Micro Flashcards Unit 3
1) A fungal specimen isolated from the bone marrow of a
patient with a pulmonary infection showed tuberculate
macroconidia at 30C and yeastlike cells at 36C.
Indentify the most likely dimorphic fungi with these
characteristics.
2) A yeast-like organism was isolated form a sputum
specimen. On cornmeal agar, this yeast produced
mycelia with thick-walled terminal chlamydoconidia.
This organism is most likely:
3) Thick-walled yeast cells bearing sibgle buds attached
by a broad base are observed in an aspirated clinical
specimen. The organism is most likely:
4) Crust form a cauliflower-like lesion on the hand
microscopically exhibited brown spherical bodies.
After 3 weeks incubation at room temperature, a black
mold grew on Sabouraud’s agar. Microscopic
examination revealed cladosporium, phialophora and
acrotheca sporulation. The most probable
identification is:
5) In order to prove a yeast is dimorphic, which of the
following tests is performed?
6) Antimicrobial agents that inhibit bacterial growth but
generally do not kill the organism are known as
7) Antimicrobial agents that usually kill target organisms
are said to be
8) Antimicrobial resistance resulting from the normal
genetic, structural, or physiologic state of a
microorganism is referred to as ________ resistance.
9) Antibiotic resistance resulting from altered cellular
physiologic structure caused by changes in a
microorganism’s usual genetic makeup is known as
__________ resistance.
10) Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive organism
that produces the enzyme beta-lactamase, which
renders certain types of antibiotics inactive. The mode
of action that is prevented in certain antibiotics
sensitive to this enzyme is:
11) The mechanism of acquired, high-level resistance to
vancomycin involves
12) Mycoplasmas are organisms without cell walls. Which
antimicrobial agents would be ineffective in treating
infections involving this bacterium?
Skip questions in yellow
Trichophyton mentagrophytes
Candida albicans
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Fonsecaea pedrosoi
Incubate yeast subculture at 37C
bacteriostatic
bactericidal
intrinsic
acquired
cell wall synthesis
production of altered cell wall
precursors that do not bind the
antibiotic with sufficient avidity
Penicillin
1
Micro Flashcards Unit 3
13) Klebsiella spp. were isolated from a sputum sample,
and susceptibility testing was performed. The isolates
were sensitive to several antibiotics; however, they
were resistant to ampicillin. Which one of the
following statements explains this discrepancy?
14) What is the mode of action for Vancomycin?
15) What is the mode of action for Polymyxin B?
16) What is the mode of action for Tetracycline?
17) What is the mode of action for Ciprofloxacin?
18) The primary goal of antimicrobial susceptibility
testing is to:
19) Up-to-date tables that list potential antimicrobial
agents to include in batteries for testing against
particular organisms or organism groups are published
by the:
20) The minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) result
recorded in antimicrobial testing can be defined as the:
21) A bacterial suspension of 1.5 x 108 colony-forming
units (CFUs)/mL is comparable with which standard
inoculum?
22) In the disk diffusion method of antimicrobial
susceptibility testing, what is the standard agar base
medium used for testing most bacterial organisms?
23) As a result of the organism going through several
doubling generations of growth before inhibition, a
haze of bacterial growth occurs on the agar around the
disk. This phenomenon, which should be ignored, can
be observed when testing which class of antibiotics?
24) Detection of the haze produced by some resistant
staphylococci and enterococci against methicillin and
vancomycin can best be accomplished by:
25) The minimal bactericidal concentration (MBC) test
involves:
26) The serum bactericidal test (SBT) involves:
No discrepancy is
present; Klebsiella spp. are
normally resistant to ampicillin
Cell wall synthesis inhibition
Cell membrane function inhibition
Protein synthesis inhibition
DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA)
synthesis inhibition
Determine whether the pathogen is
capable of expressing resistance to
the potential choices of
antimicrobial agents
Clinical and Laboratory Standards
Institute (CLSI).
Lowest antimicrobial agent
concentration that completely
inhibits visible bacterial growth.
0.5
Mueller-Hinton agar
Sulfonamides
Using transmitted light
99.9% reduction in CFUs/mL,
compared with the organism
concentration in the original
inoculum.
Using patient serum to detect
bacteriostatic and bactericidal
activity and the antibacterial
impact of factors other than the
antibiotics.
2
Micro Flashcards Unit 3
27) The antibiotic nitrofurantoin is effective against both
gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. This
antibiotic is effective against which type of specimen?
28) An important requirement for appropriate inoculum
preparation in susceptibility testing includes the use of
a(n):
29) In the microdilution broth dilution method, the
interpretive criteria for the susceptible, intermediate,
or resistant categories are based on the:
Urine
Pure culture
Correlations of the MIC with
serum achievable levels for the
antimicrobial agent, particular
resistance mechanisms, and
successful therapeutic outcomes.
