KOU, FACULTY OF EDUCATION, FOREIGN LANGUAGE EDUCATION DEPARTMENT,
ELT PROGRAMME PLACEMENT TEST SECTION SAMPLE QUESTIONS
(Please note that the number of questions does not reflect the actual quantity likely to appear in
the original test and that the questions are only provided to give the test takers a general idea.)
READING
Reading I
You are going to read three extracts which are all concerned in some way with gardens. For questions 1-6,
choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the text (7 x 6 = 42 points).
GARDEN TRUST LAUNCHES A COMPETITION
… to showcase Best Garden or Allotment sites.
All sites will initially be judged on:
- the general maintenance and cleanliness of the area
- evidence of individual and/or communal composting
- provision of waste disposal for non-compostable items
In the second round, the quality of the produce will be taken into consideration. Well maintained communal
buildings will also gain points, as will evidence that wildlife is catered for with the provision of such things as
small areas of nettles for butterflies, and log piles for small mammals, frogs and toads. Sites which show a strong
community spirit and co-operation between plot-holders will go down favourably with the judges.
An additional category for this year is Best Community Project. Judges will be looking at sites which serve the
interests of the community. For example, some sites grow shared produce by groups of gardeners in order to
grow crops in a co-operative way. Other examples may be providing a place for local school pupils, or those
with special needs to learn about the joys of gardening or for growing crops for the housebound elderly. Maybe
your site has set aside an area for wildlife, and encourages the local population to come along and enjoy the
delights of your wildlife pond or sanctuary. It is essential that any project is run in conjunction with the
allotmenteers themselves, and not by a third party, the local authority etc.
All shortlisted entries receive a visit from the judges and a certificate.
STORY EXTRACT
The Garden Party
"She's got to learn," said his daughter, wrestling unsuccessfully with the three-year-old bundle of fury. "It's
Charlie's day, not hers." The child slithered out of her mother's arms and onto the scorching patio.
"Come to Grandad, little one," said Bill, but the expression on her face said that she hated the entire world and
everyone in it.
He pretended not to notice while she scaled the side of his wheelchair. The August sun forced him to squint but
he could just discern the swaying yellow blob of the bouncy castle at the end of the garden. Nearby the men
stood in a circle, cans in hand and legs apart. A tortoiseshell butterfly settled on the potted marigold.
Then with a thump she landed on his lap. She giggled, showing small white teeth, until she remembered she was
supposed to be sad.
The child kneeled up on Bill's lap - a tricky manoeuvre on the bony blanketed legs - and cupped his face with
determined little hands. "It's not fair. Why do I have to wait for my birthday and Charlie doesn't?" Bill picked off
the tomato pips and curls of hair soldered to her cheeks.
"Rotten when it's someone else's birthday, ain't it?" he said. She put her hand into his jacket pocket and
produced an apple. "I want it," she said.
Bill cut into the glossy peel with his penknife, and slowly rotated both apple and blade against each other in
perfect synchronicity. She stared at the demonstration, giving little exclamations of wonder as the peel coiled
downwards.
"I'll hold it for you, Grandad," she said solemnly, and put out both hands to catch the juicy, spiralling snake. She
wrapped it from wrist to elbow, and then held up her forearm to admire it.
"I’m going to show Charlie my bracelet,” she said.
HOMEOWNERS TURN TO GROW-YOUR-OWN
More homeowners are focusing on health by planting their own vegetable gardens this year, rejecting the rising
cost of food and fuel, and pesticide-laden produce most often found in supermarkets.
Just about every environmental group in the United States, Canada and Europe warns that store-bought produce
is loaded with petro-chemical pesticides that build up in the human body. These chemicals are being blamed for
many illnesses. Consider the following:
* Potatoes, lettuce and cucumbers have the highest concentration of pesticides, according to the United States
Department of Agriculturists’ annual crop report.
* A major study by the New York State Department of Health directly links pesticides to diabetes, now one of
the most prevalent chronic diseases in the United States.
* The environmental group Global Pesticide Campaign warns that glyphosate used in Roundup causes autoimmune deficiencies in children and the elderly.
* Purdue University warns "weed and feed" type lawn chemicals have caused bladder cancer in dogs. An Ohio
K-9 corps reports several of their dogs developed cancer after coming into contact with chemical fertilizers
around their dog pens. Consequently, the federal government is urging vets to report all cancer in animals as an
early warning sign for man.
