The Unit Test that is Evolving Name________________________ True/False - Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false. ____ 1. Evolution of a species occurs when natural selection acts upon the genetic variation in an individual. ____ 2. Not all evolutionary changes are the result of natural selection. ____ 3. Hardy and Weinberg used mathematical reasoning to explain that in large populations where only chance is at work, allele frequencies tend todrift. ____ 4. Sympatric speciation may occur after members of an original species become geographically isolated from each other. ____ 5. A species undergoes co-evolution when its evolutionary success is closely linked with that of another species. ____ 6. Adaptive radiation has a negative impact on biodiversity. ____ 7. An example of a group of key biological molecules is carbohydrates. ____ 8. Endosymbiosis is the process by which eukaryotic cells may have evolved to contain mitochondria ____ 9. Homologous structures, like the hip bones in whales, show the evolutionary link between these sea mammals and land mammals. ____ 10. A heterozygous individual has two identical alleles for a given trait ____ 11. Genetic drift may occur following a mass extinction caused by a natural disaster, for example. ____ 12. The founder-effect can lead to evolution if a small number of individuals with different allele frequencies from the initial population establish a new population, on an island for example. ____ 13. A risk factor that may be associated with sexual selection of traits is increased predation. Multiple Choice - Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 14. Darwin believed that evolution took place: a. In small bursts b. Gradually in small steps c. Only in the distant past d. Through use and disuse of traits e. Through the appearance of radically new types ____ 15. An individual's fitness is a. The ratio of body fat to muscle weight b. The ability of that individual to survive to reproductive age c. The probability that that individual will have 2 or more offspring d. The probability that an individual will contribute its genes to the next generation e. The probability that an individual will win an evolutionary arms race ____ 16. A population of giraffes lives in an area where the only food grows on high tree branches. Over many generations, these giraffes develop long necks to reach the branches. This is an example of: a. Directional selection d. Sexual selection b. Stabilizing selection e. Artificial selection c. Divergent selection ____ 17. A natural population of plants has greatly varying flower height. Over many generations more and more plants have flowers of medium height, while there are very few with very short or very tall flowers. What type of selection has acted here? a. Directional selection d. Sexual selection b. Stabilizing selection e. Artificial selection c. Divergent selection ____ 18. I believe that if I train for barefoot running, train my muscles to support my foot arch and stabilize my ankle I will encourage the natural selection of traits of a strong runner, much like our foraging ancestors. Who am I thinking most like? a. Darwin b. Lamarck c. A wishful thinker ____ 19. The elaborate tail plumage of peacocks was developed through what type of selection? a. Directional selection d. Sexual selection b. Stabilizing selection e. Artificial selection c. Divergent selection ____ 20. A population of snails lives near a large factory. Close to the factory, the ground and air are several degrees warmer due to hot air exhausted from the building. Because of this, snails that live near the building breed in early May while those farther away from the building do not breed until June. What type of reproductive isolation is this? a. Temporal b. Habitat c. Gametic d. Mechanical e. Behavioural ____ 21. The creation of several new species from a single parent species is called: a. Directional selection d. Polyploidy b. Adaptive radiation e. Artificial selection c. Divergent selection ____ 22. When great distance or a physical barrier prevents two populations from interbreeding, they are experiencing: a. Directional selection d. Allopatric speciation b. Adaptive radiation e. Post-zygotic isolation c. Sympatric speciation ____ 23. Which of the following is NOT a problem commonly found in hybrid offspring? a. Dispersal d. Abnormal development b. Reduced fertility e. Increased mortality c. Increased frailty ____ 24. A male salamander disperses its sperm on a female salamander’s eggs. Although the salamanders look very similar, no eggs hatch. This likely means that they are: a. Temporally isolated d. Gametically isolated b. Behaviorally isolated e. Pre-zygotically isolated c. Geographically isolated ____ 25. Which of the following is NOT a condition of Hardy-Weinberg principle? a. No mutation d. Random mating b. Large population e. None of these c. No immigration ____ 26. If selection occurs, what can you always expect to happen to the allelic frequencies within a population? a. They will change from one