Chem II Final Review
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1) Which of the following is an illustration of the law of constant composition?
A) Water boils at 100°C at 1 atm pressure. D) Water and salt have different boiling
points.
B) Water is 11% hydrogen and 89%
E) Water is a compound.
oxygen by mass.
C) Water can be separated into other
substances by a chemical process.
____
2) Which one of the following is an intensive property?
A) mass
D) volume
B) temperature
E) amount
C) heat content
____
3) Which one of the following is the highest temperature?
A) 38 °C
D) none of the above
B) 96 °F
E) the freezing point of water
C) 302 K
____
4) A cube of an unknown metal measures 1.61 mm on one side. The mass of the cube is 36 mg.
Which of the following is most likely the unknown metal?
Metal
rhodium
copper
niobium
vanadium
zirconium
A) copper
B) rhodium
C) niobium
Density (g/cm3)
12.4
8.96
8.57
6.11
6.51
D) vanadium
E) zirconium
____
5) Acceleration due to gravity of a free-falling object is 9.8 m/s2. Express this in
millimeters/millisecond2.
A) 9.8  10-9
D) 9.8  106
B) 9.8  103
E) 9.8  10-3
C) 9.8  10-6
____
6) Expressing a number in scientific notation __________.
A) changes its value
D) allows to increase the number's
precision
B) removes ambiguity as to the significant E) all of the above
figures
C) removes significant zeros
____
7) The symbol for the element magnesium is __________.
A) Rb
B) Mn
C) Ne
D) Si
E) Mg
____
8) How many significant figures are in the measurement 5.34 g?
A) 1
D) 3
B) 2
E) 5
C) 4
____
9) The quantity __________ m is the same as 5 km.
A) 5000
D) 0.05
B) 500
E) 50
C) 0.005
____
10) How many liters of air are in a room that measures 10.0 ft  11.0 ft and has an 8.00 ft ceiling?
1 in. = 2.54 cm (exactly); 1 L = 103 cm3
A) 2.49  104
D) 2.68  107
B) 92.8
E) 8.84  105
C) 26.8
____
11) Consider the following selected postulates of Dalton's atomic theory:
(i) Each element is composed of extremely small particles called atoms.
(ii) Atoms are indivisible.
(iii) Atoms of a given element are identical.
(iv) Atoms of different elements are different and have different properties.
Which of the postulates is(are) no longer considered valid?
A) (i) and (ii)
D) (iii) only
B) (ii) only
E) (iii) and (iv)
C) (ii) and (iii)
____
12) Which one of the following is not true concerning cathode rays?
A) They originate from the negative
D) They are made up of electrons.
electrode.
B) They travel in straight lines in the
E) The characteristics of cathode rays
absence of electric or magnetic fields.
depend on the material from which
they are emitted.
C) They impart a negative charge to
metals exposed to them.
____
13) Elements __________ exhibit similar physical and chemical properties.
A) with similar chemical symbols
D) on opposite sides of the periodic table
B) with similar atomic masses
E) in the same group of the periodic table
C) in the same period of the periodic table
____
14) Formulas that show how atoms are attached in a molecule are called __________.
A) molecular formulas
D) diatomic formulas
B) ionic formulas
E) structural formulas
C) empirical formulas
____
15) Which species has 54 electrons?
A)
B)
D)
E)
C)
____
16) Which species has 16 protons?
A) 31P
B) 34S2C) 36Cl
D)
E)
80
Br16
O
____
17) Which one of the following species has as many electrons as it has neutrons?
A) 1H
D) 19F40
2+
B) Ca
E) 14C2+
14
C) C
____
18) Which pair of elements is most apt to form an ionic compound with each other?
A) barium, bromine
D) sulfur, fluorine
B) calcium, sodium
E) nitrogen, hydrogen
C) oxygen, fluorine
____
19) Aluminum reacts with a certain nonmetallic element to form a compound with the general formula
Al2X3. Element X must be from Group __________ of the Periodic Table of Elements.
A) 3A
D) 6A
B) 4A
E) 7A
C) 5A
____
20) The charge on the copper ion in the salt CuO is __________.