Growing your own pesticide-free food is easy and there's nothing healthier and as good tasting as produce picked
at maturity right in your back yard. Using organic methods, follow these few simple steps.
1. In the first phase of the competition the judges are looking at
a. the amount of rubbish generated and how it is dealt with.
b. the standard of food that is harvested.
c. how far the site provides a habitat for different species.
d. the competition between neighbouring sites.
2. According to the rules, which of the following would be excluded from entering for the Best Community
Project?
a. A project where members of the public are invited to view birds or animals.
b. A project which sells its produce back to the community.
c. A project which serves vulnerable groups like children or the infirm.
d. A project that receives help from a government administration.
3. Bill ignores his granddaughter at first because
a. he is cross with her.
b. he's allowing time for her temper to subside.
c. he's busy talking to her mother.
d. he's paying more attention to his surroundings.
4. By the end of the story the child
a. is still fed up with a relative.
b. wants to eat the apple.
c. is hoping to find her mother.
d. has lost her sense of grievance.
5. According to the writer, the vets' role is important because
a. the authorities don't believe that cancer in dogs is on the increase.
b. the information vets provide can help assess the threat to humans.
c. cancers are caused by the animals' exposure to chemicals.
d. vets can diagnose cancers in animals at an early stage.
6. The writer's main purpose in the article is to
a. warn gardeners about the dangers lurking in their own back gardens.
b. explain why produce bought in the supermarket is more likely to contain chemicals.
c. question whether the government is taking action against the use of chemicals.
d. argue the case for growing food at home without the use of chemicals.
Reading II
You are going to read an extract from a book on networking and public speaking skills. Six paragraphs have
been removed from the extract. Choose from the paragraphs A-G, the one which fits each gap (1-6). There is one
extra paragraph which you do not need to use (6 x 6 = 36 points).
TALKING TO PLANTS AND APPROACHING GROUPS
In this book extract from “…and death came third!” Andy Lopata and Peter Roper show nervous
business people how to network with panache.
At networking events, I will often look to start a conversation with people who are on their own. It is much
easier than breaking into a group conversation and the chances are they won’t tell you to leave them alone and
go away. Very few people go to networking events for solitude.
1__________
When approaching these people you are already at an advantage because they will both respect your courage
(which they have probably lacked) and be grateful that you’ve taken the time and effort to relieve them from
their anxiety. They are probably just as nervous as everyone else, and they’ll be delighted to get into a
conversation with you. You’ve rescued them from walking around, avoiding interrupting other people for fear of
rejection.
2 __________
Having spoken to them, try not to leave them on their own again because you’ll just return them to the same state
as you found them. Move on with them and introduce them to someone else.
3 __________
If someone is talking and you interrupt, or ask if you can join them, people will stop listening to the person
who’s talking, and invite you into their group. That’s great for you but not so nice for the person who is talking.
Stand just on the edge of the group and wait for the appropriate time.
4 __________
Alternatively, it may be that they’re talking about something in which you have an interest, in which case, when
there’s an appropriate pause, you can just say, “Excuse me, I heard you mention so-and-so. Can I ask you a
question? Are you involved in that? And you’re in the conversation. Or it may just be that you have a pause, and
you ask “May I join you?” But it’s always best to wait for the right pause in the conversation.
5 __________
While the guidelines above are important, you need to be aware of the body language of people talking to each
other and networking events. Whether in couples or groups, people will always send very clear signals about
approachability by the way they are standing.
6 __________
Reading this body language may mean that you are better advised approaching two people rather than a group.
A. The one thing I try to avoid is approaching two people who are in discussion. If you see two people talking
together, they may be building a rapport and interruption may break that. Alternatively, they may be
discussing business.
B. The easiest way to approach a group is to catch the eye of one of the participants and smile. Usually they
should invite you to join them at the appropriate juncture.
C. The other advantage of this is that your companion, in introducing you, may well talk about how you’ve
helped them, how great you are at what you do or praise you in another way that you would not have been
able to do. This will awaken a greater interest in you from the new contact than may otherwise have been
possible.
