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Course:
Instructor:
Date:
Supplemental Instruction
Iowa State University
Elizabeth
Biology 211
Dr. Deitloff
4/3/14
Exam 3: Chapters 15, 16, 17, 23, 24
50 multiple choice questions
Mitosis and Meiosis
1. _______________________________ is a process in which a eukaryotic cell divides to
produce two new cells that are genetically identical to the original cell
a. Meiosis I
b. Karyogomy
c. Mitotic cell division
d. Homology
2. Which of these is not part of the I phase?
a. Cytokinesis
b. G1
c. G2
d. S
3. What is the process of growth, replication, and division that produces new cells?
a. Cell Cycle
b. Meiosis
c. Mitosis
d. Karyogomy
4. Cancer is defined as a disease caused by gene mutations that lead to uncontrolled cell
growth. Which phase must not be working right if these cells are continually dividing?
a. Anaphase
b. Prophase
c. G1
d. Cytokinesis
5. In which phase of the cell cycle are chromosomes replicated?
a. G1
b. S
c. M
d. G2
6. If two chromosomes are homologous, they
a. Look similar under the microscope
b. Have very similar DNA sequences
c. Carry the same types of genes
d. All of the above
7. Which of the following is a reason for mitotic cell division?
a. Asexual reproduction
b. Gamete formation in animals
c. Multicellularity
d. Both a & c
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8. A replicated chromosome is composed of:
a. 2 homologous chromosomes held together at the mitotic spindle
b. Four sister chromatids held together at the centromere
c. Two sister chromatics held together at the centromere
d. Four homologous chromosomes held together at the centromere
9. Which of the following is not an event of anaphase of mitosis
a. Nuclear membrane breaks down
b. Sister chromatids separate
c. Kinetochore microtubules shorten, pulling chromosomes to the pole
d. All of the above occur during anaphase
10. Checkpoints during the cell cycle are important because they
a. Allow the organelle activity to catch up to cellular demands
b. Ensure the integrity of the cell’s DNA
c. Allow the cell to generate sufficient ATP for cellular divisions
d. Are the only time DNA replication can occur
11. A student is looking at cells under the microscope. The cells are from an organism that
has a diploid number of 14. In one particular case, the cell has seven replicated
chromosomes (sister chromatids) aligned at the metaphase plate of the cell. Which of the
following statements accurately describes this particular cell?
a. The cell is in metaphase of mitosis
b. The cell is in metaphase of meiosis I
c. The cell is in metaphase of meiosis II
d. Both B & C are correct
12. Which of the following statements accurately describes a difference between mitosis and
meiosis
a. Mitosis may produce diploid cells, whereas meiosis produces haploid cells
b. Homologous chromosomes form a bivalent protein complex in meiosis but not in
mitosis
c. Crossing over commonly occurs during meiosis, but not commonly during mitosis
d. All of the above are correct
13. During crossing over in meiosis I,
a. Homologous chromosomes are not altered
b. Homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material
c. Chromosomal damage occurs
d. Genetic information is lost
14. During which phase of the cell cycle does growth occur?
a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Fertilization
d. Interphase
15. Which type of cell division is responsible for the repair of your skin following a sunburn?
a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Fertilization
d. Karyogomy
16. Cytokinesis is associated with which of the following?
a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Fertilization
d. Both a & b
17. How many nuclear divisions happen during meiosis?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 4
18. Crossing over results in _____________________________________
a. Gametes
b. Cancerous growths
c. New genetic combinations
d. New species
19. In which stage does a diploid cell reduce to a haploid cell?
a. Meiosis I
b. Meiosis II
c. Mitosis I
d. Mitosis II
20. A bivalent protein complex:
a. Occurs in homologous chromosomes to ensure stability and replication
b. Occurs in homologous chromosomes to allow crossing over
c. Occurs in sister chromatids to ensure stability and replication
d. Occurs in sister chromatids to allow crossing over
21. If a cell is tetraploid (4 sets of chromosomes) what is it after mitosis?
a. Tetraploid with 8 sets of chromosomes
b. Tetraploid with 4 sets of chromosomes
c. Diploid
d. Haploid
22. If a cell is tetraploid (4 sets of chromosomes) what is it after meiosis?
a. Tetraploid with 8 sets of chromosomes
b. Tetraploid with 4 sets of chromosomes
c. Diploid
d. Haploid
23. Mitosis yields
a. 4 identical daughter cells
b. 4 non-identical daughter cells
c. 2 identical daughter cells
d. 2 non-identical daughter cells
e. None of the above
24. A human gamete contains __________ chromosomes
a. 13
b. 46
c. 23
d. 92
25. Which of the following is not a source of genetic variation in sexually reproducing
organisms?
a. Crossing over
b. Replication of DNA during the S phase
c. Independent assortment
d. Mutations
e. All of the above are sources of genetic variation
Genetics
26. Independent assortment refers to _______________________________
a. rearrangement of chromosomes during meiosis
b. rearrangement of alleles along the chromosome
c. exchange of genetic material between sister chromatids
d. survival of the sperm as they travel to the egg
27. When two genes are located on the same chromosome they are said to be
a. Homologous
b. Linked
c. Polygenic
d. Epistatic
28. Based on the ideas proposed by Morgan, which of the following statements concerning
linkage is not true?