30) The concentrations in a broth dilution test that separate Breakpoints.
the categories of susceptible, intermediate, and
resistant are called:
31) Chromogenic cephalosporins are used to test for:
production of beta-lactamase by
the infecting organism.
32) Growth on the oxacillin agar screen means that a
Vancomycin
patient should be treated with which antibiotic?
33) Staphylococcal resistance to oxacillin is used to
Cephalosporin.
determine and report resistance to:
34) Enterococcal high-level gentamicin resistance predicts Aminoglycoside.
resistance to:
35) Enterococcal resistance to ampicillin predicts
resistance to:
Cephalosporin.
36) Bactericidal tests should be performed:
For severe and life-threatening
infections
37) Daptomycin, whose mode of action is to inhibit cell
Escherichia coli
membrane function, is ineffective against which
organism?
38) Fungal Infections are generally acquired via which
Inhalation of spores
route?
39) What is an example of a Dimorphic Fungus?
Coccidoides
40) Which Phylum exhibits both a Telemorph and an
Ascomycota
Anamorph form?
41) A 16-year-old male teenager is diagnosed with a
Superficial
fungal infection of his foot, which he acquired at the
gym. This infection would most likely be classified as
a(n) ______ mycosis.
42) A 59-year-old patient with cancer who was receiving
Aspergillus
high doses of chemotherapy developed a secondary
lung infection that was identified as a fungus. The
organism disseminated, which ultimately was fatal to
the patient. The organism isolated from sputum
exhibited septate hyphae that were dichotomous. The
organism is most likely _______.
3
Micro Flashcards Unit 3
43) Blood cultures are collected from a 36-year-old paitent Isolator System
suspected of having a disseminated fungal infection.
History reveals that she was exposed to bird droppings
and may have inhaled the conidia. What is the best
blood culture system to use to ensure optimal recovery
of this pathogen?
44) The optimal temperature and length of time to
30; 21
Incubate a sample suspected of containing a
Dermatophyte is ____°C for ____ days.
45) A 29-year old patient with acquired immunodeficiency The ingredients in the
syndrome (AIDS) is suspected of having a
cycloheximde agar most likely
Cryptococcus neoformansinfection in the
inhibited the growth of the
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). A CSF specimen is
organism.
collected and set up on cycloheximide agar. In
addition an India ink stain is set up. The India ink stain
reveals encapsulated yeast; however 3 weeks later, the
cylcoheximide afar is negative. Explain the
discrepancy?
46) If a fungal colony is described as rugose, then it means Furrows radiate out from the
that the colony______
center.
47) Microscopically, this fungus apprears barrel shaped
Anthroconidia
with thick walls
48) All mold cultures and clinical samples should always
II
be handled in a Class _____ level biosafety cabinet.
49) An example of a thermally monomorphic mold is
Epidermophyton
50) A septate hyphae is microscopically observed using
Rhizopus
cotton blue. Which organism can be ruled out as the
cause of infection on the basis of this information?
51) The mode of transmission for most of the dimorphic
Inhalation
fungi is
52) What type of fungal media is ideal for the recovery of
Mycosel Agar
the organisms such as Microsporum and
Trichophyton?
53) Urea is set up for quality control purposes using two
The medium is most likely expired
Trichophyton spp. T. mentagrophytes and T. rubrum.
After the appropriate amount of incubation, both
organisms are negative. Explain the discrepancy
54) Which stain requires the use of a fluorescent
Calcofluor white
microscope?
55) A-28-year-old woman was gardening when a rose
Sporothrix schenkii
thorn pricked her finger, which later became infected.
A sample is taken of the exudate and sent to the
microbiology laboratory. Small, round, cigar-shaped
structures are microscopically observed. She is most
likely infected with which type of fungi?
4
Micro Flashcards Unit 3
56) Colonies are isolated 4 days after incubation from a
skin infection that disseminated in a burn victim. A
fungal infection is suspected. What is a possible
organism that may be identified?
57) A capsule and phenoloxidase melanin synthesis are
virulence factors contributing to the pathogenicity of
the organism _____.
58) Unbranched sporangiophores with rhizoids that appear
opposite the point where the stolon arises at the base
of the sporangiophore best describes?
59) Which genus is involved in infections of the skin and
nails only?
60) The term used to describe ringworm of the nail is:
61) The slow-growing organism Trichophyton rubrum
produces a flat or heaped-up colony, generally white
to reddish with a cottony or velvety surface. The
cherry-red color is best observed on the reverse side of
the colony. This organism is capable of infecting
which area of the body?
62) A hair perforation test is performed using
Trichophyton mentagrophytes and T. rubrum. The
expected results are:
63) Which Trichophyton spp. grows slowly (14 to 30
days) and best at 35° to 37° C? In addition, enriched
media with thiamine and inositol enhance its growth.
