
d) 60-75
e) 135-150
65. How many sharks are killed each year by humans?
a) 501
b) 150,000
c) 1.3-2.7 million
d) 22-47 million
e) 79-97 million
66. Biodiversity includes all of the following components except
a) functional diversity
b) genetic diversity
c) intellectual diversity
d) ecological diversity
e) species diversity
67. The diversity that enables life on earth to adapt and survive environmental changes is called
a) functional diversity
b) genetic diversity
c) intellectual diversity
d) ecosystem diversity
e) species diversity
68. The variety of processes, including matter cycling and energy flow within ecosystems, which result
from species interacting with one another in food webs is called
a) functional diversity
b) genetic diversity
c) intellectual diversity
d) ecosystem diversity
e) species diversity
69. Which of the following is not an adaptation that has made humans so successful?
a) strong opposable thumbs
b) physical strength
c) upright walking
d) complex brain
e) All of these have made us successful.
12
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
70. Geographic isolation may result from which of the following?
a) volcanic eruptions
b) migrations of subgroups
c) mountain ranges
d) roads
e) all of these
71. Mass extinctions, with 25-95% of species going extinct, have occurred how many times in the history
of the earth?
a) 1 or 2
b) 3-5
c) 6-8
d) 9-12
e) 20-23
72. The role a species plays in its ecosystem is the
a) function
b) habitat
c) ecological niche
d) geographical location
e) ecological job
73. A species with a broad niche is considered a(n)
a) endemic species
b) endangered species
c) specialist species
d) native species
e) generalist species
74. Which of the following would not be considered a generalist species?
a) humans
b) cockroaches
c) pandas
d) raccoons
e) white-tailed deer
75. Which of the following is another name for a nonnative species?
a) native
b) invasive
c) keystone
d) indicator
e) foundation
13
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
76. Which of the following is not an example of a cause for the decline of amphibians?
a) habitat loss
b) prolonged rainy periods
c) pollution
d) increases in UV radiation
e) parasites
77. A species in an ecosystem that plays a central role in the health of that ecosystem, and whose
removal may cause the collapse of the ecosystem, is called a(n)
a) foundation species
b) indicator species
c) native species
d) keystone species
e) specialist species
78. A species in an ecosystem that shapes communities by creating and enhancing habitats in ways that
benefit other species is called
a) foundation species
b) indicator species
c) native species
d) keystone species
e) specialist species
79. Which of the following is the most common interaction between species?
a) competition
b) predation
c) parasitism
d) mutualism
e) commensalism
80. If multiple species find themselves competing for the same resource, the competition can be reduced
by which of the following?
a) camouflage
b) cooperation
c) resource partitioning
d) resource expansion
e) mimicry
14
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
81. Which of the following is said to occur when an interaction benefits one species but has little, if any,
effect on the other?
a) interspecific competition
b) predation
c) parasitism
d) mutualism
e) commensalism
82. Which of the following is said to occur when members of two or more species interact to gain access
to the same limited resources?
a) interspecific competition
b) predation
c) parasitism
d) mutualism
e) commensalism
83. Which of the following is said to occur when one organism feeds on another organism by living on or
in the other organism?
a) interspecific competition
b) predation
c) parasitism
d) mutualism
e) commensalism
84. Which of the following is not a method predators use to capture prey?
a) pursuit
b) ambush
c) camouflage
d) chemical warfare
e) protective shells
85. Which of the following is not a method prey species use to avoid capture?
a) highly developed sense of sight or smell
b) spines and thorns
c) chemical warfare
d) ambush
e) camouflage
15
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
86. Parasites
a) rarely kill their hosts
b) are usually larger than their hosts
c) must be internal to their hosts
d) may strengthen their hosts over a long period of time
e) are usually microscopic
87. When populations of two different species interact over long periods of time, changes in the gene
pool of one species can lead to changes in the gene pool of the other. This is called
a) competition
b) coevolution
c) coincidence
d) commensalism
e) predation
88. The relationship between clownfish and sea anemone is
a) interspecific competition
b) predation
c) parasitism
d) mutualism
e) commensalism
89. A group of interbreeding individuals of the same species in the same geographic region is called a(n)
a) community
b) population
c) ecosystem
d) biosphere
e) biome
90. The most common distribution of populations is which of the following?
a) random
b) uniform
c) clumped
d) circles
e) none of these
91. Which of the following is not a limiting factor for populations in aquatic life zones?
a) temperature
b) sunlight
c) nutrient availability
d) precipitation
e) dissolved oxygen
16
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
92. Which of the following is not one of the age structure categories?
a) postreproductive
b) prereproductive
c) reproductive
d) nonreproductive
e) All of these answers are categories.