A) +1
D) -1
B) +2
E) -2
C) +3
____
21) The charge on the iron ion in the salt Fe2O3 is __________.
A) +1
D) -5
B) +2
E) -6
C) +3
____
22) The correct name for MgF2 is __________.
A) monomagnesium difluoride
D) manganese bifluoride
B) magnesium difluoride
E) magnesium fluoride
C) manganese difluoride
____
23) A correct name for Fe(NO3)2 is __________.
A) iron nitrite
D) ferric nitrite
B) ferrous nitrite
E) ferric nitrate
C) ferrous nitrate
____
24) The correct name for Ni(CN)2 is __________.
A) nickel (I) cyanide
B) nickel cyanate
C) nickel carbonate
D) nickel (II) cyanide
E) nickel (I) nitride
____
25) The reaction used to inflate automobile airbags __________.
A) produces sodium gas
D) violates the law of conservation of
mass
B) is a combustion reaction
E) is a decomposition reaction
C) is a combination reaction
____
26) Which of the following are combustion reactions?
1) CH4 (g) + O2 (g)  CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
2) CaO (s) + CO2 (g)  CaCO3 (s)
3) PbCO3 (s)  PbO (s) + CO2 (g)
4) CH3OH (l)  O2 (g)  CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
A) 1 and 4
D) 2, 3, and 4
B) 1, 2, 3, and 4
E) 3 and 4
C) 1, 3, and 4
____
27) The formula weight of silver chromate (Ag2CrO4) is __________ amu.
A) 159.87
D) 339.86
B) 223.87
E) 175.87
C) 331.73
____
28) The formula weight of magnesium fluoride (MgF2), rounded to one decimal place, is __________
amu.
A) 86.6
D) 67.6
B) 43.3
E) 92.9
C) 62.3
____
29) Calculate the percentage by mass of lead in Pb(NO3)2.
A) 38.6
D) 65.3
B) 44.5
E) 71.2
C) 62.6
____
30) There are __________ atoms of oxygen are in 300 molecules of CH3CO2H.
A) 300
D) 3.61  1026
B) 600
E) 1.80  1026
C) 3.01  1024
____
31) A sample of CH4O with a mass of 32.0 g contains __________ molecules of CH4O.
A) 5.32  10-23
D) 6.02  1023
B) 1.00
E) 32.0
C) 1.88  1022
____
32) How many moles of sodium carbonate contain 1.773  1017 carbon atoms?
A) 5.890  10-7
D) 8.836  10-7
B) 2.945  10-7
E) 9.817  10-8
C) 1.473  10-7
____
33) Lithium and nitrogen react to produce lithium nitride:
6Li (s) + N2 (g)  2Li3N (s)
How many moles of lithium nitride are produced when 0.400 mol of lithium react in this fashion?
A) 0.133
D) 1.20
B) 0.800
E) 0.200
C) 0.0667
____
34) Aqueous potassium chloride will react with which one of the following in an exchange
(metathesis) reaction?
A) calcium nitrate
D) barium nitrate
B) sodium bromide
E) sodium chloride
C) lead nitrate
____
35) Which of the following is insoluble in water at 25 °C?
A) Mg3(PO4)2
D) Ca(OH)2
B) Na2S
E) Ba(C2H3O2)2
C) (NH4)2CO3
____
36) The net ionic equation for the reaction between aqueous sulfuric acid and aqueous sodium
hydroxide is __________.
A) H+ (aq) + HSO4- (aq) + 2OH- (aq)  2 D) H+ (aq) + OH- (aq)  H2O( l)
H2O (l) + SO42- (aq)
B) H+ (aq) + HSO4- (aq) + 2 Na+ (aq) + E) 2H+ (aq) + SO42- (aq) + 2Na+ (aq) +
2OH- (aq)  2 H2O (l) + 2Na+ (aq) +
2OH- (aq)  2 H2O (l) + 2Na+ (aq) +
SO42- (aq)
SO42- (aq)
C) SO42- (aq) + 2Na+ (aq)  2Na+ (aq) +
SO42- (aq)
____
37) In which reaction does the oxidation number of hydrogen change?
A) HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq)  NaCl (aq) + D) 2 HClO4 (aq) + CaCO3 (s) 
H2O (l)
Ca(ClO4)2 (aq) + H2O (l) + CO2 (g)
B) 2 Na (s) + 2 H2O (l)  2 NaOH (aq) + E) SO2 (g) + H2O (l)  H2SO3 (aq)
H2 (g)
C) CaO (s) + H2O (l)  Ca(OH)2 (s)
____
38) Which of these metals will be oxidized by the ions of cobalt?
A) nickel
D) copper
B) tin
E) silver
C) iron
____
39) Which solution has the same number of moles of NaOH as 50.00 mL of 0.100M solution of
NaOH?
A) 20.00 mL of 0.200M solution of NaOH D) 50.00 mL of 0.125M solution of NaOH
B) 25.00 mL of 0.175M solution of NaOH E) 100.00 mL of 0.0500M solution of
NaOH
C) 30.00 mL of 0.145M solution of NaOH
____
40) Which solution has the same number of moles of KCl as 75.00 mL of 0.250M solution of KCl?
A) 20.0 mL of 0.200M solution of KCl
D) 50.0 mL of 0.125M solution of KCl
B) 25.0 mL of 0.175M solution of KCl
E) 100 mL of 0.0500M solution of KCl
C) 129 mL of 0.145M solution of KCl
____
41) What are the respective concentrations (M) of Cu+2 and Cl- afforded by dissolving 0.200 mol
CuCl2 in water and diluting to 345 mL?
A) 0.200 and 0.200
D) 1.16 and 2.32
B) 0.580 and 1.16
E) 0.580 and 0.290
C) 0.200 and 0.400
____
42) A tenfold dilution of a sample solution can be obtained by taking __________.
A) 1 part sample and 9 parts solvent
D) 10 parts sample and 1 part solvent
B) 1 part sample and 10 parts solvent
E) 99 parts sample and 1 part solvent
C) 9 parts sample and 1 part solvent
____
43) You are given two clear solutions of the same unknown monoprotic acid, but with different
concentrations. Which statement is true?
A) There is no chemical method designed D) If the same volume of each sample was
to tell the two solutions apart.
taken, then more base solution would
be required to neutralize the one with
lower concentration.
B) It would take more base solution (per E) The product of concentration and
milliliter of the unknown solution) to
volume of the less concentrated
neutralize the more concentrated
solution equals the product of
solution.
concentration and volume of the more
concentrated solution.
C) A smaller volume of the less
concentrated solution contains the
same number of moles of the acid
compared to the more concentrated
solution.
____
44) What mass (g) of barium iodide is contained in 250 mL of a barium iodide solution that has an
iodide ion concentration of 0.193 M?
A) 9.44
D) 0.048
B) 18.9
E) 37.7
C) 0.024
____
45) A 31.5 mL aliquot of H2SO4 (aq) of unknown concentration was titrated with 0.0134 M NaOH
(aq). It took 23.9 mL of the base to reach the endpoint of the titration. The concentration (M) of the
acid was __________.
A) 0.0102
D) 0.102
B) 0.00508
E) 0.227
C) 0.0204
____
46) What is the concentration (M) of CH3OH in a solution prepared by dissolving 11.7 g of CH3OH in
sufficient water to give exactly 230. mL of solution?
A) 11.9
D) 3.17
B) 1.59
E) 0.0841
C) 0.00159
____
47) A solution is prepared by mixing 50.0 mL of 0.100 M HCl and 10.0 mL of 0.200 M NaCl. What is
the molarity of chloride ion in this solution?
A) 0.183
D) 0.0500
B) 8.57
E) 0.117
C) 3.50
____
48) Which of the following statements is false?
A) Internal energy is a state function.
D) The enthalpy change for a reaction
depends on the state of the reactants
and products.
B) Enthalpy is an intensive property.
E) The enthalpy of a reaction is equal to
the heat of the reaction.
C) The enthalpy change for a reaction is
equal in magnitude, but opposite in
sign, to the enthalpy change for the
reverse reaction.
____
49) The units of of heat capacity are __________.