64) Trichophyton schoenleinii causes a condition that is
characterized by the formation of yellowish cupshaped crusts or scutulae, considerable scarring of the
scalp, and sometimes permanent alopecia. This
organism is usually recovered in _____ days.
65) Which dermatophyte usually fluoresces yellow-green
under a Wood’s lamp?
66) A fungus is recovered from a nail scrapping.
Microscopic examination reveals numerous smooth,
thin-walled, club-shaped, multiseptate macroconidia;
however, microconidia are absent. The organism can
be identified as:
67) A pulmonary fungus ball and external otomycosis and
onychomycosis are all infections caused by?
68) Which rapidly growing Aspergillus spp. (2 to 6 days)
best describes a mold that produces a fluffy-togranular, white-to–blue green colony?
69) Which organism produces mostly shades of green or
blue-green colonies? Microscopically, hyphae are
hyaline and septate and produce brushlike
conidiophores.
Fusarium
Cryptococcus neoformans
Rhizopus
Epidermophyton
Tinea unguium
Hair, skin, and nails
positive for T. mentagrophytes and
negative for T. rubrum
T. verrucosum
30
Microsporum audouinii
Epidermophyton floccosum
Aspergillus
Fumigatus
Penicillium
5
Micro Flashcards Unit 3
70) An organism was isolated after growing 26 days.
Colonial morphologic appearance revealed heaped,
wrinkled, moist, and yeastlike colonies. As the culture
aged, colonies became covered with short aerial
mycelium that turned from tan to brown. This
organism is most likely:
71) Which two assays should be used together for
detecting antibodies toward Blastomyces dermatitidis,
Histoplasma capsulatum, and Coccidioides immitis?
72) Coccidioides immitis
73) Histoplasma capsulatum
74) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
75) Penicillium marneffei
76) Sporothrix schenckii
77) Blastomyces dermatitidis
78) Mycetoma is a subcutaneous infection that involves
the lower extremities but may also occur in any part of
the body. Swelling, purplish discoloration, and
tumorlike deformities of the subcutaneous tissue are
all symptoms associated with mycetoma. Which
organism can cause this disease?
79) An agricultural worker is punctured by a tool used in
the field. An infection, characterized by the
development of a papule that is similar to a
cauliflower appearance, develops. The worker is most
likely suffering from which type of infection?
80) Macroscopic examination of granules from lesions of
mycetoma reveal them to be white to yellow and 0.2 to
2 mm in diameter. Microscopically, the granules
consist of loosely arranged, intertwined septate hyaline
hyphae cemented together. Which organism can cause
a mycetoma infection?
81) Which dematiaceous fungus causes a condition known
as chromoblastomycosis?
82) Exophiala jeanselmei causes what disease?
83) Pseudallescheria boydii causes what disease?
84) Piedraia hortae causes what disease?
85) Hortaea werneckii causes what disease?
86) Alternaria causes what disease?
87) The microscopic characteristics of Phialophora are…
P. brasiliensis
Complement fixation and
immunodiffusion
Nonbudding, thick-walled spherule
Small, round-to-oval yeast cells; 2
to 5 microns in diameter
Budding yeast resembling a
“mariner’s wheel
Yeastlike cells with internal cross
walls
Cigar-shaped yeast cells
Single bud connected to the parent
cell by broad base
Pseudallescheria boydii
Chromoblastomycosis
Pseudallescheria boydii
Phialophora spp.
Black-grain mycetoma
White-grain mycetoma
Black piedra
Tinea nigra
Sinusitis
This fundus exhibits cup- or flaskshaped collarette.
6
Micro Flashcards Unit 3
88) The microscopic characteristics of Fonsecaea are…
89) The microscopic characteristics of
Alternaria are…
90) The microscopic characteristics of Bipolaris are…
91) The microscopic characteristics of Cladosporium
are…
92) The microscopic characteristics of Culvaria are…
93) The microscopic characteristics of Exophiala are…
94) Which form is considered diagnostic in the life cycle
of Pneumocystis jirovecii?
95) The cell membrane of Pneumocystis jirovecii contains
_______ rather than _______, which differentiates it
from other fungi.
96) Which therapy has decreased the incident of
pneumocystis infection in patients with human
immunodeficiency virus or acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome (HIV/AIDS)?
97) In patients who do not have HIV, which underlying
condition is considered a risk factor for acquiring
PCP?
98) Which type of molecular assay has been developed to
identify Pneumocystis jirovecii but is not yet available
in commercial kits?
99) In general, yeast reproduce asexually by the formation
of:
100) The most commonly isolated yeast in clinical
specimens is:
101) Cryptococcus neoformans is widely distributed in
nature, and aerosolization is a prerequisite to most
infections. This organism is most often associated with
exposure to:
Conidial heads with a sympodial
arrangement of conidia exhibit
primary conidia giving rise to
secondary conidia.