a. Traits determined by genes located on the same chromosome are likely to be
inherited together
b. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes can create new gene
combinations
c. A crossover is more likely to occur in a region between two genes that are close
together compared to a region between two genes that are farther apart
d. The probability of crossing over depends on the distance between the genes
29. Extranuclear (cytoplasmic) inheritance occurs because
a. Certain genes are found on the X chromosome
b. Chromosomes in the nucleus may be transferred to the cytoplasm
c. Some organelles contain DNA
d. The nuclear membrane breaks down during cell division
30. In many organisms, organelles such as the mitochondria are contributed only by the egg.
This phenomenon is known as
a. Biparental inheritance
b. Paternal inheritance
c. Maternal effect
d. Maternal inheritance
31. Homologous chromosomes can exchange information and create new combinations of
alleles because of
a. Mutations
b. Phenotypes
c. Crossing over
d. Recombinations
32. Which of these organelles in a eukaryotic cell is not able to contain genetic information?
a. Chloroplast
b. Nucleus
c. Mitochondria
d. Microtubules
33. When two different traits do not follow Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment, they
are said to be
a. Dominant
b. Epistatic
c. Linked
d. Polygenic
34. Continuous phenotypic traits are caused by:
a. Mutations
b. Polygenic inheritance
c. Crossing over
d. Vertical evolution
35. In a certain species of frog, yellow eyes are dominant to grey eyes and brown spots are
dominant to purple spots. If two frogs are heterozygous for both traits mate, what
proportion of the offspring will have yellow eyes and purple spots?
a. ¼
b. 1/8
c. 3/16
d. 9/16
e. None of the above
36. Which of the following is not true about alleles?
a. Alleles are another name for sister chromatids
b. Alleles are alternate versions of genes
c. Alleles account for the variation in inherited characters
d. All of the above are true about alleles
37. What are the resulting probabilities of a cross between QQ and Qq?
a. 25% QQ and 75% Qq
b. 50% QQ and 50% Qq
c. 75% QQ and 25% Qq
d. None of the above
38. Mating red flowers with yellow flowers makes all orange flowers. This is an example of:
a. Codominance
b. Incomplete dominance
c. Complete dominance
d. Dominant and Recessive
39. Which of the following characteristics display quantitative inheritance?
a. Height
b. Hair Color
c. Number of fingers
d. A and C
e. B and A
40. In unicorns, BB results in blue manes, bb in pink manes, and the heterozygote in purple
manes. If there are 360 blue-maned unicorns in a non-evolving population of 1000, how
many pink-maned and purple-maned unicorns are there?
a. 400 pink-maned, 240 purple-maned
b. 160 pink-maned, 240 purple-maned
c. 360 pink-maned, 280 purple-maned
d. 160 pink-maned, 480 purple-maned
41. Mating a blue beetle with a green beetle results in a beetle with blue and green spots.
This is an example of:
a. Codominance
b. Incomplete dominance
c. Complete dominance
d. Dominant and Recessive
42. The F1 generation represents:
a. The first generation
b. The youngest generation
c. The offspring of the P generation
d. All of the above
43. In order to understand Mendel’s law of segregation ___ gene(s) need to be looked at
while to understand Mendel’s law of independent assortment ___ gene(s) need to be
looked at.
a. 1,2
b. 2,1
c. 1,1
d. 2,2
44. A population of kangaroos can have either orange (tt) or teal (TT or Tt) fur. A second
gene causes albinism in the homozygous recessive form by masking the orange-teal gene.
This is an example of:
a. Codominance
b. Incomplete dominance
c. Epistasis
d. Dominant and Recessive
Evolution
45. Which of these is not a developmental homology?
a. Pharyngeal slits
b. Tails in frogs
c. Hind-limb buds in snakes
d. 4 legs in tetrapods
46. Which of these is an example of microevolution?
a. Formation of a new species
b. Crossing over in Meiosis
c. Asexual reproduction
d. Cloning
47. A broad explanation for a wide range of natural phenomena is a:
a. Fact
b. Hypothesis
c. Theory
d. Elephant
48. What is the definition for all alleles for every gene in a given population?
a. Genotype
b. Population evolution
c. Species
d. Gene Pool
49. What is the Theory of Biological Evolution?
a. Changes in allele frequencies in different groups since the beginning of life has
led to the diversity of life we observe today
b. Genetic variation and natural selection has led to the diversity of life we observe
today
c. Mutations, phenotypes, and genotypes determine the diversity of life and what we
observe today
50. An individual can evolve
a. True
b. False
51. Natural selection influences the rate at which favorable mutations occur
a. True
b. False
52. Which of the following are examples of evolution that can be observed in human life
times?
a. Inset species becomes pesticide-resistant
b. Infectious disease gaining antibiotic resistance
c. The transition from wild wolves to domestic dogs
d. A & B only
e. All of the above
53. What is the smallest unit that can evolve?
a. Family
b. Individual
c. Population
d. Species
54. A localized group of individuals capable of interbreeding and producing fertile offspring
is a
a. Species
b. Family
c. Population
d. Community
55. The _____________________ species concept cannot be applied to asexual organisms
a. Biological
b. Morphological
c. Anatomical
d. Developmental
56. A group of related individuals that share a distinct form is a
a. Species
b. Population
c. Community
d. Family
57. Which of the following is not a condition for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a. Extremely large population size
b. No gene flow
c. Mutations must occur
d. No natural selection occurs
e. All of the above are conditions for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
58. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is represented by the equation: 𝑝2 + 2𝑝𝑞 + 𝑞 2 = 1.
What does the 2𝑝𝑞 term represent?
a. Homozygous dominant individuals
b. Heterozygous individuals
c. Homozygous recessive individuals
d. Both the homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive individuals
59. According to Hardy-Weinberg, 𝑝 + 𝑞 = 1
a. true
b. false
c. only true in some situations
60. What did Darwin study when developing his theory of evolution?
a. Finches beak size
b. Tropical plants leave size
c. Giant tortoises eyes
Good luck studying!!