230 – Comprehensive Exam (A)
1. The cultural theme of sex-for-procreation
A) is supported by the authors.
B) has its roots in Buddhist religious philosophy.
C) may devalue sexual behaviors other than intercourse.
D) may result in men feeling pressure to be "active" and women feeling pressure to be
"passive".
2. A man who feels his sex life has ended because he is no longer able to get an erection is a
victim of
A) rigid gender-role conditioning.
B) imposed celibacy.
C) sociobiological conditioning.
D) the sex-for-procreation legacy.
3. The sex for procreation legacy is most clearly shown in which of the following statements?
A) Jorge believes that foreplay is an essential part of a sexual encounter.
B) Midori thinks she is still a virgin because she has not yet had intercourse, although she
has engaged in oral sex and mutual masturbation.
C) Sheila likes to initiate sexual activity with her partner.
D) Mike enjoys masturbating and does not feel guilty about it.
4. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the effects of rigid gender-role conditioning?
A) As a result of having prostate surgery, a man is no longer able to get erections, so he
becomes celibate.
B) A man prefers to have his partner initiate and be sexually aggressive with him, but he
hesitates to tell her this for fear of her rejection.
C) A woman prefers the manual stimulation of her partner to having intercourse, and he
thinks this is abnormal.
D) A woman would like to spend some intimate time with her partner just touching and
kissing, but he refuses to do this unless it culminates in intercourse.
5. Which of the following would be a negative consequence of the belief that penile-vaginal
intercourse is the primary definition of sex?
A) It perpetuates the notion that sexual response and orgasm are supposed to occur during
penetration.
B) It excludes certain groups (e.g. gays and lesbians) from the definition.
C) It devalues other forms of sexual behavior.
D) All of the above.
6. Which one is true concerning "sex manuals"?
A) They originated in early Greece.
B) An early Hindu sex manual was called the Kama Sutra.
C) They originated after the invention of the printing press.
D) They are a very modern phenomenon.
7. With respect to Internet usage all but which one is occurring now?
A) There are dating services and personal ads to determine if you wish to meet face to face.
B) By paying a small fee you can go to many sites where people are guaranteed accurate
information as to the gender and age of correspondents.
C) It is possible to have on-line extramarital affairs.
D) There are bulletin boards for transsexuals.
8. With respect to Internet usage and sexuality, which is the most true?
A) Good research has not as yet been done in this area although it is needed.
B) Data has not found this to be a problem for people's lives.
C) Sites that show such things as sexual acts are banned from most college campuses.
D) The information available on the Internet ranges from explicit interactive pornography to
research-based educational material.
9. Which of the following advances in technology lead to the possibility of "remote controlled
sex"?
A) the internet
B) pda's, cell phones, iPods
C) animated computer graphics
D) wider access to broadband connections
E) all of the above
10. Whose pioneering studies after World War II helped lead to a greater acceptance of a variety
of sexual behaviors?
A) Kinsey
B) Freud
C) Moser
D) Erikson
11. Which of the following contraceptives became available during the 1960's?
A) oral contraceptive pills
B) the IUD
C) spermicides
D) all of the above
12. A science writer hears of a 35 year old male who lost his penis at circumcision. He
interviews all family members, reads medical records, and writes a book about this. This is most
likely an example of which of the following?
A) the case study
B) the survey method
C) direct observation
D) follow-up to an experimental intervention
13. Which of the following research methods allows us to draw cause-and-effect conclusions?
A) experiments
B) questionnaires
C) case studies
D) cross-sectional studies
14. Most of our scientific information about human sexuality has been obtained through
A) case studies.
B) surveys.
C) direct observation.
D) experimental research.
15. In order to generalize accurately, it is important to survey a ____ sample of cases.
A) self-selected
B) target
C) representative
D) diverse
16. The degree to which research data may be biased as a result of the differences in the people
who choose to participate in a study as opposed to those who do not is called
A) the bystander effect.
B) self-selection.
C) demographic bias.
D) ethnocentrism.
17. Kinsey and his associates obtained their data by means of
A) direct observation.
B) case studies.
C) experimental research.
D) survey interviews.