Conidiophores bear a chain of
large brown conidia, resembling a
drumstick, and contain both
horizontal and longitudinal septa.
Conidiophores are bent at the
locations where conidia are
attached; conidia are sympodially
arranged and are oblong to fusoid
in shape.
Conidia are usually single celled
and exhibit prominent attachment
scars (disjunctors).
Conidia are arranged sympodially,
golden brown, multicelled, and
curved with a central swollen cell.
Feltlike, filamentous colonies
produce dematiaceous hyphae and
conidiophores that are cylindrical
and have a tapered tip.
Cyst
cholesterol; ergosterol
Highly active antiretroviral therapy
(HAART)
Cystic fibrosis
Real-time polymerase chain
reaction (PCR)
blastoconidia
Candida albicans
pigeon excreta
7
Micro Flashcards Unit 3
102) A patient with diabetes is experiencing creamy
patches on his tongue and mucous membranes.
Cultures are performed, and yeast is recovered. His
diagnosis is most likely:
103) A patient with leukemia is diagnosed with
a Candida infection after receiving several doses of
chemotherapy. The most likely yeast causing the
infection is:
104) A patient with acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome (AIDS) notices skin lesions on his back that
have begun to ulcerate. Upon physical examination,
his physician also notices hepatomegaly that is most
likely caused by hepatitis. The physician prescribes
antifungal therapy to prevent the dissemination of
which of the following yeasts?
105) A fungal infection found mostly in the tropics and
temperate regions is characterized by the development
of soft, yellow or pale-brown aggregations around hair
shafts in the axillary, facial, genital, and scalp regions.
The fungus that would most likely be isolated is:
106) Tinea versicolor is a skin infection characterized by
superficial brownish scaly areas most often on the
trunk, arms, or shoulders. Which type of replacement
therapy places patients at risk for developing this type
of skin infection?
107) Encapsulated yeast is identified in the cerebrospinal
fluid (CSF) of a patient with AIDS. The most likely
stain or reagent used to identify this organism is:
108) Agar medium overlaid with olive oil will enhance
the growth of which organism?
109) Blood cultures are drawn on a patient suspected of
having a fungemia. Positive cultures reveal the
presence of chlamydoconidia on cornmeal agar. In
addition, the yeast is germ-tube positive. The most
likely identification of the fungal agent is:
110) Determining urease activity and growth on niger
seed agar is helpful in determining which type of
yeast?
111) Which yeast identification system uses
chromogenic substrates to assess specific enzyme
activity usually detected within 4 hours?
112) If cornmeal agar is set up and chlamydoconidia are
produced, the organism is most likely:
thrush
C. tropicalis.
C. neoformans
Trichosporon.
Lipid
India ink.
Malassezia
C. albicans.
Cryptococcus neoformans
MicroScan
C. albicans.
8
Micro Flashcards Unit 3
113) Match the organisms with its characteristics in the
columns 1 - 4
Organisms
Trichosporon spp.
Candida albicans
Malassezia furfur
Cryptococcus neoformans
Characteristics
1. Polysaccharide capsule
2. Spaghetti and meatball morphologic appearance
3. White piedra
4. Creamy, white patches
114) The agency that provides documents and sets
standards for antifungal susceptibility testing is the:
115) The Reference Method for Broth Dilution
Antifungal Susceptibility Testing of Filamentous
Fungi; Approved Standard (M38-A) describes the
guidelines for antifungal susceptibility testing for
molds. The suspension must be standardized with a
spectrophotometer. Susceptibility testing is determined
by which method?
116) A patient is diagnosed with an
invasive Aspergillosis infection. The antifungal
therapy that should be administered is:
117) A patient who is positive for the human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is diagnosed with
a Cryptococcus neoformans infection. The attending
resident prescribed Griseofulvin; however, the
patient’s condition did not seem to improve. Which
one of the following statements explains this
discrepancy?
118) Know the Antifungal agent with its mode of action
a. Amphotericin B
b. Griseofulvin
c. 5-Fluorocytosine
d. Echinocandin
e. Azole
119) If a virus is referred to as naked, it means it lacks
which structure?
120) The function of the glycoprotein spike on some
viruses is to
121) Some viruses have the ability to stimulate
uncontrolled growth of the host cells, resulting in
cancer. Which virus has oncogenic properties?
3
4
2
1
Laboratory Standards Institute
(CLSI)
Microdilution
amphotericin B
Griseofulvin is not effective
against C. neoformans; therefore
the therapy should be changed
a. Alters membrane permeability
b. Binds microtubular proteins
c. Inhibits protein synthesis
d. Is a glucan synthesis inhibitor
e. Interferes with ergosterol
synthesis
Envelope
stabilize attachment for the lipid
envelope
Papilloma
9
Micro Flashcards Unit 3
122) Which type of swab is not suitable for the collection
of a viral specimen as a result of its ability to interfere
with certain tests?