A) K/J or °C/J
D) J/mol
B) J/K or J/°C
E) g-K/J or g-°C/J
C) J/g-K or J/g-°C
____
50) An 8.29 g sample of calcium carbonate [CaCO3 (s)] absorbs 50.3 J of heat, upon which the
temperature of the sample increases from 21.1 °C to 28.5 °C. What is the specific heat of calcium
carbonate?
A) .63
D) 2.2
B) .82
E) 4.2
C) 1.1
____
51) The energy released by combustion of 1 g of a substance is called the __________ of the
substance.
A) specific heat
D) heat capacity
B) fuel value
E) enthalpy
C) nutritional calorie content
____
52) Of the substances below, the highest fuel value is obtained from __________.
A) charcoal
D) hydrogen
B) bituminous coal
E) wood
C) natural gas
____
53) What is the enthalpy change (in kJ) of a chemical reaction that raises the temperature of 250.0 mL
of solution having a density of 1.25 g/mL by 7.80 °C? (The specific heat of the solution is 3.74
joules/gram-K.)
A) -7.43
B) -12.51
C) 8.20
D) -9.12
E) 6.51
____
54) All of the orbitals in a given subshell have the same value of the __________ quantum number.
A) principal
D) A and B
B) angular momentum
E) B and C
C) magnetic
____
55) Which one of the following is an incorrect subshell notation?
A) 4f
D) 2p
B) 2d
E) 3d
C) 3s
____
56) In a px orbital, the subscript x denotes the __________ of the electron.
A) energy
D) size of the orbital
B) spin of the electrons
E) axis along which the orbital is aligned
C) probability of the shell
____
57) The __________ orbital is degenerate with 5py in a many-electron atom.
A) 5s
D) 5dxy
B) 5px
E) 5d2
C) 4py
____
58) Which of the following is not a valid set of four quantum numbers? (n, l, ml, ms)
A) 2, 0, 0, +1/2
D) 1, 0, 0, +1/2
B) 2, 1, 0, -1/2
E) 1, 1, 0, +1/2
C) 3, 1, -1, -1/2
____
59) Which of the following is a valid set of four quantum numbers? (n, l, ml, ms)
A) 2, 1, 0, +1/2
D) 2, 1, +2, +1/2
B) 2, 2, 1, -1/2
E) 1, 1, 0, -1/2
C) 1, 0, 1, +1/2
____
60) The ground-state electron configuration of __________ is [Ar]4s13d5.
A) V
D) Cr
B) Mn
E) K
C) Fe
____
61) The lowest orbital energy is reached when the number of electrons with the same spin is
maximized. This statement describes __________.
A) Pauli Exclusion Principle
D) Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
B) Planck's constant
E) Hund's rule
C) deBroglie hypothesis
____
62) The valence shell of the element X contains 2 electrons in a 5s subshell. Below that shell, element
X has a partially filled 4d subshell. What type of element is X?
A) main group element
D) transition metal
B) chalcogen
E) alkali metal
C) halogen
____
63) An FM radio station broadcasts electromagnetic radiation at a frequency of 100.6 MHz. The
wavelength of this radiation is __________ m.
A) 2.982  106
D) 3.018  1010
B) 2.982
E) 0.3353
C) 3.018  1016
____
64) Electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 531 nm appears as green light to the human eye.
The energy of one photon of this light is 3.74  10-19 J. Thus, a laser that emits 1.3  10-2 J of
energy in a pulse of light at this wavelength produces __________ photons in each pulse.
A) 2.9  10-17
D) 3.5  1016
-24
B) 9.2  10
E) 6.5  1013
C) 1.8  1019
____
65) The atomic radius of main-group elements generally increases down a group because __________.
A) effective nuclear charge increases
D) the principal quantum number of the
down a group
valence orbitals increases
B) effective nuclear charge decreases
E) both effective nuclear charge increases
down a group
down a group and the principal
quantum number of the valence
orbitals increases
C) effective nuclear charge zigzags down
a group
____
66) __________ is isoelectronic with argon and __________ is isoelectronic with neon.