18. Which of the following statements regarding Kinsey's research is true?
A) Approximately two thousand men and women were included in the final subject
population.
B) The study population was a representative sample of the American population at the time.
C) He published one report on male sexuality and another one on female sexuality.
D) He used a variety of research methods to obtain his data.
19. Survey studies of various populations of men have indicated that exposure to sexually violent
pornography may lead to all of the following except
A) reduced sensitivity to rape victims.
B) increased tolerance of sexually aggressive behavior.
C) greater acceptance of the myth that women want to be raped.
D) increased arousal (as measured physiologically) in nonviolent sexual encounters.
20. The book Human Sexual Response was written by
A) Alfred Kinsey.
B) Masters and Johnson.
C) John Bancroft.
D) Dr. Ruth.
21. The majority of preoperative transsexuals would describe their sexual orientation as
A) heterosexual.
B) homosexual.
C) bisexual.
D) asexual.
22. Alex feels that making sure he and his wife have good sex is his "job," planning when and
where, making sure they both enjoy it, etc. Despite his concerns, his wife has been reluctant to
assume a more active role in their sexual relationship. This couple is a victim of which of the
following gender assumptions?
A) women as undersexed, men as oversexed
B) men as strong, women as supportive
C) men as "sexperts"
D) women as controllers, men as movers
23. Each of the following is a suggestion related to doing a female genital self-exam except
A) Do it on a regular basis.
B) Use a hand mirror to look at your genitals.
C) As you proceed, be aware of your feelings regarding your genital anatomy.
D) After the visual exam, masturbate to orgasm.
24. Which of the following statements regarding the clitoris is false?
A) It has approximately the same number of nerve endings as the head of the penis.
B) The only purpose of the clitoris is sexual arousal.
C) Clitoral stimulation is the most common way women produce arousal and orgasm during
self-stimulation.
D) It is located within the introitus.
25. Which of the following would have the fewest number of nerve endings?
A) the vaginal opening
B) the inner two-thirds of the vagina
C) the clitoris
D) the labia minora
26. All of the following stimuli cause the scrotum to draw closer to the body except
A) sexual arousal.
B) warm temperatures.
C) sudden fear.
D) stroking the inner thighs.
27. Which of the following courses does a sperm cell follow on its way to the exterior body of
the male?
A) testes, epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles, urethra
B) vas deferens, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, urethra
C) testes, vas deferens, seminal vesicles, epididymis, urethra
D) testes, vas deferens, urethra, epididymis
28. For which of the following conditions would regular genital self-examination be most
beneficial?
A) testicular cancer
B) cryptorchidism
C) priapism
D) phimosis
29. The major portion of seminal fluid comes from the
A) prostate gland.
B) Cowper's glands.
C) vas deferens.
D) seminal vesicles.
30. The Cowper's glands secrete a fluid when a man becomes sexually aroused
A) that is acidic in nature.
B) that may contain active sperm.
C) that functions as a vaginal lubricant during intercourse.
D) that is released during the emission phase of ejaculation.
31. Sperm comprise approximately ____ percent of total semen volume.
A) 1%
B) 10%
C) 46%
D) about 63%
32. In ____, semen is expelled into the bladder.
A) spermatogenesis
B) retrograde ejaculation
C) penile inhibition
D) seminal retraction
33. Brian is having surgery performed which involves making an incision at the base of his penis
and severing the ligaments that attach the root to the pelvic bone. Brian is most likely having this
surgery performed for which of the following reasons?
A) To treat penile cancer.
B) To treat testicular cancer.
C) To treat phimosis.
D) To cosmetically augment his penis size.
34. For an uncircumcised male, retracting the foreskin and practicing daily hygiene can help
avoid the problem of
A) coronal eczema.
B) prostatitis.
C) smegma build-up.
D) phimosis.
35. DRE and PSA are screening tests for
A) testicular cancer.
B) prostate cancer.
C) penile cancer.
D) fertility.
36. In one research study, many women reported that their male partner's silence during sex play
____ their own sexual arousal.
A) heightened
B) inhibited
C) did not affect
D) Women responded in all of the ways described above; no one particular pattern
predominated.