123) The specimen of choice to collect in suspected
cases of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is:
124) A 2-year-old girl is suspected of having a rotavirus
infection. The specimen of choice to collect to identify
the agent is:
125) The appropriate temperature in which to store
specimens for viral isolation is ____º C.
126) Amie’s, Leibovitz-Emory, and Stuart’s are all types
of:
127) The cytomegalovirus (CMV) produces cytopathic
effects (CPE) in diploid fibroblast cells in an average
of 7 days. The results are available within 16 hours
using which type of assay?
128) Which assay is the current recommended method of
detection in most laboratories for influenzas A and B
viruses?
129) If Negri bodies are identified in brain tissue through
cytologic means, then the virus is identified as a(n):
130) The most used EIA for antigen detection that uses a
solid phase and membrane is used for detecting which
virus?
131) The enzyme-linked virus-inducible system (ELVIS)
uses a cloned beta-galactosidase gene that is expressed
only when cells are infected with what virus?
132) Which enzyme is incorporated into the master mix
in the PCR reaction?
133) To detect immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies in
an acute phase, blood should be collected in _____
days after the onset of infection.
134) From what part of the body is the Varicella zoster
virus most commonly isolated?
135) From what part of the body is Enterovirus most
commonly isolated?
136) From what part of the body is Human papilloma
virus (HPV) most commonly isolated?
137) From what part of the body is parainfluenza virus
most commonly isolated?
138) From what part of the body is CMV most
commonly isolated?
Calcium alginate
nasopharyngeal
stool
4
transport media
Shell vial
Reverse transcriptase polymerase
chain reaction (RT-PCR)
rabies virus
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
HSV
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
polymerase
7 to 14
Skin and mucous membranes
Stool
Genital
Nasopharyngeal
Urine
10
Micro Flashcards Unit 3
139) Which of the following is a property of RSV?
1. pp65 protein
2. Surface antigen
3. MRC-5 cell lines
4. p24 protein
5. Hemadsorption
6. R-Mix cells
7. HEp-2 culture cells
8. Adenovirus serotypes 40 and 41
140) Which of the following is a property of HIV?
1. pp65 protein
2. Surface antigen
3. MRC-5 cell lines
4. p24 protein
5. Hemadsorption
6. R-Mix cells
7. HEp-2 culture cells
8. Adenovirus serotypes 40 and 41
141) Which of the following is a property of CMV?
1. pp65 protein
2. Surface antigen
3. MRC-5 cell lines
4. p24 protein
5. Hemadsorption
6. R-Mix cells
7. HEp-2 culture cells
8. Adenovirus serotypes 40 and 41
142) Which of the following is a property of
Adenovirus?
1. pp65 protein
2. Surface antigen
3. MRC-5 cell lines
4. p24 protein
5. Hemadsorption
6. R-Mix cells
7. HEp-2 culture cells
8. Adenovirus serotypes 40 and 41
143) Which of the following is a property of HSV?
1. pp65 protein
2. Surface antigen
3. MRC-5 cell lines
4. p24 protein
5. Hemadsorption
6. R-Mix cells
7. HEp-2 culture cells
8. Adenovirus serotypes 40 and 41
HEp-2 culture cells
p24 protein
pp65 protein
Adenovirus serotypes 40 and 41
MRC-5 cell lines
11
Micro Flashcards Unit 3
144) Which of the following is a property of Pediatric
respiratory virus?
1. pp65 protein
2. Surface antigen
3. MRC-5 cell lines
4. p24 protein
5. Hemadsorption
6. R-Mix cells
7. HEp-2 culture cells
8. Adenovirus serotypes 40 and 41
145) Which of the following is a property of Hepatitis B
virus (HBV)?
1. pp65 protein
2. Surface antigen
3. MRC-5 cell lines
4. p24 protein
5. Hemadsorption
6. R-Mix cells
7. HEp-2 culture cells
8. Adenovirus serotypes 40 and 41
146) Which of the following is a property of Influenzas
A and B?
1. pp65 protein
2. Surface antigen
3. MRC-5 cell lines
4. p24 protein
5. Hemadsorption
6. R-Mix cells
7. HEp-2 culture cells
8. Adenovirus serotypes 40 and 41
147) Which of the following is the appropriate cell line
for HEp-2 culture cells?
1. Primary cell line
2. Diploid cell line
3. Continuous cell line
148) Which of the following is the appropriate cell line
for Monkey kidney cells?
1. Primary cell line
2. Diploid cell line
3. Continuous cell line
149) Which of the following is the appropriate cell line
for Fibroblast cells?