A) Cl-, FD) Ne-, Kr+
+
B) Cl , Cl
E) Ne-, Ar+
+
C) F , F
____
67) Which equation correctly represents the second ionization of calcium?
A) Ca (g)  Ca+ (g) + eD) Ca- (g)  Ca (g) + eB) Ca (g)  Ca- (g) + eE) Ca+ (g) + e-  Ca (g)
C) Ca (g) + e-  Ca (g)
____
68) Which of the following correctly represents the electron affinity of phosphorus?
A) P (g)  P+ (g) + eD) P4 (g) + 4 e-  4 P- (g)
B) P (g) + e  P (g)
E) P+ (g) + e-  P (g)
C) P4 (g) + e-  P- (g)
____
69) Of the elements below, __________ is the most metallic.
A) sodium
D) calcium
B) barium
E) cesium
C) magnesium
____
70) Which one of the following is a metal?
A) Ge
B) S
D) Pb
E) C
C) Br
____
71) The list that correctly indicates the order of metallic character is __________.
A) B > N > C
D) P > S > Se
B) F > Cl > S
E) Na > K > Rb
C) Si > P > S
____
72) Of the following metals, __________ exhibits multiple oxidation states.
A) Al
D) Ca
B) Cs
E) Na
C) V
____
73) This element is more reactive than lithium and magnesium but less reactive than potassium. This
element is __________.
A) Na
D) Be
B) Rb
E) Fr
C) Ca
____
74) Consider the following properties of an element:
(i) It is solid at room temperature.
(ii) It easily forms an oxide when exposed to air.
(iii) When it reacts with water, hydrogen gas evolves.
(iv) It must be stored submerged in oil.
Which element fits the above description the best?
A) sulfur
D) sodium
B) copper
E) magnesium
C) mercury
____
75) Hydrogen is unique among the elements because __________.
1. It has only one valence electron.
2. It is the only element that can emit an atomic spectrum.
3. Its electron is not at all shielded from its nucleus.
4. It is the lightest element.
5. It is the only element to exist at room temperature as a diatomic gas.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D) 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 3, 4
E) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3, 4
____
76) Ozone is a (an) __________ of oxygen.
A) isotope
B) allotrope
C) precursor
____
D) peroxide
E) free radical
77) Which of the following has eight valence electrons?
A) Ti4+
D) Na+
B) Kr
E) all of the above
C) Cl-
____
78) The bond length in an HI molecule is 1.61 Å and the measured dipole moment is 0.44 D. What is
the magnitude (in units of e) of the negative charge on I in HI?
(1 debye = 3.34  10-30 coulomb-meters; e=1.6  10-19 coulombs)
A) 1.6  10-19
D) 1
B) 0.057
E) 0.22
C) 9.1
____
79) Resonance structures differ by __________.
A) number and placement of electrons
D) number of atoms only
B) number of electrons only
E) placement of electrons only
C) placement of atoms only
____
80) A valid Lewis structure of __________ cannot be drawn without violating the octet rule.
A) NI3
D) SiF4
B) SO2
E) CO2
C) ICl5
____
81) There are __________ unpaired electrons in the Lewis symbol for a (an) sodium ion.
A) 3
D) 4
B) 2
E) 1
C) 0
____
82) The principal quantum number of the electrons that are lost when tungsten forms a cation is
__________.
A) 6
D) 3
B) 5
E) 2
C) 4
____
83) The electron-domain geometry of __________ is tetrahedral.
A) CBr4
D) XeF4
B) PH3
E) all of the above except XeF4
C) CCl2Br2
____
84) The molecular geometry of the left-most carbon atom in the molecule below is __________.
A) trigonal planar
B) trigonal bipyramidal
C) tetrahedral
____
D) octahedral
E) T-shaped
85) The bond angles marked a, b, and c in the molecule below are about __________, __________,
and __________, respectively.
A) 90°, 90°, 90°
B) 120°, 120°, 90°
C) 120°, 120°, 109.5°
____
D) 109.5°, 120°, 109.5°
E) 109.5°, 90°, 120°
86) The bond angle marked a in the following molecule is about __________.