37. What are the three phases of sexual response, in order, in Kaplan's model?
A) desire, plateau, excitement
B) excitement, desire, orgasm
C) orgasm, desire, excitement
D) desire, excitement, orgasm
38. Gwyneth has experienced decreased sexual desire over the past year. This could be explained
by any one of the following except
A) she uses birth control pills as her method of contraception.
B) she has been taking antidepressant medication.
C) she smokes high nicotine cigarettes.
D) she ingests Libido on a regular basis.
39. The correct order of Masters and Johnson's model is
A) plateau, excitement, orgasm, resolution.
B) excitement, orgasm, plateau, resolution.
C) excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution.
D) excitement, orgasm, resolution, plateau.
40. Which of the following is the best example of vasocongestion?
A) uterine contractions
B) erection of the penis
C) clitoral retraction
D) muscular spasms during orgasm
41. Research indicates that when men and women are asked to write their subjective descriptions
of orgasm,
A) women's responses are distinguished by the intense imagery they use to describe their
experiences.
B) men's responses are distinguished by the graphic way in which they describe their
physical sensations.
C) women's responses are distinguished by the graphic way in which they describe their
physical sensations.
D) male and female descriptions are, on the whole, indistinguishable.
42. Which of the following statements concerning the Grafenberg spot is true?
A) When this area is stimulated, some women ejaculate a fluid that is chemically similar to
male prostate secretions.
B) The erotic significance of this area was first discussed in the medical literature at the end
of the 19th century.
C) It is an area approximately the size of a dime, located on the cervix.
D) Very gentle stimulation of the area should be used in order for a woman to respond.
43. All of the following are physiosexual changes that occur in the excitement phase of the aging
female except
A) the uterus ceases to elevate.
B) the vaginal blood-volume increase is smaller.
C) the vagina mucosa becomes thinner.
D) the ability of the inner vagina to expand is diminished.
44. A woman in her mid-seventies is extremely sexually active. Based on what is known about
sexuality and older women, which of the following inferences could most likely be made?
A) The woman must be engaging in sexual behavior other than intercourse, because vaginal
atrophy as a result of the aging process would have occurred by now.
B) The woman was probably not very sexually active when she was younger, and so she is
compensating for that now.
C) The woman has probably been sexually active on a regular basis for many years.
D) This behavior is probably the result of a hormonal abnormality.
45. Which of the following statements concerning the orgasm phase in the aging male is false?
A) Sensations of ejaculatory inevitability become more intense.
B) The number of muscular contractions during orgasm is reduced.
C) Orgasm may be less intense.
D) The force of ejaculation is reduced.
46. Which of the following masturbatory techniques is least common among women?
A) inserting a finger or penis-shaped object into the vagina
B) stroking the mons or clitoris
C) pressing the thighs together and tensing the pelvic floor muscles
D) thrusting the clitoral area against a pillow
47. Because the vulval tissue is delicate and sensitive it is important to do which of the following
during sexual activity?
A) If there is not enough natural lubrication present to make the vulva slippery, abstain from
sex until there is.
B) If there is not enough natural lubrication, douching on a regular basis will help.
C) If there is not enough natural lubrication present use a water-based lubricant to prevent
irritation.
D) Be sure to shower immediately after sexual activity to wash away any bacteria left by
vaginal secretions.
48. ____ is to penis as ____ is to vulva.
A) Penilingus; cunnilingus
B) Fellatio; vulvalingus
C) Penilingus; vulvalingus;
D) Fellatio; cunnilingus
49. Which of the following statements concerning anal stimulation is false?
A) It is possible for a woman to experience orgasm during anal intercourse.
B) Oral stimulation of the anus is a high-risk behavior.
C) A lubricant should always be used with anal intercourse.
D) For women, the risk of contracting the AIDS virus through unprotected anal intercourse
is the same as the risk through unprotected vaginal intercourse.
50. For heterosexual couples who practice anal intercourse, which of the following
recommendations would be most helpful?
A) If planning to have vaginal intercourse as well, do it prior to having anal intercourse.
B) Practice analingus prior to penetration.
C) Use a good lubricant such as Vaseline.