1. Primary cell line
2. Diploid cell line
3. Continuous cell line
R-Mix cells
Surface antigen
Hemadsorption
Continuous cell line
Primary cell line
Diploid cell line
12
Micro Flashcards Unit 3
150) Where in the body does one obtain a specimen for
Adenovirus?
151) Where in the body does one obtain a specimen for
HSV?
152) Where in the body does one obtain a specimen for
HBV?
153) Where in the body does one obtain a specimen for
Arbovirus?
154) List these six steps of viral replication in order of
appearance.
Assembly
Uncoating
Attachment
Release
Synthesis
Penetration
155) Adenoviruses are responsible for causing diseases
such as keratoconjunctivitis, pneumonia, hemorrhagic
cystitis, and gastroenteritis in children. Transmission
is usually via:
156) Lymphocytic choriomeningitis (LCM) and Lassa
fever are considered which type of virus?
157) Hantavirus classified in the Bunyaviridae family is
transmitted via:
158) A 45-year-old man living in the western United
States begins experiencing headache, fever, and body
aches, which he attributes to the flu. His symptoms,
however, become worse, and he later develops kidney
disease and acute respiratory failure. He is most likely
infected with which virus?
159) A 36-year-old woman is on a cruise ship and later
develops nausea, abdominal pain, vomiting, and
diarrhea. She is most likely suffering from which
virus?
160) Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) has
what characteristic structures when visualized under
an electron microscope?
161) One of the most pathogenic hemorrhagic fever
viruses belongs to the _________ family.
162) This hemorrhagic fever causes disease in humans
and nonhuman primates such as chimpanzees, gorillas,
and monkeys. It is identified in the laboratory using
which type of assay?
Respiratory
Vesicular
Blood
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
Attachment
Penetration
Uncoating
Synthesis
Assembly
Release
respiratory secretions
Arenavirus
rodent excreta
Hantavirus
Norovirus
Crownlike surface projections
Filoviridae
Reverse-transcriptase polymerase
chain reaction (PCR)
13
Micro Flashcards Unit 3
163) A 37-year-old man traveling through South
America has a sudden onset of fever, severe headache,
and chills. A macropapular rash develops on his trunk,
which then spreads to his face and extremities. The
vector transmitting this disease is most likely:
164) Which of the following patterns of markers is a
normal immune response after recovery from a
hepatitis B viral (HBV) infection?
165) Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase are surface
glycoproteins associated with what family of viruses?
166) The term used to describe a virus that causes a
global outbreak of serious illness of which little
natural immunity exists and that has sustained personto-person transmission is:
167) Which cell line has demonstrated a consistent
season-to-season isolation frequency of influenza
viruses?
168) A 24-year-old woman is diagnosed with human
papillomavirus (HPV) after having her annual
Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. She was not vaccinated
with the Gardasil vaccine. Which serotypes of the
virus does she need to be concerned about that
demonstrate the greatest risk for developing cervical
cancer?
169) An 8-month-old female infant is admitted to the
emergency department in respiratory distress on
Christmas Eve. A nasopharyngeal aspirate is obtained
and sent to the laboratory on ice for analysis. The most
probable organism that would be isolated is:
170) Which of the following highly contagious viruses is
a single-stranded ribonucleic acid (RNA) virus with a
helical capsid and envelope and is transmitted by
coming in contact with respiratory secretions?
171) Characteristics of which virus consist of a doublestranded genome and virions that appear as oval,
brick-shaped structures of 200 to 400 nm in length? In
addition, the World Health Organization (WHO)
eradicated this virus in 1980.
172) What is the characteristic of Yellow fever?
173) What is the characteristic of Dengue fever?
174) What is the characteristic of West Nile virus?
175) What is the characteristic of Hepatitis C?
176) What is the symptom of Herpes simplex virus
(HSV) type 1?
177) What is the symptom or disease state of HSV type
2?
mosquitos
Negative HBsAg; positive antiHBcAb; and positive anti-HBsAb
Orthomyxoviridae
pandemic
Primary monkey kidney
16 and 18
respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Measles
Smallpox
Black vomit
Macropapular rash
Fever and leucopenia
Carcinoma
cold sore
Genital lesions
14
Micro Flashcards Unit 3
178) What is the symptom or disease state of Zoster?
179) What is the symptom or disease state of Varicella?
180) What is the symptom or disease state of EpsteinBarr virus (EBV)?
181) What is the symptom or disease state of CMV?
182) What is the symptom or disease state of Human
herpesvirus (HHV) 8?
183) What is the corresponding Picornavirus for
Coxsackie A?
184) What is the corresponding Picornavirus for
Coxsackie B?
185) When performing antiviral susceptibility testing, a
standard inoculum must be used. If the inoculum
quantity is too large, then the isolate will appear:
186) Which type of assay uses a variety of endpoint
measurements to determine whether the virus is
inhibited by the antiviral drug or is demonstrating drug
resistance?