A) 90°
B) 109.5°
C) 120°
____
D) 180°
E) 60°
87) The molecular geometry consists of __________.
a) a nonbonding pair of electrons
b) a single bond
c) a multiple bond
A) a only
B) b only
C) c only
____
D) a, b, and c
E) b and c
88) PCl5 has __________ electron domains and a __________ molecular arrangement.
A) 6, trigonal bipyramidal
D) 5, trigonal bipyramidal
B) 6, tetrahedral
E) 6, seesaw
C) 5, square pyramidal
Consider the following species when answering the following questions:
(i) PCl3
(ii) CCl4
(iii) TeCl4
(iv) XeF4
(v) SF6
____
89) Three monosulfur fluorides are observed: SF2, SF4, and SF6. Of these, __________ is/are polar.
A) SF2 only
D) SF6 only
B) SF2 and SF4 only
E) SF2, SF4, and SF6
C) SF4 only
____
90) The molecular geometry of the SF6 molecule is __________, and this molecule is __________.
A) trigonal pyramidal, polar
D) trigonal planar, nonpolar
B) octahedral, nonpolar
E) trigonal bipyramidal, polar
C) trigonal planar, polar
____
91) Of the following, only __________ has sp2 hybridization of the central atom.
A) PH3
B) CO32C) ICl3
D) l3E) PF5
____
92) The sp2 atomic hybrid orbital set accommodates __________ electron domains.
A) 2
D) 5
B) 3
E) 6
C) 4
____
93) The hybridizations of bromine in BrF5 and of arsenic in AsF5 are __________ and __________,
respectively.
A) sp3, sp3d
D) sp3d2, sp3d
3
3 2
B) sp d, sp d
E) sp3d2, sp3d2
C) sp3d, sp3
Consider the following species when answering the following questions:
(i) PCl3
(ii) CCl4
(iii) TeCl4
(iv) XeF4
(v) SF6
____
94) There are __________ unhybridized p atomic orbitals in an sp2-hybridized carbon atom.
A) 0
D) 3
B) 1
E) 4
C) 2
____
95) The blending of one s atomic orbital and two p atomic orbitals produces __________.
A) three sp hybrid orbitals
D) two sp3 hybrid orbitals
B) two sp2 hybrid orbitals
E) three sp2 hybrid orbitals
3
C) three sp hybrid orbitals
____
96) The ð bond in ethylene, H2C=CH2, results from the overlap of __________.
A) sp3 hybrid orbitals
D) sp2 hybrid orbitals
B) s atomic orbitals
E) p atomic orbitals
C) sp hybrid orbitals
____
97) The N-N bond in HNNH consists of __________.
A) one bond and one bond
D) two
B) one bond and two bonds
E) one
C) two
bonds and one bond
bonds and two bonds
bond and no bonds
____
98) Structural changes around a double bond in the __________ portion of the rhodopsin molecule
trigger the chemical reactions that result in vision.
A) protein
D) cones
B) opsin
E) rods
C) retinal
____
99) Based on molecular orbital theory, the bond order of the N-N bond in the N2 molecule is
__________.
A) 0
D) 3
B) 1
E) 5
C) 2
____ 100) According to valence bond theory, which orbitals overlap in the formation of the bond in N2?
A) 1s
D) 2p
B) 1p
E) 3s
C) 2s
____ 101) The hybrid orbital set used by the central atom in NCl3 is __________.
A) sp
D) sp3d
B) sp2
E) sp3d2
3
C) sp
____ 102) The hybrid orbital set used by the central atom in KrF2 is __________.
A) sp
D) sp3d
B) sp2
E) sp3d2
3
C) sp
____ 103) What is the atomic number of a neutron?
A) 3
B) 1
C) 2
D) 0
E) 4
____ 104) How many radioactive decay series exist in nature?
A) 0
D) 3
B) 1
E) 10
C) 2
____ 105) At approximately what number of protons, or neutrons, does the 1:1 ratio of protons to neutrons
start to produce unstable nuclei?
A) 10
D) 50
B) 20
E) 80
C) 30
____ 106) The formation of krypton from rubidium decay is a result of __________.
A) alpha emission
D) electron capture
B) beta emission
E) neutron capture
C) positron emission
____ 107) The product of the nuclear reaction in which 28Si is subjected to neutron capture followed by
alpha emission is __________.