93. "The maximum population of a given species that a particular habitat can sustain indefinitely without
being degraded" is the definition of
a) logistic growth
b) environmental resistance
c) exponential growth
d) carrying capacity
e) biotic potential
94. Exponential growth followed by a steady decrease in population growth until the population size
levels off is typical of
a) logistic growth
b) environmental resistance
c) exponential growth
d) carrying capacity
e) biotic potential
95. When plotting the number of individuals in a population against time the data yield a J-shaped curve,
which indicates which of the following?
a) logistic growth
b) environmental resistance
c) exponential growth
d) carrying capacity
e) biotic potential
96. Some species experience an explosion of population growth to a high peak followed by a crash to a
more stable lower level. This is called which of the following?
a) stable
b) irruptive
c) cyclic
d) irregular
e) regular
17
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
97. Which of the following refers to the ability of a living system to be restored after a period of moderate
to severe disturbance?
a) stability
b) inertia
c) constancy
d) tipping point
e) resilience
98. The ability of a living system to survive moderate disturbances is called
a) stability
b) inertia
c) constancy
d) tipping point
e) resilience
99. According to the United Nations, China’s population should reach what size by the year 2025?
a) 1.1 billion
b) 1.2 billion
c) 1.3 billion
d) 1.4 billion
e) 1.5 billion
100. What was the average number of children born to a woman in China in 2009?
a) 1.0
b) 3.4
c) 2.1
d) 1.6
e) 5.7
101. What was the average number of children born to a woman in the United States in 2009?
a) 1.0
b) 3.4
c) 2.1
d) 1.6
e) 5.7
102. What percentage of the people that will be added to the human population by 2050 will be born into
less-developed countries?
a) 92%
b) 52%
c) 18%
d) 82%
e) 44%
18
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
103. If the human population levels off during the 21st century, it will move from a "J-shaped" curve to
what curve shape?
a) N
b) I
c) S
d) P
e) C
104. At today’s level of consumption, scientists estimate that we would need the equivalent of how many
planet Earths to sustain our per capita use of resources?
a) 1.0
b) 1.1
c) 1.2
d) 1.3
e) 2.0
105. By 2050, if the population increase estimates are correct and everyone reaches the current U. S. level
of resource consumption per person, we will need how many planet Earth’s?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
106. The crude birth rate is the number of live births per ____ persons in a given year.
a) 50
b) 100
c) 500
d) 1,000
e) 100,000
107. The total fertility rate (TFR), between 1955 and 2010, dropped in less-developed countries from 6.2 to
what level?
a) 3.2
b) 2.8
c) 4.5
d) 1.8
e) 2.1
19
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
108. The U.S. population is
a) slowly growing
b) slowly declining
c) basically stable
d) rapidly declining
e) rapidly growing
109. If every woman on earth had no more than an average of 2.1 children during their reproductive years,
the human population would continue to rise for how long?
a) 5,000 years
b) 150 years
c) 50 years
d) 20 years
e) 5 years
110. The 2010 U.S. population of 310 million is expected to reach what level by 2050?
a) 500 million
b) 439 million
c) 415 million
d) 375 million
e) 350 million
111. Infant mortality rate refers to the number of children per 1,000 births that die
a) by their fifth birthday
b) before their first birthday
c) before six months
d) in their first month
e) before birth
112. Worldwide, how many children under 1 year of age die each day of preventable causes.
a) 500
b) 1,000
c) 3,000
d) 5,500
e) 11,000
113. According to recent research, how many environmental refugees were there in the year 2008?
a) 100,000
b) 1,000,000
c) 5,000,000
d) 25,000,000
e) 40,000,000
20
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
114. Currently, legal and illegal immigration account for approximately how much of the U.S. annual
population growth?
a) 100%
b) 36%
c) 63%
d) 24%
e) 15%
115. Which of the following is not an effect of a high level of AIDS in a country?
a) loss of productive young workers
b) loss of trained personnel
c) increase in life expectancy
d) loss of adults to support the young
e) loss of adults to support the elderly
116. Worldwide, AIDS is the leading cause of death for people _____ years of age.
a) 1-4
b) 5-14
c) 15-49
d) 50-65
e) 66+
117. Which of the following is not a stage of the demographic transition model?
a) preindustrial
b) industrial
c) pre-transitional
d) transitional
e) postindustrial
118. In the demographic transition model, death rates fall while birth rates remain high during
a) the preindustrial stage
b) the industrial stage
c) the postindustrial stage
d) the transitional stage
e) following the postindustrial stage
119. Women tend to have fewer and healthier children for all the following reasons, except
a) when their individual rights are protected
b) earn an income of their own
c) when they have access to education
d) when they control their own fertility
e) when they have access to the internet
21
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
120. Which of the following is not a type of terrestrial ecosystem on Earth?
a) ice-covered
b) deserts
c) forests
d) grasslands
e) none of these
121. Which of the following climate zones would be described as not extreme, with four seasons?
a) polar
b) tundra
c) temperate
d) tropical
e) rain forests
122. Which of the following is a local area's short-term temperature, precipitation, and humidity?
a) climate
b) weather
c) biomes
d) ecosystems
e) currents
123. Where does the largest input of solar energy occur?
a) North pole
b) South pole
c) 30° N
d) 30° S
e) equator
124. Prevailing winds are the result of what?
a) temperature
b) direction the sun strikes the earth
c) rotation of the earth on its axis
d) ocean currents
e) sun storms
125. Large terrestrial regions with similar characteristics are
a) ecosystems
b) communities
c) populations
d) habitats
e) biomes
22
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
126. Treeless, bitterly cold most of the year, winters are long and dark, low-growing plants, and permafrost
are the characteristics of which of the following?