D) Contract the sphincter prior to penetration for ease of insertion.
51. Of the following, which is the least effective birth control method when used correctly and
consistently?
A) diaphragm and spermicide
B) estrogen-progestin pills
C) male condom
D) Depo-Provera
52. Under which of the following circumstances should a backup method of contraception be
used?
A) During the first cycle of the pill.
B) When taking medications such as antibiotics.
C) When first learning to use a new method of birth control.
D) All of the above.
53. Seasonale is designed to
A) make oral contraceptive use easier.
B) alter hormone levels on a constant basis.
C) reduce the number of menstrual periods from 13 to 4 per year.
D) lower estrogen levels.
54. Both the vaginal ring and the transdermal patch work by
A) irritating the cervix.
B) slowly releasing hormones into the bloodstream.
C) staying in place for up to six months.
D) blocking the cervix.
55. Depo-Provera
A) is an injectable contraceptive that needs to be given once every 12 weeks.
B) is implanted in a woman's arm and is effective for three years.
C) is taken orally on a daily basis.
D) is inserted into a woman's vagina.
56. All of the following medications reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives except
A) ibuprofen.
B) St. John's Wort.
C) ampicillin.
D) tetracycline.
57. Which of the following statements regarding condoms is false?
A) For some men, the diminished sensation associated with condom use is preferred because
it delays ejaculation.
B) Vegetable oil is a good alternative lubricant if water-based lubricant is not available.
C) Nonlubricated condoms can be used for protection from infection during fellatio.
D) Some people are allergic to latex condoms.
58. The "Ask Me" campaign initiated by the American College of Obstetricians and
Gynecologists advises women to
A) avoid using emergency contraception because of its health risks.
B) obtain an advance prescription for emergency contraception.
C) use IUDs rather than emergency contraceptive pills.
D) have abortions rather than use the morning after pill.
59. All of the following contribute to the effectiveness of the IUD except
A) the copper in one type of IUD.
B) the barrier that is created when the IUD is inserted in the cervical os.
C) the progesterone in one type of IUD.
D) the irritation that occurs in the uterus, making implantation unlikely.
60. Two of the danger signs for IUD users, associated with the acronym PAINS, is
A) stroke or high blood pressure.
B) severe headaches or vomiting.
C) pain at ovulation or early menstrual period.
D) nasty discharge or abdominal pain.
61. At what age does a woman's fertility typically peak?
A) 17  18 years
B) 20  24 years
C) 25  30 years
D) after the age of 30
62. When the quality or quantity of semen is poor ____ might be a good alternate to conventional
conception.
A) IVF
B) GIFT
C) ICSI
D) ZIFT
63. A method called ____ attempts to facilitate implantation by placing the fertilized egg in the
fallopian tube.
A) ZIFT (zygote intrafallopian transfer)
B) IVF (in vitro fertilization)
C) artificial insemination
D) GIFT (gamete intrafallopian transfer)
64. All of the following may indicate a woman is pregnant except
A) breast tenderness.
B) nausea and vomiting.
C) human chorionic gonadotropin in blood test.
D) the presence of HGH in a blood test.
65. Sensitive blood tests for HCG can detect pregnancy as early as ____ after conception.
A) 24 hours
B) two days
C) one week
D) three weeks
66. Most research shows that there is
A) a progressive decline in sexual interest and activity over the nine months of pregnancy.
B) a progressive increase in sexual interest and activity over the nine months of pregnancy.
C) a progressive decline in sexual interest and activity until the third trimester, at which time
there is a dramatic increase.
D) little change in sexual interest or activity over the nine months of pregnancy.
67. In pregnancies with no risk factors, sexual activity and orgasm may continue
A) through the sixth month of pregnancy.
B) through the seventh month of pregnancy.
C) through the eighth month of pregnancy.
D) as desired until labor begins.
68. Which of the following was NOT discussed as an indicator of the first stage of labor?
A) "bloody show"
B) uterine contractions
C) a ruptured amniotic sac
D) complete cervical dilation
69. After childbirth, most couples resume intercourse
A) after the lochia has stopped.
B) six to eight weeks following the delivery.
C) after the placenta has been discharged.