187) The recombinant virus assay (RVA) uses which
type of amplification methodology?
188) Point mutations in the hemagglutination (HA) or
neuraminidase (NA) genes during viral
ribonucleoprotein (RNP) replication give rise to new
strains. This mechanism is known as the antigenic:
189) If a physician prescribes Tamiflu to a patient, the
patient is most likely infected with which virus?
190) The only virus that has been globally eradicated is:
191) In the 1920s, an instrument known as an “iron
lung” was developed to fight breathing difficulties
associated with which infection?
192) At the end of the 2008-2009 influenza season,
100% influenza A H3N2 and the novel 2009 influenza
A H1N1 were resistant to:
193) What is true regarding phenotypic assay:
194) What is true regarding plaque:
195) What is true regarding du assay:
196) What is true regarding flow cytometry:
Shingles
Chickenpox
Burkitt lymphoma
Congenital disease
Kaposi sarcoma
Hand-foot-mouth
Myocarditis
Resistant
Phenotypic
Reverse transcription polymerase
chain reaction (RT-PCR)
Drift
Influenza
Smallpox
Poliomyelitis
Adamantane
Inhibits viral DNA synthesis
Inhibits viral plaque formation
Viable cells take up neutral red dye
Quantifies the amount of viruses
infected in cells
Detects resistance genes
197) What is true regarding genotypic susceptibility
assay:
198) What is true regarding pyrosequencing:
Quantifies sequence variation
199) The possibility of an abscess should be considered
Streptococcus anginosus
if this bacterial group is isolated in the blood:
200) Patients receiving lipid-supplemented parenteral
Malassezia furfur
nutrition are at risk for developing fungemia caused by
which organism?
15
Micro Flashcards Unit 3
201) If tachyzoites are found circulating in blood, then
the infection would be classified as a:
202) Which virus found in the blood involves infecting
certain T lymphocytes and possibly macrophages?
203) Brucella infections usually result in which type of
bacteremia?
204) A patient who has an existing heart condition has
dental surgery but neglects to inform her dentist of this
disorder. She later develops endocarditis as a
consequence of the procedure. Which of the following
organisms most likely caused endocarditis?
205) The most common portal of entry for bacteremia is:
206) A consequence of sepsis is disseminated
intravascular coagulation (DIC), which is
characterized by numerous small blood vessels
becoming clogged with clotted blood and bleeding as a
result of the depletion of coagulation factors. Although
any circulating pathogen can cause DIC, it is most
often a consequence of ________ sepsis.
207) In the case of infants and small children, how much
blood is usually drawn for bacterial culture?
208) A 26-year-old woman who has a Gardnerella
vaginalis infection becomes immunocompromised,
which causes the organism to enter the bloodstream.
She has several fever spikes; therefore blood cultures
are drawn and placed in blood culture media
containing sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS). After
5 days of incubation, the blood cultures are negative.
Which of the following statements explains this
discrepancy?
209) The BACTEC automated blood culture system
detects organisms by monitoring a rise in carbon
dioxide (CO2) levels using which type of sensor?
210) Saponin, polypropylene glycol, SPS, and
ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) are all
components in which blood culture system?
211) A 76-year-old man with intermittent fevers has
blood cultures drawn three times. The second set is
positive and grew out of aCorynebacterium spp. This
organism is considered:
212) A 36-year-old emergency medical technician
(EMT) is exposed to a patient with brucellosis. Blood
cultures are drawn from the EMT and reported as
negative after 1 week. Which of the following
statements explains this discrepancy?
parasitemia
Human immunodeficiency virus
(HIV)
Continuous
Streptococcus mutans
the genitourinary tract
gram-negative
1 to 5 mL
G. vaginalis is usually inhibited by
this anticoagulant, making
recovery difficult
Fluorescence
Lysis centrifugation system
a contaminant
The blood should have been
incubated for a minimum of 3
weeks
16
Micro Flashcards Unit 3
213) Granulicatella spp. and Abiotrophia spp. are
dependent on which nutritional additive for optimal
growth?
214) The most common etiologic agent of lower
respiratory tract infection among adults younger than
30 years of age is:
215) One of the most common etiologic agents of lower
respiratory tract infection among previously healthy
patients 2 months to 5 years of age is:
216) One of the most important uses of the Gram stain of
expectorated sputum received for routine bacteriologic
culture is to:
217) Of the various types of specimens collected to
diagnose respiratory infections, which one is
acceptable for the detection of anaerobic agents?
218) Pneumonia in children is most commonly caused
by:
219) The most common etiologic agent of communityacquired pneumonia in adults is _____ pneumoniae.