a) tall-grass prairie
b) tundra
c) short-grass prairie
d) temperate grassland
e) savanna
127. Thick, spongy mats of low-growing plants, primarily grasses, mosses, and lichens, are typical of the
a) arctic tundra
b) coniferous forest
c) tall-grass prairies
d) tropical forests
e) taiga
128. Which of the following does alpine tundra receive in larger amounts than Arctic tundra?
a) rain
b) snow
c) sunlight
d) wind
e) ice
129. Tropical rain forests are not good for clearing to grow crops or animals, primarily because they are low
in which of the following?
a) rainfall
b) temperature
c) light
d) soil nutrients
e) wind
130. Trees of the tropical rainforest are characterized by leaves that are
a) needlelike
b) broadleaf and fall seasonally
c) needlelike and fall seasonally
d) needlelike and evergreen
e) broadleaf and evergreen
131. Which of the following biomes has been most disturbed by human activities?
a) tundra
b) tropical rain forest
c) coniferous forest
d) temperate deciduous forest
e) taiga
23
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
132. How much of the world's population depends on mountain systems for all or some of their water?
a) 10%
b) 18%
c) 36%
d) 58%
e) 69%
133. Coral reefs are being damaged or destroyed by all of the following except
a) pollution
b) warmer ocean temperatures
c) increasing ocean acidity
d) coastal development
e) underfishing
134. In a 2008 study, researchers estimated what percentage of the world’s coral reefs had already been
destroyed?
a) 50
b) 35
c) 22
d) 19
e) 10
135. Oysters, clams, and lobsters would be part of which of the following?
a) phytoplankton
b) zooplankton
c) nekton
d) benthos
e) decomposers
136. Strongly swimming consumers would be part of which of the following?
a) phytoplankton
b) zooplankton
c) nekton
d) benthos
e) decomposers
24
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
137. The key factors determining the types and numbers of organisms found in the various layers of both
freshwater and marine systems include all of the following, except
a) parasitism
b) availability of nutrients
c) temperature
d) dissolved oxygen levels
e) availability of food
138. The ocean zone that covers the continental shelf is the
a) bathyal zone
b) coastal zone
c) littoral zone
d) benthic zone
e) abyssal zone
139. The ocean zone that makes up less than 10% of the world's ocean area, yet contains 90% of all the
marine species, is the
a) abyssal zone
b) bathyal zone
c) benthic zone
d) coastal zone
e) littoral zone
140. Which of the following is not part of the coastal zone?
a) estuaries
b) coastal wetlands
c) bathyal zone
d) intertidal zone
e) coral reefs
141. Found along some 70% of gently sloping sandy and silty coastlines in tropical and subtropical regions,
and consisting of some 69 species of trees, are the
a) seagrass beds
b) barrier beaches
c) barrier islands
d) coral reefs
e) mangrove forests
25
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
142. Researchers have estimated more than ____ of the world's mangrove forests have been destroyed by
human activities.
a) one-fourth
b) one-fifth
c) one-half
d) two-thirds
e) three-fourths
143. Organisms in this area must be able to avoid being swept away, crushed by waves, or being left high
and dry at low tides, and must survive daily or seasonal salinity and temperature changes.
a) estuaries
b) coastal wetlands
c) bathyal zone
d) intertidal zone
e) coral reefs
144. The deepest part of the ocean is the
a) abyssal zone
b) euphotic zone
c) estuary zone
d) bathyal zone
e) benthic zone
145. Most photosynthesis in the open ocean occurs in the
a) abyssal zone
b) euphotic zone
c) estuary zone
d) bathyal zone
e) benthic zone
146. The dimly lit zone in which zooplankton and smaller fishes predominate is the
a) abyssal zone
b) euphotic zone
c) estuary zone
d) bathyal zone
e) benthic zone
147. How much of the world's ocean area has been heavily affected by human activity?
a) 11%
b) 21%
c) 31%
d) 41%
e) 51%
26
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
148. How much of the population of the United States lives at or near a coast?
a) more than 95%
b) more than 82%
c) more than 75%
d) more than 66%
e) more than 50%
149. The open, sunlit surface area away from the shore is which zone?
a) benthic
b) littoral
c) bathyal
d) limnetic
e) profundal
150. Deep lakes with steep banks that have a small supply of plant nutrients are
a) oligotrophic lakes
b) eutrophic lakes
c) culturally eutrophic lakes
d) hypereutrophic lakes
e) mesotrophic lakes
27
1st Semester APES Exam Study Guide
28