A) 31S
D) 25Mg
33
B) S
E) 25Al
C) 23Mg
____ 108) In the nuclear transmutation represented by
A) uranium-242
B) curium-245
C) curium-242
Pu( He,
D) uranium-245
E) uranium-243
n)?, what is the product?
____ 109) Which of the following correctly represents the transmutation in which a curium-242 nucleus is
bombarded with an alpha particle to produce a californium-245 nucleus?
A)
D)
Cm( He, n)
Cf
Cm( n, He)
Cf
B)
Cm( He,
C)
Cm( He,
p)
e)
Cf
E)
Cm( He, 2 p)
Cf
Cf
____ 110) The curie is a measure of the
A) number of disintegrations per second
of a radioactive substance.
B) total energy absorbed by an object
exposed to a radioactive source.
C) lethal threshold for radiation exposure.
D) number of alpha particles emitted by
exactly one gram of a radioactive
substance.
E) None of the above is correct.
Consider the following data for a particular radionuclide:
Time(min)
0
3
6
9
12
Nt(g)
1.23
1.15
1.08
1.01
0.940
____ 111) What is the rate constant (in min-1) for the decay of this radionuclide?
A) 45
D) 0.032
B) 32
E) 0.022
C) 0.024
____ 112) Cesium-137 undergoes beta decay and has a half-life of 30.0 years. How many beta particles are
emitted by a 14.0-g sample of cesium-137 in three minutes?
A) 6.1  1013
D) 1.3  10-8
B) 6.2  1022
E) 8.1  1015
C) 8.4  1015
____ 113) Which one of the following is not true concerning radon?
A) It decays by alpha emission.
D) It has been implicated in lung cancer.
B) It decays to polonium-218, an alpha
E) It is generated as uranium decays.
emitter.
C) It is chemically active in human lungs.
____ 114) Which one of the following forms of radiation can penetrate the deepest into body tissue?
A) alpha
D) positron
B) beta
E) proton
C) gamma
____ 115) Strontium-90 is a byproduct in nuclear reactors fueled by the radioisotope uranium-235. The halflife of strontium-90 is 28.8 yr. What percentage of a strontium-90 sample remains after 75.0 yr?
A) 68.1
D) 38.4
B) 16.5
E) 2.60
C) 7.40
____ 116) Carbon-11 is used in medical imaging. The half-life of this radioisotope is 20.4 min. What
percentage of a sample remains after 60.0 min?
A) 71.2
D) 34.0
B) 5.28
E) 2.94
C) 13.0
____ 117) A rock contains 0.275 mg of lead-206 for each milligram of uranium-238. The half-life for the
decay of uranium-238 to lead-206 is 4.5  109 yr. The rock was formed __________ yr ago.
A) 1.42  109
D) 1.79  109
B) 9.62  108
E) 1.39  109
C) 1.24  109
____ 118) The decay of a radionuclide with a half-life of 2.3  105 years has a rate constant (in yr-1) equal to
__________.
A) 3.3  105
D) 2.8  103
B) 3.0  10-6
E) 5.9  10-8
-6
C) 6.0  10
____ 119) A freshly prepared sample of curium-243 undergoes 3312 disintegrations per second. After 6.00
yr, the activity of the sample declines to 2755 disintegrations per second. The half-life of curium243 is __________ yr.