220) The nasal hairs, convoluted passages, and mucous
lining of the nasal turbinates:
221) One of the most common causes of bacterial
pneumonia in school-age children (5 to 14 years of
age) is:
222) Mycoplasma pneumoniae is detected as the most
common agent of lower respiratory tract infection
among:
223) Respiratory syncytial virus is one of the most
common etiologic agents of lower respiratory tract
infection among:
224) Adenoviruses are one of the most common etiologic
agents of lower respiratory tract infection among:
225) Evaluation of the quality of the sputum specimen
sent to the laboratory for bacterial culture is best
performed by:
226) The most common cause of community-acquired
pneumonia in adults, regardless of age, is:
227) The sputum of a patient with acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is stained with
Kinyoun carbolfuchsin stain. Which organism would
test positive using this stain?
228) Epiglottitis is a potentially life-threatening disease
because the patient’s airway can become completely
obstructed (blocked) if not treated. Which bacterium
usually causes this disease?
Vitamin B6
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
respiratory syncytial virus
evaluate the quality of the
specimen
Transtracheal aspirates (TTA)
parainfluenza virus
Streptococcus
nonspecifically protect the
respiratory tract from infection
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
adults younger than 30 years of
age
previously healthy patients 2
months to 5 years of age
previously healthy patients 2
months to 5 years of age
microscopically examining the
Gram-stained smear for squamos
epithelial cells
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Cryptosporidium spp
Haemophilus influenzae type B
17
Micro Flashcards Unit 3
229) Most cases of pharyngitis occur during the colder
months and are primarily caused by:
230) Clinical specimens from suspected cases of
epiglottitis should be plated at least to _______
agar(s).
231) An inflammation of the mucous membranes of the
oral cavity caused mostly by herpes simplex virus is:
232) An infection of the epiglottis and other soft tissues
above the vocal cords, whose presentation typically
includes fever and difficulty in swallowing because of
the pain, drooling, and respiratory obstruction with
inspiratory stridor, is:
233) Also called acute necrotizing ulcerative
gingivitis or trench mouth, which condition is a mixed
bacterial spirochetal infection of the gingival edge?
234) A relatively common illness in young children,
primarily those younger than 3 years of age, whose
presentation includes variable fever, inspiratory stridor
(difficulty in moving enough air through the larynx),
hoarseness, and a harsh, barking, nonproductive
cough, is:
235) An infection of the pharynx that is normally
called sore throat, whose presentation includes
erythematous and swollen tissue and which is
characterized by inflammatory exudates, vesicles, and
mucosal ulceration or by nasopharyngeal lymphoid
hyperplasia, is:
236) Infection of the buccal (cheek) mucosa, tongue, or
oropharynx by Candida spp. is:
237) Inflammation of the larynx that is usually
associated with the common cold or influenza
syndromes and that is caused almost exclusively by
viruses is:
238) An inflammation of the nasal mucous membrane or
lining caused mostly by viruses and characterized by
fever, increased mucous secretions, inflammatory
edema of the nasal mucosa, sneezing, and watery eyes
is:
239) Inflammation of the mucous membranes of the oral
cavity caused mostly by herpes simplex virus
240) Infection of the epiglottis and other soft tissues
above the vocal cords whose presentation typically
includes fever and difficulty swallowing because of
the pain, drooling, and respiratory obstruction with
inspiratory stridor
viruses.
sheep blood and chocolate
stomatitis.
epiglottitis
Vincent angina
laryngotracheobronchitis
pharyngitis
thrush.
laryngitis.
rhinitis.
Stomatitis
Epiglottitis
18
Micro Flashcards Unit 3
241) Mixed bacterial spirochetal infection of the gingival
edge that is also called acute necrotizing ulcerative
gingivitis or trench mouth
242) Relatively common illness in young children,
primarily those younger than 3 years of age, whose
presentation includes variable fever, inspiratory stridor
(difficulty in moving enough air through the larynx),
hoarseness, and a harsh, barking, nonproductive cough
243) Infection of the pharynx normally called sore
throat whose presentation includes erythematous and
swollen tissue and the possible observation of either
inflammatory exudates, vesicles, and mucosal
ulceration or nasopharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia
244) Infection of the buccal (cheek) mucosa, tongue, or
oropharynx by Candida spp.
245) Inflammation of the larynx usually associated with
the common cold or influenza syndromes and caused
almost exclusively by viruses
246) Inflammation of the nasal mucous membrane or
lining caused mostly by viruses and characterized by
fever, increased mucous secretions, inflammatory
edema of the nasal mucosa, sneezing, and watery eyes
247) Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, and
other viruses
248) Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, Mycoplasma
249) Haemophilus influenzae
250) Herpes simplex virus
251) Candida spp.
252) Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
Vincent angina
Laryngotracheobronchitis
Pharyngitis
Thrush
Laryngitis
Rhinitis
Rhinitis
Laryngotracheobronchitis
Epiglottitis
Stomatitis
Thrush
Vincent angina
19