D) when colostrum begins being produced.
70. There is evidence that for many women sexual desire and frequency ____ for several months
following the birth of a baby.
A) increase significantly
B) increase slightly
C) return to the same level they were prior to pregnancy
D) decrease
71. According to several researchers, all of the following were associated with marital sexual
satisfaction except
A) frequency of sexual interaction.
B) willingness to experiment sexually.
C) mutuality in initiating sex.
D) frequency of orgasm among women.
72. Which of the following statements regarding extramarital affairs is false?
A) Research indicates that monogamous couples had higher divorce rates than couples in
which one or both partners had participated in extramarital affairs.
B) Extramarital affairs may have serious consequences for both the participant and his or her
spouse.
C) Extramarital affairs may be a symptom of a disintegrating marriage.
D) Extramarital affairs may cause marital breakups.
73. All of the following are given as reasons for the high divorce rate in the United States except
A) decreasing expectations for marriage to provide sexual and emotional fulfillment.
B) the reduction in the social stigma attached to divorce.
C) increased economic independence of women.
D) the liberalization of divorce laws.
74. Many people compare the emotions they feel after a divorce to
A) the death of a spouse.
B) winning the lottery.
C) losing a job.
D) apathy and indifference.
75. All of the following are discussed as factors influencing sexual activity in later years except
A) physical health.
B) religious background.
C) regularity of sexual expression.
D) sexual activity levels in early adulthood.
76. All of the following are cited as factors contributing to the high incidence of STDs except
A) increasing sexual activity among young people.
B) unreliability of latex condoms.
C) increasing tendency to have multiple sexual partners.
D) use of birth control pills.
77. Which of the following is true of symptoms of gonorrhea in females?
A) The symptoms are very similar to those found in men.
B) About 5% of women will not have any symptoms of gonorrhea.
C) Most women will be unaware of the primary symptoms.
D) Most women will not have any early symptoms.
78. Five days after sexual contact with a new partner, Gary experiences burning during urination
and a bad-smelling, cloudy discharge from his penis. Assuming he does not have NGU, the
suspected disease would most likely be
A) candidiasis.
B) syphilis.
C) trichomoniasis.
D) gonorrhea.
79. Which of the following best describes the progression of syphilis over time if left untreated?
A) painless sore; skin rash; no symptoms; severe systemic illness
B) painful blister; no symptoms; eye infection; sterility
C) vaginal or penile discharge; epididymitis or PID; penile or cervical cancer
D) painless sore; no symptoms; PID or epididymitis; sterility
80. Which of the following statements concerning herpes is false?
A) Oral herpes may be transmitted by kissing.
B) Herpes may be transmitted during asymptomatic periods.
C) Herpes will not pass through latex condoms.
D) Herpes incidence is decreasing.
81. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the treatment of herpes?
A) Adequate rest, relaxation and fluid intake can eliminate the virus over time.
B) AZT is effective in the treatment of herpes.
C) There is no cure for herpes at this time, although Zovirax is helpful in managing it.
D) There is no cure for herpes at this time, although research with alpha interferon looks
promising.
82. Genital warts
A) are associated with various cancers.
B) are caused by a bacterial microorganism.
C) are usually treated with antibiotics.
D) have decreased in incidence in recent years.
83. Selena has problems with chronic vaginitis. Which of the following might be a factor in this?
A) She takes multiple vitamins on a regular basis.
B) She wears all cotton underwear.
C) She is masturbating.
D) She is on birth control pills.
84. The primary symptom of pubic lice is
A) tiny red spots on the genitals.
B) smooth, rounded, waxy-looking bumps on the genitals that are painless.
C) itching in the pubic area.
D) painful genital chancres.
85. Which of the following statements regarding HIV is false?
A) HIV has been found in the vaginal secretions, blood, semen, saliva, urine and breast milk
of infected individuals.
B) Reported cases of heterosexually transmitted HIV have been increasing in recent years.
C) The incidence of AIDS is increasing more rapidly among men than women in the United
States.
D) Symptoms of HIV infection are commonly associated with other types of illnesses.
86. Suggestions for avoiding HIV infection include all but which of the following?
A) Avoid anal intercourse.