D. You can often find these people around a bar or buffet table (they’ve probably read the advice above!) or
by the walls. Nervous people on their own seldom stand in the middle of a room unless they are milling
around trying to pluck up the courage to approach someone. Often they will be admiring the art on the walls
or the flora in the room, which gives you a nice topic with which to start a conversation.
E. When you do approach them, take care not to dive in aggressively but be empathetic to their nervous state.
Ask them if they mind if you join them before introducing yourself, rather than running up asking “So, what
do you do then?”
F. If you see a group of people talking, approach the group, but don’t butt in. Remember, as Susan Roane says
in How to Work a Room, “There is a difference between including yourself in other people’s conversations
and intruding on them.”
G. If their body language is ‘closed’, and they are facing each other, you should avoid interrupting them. If
they are more ‘open’ and they are standing at an angle that leaves room for another party in the conversation,
you are likely to be more welcome.
Answers
Reading I
1.a 2. d 3. b 4.d 5.b 6.d
Reading II
1.d 2.e 3.f 4.b 5.a 6.g
GRAMMAR
A.Circle the letter of the correct option.
1. With few exceptions, most totalitarian governments ------- more liberal since 1989 when
the Berlin Wall ----.
A) became / falls
B) are becoming / would fall
C) were becoming / has fallen
D) had become / was falling
E) have become / fell
2. If things ---- according to plan, the book ---- by this time next year.
A) go / will have been published
B) have gone / would have been published
C) went / was to be published
D) were going / has been published
E) will go / will be published
3. A letterbox is a narrow opening in a door through ………………. mail is delivered.
A) it
B) that
C) which
D) where
E) ------4. ---- Windsor Castle, occupying ---- area of 287 hectares, is among the most beautiful royal
residences in Europe.
A) The / an
B) This / such an
C) An / the
D) The most / such
5. I really think apologizing is ………….. you can do.
A) not as much as
B) a little
C) the least
D) as far as
6. She regretted arguing with her mother.
She wishes……………………………………………………….
7. The last time I saw Paris was three years ago.
I haven’t ………………………………………………………..
E) further
E) That / Some
B.Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only one word
in each gap,
Lake Titicaca, often known as the ‘holy lake’, is situated in South America on the border between
Bolivia and Peru. The lives of the people (1)
tools and pottery have (2)
on its shores have long remained a mystery. However, scientists taking (3)
exploration project at the lake have found what they believe to (4)
found
in an
a 1000-year-old temple
under the water. Divers from the expedition have discovered a 200-metre-long, 50-metre-wide
building surrounded by a terrace for crops, a road and a wall. It is thought that the remains
(5)
those of a temple built by the Tihuanacu people who lived beside Lake Titicaca before
it became a part (6)
the much later Incan empire.
‘The scientists have not yet had time to analyse the material sufficiently,’ says project director, Soraya
Aubi. ‘But some have (7)
forward the idea that the remains date from this period
(8)
to the fact that there are very similar ones elsewhere.’ The expedition has so
(9)
this year made more than 200 dives into water 30 metres deep (10)
to record the ancient remains on film. The film, (11)
(12)
order
will later be studied in detail,
well provide important information about the region.
SPEAKING TEST
The test is taken with two instructors and another student. Students are taken into the rooms in
pairs. They are expected to be able to respond to questions and to interact in conversational
English. Instructors give a global assessment of each student’s oral proficiency. Throughout
the test students are assessed on their own individual performance. They are awarded marks
for a variety of criteria by two examiners. Here are some sample questions that are highly
likely to appear on your test:
1. How do you think computers have changed the world? What do you usually do on the
internet? Do you do any shopping o the internet?
2. Do you have any uique talents, skills or hobbies? If so, how did you discover your talent or
your interest? Did you ever take classes?
3. How did you react when you got accepted into Kocaeli University?
4. What was the most interesting place you’ve ever visited?
5. What would you do if you won the lottery?
6. Tell us about someone you admire. What do you admire about that person?
LISTENING
A. Listen to the recording. Read the statements. Write T (true) or F (false).
_____ 1. The first thing the authors look at is our messy homes.
_____ 2. A neat home can be more impersonal than a messy home.
_____ 3. Johann Sebastian Bach is an example of a messy yet creative person.
_____ 4. Bach was willing to make changes in the way he played his music.
B.Listen to the recording again. Why is the detail important? Choose A or B.
5. The book argues that a messy desk can help you find things because they’re right out in the
open.