generation to the next b. They will stay the same from one generation to the next c. They will become even for all alleles d. They will decrease ____ 27. The rapid evolution of offense and defense in predator-prey relationships is called: a. Sexual selection d. Directional selection b. An evolutionary arms race e. Stabilizing selection c. Divergent selection ____ 28. Great Danes (a very large dog) and Chihuahuas (a very small dog) are both descended from wild breeds of dogs, but can no longer interbreed. This is due to: a. Habitat isolations d. Behavioural isolation b. Gametic isolations e. Mechanical isolation c. Post-zygotic isolation ____ 29. Abiogenesis is: a. The theory that proposes that life originated from nonliving matter. b. The theory that proposes that life originated from materials that came to Earth from space. c. A protein that forms when amino acids link together. d. A self-replicating RNA molecule e. A spherical lipid molecule ____ 30. Which of the following best indicates that speciation has occurred? a. Appearance of different colour features b. High mutation rate and low variability c. Individuals are located on an island far from the mainland d. Two groups overlap geographically and do not interbreed e. A population stabilizes ____ 31. Organisms that have existed relatively unchanged for several million years are usually which of the following? a. Have long life spans b. Are found in stable environments c. Are top carnivores with few enemies d. Produce enormous numbers of offspring e. Become extinct ____ 32. A species of flying squirrel inhabited an island. Ashes from a nearby volcano killed much of the vegetation, including all the trees. A few squirrels survived. Recently the squirrels were reported to be abundant, living among the rocks and shrubs now covering the island. In the present population, the "flight membranes" are mostly too small to be functional. The most probable explanation for this change is which of the following? a. a new type of squirrel was introduced to the island b. natural selection no longer favoured those who could fly c. the squirrels had no chance to fly so the membranes shrivelled d. young squirrels were not taught to fly by their parents, so the membranes did not develop e. all the squirrels that could fly left the island ____ 33. The term genotype frequency is defined as of which of the following? a. the proportion of gene copies in a population of a given allele b. the total of all alleles within a species in a given location c. a gene that has only a single type of allele d. the proportion of gene pairs (homozygous dominant, homozygous,recessive, or heterozygous) in a group or population e. the total of all individuals of the same species living in the same region ____ 34. The term phenotype is defined as which of the following? a. the complete set of DNA sequences in an organism b. the set of all alleles possessed by an individual organism c. observable traits that are formed by the interaction of genes and the environment d. individuals with three or more complete sets of chromosomes e. the total of all alleles within a population ___ 35. If the parents of a genetic cross are SS and ss, then the F will be 1 a. 1/4 SS, 1/2 Ss, and 1/4 ss. c. 1/2 Ss and 1/2 SS. b. all Ss. d. 1/2 ss and 1/2 Ss. Short Answer – Choose 3 of the 5 questions to answer. There is also choice in some of the questions, read and choose carefully and be clear about your choice in your answer. Answer on a separate sheet. 36. Choose 2 types of selection, define them and explain under what conditions each might occur. Give examples. 37. Explain what is meant by either“prezygotic isolating mechanisms” or “postzygotic isolating mechanisms.” For the term you choose, when/how is this term used and include an example to demonstrate the isolating mechanisms. 38. Explain what is meant by sexual selection. Evolutionarily speaking, how could it be both good and bad? 39. Explain how the “primordial soup” which describes ancient earth as basically rock, water and elements, could have given rise to a prokaryotic cell. 40. Explain the theory on how a membrane bound nucleus and membrane bound organelles evolved. Long Answer – everyone answers #41, then choose one more to answer (answer all on a separate sheet). 41. Some people argue against the process of evolution however there is scientific evidence that supports evolution. Explain the process of evolution and evidence that supports it. Choose 1 of the following questions to answer. 42. Is it possible that humans are still evolving? Use a specific example in your explanation. 43. Why does sexual reproduction play such an important role in evolution? Consider using a Punnett square to support your answer. 44. Explain fully how something as perfect as the human eye could simply come about through evolution? 45. Our knowledge of how things evolve can be used to benefit others. Using a specific example (like how HIV evolves) explain how we can use our knowledge of how things evolve to help ourselves or other living organisms.