A) 4.99
D) 0.765
B) 32.6
E) 22.6
C) 7.21
____ 120) How much energy (in J) is produced when 0.082 g of matter is converted to energy?
A) 7.4  1018
D) 7.4  1015
12
B) 7.4  10
E) 2.5  107
C) 2.5  104
Chem II Final Review
Answer Section
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
37)
38)
39)
40)
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
B
B
A
C
E
B
E
D
A
A
C
E
E
E
B
B
D
A
D
B
C
E
C
D
E
A
C
C
C
B
D
B
A
C
A
D
B
C
E
C
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
3
2
3
3
2
2
1
1
2
3
2
2
1
1
1
1
2
1
2
2
2
2
3
1
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
4
3
3
5
4
4
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
Sec. 1.2
Sec. 1.3
Sec. 1.4
Sec. 1.4
Sec. 1.4
Sec. 1.5
Sec. 1.2
Sec. 1.5
Sec. 1.6
Sec. 1.6
Sec. 2.1
Sec. 2.2
Sec. 2.5
Sec. 2.6
Sec. 2.7
Sec. 2.7
Sec. 2.7
Sec. 2.7
Sec. 2.8
Sec. 2.8
Sec. 2.8
Sec. 2.8
Sec. 2.8
Sec. 2.8
Sec. 3.2
Sec. 3.2
Sec. 3.3
Sec. 3.3
Sec. 3.4
Sec. 3.4
Sec. 3.4
Sec. 3.4
Sec. 3.6
Sec. 4.2
Sec. 4.2
Sec. 4.2
Sec. 4.4
Sec. 4.4
Sec. 4.5
Sec. 4.5
41)
42)
43)
44)
45)
46)
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
52)
53)
54)
55)
56)
57)
58)
59)
60)
61)
62)
63)
64)
65)
66)
67)
68)
69)
70)
71)
72)
73)
74)
75)
76)
77)
78)
79)
80)
81)
82)
83)
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
B
A
B
A
B
B
E
B
B
B
B
D
D
D
B
E
B
E
A
D
E
D
B
D
D
A
B
B
E
D
C
C
A
D
E
B
E
B
E
C
C
A
E
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
4
2
2
3
4
3
3
3
2
3
2
2
4
1
1
1
1
2
2
1
3
1
1
1
2
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
2
3
3
5
1
1
1
1
2
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
Sec. 4.5
Sec. 4.5
Sec. 4.5
Sec. 4.5
Sec. 4.6
Sec. 4.5
Sec. 4.5
Sec. 5.4
Sec. 5.5
Sec. 5.5
Sec. 5.8
Sec. 5.8
Sec. 5.5
Sec. 6.5
Sec. 6.5
Sec. 6.6
Sec. 6.6
Sec. 6.7
Sec. 6.7
Sec. 6.8
Sec. 6.8
Sec. 6.9
Sec. 6.1
Sec. 6.2
Sec. 7.3
Sec. 7.3
Sec. 7.4
Sec. 7.5
Sec. 7.6
Sec. 7.6
Sec. 7.6
Sec. 7.6
Sec. 7.7
Sec. 7.7
Sec. 7.8
Sec. 7.8
Sec. 8.1
Sec. 8.4
Sec. 8.6
Sec. 8.7
Sec. 8.1
Sec. 8.2
Sec. 9.2
84)
85)
86)
87)
88)
89)
90)
91)
92)
93)
94)
95)
96)
97)
98)
99)
100)
101)
102)
103)
104)
105)
106)
107)
108)
109)
110)
111)
112)
113)
114)
115)
116)
117)
118)
119)
120)
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
C
D
C
E
D
B
B
B
B
D
B
E
E
A
C
D
D
C
D
D
D
B
D
D
C
A
A
E
E
C
C
B
C
D
B
E
B
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
1
2
1
1
3
2
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
3
4
1
1
1
1
1
1
3
3
2
1
1
2
4
1
1
3
3
4
1
4
2
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
Sec. 9.2
Sec. 9.2
Sec. 9.2
Sec. 9.2
Sec. 9.2
Sec. 9.3
Sec. 9.3
Sec. 9.5
Sec. 9.5
Sec. 9.5
Sec. 9.5
Sec. 9.5
Sec. 9.6
Sec. 9.6
Sec. 9.6
Sec. 9.8
Sec. 9.4
Sec. 9.5
Sec. 9.5
Sec. 21.1
Sec. 21.2
Sec. 21.2
Sec. 21.2
Sec. 21.3
Sec. 21.3
Sec. 21.3
Sec. 21.4
Sec. 21.4
Sec. 21.4
Sec. 21.9
Sec. 21.9
Sec. 21.4
Sec. 21.4
Sec. 21.4
Sec. 21.4
Sec. 21.4
Sec. 21.6