A. It provides a reason for the main idea.
B. It rephrases the main idea.
6. A home full of photos, personal items, and pieces of clothing strewn about shows others who
we truly are.
A. It repeats the main idea.
B. It gives specific information to support the main idea.
7. It seems that not only are messy people more successful than neat people, they tend to be
more creative and open-minded.
A. It rephrases the main idea.
B. It provides new information that supports the main idea.
B. unstressed
C: Imagine you are starting a business course at a college in the United States. Listen to the
college professor and write T(true) or F (false) for each statement as in the example.
…….……
e.g. There are five written assignments.
17) Some assignments can be handed in late
…… ……
18) There are two exams.
…… ……
19) Students have to do a 20-minute oral report.
…… ……
20) There are 25 classes.
…… ……
21) It is possible for all students to get an A.
…… ……
D. James is buying a DVD recorder. Listen and tick
mentions
which extra services the assistant
Special payment terms
(
)
An accessory at a reduced price
(
)
An extended warranty
(
)
Delivery
(
)
After-sales technical support
(
)
Installation and demonstration
(
)
WRITING
Choose one of the following topics. Write an essay (introduction, 2 to 3 body paragraphs, conclusion)
to respond to this topic. Your response will be evaluated based on its organization and development,
content, accuracy, and clarity.
Topic 1:
Many students choose to attend schools or universities outside their home countries. Why do some
students study abroad? Use specific reasons and details to explain your answer.
Topic 2:
Some famous athletes and entertainers earn millions of dollars every year. Do you think these people
deserve such high salaries? Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.
WRITING ASSESSMENT CRITERIA
OVERALL WRITING OBJECTIVES



Can write straightforward connected text on a wide range of familiar topics related to
this field of interest by linking a series of shorter discrete elements into a linear
sequence.
Can convey straightforward information through a written text to fulfill a specific
purpose.
Can write accounts of experiences and events, describing feelings and reactions in
simple connected text.

5
4
3
Organization
Is well-organized
according to the
directions; each
paragraph has a
specific purpose
(introduction, one
focus per body
paragraph,
conclusion)
Is organized
according to the
directions; each
paragraph has a
focus
Development
The introduction includes a
thesis statement that guides
the whole essay; body
paragraphs build on each
other and contain wellselected examples and details;
the conclusion wraps up,
summarizes or evaluates the
thesis of the essay
The introduction has a thesis
statement; body paragraphs
generally build on each other
and have some explanations
and details; the conclusion
summarizes or restates the
point of the essay
Accuracy
Uses a wide range of
appropriate grammatical
structures; employs the
use of transitional phrases
when necessary;
grammatical errors are
few or non-existent
Is organized, but
deviates slightly
from the
directions;
paragraphs may or
may not have a
clear focus
There may not be a clear
thesis statement; body
paragraphs may lack focus but
are generally cohesive; the
conclusion merely restates the
introduction
Uses a few grammatical
structures; may or may
not include transitional
phrases; may have some
major grammatical errors
(run-on sentences, tenses,
subject-verb agreement)
Uses a variety of
grammatical structures;
includes some transitional
phrases; grammatical
errors do not hamper
understanding
Clarity
Uses varied and
appropriate vocabulary
to explain her/his
response to the topic;
displays a high level of
lexical maturity; the
words chosen leave little
to no room for
misunderstanding
Uses varied and
appropriate vocabulary
to explain her/his
response to the topic;
displays some lexical
maturity; the words
chosen leave little room
for misunderstanding
Uses appropriate but
relatively basic
vocabulary to explain
her/his response to the
topic; word choice
generally leaves little
room for
misunderstanding
2
Disorganized, or
deviates
significantly from
the directions
1
Completely
disorganized
0
The essay is
illegible,
unreadable, or
does not respond
to either of the
two topic choices.
No thesis statement; body
paragraphs lack focus and
details; conclusion does not
differ in function from a body
paragraph
No paragraph seems to serve
any clear purpose, nor does
each subsequent paragraph
build off of the previous one
Grammar is very
elementary and includes
major errors; transitions
are inconsistent or not
present
Grammar is extremely
problematic and mostly
incorrect
Vocabulary is basic; may
leave room for
misunderstanding
Vocabulary is either
inappropriate, incorrect,
or very elementary