B) Avoid sexual intercourse during menstruation.
C) Use oral-genital contact instead of penile-vaginal.
D) Avoid sexual contact with either male or female prostitutes.
87. Which of the following statements about condom use is false?
A) Unroll the condom directly onto the erect penis; do not unroll it first and then put it on.
B) Store condoms in a cool, dry place.
C) Use an oil-based lubricant if additional lubrication is preferred.
D) While using a condom, withdraw the penis after ejaculation while it is still erect, holding
the base of the condom in order to prevent slippage.
88. Which of the following is the best description of a "short-arm inspection?"
A) discreetly examining your partner's genitals prior to genital sexual contact
B) "milking" the penis for a suspicious discharge
C) examining the vulva for the presence of an unusual discharge, unpleasant odor, sores,
blisters, etc.
D) genital self-exam
89. Which of the following individuals would most likely be described as a fetishist?
A) a man who likes to wear white lacy lingerie when he has sex with his wife
B) a man who uses partial asphyxiation as a way to enhance orgasm
C) a man who becomes sexually aroused whenever he sees a woman with large breasts
D) a man who cannot reach orgasm unless he is masturbating with a woman's high-heeled
shoe
90. Which of the following statements concerning sadomasochism is false?
A) A person who engages in sadism most always exhibits masochistic behavior as well.
B) Although sadomasochistic behaviors can be physically dangerous, most people who
engage in sadomasochism have agreed-upon limits.
C) It appears that people with masochistic tendencies may be more common than people
with sadistic tendencies.
D) It is defined as obtaining sexual arousal through giving or receiving physical or mental
pain.
91. Which of the following paraphilias would be most likely to result in death?
A) fetishism
B) coprophilia
C) autoerotic asphyxia
D) transvestism
92. Becoming sexually aroused by watching someone defecate or by defecating on someone is
an example of
A) frotteurism.
B) klismaphilia.
C) coprophilia.
D) urophilia.
93. The clinical term for sexual expression that involves "water sports" or "golden showers" is
A) urophilia.
B) coprophilia.
C) frotteurism.
D) necrophilia.
94. Which of the following would be least likely to explain what may motivate exhibitionistic
behavior?
A) A man looking for affirmation of his masculinity.
B) A man seeking attention.
C) A man who has hostile feelings toward women.
D) A man who was raised in a family or in a culture where public nudity was the social
norm.
95. Joanne is going out to her car after taking a night class, and just as she is about to open the
car door, a man appears who has his pants down to his knees and is masturbating. According to
the text, Joanne's best immediate response prior to notifying campus security would be to
A) scream loudly.
B) stand still and watch for a while.
C) calmly ignore the man.
D) start laughing and tell him to put the silly thing away.
96. All of the following were more frequently reported in sexual abuse survivors except
A) sexual difficulties.
B) drug and alcohol abuse.
C) obesity.
D) placing too much trust in others.
97. The two types of sexual harassment as defined by the guidelines issued by the EEOC are
A) quid pro quo; verbal harassment.
B) quid pro quo; physical harassment.
C) quid pro quo; hostile or offensive environment.
D) hostile or offensive environment; physical harassment.
98. According to the Supreme Court, all of the following are currently criteria for evaluating
obscenity except:
A) The theme of the work as a whole must appeal to prurient interest in sex.
B) The work must be offensive to community standards.
C) The work must be without serious literary, artistic, political, or scientific value.
D) The work must cause corrupt or depraved behavior in at least some of the viewers.
99. The 1970 United States Commission on Obscenity and Pornography concluded that sexually
explicit materials had what effect on behavior?
A) There were significant, long-lasting changes in behavior.
B) There were no significant, long-lasting changes in behavior.
C) There were changes in behavior, but they were unable to be clearly measured.
D) Behavioral patterns were highly variable and inconsistent.
100. Which of the following statements best explains the correlation between access to
pornography and sexual violence?
A) In areas where pornography is easily accessible sexual crimes are high.
B) There is no significant correlation one way or the other.
C) In areas where pornography is easily accessible sexual crimes tend to be lower.
D) There is no data supporting a correlational relationship between these two variables.